AAKASH TEST SERIES Aiats 2

07.12.2014

Test No. 2

Test No. 2

Physics

Laws of Motion; Work, Energy and Power; Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Body

Chemistry

States of Matter: Gases and Liquid, Thermodynamics, Equilibrium, Redox Reactions

Biology

Salient Features and Classification of Plants into Major Groups-Algae, Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms and Angiosperms: AngiospermsClassification up to Class, Characteristic Features and Examples, Morphology of Flowering Plants: Root, Stem, Leaf, Inflorescence-Racemose and Cymose, Flower, Fruit and Seed, Structual Organisation in Animals : Animal tissues; Morphology, Anatomy and Functions of Different Systems (Digestive, Circulatory, Respiratory, Nervous and Reproductive) of Animals (Cockroach). (Brief Account only), Chemical Constituents of Living Cells: Biomolecules Structure and Function of Proteins, Carbodydrates, Lipids, Nucleic Acids; Enzymes-Types, Properties, Enzyme Action.

Test - 2 (Code A)

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

T EST – 2

Time : 3 Hrs.

MM : 720

[ PHYSICS] Choose the correct answer : 1.

A block of mass m kg is connected to string on an inclined plane. Tension in string is (g = 10 m/s2)

4.

If a body follows Newton’s first law of motion, then incorrect statement is (1) State of rest remains constant (2) State of motion remains constant

m

(3) It cannot change the shape of body

 = 0.8

(4) Both (2) & (3)

30º

5. (1)

mg 2

(1) In Newton’s third law forces exist in pairs

(2) Zero

(2) First law can be derived from second law

(3) 0.69mg 2.

(4) mg

(3) Second law is defined for unbalanced force

Tension in the massless string joining A and B is

20 N

Which statement is incorrect?

A

B

5 kg

5 kg

20 N

Frictionless

(4) Newton’s first law is applicable only for inertial frame of reference 6.

Variation of force F acting on a body with time t is as shown in figure. Change in momentum of the body in the interval 4 s to 8 s is

(1) Zero

20

(2) 40 N

F (N)

(3) 20 N (4) 10 N 3.

A bullet fired against a glass window pane makes a hole in it but the glass pane is not cracked due to

0

(1) Inertia of motion

(1) 10 kg ms–1

(2) Inertia of rest

(2) 5 kg ms–1

(3) Inertia of direction

(3) 100 kg ms–1

(4) Due to momentum of bullet

(4) 20 kg ms–1

4

8

t (s)

Space for Rough Work

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015 7.

A particle of mass 0.5 kg is moving in circular path of radius 1 m with constant speed 10 m/s. The magnitude of average force, when particle travels from A to B will be

v

B v /3

(1)

3v 2 2r

3v 2 (3) r

8.

9.

(2)

v2 2r

6v 2 (4) 2r

A 6 kg bomb at rest explodes into three equal pieces P, Q and R. If P and Q fly with equal speeds 20 m/s making an angle of 60° with each other. The angle between the direction of P and R is

 (2) 2

3 (3) 4

5 (4) 6

A constant retardation stops a block moving with speed 30 km/h upto a distance x. If retardation of half magnitude is applied on the same block moving with speed 60 km/h, then stopping distance is (1) 4x

(2) 2x

(3) x

(4) 8x

11. A rocket is set to fire from ground so that gases are ejected from it at 5 kg/s at 3 km/s. The accelerating force on the rocket is (1) 10 N

(2) 15 kN

(3) 8 N

(4) 15 N

12. A man is standing on a weighing machine in a lift. The lift is going up with an acceleration of 5 m/s2. Then the apparent weight shown by the weighing machine is 60 kg wt. If lift is going upward with constant velocity then the reading shown by the machine is

A

 (1) 4

Test - 2 (Code A)

10. Maximum constant speed with which a car can move on a flat horizontal circular road of radius of curvature 10 m and coefficient of static friction 0.2 is (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 400 kg wt

(2) 20 kg wt

(3) 40 kg wt

(4) 80 kg wt

13. All surfaces shown in the figure are frictionless. A block of mass 5 kg is kept on a wedge of mass 20 kg. If the block remains stationary w.r.t. wedge, the magnitude of force F is (g = 10 m/s2)

5 kg F

20 kg 45°

(1) 250 N

(2) 200 N

(3) 50 N

(4) 20 N

14. A stream of water flowing horizontally with a speed of 10 m/s gushes out of a tube of cross-section area 10 cm2 and hits a vertical wall nearby. The force exerted on the wall by the impact of water. [assuming it rebounds] (1) 500 N

(2) 20 N

(3) 100 N

(4) 200 N

15. Two billiard balls each of mass m kg moving in opposite directions with speed 5 m/s collide and rebound with the same speed. The magnitude of impulse imparted to each ball due to other is

(1) 4.4 m/s

(2) 8 m/s

(1) 5m kg ms–1

(2) 10m kg ms–1

(3) 0.44 m/s

(4) 4 m/s

(3) 20m kg ms–1

(4) Zero


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Test - 2 (Code A)


16. A rain drop of mass 0.5 g falling from a height 2 km. It hits the ground with a speed of 40 m/s. Work done by the resistive force is (g = 10 m/s2) (1) 9 J

(2) –0.96 J

(3) –9.6 J

(4) –10 J

U1  U2 then U  U is 2 1

17. A body comes to a stop by skidding in 5 m. During this process, the force on the body due to the road is 100 N and is opposed to the motion. Work done on the body by the road is (1) 500 J

(2) –500 J

(3) Zero

(4) 50 J

18. A body of mass 1 kg is moving a plane. At an instant force on the body is (2iˆ  jˆ) N and velocity of body is (3iˆ  3 jˆ) m/s. The instantaneous rate of change in kinetic energy is (1) 30 J/s

21. Two light springs have force constants 3k and 2k. Each spring is extended by same force. If their elastic potential energies are U1 and U2 respectively,

(1)

5 3

(2)

(3)

2 3

(4) 5

22. A block of mass m is placed at the floor of elevator. The elevator starts from rest and accelerating upward with uniform acceleration a. The work done by normal reaction on the block during first 4 second is

(2) 9 J/s

a

(3) 90 J/s

(4) 3 J/s 19. A particle is displaced by a force F  ( y iˆ  x ˆj ) and it moves from (1, 2) to (3, 4). The work done by this force is (1) 10 J

