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1
___________ guarantees that only one person at a time is in the process of creating a new version for a particular branch.
Record Locking
Branch locking
Object Locking
File locking
Branch locking
2
__________ model focuses on supporting management of logical changes to system configurations.
Check-in, Check-out
Composition
Long Transaction
Change set
Change set
3
Configuration Management is a technique for
Project Plan execution
Overall Change Control
Scope Planning
Risk Quantificatiion
Overall Change Control
4
CM Audit is mandatorily performed before release of the software to the customer to ensure :
Correct versions of the software is being delivered
CI(s) in the current version agrees with all specified requirements
Requested and approved changes are implemented
All of the above
All of the above
5
_______ is maintained by the SCM tool and keeps tracks of all the changes to the CI along with relevant information like the person making the changes, time of change, date of change etc
Baseline
Versions of CI
History
Label
History
6
Two developers in one team have checked in code after making individual changes to one single file. Which of the following task will provide a visual display of Conflict between the changes by the individuals.
Merging
Branching
Difference Report
Label
Merging
7
Repeated Application of the same selection rule will result in either same or different component configurations. Which of the following results in the same component configuration?
Partially bound configuration
Unbound configuration
Configuration template
Bound Configuration
Bound Configuration
8
Identification of configuration item is an essential part of SCM. Which is the immediate benefit of identifying the CI?
Producing Product Deltas
Analyzing historic information
Reporting project status
Managing release of multiple versions
Managing release of multiple versions
9
Label is a useful identification tag. Which one of the following is not true about labels?
Label freezes a moment in the development lifecycle
All files of a project are labeled with the same string
Labelling of files is recommended for updation information automatically
Label identifies a project by a more descriptive name than a version
Labelling of files is recommended for updation information automatically
10
A file of version merge combines the file modifications that have independently occurred in two versions into a new version in one of the branches. Which of the following result from a merge
Both (b) and (C)
Only a reflection of the merge in the version graph
Only merging of the content of the two files
None of the above
Both (b) and (C)
11
_____ is the set of differences between two file versions of a component of two configuration versions of a configuration
Difference Report
Change Set
Version Graph
History Graph
Change Set
12
If you have two sets of changes to a single file and you need to reflect both the changes, the task to be performed is
Labeling
Rollback
Branching
Merging
Merging
13
In the composition model, the two step process of composition and selection can be graphically visualized as ____________ graph
AND-XOR
AND-NOR
AND-OR
XOR-AND
AND-OR
14
According to all definitions of SCM, the basic activities are:
Audit and reporting the status of repositories contents
Identifying and organizing Configuration Items
Managing and controlling the version of Configuration Items
All of the above
All of the above
15
Wipro is CMMI Level 5 certified organization. SCM Process area lies at:
CMMI Level 1
CMMI Level 2
CMMI Level 3
CMMI Level 5
CMMI Level 2
16
You have newly created a design document for one critical module of your project. You want to place it under version control using some tool. You will perform this activity:
Check in
Add
Any of the above
None of the above
Add
17
Which of the following should be considered as Configuration Items for any project:
Source Code, Test plan, test Script, Test tools, Test results
Project plan, Requirement specification, Class diagrams
Project plan, Requirement specification, Class diagrams
18
Domain Consultant has a significant role in:
Change Control Board
Assisting project management
Identification of CI(s)
Setting up the SCM Tool
Change Control Board
19
Complexity issues that need be considered for SCM tool evaluation are
Availability of support for non-ASCII files
Availability of manuals
Ease of use
All of the above
All of the above
20
_________ model focuses on improving support for creating configurations, managing their history, and using them as working contexts.
Check-in, Check-out
Change set
Composition
Long Transaction
Composition
21
A set of patches applied to system releases like mainframe operating systems updates is an example of model.
Check-in, Check-out
Composition
Change set
Long Transaction
Change set
22
Which of the following is NOT a CI type
Design Document
Installation Manual
Contract document
Executable Code
Contract document
23
Change Control could be triggered by:
Requirement changes by the customer
Inconsistencies detected during development
Defects found during Testing
All the above
All the above
24
_______represent the system structure and provide a list of components or groups in a hierarchical structure.
Composition
System Model
Check-in, Check-out
Change set
System Model
25
When multiple checkouts are allowed in the CM model, which of the following is not true?
Changes can only be made with write access
True person can work simultaneously using the branching and merging tools if possible
Only users in the access control list can make changes
No changes are possible to a checked out file
No changes are possible to a checked out file
26
After reaching a milestone and releasing appropriate artifacts to customer it is advisable to ________the deliverables to identify a baseline.
Branch
Branch and Label
Label
None of the above
Label
27
“SCM is the art of identifying, organizing and controlling modifications to the software being built by programming team. It maximizes productivity by minimizing mistakes.” It is SCM’s definition by:
IEEE
SEI
Roger Pressmen
Wayne Babich
Wayne Babich
28
SCM is directly associated with :
Managing change and improved quality of software assets
Requirement analysis and test planning
Design Modeling and Documentations
None of the above
Managing change and improved quality of software assets
29
Which of the SCM related resource is available in Veloci-Q Procedures:
SCM Plan
SCM Audit
Control of Documents
SCM Guidelines
Control of Documents
30
Which of the following options ensure cost saving due to SCM:
Identification of CI(s)
Accurate release control
Proper resource allocation
None of the above
Accurate release control
31
To ensure high quality SCM, which of the following recommended is appropriate:
Use SCM Tool
Make a small and manageable team
Maintain the project plan
None of the above
Use SCM Tool
32
In a project to identify the baseline artifacts which of the following techniques can be adopted?
Merging
Keywords
Labeling
Trigger
Labeling
33
Which of the following statement is correct with respect to SCM tools:
It creates delta of binary files as part of versioning, which in turn saves disk space
A label or tag application is saved as meta data in tools database
While sharing the files a physical copy is created at respective locations
When the check out action is performed on the file, its properties does not change
A label or tag application is saved as meta data in tools database
34
Which of the following are basic feature of SCM tools:
Labeling
Repository security
Web Interface
Event Trigger
Repository security
35
Selection of SCM tool is based on:
Identification of CI(s)
Development environment and features
Configuration status accounting
Quality Model requirement
Development environment and features
36
SCM defines basically :
The organization of the components of a software system so that they fit together in a working order
