A320 QB

CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 ATA06 DIMENSION AND AREAS 1. The A320/A321 aircraft is divided into zones as follows: (A, B1, B2) A. The major zones, the major sub-zones, the zones. B. The zones and sub-zones. C. The zones and the station. D. The major zones, the major sub-zones 2. The station is for all structural measurement in the X axis is located in: (B1, B2) A. The rib 1 of the aircraft. B. 254cm forward of aircraft nose. C. Aircraft nose. 3. Each major zone is identified by: (A, B1, B2) A. Three digit number and two letters B. Three digit number C. The first digit of three digit number 4. Access doors and panels are identified by: (A, B1, B2) A. The number of the zone in which the panel is located followed by a two-letter suffix. B. The number of the zone in which the panel is located followed by one letter suffix. C. a two-letter followed by the number of the zone in which the panel is located suffix. 5. There are how many major zones in the aircraft? (A, B1, B2) A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 10 6. The general fuselage section base number is: (B1, B2) A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40 7. The general wing section base number is: (B1, B2) A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40 ATA 07 - LIFTING & SHORING 8. What you do not have to do before you lift the aircraft with jacks? (B1,B2) A. Make sure that the GND safety locks are in position on the landing gears B. Make sure that the aircraft is stable C. Make sure that the aircraft fuel tanks are empty

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1st Issue – July 2005

CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 9. The Tail Safety stay is used to: (A,B1,B2) A. Share load with the main jacks during jacking process B. Keep the aircraft more stable during landing gear retraction/ extension tests C. Keep the aircraft stable on jacks 10. How many points on the structure are designated for the purpose of lifting the aircraft? (A,B1,B2) A. 3 B. 4 C. 2 11. What is correct answer? (B1,B2) A. You can not lift the aircraft with jacks when the tires and the shock absorbers are deflated. B. You can not lift the aircraft at the forward jacking point only, with the wheels of the main landing gear on the ground C. You must not apply more than the safe load at each jacking point. 12. What is the configuration of the aircraft ready for jacking? (B1,B2) A. Wheel chocks ON, Parking brake ON. B. Wheel chocks OFF, Parking brake OFF. C. Wheel chocks ON, Parking brake OFF. 13. Distribution of load must be clearly indicated at? (B1) A. Forward and wing jacking points. B. Forward, wing and tail jacking points. C. Tail jacking point. 14. What is permissible during jacking for main LDG wheel change? (A,B1,B2) A. Cargo, PAX loading. B. Gate docking. C. Installation of the wheel chocks on the wheels of the other main LDG. 15. Application of flight configuration precaution is required when (B1,B2) A. Lifting the aircraft on jacks. B. Jacking a MLG for wheels change. C. Lifting the aircraft at Forward Jacking Point, MLG Wheels on the Ground. 16. The purpose of shoring of the aircraft is to: (B1) A. Give a support to the wing in order to release the loads on the structure. B. Keep the aircraft more stable on jacks. C. Both of the above. 17. In which document you will find the detail instruction for shoring the aircraft? (B1) A. SRM chapter 51. B. AMM chapter 51. C. AMM chapter 07. ATA08 LEVELING AND WEIGHING 18. The main purpose of weighing aircraft is: (A, B1, B2)

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321

A. Calculate the position of the center of gravity B. Calculate of aircraft weight C. Know the aircraft weight for passenger loading 19. When weighing the aircraft to find the operating empty weight of the aircraft (B1, B2) A. All the fire extinguishers, oxygen masks and safety belts must be removed B. Engine, APU, IDG oil must refill to necessary level. C. Engine, APU, IDG oil must be empty D. Hydraulic fluid must be empty 20. Can you do the aircraft weighing and balancing to calculate the center of gravity with: (B1, B2) A. All tools and protection devices on the aircraft B. The shock absorbers and the tires deflated C. The doors of aft and forward cargo compartments are opened D. Slats and flaps in fully extended position. 21. Configuration for aircraft WEIGHING to find the operating empty weight: (B1, B2) A. All the fire extinguishers, oxygen masks and safety belts must be removed B. All tools and protection devices on the aircraft must be removed C. Empty all of Engine, APU, IDG oil. D. All above. 22. When Lifting the AIRCRAFT for leveling (A, B1, B2) A. You must not lift the aircraft with the safety stay. B. The weight of fuel is applied equally on the two side of the aircraft centerline C. Make sure that the aircraft is stable before you lift it with jacks D. All above 23. When Lifting the aircraft (A, B1, B2) A. All the doors must be closed and locked. B. Passenger/crew door may be fully opened and locked but the cargo doors must be closed and locked. C. The passenger/crew doors, the emergency exits and the cargo doors are closed and locked or fully open and locked. D. No requirement. 24. You can weigh the aircraft with: (B1, B2) A. The aircraft on jacks only B. The aircraft on its wheels only C. The aircraft on landing gear jacks only D. The aircraft on jacks or the aircraft on its wheels or the aircraft on landing gear jacks 25. When Weighing the aircraft on jacks (B1) A. The aircraft must have a pitch attitude of zero deg. B. You can do this procedure with load cells on each jack or with platform scales under each jack C. Make the aircraft leveling after jack up.

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 D. All Above 26. When leveling the aircraft you must: (B1) A. Operate the jacks of the aircraft to move the bubble to the D4 position B. Operate the jacks of the aircraft to move the bubble to the E4 position C. Operate the jacks of the aircraft to move the bubble to the D5 position D. Operate the jacks of the aircraft to move the bubble to the E5 position 27. For aircraft Quick Leveling you can use (B1) A. The ADIRU or the Attitude Monitor B. A Spirit Level in the Passenger Compartment C. A Spirit Level in the FWD Cargo Compartment D. All above ATA 09 – TOWING & TAXIING. 28. When the NLG dimension H is more than 300 mm (A,B1,B2) A. Do not tow the aircraft to prevent damage to the centering cams. B. Do not tow the aircraft to prevent tail to ground contact. C. Smooth and speed limited towing is possible. 29. If a engine is running (A, B1,B2) A. You can tow the aircraft from the front only. B. You can push the aircraft only. C. Either tow or push is possible. 30. Towing the aircraft is (A, B1,B2) A. Allowed with one engine running above idle. B. Allowed with both engines running up to idle. C. Allowed only with one engine running up to idle. 31. Towing can be carried out with (A,B1,B2) A. Passenger/crew doors fully open and locked without restriction. B. Cargo doors open in vertical position with speed limited. C. Engine cowls open and hold open rods fully locked. 32. Towing can be carried out using (A,B1,B2) A. Tow bar or towbarless tractor at NLG. B. Tow bar or towbarless tractor at MLG(s) C. Tow bar at NLG only. 33. The maximum permitted steering-angle on each side of the aircraft centerline is (A,B1,B2) A. 95 degrees. B. 75 degrees. C. 74 degrees. 34. What is the correct sequence? (A,B1,B2) A. Install the tow bar on the tow fitting then install the tow lever safety pin B. Install the tow lever safety pin then install the tow bar on the tow fitting. C. There is no specific sequence

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 35. Communication system(s) to be used during towing is (are)? (A,B1,B2) A. VHF and FLT INT. B. VHF or HF with FLT INT. C. VHF only. 36. What indication on ECAM do you have to check prior to start towing? (A,B1,B2) A. N WHEEL STEERG DISC B. N WHEEL STEERG INOP C. N WHEEL STEERG OFF 37. From cockpit how can you know that the brake are release prior to towing the aircraft? (A,B1,B2) A. Check Parking brake selector in OFF, brake pressure indication on ECAM is at 0 and confirm with GND personnel. B. Check Parking brake selector in OFF; check all the 03 pointes are at green range and confirm with GND personnel. C. Check Parking brake selector in OFF; brake pressure pointes at 0 and confirm with GND personnel. 38. The maximum permitted steering angle on each side of the aircraft when use front fitting to push the aircraft rearwards with the engines at idle is: (B1, B2) A.40 degrees. B.60 degrees. C.74 degrees. D.95 degrees. 39. Minimum separation from the nose wheels and the tractor while towing the aircraft is: (A, B1, B2) A.2 m B.3 m. C.4 m. 40. In towing configurations the safety pin locks the control lever on the interphone box in: (A, B1, B2) A. Disengaged position. B. Engaged position. C. Normal position. 41. When towing the aircraft: (A, B1, B2) A. All the doors must be closed and locked. B. Passenger/crew door may be fully opened and locked the cargo doors open in vertical position C. Passenger/crew door may be fully opened and locked but the cargo doors must be closed and locked 42. When one tire is deflated on one main gear (B1, B2). A. The aircraft can be towed by the nose gear only. B. The aircraft can be towed by the main gear only. C. The aircraft can be towed by the main gear or nose gear. D. The aircraft can not be towed ATA10 PARKING & MOORING

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43. When doing the aircraft parking not more than 15 days (B1, B2) A.You can do the procedure to park the aircraft not more than 15 days one time only B.You can do again the procedure to park the aircraft not more than 15 days one time only C.You can do again the procedure to park the aircraft not more than 15 days several times 44. When doing the aircraft parking not more than 12 weeks (B1, B2) A. You can do the procedure to park the aircraft not more than 12 weeks one time only B. You can do again the procedure to park the aircraft not more than 12 weeks one time only C. You can do again the procedure to park the aircraft not more than 12 weeks several times 45. Do you need to do periodic ground checks of aircraft During parking period of not more than 12 weeks (B1, B2) A. Periodic ground check at 7-day intervals and periodic ground check at 15-day intervals and periodic ground check at 1-month intervals. B. Periodic ground check at 8-day intervals. C. Periodic ground check at 1-month intervals. D. Periodic ground check at 8-day intervals and periodic ground check at 1-month intervals 46. When doing periodic ground check at 7-day intervals for a parking period of not more than 15 days or of not more than 12 weeks (aircraft in flight-ready condition). (B1, B2) A.You must do a check of the hydraulic reservoir level B.You must do the slat/flap extension and retraction C.You must do engine and IDG oil uplift D.You must do engine cranking 47. When doing periodic ground check at 15-day intervals for a parking period of not more than 12 weeks (aircraft in flight-ready condition). (B1, B2) A. You must do the engine monitoring only B. You must do the engines start and let them become stable at ground idle then do a thrust reverser full cycle C. You must do the engines start and let them become stable at ground idle only D. You must do the engines run-up at high power for 5 minute 48. When doing aircraft preservation steps for a storage period of not more than 6 months (B1, B2) A. You must make sure that the THS is set to two degrees up B. You must make sure that the THS is set to two degrees down C. You must make sure that the THS is set to neutral position 49. When mooring to prevent damage to the aircraft on the ground in high wind conditions (B1) A. If the aircraft points into the wind and wind speed is between 50 and 70 Kts, moor the aircraft at the NLG B. If the aircraft points into the wind and wind speed is between 50 and 70 Kts, moor the aircraft at the NLG and MLG

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 C. If the aircraft points into the wind and wind speed is more than 70 Kts, moor the aircraft at the MLG. 50. When mooring is to prevent damage to the aircraft on the ground in high wind conditions (B1) A. If the aircraft does not point into the wind or the direction of the wind is not stable and for wind speeds or gusts more than 50 Kts, moor the aircraft at the NLG B. If the aircraft does not point into the wind or the direction of the wind is not stable and for wind speeds or gusts more than 50 Kts, moor the aircraft at the MLG C. If the aircraft does not point into the wind or the direction of the wind is not stable and for wind speeds or gusts more than 50 Kts, moor the aircraft at the NLG and the MLG 51. When mooring to prevent damage to the aircraft on the ground in high wind conditions (B1) A.You must make sure that the THS is set to two degrees up B.You must make sure that the THS is set to two degrees down C.You must make sure that the THS is set to neutral position 52. When mooring the aircraft. (B1) A. Attach the short in position on the towing lug of the nose landing gear with the NLG shackles then attach the ropes on the ground with the mooring points B. Attach the ropes on the towing lug and the debogging lug of the MLG then attach the ropes on the ground with the mooring points. C. A & B ATA12 SERVICING 53. When you do the Aircraft Grounding for the Refuel/Defuel Operations (A, B1, B2) A. Connect the ground cable to parking ground point before you connect it to the aircraft B. Attach the cable to aircraft first then connect to parking ground point C. Grounding is not necessary 54. To electrostatically balance the aircraft for the refuel/defuel operations (A, B1, B2) A. Connect a ground cable to the aircraft grounding point on the landing gears B. Connect a bonding cable between the fuel tanker and a grounding point on one of the MLG Legs C. A is essential, B is recommended D. B is essential, A is recommended 55. Safety requirements for aircraft Refueling and refueling are: (A, B1, B2) A. Do not operate the cell phones or mobile phones inside distances for 6m from aircraft. B. Do not connect electrical equipment to a power source less than 15 m away from aircraft, unless the power source has spark-proof connectors C. Do not operate the fuel tanker/pump unit until you stop operation of the weather radar D. All above

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56. During aircraft Refueling or refueling (A, B1, B2) A. APU starts or shutdowns are permitted. B. An APU start is not permitted during if the APU has failed to start or an automatic shutdown has occurred. C. A & B 57. During the refueling (A, B1, B2) A. The NLG tires roll aft B. The NLG tires roll fwd C. The NLG tires roll does not move 58. During the refueling you must (A, B1,B2) A. Move the aft NLG chocks away from the tires B. Make sure that the chocks do not touch the MLG tires C. A & B 59. When you do the Refueling and/or refueling in the Hangar (A,B1,B2) A. The hangar doors must be closed until you have completed the refuel/defuel procedure B. The hangar doors must not be closed until you have completed the refuel/defuel procedure C. There is no requirement for hangar door 60. When you do the aircraft pressure Automatic refueling with battery power (A,B1,B2) A. It is not always possible to refuel to full capacity. This is because the intercell transfer valve are not always in the correct position B. It is always possible to refuel to full capacity. C. You can not refuel in the outer cell. 62. The maximum safety pressure for refueling is: (A,B1,B2) A. 45psi B. 50psi C. 55psi D. 60psi 63. When you do the aircraft refueling with battery power (A,B1,B2) A. The HOT BUSS is energized for ten minutes only after you put the BATT POWER switch to the ON position. B. HOT BUSS is always energized after you put the BATT POWER switch to the ON position. C. You must put the BATT POWER switch to the ON position and hold it during refueling process 64. When you do the aircraft pressure refueling with manual control (A,B1,B2) A. Put the MODE SELECT switch to the REFUEL position

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B. Put the REFUEL VALVES switch(es) for the applicable fuel tank(s) to the OPEN position and for the tank(s) which will not be refueled to the SHUT position.