(2) 12 J

(3) 36 J

(4) 20 J

20. A simple pendulum is taken from position A to B. The work done by gravity on block m is

60°

l

m

g⎤ 2⎡ (1) 8ma ⎢1  ⎥ ⎣ a⎦

(3) 8ma2

m B m A mgl 2

(2)

mgl 2

(3) mgl

(4)

 3 mgl 2

(1)

3 2

1

(2)

(4)

16ma 2 ⎡ g⎤ ⎢1  a ⎥ ⎣ ⎦

1

8ma 2 ⎡ g⎤ ⎢1  a ⎥ ⎣ ⎦

1

23. A position dependent force F = (4 – x) N acts on a body of mass 1 kg and displaces it from x = 0 to x = 1 m. The work done is (1) 3 J

(2) 5 J

(3) 3.5 J

(4) 7 J


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Test - 2 (Code A)

24. A particle is dropped from some height. Taking g to be constant everywhere, kinetic energy K of the particle with respect to time t is given as

29. Potential energy and displacement curve is given in diagram.

U (J)

K

K

20

(2)

(1)

t

t

K

K

(3)

t

25. A body is dropped from a certain height. When it loses 20 J of its potential energy it acquires a velocity 2 m/s. The mass of a body is (1) 2 kg

(2) 20 kg

(3) 5 kg

(4) 10 kg

26. The potential energy of a spring when stretched through a distance 2 cm is 10 J. The amount of work that must be done on this spring to stretch it through an additional distance 2 cm will be (1) 30 J

(2) 10 J

(3) Zero

(4) –30 J

27. A truck of mass 15,000 kg moves up an inclined plane of slope 1 in 100 at a speed of 18 kmph. The power of the truck is (g = 10 ms–2) (1) 7.5 kW

(2) 75 kW

(3) 750 kW

(4) 7500 kW

(3) 6mg

(2) 10 N

(3) –10 N

(4) Zero

30. The potential energy of a particle in conservative field is given as U 

p 2



q , where p and q are r

r constant. The value of r at equilibrium is

(1)

2q p

(2)

q p

(3)

2p q

(4)

2p q

31. Let  be a angular velocity and v be a linear velocity of a body rotating on circular path, then the value of ·v is (1) Zero

(2) –1

(3) 1

(4) Positive

(1)

7 R 5

(2)

5 R 3

(3)

2 R 5

(4)

2 R 3


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x (m)

6

(1) 2.5 N

(2) 8mg (4) 3mg

4

32. The radius of gyration of hollow sphere of radius R w.r.t. tangential axis on it, is

28. A body of mass m is revolving in vertical circle connected with a string. If ratio of tension in the string at lowest and highest point is 4, then tension in the string at highest point is (1) 2mg

2

The force at x = 5 m is

(4)

t

0

Test - 2 (Code A)


33. The moment of inertia of a annular disc of mass M, inner diameter R1 and outer diameter R2 about the perpendicular axis through the centre is

M 2 [R1  R22 ] (1) 2 (3)

M 2 [R1  R22 ] 8

(3) Translational & rotational equilibrium (4) Neither translational nor rotational equilibrium

M 2 [R1  R22 ] 8

34. An engine develops 1 kW power when rotating at a speed of 600 rpm. The average torque of engine is (1) 15.94 Nm

(2) 15.91 Nm

(3) 1.591 Nm

(4) 15.92 Nm

(1) Translational equilibrium (2) Rotational equilibrium

M 2 (2) [R1  R22 ] 2 (4)

39. If couple acts on a rigid body, then a rigid body is in

40. A circular ring of mass M and radius R is rolling without slipping with angular speed  on a horizontal plane as given in figure. The magnitude of angular momentum of ring about an axis which is perpendicular to the plane of paper and pass through a origin O is

y

35. If angular momentum of a rigid body is increased by 50%. The percentage change in rotational kinetic energy is [Assuming constant moment of inertia] (1) 125%

(2) 225%

(3) 150%

(4) 100%

36. A particle of mass m1 is projected vertically upward and m 2 is projected downward. Then the acceleration of centre of mass of the system is (1) g (3) (m1 + m2)g

 x

O (1)

MR 2  2

(2) MR 2

(2) 2g (4)

(3) 2MR 2

g (m1  m2 )

37. The maximum angle of inclination of inclined plane

1⎞ ⎛ with horizontal for pure rolling of a ring is ⎜ if s  ⎟ 2 ⎝ ⎠  (1) 2

(2) tan–1(2)

 (3) 4

1⎞ (4) tan ⎜ ⎟ ⎝2⎠

38. The fraction of total energy of spherical shell in translational motion is (2) 60%

(3) 50%

(4) 30%

3MR 2  2

41. If coefficient of friction between objects and the incline are same but not sufficient for pure rolling. Minimum time will be taken in reaching the bottom by (1) Hollow sphere

(2) Solid sphere

(3) Ring

(4) All take same time

42. A circular disc is in pure rolling. The distance covered by its centre of mass in one revolution is S0. Then displacement covered by topmost point of disc is

1 ⎛

(1) 40%

(4)

(1) S0 (3)

3 S0

(2)

S0 2

(4) 2S0


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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015 43. A hollow cylinder of mass 20 kg and radius 0.5 m is free to rotate about its fixed horizontal geometrical axis. A massless string is wound round the cylinder with one end attached to it and other end is pulled. Tension in the string required to produce an angular acceleration of 1 revolutions s–2 is (1) 10 N

(2) 20 N

(3) 20 N

(4) 10 N

44. A disc is in pure rolling on a stationary surface with constant angular velocity. At any instant for the lower most point of the disc

R

Test - 2 (Code A) (1) vp = 0, ap = 0 (3) v p  v , ap 

v2 R

(2) vp = v, ap = 0 (4) v p  0, ap 

v2 R

dL 45. If   , conservation of angular momentum dt

explains, (1) If   0 , then L  0 (2) If   0 , then L  constant

V

(3) If   0 , then p  0

P (for velocity v and acceleration a)

(4) If   0 , then p  constant

[ CHEMISTRY ] 46. The average kinetic energy (in joules) of the molecules in 4 g of CH4 at 27° is (1) 934.87 J

(2) 93.487 J

(3) 837.5 J

(4) 924.3 J

48. I, II and III are three isotherms respectively at T1, T2 and T3 temperature. The temperature will be in order

47. Consider the arrangement of bulbs shown below.

P

N2

He

Ne

1L 600 mmHg

1L 200 mmHg

0.5 L 400 mmHg

II III

What is the pressure of the system when all the stopcocks are opened?

