FI Exam Question 1. A chart of accounts ( Multi Choice) A. can be allocated to multiple company code B. can be defined as the group chart of accounts C. only contains definitions for G/L accounts D. can only allocated to one company code.
2. A client. ( Single Choice) A. may only contain a single chart of accounts B. may contain multiple charts of accounts C. may only use one currency type D. may only have one controlling area
3. Identify the correct statement(s) relating to how the main business processes are integrated in the SAP R/3 System. ( Multi Choice) A. A purchase requisition is a documented request to purchase goods or services. In SAP it can be created manually or automatically. B. A goods receipt is the recording of the movement of materials into the warehouse. In SAP, a financial document which updates the inventory account and an accrued liability account is created C. The Invoice receipt and verification process compares the vendor invoice with the purchase order and goods receipt. However, the corresponding financial transaction must be entered through the financial module of R/3. D. In SAP, payment processing reduces the liability to a vendor and a company's cash balance, records discounts taken and disburses payment. E. A customer delivery is the transfer of the ownership of goods. A customer delivery includes, creation of a delivery document, picking the goods for shipment; physically transferring the goods to the customer and financially recording the goods issue.
4. Identify the correct statement(s) regarding organizational elements within the R/3 System. ( Multi Choice) A. The Sales area combines the sales organization, distribution channel, and division. B. The Purchasing Organization is responsible for the purchasing for the only one plant. C. A plant is a location in which inventory quantities and values are stored or manufactured. D. A Controlling area can comprise several company codes using different chart of accounts but must operate in the same currency. E. A profit center is used to generate income statements and operating profit statements.
5. Which of the following statements is true ? ( Single Choice) A. A Company code can belong to more than one controlling area. B. A plant must be allocated to a company code C. A controlling area and a company code must have the same local currency. D. A business area and a company code are assigned to each other in the corporate structure IMG
6 . Which of the following statements about year-end closing are correct?(Multi) A. You carry out year-end closing before the fiscal year change. B. During year-end closing, the program checks if the year-end closing can be carried out. C. Once the year-end closing was successfully completed, the system automatically changes certain entries in Customizing (closed fiscal year) D. You cannot create and post to new fixed assets until The year-end closing is successfully completed E. You can only conduct year-end closing on June 30 or December 31 of each year.
7. What steps have to be completed before you can generate asset classes form G/L accounts? (Multi) A. Account selection B. Account determinations C. Number range intervals D. Screen layout variants E. Asset classes
8. For each depreciation area you need to specify whether you want to (Multi) A. post depreciation at periodic intervals to the general ledger B. post asset values at periodic intervals C. automatically post values online D. use index classes E. post to business areas
9. Please click on the button next to the correct answer.(Multi) A. The business area can run across many company codes, i.e. all company codes can post in all business areas. B. A company code may belong to more than One Controlling Area. C. Each company codes uses exactly one chart of accounts and one chart of depreciation. D. Business areas are used to create internal balance sheets and income statements.
10. The time of the first acquisition posting to the asset sets the following fields in the master of asset(Multi) A. the depreciation start date per depreciation area B. the cost enter to be hit through depreciation C. the date of capitalization D. the depreciation key
6 . Which of the following statements about year-end closing are correct?(Multi) A. You carry out year-end closing before the fiscal year change. B. During year-end closing, the program checks if the year-end closing can be carried out. C. Once the year-end closing was successfully completed, the system automatically changes certain entries in Customizing (closed fiscal year) D. You cannot create and post to new fixed assets until The year-end closing is successfully completed E. You can only conduct year-end closing on June 30 or December 31 of each year.
7. What steps have to be completed before you can generate asset classes form G/L accounts? (Multi) A. Account selection B. Account determinations C. Number range intervals D. Screen layout variants E. Asset classes
8. For each depreciation area you need to specify whether you want to (Multi) A. post depreciation at periodic intervals to the general ledger B. post asset values at periodic intervals C. automatically post values online D. use index classes E. post to business areas
9. Please click on the button next to the correct answer.(Multi) A. The business area can run across many company codes, i.e. all company codes can post in all business areas. B. A company code may belong to more than One Controlling Area. C. Each company codes uses exactly one chart of accounts and one chart of depreciation. D. Business areas are used to create internal balance sheets and income statements.
10. The time of the first acquisition posting to the asset sets the following fields in the master of asset(Multi) A. the depreciation start date per depreciation area B. the cost enter to be hit through depreciation C. the date of capitalization D. the depreciation key
11. Usually one Chart of Depreciation is defined for each country. At which level is the chart of Depreciation created?(Single) A. at Company Code level B. at Client level. C. at Chart of accounts level. D. at Business area level. E. at System level.
12. What are the functions asset class?(Multi) A. Asset number assignment. B. Cost Center determination. C. Screen layout D. Account allocation E. Definition of default value
13. Integration with MM: An asset purchase order is created in Purchasing. The goods receipt is posted on a value basis. Invoice verification then posts the invoice. What is the name of the auxiliary account used for all of these transactions?(Single) A. MM/FI clearing account. B. GR/IR clearing account. C. Asset purchasing clearing account. D. Asset acquisition clearing account. E. Vendor asset acquisition clearing account
14. What additional functions do asset classes offer?(Multi) A. Specify required entry fields for B. Enter default values for C. Enter default values entries D. Enter allowed entries E. Define allowed company codes
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15. Whi Which ch of the fol follow lowing ing sta statem tements ents abou aboutt man manual ual dep deprec reciat iation ion (fo (forr exa exampl mple e unp unplan lanned ned depreciation in FI-AA) area true?(Multi) A. You cannot post manual depreciation in FI-AA. B. Manual depreciation is posted immediately after entry(real time). C. Man Manual ual deprecia depreciatio tion n is ini initia tially lly shown as a pla planne nned d val value ue aft after er ent entry ry and only pos posted ted when the depreciation posting report is run. D. Manual depreciation usually only applies to depreciation areas which you choose when you enter the document. E. After entering manual depreciation in FI-AA., you also need to enter it manually in FI/CO.