It helps minimize risks and manage change in software development
It helps track & prioritize changes to a work item during the course of the SDLC
All of the above
All of the above
37
_____________ ensures that the changes made by one user are available to all the other users of a file:
Check-out
Branching
Check-in
Merging
Check-in
38
_____________ are the benefits of automated SCM.
Release Management is better organized
Information about all revisions to a file is available
Builds can be built and upgraded efficiently
All of the above
All of the above
39
Complexity issues and Management issues are
Activities of SCM
Features of SCM
Tool evaluation parameters of SCM
Issues of SCM
Tool evaluation parameters of SCM
40
All audit observations should be recorded in the _______________
Change Control Register (CCR)
Change Requests (CR)
Software Configuration Audit Report (SCAR)
Baseline Record (BR)
Software Configuration Audit Report (SCAR)
41
Multiple people working on one work item is
Multi-Development
Multi-release
Concurrent development
None of the above
Concurrent development
42
__________ provides historic information on the amount of development and maintenance effort during a product's life cycle
Weekly Report
Big report
Status Accounting
None of the above
Status Accounting
43
__________ involves analyzing the documentary proof for changes, versions and release information for components of a CI
Baselining
Accounting
Auditing
None of the above
Auditing
44
Which of the following is an SCM tool
VSS
Clear Case
CVS
All of the above
All of the above
45
Management issues that need be considered for SCM tool evaluation are
License Cost
Availability of upgrades
After sales support
All of the above
All of the above
46
Controlling the retrieval of modifiable copies of files from the repository is
Concurrency Control
SCM
Merging
Document Retrieval
Concurrency Control
47
_________ helps us to know how merging works
Merging online help
Merging manual
Merging Semantics
None of the above
Merging Semantics
48
The basic requirements of a SCM system are
Planning, versioning, branching, merging, reports
Planning, check-in, branching, merging, tools
Planning, check-in, check-out, version
Planning, control, status accounting, audit
Planning, control, status accounting, audit
49
The Criteria for selecting the right SCM tool is based upon
less Cost , User friendly, Support, features
accessibly by many users, cost, user friendly, short learning curve
Features of the tool ,development environment, complexity, Cost
Look and Feel, must be windows based, less cost
Features of the tool ,development environment, complexity, Cost
50
The advantages of having naming conventions for a CI are it helps to :
Identify the functionality of a CI
Identify the project code
Identify the Type of a CI
All the above
All the above
51
_____ are used to automatically update some parts of the header information or comments stored in the source file each time a change or revision is made.
Keywords
Label
Versions
Header File
Keywords
52
Workspace is a concept using in which of the models
System Model
Composition
Long Transaction
Change set
Long Transaction
53
In a scenario when different developers work in separate stable workspaces and the collection of their changes evolve a system, which concurrency control will you adopt?
Concurrency within one workspace
Concurrency between workspace requiring coordination
Concurrent Independent Development
Limited access to workspace
Concurrency between workspace requiring coordination
54
Component libraries are defined on the basis of ________
Both (b) and (C)
Access Control
Content
None of the above
Both (b) and (C)
55
Which one of the following is a good alternative to Branching
and merging
Workspace
Concurrent development
Sharing
None of the above
Sharing
56
Older versions of a specific workproduct can be easily retrieved by using_____________feature in SCM system
Rollback
Merging
Baseline
Branching
Rollback
57
SCM control enables team to
Approve
Review, Approve and Incorporate Changes
Review
Incorporate changes
Review, Approve and Incorporate Changes
58
Any proposals for improvement in SCM process defined in veloci-Q can be raised using
Audits
TedWeb Request
PIP
None of the above
PIP
59
A feature has been incorrectly implemented by a programmer. Which feature of SCM tool can be used to track the programmer and the version from which it is implemented ?
Merging
Branching
Rollback
History
History
60
Sharing Files is a good alternative as compared to
Branching
Merging
A & B
None of the above
Branching
61
In this course SCM stands for :
Supply Chain Management
Software Change Management
Software Configuration Management
System Crossover Management
Software Configuration Management
62
Which of the following is not a source of change:
Concurrent Development
Multiple Releases
SCM Tool
Product Family
SCM Tool
63
Change Control Register and Software Configuration Audit Reports are kept within Veloci-Q section:
Templates
Policies
Procedures
Checklist
Templates
64
Any SCM process related suggestion can be proposed in VelociQ using:
Release Review Report
Process Improvement Proposal
Project Plan
Release Note
Process Improvement Proposal
65
While working with a SCM tool to edit an existing code file, you follow this sequence of activities:
Check out, make modification on server side and check in
Check in, make modification on your local copy and check out
Check out, make modification on your local copy and check in
Check in, make modification on server side and check out
Check out, make modification on your local copy and check in
66
Defining rights of individuals for accessing the project repository is defined at which of the following stage of SCM:
SCM Audit
SCM Planning
SCM Control
SCM status accounting
SCM Planning
67
An aggregation of CI(s) that has been formally reviewed and agreed upon and taken into control at single point in time can be defined by……………. and using and SCM tool it is identified by ……………. (Fill in the blank from respective comma separated words)
Project, Pinning
Keyword, Pinning
Baseline, Label
Branch, Trigger
Baseline, Label
68
In check-in, check-out model, version branching and merging are represented by a structure known as
Structure Chart
Version Graph
History Graph
None of the above
Version Graph
69
Version branching is used for
Experimental development
Concurrent changes
Independent path of development
All of the above
All of the above
70
__________ model focuses on supporting the evolution of systems as a series of atomic changes, and on co-ordinating the change of systems.
Composition
Change set
Check-in, Check-out
Long Transaction
Long Transaction
71
Software Configuration management is a CMMi Level _____ process area
3
4
2
5
2
72
______ can help to reverse back to the previous baseline at any point of SDLC
Labelling
Merging
Baselining
None of the above
Baselining
73
Your project is in the User Acceptance Testing phase and the customer comes back with a new requirement. What is correct sequence of activities in handling this change request:
PM approves the Change, Change is implemented,CR is recorded in the CCR,CCB approves the recorded CR.
Log the CR in the CCR, The CR is taken up by the CCB for impact analysis, PM approves the change, Change is implemented
CCB approves the Change, PM does Impact analysis, Change is implemented, CR is recorded in the CCR
Change is recorded in the CCR, Impact analysis is done by the CCB, Change is approved by the CCB, Change is implemented
Log the CR in the CCR, The CR is taken up by the CCB for impact analysis, PM approves the change, Change is implemented
74
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A workspace can originate from a preserved configuration of another workspace
A workspace can originate from a repository
A workspace originates from a bound configuration in the repository
Maintaining a file system as work area is more space efficient than using a workspace
Maintaining a file system as work area is more space efficient than using a workspace
75
SCM does not help in meeting which of the following ISO requirement
Identification and Traceability
Control of records
Design and Development outputs
Control of Design and development Changes
Design and Development outputs
76
Before checking in the changes to a file it is advisable to use ______ to check the changes made to a particular file and if changes are made to the latest version of the file.
Audit Report
Configuration report
Difference Report
All of the above
Difference Report
77
Branching is a technique generally used for
Build customized versions of project for different
clients
Merging two versions of the same file
Both A & B
None of the above
Build customized versions of project for different clients
78
If a SCM break downs, which of the following is of the most help:
The last complete backup of SCM repository
Team coordination & proper project management in crisis
Individual developer’s knowledge and understanding of the system developed so far
Running release in production
The last complete backup of SCM repository
79
Management in SCM is concerned with identification and guidance of Configuration Items to final assembly. Which of the following activity is not involved in it:
Baselining CI(s)
Identification of CI(s)
Analysis of historic Information
Performing deployment
Performing deployment
80
SCM tools maintain the history of artifacts. What is the primary information maintained within history?
Audit status of version
Name and versions of artifacts
Label associated with versions
A & C
A & C
81
Using any SCM tool you can see:
Difference between two versions of binary files
Difference between two versions of files irrespective of their file
types
Difference between two versions of ASCII files
None of the above
Difference between two versions of ASCII files
82
In a parallel maintenance and enhancement project scenario if one of the bug fixes from maintenance project line is also need to be fixed for the enhancement project line then which of the following option is the most optimum?