V

(1) 420 mmHg

(1) T1 = T2 = T3

(2) 400 mmHg

(2) T1 > T2 = T3

(3) 580 mmHg

(3) T1 < T2 < T3

(4) 640 mmHg

(4) T1 > T2 > T3 Space for Rough Work

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I

Test - 2 (Code A)


49. The temperature at which a real gas obeys the ideal gas laws over a fairly wide range of pressure is

54. For a particular reaction, H° = –35 kJ and S° = –110 JK–1mol–1. The reaction is

(1) Inversion temperature

(1) Spontaneous at all temperatures

(2) Boyle’s temperature

(2) Non-spontaneous at all temperatures

(3) Critical temperature

(3) Spontaneous at temperature below 45.18°C

(4) Reduced temperature

(4) Spontaneous at temperature above 45.18°C

50. A 2 litre flask contains 60 g O2 gas at 27°C. What mass of O2 must be released to reduce the pressure in the flask to 12 atm? (1) 30.8 g

(2) 34.2 g

(3) 28.8 g

(4) 20 g

(1) Pressure, entropy (2) Volume, density

51. When an ideal gas expands in vacuum, work done is (R = gas constant) (1) R

(2) 2R

(3) 4R

(4) Zero

55. In which of the following pairs, both properties are intensive?

52. Heat absorbed by a system in going through a cyclic process shown in figure is

(3) Concentration, specific heat capacity (4) Internal energy, density 56. Two balloons A and B are taken below at temperature 400 K. Maximum capacity of balloon A and balloon B are 800 mL and 1200 mL respectively. When the temperature of balloons are raised, which one will burst first?

V (in L) 50

600 mL A

1000 mL B

(1) Balloon A

10

(2) Balloon B

10

50

P (in kPa)

(1) 400 J

(2) 200 J

(3) 100 J

(4) 500 J

(4) Balloon will not burst

53. The entropy change in an adiabatic process is (1) Zero

(3) Both balloons simultaneously

57. The compressibility factor for a gas under critical condition is 8 3

(2)

3 8

(3) 1

(4)

1 5

(1)

(2) Always positive (3) Always negative (4) May be positive or negative


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Pressure (P)

58. The pressure-volume behaviour of various thermodynamic processes is shown in graphs.

61. For NH4HS(s) NH3 (g)  H2S(g),

if K p = 81 atm 2 , then equilibrium pressure of mixture is

A B C

D

Test - 2 (Code A)

(1) 9 atm

(2) 18 atm

(3) 81 atm

(4) 27 atm

62. Which of the following groups of gases will have same rate of diffusion under identical physical conditions?

Volume (V) A, B, C and D represent which of the following thermodynamic processes respectively?

(1) CO, CO2, C3O2

(2) CO, CO2, C2H4

(3) C3H8, CO2, N2O

(4) CO2, C2H4, N2O

(2) Isochoric, isothermal, adiabatic & isobaric

63. What is the value of compressibility factor (Z) for 0.04 mole of real gas at 0.2 atm pressure? Assuming the size of the gas molecule (b) is negligible

(3) Isobaric, adiabatic, isothermal & isochoric

(Given a = 104 atm L2 mol–2, RT = 120 L atm mol–1)

(1) Isobaric, isothermal, adiabatic & isochoric

(4) Isobaric, isothermal, isochoric & adiabatic 59. Which of the following relationships is not true? (1) Average speed =

8RT M

(1)

2 3

(2)

1 5

(3)

1 6

(4)

1 4

64. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (2) PV 

1 mNu2 3

(1) Both surface tension and viscosity decrease with increase of temperature (2) Glass is a highly viscous liquid

Pb (3) Z  1  , at high pressure RT

(4) Average kinetic energy of the gas =

(3) The unit of surface tension is Nm–1 in the S.I. system KT 2

60. 2.24 litre of an ideal gas at STP requires 6 cal to raise the temperature by 15°C at constant volume. Calculate the value of Cp (in cal K–1mol–1).

(4) All of these 65. A gaseous mixture was prepared by taking equal moles of CO and He at same temperature and pressure. If the total pressure of the mixture was found 1 atm, the partial pressure of He in the mixture is

(1) 4

(2) 6

(1) 0.2 atm

(2) 1 atm

(3) 8

(4) 12

(3) 0.7 atm

(4) 0.5 atm


8/24

Test - 2 (Code A)


66. The equilibrium constant in terms of pressure of a reaction, A  B C  D is 200. If volume of reaction flask is trippled, then the equilibrium constant in terms of concentration is (1) 200

(2) 400

(3) 800

(4) 100

72. The conjugate acid and base of HO2 respectively (1) O2 and H2O2 2

(3) H2O2 and O2

67. In the manufacturing of H2SO4 with the following equilibrium, 2SO2 (g)  O2 (g) 2SO3 (g) + q,

reaction proceeds in the forward direciton if

(2) O 2 and O 2 2

2

(4) O2 and O2

73. HX is a weak acid (Ka = 10–5). It forms a salt NaX on reacting with NaOH. The degree of hydrolysis of 10–3 M NaX is (1) 0.01%

(2) 0.1%

(3) 0.001%

(4) 0.05%

74. In a buffer solution containing equal concentration – – –9 of B and HB, the Kb for B is 10 . The pH of buffer solution is

(1) Temperature is increased (2) SO3 is added (3) Some O2 is removed

(1) 4

(2) 9

(4) Pressure is increased

(3) 5

(4) 6

68. 0.1 M CH3COOH is 0.1% ionised, then its pH is (1) 1.5

(2) 4

(3) 5

(4) 3

(3) Sodium phthalate

(1) NaCl + AgCl

(2) H2S + HCl

(3) NH4OH + NH4Cl

(4) CH3COOH + KOH 10–11

at temperature 30°C, 70. Ksp of Ca(OH)2 is 1.8 × then calculate solubility of Ca(OH)2 at pH = 10. (1) 4.5 × (3) 1.8 ×

10–5

M M

75. The compound whose 0.1 M solution is basic, is (1) Ammonium acetate (2) Ammonium chloride

69. Which is not the example of common ion effect?

10–4

are

(2) 1.8 ×

10–3

M

(4) 4.5 ×

10–5

M

71. At a temperature under high pressure

(4) CH3COONa + HCl

76. The equivalent weight of CO 2 in the following reaction is Sunlight 6CO2  12H2O   C6H12O6  6O2  6H2O

(1) 22

(2) 11

(3) 24

(4)

44 24

77. Which is intramolecular redox reaction?

K W (H2O)  1012

(1) (NH4)2Cr2O7  N2 + Cr2O3 + H2O

A solution of pH = 6.4, under these conditions is said to be

(2) 2KClO3  2KCl + 3O2

(1) Acidic

(2) Basic

(3) NH4NO2  N2 + 2H2O

(3) Neutral

(4) Amphoteric

(4) All of these Space for Rough Work

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015 78. 2 mole of FeC2O4 is oxidized by ‘x’ moles of MnO4 in acidic medium, then the value of ‘x’ is 3 (1) 5

(3)

(4)

5 6

79. Which one of the following is not a buffer solution? (1) H3BO3 and Na2B4O7 (2) CH3COONa and CH3COOH

80.