16 .Which correspondence extracts all items in the chosen period from a customers account displays the balance carried forward balance and a closing balance of the Account ?(Single) A. Payment advice
B. Payment notice C. Account statement D. Dunning notice
17. Which of the Following statements about automatic payment are correct ? (Multi) A. In automatic payment procedures, all incoming invoices as of the second dunning level are paid automatically B. Direct debiting or bank collection can be used in automatic payment procedures to clear customer invoices C. Open items posted to G/L accounts can be cleared using the payment program D. Special G/L transactions(down payment)can be posted using the payment program E. The payment program can pay vendor invoices using wire transfers and checks
18. Imagine the following scenario:A company wants to execute a payment run on a daily basis and process several company codes at the same time. If the amount exceeds US$ 1000, the vendors are to be paid by bank transfer, amounts less than US$ 1000 are to be paid by check. The customer has two house banks and wants all checks to be processed by bank A and all (Multi)
A You store variants for print programs within customizing. Here you can specify that the information is to be output to a data carrier B. You specify, per house bank, whether payments are to be made by check only or also by transfer C. You specify the payment method from within the application,in the master record D. The payment proposal of the automatic payment program can only be displayed E. You can precisely schedule the print program from within the application
19. According to which criteria does the payment program determine and select open items (Single) A. posting date and baseline date B. document date and posting date C. baseline date and payment terms D. posting date and cash discount periods E. posting date and payment terms
20. Which of the following statements are true with regard to the customizing setting for banks in the automatic payment run ? (Multi) A. The sequence of the banks for processing outgoing payments is selected randomly B. You can only determine one payment method per house bank C. You can select several payment methods per country D. You can specify by bank and method the anticipated number of days before the bank account is debited E. You can determine the banks to be used for payments according to postal code
21. Which of the following factors does the systems take into account in a payment run ?(Multi) A. Fiscal year variant B. Payment method specifications in the IMG C. Specifications in the vendor master records
D. Information in the documents(incoming invoices) E. Specifications made when maintaining the payment run parameters
22. Which of the following statements are correct ?(Multi) A. When creating a House bank, you do not need to specify the country. B. The payments program can use a different House bank for each different payment method C. A House bank account can be defined in more than one currency D. House bank master data must be created in advance, before assigning the House bank to a payment method in the payment program configuration E. A house bank can be assigned to a business area within the payment program configuration
23. When entering a document using a foreign currency, which date is used to determine the exchange rate if the translation date is not entered ?(Single) A. Posting date B. Document date C. Entry date D. Baseline date
24. where are posting periods defined?(Multi) A. Posting period variant. B. Fiscal year variant. C. Field status variant. D. Closing period variant.
25. which of the following statements supports the reversal of a document?(Multi) A. The original document contains no cleared line items. B. Documents originating in other modules should be corrected there to allow the changes to flow naturally through to financial accounting. C. If a reversal date is not specified, the system reverses the document using the posting date of the document to be reversed. D. A new document number is created for the reversal document. 26. Choose the correct statements regarding recurring documents. (Multi) A. When creating a recurring document, the valid time period must be defined. B. The posting date is determined by either the run date or the run schedule. C. Field values can be changed in recurring document. D. After running the recurring document posting, the next run date cannot be displayed. E. The original recurring document can be deleted from the batch input menu.
27. In manual bank statement customizing, you must (Multi) A. Define an internal activity B. Define a posting rule C. Define a posting type D. Define a currency E. Define an account symbol
28. Which of the following statements about manual planning are correct?(Multi) A. The planning type determines which bank accounts the plan amount to be inputted to. B. The expiration date shows how long the payment advice is included in planning. C. The payment advices for editing can be changed, archived, or reactivated. D. Archived payment advices are included in planning till the value date. E. The retention periods are determined by the bank account name.
29. Bank accounts should be controlled as follows when Cash Management is in use:(Multi) A. Open items are managed for both the main bank account and the bank clearing account. B. Both the main bank account and the bank clearing account permit line item displays. C. The main bank account and the bank clearing account use the same sort key. D. The value date in the field status string for both the main bank account and the bank clearing account must accept entry. E. The cash-relevance flag in the master records for both the main bank account and the bank clearing account must be set.
30. Which of the following statements about creating customer master records are correct? (Multi) A. An account group always gets assigned to a customer. B. The company code is always a required entry. C. The account number may be assigned by the user externally. D. Information on each screen may be defined in configuration as mandatory, suppressed or optional, depending upon the account group. E. Information on each screen may be defined in configuration as mandatory, suppressed or optional, depending upon the company code.
31. Which of the following statements are correct? (Multi) A. A customer master is divided by client level and company code level. B. In case of one-time customer you have to enter the customer's address in the document itself. C. Address, control data, and reconciliation account are included in the client level of the customer. D. The most efficient way to create master records is to work with the external number range not internal number range.
32. Which of the following statements are correct? (Multi) A. If a customer is also a vendor, the system can include outstanding Accounts Receivable invoice items in payment program. B. If a customer is also a vendor, the system can include outstanding Accounts Payable invoice items when you clear incoming payment receipts for the customer. C. The reconciliation account defined on the customer master record is an account used to reconcile CO transactions back to FI. D. All customer belonging to the same account group must be assigned to the same reconciliation account. E. The alternative payer is used to transfer outstanding receivable item to the alternative payer's account.
33. Bulk change of line item - this function allows you to change a whole group of line items simultaneously, instead of having to change individual items in the documents. What data can you change using this function?(Multi) A. The reconciliation account B. The company code C. The payment terms and payment block D. The house bank and payment method
34. Which of the following order types are internal orders?(Multi) A. Result analysis orders for posting accrual costs in CO. B. Capital investment orders for creating assets. C. Maintenance orders. D. Sales orders for make-to-order function E. CO production orders.
35.Which of the following statements are correct regarding Internal Orders?(Single) A. Planning transactions are allowed under any status. B. Once an order has been released, only closing entries can be made. C. Transactions can be allowed or disallowed depending order status. D. Additional order status categories can be created in the order master.
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36.Which of the following statements is true about CO production orders?(Multi) A. It is an internal order used to control production from a cost accounting point of view. B. Bills of materials and routings are required. C. It is not possible to post goods movements to and from the order. D. You can post primary costs from Financial Accounting to the order. E. You can post secondary costs from overhead calculation to the order.