C. Put the REFUEL VALVES switch(es) of all the fuel tank(s) to the OPEN position D. A & B 65. When you do the aircraft pressure refueling without electrical power (B1,B2) A. The high-level protection system will not operate, B. Do not refuel through the two refuel/defuel coupling at the same time C. The handle of the refuel coupling cap must point aft when the cap is closed and locked. D. All above 66. The maximum water contents permitted by the manufacture in hydraulic fluids is: (B1) A. 0,5% B. 0,6% C. 0,7% D. 0,8% 67. Airbus recommends the maximum water contents permitted in hydraulic fluids is (B1) A. 0,5% B. 0,6% C. 0,7% D. 0,8% 68. The aircraft configuration requirements for filling the hydraulic fluid reservoir are: (A,B1,B2) A. The FWD, AFT cargo-compartment doors and the landing gear doors are closed B. The FWD, AFT cargo-compartment doors and the landing gear doors are opened C. The FWD, AFT cargo-compartment doors are closed and the landing gear doors are opened D. The FWD, AFT cargo-compartment doors are opened and the landing gear doors are closed 69. When doing the Hydraulic Fluid Reservoir Filling (A, B1, B2) A. The hydraulic system operating normally B. The reservoirs air pressurize system must be depressurized C. Do not depressurize the system reservoirs D. Green hydraulic system must be depressurized 70. What happen if you fill to much hydraulic fluid in the reservoir? (A, B1, B2) A. Hydraulic system can not operate B. A message "reservoir overfull" appear on ECAM C. You cannot pressurize it the reservoir sufficiently and may cause the message "RSVR LO AIR PR" on ECAM. D. Hydraulic fluid transfers to other reservoir.

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 71. After removal/installation of large hydraulic components. (B1,B2) A. You must fill in the related components with hydraulic fluid. B. You must do the related bleeding procedure to make sure that the quantity of the hydraulic fluid in the system is correct and refill if necessary. C. You must change the hydraulic fluid. D. You must do the hydraulic sampling. 72.When filling the hydraulic fluid Reservoir with a hydraulic service cart, the maximum supply pressure is: (A,B1, B2) A. 3.5 +0.3 -0 bar (50.7631 +4.3511 -0.0000 psi) B. 30 bar (435,1132 psi). C. 45 bar (652,669 psi) D. 50 bar (725,188 psi) 73. If you think there are fuel fumes when you remove the oil filter cap of the engine oil tank. (A,B1) A. You must let the oil tank pressure bleed off for a minimum of 5 minutes before you remove the tank filler cap for oil servicing. B. Add oil in the oil tank to full mark C. Replace the fuel/oil heat exchanger then flush the engine oil system D. Flush the oil tank and fill in with new oil. 74. When filling the hydraulic power accumulators with Nitrogen: (A,B1) A. All hydraulic systems must be depressurized B. The reservoirs air pressurize system must be depressurized C. Do not depressurize the hydraulic systems D. Green hydraulic system must be depressurized ATA-20: STANDARD PRACTICES & DOCUMENTATION 75. Where can you find characteristics and complimentary information of the Part Number: (B1,B2) A. IPC or AMM A. ASM or AMM B. IPC or ESPM C. ESPM 76. Where you can find procedure for installation of the Push Button switch: (B2) A. AMM B. IPC C. ASM D. ESPM 77. In the AMM tasks, “WARNING” is meant: (A,B1,B2) A. Calls attention to use of materials, processes, methods, procedures or limits which must be followed precisely to avoid injury of death to persons B. Calls attention to methods and procedures which be followed to avoid damage to equipment C. Calls attention to methods which make the job easier or provide supplementary or explanatory information 10



78. In the AMM tasks, “CAUTION” is meant: (A,B1,B2) A. Calls attention to use of materials, processes, methods, procedures or limits which must be followed precisely to avoid injury of death to persons B. Calls attention to methods and procedures which be followed to avoid damage to equipment C. Calls attention to methods which make the job easier or provide supplementary or explanatory information 79. In the AMM tasks, “NOTE” is meant: (A,B1,B2) A. Calls attention to use of materials, processes, methods, procedures or limits which must be followed precisely to avoid injury of death to persons B. Calls attention to methods and procedures which be followed to avoid damage to equipment C. Calls attention to methods which make the job easier or provide supplementary or explanatory information 80. The Wiring Diagram Manual (WDM) content: (B1,B2) A. ASM & AWM A. SRM & AWM B. ASM & AWL C. ASM, AWM and AWL 81. You can access to the Aircraft Wiring List (AWL) by: (B2) A. Function using the ALPHA-INDEX B. Fin using the EQUIPMENT LIST or HOOK-UP LIST C. Fin using the EQUIPMENT LIST or HOOK-UP LIST or by wire number using the MASTER WIRE LIST D. Wire number using the MASTER WIRE LIST 82. ASM gives : (B1,B2) A. Schematic diagrams of the electrical installation with sufficient data for A/C fault isolation B. Wiring diagrams of the electrical installation C. Information required for trouble shooting is contained in the manual D. The status of the item of equipment, semi-equipment and related wiring 83. TSM gives: (B1,B2) A. Wiring diagrams of the electrical installation B. Information required for trouble shooting is contained in the manual C. The status of the item of equipment, semi-equipment and related wiring D. Schematic diagrams of the electrical installation with sufficient data for A/C fault isolation 84. AWM gives: (B2) A. Wiring diagrams of the electrical installation B. Information required for trouble shooting is contained in the manual C. Schematic diagrams of the electrical installation with sufficient data for A/C fault isolation D. The status of the item of equipment, semi-equipment and related wiring 85. AMM gives: (A,B1,B2)

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 A. The status of the item of equipment, semi-equipment and related wiring B. Information required for trouble shooting is contained in the manual C. The information required to service, repair, replace, adjust, inspect and check equipments and systems of the A/C normally performed on the ramp or in the maintenance hangar D. Schematic diagrams of the electrical installation with sufficient data for A/C fault isolation ATA 21 - AIR CONDITIONING 86. When the cabin pressurization system in manual mode and with the MAN V/S CTL selection in UP position: (B1,B2) A. The cabin pressure increases B. The cabin altitude increases C. The outflow valve moves to the closed position D. The cabin altitude decreases 87. In case of duct overheat the HOT AIR FAULT light will extinguishes when: (B1,B2) A. The HOT AIR p/b is reset B. The duct overheat goes off C. A and B D. The pressure regulating valve re-opens 88. When the emergency ram air inlet is open and the delta P is less than 1 PSI : (B1) A. The outflow valve closes B. The outflow valve partially opens C. Both pack valves close D. Both safety valves open 89. Which temperature sensor controls the pack temperature? (B1,B2) A. Pack inlet temperature sensor B. Pack outlet temperature sensor C. Compressor outlet temperature sensor D. Water extractor temperature sensor 90. With the zone controller failed completely, the pack outlet temperature is controlled by: (B1,B2) A. The anti-ice valve B. The pack Controller C. The turbine by-pass valve D. The pressure regulating valve 91. How is the basic temperature regulation generated? (B1,B2) a. It corresponds to the lowest zone temperature demand,. b. It adjusts the temperature in the three zones. c. It corresponds to the highest zone temperature demand. 92. What is the function of the trim air valve? (B1) a. To optimize the zone temperature by adding cold air. b. To optimize the zone temperature by adding hot air. c. To regulate the hot air pressure.

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93. What is the main purpose of the pack anti ice valve? (A,B1,B2) A. To stop the ice formation across the primary heat exchanger. B. To stop the ice formation across the main heat exchanger. C. To stop the ice formation across pack condenser. 94. What is the purpose of pack bypass valve? (B1) a. To reduce the air flow to the compressor stage. b. To modulate the pack discharge temperature. c. To increase the air flow to the turbine stage. 95. What is the purpose of the pack RAM AIR flaps? (A,B1,B2) a. To ensure cabin ventilation in case both packs fail. b. To provide air to the pack compressor. c. To modulate the main air flow through the heat exchangers. 96. What protects the packs from overheat condition? (B1,B2) A. Electrical sensor in the mixer unit B. An overheat pneumatic sensor, two electrical sensors at compressor outlet C. An electrical sensor at the water separator outlet D. A differential pressure operated valve 97. What flow is delivered by pack with Pack Flow selector on LO and bleed air supplied by the APU? (A,B1,B2) a. Low b. Normal c. High 98. The motor number 3 of the outflow valve is controlled from: (B1,b2) A. CPC 1 or CPC 2 B. “ MAN ” part of the CPC in position 1 C. “ MAN ” part of the CPC in position 2 D. The “Cabin Press “ control panel. 99. On the cabin pressure panel, the FAULT light illuminates when: (B1,B2) A. SYS 1 or SYS 2 fails B. SYS 1 and SYS 2 fail C. No landing elevation from FMGS D. Manual mode is selected 100. The purpose of the safety valves is to avoid : (A,B1,B2) A. Excessive positive pressure differential B. Excessive negative pressure differential C. Excessive cabin altitude. D. A and B 101. When ditching is selected : (B1,B2) A. The safety valves and outflow valve are confirmed closed, the pack valves stay open B. The ventilation inlet and extract valves are opened and the pack valves close C. The outflow valve, the emergency ram air, the ventilation extract valve and pack valves close

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 D. The outflow valve, the emergency ram air, the ventilation extract valve and pack valves open 102. Where do you check the correct manual landing elevation setting? (B1,B2) A. On ECAM “ CAB PRESS “ page B. On the scale of LDG ELEV selector C. On ECAM “ COND “ page D. No need, because it is automatic ( From FMGC ) 103. Where is the ventilation air expelled when both fans P/B are set to OVRD? (B1,B2) A. To the skin heat exchanger B. Overboard C. To the cargo under floor 104. When does the avionics ventilation air come from when any OVRD selected? (A,B1,B2) A. From the avionics bay B. From outside the aircraft C. From the air conditioning duct D. No ventilation. System is inoperative. 105. What is the purpose of the avionic ventilation skin heat exchanger? (A,B1,B2) A. To cool the air coming from the avionics equipment when Isolation valve is open. B. To reheat air coming from avionics ventilation system C. To cool air before it is ducted under the cargo compartment. ATA-22: AUTO FLIGHT SYSTEM 106. The FCU allows: (B2) A. selection of radio-nav frequencies B. modification of the flight plan of FM parts C. used control of the aircraft for long term D. used control of the aircraft for short term 107. With the aircraft on ground, it is impossible to: (B2) A. have an AP active, engines on B. disengage an AP, engines on C. engage an AP, engines on D. engage an AP, engines off 108. The FAC computes rudder travel limit: (B2) A. only when AP engaged B. only in case of ELAC failure C. only at a/c low speed D. at any times 109. The Flight Director is engaged: (B2) A. by pressing the FD p/b on the FCU B. by selecting a mode on the FCU C. automatically at system power rise D. by selecting the INT page on the MCDU

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110. With the AP engaged, the rudder is normally controlled during cruise by: (B2) A. the FAC B. the ELAC C. the FMGC D. the SEC 111. The AFS computers are: (B2) A. FMGC and FAC B. FAC and ELAC C. FMGC and SEC D. ELAC and SEC 112. The FMGC functions are: (B2) A. flight guidance and flight envelope protection B. flight envelope protection and yaw axis control C. flight management and flight envelope protection D. flight management and flight guidance 113. The Flight Guidance are: (B2) A. autopilot, flight director, autothrust B. flight management, autopilot, autothrust C. autopilot, flight plan, autothrust D. autopilot, flight director, flight plan 114. The MCDUs allow: (B2) A. used control of the aircraft for short term B. modification of FG parts C. used control of the aircraft for long term D. make the flight plan and engage the autopilots 115. The main function of the FAC are: (B2) A. yaw damper, rudder trim, rudder travel limitation B. yaw damper, rudder trim, flight envelope protection C. rudder trim, rudder travel limitation, flight envelope protection D. yaw damper, rudder trim, rudder travel limitation, flight envelope protection 116. In flight AP can be engaged when: (B2) A. aircraft in take off phase B. aircraft in climb phase C. at least 5 seconds after lift-off D. aircraft in cruise phase 117. Rudder travel limitation is a function of: (B2) A. FAC only B. FAC in normal and ELAC in alternate C. ELAC only D. ELAC in normal and FAC in alternate 118. The trim function of the FAC is: (B2) A. A pitch trim B. A rudder trim C. An elevator trim

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 D. A rudder trim and a pitch trim 119.The trust limit is computed by: (B2) A. The FMGC according to the AP/FD mode B. The ECU (EEC) according to the thrust lever position C. The ECU (EEC) according to the AP/FD mode D. The FMGC according to the ECU (EEC) order 120. In Auto mode the trust target is computed by: (B2) A. The FMGC according to the AP/FD mode B. The ECU (EEC) according to the thrust lever position C. The ECU (EEC) according to the AP/FD mode D. The FMGC according to the ECU (EEC) order 121. The mandatory parameter used by FAC for Alpha Floor protection is: (B2) A. A/C maximum speed B. A/C minimum speed C. A/C angle of attack D. A/C minimum selected speed 122. Normally FAC 1 uses Vc input signal to computes RTL from: (B2) A. ADIRU 1 and ADIRU 2 B. ADIRU 1 and ADIRU 3 C. ADIRU 2 and ADIRU 3 D. ADIRU 1,ADIRU 2 and ADIRU 3 123. The baro correction or reference selected is sent to each ADIRU from the: (B2) A. FCU B. Master FMGC C. RMPs D. ADIRS CDU 124. In normal operation the ADIRU’S are aligned using information from the: (B2) A. FCU B. ADIRS CDU C. AIDS D. FMGCs 125. In cruise, lateral AP orders are executed by: (B2) A. Ailerons and rudder B. Aileron and spoilers C. Spoilers and rudder D. Spoilers, ailerons and rudder 126. With the aircraft in flight, AP engaged and A/THR activated, the A/THR mode: (B2) A. Depends on the AP vertical mode B. Depends on the AP lateral mode C. Can be set by the pilot via FCU D. Can be set by the pilot via MCDUs 127. The “GROUND SCAN” allows: (B2)

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 A. B. C. D.

