MYASTHENIA GRAVIS
1.
7.
Shortest duration of action among nondepolarizing meuromuscular
cholinesterase:
Probable cause of myasthenia
blocking drugs:
a)
Neostigmine
gravis
a)
Pancuronium
b)
Pyridostigmine
a)
Excessive synthesis of
b)
Tubocurarine
c)
Edrophonium
cholinergic receptor
c)
Atracurium
d)
Physostigmine
Inadequate synthesis of
d)
Mivacurium
b)
acetylcholine c)
Binding of anti-muscarinic
15. Pseuso-cholinesterase is present 8.
Regarding to succinylcholine
in:
receptor antibodies on the
pharmacology:
a)
Synaptic cleft
muscarinic cholinergic
a)
Rapid onset, long duration of
b)
Vesicle
action
c)
Liver and plasma
Mechanism for
d)
All of the above
receptor d)
2.
Binding of anti-nicotinic
b)
receptop antibodies to the
neuromuscular blocking
nicotinic cholinergic receptor
action interacts with
The release of calcium from sarcoplasmic reticulum of the
c)
skeletal ms is prevented by:
3.
4.
5.
a)
Dantroline
b)
D-tubocurarine
c)
Succinylcholine
d)
Baclofen
d)
16. Eserine is another name for:
muscarinic cholinergic
a)
Physostigmine
receptors
b)
Neostigmine
Cause postsynaptic
c)
Edrophonium
membrane depolarization
d)
Pyridostigmine
All of the above 17. Anti-cholinesterase agents can be
9.
Duration of action of
used for
succinylcholine:
a)
Glaucoma
a) Less than 5 minutes
b)
Myasthenia gravis
Anti-cholinesterases used to treat
b)
5-10 minutes
c)
Termination of the effects of
myasthenia gravis:
c)
15-30 minutes
neuromuscular blocking
a)
Nesostigmine
d)
More than 30 minutes
drugs
b)
Pyridostigmine
c)
Ambenonium
d)
All of the above
d)
All of the above
10. Infuence time course of succinylcholine duration of action:
18. Following statement is true
a)
Liver disease
regarding MG:
Clinical uses: Dantrolene
b)
Presence of neostigmine
a)
(Dantrium):
c)
Both
a)
Spasmolytic
d)
Neither
b)
Malignant hyperthermia
c)
Both
d)
Neither
Competitive NM blockers can be
Thymus abnormality is common
b)
Weakness of eye muscle usually present
11. Side effect associated with
c)
succinylcholine: a)
Cardiac arrhythmias
b)
Increased intragastric
antagonized by:
6.
14. This drug is a short acting anti
pressure
Azathoprine is useful in the treatment
d)
All of the above
19. Following are competitine
a)
Pancuronium
c)
Hyperkaleamia
neuromuscular blocking agents
b)
Tubocurarine
d)
All of the above
except:
c)
Atracurium
d)
Mivacurium
12. Antiarrythmic drug which may
a)
Atracurium
b)
Pancurium
increase pre-existing
c)
Tubocurarine
Mechanism of termination of
neuromuscular blockade:
d)
Decamethonium
succinylcholine
a)
Lidocaine
a)
Reuptake into presynaptic
b)
Quinidine
vesicles
c)
Both
following except:
Diffusion away from
d)
Neither
a)
b)
20. Dtubocurarine produces all the
postsynaptic receptor c) d)
Metabolism by postsynaptic
Paralysis of respiratory muscles
13. Antibiotic most likely to have an
b)
Tachycardia
pseudocholinesterase
effect on neuromuscular junction:
c)
Hypotension
Excreted unchanged in urine
a)
Chloramphenicol
d)
Bronchospasm
b)
Penicillin V
c)
Tobramycin
d)
All of the above
GLAUCOMA
7.
All of following affect size of the pupil EXCEPT:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Topical physostigmine produce all
a)
Cocaine
receptor agonist used topically on
of the following except:
b)
Tropicamide
eye for treatment of open angle
a)
Cycloplegia
c)
Ecothiophate
glaucoma:
b)
Lacrimation
d)
Timolol
a)
Pilocarpine
c)
Miosis
b)
Dorzolamide
d)
Twitches of eyelids
Topical atropine produce all of
c)
Ecothiopate
the following except
d)
Brimonidine
8.