Suggesting developer of enhancement line to perform the bug fix changes
Performing merge from identified baseline of maintenance bug fix to enhancement line
Setting up trigger for automatic bug fix notification
Inform testing team about the bug fix in enhancement line
Performing merge from identified baseline of maintenance bug fix to enhancement line
83
To ensure change control, Veloci-Q procedures says:
The request of change should be recorded in Change Control Register
Impact should be determined and client’s agreement should be received for payment against change incorporation
Change should be tracked till it is PM approves it
Risk assessment should be done in the end
The request of change should be recorded in Change Control Register
84
Configuration Status Accounting provides reports for senior management to access the health of project at any given point in time. Which of the following report is derived from Configuration Status Accounting:
System Performance Report
SCM Tool Evaluation Report
Traceability metrics Report
Bug fix implementation Report
Bug fix implementation Report
85
Control in SCM provides project personnel with the ability to :
Review
Approve
Incorporate changes
All of the above
All of the above
86
_____________ model focuses on versioning of product components
Merging
Labeling
Check-in / Check-out
Branching
Check-in / Check-out
87
_____________ is the process of combining two sets of changes to a file or two files to create a new version or combined file
Merging
Branching
Labeling
Check-out
Merging
88
Status Accounting provides
Status of change request and defect reports
Version status of various configuration items (CIs)
Status of configuration items in various project baselines
All of the above
All of the above
89
__________ process help to control different versions of the product.
SCM
Change request
Concurrent development
All of the above
SCM
90
Which of the following is a requirement of ISO 9001
Control of documents
Identification and traceability
Control of non-conforming product
All of the above
All of the above
91
CMMi assessments will look to see if a mechanism is used to control
Changes in requirements & design
Changes in code
Configuration management of the software tools used in the development process
All of the above
All of the above
92
CMMi level 2 is described as
Initial
Repeatable
Optimized
Evolving
Repeatable
93
SCM related procedures in Veloci-Q are
Configuration Management
Control of documents
Both (a) & (b)
None of the above
Both (a) & (b)
94
SCM related templates in Veloci-Q are
Baseline Record (BR)
Change Control Register (CCR)
Software Configuration Audit Report (SCAR)
All the above
All the above
95
SCM benefits an organization in the areas;
Control, Management, control, quality
Document control
Tools usage
None of the above
Control, Management, control, quality
96
Standardized, measurable process for change management are inherent of
SCM processes
SCM tools
SCM plan
None of the above
SCM tools
97
Extracting CI from repository for browsing, editing or printing is
Merging
Check-in
Sharing
Check-out
Check-out
98
A report that shows the differences between two or more files or versions of a file are
Audit report
Difference report
Configuration report
None of the above
Difference report
99
_________ is the process of using one base file for two or more parallel activities like customization
Check-in
Merging
Branching
Check-out
Branching
100
Two aspects of merging are
Check-in and check-out
Merging ascii file and merging non-ascii files
Merging of actual content; reflecting the merge in version history
None of the above
Merging of actual content; reflecting the merge in version history
101
In SCM context, a work item or deliverable such as code, documents or data is a
Data Item
Configuration Item
Building Block
None of the above
Configuration Item
102
Common planning level activities are
Approach for frequency and mode of version control
Branching Approach
Merging Approach
All of the above
All of the above
103
__________ means proposed changes to a CI are incorporated into the software configuration after review and approval
SCM
Change Control
Baselining
None of the above
Change Control
104
Some of the parameters considered for change evaluation are
Impact on existing system
Complexity of Change
Cost
All of the above
All of the above
105
Which of the following needs to be taken into consideration for SCM tool selection
OS Support
Development Environment
Hardware Requirements
All of the above
All of the above
Assess Yourself!
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1
You are a Project Engineer who has just joined Wipro. You want to know all your responsibilities as defined by veloci-Q for your role. Where would you go?
Treasure House
Navigator
PDB
Guidelines
Navigator
2
Which phases of SDLC can be sources for errors?
RS, Design, CUT & IT
RS, Design, CUT, IT, ST & AT
RS, Design, CUT, IT & ST
RS, Design & CUT
RS, Design & CUT
3
The data and information of all previously executed projects are in the:
PIP DB
Navigator
Project data bank
Treasure house
Project data bank
4
As per veloci-Q, in a project following V process model – the activity to define acceptance Test Plan is recommended as part of
Project Planning phase
RS phase
Design Phase
Acceptance Testing Phase
RS phase
5
Which of the following is not a management review mechanism, where senior management reviews performance of projects/ organization with respect to Quality?
PMR
PIP board meeting
MRM
QIC
PIP board meeting
6
The philosophy of "say what you do, do what you say" belongs to
BS7799
The Project Manager
CMMI
ISO
ISO
7
Which of these are used to identify the Risks in the project?
Past project data
Risk Identification checklist
Stake holder inputs
All of the above
All of the above
8
Effort Deviation means
PM's effort allocated to the Team member
Projected effort and planned effort
Actually consumed effort only
Variation between planned effort and actual effort+effort to go
Variation between planned effort and actual effort+effort to go
9
What is the monthly mechanism to record and track metrics of
the project?
Work Plans
PMR
PDMR
ASR
PDMR
10
ISO stands for
International Organization for Standardization
International Systems Organization
International Systems Orientation
International Systems for Organization
International Organization for Standardization
11
Process improvements can be suggested by anyone in Wipro
TRUE
FALSE
TRUE
12
Quality is defined as
Use of checklists and templates
Ability of the product to meet stated or implicit needs of customers
Set of process and procedures
All of the above
Ability of the product to meet stated or implicit needs of customers
13
An assessment consists of
Interview of customers
Questionnaire, Documents review and Interviews
Review of quality System
All of the above
Questionnaire, Documents review and Interviews
14
Triggers for root cause analysis are documented in
Quality Plan
Master list of documents
Project Dashboard
Project Plan
Project Plan
15
At organizational level, metrics are reviewed by management in
Quality Improvement Council
Management Review Meeting
Quality Review Meeting
All of the above
Management Review Meeting
16
Modification of the approved process to suit the requirements of a project are documented in
Veloci-Q
Project Plan
Master List of Process
None of the above
Project Plan
17
Planned and systematic activities performed to provide adequate confidence that an item/product conforms to requirements is
Regression Testing
Unit Testing
Quality Assurance
None of the above
Quality Assurance
18
Wipro’s quality policy is
Meet the needs and expectations of customers
Achieve customer satisfaction by providing defect free products and services on time.
Attain CMMi Level 5 compliance
None of the above
Achieve customer satisfaction by providing defect free products and services on time.
19
Group that focus on the tools used by projects and the impact of using tools is
SQA
SEPG
Tools group
All of the above
Tools group
20
Configuration audits are verification mechanisms used to ensure that deliverables are:
On schedule
Defect free
Consistent with requirements
None of the above
Consistent with requirements
21
Which of this is not the intended use of Metrics?