AFS computers test on ground Land cat 3 capability test on ground AFS fault detection on ground Complementary tests during landing

128. In case of FMGC 2 failure, FMGC 1 auto tunes: (B2) A. Side 2 radio nav receivers through RMP 2 B. Side 2 radio nav receivers through RMP 1 C. Side 2 radio nav receivers directly D. Side 2 radio nav receivers through RMP 3 129. The fuel and time prediction functions are performed by: (B2) A. FG part of the FMGCs B. FM part of the FMGCs C. The FAC D. The DMC 130.On the FMA, in the fifth column: (B2) A. A/THR can be in green only B. A/THR in cyan indicates A/THR is active C. A/THR can be in green or cyan only D. A/THR in white indicates A/THR is active 131. In flight, you can engage the second AP during: (B2) A. Cruise phase B. Descend phase C. Approach phase and ILS armed D. A/C on ground 132. With AP 1 engaged: (B2) A. FMGC 1 supply both FMAs B. FMGC 1 supply FMA on CAPT PFD ,FMGC 2 supply FMA on F/O PFD C. FMGC 1 supply FMA on F/O PFD ,FMGC 2 supply FMA on CAPT PFD D. FMGC 2 supply both FMAs ATA-23: COMMUNICATION 133.The main task of the Decoder encoder unit is to: (B2) A. interface between directors and aircraft systems B. interface between directors and cabin systems C. control the various cabin systems D. enable cabin configuration to be changed and system test to be performed 134.The SELCAL function: (B2) A. performed by an independent unit connected to the AMU B. integrated in the AMU C. performed inside each transceiver D. performed inside each ACP 135.If the FWD attendant calls the cockpit: (B2) A. ATT light comes on on all the ACPs and a buzzer is generated by the FWC

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 B. CALL light comes on on the attendant indication panel and a buzzer is generated by the CIDS C. ATT light comes on on the capt’s ACP and buzzer is generated by FWC D. ATT light comes on on the forward attendant panel and a high low chime is generated by the CIDS 136.Aircraft on ground, in order to communicate from the cockpit to the APU position , you must: (A,B1,B2) A. Select the INT on the audio control panel, and press the “SERV INT” pushbutton B. press “CAB” transmission key C. press the “SERV INT” pushbutton D. press “CAB” receiving knob 137.The ACPs reset key is used to: (B2) A. Extinguish all the lights B. Extinguish all the lighted calls C. Cancel all previous selections D. Extinguish all ACPs lights 138.Which is the quickest way to make a passenger address announcement from the cockpit? (B2) A. Using the handset B. Using the handmike C. Using the boomset D. Using the oxygenmask microphone 139.Which is the main unit if the CIDS? (B2) A. The CAM B. The DEUs C. The directors D. The FAP 140.VOR 2 tuning frequencies can be controlled by the: (B2) A. RMP 1 or FMGC B. RMP 2 only C. Either RMP 1,RMP 2 or RMP 3 D. RMP 2 or FMGC 141.When selecting VHF 2 on RMP 1 the “SEL” light: (B2) A. does not illuminate B. illuminates on RMP 1 and RMP 2 C. illuminates on RMP 1 only D. illuminates on RMP 2 only 142.“MECH” legend flashing amber on an ACP means: (A,B1,B2) A. An internal ACP failure has been detected B. The ground mechanic request a communication with the crew C. The cabin attendant requests a communication with the crew D. The ground mechanic request a communication with the cabin attendant 143.The cabin loudspeakers are connected to the (B2) A. Deu A

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 B. Directors C. Deu B D. Area call panel 144.If the Director 1 fails, what happens? (B2) A. director 2 take over and provides the PA function only B. You must energize the emergency mode by pressing the EMER pushbutton on FAP C. The DEU A are disconnected, due to the TOP CUT OFF relay D. Director 2 provides automatically all the CIDS functions 145.Which unit provides the amplification function for the cabin loudspeaker? (B2) A. The AMU B. The directors C. The CAM D. The DEU A 146.Three green bars illuminated on the ACP’S VHF 2 key means: (B2) A. VHF 2 operation is correct B. A selcal is received on VHF 2 C. VHF 2 is selected in transmission D. VHF 2 is selected in reception 147.VHF used for: (B2) A. Short range communication B. Long range communication C. Communication between A/C and ground station D. Communication between A/C and other A/C 148.HF used for: (B2) A. Short range communication B. Long range communication C. Communication between A/C and ground station D. Communication between A/C and other A/C 149.When one engine is running, the audio level of cabin loudspeakers is increased, which unit controls this function? (B2) A. The DEUs B. The directors C. The CAM D. The programming and test panel 150.The loudspeaker volume knobs allow: (A,B1,B2) A. Controls the loudness of aural alerts and voice messages B. Controls the loudness of voice messages only C. Adjusts the volume of the loudspeaker for radio communication D. Adjusts the volume of the loudspeaker for radio communication , aural alerts and voice messages 151.When aircraft is on jacks, in order to communicate from cockpit to APU compartment, the first you must: (B1,B2) A. Press “CAB” transmission key on ACP B. Press “INT” transmission key on ACP

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 C. Select the INT/RAD switch to INT position D. Press “SVCE INT OVRD” pushbutton switch on overhead panel 152.The ACARS allows: (B1,B2) A. Interface between system and other system of the aircraft B. Interface between aircraft and other aircraft C. Interface between aircraft and any ground stations D. Direct exchange of data between aircraft and airline computer through VHF 3 153.What does the illumination of the “CALL” light on the VHF or HF transmission keys indicate? (B2) A. The SELCAL system detects a call B. The tower call the aircraft C. The call from cabin attendant D. The call from ground mechanic 154.Whih RPM is powered in the emergency electrical configuration? (B2) A. RMP 1 and RMP 2 B. RMP 1 C. RMP 2 D. RMP 1 ,RMP 2 and RMP 3 155.When ACP 1 fails: (B2) A. ACP 3 take over by selecting the selector on audio switching panel to F/O 3 position B. ACP 3 take over automatically C. The audio control functions are lost D. ACP 3 take over by selecting the selector on audio switching panel to CAPT 3 position 156.Escape slide and door pressure sensors are connected to: (B2) A. DEU A B. DEU B C. Directors D. Programming and test panel 157.How are the communications radios controlled? (B2) A. From any one of the 3 RMP’s B. From any one of the 3 ACP’s C. From any one of the 2 MCDU’s D. From any one of the 3 RMP’s and one of the 3 ACP’s ATA-24: ELECTRICAL SYSTEM 158.DC BAT BUS can be supplied by the: (B1,B2) A. DC BUS 1 or batteries B. DC BUS 2 or batteries C. DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2 or batteries D. Only DC BUS 1 159.How is the RAT extension system controlled? (B1,B2) A. By mean of two solenoids energized at the same time

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 B. By mean of three solenoids C. By mean of two solenoids D. By mean of one solenoid only 160.The supply priorities for FOR AC BUS 1 (2) are: (B1,B2) A. The related IDG, then the other IDG, then External Power, then the APU Generator B. External Power, then the APU Generator, then the related IDG, then the other IDG C. External Power, then the related IDG, then the other IDG, then the APU Generator D. The related IDG, then External Power, then the APU Generator, then the other IDG 161.The AC ESS BUS is normally supplied by: (B1,B2) A. AC BUS 2 . B. AC BUS 1 C. Static Inverter D. Emergency Generator 162.What is the DC ESS BUS supplied by if TR2 has failed: (B1,B2) A. TR 1 B. ESS TR C. BAT 2 D. AC 1 163.The Static Inverter operates (B1,B2) A. Only in flight B. Permanently C. When on batteries D. When one engine generator fails 164.On ground, aircraft is not electrically supplied, the activation of switch P/B causes: (B1,B2) A. Reset of CSM/G control unit B. RAT extension C. Nothing to happen D. Test of RAT and EMERGEN fault light 165.The emergency generator is located (B1,B2) A. In APU compartment B. In the Main Wheel Well C. In the Avionics Compartment above batteries D. Alongside the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) 166.In “COLD” aircraft configuration, where the batteries’ voltage can be checked? (A,B1,B2) A. There is NO INDICATION B. On the SCAM ELEC page C. On the ELEC-OVERHEAD panel D. On the EMR.ELEC.POWER panel 167.With the emergency generator running (B1,B2)

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 A. Emergency generator takes over essential buses, only if both AC BUS 1 and 2 are off B. Nothing happens if generator 1 and 2 supply their own networks C. Emergency generator takes over essential buses D. And a generator fails, the emergency generator takes over the corresponding networks . 168.When the SMOKE push button released out: (B1,B2) A. Fuel pump 1 on the left and right supply direct from AC BUS1 B. Fuel pump 1 on the left and right supply direct from GEN 2 C. Fuel pump 1 on the left and right supply, direct from GEN. 1 D. Fuel pump 2 on the left and right supply direct from GEN 1 169.What is the DC ESS BUS SHED supply if TR 1 has failed (B1,B2) A. TR 1 B. BAT 2 C. ESS TR D. BAT 1 170.Can you reset IDG 1 in the flight? (B1,B2) A. Yes B. No 171.What is the configuration if BTC 1 is open and BTC 2 closed (B1,B2) A. EXT PWR "supplies AC BUS 1 and GEN 2 supplies AC BUS 2 B. APU GEN supplies AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 C. APU GEN supplies AC BUS 1 and EXT PWR supplies AC BUS2 D. GEN 1 supplies AC BUS 1 and EXT PWR supplies AC BUS 2 172.Following an IDG 1 over temperature, IDG 1 is: (B1,B2) A. Automatically de-energized and re-energized as soon as the Temperature returns to Normal B. Manually de-energized by pressing GEN 1 Pushbutton C. Automatically disconnected and reconnected as soon as the Temperature returns to Normal D. Disconnected by pressing the guarded IDG 1 Pushbutton 173.Maintenance buses only are supplied when: (A, B1,B2) A. External power is connected and blue ON light on EXT PWR pushbutton illuminated; MAIN BUS switch in ON position B. External power is connected and the green AVAIL light on EXT PWR pushbutton illuminated; MAIN BUS switch is ON position C. Any generator is coupled to the network; MAIN BUS switch is in ON position, D. The APU generator or external power is connected.; EXT PWR pushbutton illuminated; MAIN BUS switch in ON position 174.Both light “AVAIL” and “NOT IN USE” in the external power receptacle are illuminated when: (A,B1,B2) A. An External Power Source is supplying the Aircraft Network B. An External Power Source is supplying the Maintenance Bus Bars C. At least one External Power Parameter is not correct, the External Power Contactor (EPC) stays Open

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 D. All External Power Parameters are correct but the EPC is Open 175.If a high APU generator oil temperature detection occurs: (A, B1,B2) A. An immediate APU shut down is commanded and the APU Generator is denergized B. The APU Generator is disconnected only C. The APU Generator Fault Light illuminates only D. A Warning Message is displayed on ECAM only 176.What does the AC ESS FEED PB white “ALT” light indicates? (B1, B2) A. AC ESS BUS is supplied by AC BUS 1 B. AC ESS BUS is supplied by AC BUS 2 C. AC ESS BUS is supplied by EMER GEN D. AC ESS BUS is supplied by STATIC INVERTER 177.How is the DC BAT BUS normally powered by? (B1, B2) A. BATTERIES B. DC BUS 1 through a DC tie contactor C. DC BUS 2 D. DC ESS BUS 178.What does the EXT PWR PB “AVAIL” light illuminated on EXT PWR panel means? (A, B1, B2) A. External power is plugged in,and all parameters are normal B. All external power parameters are normal but not plugged in C. External power is plugged in D. External power is plugged in and supplied to A/C network 179.If both main AC BUSES lose electrical power with airspeed above kts, what will happen? (B1,B2) A. Nothing B. The RAT deploys C. The EMER GEN supply power to the A/C network D. The RAT automatically deploys and pressurizes the Blue hydraulic system,which drives the hydraulic driven EMER GEN 180.What is the output of the emergency generator? (B1,B2) A. 90 KVA B. 10 KVA C. 5 KVA D. 1 KVA 181.What is the purpose of the static inverter? (B1,B2) A. To provide AC power to the AC ESS bus from the BAT when operating in the EMER ELEC configuration B. To provide DC power to the DC ESS bus C. To provide AC power to the AC BUS 1 from the BAT when operating in the EMER ELEC configuration D. To provide AC power to the AC STATIC INV bus from the BAT when operating in the EMER ELEC configuration 182.What is the output of APU generator? (A, B1,B2)

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90 KVA 50 KVA 5 KVA 1 KVA

ATA25: FURNISHING 183.Smoke hoods are supplied for the cabin attendants to: (A,B1,B2) A. Supply oxygen for passengers. B. Fight a fire or against emission of smoke or noxious gases. C. Breathe oxygen. 184. Where are the cabin depressurization doors mounted? (B1) A. On the upper sidewall panels B. On the ceiling panels C. On the lower sidewall panels 185. From where the escape slide inflation cylinder is checked? (B1) A. From the cargo compartment only. B. From the PTP only. C. From the cargo compartment or from the PTP. 186. Which device has to be unlocked before closing the slide window? (A,B1,B2) A. A locking pin on the sliding window frame. B. The sliding window operating handle. C. None. 187. Which cabin panels are removable? (A,B1) A. Lower sidewall panels only. B. All the panels. C. Upper sidewall panels only. 188.Where are passenger oxygen masks stored? (A,B1,B2) A. In the passenger service unit B. In the seat arm rest C. In the overhead stowage compartment 189. Where are the A320 aircraft inflation reservoirs of the escape slide of emergency exit door located? (B1,B2) A. in the container at the bottom of the door B. In the overhead stowage compartment over the door C. In the aft cargo compartment 190. When you check the pax door escape/slide inflation cylinder, where must the pressure indication be? (B1,B2) A. In the green GO band B. In the red band C. At zero.