37.Which statements are true regarding direct and indirect activity allocations? (Multi) A. If both the amount of the activity used by the receiver and the total output activity quantity of the sender can be measured, then indirect activity allocation is used. B. If the amount of activity consumed by the receiver is not measured, then indirect activity allocation is used. C. Manual activity input planning cannot be performed if actual activities are allocated indirectly. D. If direct activity allocation is used, the total output activity quantity is determined by summing all of the activity quantities allocated.
38. The primary cost element is one type of master data in Controlling. Before you can create a new primary cost element, certain prerequisites need to be fulfilled. Which of the following conditions must be fulfilled BEFORE you can create primary cost elements?(Multi) A. The controlling area must be defined. B. The cost center must be defined. C. The G/L account must be defined. D. The plant must be in the system. E. The business areas have been defined.
39. What is the difference between distribution and assessments? (Multi) A. Distribution can be made for both planned and actual figures; assessments cannot. B. Distributions can be made using statistical key figures; assessments cannot. C. Distributions are used when the original cost information is necessary on the receiver; assessments are used when this information is not necessary on the receiver. D. Distributions are made using the original primary cost elements; assessments are made using secondary cost elements.
SAP FI/CO Certification Sample Questions Caution: more than one answer may be correct. Please mark ALL correct answers. Question: Which of the following statements are correct?
A More than one chart of accounts can be created for each client B The chart of accounts contains all the G/L accounts, vendor accounts and customer accounts C More than one company code can be allocated to the same chart of accounts D The chart of accounts controls all the customising settings in the R/3 system E All accounts within a chart of accounts must have the same tax code Question: What status reports does Cash Management and forecasting include?
A. Cash management position B. Liquidity forecast C. Credit limit report D. G/L account balances E. Bill holdings Question: Which of the following are clearing procedures in accounts receivable?
A. Incoming payment B. Down payment request C. Credit memo D. Transfer posting Question: When creating an Overhead Cost Order, the first order information which must be entered is:
A. Order status B. Order type
C. Settlement type D. Curreny E. Classification code Question: When creating an Overhead Cost Order, the settlement rule must be entered in the control data. Which settlement receivers are available for internal orders?
A. Cost center B. Orders C. General ledger accounts D. Asset E. Vendor Question: In Controlling, a distinction is made between master data, planning, actual data and the information system. Which of the following master data belongs to Controlling?
A. G/L account B. Work center C. Cost center D. Activity type E. Supplier Question: Withing Overhead Cost Controlling activities are calculated. A Sender/Receiver relationship exists. However, not all Sender/Receiver combinations are allowed. Which of the following combinations make business sense?
A. Sender. Cost Center, Order, Project Receiver. Cost Center, Order, Project B. Sender. Order Receiver. Cost Center, Project C Sender. Cost Center Receiver. Cost Center, Order, Project, Cost Object Question: Period closing activities are also performed in Controlling. This is dependent on certain prerequisites. Which of the following are MINIMUM criteria before it makes sense to carry out period closing?
A. The posting period has been closed. B. Materials have been withdrawn. C. Personnel costs have been incurred. D. Overhead has been incurred. E. An order was closed
B.
Answers for SAP FI/CO Certification Sample Questions
C. Question: Which of the following statements are correct? D. Answer: A More than one chart of accounts can be created for each client
E. F.
G. H.
I.
J.
K.
L.
M.
B The chart of accounts contains all the G/L accounts, vendor accounts and customer accounts C More than one company code can be allocated to the same chart of accounts D The chart of accounts controls all the customising settings in the R/3 system E All accounts within a chart of accounts must have the same tax code Question: What status reports does Cash Management and forecasting include? Answer: A. Cash management position B. Liquidity forecast C. Credit limit report D. G/L account balances E. Bill holdings Question: Which of the following are clearing procedures in accounts receivable? Answer: A. Incoming payment B. Down payment request C. Credit memo D. Transfer posting Question: When creating an Overhead Cost Order, the first order information which must be entered is: Answer: A. Order status B. Order type C. Settlement type D. Curreny E. Classification code Question: When creating an Overhead Cost Order, the settlement rule must be entered in the control data. Which settlement receivers are available for internal orders? Answer: A. Cost center B. Orders C. General ledger accounts D. Asset E. Vendor Question: In Controlling, a distinction is made between master data, planning, actual data and the information system. Which of the following master data belongs to Controlling?
N. Answer:
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P.
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A. G/L account B. Work center C. Cost center D. Activity type E. Supplier Question: Withing Overhead Cost Controlling activities are calculated. A Sender/Receiver relationship exists. However, not all Sender/Receiver combinations are allowed. Which of the following combinations make business sense? Answer: A. Sender. Cost Center, Order, Project Receiver. Cost Center, Order, Project B. Sender. Order Receiver. Cost Center, Project C. Sender. Cost Center Receiver. Cost Center, Order, Project, Cost Object Question: Period closing activities are also performed in Controlling. This is dependent on certain prerequisites. Which of the following are MINIMUM criteria before it makes sense to carry out period closing? Answer: A. The posting period has been closed. B. Materials have been withdrawn. C. Personnel costs have been incurred. D. Overhead has been incurred. E. An order was closed.
Questions 1. In the New G/L, how would you incorporate companies with different fiscal years if you wanted to assign them to the same controlling area? Please choose the correct answer.
a)
O
Use the same fiscal year variant for all company codes and set up parallel accounting for company codes that have different fiscal years.
b)
O
Create company codes with different fiscal year variants and assign them to the same group company for reporting purposes.
c)
O
Use the same fiscal year variant for all company codes and do a reversible close for the company codes that have different fiscal years.
d)
O
Create company codes with the same fiscal year variant and assign the company codes that have a different fiscal year to non-leading ledgers with the appropriate fiscal year variant.
2. When parking a document, which of the following occurs in the system? Please choose the correct answer.
a)
O
The document number is not assigned but transaction figures are updated.
b)
O
The document number is assigned but transaction figures are not updated.
c)
O
The document number is not assigned and transaction figures are not updated.
d)
O
The document number is assigned and transaction figures are updated.