A direct acting cholinomimetic
a)
Mydriasis
that is lipid soluble and has been
b)
Cycloplegia
used in treatment of glaucoma
c)
Peduce intraocular pressure
loss of light reflex when applied
ang sjogren syndrome:
d)
Loss of light reflex
locally on eye:
a)
Acetylcholine
b)
Betanechol
c)
Physostigmine
d)
Pilocarpine
9.
Adrenaline
Choline esters like carbachol are
b)
Ephedrine
most likely to cause which of the
c)
Timolol
following adverse effects?
d)
Cyclopentolate
a)
Anhydrosis (dry skin)
When pupillary dilatation but not
b)
Delirium
cycloplegia is desired, a good
c)
Salivation
as eye drops in glaucoma
choice is:
d)
Tachycardia
treatment except:
a)
Isoproterenol
b)
Phenylepherine
c)
Pilocarpine
d)
Tropicamide
16. The following drugs can be used
a)
Apraclonidine
b)
Atropine
applied locally to eye produce
c)
Echothiopate
cycloplegia except:
d)
Timolol
10. All of the following drugs when
a)
Homatropine
Which of following drug is used in
b)
Cyclopentolate
ophthalmology, but causes
c)
Timolol
passive mydraisis except:
mydriasis and cycloplegia lasting
d)
Scopolamine
a)
Cyclopentolate
b)
Tropicamide
c)
Eucatropine
d)
Ephedrine
a)
Atropine
b)
Ecothiophate
carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used
c)
Ephedrine
locally as eye drops in treatment
d)
Tropicamide
of glaucoma:
11. Which of the following drugs is
17. All of the following produces
18. The following drugs are used in
a)
Dipivefrin
open angle glaucoma except:
A 65 years old man has chronic
b)
Physostigmine
a)
Pilocarpine
open angle glaucoma. The drug
c)
Apraclonidine
b)
Dipivefrin
that is LEAST likely to have
d)
Brinzolamide
c)
Acetazolamide
d)
Glycerol (oral)
therapeutic value for this condition is:
6.
15. A drug produces mydriasis with
a)
more than 24 hours?
5.
14. A drug which is a 2 adrenergic
12. All of following drugs are used in
a)
Acetazolamide
open angle glaucoma, which of
b)
Isoproterenol
these agents reduces intraocular
decreased IOP by decreasing
c)
Latanoprost
pressure by decreasing formation
formation of aqueous humour
d)
Pilocarpine
of aqueous humor?
except:
19. The following drugs act to
a)
Timolol
a)
PGF 2a analogue
A 62 years old woman is noted to
b)
Pilocarpine
b)
Acetazolamide
have open angle glaucoma. She
c)
Latanoprost
c)
Timolol
inadvertently applies excessive
d)
Echothiopate
d)
Apraclonidine
pilocarpine to her eyes. This may results in which of the following? a) b)
13. Eucatropine produces its
20. All of the following drugs may
Bronchial smooth muscle
mydriatics effect via:
increase IOP except:
dilatation
a)
Stimulation of a1 receptors in
a)
Antihistaminic
dilator papillae muscle
b)
Tricyclic antidepressants
Inhibition of uptake-1 of
c)
Demecarium
noradrenaline
d)
Corticosteroids
Decreased gastrointestinal motility
c)
Dilatation of blood vessels
d)
Mydriasis
b) c)
Block of muscarinic receptors in constrictor papillae muscle
d)
Inhibition of monoamine oxidase enzyme
GOUT
1.
Probeniccid
d)
Sulfinpyrazone
Allopurinol: a) b) c) d)
2.
c)
Increases the catabolism of
b)
Effective in management of mild
d)
14. In treatment of gout
to moderate pain, when antiinflammatory action is not
acute attack if non steroidal
of uric acid
necessary
anti-inflammatory drugs fail
Inhibits the xanthine oxidase
a)
Penicillamine
to give relief
enzyme
b)
Sulfasalazine
Stimulates the xanthine
c)
Acetaminophen
oxidase enzyme
d)
Piroxicam
8.
Are infective in patients with
colchicines (mechanism of
impaired renal function
action):
Increase renal urate
a)
Can be used instead of
a)
b)
b)
Prednisolone can be used in
Allopurinol can treat acute attack
c)
Allopurinol acts as uricosuric
d)
Thiazide diuretics are better
Probable direct effect of
than loop diuretics 15. Probenicid is characterized by all
Direct membrane
the following except:
stabilization
a)
Binds to intracellular tubulin,
It is useful in treatment of gout
allopurinol
reducing microtubule
b)
It is uricosuric at large dose
All of the above
formation
c)
It promotes renal tubular
c) 3.