OH(g)  H(g)  O(g),

(3)

x1  2x 2 2

H  x 2 cal

x1  x 2 (2) 2

(4)

2 3

(3) 0

(4)

1 3

84. At 25°C and 1 atm, which one of the following has non-zero standard enthalpy of formation (Hf°)? (1) Cl2(g)

(2) Br2(g)

(3) C (graphite)

(4) Red phosphorus

(1)

M 10

(2)

M 5

(3)

3M 5

(4)

5M 3

H  x1 cal

On these value, bond energy of (O–H) bond is (in cal) (1) x1  x 2

(2)

concentrated NaOH. Equivalent weight of Cl2 will be

C6H5NH3 Cl

H2O(g)  H(g)  OH(g),

3 5

85. Cl 2 changes to Cl – and ClO3 in hot and

(3) H2CO3 and KHCO3 (4) HCl and

83. In the brown ring complex [Fe(H2O)5NO]2+, ratio of oxidation number of ‘Fe’ and nitrogen is (1)

1 (2) 5

6 5

Test - 2 (Code A)

2x1  x 2 2

86. The oxidation number of sodium in Sodium-Mercury amalgam is (1) Zero

(2) +1

(3) –1

(4)

1 2

87. Consider the following equilibria at 300 K and 400 K with their equilibrium constants

81. Which has the minimum oxidation number of the underlined atom in the following?

I:

A(g) 3B(g)

(1) Cr O5

(2) K 3 Cr O8

II : P(g) Q(g)

(3) Cr O2Cl2

(4) K 2 Cr 2 O7

Then,

82. The difference in the oxidation numbers of the two types of sulphur atoms in Na2S4O6 is

300 K

400 K

K1  12

K2  6

K1  4

K2  6

(1) I is endothermic, II is exothermic (2) I is exothermic, II is endothermic

(1) 5

(2) 6

(3) I & II both are exothermic

(3) 4

(4) 3

(4) I & II both are endothermic Space for Rough Work

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Test - 2 (Code A)


88. In which case S is positive?

90. In the dissociation of A2(g) into 2A(g), degree of

(1) H2O (l)  H2O (s)

D according to which of d the following graph? (D = vapour density before dissociation and d = vapour density after dissociation)

dissociation () varies with

(2) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g)  2NH3 (g) (3) H2 (g)  2H (g)



(4) H2 (g) + I2 (g)  2HI (g)



89. Which is not true about free energy change (G)? (2)

(1)

(1) G  G  2.303RT logQ



(2) G is an extensive property

D/d



D/d

(3) G  –2.303RT logK, if G = 0 (3) (4) G  2.303RT logK, if G° = 0

(4)

D/d

D/d

[ BIOLOGY ] 91. Read the following statements w.r.t. artificial systems of classification. (a) Based on morphology of chromosomes (b) Fossil evidence is essential to support the system (c) They separated the closely related species. (d) They gave equal weightage to vegetative and sexual characters (1) All statements are correct

(1) Sulphated polysaccharides in cell wall (2) Belong to the group of kelps (3) Biflagellated antherozoids (4) They occur at great depths in oceans 93. Sexual reproduction is oogamous and accompanied by “complex post fertilisation developments” in a group of algae in which

(2) Statements (c) & (d) are correct

(1) Spores and gametes are non-motile

(3) Only (a) is correct

(2) Dominance of chlorophyll a and b is observed

(4) All statements are incorrect

(3) Pyrenoids act as storage body commonly

92. Algae, given in the following diagram, is characterised by

(4) Vegetative cells are covered by gelatinous coating of algin 94. Find out the common character between algae and bryophytes.

Branches Axis

(1) External fertilisation (2) Uncellular jacketed sex organs (3) Diploid main plant body (4) Diploid sporophytes Space for Rough Work

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015 95. Sporophyte is multicellular and not free living in (1) Vascular amphibians of plant kingdom (2) Non-vascular amphibians of plant kingdom

Test - 2 (Code A) 100. In gymnosperms, (1) Roots may be associated with fungus to form coralloid roots (2) Roots may be associated with fungus to form mycorrhiza

(3) Phanerogams without ovary (4) Most algae and some bryophytes

(3) Vessels are usually found in xylem

96. Find correct statement w.r.t. bryophytes.

(4) Adventitious roots are associated with N2 fixing bacteria to form coralloid roots

(1) Less differentiated than that of algae (2) They in general are of great economic importance

101. How many of the given statements are concerned with angiosperms?

(3) Zygote do not undergo meiosis immediately

(i) Secondary growth

(4) Rhizoids are unicellular or multicellular meant for storage of food

(ii) Fertilisation occurs twice in male gametophyte

97. The first terrestrial plants possessing vascular bundles are/have

(iii) Heterosporous and meroblastic embryo development (iv) PEN formation

(1) Found in dry, damp and shady places

(v) Male gametophyte with least number of cells

(2) Frequently grown as ornamentals (3) Only megaphyllous (4) All heterosporous

(1) Four

(2) Three

(3) Five

(4) Two

102. Find odd one w.r.t. life cycle pattern.

98. Choose odd one w.r.t. Selaginella. (1) Strobili or cone

(1) Cycas

(2) Microsporophyll

(2) Ficus

(3) Multicilliated sperms

(3) Fucus

(4) Heterosporous

(4) Funaria 103. Identify the mis-matched pair w.r.t. algae

99. Find the incorrect statement. (1) Male and female cones are borne on different plants in Cycas (2) Angiosperms have highly reduced gametophytic generation (3) Male gametes are carried by pollen tube in Pinus (4) Formation of endosperm in gymnosperms is a pre-fertilisation event

Algae

Number of flagella & position of insertions

(1)