3. What are the necessary steps to create a validation? Please choose the correct answer.
a)
O
Prerequisite, check, message
b)
O
Prerequisite, check, update, control
c)
O
Check, control, message
d)
O
Check, update, message
4. Your customer wants to add a new company code and asks you to make the configuration settings for document types and number ranges.What do you have to do? Please choose the correct answer.
a)
O
Set a second number range for all document types.
b)
O
No additional settings are necessary.
c)
O
Define number ranges for the new company code.
d)
O
Allow all document types for the new company code.
5. Which object has to be used to avoid a change of the reconciliation account in the customer's master data? Please choose the correct answer.
a)
O
The field status of the activity
b)
O
The field status group of the reconciliation account
c)
O
The field status of the posting key
d)
O
The field status of the customer account group
6. Which objects can be assigned to an asset master record in SAP ERP 6.0 EhP5 (Enhancement Package 5) with new G/L and the corresponding business function activated? Note: There are three (3) correct answers to this question.
a)
O
Internal order
b)
O
Profitability segment
c)
O
Account determination
d)
O
Profit center
e)
O
Segment
7. What is the purpose of account determination in the accrual engine? Note: There are two (2) correct answers to this question.
a)
O
To determine debit and credit accounts.
b)
O
To determine the CO object.
c)
O
To determine the correct posting period.
d)
O
To determine the document type.
8. For which of the following scenarios can you use the cash journal? Please choose the correct answer.
a)
O
To manage cash in local branches and offices
b)
O
To post incoming and outgoing payments in any transaction currency
c)
O
To record documents that will not be included in the general ledger
d)
O
To make remittances to vendors
9. Which of the following elements are required to create a customer-specific drilldown report for New General Ledger Accounting? Note: There are two (2) correct answers to this question.
a)
O
Characteristics
b)
O
Variables
c)
O
A form
d)
O
A report header
10. Which of the following are interactive functions available in the SAP List Viewer? Note: There are three (3) correct answers to this question.
a)
O
Summation
b)
O
Master data modification
c)
O
Sorting
d)
O
Filters
e)
O
Dual control
Solutions 1 a) Incorrect
2 a) Incorrect
3 a) Correct
4 a) Incorrect
5 a) Correct
1 b) Incorrect
2 b) Correct
3 b) Incorrect
4 b) Incorrect
5 b) Incorrect
1 c) Incorrect
2 c) Incorrect
3 c) Incorrect
4 c) Correct
5 c) Incorrect
1 d) Correct
2 d) Incorrect
3 d) Incorrect
4 d) Incorrect
5 d) Incorrect
6 a) Correct
7 a) Correct
8 a) Correct
9 a) Correct
10 a) Correct
6 b) Incorrect
7 b) Incorrect
8 b) Incorrect
9 b) Incorrect
10 b) Incorrect
6 c) Incorrect
7 c) Incorrect
8 c) Incorrect
9 c) Correct
10 c)Correct
6 d) Correct
7 d) Correct
8 d) Incorrect
9 d) Incorrect
10 d)Correct
6 e) Correct
10 e) Incorrect
1. Which of the following are special G/L types? Choose the correct answer(s) A. Noted items B. Down payments C. Automatic offsetting entries (statistical) D. Free offsetting entries E. Other types 2. The following applies to the special general ledger type of noted items. Choose the correct answer(s) A. The special G/L indicators of your own can be created of this type B. The account for the offsetting entry is selected automatically C. No postings are made on an offsetting account D. Noted items are posted on an alternative reconciliation account E. Noted items cannot replace any proper FI documents. 3. Which statements are correct? A. A company code can be assigned several workflow variants B. A task can be assigned one possible processor only C. It is possible to design multilevel workflow sequences D. The same workflow variant can be assigned to several company codes. 4. Name reasons for archiving data. A. Improve response times B. Keep data secret from auditors C. Reduce system downtimes during software upgrades D. Lower the effort involved in database administration 5. Which prerequisites are checked by the system before deleting master data? A. For GL account: has a deletion indicator been set? B. For customers: have they been created before 1995 C. For vendors: are there still transaction figures? D. For GL accounts, customers and vendors: are there still documents? E. For banks: is a bank balance sheet overdrawn? F. For banks: are they still being used? 6. Where do you define the reconciliation account that will be used by an asset? A. Account determination in asset class B Account number in fixed asset C Account determination in depreciation area D Account number in depreciation area 7. How many possibilities are possible with New General Ledger? Choose all that apply. A. Account balancing with any characteristic B. Customer Fields Extensibility C. Segment Reporting D. Reduction of Total Cost of Ownership
E. Transparency and Uniformity 8. The New General Ledger now consists of what functions? Choose all that apply. A. FI Classic B. Profit Center Accounting C. Product Costing D. Reconciliation Ledger E. Schedule Manager 9. What are the advantages of using the New General Ledger? Choose all that apply. A. Extended data structure B. Document (Online) Split C. Real Time Integration between CO and FI D. Multiple Ledgers can be maintained under leading ledger. E. Interfaces for entering the data and postings are nearly identical. 10. True or False: Please choose the correct answer. A. The New GL is optional for existing SAP Customers. True / False B. New SAP customers will have to activate New GL by Default. True / False C. ECC 6.0 will prohibit the use of PCA above General Ledger. True / False D. The new SAP Installation will choose between Old and New Ledger. True / False E. Customers within New Ledger will have limited extensibility. True / False 11. What Customizing transaction will activate the New General Ledger? Choose all that apply. A. FANEWGL_ACTIVATION B. FAGL_ACTIVATION C. GL_ACTIVATION D. NEWGL_ACTIVATION E. FIGL_ACTIVATION 12. After Activating the New GL, what following changes will take place? Choose all that apply. A. There will be new Paths for New GL in addition to existing (Old) GL. B. Conventional Financial Accounting Paths will remain at their present form. C. Old paths can be eliminated by running RFAGL_SWAP_IMG_OLD D. Old paths can be eliminated by running FIGL_SWAP_IMG_NEW 13. What will be the new ledger definitions after the activation? Choose all that apply. A. Control Parameters (as before) will be from company code. B. The leading ledger will manage local currency(s) assigned to company code. C. New GL will use the same Fiscal Year Variant and Posting Period Variant that is assigned to company code. D. There will be or can be multiple leading ledgers. E. If multiple ledgers are used, values from all the ledgers can be posted on to CO. 14. Choose the correct answer(s). A. After activation, Financial Accounting Document will have two views: the entry view and the GL View.