To take appropriate decisions based on measured values
To monitor individual performance
To monitor the project performance
To revise plans
To monitor individual performance
22
The effectiveness of the Quality Management System is continuously improved through
Quality group recruitments
Audit results, corrective and preventive actions, CSATs, Management Review
Sales reports, Balance sheets, Company audit reports
Individual Performance appraisals
Audit results, corrective and preventive actions, CSATs, Management Review
23
Quality Policy
Is prepared for the Mission Quality Group
Is used to rate the Mission Quality Group performance every
year
Should not be shown to the customer as it is very confidential
States a clear commitment to quality and consistent with organization goals
States a clear commitment to quality and consistent with organization goals
24
Prototype helps in validating
Design
Technology
Requirements
Technical skills
Design
25
Organizational learning enters Veloci-Q through
Queries and PIP
Project Performance Analysis
Audit findings
All of the above
All of the above
26
______is an initiative that involves measuring and analyzing business processes.
Six Sigma
Root Cause Analysis
Pugh Matrix
None of the above
Six Sigma
27
In a six sigma project, the problem owner is
Black Belt
White Belt
DM
Green Belt
Green Belt
28
A list of project documents, quality records and customer supplied documents are recorded in
Master List of Documents
Project Folder
Document Bank
None of the above
Master List of Documents
29
Schedule deviation, effort deviation, field error rate are some of the metrics captured for
Service projects
Development projects
Maintenance projects
All of the above
Development projects
30
Difference between actual end date and planned end date expressed as a % of planned duration is
Requirements volatility
Schedule volatility
Schedule deviation
None of the above
Schedule deviation
31
Ratio of product size to total project effort is
Effort Deviation
Overall Productivity
CUT productivity
None of the above
Overall Productivity
32
Acceptance criteria should be part of Requirement Specification (RS) document
FALSE
Can be part of RS if provided by customer
TRUE
None of the above
TRUE
33
__________are requests to make changes to baselined work products.
Requirements
Maintenance Request (MR)
Change Request (CR)
None of the above
Change Request (CR)
34
Wipro’s quality system is known as
K-net
WiqTree
Veloci-Q
Project Data Bank
Veloci-Q
35
__________are the industry standards and benchmarks for quality.
ChannelW
Quality Models
Six Sigma
Veloci-Q
Quality Models
36
In Veloci-Q, intentions and directions for quality initiative are documented in
Policies section
Procedure section
Guidelines section
All of the above
Policies section
37
Process artifacts that help to perform project activities in a standard manner are
Checklists and Templates
Policies
Procedures
All of the above
Checklists and Templates
38
The extent to which a specific process is defined, managed, measured and controlled within an organization is known as
Procedures Capacity
Software Process Maturity
Measurememt Maturity
All of the above
Software Process Maturity
39
The two representations in the CMMI Framework are:
Integrated and Continuous
Integrated and Staged
Staged and Continuous
None of the Above
Staged and Continuous
40
____________ documents all change requests to baselined items.
Change Register
Configuration Register
Change Control Register
Change Request Register
Change Control Register
41
_________is used to document the features/functionality to be tested, test strategy and testing methods to be used.
Test Form
Test Plan
Test development
Test Design
Test Plan
42
Project monitoring reviews are conducted to
Review project progress
Understand project requirements
Monitor requirements volatility
All of the above
Review project progress
43
A Process basically defines :
A new procedure to be implemented
Who is doing what when and how to reach a specific goal
A running Program
All of the above
Who is doing what when and how to reach a specific goal
44
The International Standard for Quality Assurance – ISO 9001 emphasizes on :
Critical Component quality
Product Quality
Both (a) and (b)
Process Quality
Process Quality
45
Which Lifecycle model emphasizes preparation of plans for validation during the early Life Cycle stages itself?
Rational Unified Process Model
Maintenance model
2I Process Model
V-Process Model
V-Process Model
46
_______ is a monthly mechanism to track metric trends, exceptions of metrics and ensure Process Improvements in the Business Unit
QICs
PIP Board meetings
Quality meet
Look Ahead Meetings
QICs
47
Organisation’s Customer Focus should meet the needs and expectations of:
Suppliers and partners
The customers and end users
People in the Organisation
All of the above
All of the above
48
__________________ is a mechanism of maintaining the mapping between requirements and products resulting from the requirements.
Design document
Requirements Traceability
Test cases
Functional design
Requirements Traceability
49
Voice Of Customer (VOC) can be used to
Select requirements
Requirements traceability
Prioritize customer requirements
Analyze customer requirements
Analyze customer requirements
50
The CMMI level 5 stage is termed as a :
Iterative stage
Repeatable stage
Optimizing stage
Defined stage
Optimizing stage
51
Project Performance Analysis (PPA) is an exercise which examines :
Lessons learnt and best practices
Conformance of requirements
Individual performance
Process Improvement Proposals
Lessons learnt and best practices
52
A NCR (Non Conformance Report) signifies :
Deviation from a stated process
Failure of ISO certification
Observation
Deviation of coding standard
Deviation from a stated process
53
The Assessment methodology defined by SEI for the CMMI model is
PVPD
CAQ
CBAIPI
SCAMPI
SCAMPI
54
How many Process Areas are there in CMMI:
24
28
23
18
24
55
What is the 3rd level in CMMI called?
Optimized
Controlled
Managed
Defined
Defined
56
In the execution of maintenance projects each trigger from the customer is recorded in a:
Change Request
MR
PMR
Change control Register
MR
57
In CMMI the Level 2 stage is described as
Optimized
defined
Managed
Repeatable
Managed
58
Project monitoring reviews are conducted :
On a monthly basis
By the SQA Team periodically
Whenever we have a client release
In the external audit meeting
On a monthly basis
59
Which of these is not true regarding an Observation recorded during an audit
This is a suggestion for improvement
This is a deviation from the stated process
This does not need closure
It could be a potential for non-conformance in future
This is a deviation from the stated process
60
The different categories of Lifecycle models are
V-process model, 2i, RUP
iPAT, veloci-Q, Six Sigma
Development, maintenance, service, testing etc
All of the above
V-process model, 2i, RUP
61
In order to achieve customer satsifaction, the team should
Elicit parameters that are critical to quality from customers
Collect data and metrics
Track project performance
All of the above
All of the above
62
The mechanism for obtaining customer feedback at project closure as per veloci-Q is:
Call the customer and obtain feedback
Create a feedback form and send it
Use template in veloci-Q as a feedback form, tailor the feedback form by including project specific questions
An acceptance mail from the customer post project completion will suffice
Use template in veloci-Q as a feedback form, tailor the feedback form by including project specific questions
63
Customer Satisfaction survey is conducted to
Obtain feedback on delivery by Wipro
Obtain feedback on the engagement with Wipro
A and B
None of the above
A and B
64
ISO, CMM, Six Sigma are_______
Coding Standards
Quality models
Tools
Programming Languages
Quality models
65
The process followed in the software development project should be:
Processes as described in velociQ.
Client specified processes
Tailored ODC specific processes
All of the above
All of the above
66
Which of this is a planned mechanism for Defect Prevention?