All the above
Increases the renal excretion
excretion c)
salicyluric acid by conjugation d)
7.
Aspirin: give inactive
uric acid
Uricosuric agents: a)
c)
Drugs with anti-inflammatory
Decreases purine synthesis directly
effect only in gout and
d)
secretion of penicillin d)
Prevents IL-1 release directly
It may induce renal urate stones formation
Mediterranean fever is:
4.
a)
Aspirin
b)
Paracetamol
management of gout
following except:
c)
Colchicines
a)
Colchicines
a)
It is uricosuric
d)
Allopurinol
b)
Probenicid
b)
It causes diarrhea
c)
Sulfinpyrazone
c)
It inhibits migration of
d)
Allopurinol
Acute attack of gouty arthritis
9.
Reduces uric acid synthesis for
may occur early in treatment with allopurinol because: a) b) c)
5.
granulocytes d)
It produces agranulocytosis
10. Sites of action of probenicid
Allopurinol increases urate
a)
Loop of henle
synthesis
b)
Proximal tubule- middle
acute attack of gout except:
segment
a)
Colchicines
Urate crystals move from
17. All of the following are effective in
tissue to plasma
c)
Both
b)
Indomethacine
Allopurinol increases releases
d)
Neither
c)
Allopurinol
d)
Prednisolone
of chemotactic factors d)
16. Colchicines produces all of the
All of the above
11. Symptoms of salicylism:
18. Salicylate intoxication includes all
a)
Tinnitus
the following except:
Indications for allopurinol (Zyloric)
b)
Decreased hearing
a)
Hyperventilation
administration:
c)
Vertigo
b)
Dehydration
a)
d)
All of the above
c)
Hypothermia
d)
Respiratory alkalosis
When probenicid of sulfinpyrazone cannot be used
b) c) d)
12. Most non steroidal anti-
19. All of the following drugs are
Presence of renal functional
inflammatory
contraindicated in gout except:
impairment
a)
Inhibit prostaglandins
a)
Aspirin small dose
biosynthesis
b)
Aspirin large dose
In a patient with recurrent renal stones
b)
Weak organic bases
c)
Thiazide diuretics
All of the above
c)
Probably increases
d)
Loop diuretics
production of free radicals 6.
Previously most popular drug for
d)
All of the above
treating inflammation of acute gouty arthritis. NSAIDs now more commonly used because of
useful in gout except: 13. Concerning salicylates: a)
diarrhea associated with earlier medication:
20. All of the following drugs are
b)
a)
Aspirin small dose
Distributed all over the body
b)
Aspirin large dose
& orally absorbed
c)
Indomethacin
Urine alkalinization:
d)
Allopurinol
a)
Allopurinol
increases free salicylate
b)
Colchicines
excretion
b)
LOCAL ANAESTHETICS
8. 1.
Associated with malignant
Factors determine rate & depth
hyperthermia:
of anaesthetis drugs:
a)
Halothane (Fluothane)
a)
Anesthetic concentration in
b)
Isoflurane
the inspired air
c)
Both
b)
Pulmonary ventilation
d)
Neither
c)
Solubility of anesthetic drugs
d)
All of the above
9.
Enflurane: a)
Widely used in paediatrics cases
2.