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191. In the cargo compartment where are the rapid decompression panels installed? (B1) A. In the cut out of the ceiling panels B. In the fixed partition walls C. In the cut out of the ceiling panels and lateral right side wall linings 192. The cargo loading control box being supplied, which latch insures the energization of the PDUs? (B1,B2) A. The door sill latch B. The ZX-single latch 32. C. The fixed YZ latch. 193. Captain and First Officer Seats are: (A,B1,B2) A. Symmetrical and have the same function B. Asymmetrical and have the same function C. Have the same function and interchangeable. D. Folding type and has no adjustment 194. Captain and First Officer Seats electrical control system permits (A,B1,B2) A. Control the seats in vertical and horizontal direction B. Control the seats in vertical and horizontal direction and adjust the backrest C. Control the seats in vertical and horizontal direction and adjust the lumbar rest D. All above 195. The rapid-decompression safety-system is installed in the aircraft (B1,B2) A. Prevents structural damage to the fuselage and damage to the equipment and furnishings B. Provides quick escape facility of the aircraft C. Provides quick access to aircraft area. D. Prevents overpressure to aircraft area 196. Where is the inflation cylinder of the passenger door escape slide located? (B1) A. In a container at the bottom of the door. B. In the overhead stowage compartment over the door. C. In the aft cargo compartment. D. In the fwd cargo compartment. 197. The A320 aircraft is fitted with emergency evacuation slide at: (A,B1,B2) A. The 4 entry doors. B. The overwing exits C. The 4 entry doors and the overwing exits 198.The sidestick armrest of Captain and First Officer seats (B1,B2) A. Possible to lift it vertically and stow it behind the backrest B. Located on the inboard side of the seat C. Possible to adjust the height and the tilt angle of the side stick armrest

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D. Can not fold back to a vertical position 199.Third Occupant seat in the cockpit (A,B1,B2) A. Can slide along the Y-axis to take up a position on the aircraft centerline B. Have longitudinal adjustment C. Can moves longitudinally and vertically D. Attached to the left rear panel in the cockpit 200.The passenger seats (A,B1,B2) A. Seat pans are upholstered and not foldable or adjustable B. Can fold the inner armrests between the backrests C. Upholstered backrest assembly of each seat may be adjusted D. All above 201.The Passenger Service/Information Units (PSIUs) (A,B1,B2) A. Has two primary units: Passenger Service Unit (PSU) and Passenger Information Unit (PIU) B. The Passenger Service Unit (PSU), installed above each seat row C. The Passenger Information Unit (PIU), installed above each second seat row D. All above 202. The aircraft galley has two optional configurations: wet galley and dry galley (B1,B2) A. Wet galley has electrical equipment, a potable water supply and waste water equipment. B. Wet galley has a potable water supply only C. Wet galley has no system supplies D. Wet galley has electrical supply ATA 26 - FIRE PROTECTION 203. Where are the Engine fire detectors located? (A,B1,B2) A. On the Fan and the Turbine and Pylon B. On the Pylon, the Fan and the Core C. On the Core, Gearbox and the Nozzle 204. Is the extinguishing system controlled by the FDU: (A,B1,b2) A. Yes, continuously B. Yes, whenever engine fire is detected C. No 205. How is an APU fire on ground normally extinguished: (A,B1,B2) A. From APU fire panel. B. From APU compartment C. Automatically. D. From external power panel. 206. You press the APU shut off push button at 108VU panel to? (A,B1,B2) A. Initiate the shut down the APU with cooling down sequence.

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 B. Initiate the emergency shut down of APU without cooling down sequence. C. Initiate the emergency shut down of APU and discharge the APU fire bottle. 207. How many fire detectors does the APU fire detection system comprise of? (B1,B2) A. One B. Two C. Three 208.To test the APU auto extinguishing function, you must : (A,B1,B2) A. Select APU master switch ON. B. Press the APU fire TEST push button. C. Select APU master switch ON and press the APU fire TEST push button. 209. When the Engine fire pushbutton is released out what aircraft system are isolated: (B1,b2) A. Fuel, Air, Electricity, Hydraulic. B. Fuel, Air, Oil, Hydraulic. C. Fuel, Air, Hydraulic. D. Fuel, Electricity, Hydraulic. 210. What additional external warning is/ are activated in case of APU fire on GROUND? (A,B1,B2) A. APU fire light & external horn warning. B. A fire bell warning. C. An external horn warning only. D. An external horn warning & Red disk indicator disappears. 211. The agent push button is active when: (B1,B2) A. The corresponding “ Disch ” light is on. B. Engine fire push button illuminates. C. Engine fire pushbutton is pressed and released. D. It is pressed. 212. What does the Engine fire TEST push button verify? (B1,B2) A. Only the fire detection loop A and B, FDU, indication and warnings. B. Only the squib circuit of AGENT 1 and 2. C. Both simultaneously. 213. When the Engine fire P/B is released out, which corresponding fire valve are closed (B1,B2) A. Fuel cross feed valve. B. LP fuel and hydraulic fire shut off valve. C. HP fuel shut off valve. 214.When the Engine fire P/B is released out (B1,B2) A. Pack valve & Bleed valve closed B. Only engine bleed valve closed C. None of them closed. 215.When the Engine fire P/B is released out, what happens to the electrical generation? (B1,B2)

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 A. IDG de-energised. B. IDG disconnected. C. IDG energised. 216.Lavatory fire extinguishing is performed by? (A,B1,B2) A. Portable extinguishers. B. Fire bottles. C. Waste bin fire extinguishers. 217.How can the avionic compartment smoke detector be tested? (B1,B2) A. Permanently by AEVC. B. By the dedicated test push button. C. By a manual test from CFDS. 218.Which warning lights are triggered in case smoke detected in avionic compartment? (B1,B2) A. BLOWER FAULT and EXTRACT FAULT. B. GEN1 LINE SMOKE. C. Both of the above. 219.What happens if the SDCU is faulty? (B1,B2) A. The LAV smoke detection is INOP. B. The Cargo smoke detection is INOP. C. Both LAV and Cargo smoke detection system are INOP. 220.If smoke is detected in AFT cargo compartment, what happens? (B1,B2) A. AFT cargo ventilation system automatically closed. B. Fire extinguishing bottle will be discharged automatically in to AFT cargo compartment. C. Both of the above. 221.How many fire extinguishing bottle(s) is(are) provided for the cargo compartments? (A,B1,B2) A. There’s one for FWD and one for AFT cargo compartment. B. There’s one for both FWD and AFT cargo compartments. C. None. 222.What is the design principle of the engine fire loop? (B1,B2) A. Resistance. B. Pressure. C. Capacitor. ATA27 FLIGHT CONTROL: 223.In normal condition, what are the active protections in flare mode? (B1,B2) A. Bank angle and stall protections B. Bank angle and high speed protections C. Stall protection only 224.Which modes exist for an elevator servo control actuator? (B1) A. Only the re-centering mode

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B. Active, damping and centering mode C. Active and damping mode D. Active, damping and locking mode 225.With complete EFCS (ELECTRIC FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM) failure the rudder and THS are: (B1,B2) A. Lost B. Controlled by mechanical channels C. Only usable during land/recovery D. Operated electrically 226.If ELAC 1 and 2 have failed: (B1,B2) A. Pitch control is provided by the FAC's B. Pitch control can only be achieved from the trim wheels C. Pitch control is controlled by SEC 2 or 1 D. Pitch control is controlled by the FCDC's 227.Which modes exist for an aileron elevator servo control actuator? (B1) A. Only the re-centering mode B. Active, damping and centering mode C. Active and damping mode D. Active, damping and locking mode 228.What effect on the slat and flap system will failure of SFCC 2 cause? (B1,B2) A. Slat system operates at half speed B. Flap system operates at half speed C. Slat and flap systems operate at half speed D. Slat and flap systems are locked 229.Slat retraction from 18° to fully retracted is inhibited if : (B1,B2) A.  > 8.5° or CAS < 148 Kts B.  < 7.1° or CAS > 171 Kts C.  > 8.5° or CAS > 148 Kts D.  > 8.5° or CAS < 171 Kts 230.Which surfaces are used for the load alleviation function? (B1,B2) A. Ailerons and spoilers 1 and 2 B. Ailerons and spoilers 4 and 5 C. Only spoilers D. Ailerons and spoilers 1 to 4 231.How many servo control actuators power the rudder surface? (B1,B2) A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 232.When both side sticks are moved in the same or opposition direction: (B1,B2) A. The surface movement is proportional to the algebraic sum of the deflection of both side sticks B. The surface movement is proportional to the last stick deflection C. The surface movement follows the captain's side stick deflection D. The surface movement follows the co-pilot's side stick deflection 233.If one hydraulic system fails: (B1,B2) A. Only the roll and pitch axes are available B. All the three axes are available with some roll spoiler retraction C. Manual pitch trim and rudder are available D. All servo control actuators are supplied through the PTU 89. 234.What signals cause the rudder pedal movement? (B1,B2) A. Yaw damping signals. B. Rudder trim signals C. Turn coordination signal D. Nothing 235.With one flap PCU motor inoperative, the flap system: (B1,B2) A. Operates at half speed B. Operates normally C. Is locked by the pressure off brakes on both wings D. Is locked by the wing tip brakes 236.FAC 1 controls and monitors one yaw damper, one electrical rudder trim motor and: (B1,B2) A. One electrical motor for the rudder travel limitation unit B. One servo actuator on each elevator C. Both THS trim motors D. The mechanical linkage from rudder pedals 237.In normal conditions, what are the active protections in flare mode? (B1,B2) A. Bank angle and stall protections B. Bank angle and high speed protections C. Stall protection only 238.What are the active protections in direct law (B1,B2) A. Stall protection B. No protection C. High speed protection 239.What happens if an electric trim motor fails (B1,B2) A. THS electric trim is lost B. THS trims at half speed C. THS electric trim is fully available

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 240.Which signals cause rudder pedal movements (B1,B2) A. Yaw damping signals B. Rudder trim signals C. Turn coordination signals 241.What happens when slat/flap config is 1+F and CAS (Calibrated air speed) reaches 210 knots? (B1,B2) A. Flaps retract automatically to 0 and the new Slat/Flap config is 1 B. Flaps extend automatically because the speed too high C. The alpha lock function is engaged because the speed too high 242.When is the half speed monitor active? (B1,B2) A. As soon as the directional valve energized B. When the control valve is in full speed position C. Always 243.SFCC 1 flap channel has failed. What are the consequences for the flap system? (B1,B2) A. The flap system is locked by WTB. B. The flap system is not affected C. The flap system operates at half speed 244.Where are the Wing Tib Brakes located? (B1,B2) A. At the wing tib, outboard of the APPU B. Between tract 11 and 12, in each wing. C. Between tract 7 and 8, in each wing. 245.Where are the torque limiters located? (B1,B2) A. On the torque sharps B. On the actuators C. On the PCU output sharps ATA 28 – FUEL SYSTEM 246.The fuel suction (gravity feed) valves are: (B1) A. Always open regardless of pumps status B. Normally closed by pumps pressure C. Normally closed by spring force D. Open automatically when fuel cross feed is selected on. 247.When does the FADEC close the fuel return valve? (B1) A. With a signal from the FLSCU B. With a signal from the FQIs C. If the IDG oil is too hot D. With an outer cell overfilling 248.What happens if you extend the slats, with fuel in the center tank, all pumps are running, center tank pumps are on “AUTO” mode? (B1,B2) A. Center tank pumps stop