Look Ahead Meetings
Customer feedback
PDMR and PMR reviews
All of the above
Look Ahead Meetings
67
Deviations from the stated processes that are identified during the audit are recorded as
Process Improvement Proposal
Creation of Work Plans
Non-Conformances
Process Improvement and Process Development
Non-Conformances
68
veloci-Q has a ____ -tier architecture
Multi-dimensional
3
2
4
3
69
A “Surveillance audit “is conducted by:
SQA and SEPG
Delivery Manager
Project Managers coordinated by SEPG
External certification agency
External certification agency
70
Wipro Technologies is assessed as a CMMI _____Organization
4
5
It is assessed at CMM only, but no level of CMMi
3
5
71
Release note is prepared :
To explain the project closure norms
Prior to the release , contains the list of software items
After the final test case is executed
On acceptance of the release
Prior to the release , contains the list of software items
72
A project can be initiated based on
DM’s preference to develop his favorite application
The contract signed by the customer
DM wanting his team to understand a technology
All of the above
The contract signed by the customer
73
Which of the following would help us in deriving the projects specific process from the organization’s standard process?
Process guidelines
Life Cycle models
Project Procedures
Tailoring Guidelines
Tailoring Guidelines
74
We take customer complaint seriously
TRUE
FALSE
TRUE
75
Corrective and Preventive Action Plan should be drawn for:
Customer feedback ratings
Customer complaints received
Actions from Customer Satisfaction surveys
All of the above
All of the above
76
The Six Sigma technique/tool recommended for use of Risk
Analysis is
FMEA
Pugh Matrix
Voice of Customer
RCA
FMEA
77
Which metric is used for tracking change in requirements?
Requirements Volatility
CRs Index
Requirements Change Index
None of the above
Requirements Volatility
78
Purpose of Project performance report is to
Compute average time it takes for screens to load
Restart the project again at a future date
Provide the project team appropriate reward
Record the learning’s from the project for future reference
Record the learning’s from the project for future reference
79
It is mandatory to take corrective and preventive actions for
Observations
Customer complaints
Non-conformances
Both (b) and (c )
Both (b) and (c )
80
____is a cluster of related practices that are performed collectively to achieve a set of objectives.
Channel W
Quality System
Process Area
None of the above
Process Area
81
In CMMi context ____is a collaborative effort to find strengths and improvement areas.
Appraisal
Audit
Assessment
Observation
Assessment
82
DPMO stands for_____
Defects per million opportunities
Derivations per million opportunities
Defects per million occasions
All of the above
Defects per million opportunities
83
DSSS, DMAIC and TQSS are six sigma methodologies used for
Defect Reduction
Reduction of cycle time
Cost calculations
None of the above
Defect Reduction
84
_____is a repository of data and learning from closed projects.
Six Sigma
Project Data Bank
Veloci-Q
None of the above
Project Data Bank
85
_____is used for tracking and monitoring risks.
Risk Management plan
Risk Identification checklist
Project plan
None of the above
Risk Management plan
86
The CMMi model was developed by
Motorola
Software Engineering Institute
Wipro
None of the above
Software Engineering Institute
87
Work items that would undergo changes during product life cycle are known as
Configuration Items
Change Items
Product Items
None of the above
Configuration Items
88
Practitioners working on projects can suggest process improvements through a
Process Improvement Proposal
Change Request
Email/Phone
All of the above
Process Improvement Proposal
89
Bureau of India Standards emphasizes on
Project Quality
Process Quality
Quality Models
Product Quality
Product Quality
90
In a project context, who needs to do what is documented in
Guidelines section
Policies section
Procedure section
All of the above
Procedure section
91
The philosophy of ISO is based on the key principles like:
Act upon the findings
Say what you do, do what you say
Record what you did and check the results
All of the above
All of the above
92
__________ matrix is an aid to trace requirements across different phases of development.
Change request
Requirements
Traceability
All of the above
Traceability
93
________ is defined as any adverse event that is likely to occur.
Disaster recovery
Change request
Risk
Maintenance request
Risk
94
The process model applicable to projects that involve development of new products or major enhancements to existing products is
Iterative process model
V-process model
Waterfall process model
None of the above.
Iterative process model
95
The role of a person who facilitates the six sigma team project to align with the methodology is:
Green Belt
Champion
Yellow Belt
Black Belt
Black Belt
96
______________ in the Configuration Management (CM) process represents the snapshot of a set of deliverables at a given point in time.
Configuration Audits
Baselines
Configuration Items
CCB
Baselines
97
In Wipro, a quality group is
Part of project team
Part of a vertical
Separate group headed by Chief Quality Officer
None of the above
Separate group headed by Chief Quality Officer
98
CMMi model outlines _____levels of maturity.
3
5
6
8
5
99
Statistical term that describes the amount of variation in data
Standard Deviation
Six Sigma
Normal Distribution
Median
Standard Deviation
100
The quality group responsible for process definition, metrics analysis and quality assurance activities at vertical/group vertical level is
Tools Group
SQA
SEPG
None of the above
SQA
101
Modification of the approved process to suit the requirements of a project is known as
Process Tailoring
Process Approval
Process Deviation
None of the above
Process Tailoring
102
_________ serves as an important verification activity to ensure the completeness of testing in order to ensure product quality.
Test Audit
Integration Testing
Unit Testing
System testing
Test Audit
103
Achieving the goal of Six Sigma means your product will be
defect free to an extent of:
13.5 defects per million opportunities
4.3 defects per million opportunities
3.4 defects per million opportunities
4.4 defects per million opportunities
3.4 defects per million opportunities
104
_______ is a process of examining whether the process conforms to the defined quality system:
Review
Audit
Assessment
Testing
Audit
105
Maintenance Process Model is best suited for
Minor functional enhancements or performance improvement of the existing software
Problem resolution on existing software products
Interface modification due to changes in hardware or software environment
All of the above
All of the above
106
You are a Project Engineer who has just joined Wipro. You want to know best practices from projects executed in Wipro. Where would you go?
Treasure House
Navigator
PDB
Guidelines
Treasure House
107
Which feature of velociQ helps in getting Activity Based views?
PIP DB
Navigator
Project data bank
Treasure house
Navigator
108
Which of the following is review mechanism, where senior management reviews performance of projects with respect to Quality?
PMR
MRM
QIC
All of the above
All of the above
109
Which of the following provides details on metrics performance for project :
Execution Process Plan
PDMR
Project Vision
Resource Plan
PDMR
110
_____is the monthly mechanism to record and track metrics of the projects
Work Plans
PMR
PDMR
ASR
PDMR
111
Process improvements cannot be suggested by anyone in Wipro
TRUE
FALSE
FALSE
112
At vertical level, metrics are reviewed by management in
Quality Improvement Council
Management Review Meeting
Quality Review Meeting
All of the above
Quality Improvement Council
113
Group that works on the definition of the procedures and
guidelines used by projects is
SQA
SEPG
Tools group
All of the above
SEPG
114
Testing helps in validating__________
Design
Technology
Requirements
Technical skills
Requirements
115
New process enters velociQ through
Queries and PIP
Project Performance Analysis
Audit findings
All of the above
All of the above
116
In a six sigma project, the mentor / facilitator is a __________
Black Belt
White Belt
DM
Green Belt
Black Belt
117
Difference between actual effort and planned effort expressed as a % of planned effort is
Requirements volatility
Schedule volatility
Effort deviation
None of the above
Effort deviation
118
Ratio of product size to effort in coding and unit testing phase is
Effort Deviation
Overall Productivity
CUT productivity
None of the above
CUT productivity
119
Which model is not used for new product development?