True / False B. Entry View will be the same in sub-ledgers (AR / AR / AA / Taxes). True / False C. The way the document will appear in General Ledger view will be the same as Entry view. True / False D. There will be no extra views on documents and no changes will be made. True / False 15. Pre-closing activities that begin in the old month include: A. Open new accounting period B. Foreign currency valuations and financial statement adjustments C. Enter accruals/deferrals, process recurring entries and bad debt expense in AR, post depreciation and interest expenses in asset accounting D. Creation of external and internal reports 16. Which of the following are “special items” in financial statement version? A. Profit and loss results B. Expenses C. Accounts not assigned D. Notes to financial statement 17. The depreciation position program RAPOST2000 can be used to record the following: A. Ordinary (book and cost-accounting) depreciation B. Tax special depreciation or the allocation and write off of reserves for special depreciation on the basis of tax special depreciation C. Unplanned depreciation (or other manually planned depreciation) D. Imputed interest E. APC revaluation below/above the accumulated depreciation 18. Which of the following are required settings for foreign currency valuation. A. Define exchange rates B. Define valuation methods C. Define expense and revenue accounts for exchange rate differences D. Specify balance sheet adjustment accounts for receivables and payables. 19. The Accrual Engine can be used for the following purposes. A. Lease accounting B. Provisions for awards C. Automatic accruals in financial accounting D. Intellectual property management 20. The ‘posting period’ can be defined for each A. Company code B. Accounting principle C. Posting period variant D. Accrual type 21. The ‘purpose of account determination’ is to determine the following: A. Document type B. Debit account C. Credit account D. Balance sheet account 22. Accounts are determined using ‘derivation rules’ consisting the following. Which of them is/are optional? A. Source fields
B. Target fields C. Conditions D. Rule entries 23.Which of the following are fields of ‘General Data’ in customer/vendor accounts? A. Address B. Insurance C. Control data D. Account management 24.In SAP every document is uniquely identified by the following fields. A. Company code B. Document number C. Fiscal year D. Posting period 25.Which of the following are the steps involved in the ‘payment process’? A. Setting parameters B. Generating a proposal C. Scheduling the payment run D. Printing the payment media 26.What are the fields by which every dunning program run is identified? A. Run date B. Program number C. Customer number D. Identification 27.Items that are to be dunned are grouped together in dunning notices if they have the same of following: A. Company code B. Dunning area C. Account D. Number range 28.Which of the following are advantages of document splitting? A. Accelerate closing B. Increased data quality C. Extensibility and flexibility D. Real-time integration 29.Which of the following is not correct? A. The main ledger generally reflects the accounting principle used to draw up consolidated financial statements. B. The main ledger is the only ledger that is integrated with controlling module by default. C. For parallel financial reporting, other ledgers cannot be used in addition to the main ledger. D. Consolidated financial reporting is normally mapped with main ledger 30.The following can be used for G/L account evaluations A. Balance display B. Key figure reports C. Reports for financial statement analysis D. Interim report ANSWERS
1. A, C and D Down payments, bills of exchange and other types are referred to as special general ledger classes 2. C, D and E Noted items are purely ‘reminders’. No zero balance check is made since no assignments are made to offsetting accounts. 3. C and D One workflow variant can be used for several company codes. It is possible to create multilevel workflow sequences. Individual tasks can usually be assigned several possible processors. 4. A, C and D 5. A, C. D and F 6. C 7. A, B, C, D and E 8. A and D 9. All of the above 10. A 11. B 12. A, B and C 13. A, B and C 14. A, B and D 15. A and C B and D are closing activities. 16. A, C and D 17. All of the above 18. All of the above 19. A, B and D The Accrual Engine can be used for manual accruals in financial accounting, in addition to the above 20. A, B and D 21. A, B and C 22. C. 23. B and D. Other two are fields of company code data 24. A, B and C 25. All of the above 26. A and D 27. A, B and C 28. A, B and C 29. C 30. A, B and C Questions
— 1. Consider the following statements: 1.1. Secondary cost elements area used in production that are produced from outside the
company. 1.2. Cost elements are indicators, used as a basis for allocations and for performing key figure analysis. 1.3. Cost centers are the organizational units that incur and influence costs. Which of the above sentences is true (Please choose the correct option)?
a) 31.1. b) 31.2. c) 31.3. d) all of them. e) none of them. 2. What can you say about the standard hierarchy (Please choose the correct option)?
a) It is the top of a Profit Center group, which all Cost Centers/Profit Centers may be assigned. b) This is a representation of the board directors cost center. c) It can be defined after creating cost centers. d) It must be defined before creating cost centers. e) Its name is defined after creating controlling area and it must follow certain SAP standard rules, as having the same name of the Controlling Area. 3. “During a fiscal year, you can only change the assignements of the organizational units company code, business area or profit center to a cost center if: 3.1. The currency of the new company code is the same as the currency of the old company code. 3.2. You have only posted planning data in the fiscal year. 3.3. The cost center is not assigned to a fixed asset, work center or HR master record.
Which of the above sentences are false (Please choose the correct option)?
a) 33.1 and 33.2. are correct. b) 33.2 and 33.3. are correct. c) 33.1 and 33.3. are correct. d) 33.1, 33.2 and 33.3 are correct. e) none of them. 4. Define Cost Center Category (Please choose the correct option).
a) It is allowed for only one cost center master data. b) It is a CO object where costs are incurred. c) It is an indicator in the cost center master data, which specifies the category for the cost center. d) It is an indicator in the controlling area, which specifies what kinds of cost center can be entered. e) It is an indicator in the chart of accounts, which specifies the category for the cost center. 5. Define Primary Cost Element (Please choose the correct option).
a) It is the object in CO module that correspond to the expense and revenue accounts in FI module. b) It is the object in CO module that are used to record internal value flows like activity allocation, assessments and settlements. c) It is the object in CO module that are used exclusively to identify internal cost flows and records revenues. d) It is a revenue element, used in CO and it corresponds to a Balance Sheet Account in FI module. e) It is a tracing factor that helps to classify the specific activities that are provided by one ot more cost centers within a company.