Spirogyra

Chlorophyll a, b

Aflagellate

(2)

Laminaria

Chlorophyll a, c

2, unequal, lateral

(3)

Dictyota

Chlorophyll a, c

2, equal, lateral

(4)

Porphyra

Chlorophyll a, d

Aflagellate


12/24

Pigments

Test - 2 (Code A)


104. Which of the following event is a precursor to the seed habit considered an important step in evolution?

107. In sexual reproduction, the sex organs antheridia and archegonia are produced on the leafy shoots in (1) Riccia, Funaria

(1) Development of the zygotes into young embryos within the monoecious gametophytes

(2) Selaginella, Marchantia

(2) Development of zygotes into young sporophytes within the male gametophytes

(4) Funaria, Sphagnum

(3) Development of zygotes into zygospores within the female gametophytes (4) Development of the zygotes into young embryos within the female gametophytes 105. Read the following statements:

(3) Marchantia, Polytrichum 108. Spread of pteridophytes is limited and restricted to narrow geographical regions because (1) They need water for triple fusion (2) Gametophytes require cool, damp and shady places to grow (3) They bind the soil along hilly slopes

(i) Sporophyte of Riccia possesses capsule only. (ii) Red algae can trap the blue-green portion of light. (iii) Liverworts have multicellular rhizoids and protonema stage in life cycle. (iv) Branched stem is not a characteristic of all gymnosperms. (1) All statements are correct

(4) More than one option is correct 109. Dorsiventral plant body, closely appressed to the substrate producing green, multicellular asexual buds is seen in (1) Chara

(2) Marchantia

(3) Spirogyra

(4) Funaria

110. Gametophyte with photosynthetic tissues is found/ developed in the life cycle of a. Algae

(2) Only one statement is incorrect

b. Bryophytes

(3) Two statements are incorrect

c.

(4) Three statements are incorrect

Pteridophytes

d. Gymnosperms

106. Choose the correct match.

e. Angiosperms

(1) Fucus - Anisogamy

(1) c + d

(2) b + c + e

(2) Zoochlorella and Trichophilous - Endozoic and epizoic algae respectively

(3) a + b + c

(4) a + c + d

(3) First stage of moss gametophyte develops from the lateral bud of protonema which bearing spirally arranged leaves (4) Gelidium - Development of the zygotes into young embryo takes place within the female gametophyte

111. In Asparagus, roots get modified for (1) Respiration and mechanical support (2) Storage of food (3) Synthesis of PGRs and respiration (4) Anchorage of plant, storage reserve food material and respiration


13/24

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015 112. In gymnospermic plants, female gametophyte (1) Bears 2 or more archegonia and male sex organs (2) Is 7-celled and 8-nucleated (3) Is permanently retained within megasporangium (4) Is released from megasporangium at 13-celled stage

Test - 2 (Code A) 118. Find out the incorrect match (1) Strawberry

–

Aggregate fruit

(2) Datura

–

Caryopsis fruit

(3) Tomato

–

Berry fruit

(4) Ficus

–

Composite fruit

119. Match the Column-I and II w.r.t. seed of Zea mays

113. Respiratory roots in the plants growing in swampy areas, (1) Grow vertically upwards (2) Provide support and oxygen (3) Arise from lower nodes of the stem (4) Store more nutrition for such conditions

Column-I

Column-II

a. Coleorhiza

(i) Plumule

b. Proteinaceous endosperm

(ii) Scutellum

c.

(iii) Aleurone grains

Coleoptile

d. Large, shield shaped(iv) Radicle cotyledon

114. In Opuntia, stem is modified into (1) Phyllode

(v) Epiblast

(2) Spines (3) Green leaf like structure

(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(v)

(4) Fleshy and non-photosynthetic structure

(2) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)

115. Axillary buds develop into slender and spirally coiled structure and help plants to climb as in (1) Euphorbia

(2) Jasmine

(3) Watermelon

(4) Bougainvillea

(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(v) 120. Flower of chilli is (1) Actinomorphic, hypogynous

116. Inflorescence of Ficus plant possess (1) Male flowers situated at the bottom of receptacle (2) Presence of gall flowers between the male and female flowers (3) Female flowers situated at the top near ostiole (4) Dichasial cyme ending in monochasial cyme 117. Both adhesion and cohesion conditions of stamens are found in the flowers of

(2) Zygomorphic, epigynous (3) Actinomorphic, epigynous (4) Zygomorphic, hypogynous 121. Margins of sepals or petals overlap one another but not in any particular direction in (1) Cassia and cotton (2) Cassia and Gulmohur

(1) Indigofera

(2) Brassica

(3) China rose and Lady’s finger

(3) Helianthus

(4) Triticum

(4) Calotropis and China rose Space for Rough Work

14/24

Test - 2 (Code A)


122. Choose the correct statement: (1) Pentamerous flowers are found in Brassica campestris (2) Gynoecium in Petunia is G (2) with axile placentation (3) Parthenocarpic fruits develop after fertilisation of ovary (4) In Argemone, false septum makes ovary unilocular and single seeded

(1) (2) (3) (4)

B

(2) Chrysanthemum (3) Jasmine (4) Pineapple

(1) Become winged in lemon

C

(2) Short lived in Australian Acacia

Salvia

Variable length of Polyadelphous filament of stamens

Tomato

Carpels are fused

Calotropis A single leaf arise at each node in alternate manner Cassia

(1) Banana

127. Select the odd one w.r.t. Petiole.

123. Choose the correct option. A

126. The lateral branches originate from the underground portion of main stem, grow horizontally beneath the soil and then come out obliquely upward giving rise to leafy shoots in all of the following, except

Axile placentation Twisted aestivation

Flower can be divided Imbricate aestivation into two similar halves by any plane passing through the centre

124. Given below is a diagram representing position of floral parts on thalamus. It is found in the flowers of

(3) Help to hold blade to light (4) Bud is present in the axil of petiole 128. Which of the following information is not provided by floral diagram of family solanaceae? (1) Aestivation of petals (2) Adhesion of stamens (3) Position of ovary (4) Number of locules in ovary 129. The fruit of mango and coconut are different in how many characteristics? (a) Presence of differentiated pericarp (b) Edible part (c) Number of seed