V-Process model
Iterative Process model
Production Support process model
None of the above
Production Support process model
120
In Veloci-Q, three tier structures consist of which section?
Policies section
Procedure section
Guidelines section
All of the above
All of the above
121
Checklists & templates are process artifacts that help to perform project activities in a standard manner
TRUE
FALSE
Checklist & template are not mandatory
Checklist & template are not process artifacts
TRUE
122
Change Control Register documents all change requests to baselined items
TRUE
FALSE
TRUE
123
_________ is a technique used for capturing and analyzing customer requirements.
Quality Function Deployment (QFD)
Pugh matrix
Voice Of Customer (VOC)
None of the above
Voice Of Customer (VOC)
124
Which of the following can be used to validate customer requirements
LOC
Testing
Function points
Voice Of Customer (VOC)
Testing
125
What is the 5th level in CMMI called?
Optimized
Controlled
Managed
Defined
Optimized
126
In CMMI Level 4 stage is described as?
Optimized
Defined
Managed
Repeatable
Repeatable
127
The different categories of development Lifecycle models are
V-process model, 2i, RUP
iPAT, veloci-Q, Six Sigma
Development, maintenance, service, testing etc
None of the above
V-process model, 2i, RUP
128
Who is responsible for preparing the estimate?
Business Development Manager
Presales staff
Delivery Manager
Project Manager
Project Manager
129
Which of this is planned mechanism for progress reviews?
Look Ahead Meetings
Customer feedback
PDMR and PMR reviews
All of the above
PDMR and PMR reviews
130
Choose the right one: Process model suitable for development project.
Waterfall Development model
Iterative model
V-Process model
All of the above
All of the above
131
The set of actions to be taken when the probable risks occur ; are documented as a part of
Defect Prevention Report
Risk Tracker
Mitigation Plan
Contingency plan
Mitigation Plan
132
The Six Sigma technique/tool recommended for Analyzing Requirements is
FMEA
Pugh Matrix
Voice of Customer
RCA
Voice of Customer
133
DMAIC stands for
Do, Measure , Add, Improve, Control
Define, Measure , Add, Improve, Control
Define, Measure , Analyze, Improve, Control
Define, Measure , Add, Improve, Check
Define, Measure , Analyze, Improve, Control
134
In project context what is to be done how is documented in
Guidelines section
Policies section
Procedure section
All of the above
Guidelines section
135
__________ is a method to track changes in requirements across different phases of development.
Change request
Requirements
Traceability
All of the above
Change request
136
The managed services framework in Wipro Technologies is governed by __________ standard.
ISO 9001
ISO 14001
ISO 20000
None of the above
ISO 20000
137
Which of the following is not a valid phase of managed services life cycle in Wipro Technologies?
Design
Transition
Due Diligence
Reverse Transition
Design
138
OLA in Managed Services stands for
Operational Level Contract
Operational Level Agreement
opportunity Lost Analysis
None of the Above
Operational Level Agreement
139
Outcome based agreements typically include
SLA
OLA
UC
All of the Above
All of the Above
140
Managed Services engagements typically
Don't need any governance
Are governed by a contract as desired by the customer
Are governed by outcome based agreement
None of the Above
Are governed by outcome based agreement
Assess Yourself!
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You need to score a minimum of 70% to pass the test.
Click Enter to begin the test.
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Reviews and Testing Assessment
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Click Get your certificate.
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1
A ______ is a document which describes the objective, scope , approach and focus of a software testing effort
Test Plan
Test Case
Test Strategy
Test Script
Test Plan
2
Advantages of Automated testing tools are:
Economy
Repeatability & Scalability
Robustness
All of the above
All of the above
3
Table review process is followed mostly for reviewing documents. What is the other name of Table Review Process?
PEST Analysis
SWOT Analysis
Fagan's Review Process
Brainstorming
Fagan's Review Process
4
The highlights of Acceptance testing are :
Checks the system against the requirement specification
Testing done by customer and not the developer
Focuses on whether the system delivers what was requested and is informed by the business
All of the above
All of the above
5
What is the correct definition of a Test Script?
It is a logical group of test cases which when taken together test
a particular function or unit of the system
It is a document that defines the input, action and expected output to determine if a certain feature of an application is working correctly
It is a document that describes the sequence of steps to execute a test case.
None of the above
It is a logical group of test cases which when taken together test a particular function or unit of the system
6
Which of the following are highlights of system testing ?
Testing is based on a very structured approach for generating test cases
Testing is generally done by an independent test team, and not by the developer
Aims at testing a host of variables like basic requirements, implied requirements, performance
All of the above
All of the above
7
Which of the following are objectives of a review?
Verifying that specifications are met
Collecting data for improvement
Identifying deviations from standards and specifications
All of the above
All of the above
8
_______ is done with the intent of determining if the product will install on a variety of platforms.
Product testing
Installation testing
Load testing
Compatibility testing
Installation testing
9
________ covers both Performance testing and Stress testing.
Load testing
Performance testing
Build testing
All of the above
Load testing
10
__________ refers to 'Are we building the product RIGHT?'
Review
Validation
Testing
Verification
Verification
11
___________ stage ensures that review comments have been incorporated during rework
Review
Causal Analysis
Rework
Follow up
Follow up
12
Defects found in reviews are classified in 2 ways. The 2 ways are :
Priority, Source
Severity, Type
Major, Minor
Cosmetic, Logical
Severity, Type
13
Errors are classified based on
Type
Severity
Both (a) and (b)
None of the above
Both (a) and (b)
14
Focus of the integration testing is to verify
The features specified in the design has been implemented
Functionality of the system as a whole
The inter-module interactions thoroughly
All of the above
The inter-module interactions thoroughly
15
If the cost of fixing a defect in the requirements phase is 1, what is the relative cost of fixing a defect in the Testing Phase
15-40
10
>100
10 to 15
15-40
16
Importance of Review are :
Detect defects early
Emphasize quality throughout development
Both (a) and (b)
None of the above
Both (a) and (b)
17
In a review process, who moderates the review sessions?
Author
Reviewer
Review Leader
Recorder
Review Leader
18
In a table review, who records the defects and classifies errors?
Review Leader
Reader
Author
Recorder
Recorder
19
In which of the following review stages, tasks and specific focus areas are assigned to the team
Planning
Preparation
Kick-off
None of the above
Kick-off
20
Mike Fagan of IBM published a paper in 1976, describing a method called __________ which formalised the software review process.
Peer review
Table review
Online review
Pair review
Table review
21
Norms for review rate are defined for which of the following reasons:
To assign review related tasks to the team
Review Productivity
Exit Criteria of a Review Process.
Measure Review effectiveness
Measure Review effectiveness
22
Preparation of a ________ is very important, before conducting Unit testing.