reversed with naltrexone c) d)
15. Droperidol + Fentanyl: a)
Neuroleptic analgesia
b)
Dissociative aneathesia
c)
Both
d)
Neither
b)
May cause nephrotoxicity
occur, it should be treated with:
c)
Skeletal muscle relaxation
may be used alone for
inadequate for surgery
procedures not requiring
16. Benzodiazepins in anaesthesia:
a)
Baclofen
b)
Diazepam
Difficult adjustment of
c)
Neostigmine
analgesic, including:
anaesthesia depth due to
d)
Dantrolone
a)
Cardiac catheterization
significant effects on pulse
b)
Some radiological
d)
Malignant nyperthermia is a 10. Inhalation anaesthesia include
Endoscopy
d)
All of the above
all of the following except:
b)
Neuroleptics drugs
a)
Halothane
c)
Fentanyl
b)
Enflurane
a)
Very potent
d)
All of the above
c)
Ketamine
b)
Non irritant to respiratory
d)
Desflurane
Nitrous oxide disadvantages: No skeletal muscle
Excellent analgesia
b)
Weak anaesthetic
b)
Non inflammable
c)
Post-anaesthesia hypoxia
c)
Very rapid onset and
The surgical stage of general anaesthesia is: st
a)
1 stage
b)
2
c)
3 stage
d)
4 stage
nd
recovery d)
a)
Excellent analgesic
b)
Rapid recovery (20-30
rd
Begins by loss of consciousness
All of the above
12. Thiopental:
stage
th
c) d)
& end by normalization of
Little post anaesthetic vomitting
d)
All of the above
18. To treat respiratory depression of opiod drugs use: a)
Fentanyl
b)
Naloxene
c)
Flumazenil
d)
Dantroline
19. Nitrous oxide:
minutes) due to rapid
a)
Effective muscle relaxation
hepatic metabolism
b)
Should not be used in the
Absence of respiratory
patient has occluded
depression
middle ear
Precipitates acute
c)
porphyria
respiration & circulation. This is: st
passages
11. Nitrous oxide disadvantages: a)
All of the above.
17. Halothane:
c)
relaxation
d)
Significant depression of myocardial contractility
d)
Significant respiratory
a)
1 stage
b)
2
stage
a)
Bradycardia
c)
3 stage
b)
Dissociative anaesthesia
c)
Hypotension
oxide is:
d)
Hypothonia
a)
Hepatoxicity
b)
Bronchospasm
c)
Malignant hyperthermia
d)
Megaloblastic anemia
d) 7.
c)
Curare
(diffusional hypoxia)
6.
procedures
a)
a)
5.
Effective analgesic
Is malignant hyperthermia
major complication of:
4.
Associated with anterograde amnesia
and respiration 3.
Cns depression can be
nd rd th
4 stage
13. Ketamine produces:
Sevoflurane: a)
Low blood solubility
b)
Resembles desflurane in
(Valium):
pharmacological properties
a)
14. Benzodiazepins: Diazepam Advantage: combination
c)
Very commonly used
with opiods do not result in
d)
All of the above
significant cardiovascular depression
depression 20. Common side effect of nitrous
DEPRESSION
1.
2.
3.
8.
Side effects of this antidepressants include nausea,
coronary vascular diseases (MI
Antidepressant therapeutic
vomiting, and insomnia:
and 2 degree heart block)
effects may be delayed for 2-3
a)
Tranylcypromine
presents with endogenous
weeks with:
b)
Fluoxetine
depression. Appropriate
a)
Serotonin-specific reuptake
c)
Imipramine
antidepressant medication would
inhibitors (SSRIs)
d)
Amitriptylline
be:
b)
Tricyclics antidepressants
c)
Both
d)
Neither
nd
a)
Imipramine
Antidepressants with relatively
b)
Fluoxetine
few cardiovascular side effects:
c)
Phenylzine
a)
Phenylzine
d)
Amitryptilline
Least likely to cause orthostatic
b)
Fluoxetine
hypotension:
c)
Amitriptylline
a)
Desipramine
d)
Maprotiline
b)
Sertraline
c)
Tranylcypromine
d)
Amitryptyline
9.
15. Low potential for anticholinergic side effects occur with: a)
Amitriptyline
b)
Nialamide (MAOI)
seen with:
c)
Desipramine
a)
Paroxetine (Paxil)
d)
Sertraline (SSRIs)
Primary use of fluoxetine
b)
Imipramine (Tofranil)
(Prozac):
c)
Both
a)
d)
Neither
Treating obsessive-
10. Significant atropine-like effects
compulsive disorders b) c)
Management of morbid
11. What is the suspected mechanism
d)
16. Antidepressants effects of TCAs appear after: a)
2-3 hours
b)
2-3 days
obesity
of action of Lithium
c)
2-3 weeks
Treating endogenous
a)
d)
2-3 months
depression
4.
14. An elderly male with a history of
Treating anxiety
inositol-1-phosphate b)
Characteristics of lithium toxicity: a)
Tremors
b)
Diabetes insipidus
c)
Hypothyroidism
d)
All of the above
Inhibiting intraneuronal
c) d)
Inhibiton of the reuptake of
17. Tricyclics antidepressants side
serotonin in the pre-synaptic
effects include all of the following
neuron
except:
Blockade of post-synaptic
a)
Dry mouth
dopamine receptors
b)
Hypertension
Increasing the affinity of the
c)
Sedation
g-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
d)
Tremors
receptor for GABA 5.