6. True or false? 6.1. The activity type category is used to determine whether and how an activity type is entered and allocated.
a) True. b) False. 6.2. The fixed value is only posted in the period in which it is entered.
a) True. b) False. 6.3. You can create your own list variants for collective processing.
a) True. b) False. 6.4.SAP recommends that you use the same number interval groups for CO actual and plan transactions.
a) [ ] True. b) [ ] False. 6.5. Validation has priority under Substitution.
a) [ ] True. b) [ ] False. 7. Splitting process can be divided in to following steps 7.1 Active split 7.2 Passive split 7.3 Legal split 7.4 Clearing lines/zero balance formation by document 7.5 Partial split 7.6 Total split Choose the correct option:
a) 7.1, 7.3 and 7.5 are correct. b) 7.2, 7.5 and 7.6 are correct. c) 7.2, 7.3 and 7.4 are correct. d) 7.3, 7.4 and 7.5 are correct.
e) 7.1, 7.2 and 7.4 are correct. 8. Consider the following statements: 8.1. Reposting line items creates CO documents which don’t contain a reference to the FI document. 8.2. Commitments are payment obligations that are not entered into the accounts, but that lead to actual costs at a later date. 8.3. Purchase orders reduces the commitment values. 8.4. To directly allocate activity, create an activity type of the category 1 (manual entry, manual allocation). 8.5. You can reposting direcy activity allocations in periods and in the same period form which the document to be adjusted originates. Choose the correct option:
a) 8.1. and 8.5. are correct. b) 8.2. and 8.3. are correct. c) 8.2. and 8.4. are correct. d) 8.1. and 8.3. are correct. e) 8.4. and 8.5. are correct. 9. Which of the following are correct about periodic allocation?
a) Both Distribution & Assessment can be applied as a Periodic Allocation Technique in the New Ledger. However Periodic Reposting is not used. b) Statistical Key Figure presently cannot be used as a Tracing Factor. c) Distribution Generates a FI Document as an output. d) A separate Assessment account needs to be defined for New General Ledger as a GL Account that is not a secondary Cost Element of category 42. 10. Which of the following statements is true (Please choose the correct option(s))?
a) The SAP R/3 system saves the information from the clearing cost center in totals records during a periodic reposting. b) The cycle-segment method is used only for defining periodic reposting. c) Independent cycles can be processed in parallel if they have the same allocation type. d) You can process cycles in the same cycle flow group in parallel. e) During distribution, the original cost elements are summarized into distribution cost elements (secondary cost element category = 42). 11. What can we say about period lock (Please choose the correct option)?
a) It is used to lock the business transactions for a combination of company code, fiscal year and document number. b) It is used to lock the business transactions for a combination of company code, fiscal year and version. c) It is used to lock the business transactions for a combination of controlling area, fiscal year and version. d) It is used to lock the business transactions for a combination of company code, fiscal year and plant. e) It is used to lock the business transactions for a combination of company code, fiscal year and purchasing organization. 12. Which of the following are advantages of ledger solution?
a) You maintain a separate ledger for every accounting principle b) You can use different fiscal year variants in this scenario c) The number of G/L accounts is manageable d) The data volume decreases 13. When planning statistical key figures, it uses a ________________ for period-based distribution of the total values. Please select the option that fulfills the above statement:
a) receiver base. b) free entry. c) planned value. d) distribution key. e) secondary statistical key figure. 14. Plan values on cost centers can often be calculated using mathematical dependencies. ___________________ lets you use calculation dependencies to plan your cost center costs. Please select the option that fulfills the above statement:
a) formula planning. b) resource planning. c) dependency planning. d) accrual calculation. e) distribution. 15. Which of the following are migration principles?
a) Date of Migration is at the beginning of a Fiscal Year (Current or Future) b) Year End closing of the Old Fiscal Year must be completed prior to migration and Activation of New GL. c) After successful data Migration, New GL will be activated. d) New GL should be activated before data migration 16. Consider the following statements about Report Painter: 16.1. ____<1>____ are numeric fields that you can evaluate in a report. 16.2. ____<2>____ are fields that display criteria that you used in the data selection. 16.3. ____<3>____ consist of a key figure and one or more characteristics. 16.4. All of the reports are kept in ____<4>____. Please choose the option that substitutes <1>, <2>, <3> and <4>, respectively:
a) key figures, predefined columns, system libraries and characteristics.
b) predefined columns, key figures, system libraries and characteristics. c) predefined columns, characteristics, key figures, and system libraries d) key figures, characteristics, predefined columns and system libraries. e) characteristics, key figures, predefined columns and system libraries. 17. Which of the following are part of financial statements?
a) Automatic offsetting entries b) Noted items c) Free offsetting entries d) All of the above 18. The following statement(s) is/are correct with holding documents.
a) Free assignment of the designation/ID b) A document number is assgined c) No update of the transaction figures d) Not taken in to account for evaluations/reports 19. Which of the following are process dimensions of SAP business workflow?
a) Organizational structure b) Process structure c) Function d) Information 20. What can we say about Planner Profile (Note: we can have more than one correct sentence. Please select the sentences you think they are correct)?
a) It allows to control the planning process. b) In a given planner profile, you cannot assign any number of planning layouts to any number of planning areas. c) The R/3 system contains standard planner profiles. d) Planner profiles are defined using the Report Painter.
e) You can assign more than one planning layout to each planning area in the planning profile. 21. Which of the following are screen areas of Business Workplace?
a) Selection tree b) Workflow c) Worklist d) Work item preview 22. Which of the following are callup points?
a) Document number b) Document header c) Document line item d) complete document 23. Profitability Management is related to which SAP R/3 specific module (Please choose the correct option)?
a) Financial Accounting. b) Materials Management. c) Controlling. d) Enterprise Controlling. e) Sales & Distribution. 24. Transaction type specifies which of the following are updated:
a) Value fields b) Depreciation areas c) Asset balance sheet accounts d) All of the above 25. You can assign an asset to the following Controlling objects:
a) cost center.