System Test Plan
Unit Test Plan
Unit Test Case
All of the above
Unit Test Plan
23
Review is a formal evaluation technique in which software requirements, design and code is examined in detail by groups of persons other than the author to detect faults,violations of development standards and other problems. This definition of reviews is by
IEEE
Roger Pressmen
SEI
None of the Above
IEEE
24
Testing is the process of __________
Verifying that specifications are met
Evaluating a system to verify that it satisfies the specified requirements
Both (a) and (b)
Executing a program to find errors
Both (a) and (b)
25
The basic building block of any activity in any phase of the SDLC which forms the core of Wipro's Reviews and Testing Process is called the :
Verification and Validation Techniques
ETVX Model
Peer Review
All of the above
ETVX Model
26
The different types of flow/coverage based testing are:
Statement coverage
Full Path coverage
Decision coverage
All of the above
All of the above
27
The inputs to planning stage in a review process are
Problem definition
List of roles
Review process map
None of the above
Problem definition
28
The objectives of Regression testing are :
Ensures performance of two or more modules
It determines if bug fixes have been successful and they have not created any new problems
Ensures that no degradation of baseline functionality has occurred
Both (b) and (c)
Both (b) and (c)
29
The purpose of _________ is to assure that the product or product components fulfill their intended use when placed in their intented environment
User Acceptance Testing
Validation
Verification
Product Testing
Validation
30
The purpose of _________ is to assure that the selected product meet their specified requirements
Acceptance Testing
Validation
Verification
Feature testing
Verification
31
The purpose of Functional testing are:
Finding defects
Verifying that the module performs its intended functions as stated in the specification
Establishing confidence that a program does what it is supposed to do
All of the above
All of the above
32
The role of a Review Team Leader is
Provides an overview of the product to be reviewed during the kick off meeting
Classify defects
Provide clarification
To moderate the review meeting
To moderate the review meeting
33
The various kinds of classifications of testing are __________
Type - based classification
System - based classification
Both (a) and (b)
Level - based classification
Both (a) and (b)
34
There are seven steps in a review process. Which of the following step helps in defect prevention?
Review Preparation
Causal Analysis
Conducting the Review
Closing the review comments
Causal Analysis
35
Tools commonly used for causal analysis are
Root cause analysis
Pareto Analysis
Both (a) and (b)
None of the above
Both (a) and (b)
36
Verification and Validation utilizes ________ to analyse and check system representations.
Validation Techniques
Testing Techniques
Review Techniques
All of the above
Review Techniques
37
Which of the following are broad types of efficiency techniques in testing :
Domain Based testing
System Based testing
Both (a) and (b)
Flow/ Coverage - Based testing
Both (a) and (b)
38
Which of the following are the commonly accepted levels of testing in the Software Development Life Cycle ?
System testing
Unit or Component testing
Integration testing
All of the above
All of the above
39
Which of the following checklists are related to reviews in veloci-Q?
Test plan/ Test Case Development Review
Transition Review
Code Review
All of the above
All of the above
40
Which of the following could be a criteria to stop review
Reviewers decide that there is no need for another
review
Too many errors are found in the review
Defects are rectified and verified by review team leader
All of the above
All of the above
41
Which of the following criteria serve as basis for taking decision to stop testing :
Stop testing when all test cases execute without producing any error
Stop testing when the specified test coverage is completed without finding errors
Stop testing when it becomes unproductive
All of the above
All of the above
42
Which of the following defect type classification is used for document Reviews?
Performance
Functionality
Error Handling
Lack of Clarity
Lack of Clarity
43
Which of the following procedures are related to reviews in veloci-Q?
Proposal/Contract review
Review
Release Review
All of the above
All of the above
44
Which of the following review types is used for building code or documents by discussing with the members of the development team and improving the work item .
Table Review
Peer Review
Inspection
Walk throughs
Walk throughs
45
Which of the following reviews have well defined roles
Table review
Walkthrough
Peer review
All of the above
Table review
46
Which of the following rules apply for real-time system testing :
Use tests to simulate hardware faults
Use hardware simulation to add stress to the software design
Design ways to simulate modules missing in the development system
All of the above
All of the above
47
Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?
The potential of testing to improve quality is unlimited.
Properly run unit testing is potentially capable of removing 70% of the defects
Testing cannot remove all defects which are undetected in earlier stages
All of the above
The potential of testing to improve quality is unlimited.
48
Which of the following templates are related to reviews in veloci-Q?
Review
Defect Prevention Report
Release Review Summary
All of the above
All of the above
49
Why is multiple rounds of system testing recommended?
Accommodate bug fixes and eliminate maximum defects
Shortage of resources to complete testing in one round
Set of test cases can be executed in each round.
For testing basic requirement, implied requirements , performance measures in various rounds
Accommodate bug fixes and eliminate maximum
defects
50
_____ testing focus on how the components communicate with each other as specified in the system Design
System
Integration
User
Component
Integration
51
______ are conducted to find and eliminate errors/defects in the early stages of product development.
Reviews and Testing
Reviews
Validation
All of the above
Reviews
52
______ examines the various combinations of Boolean operands within a condition.
Condition coverage
Condition operand coverage
Condition operator coverage
All of the above
Condition operator coverage
53
______ provides a measure of the conditions which could ensure that a branch is executed.
Decision coverage
Condition operand coverage
Both (a) and (b)
Condition coverage
Condition operand coverage
54
_______ is used to determine whether other system software components such as browsers utilities and competing software will conflict with the software being tested
Mutation Testing
Browser Testing
Compatibility Testing
Real Time testing
Compatibility Testing
55
________ can also be called as Black Box testing.
System testing
Integration testing
Unit or Component testing
Interface testing
System testing
56
________ complexity is a measure of algorithmic complexity, calculated by counting operators and operands.
McCabe
Halstead
Combination
None of the above
Halstead
57
________ complexity measures the structural complexity of software by quantifying the number of linearly-independent paths running through a program module.
McCabe
Halstead
Combination
None of the above
McCabe
58
________ complexity-based testing measures program length
and vocabulary, volume, difficulty, and effort.
McCabe
Halstead
Combination
None of the above
Combination
59
__________ testing shall be carried out if there are multiple modules in the project.
Unit
Build
Module/ Feature
System
Module/ Feature
60
___________ in a review, helps in defect prevention
Review Preparation
Causal Analysis
Review Meeting
None of the above
Causal Analysis
61
___________ technique can be used for testing process
DOE and Pugh Matrix
QFD and Orthogonal array
DOE and Orthogonal array
DOE and QFD
DOE and Orthogonal array
62
_____________ is a way of proving that your system does what is intended and also meets all requirements.
Verification
Validation
Verification and Validation
None of the above
Verification and Validation
63
During System Testing of an application, you would want to test the peak volumes of information that can be handled by the application. What kind of testing would you do?
Stress
Volume
Performance
Robustness
Stress
64
Importance of Testing are :
To ensure that the product is usable
Early identification of errors that helps in prevention of a breakdown at a later stage.
To ensure that customer's objectives are met
All of the above
All of the above
65
In a software development environment ____________ is confirmation that the output of a particular phase of development meets all
of the input requirements for that phase.
Software Validation
Software Testing
Software Verification
Reviews and Testing
Software Verification
66
JTest, Jprobe, Purify are some of the __________ used in projects.
Verification tools
Validation tools
Testing tools
All of the above
Testing tools
67
The ___________ based testing is a systematic, statistical way of testing the software.