6.
Imipramine causes:
18. Amitriptiline is contraindicated in
a)
Miosis
b)
Increased urinary frequency
hypertensive crisis secondary to
c)
Orthostatic hypotension
ingestion of tyramine-containing
d)
CNS stimulation (Alertness)
foods by a patient treated with
12. Pharmacological management of
all the following cases except: a)
Patients with high intraocular pressure
b)
Patients with history of
phenylzine:
catheterization for urine
Therapeutics uses of
a)
Nitroprusside
retention
antidepressants includes:
b)
Phentolamine
c)
Patients given Sertraline
a)
Severe anxiety disorder
c)
Both
d)
Patients with ischemic heart
b)
Post traumatic stress
d)
Neither
diseases
disorders
7.
c)
Endogenous depression
d)
All of the above
13. Polyuria associated with lithium caused by:
levels:
a)
Lithium-induced osmotic
a)
Chlorothiazide
dieresis, similar to mannitol
b)
Indomethacin
Most likely to be effective in treating obsessive-compulsive
19. Drugs that affect plasma lithium
Lithium inhibits sodium
c)
Both
disordes:
b)
exchange in the ascending
d)
Neither
a)
Imipramine
loop of Henle
b)
Doxepin
c)
Clomipramine
d)
Phenylzine
c) d)
Lithium activates carbonic
20. Lithium side effects include all the
anhydrase
following excepts:
Lithium inhibits ADH receptor
a)
Tremors
b)
Polyuria
c)
Weight loss
d)
Teratogenicity
EPILEPSY
7.
Antiepileptic drug that is an irreversible inhibitor of GABA
1.
2.
a)
amino transferase enzyme is:
drugs are useful in generalized
a)
Pyrimidine
tonic-clonic convulsions (grand-
b)
Vigabatrine
mal) seizures except:
c)
Lamotrigine
c)
Inhibits its own metabolism
a)
Ethosuximide
d)
Gabapentine
d)
Has few side effects
b)
Phenytoin
c)
Carbamazepine
d)
Phenobarbitone
orders kinetics b)
15. Ineffective in treating grand mal 8.
Antiepileptic drug chemically
epilepsy:
derived from the tricyclic
a)
Phenytoin
Antiepileptic drug that cause
antidepressants is:
b)
Carbamazepine
neural tube defect is:
a)
Carbamazepine
c)
Ethosuximide
a)
Phenytoin
b)
Ethosuximide
d)
None of the above
b)
Carbamazepine
c)
Phenytoin
c)
Valproic acid
d)
None of the above
d)
Topiramate
16. Clinically used for treating grand mal seizure:
Valproic acid is shown to be
a)
Phenabarbitone
Antiepileptic drug used in
effective against:
b)
Phenytoin
treatment of trigeminal of
a)
Absence seizures
c)
Carbamazepine
trigeminal neuralgia:
b)
Partial seizures
d)
a&b&c
a)
Acetazolamide
c)
Generalized seizures
b)
Carbamazepine
d)
All of the above
c)
Trimethadione
d)
Phenobarbitone
17. Drug in order to preference in managing absence seizures:
10. Drug of choice in treating
Phenytoin is effective for the
a)
Phenobarbitone
treatment of all the following
b)
Ethosuximide
types of seizures except:
c)
Phenytoin
a)
Generalized tonic-clonic
d)
Carbamazepine
b)
Simple partial
c)
Absence
a)
d)
Status epilepsy
b)
Ethosuximide, valproate, trimethadione
c)
Carbamazepine. Ethosuximide, valproate
11. Side effects of that anti seizures
Valproate, carbamazepine, trimethadione
drug: aplastic anemia, 18. Rapid termination of status
All of the following statements
lupus:
epilepticus:
about phenobarbitone are
a)
Trimethadione
a)
I.V diazepam
correct except:
b)
Carbamazepine
b)
I.V thiopental
a)
It is a long acting
c)
Valproic acid
c)
Both
barbiturate
d)
Acetazolamide
d)
Neither
b)
An inducer of hepatic microsomal enzymes
c) d)
6.
Phenytoin, carbamazepine, phenobarbital
d)
agranulocytosis and systemic 5.