b) Internal order c) Activitiy type d) Maintenance order e) All of the above 26. Which of the following are Form Types in drilldown reporting?
a) Single axis form without key figure. b) Single axis form with key figure. c) Dual axis form with key figure. d) Dual axis form without key figure. 27. Which of the following evaluations types available only for customers?
a) The DSO (Days Sales Outstanding) evaluation b) The overdue items evaluation c) Terms Agreed/Terms Taken d) The currency analysis e) The due date analysis 28. Which of the following is not a function of SAP List Viewer?
a) Select List. b) Select Detail. c) Summation d) Select Colums e) Select Report. 29. What characteristic is needed when we need to calculate profits according to the cost-of-sales approach (Please choose the correct option)?
a) Plant. b) Cost Center. c) Functional Area.
d) Dummy Profit Center. e) Operating Concern. 30. Consider the following sentences and choose the correct option:
a) All transactions carried out during a period are stored with a date weighting in the average balance ledger. b) The opening balance is taken from the average balance ledger “8A”. c) The average balance ledger (8Z) contains both weighted transactions by period and by company code. d) A transfer price is a price used to plan the transfer of goods and services that should be occur between independent organizational units. e) The assignment of a Report Painter/Report Writer to a library is optional. Answers
1. C. 2. D. 3. D. 4. C. 5. A. 6. True or false: 6.1. True. 6.2. False. The TOTALS VALUE is only posted in the period in which it is entered. The fiscal year total is the sum of all the period values. The FIXED VALUE is carried over from the period in which it is entered to all subsequent periods of the same fiscal year. The fiscal year total is an average of the period totals. 6.3. True. 6.4. False. SAP recommends that you create different number interval groups for CO actual and plan transactions. 6.5. True. Validation has priority, or it is “stronger”, than Substitution.
7. E. 8. C. 9. All of them 10. C. 11. C. 12. A, B and C 13. D. 14. A. 15. A, B and C 16. D. 17. C. 18. A, C and D. 19. All of the above 20. A, C, E. 21. A, C and D. 22. B, C and D 23. D. 24. D. 25. E. 26. A, B and C. 27. A and C. 28. E. 29. C. 30. A. Questions
1. Consider the following statements (Plan Integration): 1.1. The____<1>____ is usually created to determine the quantities you expect to sell during the planning period. 1.2. The ____<2>____ determines both the capacities and the quantity requirements for raw materials and operating supplies. 1.3. The ____<3>____ can be used to derive planning planned contribution margins. 1.4. The ____<4>____ is created once the activity units have been planned. Please choose the option that substitutes <1>, <2>, <3> and <4>, respectively:
a) sales plan, master production plan, cost plan , sales and profit plan. b) cost plan, sales plan, master production plan, sales and profit plan. c) sales plan, master production plan, cost plan, sales and profit plan. d) sales plan, sales and profit plan, master production plan, cost plan e) sales plan, master production plan, sales and profit plan, cost plan. 2. Consider the following processes that occur in R/3 system: 2.1. It has been generated a goods receipt for a purchase order. 2.2. It has been created an invoice receipt for a purchase order. 2.3. It has been posted an asset. 2.4. It has been created a SD billing document, with a valuated project stock. 2.5. It has been created a SD billing document with a Sales Order. How can the profit center be determined for each case, respectively (Please choose the correct option)?
a) indirectly, indirectly, indirectly, indirectly, indirectly. b) dynamically, indirectly, indirectly, dynamically, indirectly. c) dynamically, dynamically, dynamically, dynamically, indirectly. d) indirectly, indirectly, dynamically, dynamically, indirectly. e) indirectly, indirectly, indirectly, dynamically, indirectly.
3. What are the functions integrated in the Schedule Manager (Note: we can have more than one correct sentence. Please select the sentences you think they are correct)?
a) Error correction and Restart. b) Various ways for starting jobs. c) Dependencies. d) Documentation integrated into the system. e) Uniform Error Analysis. 4. What are the advantages of using the Schedule Manager during the period-end closing processes (Note: we can have more than one correct sentence. Please select the sentences you think they are correct)?
a) Changes not recognized or active immediately. b) Changes are immediately visible and effective. c) Access is available to everyone with authorization. d) The system executes settlement. e) Documentation ad flow for period-end closing are centrally integrated in the R/3 system. 5. What is the intention of a task list?
a) It is intended to group all work to be done. b) It is intended to be restricted to the financial manager. c) It is intended to make the user list the transaction codes. d) It is intended only to collect several jobs. e) It is intended to be self-documented. 6. What are the four task types (Note: we can have more than one correct sentence)?
a) Create transaction code. b) Notes. c) Transactions. d) Programs with variant. e) Flow definition.
7. What does the monitor provide (Note: we can have more than one correct sentence. Please select the sentences you think they are correct)?
a) The access to messages and result lists. b) The visualization of both entire technical and business information. c) The opportunity to postpone someone’s tasks. d) The opportunity to view the work of colleagues and the processing sequence, as well as the technical and business status of every task. e) The ability to monitor the total progress of period-end closing when the user uses more than one task list. 8. What do the flow definitions provide (Note: we can have more than one correct sentence. Please select the sentences you think they are correct)?
a) To define dependencies via external tools. b) To execute it only when the system is online. c) To define a fixed sequence of jobs that is integrated in the R/3 system. d) To allow the user a way for changing period-end closing data. e) To send mails to colleagues at defined times. 9. What does the Work list provide (Note: we can have more than one correct sentence. Please select the sentences you think they are correct)?
a) Each jobs reads the relevant objects from the database, validates and process the objects and after, posts the results to the database. This leads to an unnecessary sequential of database accesses. b) A chain can contain between four and ten steps. c) It is only after all jobs are run that the system detects any object errors that occurred. d) The selection report selects all objects from the database that are relevant for subsequent jobs. The system creates a special place for every object. e) A chain can contain any number of jobs. 10. Which program hides the old paths in the new general ledger
A. FANEWGL_ACTIVATION
B. RFAGL_SWAP_IMG_OLD C. FANEWGL _SWAP_IMG_OLD D. RFIGL_SWAP_IMG_OLD 11. What are the building blocks for the SAP Solution Management strategy (Please choose the correct option)?