31


CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 B. Center tank pumps start C. Wing tank pumps start D. Pumps operation is not affected 249.A pressure switch for each pump monitors a: (A,B1,B2) A. Pressure differential B. Feed pipe pressurization C. Pressure increase D. Loss of pressure 250.What happen if a high level is detected? (A,B1,B2) A. A warning is triggered: too much fuel B. Booster pumps are not operating correctly C. The corresponding REFUEL valve closes D. All the refueling operating is stopped 251.Are wing pumps running while center tank is supplying? (A,B1,B2) A. Yes, wing tank pumps run continuously B. No, only when center tank is empty C. No, because of center tank pump priority D. One of the two pumps is running in stand-by 252.When the center tank is empty, in auto mode, center tank pumps: (A,B1,B2) A. Must be manually switched OFF B. Stop and wing tank pumps start running C. Stop automatically D. Run for 2 minutes 253.Refuel valves may be controlled: (A,B1,B2) A. By refuel pressure B. Electrically only C. Manually only D. Electrically or manually 254.The APU fuel feed is assured by: (A,B1,B2) A. Fuel booster pumps only B. APU fuel pump only C. All pumps together D. A or B 255.What is the maximum total fuel capacity for VNA’s A320 aircraft? (A,B1,B2) A. 12 470 KG B. 15 588 KG C. 18 932 KG D. 20 829 KG 256.What does the fuel mode SEL pushbutton control? (B1,B2) A. Center and wing tank pumps B. Center tank pumps only C. Wing tank pumps only D. Pumps and valves operation

32


CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 257.In normal operation, each engine is supplied by: (A,B1,B2) A. One wing tank pump and/ or one center tank pump B. Two wing tanks pumps and/ or one center tank pump C. Two wing tanks pumps and/ or two center tank pumps D. One wing tank pump and/ or two center tank pumps 258.During refueling, the wing tank fills in the following order: (A,B1,B2) A. The Outer cell and Inner cell at the same time B. The Inner cell first, then the Outer cell D. The Outer cell first, then the Inner cell 259.The inner cell is refueled only when? (A,B1,B2) A. Center tank is full. B. Outer cell is full. C. Outer cell is empty. 260.The maximum refuel pressure is? (A,B1,B2) A. 11 psi B. 45 psi C. 50 psi 261.The END light in the refuel/defuel panel illuninate, means? (A,B1,B2) A. Pre-selected fuel is equal to actual fuel. B. All fuel tanks are full, refuel process stopped automatically. C. Any high level sensor detected fuel. 262.When performing the refuel, defuel, Ground transfer, the R/D electrical circuit is enable by? (A,B1,B2) A. Power from the aircraft electrical net work only. B. Carrying out HI LVL test. C. Contact R/D panel door switch. 263.What happens when low level is detected in the inner cell? (B1,B2) A. Inner cell transfer valves open. B. Inner cell transfer valves close to isolate the inner cells C. Pumps restart to suck fuel from outer cells. 264.In which cell are the full level sensors fitted? (B1,B2) A. Inner cells only. B. Outer cells only. C. Inner and outer cells. 265.To which tank does the re-circulated fuel returns? (B1,B2) A. Inner cells. B. Outer cells. C. Center tanks. ATA-29 HYDRAULIC: 266.In flight, if the blue electric pump fails the blue system: (A,B1,B2) A. Is lost. B. Can be recovered by the RAT. 33



C. Can be recovered by the PTU. D. Both B and C. 267.Which component(s) send a Warning and Fault signals on the blue hydraulic system? (B1,B2) A. Only the low air pressure switch B. Only the low level detector C. The high level detector D. Overheat sensor, low air pressure switch and low level detector 268.In flight, the blue hydraulic system can be supplied by: (B1,B2) A. The RAT and the electrical pump. B. The engine driven pump. C. The PTU (Power Transfer Unit). D. It can not be supplied. 269.The RAT is automatically extended in case of: (B1,B2) A. Loss of AC bus1 and bus2 and speed above 100 Knots. B. Blue hydraulic pump failure C. Can only be extended manually. D. Blue pump delivery pressure dropping below 1750 PSI. 270.During first engine start the PTU is: (A,B1,B2) A. Automatically running. B. Tested. C. Inhibited. 271.During second engine start the PTU is: (B1, B2) A. Automatically running. B. Tested. C. Inhibited. 272.What happens if the hydraulic pressure drops, in the Yellow hydraulic systems? (B1) A. The priority valve close automatically, cuts the pressure to the primary flight controls, in order to supply the flaps B. The priority valve opens, and supply only the primary flight controls C. The priority valve closes cut off hydraulic power to the flaps, in order to supply the other users D. The priority valve modulates the pressure to the flaps. 273.When is engine fire Shut Off valve of a hydraulic system closed? (B1,B2) A. Automatically when the engine is shut down B. If the ENGINE FIRE pushbutton is released out. C. Automatically as soon as engine fire is detected 274.To which system(s) will the Ram Air Turbine provide hydraulic power? (A,B1,B2) A. The blue system 34



B. The yellow system C. The green and yellow systems D. The blue and yellow systems 275.Where is the hydraulic system temperature sensor located? (B1,B2) A. In the reservoir B. On the return manifold C. On the HP. filter D. On the case drain filter 276.What will happen when the Yellow electric pump P/B is set to "ON", with aircraft on ground, electrical power available, PTU selected to "AUTO" and engines not running? (B1,B2) A. The green and yellow systems are pressurized B. The green and blue systems are pressurized C. Only the yellow system is pressurized D. The green, blue and yellow systems are pressurized 277.What happens if the hydraulic pressure drops, in the Yellow system? (B1) A. The priority valve closes automatically, cuts the pressure to the primary flight controls, in order to supply the flaps B. The priority valve opens, and supply only the primary flight controls C. The priority valve closes to cut off hydraulic power to the flaps, in order to supply the other users D. The priority valve modulates the pressure to the flaps 278.When is the engine driven pump in the depressurized mode? (B1) A. When the ENG PUMP pushbutton is set to OFF B. The engine pump can not be depressurized as long as the engine is running C. The engine pump is automatically depressurized if the output pressure drops below 1450psi 279.What happens if hydraulic pressure drops? (A,B1,B2) A. The priority valves give priority to the heavy loads users. B. The priority valves give priority to the essential systems C. The priority valves modulate the pressure to the users 280.A Blue system pipeline is identified by: (A,B1,B2) A. A blue band and number 1. B. A blue band and number 2. C. A blue band and number 3. 281.When the PTU operation is inhibited? (B1,B2) A. In case of cargo door operations with the yellow electric pump or first engine start. B. Only if an engine failure has been detected. C. Never, it cannot be inhibited. 282.When is the engine fire shut off valve closed? (A,B1,B2) 35



A. When the engine is shut down B. Automatically as soon as an engine fire is detected. C. If the engine fire pushbutton is release out. 283.When is the engine driven pump in the depressurized mode? (B1,B2) A. When eng pump pushbutton is set to OFF B. The engine pump cannot be depressurized as the engine is running C. The engine pump is automatically depressurized if the output pressure drops below 1450psi 284.How can the LH wing be supplied independently during the leak measurement test? (B1) A. By setting the leak measurement valve to OFF and operating the electric pump. B. By pressurizing the yellow system by using the PTU. C. By setting the leak measurement valve to OFF and manually open the LH wing spool valve 285.What can the hand pump be used for? (A,B1,B2) A. To pressurized the reservoir. B. To check the flight controls C. To operate the cargo doors 286.During which operation is the leak measurement valve closed automatically (A,B1,B2) A. PTU operation. B. Cargo door operation. C. Hand pump operation. 287.What are the manual depressurization valves provided for? (A, B1) A. Individual reservoir depressurization B. Depressurization of related hydraulic circuit C. Hydraulic system depressurization ATA 30 – ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION 288.In case of electrical power failure, with engine running, the engine anti-ice valve is: (B1,B2) A. Fully closed B. Fully open C. Modulating D. Mechanically latched in its last position 289.Slats protected by hot air supplied from the pneumatic system are: (B1,B2) A. Three inboard leading edge slats B. Three outboard leading edge slats C. Slat 2, 3, 4 D. All the slats 290.When is the TAT probe heated? (B1,B2)

36



Heated in flight - not heated on ground Heated on ground - not heated in flight Heated when the outside temperature is less than 0°C Heated when the outside temperature is greater than 0°C

291.A ground test of the wing anti-ice system, with pneumatic pressure available, tests: (B1,B2) A. The warning system B. Only the indications as the valves cannot be opened on ground C. The operation of the valves D. Only the valves solenoid supply as the valves cannot be opened on ground 292.The wing anti-ice valve is: (B1,B2) A. A modulating and isolation valve B. Only an isolation valve C. Partially open in flight, fully open on ground 293.How is the wing anti-ice valve controlled and operated? (B1,B2) A. Pneumatically controlled and electrically operated B. Pneumatically controlled and operated C. Electrically controlled and operated D. Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated 294.How many computers does the Window Heat system use? (B1,B2) A. A single computer for the LH side and RH side B. Two computers, one for the LH side and RH side and the other one as a back-up C. Two computers, one for the LH side, one for the RH side D. No computer is used for this system 295.Can you operate the wing anti-ice system on ground? (B1,B2) A. No, you can operate the system in flight only B. Yes, but for a limited time of 30 secs C. Yes, for an unlimited time D. Yes, but only if the outside temperature is less than 10°C 296.In the event of a wing anti-ice valve failure? (B1,B2) A. Each valve can be deactivated in open position. B. Each valve can be deactivated in close position. C. Each valve can be deactivated either in close or open position. 297.Hot air used for wing anti-iced is taken from? (A,B1,B2) A. Aircraft pneumatic system. B. Bleed from either engine 1 or 2. C. Directly from the main engine compressors. 298.What happens in case of insufficient air pressure to the engine anti-ice valve? (B1,B2) A. The valve closed as it is spring loaded closed. B. The valve opened as it is spring loaded open. C. Stayed as it is. 299.With both engine anti-ice push buttons set to ON (B1,B2)

37


CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 A. B. C.

The N1 limit will increase. The N1 limit will decrease. The N1 limit will not change.

300.In the event of an engine anti-ice valve failure? (A,B1,B2) A. Each valve can be deactivated in open position. B. Each valve can be deactivated in close position. C. Each valve can be deactivated either in close or open position. 301.What happens when the EIU power supply C/B are pulled? (B1,B2) A. Nothing happens. B. The windshield heating is cut off. C. The windshield and windows are heated. 302.What happens in case of WHC failure? (B1,B2) A. The failed WHC connects to the other. B. Both systems are lost. C. The heating of the related side is lost. 303.How do you complete a test of the drain mast heating system? (B1,B2) A. From PTP. B. From test push button of the control unit. C. Both a & b. 304.How the Pitot probe be HEATED ? (B1,B2) A. Heated in flight - not heated on ground B. Heated on ground - not heated in flight C. Reduced heating on GND, normal heating in FLT. D. Heated when the outside temperature is greater than 0°C 305.When PROBE/WINDOW HEAT push button is in auto position and you run one engine, what happens? (B1,B2) A. All Probe and Windows heat systems activated. B. Probe and Windows on the related side of the engine will be heated. C. Nothing happens. 306.How is the engine anti-ice work? (B1) A. Electrically controlled and operated by 5th stage bleed air, spring loaded open. B. Electrically controlled and operated by 9th stage bleed air, spring loaded closed. C. Electrically controlled and operated by 9th stage bleed air, spring loaded open. 307.The Engine anti-ice valve FAULT light comes on (B1,B2) A. During valve transit. B. When position disagreed C. During valve transit or when position disagreed. ATA 31: INSTRUMENTS 308.EFIS and ECAM CRT’S: A. Are not interchangeable at all B. Are mechanically but not electrically interchangeable C. Are electrically but not mechanically interchangeable

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 D. Are fully interchangeable 309.The systems transmit their failure information to the CFDIU : (B2) A. Permanently in flight and on the ground B. Only in flight C. Only on the ground D. When requested through the MCDU on the ground 310.Which function to initiate test for one aircraft system by CFDS menu: (B1,B2) A. System report/test B. Last leg ECAM report C. Last leg report D. Avionic status 311.The report accessible in flight are only the: (B1,B2) A. Avionics status and the system report B. Last leg report and the last leg ECAM report C. Current leg report and the current leg ECAM report D. Last leg report and the previous leg report 312.In case of DMC1 or 2 failure: (B1,B2) A. The opposite DMC replaces the faulty one B. DMC 3 replaces it automatically C. DCM 3 has to be switches over manually D. The respective information is completely lost 313.The EIS display switching is done: (B2) A. Manually only B. Automatically only C. Automatically only in case of failure or manually in all circumstances D. Automatically or manually only in case of failure 314.Each DMC processes: (B2) A. 2 ECAM displays and 1 EFIS display B. 2 EFIS display and 1 ECAM display C. 2 EFIS displays D. 2 ECAM displays 315.The navigation parameters displayed on: (B2) A. PFD displays B. E/W display C. SYSTEM display D. ND displays 316.You can display a class 3 fault by selecting: (B1,B2) A. Avionic status or system report, then class 3 faults B. Last leg report, then class 3 faults C. System report/test, then troubleshooting data D. Last leg ECAM report, then class 3 fault. 317.The purpose of the avionic status report is to: (B1,B2) A. Provide on ground the list of system affected by a failure during the last leg

39


CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 B. Provide on ground the list of system fitted on the aircraft. C. Provide on ground the list of system presently affected by a failure D. Provide in flight or on ground the list of system affected by a failure 318.The highest priority of the ECAM system display is: (B1,B2) A. Manual selection B. Automatic related to the flight phase C. Automatic related to an advisory D. Automatic related to a failure 319.Which type of systems can not memorize failure message: (B1,B2) A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Type 3 D. Type 2 and Type 3 320.Which is the main computer of the AIDS system: (B1,B2) A. DMC B. DMU C. CFDIU D. FDIU 321.In case of PFDs failed, how to read PFD parameters: (B1,B2) A. Automatic display in NDs B. Must be press PFD/ND XFR pushbuttons C. Mode selector ECAM/ND XFR to CAPT D. Mode selector EIS DMC to CAPT 322.In case of SDAC 1+2 fault: (B1,B2) A. Lost of aural warnings B. Lost of RED warnings C. Lost of AMBER warnings D. Lost of attention getters. 323.In case of FWC 1+2 fault: (B1,B2) A. Lost of aural warnings, text messages on E/W display and attention getters B. Lost of RED warnings C. Lost of AMBER warnings D. Lost of attention getters. 324.The emergency cancel function on the ECAM CTR panel allows: (B1,B2) A. Cancellation of aural warning only B. Cancellation of aural warning and ECAM amber messages C. Cancellation of aural warning and ECAM red warning messages D. ECAM amber messages cancellation only. 325.What is the purpose of the DFDR? (A,B1,B2) A. Condition monitoring of the engines B. To record mandatory parameters. C. To record parameters in a solid state memory for ground maintenance. D. To send systems information for ground station in case of failures.