(1) Brinjal

(2) Rose

(3) Datura

(4) Cucumber

(d) Nature of endocarp

125. Plant of carrot possess (1) Modified stem with fibrous roots (2) Modified root for storage with reduced stem

(1) Two

(2) Three

(3) Four

(4) One

130. Find odd one w.r.t. ex-albuminous seed.

(3) Modified root with node and internodes

(1) Bean

(2) Gram

(4) Modified stem for storage of food

(3) Pea

(4) Maize


15/24

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015 131. How many of the following plants have diadelphous and epipetalous conditions respectively? Lupin, Tulip, Aloe, Lily, Chilli, Gloriosa, Petunia, Mulethi (1) 2, 6

(2) 3, 2

(3) 2, 2

(4) 4, 2

Test - 2 (Code A) 135. Mark the mis-matched pair: (1) Sequoia

–

Direct pollination

(2) Alternate phyllotaxy –

China rose

(3) Micropyle

–

Small pore in seed as well as ovule

(4) Volvox

–

Pyrenoids in cytoplasm

132. In which family sepals are persistent in fruits? (1) Brassicaceae

(2) Solanaceae

(3) Liliaceae

(4) Poaceae

133. Study of DNA sequences and crystals for resolving confusions in classification, is used in

136. Consider the following four types of epithelium A, B, C and D. Find out the correct option regarding the type of given epithelium matched with its location with one exception in it.

(1) Cytotaxonomy (2) Chemotaxonomy (3) Morphotaxonomy

(A)

(4) Karyotaxonomy

(B)

134. Choose the odd one (w.r.t. life cycle patterns). (1) Free living gametophytes in A. Algae B. Bryophyte C. Pteridophyte

(C)

(2) Free living sporophyte in

(D)

A. Pteridophyte b. Gymnosperm C. Angiosperm (3) Parasitic gametophytes in

Epithelium

(4) Parasitic sporophytes in A. Monocots

A

Walls of blood vessels, air Mesothelium sacs of lungs, mesothelium

(2)

B

Proximal convoluted tubule Seminiferous of nephron, seminiferous tubules of tubules of testes, ducts of testes glands

(3)

C

Lining of stomach, gastric Germinal glands, intestinal glands, epithelium germinal epithelium

(4)

D

Bronchioles, fall opi an Ventricles of brain tubes, ventricles of brain

B. Pteridophytes Space for Rough Work

16/24

Exception

(1)

A. Gymnosperm B. Angiosperm

Location

Test - 2 (Code A)


137. Blood supply is absent in (1) Bone

(2) Adipose tissue

(3) Skeletal muscle

(4) Olfactory epithelium

138. How many of the followging statements is/are correct regarding the given type of epithelial tissue?

141. One of the following is a location of most abundant cartilage in the human body. (1) Tracheal rings and costal cartilages (2) Intervertebral disc and pubic symphysis (3) Pinna and tip of nose (4) Pectoral girdle and pelvic girdle 142. Which of the following is a feature of mammalian bone only?

(a) It is keratinised stratified squamous epithelium lining buccal cavity, pharynx, tongue, oesophagus etc. (b) It is non-keratinised stratified squamous epithelium which occurs in epidermis of skin of land vertebrates (c) The deepest layer of cells are squamous resting upon basement membrane

(1) Matrix containing salts of calcium and magnesium (2) Lamellae (3) Harversian canals (4) Osteocytes 143. Dense irregular connective tissue differs from dense regular connective tissue in (1) Absence of collagen fibres

(d) It has limited role in secretion and absorption and the main function is to provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses

(2) Absence of fibroblast

(1) One

(2) Two

(4) Orientation of collagen fibres

(3) Three

(4) Four

139. Which type of cell junction is communicating junction in animals and helps neighbouring cells to communicate with one another, by connecting their cytoplasm? (1) Desmosomes

(2) Gap junction

(3) Tight junction

(4) Adhering junction

(3) Absence of ground substance

144. In which of the following smooth muscle fibres contract as separate units? (1) Muscle of gastro-intestinal tract (2) Arrector pili muscle of skin dermis (3) Iris muscles in eyes (4) More than one option is correct

140. Out of fibroblast, macrophages, few adipocytes, plasma cells, mast cells, chondrin, collagen fibres, elastic fibres, modified polysaccharides, hyaluronic acid, chondrocytes, ossein, how many are found in areolar connective tissue?

145. The type of neuron in which first a single process arises from the cyton and then it divides into an axon and a dendrite is found in (1) Retina of eyes (2) Early embryos of invertebrates and vertebrates

(1) Eight

(2) Six

(3) Dorsal root ganglia of spinal nerves

(3) Nine

(4) Seven

(4) Grey matter of brain and spinal cord Space for Rough Work

17/24

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015 146. Which of the following given tissue/gland is incorrectly matched with its location in human body?

Column - I

Unicellular gland Alimentary canal, trachea

(2)

Adipose tissue Beneath the skin, around kidneys and eye ball

(4)

149. Which of the following is an incorrect distinction between the three types of muscular tissue shown as A, B and C?

Column - II

(1)

(3)

Test - 2 (Code A)

Dense regular Tendon, ligament

Dense irregular Skin

(A)

(B)

(C) A

(1) (2) (3) (4)

B

C

Shape of muscle fibre

Cylindrical Spindle shaped

Cylindrical

Striations

Present

Absent

Present

Branching in muscle fibre

Present

Absent

Present

Intercalated discs

Absent

Absent

Present

150. Consider the following diagram of neural tissue with certain labelled parts A, B, C and D. Find out the incorrect statement. A B

147. A non-myelinated nerve fibre differs from myelinated nerve fibre in/possessing

C

(1) Schwann cell

D

(2) Myelin sheath

(1) In a multipolar neuron, number of C is more than number of A

(3) Neurilemma (4) Slower impulse conduction 148. Anisotropic band in a skeletal muscle fibre (1) Is unit of muscle contraction (2) Contains both actin and myosin (3) Contains only myosin (4) Contains only actin

(2) A and B contain Nissl granules which are absent in C (3) D make up more than one-half the volume of neural tissue in our body (4) Usually the direction of impulse transmission is from C towards A


18/24

Test - 2 (Code A)


151. Find out the correct set of secondary metabolites which are toxins. (1) Vinblastin, Curcumin

154. Which of the following is a correct description of the organic compound shown? (1) HOCH2 O

(2) Abrin, Ricin (3) Morphine, Codeine

OH

OH

(4) Monoterpenes, Diterpenes 152. Following diagram represents primary structure of a protein with four labelled amino acids A, B, C and D. Select the correct statement.