a) Safeguarding Management, Empowering Management, Solution Management Optimization, Support Programs Management and Testing Management. b) Global Strategy and Service Level Management, Business Process Management, Management of mySAP technology, Software Change M anagement and Support Desk Management. c) Project Management, Blueprint Definition Management, Configuration Management, Customizing Synchronization Management and Testing Management. d) Integrated Product Management, Project Monitoring and Control, Configuration Management, Supplier Agreement Management and Organizational Effort Management. e) Supply Chain Management, Customer Relationship Management, Strategic Enterprise Management, Business Warehouse Management and Advanced Planner Optimizing. 12. SAP Solution Manager is (Note: we can have more than one correct sentence. Please select the sentences you think they are correct):
a) a customer platform that enables representation and documentation of the entire SAP documentation. b) a platform that provides a single point of access into component systems for design, configuration and testing activities. c) a platform that provides with the Business Process Repository central access to the list of predefined business scenarios, which serve as a starting point for identifying the project scope to be implemented. d) a platform that only enables component-oriented configuration and testing. e) a platform that helps reducing the total costs of ownership (TCO). 13. What are the five phases of the Implementation Roadmap (Please choose the correct option)?
a) Global Strategy, Business Process Management of mySAP technology, Development Management, Software Change Management and Support Desk Management. b) Project Preparation, Business Blueprint, Realization, Final Preparation and Go Live & Support. c) Integrated Product Management, Project Monitoring and Control, Configuration Management, Supplier Agreement Management and Organizational Effort Management. d) Supply Chain Management, Customer Relationship Management, Strategic Enterprise Management, Business Warehouse Management and Advanced Planner Optimizing. e) Transactions, Logical Component, Documentation, IMG Assignments and Test Cases. 14. The SAP Solution Manager as the technical and operations infrastructure has some components. What are they (Please choose the correct option)?
a) Operations, Solution Monitoring and Support. b) Schedule Manager, Solution Manager and Solution Monitor. c) Transactions, Logical Component, Documentation, IMG Assignments and Test Cases. d) Project Preparation, Business Blueprint, Realization, Final Preparation and Go Live & Support. e) Workflow, SAP Notes search, SAP Notes assistant and interface to SAP Service Marketplace to send Support Notifications. 15. Which of the following are types of selection variables for report variants?
a) Table variables from TVARV b) Dynamic date calculation c) Posting period. d) Fiscal year. 16. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. A company code is not an organizational unit B. A company code must use business areas C. A company code can only be linked to one controlling area
D. A company code can have more than one operating Chart of Account 17. In SAP what is the document principle?
A. It determines the data flow between Financial Accounting and other components of the SAP system B. It is the set of documents FI is based on C. It provides an unbroken audit trial from the financial statements to the individual documents D. It is used to count the number of documents used to during a posting in FI 18. In SAP FI which statements are correct for the chart of accounts?
A. It is possible to assign only two chart of accounts to a company code B. This is a list of all G/L accounts used by one or several company codes C. For each G/L account, the chart of accounts contain the account number, account name and the information that control how an account functions and how a G/L account is created in a company code D. It is possible to assign more than one chart of accounts to a company code 19. A company in the SAP structure is:
A. Used the same as a company code B. A consolidation master record C. Used to report structures in SAP D. Used to accumulate company code data for more than one company code 20. Which of the following are structures of Chart of Accounts?
A. Operating chart of accounts B. Standard chart of accounts C. Optional chart of accounts D. Country specific chart of accounts E. Group chart of accounts
Answers
1. E. 2. D. When a goods receipt is created for a purchase order, the profit center is always determined indirectly, according the profit center defined in the purchase order. When a invoice receipt is created for a purchase order, the profit center is always determined indirectly, according the profit center defined in the purchase order. When an asset is posted, the profit center is always determined dynamically (Overhead Cost Order OR Cost center of the asset). When a SD billing document is created with a valuated project stock, the profit center is determined dynamically from the WBS element contained in the actual SD billing document. When a SD billing document is created with a sales order, the profit center is always determined indirectly, according the profit center defined in the sales order. 3. A, C, D, E. Integrated functions in the Schedule Manager: - Uniform Error Analysis; - Uniform Start for Jobs; - Error Correction and Restart; - Dependencies; - Communication; - Documentation integrated into the system. 4. B, C, D, E. 5. A. 6. B, C, D, E. 7. A, B, D, E. 8. C, E. 9. D, E. 10. B. 11. B. 12. A, B, C, E.
SAP Solution Manager enables process-oriented versus component-oriented configuration and testing. 13. B. 14. A. 15. A and B 16. C 17. C 18. ABCD 19. B 20. A, D and E
SAP CERTIFIED APPLICATION ASSOCIATE - FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING WITH SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4
The certification test "Application Associate - Financial Accounting (FI) with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4" verifies proven skills and fundamental knowledge in the area of the SAP Financial Accounting. It proves that the candidate has a good overall understanding within this consultant profile and can implement this knowledge practically in projects under guidance of an experienced consultant. This certificate is the ideal -although not mandatory- prerequisite for the qualification to Financial Accounting Application Professional in any of the specialist areas. It is recommended as an entry-level qualification to allow consultants to get acquainted within Financial Accounting projects.
Number of Questions 80
Duration 180
Notes •
Please note that the primary source of knowledge and skills is based on SAP recommended training but the
practical ability to apply the acquired knowledge and skills will also be tested. You are not allowed to use any reference materials during the certification test (no access to online documentation • or to any SAP system).
Competency Areas The following list helps you to identify the competency areas covered in this test. The percentage indicates the portion of the test dedicated to a particular competency area.
Weighting per Topic (not listed for all exams): + = <8%
Competency
++ = 8-12%
+++ = >12%
Importance Topic
Build, implement, configure, model, and 60% troubleshoot solutions and processes.
Primary
Way(s) to attain Alternative
Other
General Ledger Accounting ++ TFIN50
AC200
TERP21
Accounts Payable ++
TFIN50
AC200
TERP21
Accounts Receivable ++
TERP21
TFIN50
AC200
Accounting Customizing I +++ TFIN50
AC201
Accounting Customizing II ++
AC202
TFIN52