40


CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 326.Which ECAM page displayed in cruise? (B1,B2) A. ENGINE page B. FLT/CTL page C. CRUISE page D. DOOR page 327.On which display does the warning message appear? (B1,B2) A. SYSTEM display B. ENGINE/WARNING display C. STATUS display. D. MCDU display. 328.Post Flight Report can be printed: (B1,B2) A. In flight only B. On ground only C. Both A and B D. By programming in MCDU only 329.The audio signal generated by: (B1,B2) A. DMC B. FWC C. SDAC D. FWC and SDAC 330.Which are the main function of AIDS? (B1,B2) A. To recording of the mandatory flight data request by authority. B. Trouble shooting the avionic computers only C. Engine condition, APU condition and aircraft performance monitoring D. To advice the pilot in takeoff and landing phase. 331.The Post Flight Report is made from (B1,B2) A. Only LAST LEG ECAM REPORT B. The LAST LEG ECAM REPORT and LAST LEG REPORT C. Only LAST LEG REPORT D. The LAST LEG REPORT and PREVIOUS LEG ECAM REPORT 332.The status page can be displayed: (B1,B2) A. Automatic display B. When press the STATUS key on the ECAM control panel C. When INOP system more than 3 items D. When aircraft in dangerous condition. ATA-32: LANDING GEAR 333.Which system sends the signal to the safety valve to shut off the LDG hydraulic pressure? (B1,B2) A. ADIRU 2 and 3 B. ADIRU 1 and 3 C. ADIRU 1 & 2 D. LGCIU 1 & 2 334.Function of the hydraulic fuse, which is fitted in the line to brake unit is: (B1)

41


CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 To make sure that inadvertent braking action can not happen. To make sure that no hydraulic pressure from green system can be transferred to yellow system. C. To shut off the hydraulic supply to the brake unit case too much fluid flows in to the direction of the brake unit due to line damaged. A. B.

335.Before the LDG can be retracted, the LGCIU must detect that : (B1,B2) A. Three shock absorbers are extended B. Three shock absorbers are compressed C. Main shock absorbers are extended D. LH main and nose shock absorbers are extended 336.What are the auto brake arming condition? (B1,B2) A. An AUTO BRK pushbutton pressed in, green pressure and anti-skid powered and no failure in normal braking system. B. An AUTO BRK pushbutton pressed in, yellow pressure and anti-skid powered and no failure in normal braking system. C. An AUTO BRK pushbutton pressed in, green pressure and anti-skid deactivated and no failure in normal braking system. 337.What can you operate the Nose Wheel Steering during take off and landing when the speed is above 130 Kts? (B1,B2) A. It is not possible B. It is possible through rudder pedals C. It is possible through hand wheels D. It is possible through rudder pedals and auto pilot 338.Which component gives priority to the Green hydraulic system when applied braking system? (B1,B2) A. Brake selector valve B. Throttle valve C. Automatic selector valve 339.What the "LGCIU" must detect before the landing gear can be retracted? (B1,B2) A. Three shock absorbers are extended B. Three shock absorbers are compressed C. Main shock absorbers are extended D. LH main and nose shock absorbers are extended 340.When will the "LGCIU" change-over for landing gear control takes place (B1,B2) A. When the landing gear control lever is set to down B. When the landing gear control lever is set to up C. When electrical power is applied D. When both engines started. 341.When does the BSCU provide anti-skid control? (B1,B2) A. During the normal and alternate braking B. Only during the normal braking C. When the auto brake system has failed

42


CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 342.What controls the landing gear operating sequence? (B1,B2) A. Either LGCIU In turn B. Both LGCIU's simultaneously C. Landing gear control lever D. Safety valve 343.How is the in flight braking initiated? (B1,B2) A. By selecting the landing lever to the "UP" position B. By the main landing gear door opening C. By auto brake deactivation D. By shock absorbers extended 344.When does the automatic changeover of the LGCIUs in control occur? (B1,B2) A. When "DOWN" is selected. B. When "UP" is selected. C. When the first engine starts. 345.When does the UNLK light come on? (A,B1,B2) A. When the gear and the related doors are not locked up. B. When the gear is not locked down. C. When the gear is not locked in the selected position. 346.What is the normal retraction sequence? (A,B1,B2) A. Door open, gear up, door close, cancel gear up signal. B. Door open, gear up, door close, maintain gear up signal. C. Door open, gear up, door close, cancel door close signal. 347.When is the hydraulic circuit depressurized after retraction? (B1) A. As soon as the selector lever is move to neutral. B. As soon as the airspeed is greater than 260 ± 5 Kts C. As soon as the last door is closed 348.What happens when the gravity extension crank handle is rotated? (B1) A. The cut-out and vent valves operate B. The safety and cut-out valves operate C. The safety and vent valves operate 349.In case of normal braking system failure, how is alternate barking applied? (B1,B2) A. Automatically when the selector valve is de-energized B. Automatically through the automatic selector C. As soon as the braking pedals are pressed in 350.How can the parking brake be hydraulically powered? (A,B1,B2) A. Only by yellow high pressure B. Only by the brake accumulator C. Either by yellow high pressure or by the brake accumulator 351.In which mode is progressive pressure sent to the brakes 2 seconds after ground spoilers deployment? (B1,B2) A. MAX mode. B. MED mode.

43


CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 C.

LO mode.

352.What are the auto brake arming conditions? (B1,B2) A. An auto brake pushbutton pressed in, green pressure and anti-skid powered and no failure in normal braking system. B. An auto brake pushbutton pressed in, yellow pressure and anti-skid powered and no failure in normal braking system. C. An auto brake pushbutton pressed in, green pressure and anti-skid deactivated and no failure in normal braking system. 353.When dose the BSCU provide anti-skid control? (B1,B2) A. During normal and alternate braking. B. Only during normal braking. C. Only when the auto brake system has failed? 354.What is the purpose of the hydraulic fuses? (A,B1,B2) A. To stop the flow in case of leakage B. To shut off the return lines C. To separate the Normal from the Alternate Servovalve. 355.Are the return lines shut off when the parking brake is applied? (B1) A. No, they are always open. B. Yes, by the automatic selector. C. Yes, when braking by the accumulator only. 356.Which component gives priority to the green hydraulic system? (B1) A. Brake selector valve. B. Throttle valve C. Automatic selector 357.What is the purpose of the by pass valve of the hydraulic steering control unit? (B1) A. To interconnect the two chambers of the steering actuator. B. To apply hydraulic pressure to the servovalve. C. To by pass the servovalve in case of BSCU failure. ATA - 33: LIGHTING SYSTEM 358.In electrical emergency configuration, which cockpit light remain: (B1,B2) A. CAPT DOME light , F/O DOME light and standby compass B. F/O DOME light , F/O RH centre instrument light and standby compass C. F/O DOME light , CAPT/ LH centre instrument light and standby compass D. CAPT DOME light ,CAPT/LH centre instrument light and standby compass 359.Switch the taxi and take off light in T.O position: (B1,B2) A. Take off light comes on B. Take off and Taxi light come on C. Taxi light comes on D. All lights are off 360.Which lighting includes fluorescent lamps and integral ballast units: (A, B1,B2) A. Passenger reading lights and work attendant light

44


CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 B. Cabin light, entrance light and lavatory lights C. Lavatory lights sign D. Emergency lights sign 361.To program zone lighting in cabin, use: (B1,B2) A. PTP B. FAP C. CFDS D. AIDS 362.Push the power lav switch on FAP, with lavatory door closed and locked : (B1,B2) A. The lavatory lighting in DIM position B. The lavatory lighting in FULL Brightness position C. The lavatory lighting switch OFF 363.In order to see the engine air intakes and wing leading edges, we have to switch on: (B1,B2) A. The WING switch B. The RUN WAY TURN-OFF switch. C. The LAND switch D. The BEACON switch. 364.The navigation lights include: (A, B1,B2) A. RED light on the left hand, GREEN light on the right hand and WHITE light on the APU tail. B. GREEN light on the left hand, RED light on the right hand and WHITE light on the APU tail. C. WHITE light on the left hand, GREEN light on the right hand and RED light on the APU tail. D. RED light on the left hand, WHITE light on the right hand and GREEN light on the APU tail. 365.With the RWY turn off switch set to on, when are the runway turn off lights are on? (B1,B2) A. When the nose landing gear is retracted. B. When the nose landing gear is downlocked. C. Always 366.When does the logo light illuminate with the switch in 2 position? (B1,B2) A. MLG strut compression or slat extension B. NLG compression or flap extension C. NLG compression or slat extension D. Flap and slat extension 367.When do the strobes flash in auto? (B1,B2) A. MLG strut is not compressed B. NLG is not compressed C. NLG compression or slat extension D. Flap and slat extension 368.If the RWY turn off, land and nose switches are all in the “ON” position, which light automatically extinguish after take off? (B1,B2)

45



The TAKEOFF light The TAXI light The NOSE and RWY TURN OFF lights when the landing gear is retracted The TAKEOFF and RWY TURN OFF lights

369.What external light automatically illuminated when MLG strut is not compressed? (B1,B2) A. The TAXI light B. The TAKEOFF light C. The NAV light D. The STROBES lights flash when the strobe switch in auto position 370.What happen when you select the ANN LT switch to “TEST” position? (B1,B2) A. All annunciator lights come on and 8’s up in all LCDs B. All annunciator lights on overhead panel come on C. All annunciator lights changes it status D. All annunciator lights on overhead panel changes it status 371.What is the purpose of the flood light? (B1,B2) A. Illuminates the center pedestal B. Illuminates the cockpit floor C. Illuminates the glareshield and center instrument panel D. Illuminates the overhead panel 372.What is the purpose of the integrated light? (B1,B2) A. Illuminates the overhead panel B. Illuminates the glareshield and center instrument panel C. Illuminates all the instruments and panels in the cockpit D. Illuminates the cockpit floor 373.When AVIONICS COMPT LT switch in “AUTO” position: (B1,B2) A. The AVIONICS COMPT lighting is automatically controlled by door opening and closing B. The AVIONICS COMPT lights are automatically illuminated when A/C touchdown C. The AVIONICS COMPT lights are automatically illuminated when one engine running D. The AVIONICS COMPT lights are automatically illuminated when both engines running 374.When landing light selector in “ON” position: (B1,B2) A. The landing lights are fully extended B. Extends the landing light(left or right) which automatically comes on when fully extended C. The landing light(left or right) comes on but not fully extended D. The landing light(left or right) is fully extended 375.What happen if emergency exit light selector in “ARM” position and normal aircraft electrical power system fails? (B1,B2) A. All the EMER EXIT signs automatically come on B. The proximity emergency escape path marking system, overhead emergency lighting, and EXIT signs automatically come on C. All the EMER EXIT signs and overhead emergency lighting automatically come on

46


CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 D. Overhead emergency lighting automatically come on 376.With NO SMOKING selector in “AUTO” position the NO SMOKING and EXIT signs go off when: (B1,B2) A. The Landing gear is extended B. The Landing gear is compressed C. The Landing gear is retracted D. The Landing gear is not compressed 377.When you select the seat belt switch to “ON” position: (B1,B2) A. The FASTEN SEAT BELT and RETURN TO SEAT signs come on together with a low tone chime sounds B. The FASTEN SEAT BELT signs come on and low tone chime sounds only C. The FASTEN SEAT BELT signs come on only D. The FASTEN SEAT BELT and RETURN TO SEAT signs come on together with a high tone chime sounds ATA 34 - NAVIGATION 378.The correct action taken when ADIRU 2 fails is to: (B2) A. Set ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors to CAPT/3 B. Set ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors to F/O/3 C. Set ATT HDG selector to CAPT/3, AIR DATA selector to F/O/3 D. Set ATT HDG selector to F/O/3, AIR DATA selector to CAPT/3 379.In normal operation the ADIRUs are aligned using information from the: (B2) A. ADIRS CDU B. CFDS C. FCU D. FMGC'S 380.A water drain is fitted to (B2) A. All pitot lines B. All static lines C. The standby static line D. All pitot and static lines 381.AIDRU 3 receives TAT information from: (B2) A. The captain TAT sensor B. The first officer TAT sensor C. The captain and first officer TAT sensors D. The standby TAT sensor 382.Air Data Modules (ADM) supply pressure information to the ADIRUs from (B2) A. All pitot probes and static ports B. The pitot probes only C. The static ports only D. The captain and first officer picot probes and static ports only 383.AIDRU 3 can supply information to (B2) A. DMC1 and DMC2 only B. DMC1 and DMC3 only

47


CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 C. D.