O CH2 O

O

(2)

R2 C O CH CH2 O

N C

OH COOH CH2

R1

C O

P O CH2 OH

CH3

(3)

CH2

Derived from 20 carbon saturated fatty acid, arachidonic acid, used in synthesis of steroid hormones, vitamin D and bile salts

CH2

- HN - CH - CO - NH - CH - CO - NH - CH - CO - NH - CH - CO -

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) HO

(1) A is essential amino acid

O

(2) C is most complex amino acid

HN

(3) D is represented by single letter code E

(4)

(4) B is basic amino acid 153. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t. starch? (1) Starch consists of unbranched amylose and branched amylopectin (2) It is a polymer of -D-glucose

O

Uracil, a purine found in RNA

N H

155. Cellulose differs from chitin in (a) Branching (b) Type of glycosidic bond (c) Type of monomer unit

(3) Successive glucose units are linked together by  1  6 linkages and at branching  1  4 linkage is found (4) Starch turns blue black with iodine

Phospholipid (Lecithin) Contains glycerol, fatty acids, phosphoric CH2 acid and + N choline are CH3 basic CH3 constituent of biomembranes

Cholesterol

CH2

SH CH2OH

C5H10O5(Ribose) Pentose sugar, found in RNA, non-reducing

OH

(d) Abundancy in biosphere (1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(2) (b), (c), (d)

(3) (c) only

(4) (c), (d)


19/24


Test - 2 (Code A)

156. Which of the following is a glycosidic bond? (1) – C – O – C –

A

B

C

(1)

Collagen Hormone Antibody

(2)

Collagen Enzyme

(3)

Collagen Sensory Antibody reception

(4)

Collagen Enzyme

(2) C – S – (3) – CONH – (4) More than one option is correct 157. Consider the following diagrams A and B showing structure of protein. Which of the following statement is correct?

Insulin

Antibody

D Enables glucose transport into cells Sensory reception Hormone Enables glucose transport into cells

159. Fats belong to same category of lipids as that of (1) Oils and waxes (2) Waxes and cholesterol (3) Phospholipids and oils (4) Glycolipids and prostaglandins

N

(B)

(A)

160. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t. the organic compound shown?

C

CH3 – (CH2)14 – COOH

(1) Structure (A) is absolutely necessary for many biological activities of proteins such as enzymes (2) Human haemoglobin is represented by structure (B) (3) Keratin of hair is represented by structure (A) (4) C terminal and N terminal in structure B represent left and right end of protein respectively 158. Following is a table of some proteins and their functions with certain blanks A, B, C and D. Find out the correct option.

Protein (A) Trypsin (C) GLUT-4

Functions Intercellular ground substance (B) Fights infectious agents (D)

(1) It is palmitic acid (2) It is saturated fatty acid being a constituent of bees wax (3) It is an essential fatty acid (4) Tripalmitin is a triglyceride consisting of three palmitic acid molecules esterified with a glycerol 161. How many of the following statements are wrong w.r.t. Periplaneta? (a) Coelom is reduced by presence of blood containing cavity called haemocoel (b) Wings in male cockroach are relatively larger than female wings (c) Diploid number of chromosome is 48 in female (d) Embryologically body is made of twenty segments (1) One

(2) Two

(3) Three

(4) Four


20/24

Test - 2 (Code A)


162. Which of the following endocrine gland in cockroach secretes juvenile hormone, which retains the nymphal characters and checks the appearance of adult characters?

165. Which of the following is mis-matched w.r.t. Periplaneta? (1) Head

- Triangular in shape; lies at right angles to longitudinal axis of body and is formed by fusion of six segments

(2) Thorax

- Consists of three segments; each segment of it bear a pair of walking legs and a pair of wings

(1) Prothoracic glands (2) Corpora allata (3) Corpora cardiaca (4) Intercerebral gland cells 163. Select the correct sequence of podomeres in leg of cockroach from proximal to distal end. (1) Coxa - Tronchanter - Femur - Tibia - Tarsus (2) Tarsus - Tibia - Femur - Tronchanter - Coxa (3) Coxa - Femur - Tronchanter - Tibia - Tarsus (4) Tarsus - Tronchanter - Femur - Tibia - Coxa 164. Given below is diagrammatic representation of circulatory system of cockroach with three labelled parts A, B and C.

A B

(3) Abdomen of male - Consists of ten segments; Genital pouch or chamber lies at the hind end bounded dorsally by 9 th and 10 th terga and ventrally by 9th sternum. It contains dorsal anus and ventral male genital pore (4) Abdomen of female - Consists of ten th segments; 7 sternum is boat shaped and together with 8 th and 9 th sterna forms a brood or genital pouch

C

Select the correct statement w.r.t. labelled parts (1) A opens in capillaries of head region

166. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. structure/ gland of cockroach and its total number in body? (1) Collaterial glands in female cockroach - 2

(2) B are 12 muscles which help in circulation of blood

(2) Malpighian tubules - 100 - 150

(3) C are funnel shaped chambers of heart lying along mid ventral line of thorax and abdomen

(3) Spiracles - 10

(4) B and C are present in pericardial sinus of body

(4) Ommatidia in each compound eye - 2000


21/24

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015 167. Find out the incorrect match w.r.t. given mouth part of cockroach and its description/function.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Paired, containing grinding and incising region

Test - 2 (Code A) 170. Anal cerci in cockroach are (1) A pair of fifteen jointed structures arising from 9th sterna in both male and female, sensitive to vibrations (2) A pair of unjointed structures arising from 10th terga in both male and female, sensitive to sound

Unpaired, bearing chemoreceptors

(3) A pair of fifteen jointed structures arising from 10th terga in both male and female sensitive to sound

Unpaired, covering mouth from dorsal side forming upper lip

(4) A pair of unjointed structures arising from 9th sterna, in both male and female sensitive to sound

Paired, serves to hold food paticles

171. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of reproductive system of female cockroach with certain labelled parts A, B, C and D. Find out the incorrect description/function of the labelled part.

168. Gastric caecae in alimentary canal of cockroach are (1) 6-8 blind tubules present at the junction of crop and gizzard, which secrete digestive juice

A

(2) 6-8 blind tubules present at the junction of gizzard and midgut, which majorly absorbs food

B

(3) 6-8 blind tubules present at the junction of midgut and hindgut, which remove away waste from haemolymph (4) 6-8 blind tubules present at the junction of gizzard and midgut, which secrete digestive juice 169. Pseudopenis and titillator in male cockroach are a part of (1) Left phallomere (2) Right phallomere

C D (1) A – Paired structures each having eight ovarioles lying laterally in 2nd-6th abdominal segments (2) B – Paired structures left and right of which left is larger, stores sperms received from male

(3) Ventral phallomere

(3) C – Paired branched structures left and right of which left is larger, secrete wall of ootheca

(4) Anal style

(4) D – It is vestibulum Space for Rough Work

22/24

Test - 2 (Code A)


172. Which of the following structures are present in 67th and 6th abdominal segment only in male and female cockroach respectively?