Enhances its own metabolism
absence seizures is: 4.
Is subjected only to first
All of the following anti-epileptic
9. 3.
14. Phenytoin:
12. Its antiseizures eefectiveness is
19. Antiseizure drug that probably
Acidification of urine
due to its metabolism to
act principle at Ca channel:
increases its excretion
phenobarbitone:
a)
Valproic acid
Useful in grand-mal
a)
Phenytoin
b)
Ethosuximide
epilepsy
b)
Primidone
c)
Phenytoin
c)
Diazepam
d)
A&b
d)
Lamotrigine
The following are examples of generalized seizures except:
20. Hirsuitism is associated with
a)
Tonic clonic
b)
Absence seizures
managing grand mal and partial
antiseizure medication:
c)
Simple partial seizures
seizures:
a)
Phenobarbitone
d)
Atonic seizures
a)
Clonazepam
b)
Clonazepam
b)
Valproic acid
c)
Phenytoin
c)
Phenytoin
d)
None of the above
d)
Primidone
13. Least sedating and effective in
administration of this
PARKINSONISM
1.
Carbidopa reduces:
hyperprolactinemia:
a)
Carbidopa
a)
The time of onset of L-Dopa
a)
Amantadine
b)
Bromociptine
therapeutic effects
b)
Bromocriptine
c)
Selegiline
The severity of L-Dopa
c)
Selegiline
d)
Benzatropine
associated dyskinesia
d)
Phenothiazines
Dopa decarboxylase activity in CNS
5.
14. Benztropine is a: Factors that argue against initial
a)
Dopamine agonist
The L-Dopa dose necessary
use of benztropine in a patient
b)
Antimuscarinic
to achieve therapeutic
with mild Parkinson’s disease:
c)
Dopamine antagonist
effect
a)
Old age
d)
Parasympathomimetic
b)
Prostatic hypertrophy
Drugs which increase release of
c)
Narrow angle glaucoma
dopamine & inhibits its uptake:
d)
All of the above
d)
4.
8.
15. Which of the following exerts its main effects in the gut, not in
a)
Pilocarpine
b)
Physostigmine
The following are
a)
Amantadine
c)
Amantadine
pharmacological characteristics
b)
Benztropine
d)
All of the above
of L-Dopa except:
c)
Bromocriptine
a)
d)
Carbidopa
the brain: 9.
Neurotransmitter system that
Absorbed from intestine by passive transport
may be involved in Parkinson’s
b)
It is a prodrug
diseases:
c)
Best results obtained after
a)
Dopaminergic
b)
Cholinergic
c)
Both
decarboxylase it give
d)
Neither
dopamine
Drug induced Parkinsonism due
3-4 years d)
By central DOPA
10. Anti-Parkinson Drug that
16. Which of the following drugs acts by inhibiting matebolic inactivation of endogenous dopamine: a)
Trihexyphenidyl
b)
Chloropromazine
c)
Selegiline
d)
Bromocriptine
to depletion of dopamine stores
probably acts by direct
a)
Selegiline
dopamine receptor stimulation:
b)
Tolcapone
receptors is:
a)
Benztropine
c)
Resepine
a)
Bromocriptine
b)
Selegiline
b)
Chloropromazine
d)
Bromocriptine
c)
Bromocriptine
c)
Haloperidol
d)
Amantadine
d)
Selegiline
17. A drug that stimulates D2
Acetylcholine-blocking agents, despite being helpful in in
11. Bromocriptine side effect:
18. Which of the following drugs
managing Parkinson’s disease,
a)
Mental changes
inhibits COMT and so can increase
should be avoided in patients
b)
Postural hypotension
central effects of levodopa:
with:
c)
Dyskinesia
a)
Selegiline
a)
Angle closure glaucoma
d)
All of the above
b)
Tacrine
b)
Prostatic hyperplasia
c)
Entacapone
c)
Paralytic ileus
d)
Trihexyphenidyl
d)
All of the above
12. Which of following is the main action of carbidopa: a)
6.
13. Selective inhibitor of mono amine oxidase type B is:
c)
3.
In lower doses, this agent can be used to treat
b)
2.
7.