User interface
Orthogonal Array
Functionality
None of the above
Orthogonal Array
68
The outputs of review meeting are
Defect Log
Rework Task list
Review meeting minutes
All of the above
All of the above
69
Which of the following are different types of reviews?
Walkthrough
Inspections
Both (a) and (b)
None of the above
Both (a) and (b)
70
Which of the following are the highlights of unit testing ?
Involves testing of basic building blocks of the system
Testing is generally done by an independent test team, and not by developer
Testing to verify the inter-module interactions thoroughly
All of the above
Involves testing of basic building blocks of the system
71
Which of the following is the most important criteria to start review of a work item.
Sign off by the customer
Approved by the Project Manager
Check whether estimations of review is available
Check for completeness of the work item to be reviewed
Check for completeness of the work item to be reviewed
72
Which of the following testing is recommended in order to keep company data and resources secure from mistaken or accidental users, hackers, and other malevolent attackers.
Security testing
Safety testing
Both (a) and (b)
Mutation testing
Security testing
73
Which one of the following is an important output of a kick off meeting
Roles and Responsibilities of Review team Members
Individual Review notes
List of Reviewers
List of Roles of Reviewers
Roles and Responsibilities of Review team Members
74
______ demonstrates satisfactory suitability for use in the intended operating environment.
Verification
Validation
Review
Inspection
Validation
75
_______ is done to validate the entire product.
System testing
Acceptance testing
Regression testing
Integration testing
System testing
76
________ helps analyze the required efforts for validating the acceptability of a software product.
Test Plan
Test Script
Test Case
All of the above
Test Plan
77
________ is a process of executing a program with the intent of finding errors.
Review
Peer review
Verification
Testing
Testing
78
________ typically involves actual testing.
Verification
Validation
System Checking
Verification and Validation
Validation
79
__________ are techniques of system checking and analysis.
Review and Testing
Review and Analysing
Review, Testing and analysing
None of the above
Review and Testing
80
__________ includes all of the verification and testing activities conducted throughout the software lifecycle.
Software Testing
Software Validation
Software Verification
Reviews and Testing
Software Validation
81
__________ is a formal evaluation technique in which software requirements, design, or code are examined to detect faults.
Review
System Testing
Validation
All of the above
Review
82
A ____ provides a framework for setting the input parameters, executing the unit and reading the output parameter.
Test bed
Test driver
Test stub
All of the above
Test driver
83
Test audit observations should be captured in _________
Test Audit Report
Test Report
Test Observation Report
All of the above
Test Audit Report
84
The outputs of planning stage in a review process are
Baseline Work Product
Review Plan
List of roles for review
All of the above
All of the above
85
Which of the following reviews are recommended for large/critical work items
Peer review
Table review
Walkthrough
All of the above
Table review
86
Wipro is CMMI Level 5 certified organization. Verification and Validation Process Areas lies at
CMMI Level 3
CMMI Level 5
CMMI Level 2
CMMI Level 4
CMMI Level 3
87
________ can also be called White box testing.
Integration testing
Unit or Component testing
Interface testing
System testing
Unit or Component testing
88
A visual examination of a software product to detect and identify software anomalies or defects including errors and deviations from standards is
Walkthrough
Testing
Inspection
None of the above
Inspection
89
An informal meeting for evaluation or information purpose is a
Walkthrough
Testing
Inspection
None of the above
Walkthrough
90
As the project moves from requirements stage to completion stage, the cost of fixing defects .
Remains the same
Decreases
Is unaffected by reviews
Increases
Increases
91
Challenges of Review and Testing are:
Lack of domain expertise
Monotony of the job and coping with requirement changes
Both (a) and (b)
None of the above
Both (a) and (b)
92
A ________ is an imitation of a unit, used in place of the real unit to facilitate testing.
Test driver
Test build
Test bed
Test stub
Test stub
93
A group of test scripts which when taken together test all functions of an entire system is called the __________.
Test Suite
Test Bed
Test Product
All of the above
Test Bed
94
In a table review, who paraphrases the code/document?
Reader
Author
Review Leader
Recorder
Reader
95
Software bugs occur due to ___________ reasons.
Software complexity and inadequate use of development tools
Poorly documented code
Poor understanding of requirements
All of the above
All of the above
96
Sometimes a need may arise for an external review of the software product. Which of the following needs will prompt you to go for an
ERT?
Domain Content
Technical Content
Cosmetic Content
All of the above
All of the above
97
The challenges in Testing are:
Lack of testing tools
Often development effort increases and there is very little time for testing
Generation of adequate test cases
All of the above
All of the above
98
The different kinds of domain-based testing techniques are :
Decision Table
Equivalence Partitioning
Boundary Value Analysis
All of the above
All of the above
99
Which of the following are Code Complexity measures used as basis for testing :
McCabe measures
Combination measures
Halstead measures
All of the above
All of the above
100
Which of the following is NOT a document defect type
Cosmetic
Violation of standards
Lack of clarity
Performance
Performance
101
________ determines if a new software version is performing well enough to accept it for a major testing effort.
Mutation testing
Load testing
Smoke testing
Release testing
Smoke testing
102
________ involves checking that each feature specified in the component design has been implemented in the component.
Interface testing
Integration testing
Unit testing
System testing
Unit testing
103
________ involves testing two or more modules together with the intent of finding defects between the modules.
Integration or interface testing
Feature testing
Unit testing
System testing
Integration or interface testing
104
________ is a method for determining if a set of test data or test cases is useful.
Automated testing
Mutation testing
Functional testing
Module testing
Mutation testing
105
________ is done with the intent of determining how quickly a product handles a variety of events, actions or functions.
Performance testing
System testing
Both (a) and (b)
Product testing
Performance testing
106
________ is the process of evaluating a system to verify that it satisfies specified requirements.
Verification
Testing
Reviews
Inspection
Testing
107
________ is used to test operation of the software and inputoutput data to ensure that the software is performing well.
Software Testing
Review Techniques
Verification
All of the above
Software Testing
108
________ techniques examine input and output of test data and derive test cases based on an analysis of the input and output domains.
Flow/ Coverage - Based testing
System Based testing
Domain-Based testing
None of the above
Domain-Based testing
109
________ typically involves reviews and meetings to evaluate documents, plans, code, requirements and specifications.
Testing
Validation
Project Planning
Verification
Verification
110
_________ can be done with checklists, issues lists, walkthroughs, and inspection meetings.
Validation
Verification
Inspection
Testing
Verification
111
_________ determines how well a product performs when a load is placed on the system resources that nears and then exceeds the system capacity.
Compatibility Testing
Load testing
Capacity testing
Stress testing
Stress testing
112
_________ is a document that defines the input, action and the corresponding expected output, to determine if a certain feature of an application is working correctly.
Test Script
Test Bed
Test Case
Test Plan
Test Case
113
_________ refers to 'Are we building the RIGHT product?'
Verification
Testing
Review
Validation
Validation
114
__________ implies testing the system with the intent of confirming the readiness of the product and customer acceptance of the product.
Acceptance Testing
Integration testing
Load testing
System testing
Acceptance Testing
115
__________ is used to test system data and examine system output.
Software Review
Software Inspection
Software Analysing
Software Testing
Software Testing
116
__________ refers to testing the features/ navigation/ expected expectations, when more than one users from different machines operate on same Objects.