175. Nephrocytes and urecose glands in cockroach help in (1) Digestion

(1) Utricular gland and ovary

(2) Respiration

(2) Phallic gland and vestibulum

(3) Reproduction (4) Excretion

(3) Utricular gland and spermathecae

176. Guanosine differs from cytosine in (4) Seminal vesicles and genital chamber 173. The nymphal stage during development of Periplaneta americana (1) Looks completely distinct from adult (2) Undergoes thirteen moultings to reach to adult form

(1) Guanosine is a nucleotide and cytosine a nucleoside (2) Guanosine having ribose sugar and cytosine having deoxyribose sugar (3) Guanosine being a nucleoside and cytosine a nitrogenous base (4) Guanosine being a nitrogenous base and cytosine a nucleoside

(3) Bear wings but cannot fly (4) Has well developed gonads and can reproduce

177. Which of the following factor affecting enzyme activity is depicted in the given graph?

(1) Brain

- Represented by supraoesophageal ganglion; supplies nerves to antennae and compound eyes

(2) Nerve cord

- Double, solid structure, ventral in position, consists of nine ganglia, three in thorax and six in abdomen

Enzyme activity

174. Which of the following is an incorrect match w.r.t. nervous system/sensory organ of cockroach?

(a) pH (b) Temperature

(3) Compound eyes - Help in mosaic vision with more resolution but less sensitivity during night

(c) Substrate concentration

(4) Antennae

(2) (b) & (c)

- Paired structures have sensory receptors that help in monitoring the environment

(d) Presence of non-competitive inhibitor (1) (a) & (b)

(3) (c) & (d) (4) (b) & (d)


23/24


Test - 2 (Code A)

178. Which of the following statement is correct w.r.t. competitive inhibition?

(3) Coenzymes are organic cofactors but their association with apoenzyme is only transient usually occurring during course of catalysis

(1) Malonate inhibits succinic dehydrogonase and there is decrease in km and Vmax

(4) Haem is prosthetic group of peroxidase and catalase and is tightly bound to respective enzymes

(2) Cyanide inhibits cytochrome oxidase and there is decrease in Vmax but km remains same (3) Sulpha drugs inhibits enzymes synthesising folic acid in bacteria which results in increase of km but no change in Vmax

180. Select the incorrect statement for B-DNA. (1) One turn of helical strand involves ten base pairs

(4) Glucose 6-phosphate inhibits hexokinase and there is increase in both km and Vmax

(2) At each step of ascent strand turns 34 Å

179. Select the incorrect statement.

(3) Rise per base pair is 0.34 nm

(1) Catalytic activity is lost when the cofactor is removed from the enzyme

(4) Nitrogen bases are projected more or less perpendicular to sugar-phosphate-sugar chain backbone

(2) Zinc is a cofactor for lipolytic enzyme carboxypeptidase


24/24

ES RI

AL L

D

S H TE A K A A ST IA

SE

IN

Test No. 1

Test - 1 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)


T EST – 1

Test Date : 09-11-2014

ANSWERS 1.

(2)

37.

(1)

73.

(4)

109. (1)

145. (3)

2.

(3)

38.

(2)

74.

(2)

110. (4)

146 (1)

3.

(1)

39.

(3)

75.

(4)

111. (3)

147. (4)

4.

(3)

40.

(2)

76.

(4)

112. (2)

148. (3)

5.

(1)

41.

(2)

77.

(2)

113. (3)

149. (3)

6.

(1)

42.

(1)

78.

(2)

114. (4)

150. (3)

7.

(3)

43.

(1)

79.

(3)

115. (2)

151. (2)

8.

(3)

44.

(2)

80.

(3)

116. (3)

152. (2)

9.

(2)

45.

(3)

81.

(2)

117. (2)

153. (3)

10.

(1)

46.

(4)

82.

(2)

118. (2)

154. (2)

11.

(2)

47.

(3)

83.

(2)

119. (3)

155. (1)

12.

(2)

48.

(4)

84.

(2)

120. (1)

156. (2)

13.

(4)

49.

(3)

85.

(2)

121. (4)

157. (2)

14.

(4)

50.

(4)

86.

(2)

122. (2)

158. (2)

15.

(2)

51.

(4)

87.

(3)

123. (2)

159. (3)

16.

(1)

52.

(3)

88.

(3)

124. (3)

160. (4)

17.

(2)

53.

(3)

89.

(2)

125. (3)

161. (2)

18.

(4)

54.

(4)

90.

(3)

126. (4)

162. (4)

19.

(1)

55.

(2)

91.

(3)

127. (4)

163. (4)

20.

(2)

56.

(2)

92.

(4)

128. (3)

164. (2)

21.

(4)

57.

(1)

93.

(2)

129. (2)

165. (3)

22.

(3)

58.

(4)

94.

(4)

130. (2)

166. (2)

23.

(1)

59.

(2)

95.

(4)

131. (1)

167. (4)

24.

(1)

60.

(4)

96.

(1)

132. (3)

168. (3)

25.

(3)

61.

(3)

97.

(3)

133. (2)

169. (2)

26.

(1)

62.

(2)

98.

(2)

134. (2)

170. (4)

27.

(3)

63.

(4)

99.

(4)

135. (3)

171. (3)

28.

(2)

64.

(4)

100. (3)

136. (1)

172. (3)

29.

(1)

65.

(3)

101. (3)

137. (3)

173. (4)

30.

(3)

66.

(1)

102. (2)

138. (2)

174. (1)

31.

(3)

67.

(2)

103. (3)

139. (2)

175. (3)

32.

(3)

68.

(3)

104. (1)

140. (3)

176. (3)

33.

(3)

69.

(3)

105. (2)

141. (4)

177. (4)

34.

(1)

70.

(4)

106. (2)

142. (3)

178. (3)

35.

(4)

71.

(4)

107. (3)

143. (2)

179. (3)

36.

(3)

72.

Deleted

108. (2)

144. (2)

180. (3)

1/8

AAKASH TEST SERIES Aiats 2

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