Antimuscarinic drug used in management of Parkinson’s
Blocks Ach release in the CNS
b)
Increases permeability of
19. Parkinsonism can be induced by all the following except: a)
Reserpine
b)
Haloperidol
c)
Bromocryptine
d)
Chloropromazine
disease include:
the blood brain barrier to
a)
Benztropine
levodopa
b)
Selegiline
c)
Amantadine
conversion of levodopa to
d)
Levodopa
dopamine outside the CNS
Parkinsonism except:
Blocks dopamine receptors
a)
Rigidity
b)
Hyperkinesias
c)
Tremors
d)
Postural disturbances
c)
d)
Inhibits metabolic 20. Neurological presentations of
BRONCHIAL ASTHMA
1.
9.
An asthmatic patient suffering from
patient’s asthma, but improved
acute appendicitis. One of the
the cardiac rhythm disorders
The following drugs can be given by
followings drugs is suitable for general
inhalation in treatment of bronchial
anaesthesia:
asthma except:
a)
Thipentone Na
expectorant?
a)
Adrenaline
b)
Halothane
a)
Tincture ipecacuanhua
b)
Glucocorticoids
c)
Ether
b)
Acetyl cycteine
c)
Theophylline
d)
Morphine
c)
Bromhexine
d)
Ipratropium
d)
Benzonatat
14. Which of the following is a nauseant
10. A 10 years old child has severe 2.
3.
The following drugs can be used for
asthma and was hospitalized 5 times
long term prophylaxis against
between the age of 7 and 9. He is now
adrenergic agent. After
asthmatic attacks except:
receiving outpatient medications that
administration, the drug makes the
a)
Adrenaline
have greatly reduced the frequencies
patient tacgycardiac and nervous. This
b)
Salbutamol
of severe attacks. Of the following,
drug was probably
c)
Ketotifen
the most likely to cause adverse
a)
Salmeterol
d)
Theophylline
effects when used over long periods
b)
Isoproterenol
for severe asthma is:
c)
Terbutaline
a)
d)
A&c
The following drugs may be effective
by aerosol
in relieve ofacute attacks of bronchial asthma except:
4.
a)
Adrenaline
b)
Bethamethazone
c)
Theophylline
d)
Disodium cromoglycate
b) c) d)
Daily administration of
a)
following except:
Daily administration of Cromolyn
a)
Bromihexine
by inhaler
b)
Diphenoxylate
Daily administration of
c)
Codeine
prednisolone by mouth
d)
Dextromethorphan
Palpitation
b)
Tremors
c)
Hypertension
d)
Hypoglycaemia
11. Major action of Cromolyn: a) b) c) d)
Block calcium channels in
asthma used in:
lymphatics
a)
Acute asthma
Block of mediators release from
b)
Chronic asthma
mast cells
c)
Status asthmaticus
Smooth muscle relaxation in the
d)
All of the above
Stimulation of cortisol release by the adrenals
when applied by rapid IV or in large dose is: a)
Adrenaline
12. May precipitate acute asthma:
18. Phosphodiesterase inhibitor used in asthma therapy: a)
Ipratropium bromide
b)
Aminophylline
Exercise
c)
Propranolol
d)
Cyclosporine
b)
Salbutamol
a)
c)
Theophylline
b)
Aspirin
d)
Ipratropium
c)
Respiratory infection
d)
All of the above
19. Prophylactic antiasthmatic drug probably acts by preventing release of
A bronchodilator used in acute attacks and prophylaxis, used orally
17. Corticosteroids in the treatment of
bronchi
Bronchodilator that increases heart rate but decreases blood pressure
6.
16. Central antitussives include all of the
beclomethasone by aerosol
The following are expected side effects of adrenaline except:
5.
Daily administration of albuterol
15. An asthmatic is prescribed an
13. A 38 years old asthmatic that has
bronchoconstrictive mediators from
and by inhalation is likely to be:
been using beta adrenergic agonists
mast cells:
a)
Theophyline
for several years began to experience
a)
Beclomethasone
b)
Salbutamol
arrhythmias, premature atrial
b)
Albuterol
c)
Bethamethazone
contraction. In order to suppress the
c)
Cromolyn
d)
Ipratropium
arrhythmias, high dose metoprolol
d)
Metaproterenol
therapy was started. Suggest a likely 7.
8.