DMC2 and DMC3 only DMC1, DMC2 and DMC3

384.The baro correction or reference selected is sent to each ADIRU from the (B2) A. RMPs B. FCU C. DMCs D. Master FMGC 385.How can GPWS test initiated from the cockpit? (B2) A. By Pressing The GPWS system pushbutton on the GPWS panel B. By using the CFDS system report/test C. By pressing one of the GPWS/GS warning pushbutton on the CAPT or FO instrument panel D. GPWS test is impossible from the cockpit 386.RA1 fails below 2500 Ft (B2) A. a red RA flag appears on the Capt's PFD B. The radio altitude displayed on Capt's PFD is provided by radio altimeter 2 C. The radio altitude is lost on. Capt's PFD D. The radio altitude numerals are replaced by amber crosses on Capt's PFD 387.ILS 1 data is normally displayed (B2) A. On Capt's PFD and F/Os ND B. On Capt's PFD and Capt's ND.. C. On F/O PFD and F/O ND D. On F/O PFD and Capt's N D 388.ILS 1 fails: (B2) A. ILS 2 data are provided to Capt's PFD and F/Os ND B. ILS 1 deviations disappear and are replaced by a LOC and a GS red flag C. LOC and GS scales are replaced by amber crosses D. Scales and deviations disappear from Capt's PFD and F/Os ND 389.MKR information displayed on PFD 1 and PFD 2 is sent from VOR/MKR receiver (B2) A. 2 B. 1 C. 1 on PFD 1 on VOR/MKR receiver 2 on PFD 2 D. 1 on both PFD's in the event of VOR/MKR 1 failure there is an automatic switching to VOR/MKR receiver 2 390.What VOR information is displayed on the ND (B2) A. Deviation bar, selected course and the bearing pointer B. Bearing pointer only C. Deviation bar and selected course only D. Deviation bar and bearing pointer only 391.In the event of no ADF 1 reception, with ADF1 selected on ND, the bearing pointer goes: (B2) A. Out of view and ADF flag is displayed B. Out of view and station IDENTIFICATION is replaced by red crosses

48



Red and station IDENTIFICATION is replaced by frequency Out of view and station IDENTIFICATION is replaced by frequency

392.The red “HDG” message is displayed on the ND if a error (message set to failure warning) is detected by the: (B2) A. ADIRUs B. DMCs C. FMGCs D. FWCs 393.When DME fails, on DDRMI: (B2) A. Red flag comes in to view B. Single pointer is set to 3 o’clock C. DME display window is blanked D. DME display window shows white horizontal dashed lines. 394.Can TCAS determine distance to the intruder? (B2) Yes No 395.The enhanced predictive function of the EGPWS is obtained by: (B2) Use of terrain database Use of DME Use of Weather Radar to scan Use of RA 396.The ATC (B2) Responds to interrogations from ground ATC or TCAS Interrogates ground ATC for distance measurement Responds to interrogations from ground ATC for bearing measurement 397.The RA antennas are installed on the (B2) Top of A/C fuselage Bottom of A/C fuselage Top and bottom of A/C fuselage Top of rudder 398.With the loss of ADR 1,what would be lost on the Capt’s PFD ? (B2) PITCH and ROLL scales PITCH and SPEED scales Airspeed and altitude information Airspeed and wind information 399.Where is VOR data displayed? (B2) Both ND’s and CAPT’s PFD Both PFD’s and DDRMI Both ND’s Both ND’s and DDRMI 400.Does predictive windshear detection work when the radar system is switched off? (B2) Yes, if the windshear switch is in AUTO position

49


CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 Yes,if aircraft is above 1500 feet RA Yes,if aircraft is below 50 feet RA 401.When is radio height displayed on the PFD? Aircraft is above 1500 feet Aircraft is below 1500 feet Aircraft is below 2500 feet Aircraft is above 2500 feet

(B2)

402.What does a steady white “ALIGN” light indicate? (B2) Alignment has been completed The respective IR is in the ALIGN mode The respective IR is failed Alignment has been not completed ATA35: OXYGEN SYSTEM 403.In the passenger oxygen system, a chemical oxygen generator, once activated, delivers Oxygen for: (B1,B2) A. 30 minutes, if only one mask is in use B. 5 minutes, if all masks are used C. 13 minutes, regardless of the number of the masks used 404.An oxygen generator starts to make oxygen when: (A, B1,B2) A. The panel is opened. B. The lanyard is pulled. C. The MAN OVRD pushbutton on the passenger oxygen control panel is operated. D. When the cabin pressure altitude is above 14.000ft. 405.Masks are supplied with undiluted Oxygen on demand if the cabin altitude rises above 14.000 ft, passenger oxygen masks will drop out? (B1,B2) A. Only by actuation of a switch on the captain panel B. Automatically by the cabin pressure and/or cabin attendant action C. Automatically by the cabin pressure and/or flight crew action 406.How do the time delay relays control the Pax. system automatic operation (B1,B2) A. They cut off electrical supply after 30 seconds B. They supply the system for 3 seconds C. They supply the system after 30 seconds 407.How is the passenger chemical generator activated? (A,B1,B2) A. By pushing the MASK MAN ON pushbutton. B. As soon as the ALTITUDE PRESSURE SWITCH is closed. C. When the TIME DELAY RELAY is fully energized. D. By a release pin which is connected via a lanyard to the oxygen mask 408.What is indicated when the white "SYS ON" light (Panel 21 VU) on the passenger oxygen system is illuminated? (B1,B2) A. The chemical oxygen generators are activated B. The time delay relay is fully energized C. The passenger oxygen system is electrically operated D. A cabin attendant has opened an oxygen box with the manual release tool

50



409.The aircraft oxygen system has: (A,B1) A. A separate crew and pax system B. For the crew a H.P. and a L.P. system C. 2 (each) crew cylinders D. Both "A" and "B" 410.When the passenger oxygen masks have been deployed automatically: (B1,B2) A. To reset the system provisions are available at the oxygen generators B. The crew will automatically receive oxygen at the same time C. The timer relay is reset by its pushbutton on panel 50 VU D. The system is reset when pax masks are stowed and the panels latched closed 411.The crew oxygen system consists of: (A,B1) A. A fixed high pressure cylinder. B. A high pressure portable cylinder C. A fixed cylinder with masks and a breathing hood system 412.Can the crew oxygen cylinder pressure be checked when there is no electrical power? (A,B1,B2) A. Yes B. No 413.What indicates an overboard discharge? (A,B1,B2) A. A warning on the oxygen control panel 21VU. B. The direct reading pressure gauge on the oxygen cylinder. C. A yellow indicator. 414.What happen when the 100% position is selected on crew oxygen masks? (B1,B2) A. The user breathes filtered cabin air B. The user breathes pure oxygen at a permanent positive pressure. C. The user breathes pure oxygen 415.What is the "reset TEST SLIDER" of crew oxygen system used for? (B1,B2) A. To control mask oxygen inlet. B. To prevent oxygen inlet to mask. C. To control oxygen supply during tests and mask operation. 416.The TMR reset fault light comes on if? (B1,B2) A. The reset operation is not yet completed. B. The reset operation has failed C. The time delay relays has failed during the automatic operation. 417.What is the function of the hood absorption system of the smoke hood? (B1) A. To add oxygen to the expired gas. B. To trap the carbon dioxide contain in the expired gas C. To allow the expired gas to flow out the hood 418.A manual ON/OFF valve of flight crew Oxygen Cylinder is used: (B1,B2) A. During the replacement of the cylinder and to isolate the cylinder if there is a leak in the oxygen system. B. Allow flight crew to adjust the air flow into the masks.

51



To reduce the air pressure from high pressure to low pressure

419.A direct-reading pressure gage of flight crew Oxygen Cylinder: (B1,B2) A. Provide direct indication of the cylinder high-pressure to flight crew during flight. B. Independent of the open or closed position of the manual ON/OFF valve. C. Ground engineer must check oxygen pressure through direct-reading pressure gage before dispatch the aircraft. 420.Low-Pressure Supply Valve of flight crew Oxygen system (B1,B2) A. Installed between the pressure regulator/transmitter and the distribution manifold B. Installed between the distribution manifold and the masks C. Installed between the high pressure cylinder and the pressure regulator/transmitter. 421.Low-Pressure Supply Valve of flight crew Oxygen system is: (B1,B2) A. A manual ON/OFF valve and can control from avionic compartment. B. A solenoid valve and can control from the control panel in the cockpit. C. A manual ON/OFF valve and can control from the control panel in the cockpit. 422.A warning signal "REGUL LO PR" appears on the ECAM when: (B1,B2) A. Pressure of the distribution manifold decreases to 50 ± 5 psi. B. Pressure of Crew Oxygen Cylinder decreases to 1000 ± 5 psi C. Pressure of Crew Oxygen Cylinder decreases to 1450 ± 5 psi D. When doing the test of Crew Oxygen mask 423.Oxygen pressure in the cylinder is indicated On the lower ECAM DU (display Unit) (B1,B2) A. An amber half frame appears when the oxygen pressure is lower than 1500 psi B. Gives an indication to the maintenance personnel when filling the oxygen cylinder C. An amber indication on the DOOR/OXY page with pressure from 0 to 1450 psi D. An green indication on the DOOR/OXY page with pressure from 50 to 1850 psi 424.Oxygen masks drop out for the passenger and the cabin attendant when (B1,B2) A. The cabin pressure decreases to a pressure equivalent of 14000 +0 -500 ft B. The cabin pressure decreases between 8000 ft and 14000 ft C. The cabin pressure decreases below 8000 ft or pilot operates the 'MASK MAN ON' pushbutton switch D. The cabin pressure decreases to a pressure equivalent of 14000 +0 -500 ft or pilot operates the 'MASK MAN ON' pushbutton switch 425.When the Pax. oxygen masks have been deployed automatically: (B1,B2) A. The SYS ON indicator light will go off when the TMR RESET pushbutton switch is pushed. B. The FAULT indicator light comes on 30s after the start of the system operation C. The SYS ON indicator light comes on for 30s D. You must press the MASK MAN ON pushbutton switch to allow the chemical oxygen generator supply oxygen to the masks ATA 36 – PNEUMATIC SYSTEM 426.In case of electrical power failure, with the engine running, the bleed pressure regulating valve (PRV) is: (B1) A. Fully closed

52


CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 B. C. D.

Fully open Modulating Mechanically latched in its last position

427.How is the crossbleed valve controlled and operated? (B1,B2) A. Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated B. Solenoid controlled and pneumatically operated C. Pneumatically controlled and operated D. Electrically controlled and operate 428.In case of an overheat downstream of the precooler: (B1,B2) A. The CTS sends a pneumatic signal to the PRV which starts to close B. The CT sends a pneumatic signal to the PRV which starts to close C. The CTS sends a pneumatic signal to the fan air valve which goes to the fully open position D. The CT sends a pneumatic signal to the fan air valve which goes to the fully closed position 429.What condition causes the engine PRV to close automatically? (B1) A. Respective fire pushbutton guarded B. Cross bleed valve in manual mode and engine PRV in auto-mode C. Cross bleed valve in auto mode, APU bleed valve switch in OFF position and valve closed D. Cross bleed valve in auto mode, APU bleed valve switch in ON position and valve open 430.When an APU duct leak is detected during engine start from APU bleed: (B1) A. APU bleed and crossfeed valves remain open B. APU bleed and cross feed valves close C. APU bleed valve closes and cross feed opens D. Engine bleed valve reopens 431.With engine and APU running and APU bleed valve selected ON: (B1) A. Engine bleed valves open, cross bleed valve opens, APU bleed valve closes B. Engine bleed valves close, cross bleed valve opens, APU bleed valve opens C. Engine bleed valves open, cross bleed valve closes, APU bleed valve opens D. Engine bleed valves close, cross bleed valve closes, APU bleed valve opens 432.The crossbleed valve is: (B1) A. Controlled and operated electrically by 1 motors B. Controlled and operated electrically by 2 motors C. Controlled electrically, and operated pneumatically 433.Can you control the high pressure valve (HPV) from the cockpit: (B1,B2) A. Yes, directly B. No C. Yes, through BMCs 434.With the crossbleed selector at “AUTO” and air supplied by engine 1 only, the crossbleed valve: (B1,B2) A. Is automatically controlled to open B. Does not receive any order

53



Is controlled to close

435.At high engine speed the high pressure valve (HPV) is: (A,B1,B2) A. Regulating a pressure B. Fully closed C. Fully open D. Regulating a temperature 436.What is the design principle of the bleed leak detection loop? (B1,B2) A. Resistance. B. Pressure. C. Capacitor. 437.Where the air is taken from during engine high power setting? (A,B1,B2) A. IP stage. B. HP stage. C. IP and HP at the same time. 438.What is the purpose of IP/HP switching? (A,B1,B2) A. To regulate the output pressure depending on the Fan Air Valve position. B. To keep sufficient bleed pressure at low engine speed. C. To regulate the output temperature depending on the configuration of users. 439.What is the purpose of the Control Thermal Start (CT)? (B1,B2) A. To pneumatically control the OPV. B. To pneumatically control the FAV. C. To pneumatically control the PRV. 440.If one HP valve failed open? (B1,B2) A. The aircraft can be dispatched with the subject HPV deactivated close. B. The aircraft can be dispatched with the subject HPV deactivated open. C. The aircraft can only be dispatched if related bleed system is considered INOP. 441.The E/W message: LH WING DET FAULT means? (B1,B2) A. LH wing loop A and B fault B. Either LH wing loop A or B fault. C. Either both loops A or both loops B fault. 442.Which component can be used to monitor engine bleed leak? (B1,B2) A. Leak loops detection at Fan, Core and Pylon areas. B. Leak loops detection at Fan, Core and Pylon areas and NAC Temperature sensor. C. Leak loop detection at Pylon area and NAC Temperature sensor. 443.What is the correct configuration of the wing bleed leak detection? (B1,B2) A. Loops A connect to BMC 1 and loops B connect to BMC 2. B. LH wing loops connect to BMC 1 and RH wing loops connect to BMC 2. C. Both loops A and B connect to BMC1 and BMC 2 in parallel. 444.The APU bleed valve is? (A,B1,B2) A. A modulating valve. B. An ON/OFF valve. C. A and B.