Theophylline is a competitive
consequence:
antagonist at which receptors:
a)
20. Drugs that can dilate bronchi during
The cardioselective beta-blocker,
an acute attack include all of the
a)
Adrenosine receptors
metoprolol alleviated the
following except:
b)
Muscarinic receptors
arrthymia and did not affect the
a)
Epinephrine
c)
Beta2 receptor
patients asthma symptoms
b)
Terbutaline
d)
H1 receptor
Since metoprolol is a beta
c)
Theophylline
agonist, the patient’s arrthymias
d)
Ipratropium
b)
All of the following drugs are
worsened, but symptoms of
contraindicated in asthmatic
asthma improved
hypertensive patient except: a)
Propranolol
b)
Captopril
c)
Verapamil
d)
All of the above
c)
The expiratory component of the patient;s flow/ volume curve was shortened
d)
Metoprolol increased airway obstruction, worsening the
16. Agents that protect thet upper GIT
ACID PEPTIC DISEASES
9. 1.
One of following about misoprostol
from ulcer formation include all of
Which drug accumulates in the
is false:
the following except:
gastric parietal cells canaliculi and
a)
It is a synthetic analogue of
a)
Antacid
PGE
b)
Cimetidine
It inhibits cyclooxygenase
c)
Ibuprofen
enzyme
d)
Sucralfate
+
+
irreversibly inhibits H /K ATPase? a)
Cimetidine
b)
Omeprazole
c)
Metoclopramide
d)
Famotidine
b) c)
mucosa d)
2.
10. Pirenzepine produces all of the
5HT receptors
c)
Opiates receptors
d)
Muscarinic receptors
a)
b)
Cimetidine
c)
Lansoprazole
b)
Increase in gastric motility
following except:
d)
Ranithidine
c)
Decrease in gastric acid
a)
Metoclopromide
secretion
b)
Neostigmine
Is contraindicated in narrow
c)
Phenothiazines
angla glaucoma
d)
Hyoscine
A drug inhibiting CAMP dependent
Selective M1 receptor antagonist
d)
18. Antiemetic drugs include all of the
a)
Aluminium hydroxide
b)
Sucralfate
c)
Misoprostol
prostaglandins E2 is false:
side effect with:
d)
Aluminium oxide
a)
Is the principle prostaglandins
a)
Magnesium hydroxide
synthesized in stomach
b)
Sodium bicarbonate
11. One of the following about
19. Milk alkali syndrome is a c ommon
Gastric carcinoids tumor in rats
b)
Stimulate gastric acid secretion
c)
Sucralfate
caused by:
c)
Its synthesis is inhibited by
d)
Misoprostol
a)
Pirenzepine
b)
Calcium
c)
Omeprezole
d)
Atropine
aspirin d)
Its synthesis is inhibited by rectal indomethacin
Agranulocytosis and mental
properties:
confusion of elderly are common
a)
Aluminium hydroxide
side effects of:
b)
Magnesium hydroxide
a)
Ranithidine
c)
Sucralfate
b)
Cimetidine
d)
Omeprazole
c)
Famotidine
d)
Pirenzipine
13. Ranithidine has the following
All of the following about sucralfate
a)
Not pass BBB
is true except:
b)
Not inhibit hepatis microsomal enzyme
Is effective in healing of gastric ulcer
c)
Not increase the prolactin
b)
Associated with constipation
d)
Produce a powerful
c)
Required systemic absorption
antiandrogenic action
for antiulcer activity d)
It is a mucosal protective drug
14. Pirenzepine block the following receptor:
Cimetidine:
a)
H2 receptor
a)
Is a prodrug
b)
a receptors
b)
Is an analogue of PGE1
c)
B1 receptors
c)
Is H2 receptor antagonist drug
d)
M1 receptors
d)
Is an antimuscarinic drug 15. Melanosis coli occur with:
8.
b)
Misoprostol
a)
7.
D2 receptors
a)
properties except: 6.
a)
following except:
12. A drug with antacid and laxatives 5.
17. Nabilone is antiemetic that block:
side effects:
HCL secretion:
4.
It is a mucosal protective agent
A drug acting as H 2 receptor blocker and has endocrinal and enzymatic
3.
It improves blood supply to the
As regard H2 receptor blockers
a)
Bran
ranithidine is preferable over:
b)
Liquid
a)
Cimetidine
c)
Senna (Anthraquinone)
b)
Omeprazole
d)
Lactulose
c)
Pirenzipine
d)
Odansetron
20. The absorbable antacid is: a)
Sodium bicarbonate
b)
Ca carbonate
c)
Mg-hydroxide
d)
Al-hydroxide