54



445.The APU bleed leak detection system is? (A,B1,B2) A. A single loop that connects to BMC 1. B. A single loop that connects to both BMC 1 and BMC 2. C. The double loops that connect to BMC 1 and BMC 2 respectively. ATA 38: WATER & TOILET 446.Which signal close the Fill/ Drain valve during servicing with electrical power available? (A,B1,B2) A. By a quantity transmitter which sends a tank full signal to close the fill/drain valve automatically B. When the quantity gauge indicates full the valve has to be closed manually C. When the water comes out of the overflow port the valve has to be closed manually D. There is no signal available, the tank has to be filled with a measured amount of water. 447.How is the water tank depressurized during servicing? (A,B1,B2) A. By waiting for the system pressure to dissipate B. By operating a wash basin faucet C. By operating the fill/over flow valve D. By a push button the servicing panel 448.How are the wash basin water heaters protected from damage should the normal temperature control fail ? (B1,B2) A. There is no protection B. Cabin staff have to switch them off C. An over temperature safety device cuts off the electrical power D. By a warning on the ECAM display 449.Why are the drain valve installed in the waste water drain system? (B1,B2) A. To allow the sink and wash basin to be isolated B. To prevent a permanent loss of cabin air pressurization C. To prevent wash basin from being isolated 450.Can any toilet be used during servicing? (A,B1,B2) A. Yes, because toilet use and servicing is independent B. Yes, but only the front toilet C. Yes, but electric power is required to supply the toilet control system D. No, the door limit switch on the toilet servicing panel deactivates the toilet control system. 451.From where does the LAV INOP Fault light come at the FWD Attendant Panel? (B1,B2) A. A level sensor in each toilet unit B. A fault of the related lavatory flush control unit (FCU) C. A fault of the VACUUM GENERATOR D. The door limit switch (panel door open) on the servicing panel. 452.Is it possible to drain the whole water system without electrical power? (A,B1,B2) A. No, electrical power is always required B. Yes, all the drain valves can be operated manually

55



No, only the water tanks can be drained by using the aft drain valve No, only the forward drain valve can be operated manually.

453.Why is water tank pressurized? (A,B1,B2) A. To ease draining operation. B. To warm up water. C. To allow water distribution. 454.What is used for A320 aircraft water tank filling operation? (A,B1,B2) A. One handle, one valve. B. Two handles, one valve. C. One handle, two valves. 455.How many valves are used during draining operation of A320 aircraft water tank (A,B1,B2) A. Two B. Three C. Four 456.How many potable water service and drain panels are fitted to the A320 aircraft? (A,B1,B2) A. One B. Two C. Three 457.Where is the main drain port of the A320 aircraft potable water system? (A,B1,B2) A. On the portable water service panel. B. On the fwd service panel. C. Both 458.How many potable water quantity indicators are there? (A,B1,B2) A. One B. Two C. Three 459.How many quantity TRANSMITTER is in the potable water tank? (A,B1,B2) A. One B. Two C. Three 460.What is purpose of the high level switch of the water quantity TRANSMITTER? (B1,B2) A. De-energized a relay which closes the fill/drain valve when the tank is full. B. To disconnect electrical supply to the water heater in the lavatories C. To disconnect electrical supply to the fill/drain valve to closes it when the tank is full. D. To gives warming of water tank overfill. 461.What is purpose of the water service panel door microswitch? (B1,B2) A. To de-energized the indicating system when the portable water service panel door is opened.

56


CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 To energized the indicating system when the portable water service panel door is closed. C. To isolate the indicating system when the portable water service panel door is closed. D. To isolate the indicating system when the portable water service panel door is opened. B.

462.The waste water drain valve. (A,B1,B2) A. Electrically operated. B. Is held closed in flight by cabin air pressure and open when waste water enters the valve has build up enough. C. Open on ground and close in flight D. Manually operated only by lifting the seal assembly. 463.Where does the toilet bowl rinsing water come from? (A,B1,B2) A. Waste holding tank. B. Waste water tank. C. Potable water tank. 464.How is the waste transported to the waste holding tank? (A,B1,B2) A. By the vacuum created in the waste holding tank. B. By the water flushing and gravity. C. By the water pressure 465.When does the vacuum generator operate? (B1,B2) A. On ground only. B. Up to an altitude of 16.000 t during climb and below 12.000 ft during descent. C. During servicing operation. 466.How many toilet service panels are fitted on the aircraft? (A,B1,B2) A. One B. Two C. Three 467.How many potable water service and drain panels are fitted to the aircraft? (A,B1,B2) A. One B. Two C. Three 468.Where is the waste quantity displayed? (A,B1,B2) A. On the toilet service panel B. On the Forward Attendant Panel C. On both panels. 469.The toilet system is monitored by: (B1,B2) A. The FCU BITE B. The CFDS. C. The VSC BITE 470.The water valve and the flush valve are monitor by: (B1,B2) A. The Vacuum System Controller.

57


CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 B. C.

The Vacuum Generator. The associated Flush Control Unit BITE.

471.What are the functions of the VSC? (B1,B2) A. System control and monitoring and fault reporting. B. System control and monitoring C. Fault reporting. ATA 49 - APU. 472.The E.C.B has? (A,B1,B2) A. Restricted authority over APU operation. B. Monitoring function over APU operation. C. Full authority over APU operation. 473.From where the APU emergency shut down can be initiated? (A,B1,B2) A. Refuel/Defuel panel; External power panel and Cockpit. B. External power panel and Cockpit only. C. External power panel only, if the aircraft is on ground. 474.What indication can be displayed on the APU page? (A,B1,B2) A. FLAP OPEN. B. FUEL LO PR; LOW OIL LVL C. FLAP OPEN; FUEL LO PR; LOW OIL LVL. 475.On ground, in case of failure, how can you open/close the air intake flap? (B1) A. Use the override manual device. B. The flap actuator can be hydraulically overridden. C. You can not override the flap actuator. 476.What are the three APU modules? (A,B1,B2) A. Compressor, Combustion chambers, Turbine. B. Power section, Load Compressor, Turbine. C. Power section, Load Compressor, Gearbox. 477.The APU fuel low pressure circuit can be activated from? (A,B1,B2) A. Cockpit and External Power Panel. B. Cockpit and Fuel Vent system at APU compartment. C. Cockpit; External Power Panel and Fuel Vent system at APU compartment. 478.How can you activate the APU fuel vent system? (A,B1,B2) A. Push and hold the VENT P/B at the APU compartment. B. Select master switch ON. C. Push and hold the VENT P/B with the master switch selected ON. 479.How do you check the APU OIL quantity? (A,b1,B2) A. On APU page, on sight glass located on the gear box and interrogate the CFDS. B. On APU page, on sight glass located on the gear box. C. On APU page, on sight glass located on the oil cooler and interrogate the CFDS. 480.How many oil filters are installed in the APU oil system. (B1) A. 2, one pressure filter and one scavenge filter.

58



2 pressure filters. 2 scavenge filters.

481.De-oil of the APU is accomplished by? (B1) A. Drain of the oil from the gear box. B. Using the bleed air to purge the system. C. Using gear box pressurization air to break the suction of the oil pump. 482.How the APU Generator is lubricated? (B1) A. Using the dedicated oil system. B. Using the common oil system with the APU. C. By design APU Generator is self lubricated. 483.During M.E.S. (Main Engine Start) : (B1,B2) A. APU speed 101 %, IGV opened, SCV modulated and load valve opened B. APU speed 99 %, SCV closed, load valve opened C. APU speed 101 %, IGV opened, SCV closed, load valve modulated D. APU speed 95 %, IGV opened, SCV opened, load valve modulated 484.When the APU Master switch is set to ON, the APU (Low pressure) fuel pump will run: (B1,B2) A. Continuously B. Only when the START pushbutton is pressed C. Only if a low fuel pressure is detected D. Only if the ECB detects an HP pump failure 485.With the APU bleed valve open, releasing the master switch will cause the APU to shut down: (B1,B2) A. Immediately B. Only after the cool down period has elapsed C. Only if the START pushbutton is released D. Never, the APU bleed valve must be shut 486.The high oil temperature or low oil pressure detected during APU operation, the ECB will cause the APU to shut down: (A,B1,B2) A. Only if the MASTER switch is released B. Only if the START pushbutton is released C. Only after the cool down period has elapsed D. Immediately 487.During cooling down sequence at 75% N, the APU is: (A,B1,B2) A. Still running without electrical and pneumatic load. B. Still running with electrical load. C. Wind milling without electrical and pneumatic load. D. Still running with electrical and pneumatic load. 488.The APU self test is performed from the MCDU. this function is available only: (A,B1,B2) A. If the APU is running B. If the APU is not running C. Doing the APU start sequence D. If the START pushbutton is pressed in

59



489.When the APU is started, the APU generator will be energized at: (B1,B2) A. N = 75 % B. N = 95 % plus 2 seconds C. N = 50 % D. N = 7 % 490.When does the surge control valve fully close? (B1) A. During main engine start B. During ECS operation. C. On ground. 491.If the APU has experienced an automatic shut down, where can you find information on the shut down cause? (B1,B2) A. From Post Flight Report. B. Checking the APU page. C. Check the Shut Down menu on CFDS. ATA 52: DOOR 492.How can the slide fairing door of one overwing emergency exit be disarmed? (B1,B2) A. By opening the exit from the outside B. By setting the disarm device to "disarmed" C. It always disarm on ground. D. By an automatic "disarm" signal from engine, as long as engines are not running 493.What indicates the red flashing light on the cabin door? (A,B1,B2) A. The escape slide will not deploy after automatic opening B. The first bar has failed to engage into the floor fittings C. The slide system is armed avoid the interior locking handle is partly lifted D. Both engine shut down, door disarmed, the cabin pressure is greater than 2,5 mb 494.How is the passenger door closed and locked information be monitored? (A,B1,B2) A. By a single microswitch (lock position) on the "ECAM DOOR" page B. By two proximity detection on the "ECAM DOOR" page C. No indication at all D. Landing gear control interface unit n° 1 (LGCIU 1) on the "ECAM DOOR" page 495.What indicates the green light in the cargo door access? (A,B1,B2) A. The cargo door is closed and locked B. The cargo door is not closed C. The cargo door is unlocked D. The cargo door is open and locked 496.What is the purpose of the damper nitrogen bottle and emergency operation cylinder? (B1,B2) A. To damp the door opening and closing B. To assist in opening and closing the door to do it C. To damp the door opening/closing and to pressurize the cylinder in case of emergency opening

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497.What happen when the passenger door is opened from the outside and the slide system is armed? (A,B1,B2) A. The locking mechanism is blocked B. The escape slide will deploy C. The slide system is disarmed D. There is no possibility to open the door from the outside 498.What happen when the emergency exit door of A320 aircraft is opened from the outside and the slide system is armed? (A,B1,B2) A. The locking mechanism is blocked B. The escape slide will deploy C. The slide system is disarmed D. There is no possibility to open the door from the outside 499.The PAX door is maintained parallel to the fuselage by: (A,B1,B2) A. The guide arms. B. The support arms C. The upper and lower connection links. 500.How the operator is warned, when there is a residual pressure in the cabin? (A,B1,B2) A. By a white flushing light. B. By a red flushing light. C. By an ember flushing light. 501.Which device blocks the outer control handle during inner control handle operation of the PAX door? (B1) A. The control handle gearbox B. The safety pin C. The lifting mechanism. 502.How can the PAX door be opened from outside when the arming lever is set in the ARM position? (B1) A. The arming lever must be set to DISARMED. B. The door cannot be opened from outside in such configuration. C. An installation containing a cam disk and a roller disarms the system automatically. 503.What happens when the arming lever of the PAX door is set to the ARMED position? (B1,B2) A. The girt bar stay attached to the cabin floor. B. The girt bar slide towards the telescopic fork. C. The telescopic fork slide towards the girt bar fitting 504.Which maintenance task must be performed after an emergency opening of PAX door? (B1) A. The operating striker lever has to be replaced. B. The diaphragm, in the mechanism housing and the shear pin must be replaced. C. The nitrogen bottle has to be replaced 505.How is latch pin of the A320 aircraft emergency exit door released for maintenance operation? (B1)

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By operating the outer control handle By retracting the latch pin By setting the disarming control handle to DISARMED

506.What does the green light fitted near the manual selector valve of the cargo door indicate? (A,B1,B2) A. The yellow hydraulic pressure is available to operate the door. B. The door is fully opened and locked. C. The door is correctly unlatched and unlocked 507.When can the cargo door be opened? (A,B1,B2) A. When the cam and the hooks are in the locked position. B. When the cam is in the unlocked position and the hooks are in the locked position C. When the cam and the hooks are in the unlocked position 508.To Which of the followings the cam of the cargo door fastened? (B1) A. Locking shaft B. Safety shaft C. Spring unit. 509.The cargo doors hydraulic system is pressurized by the: (A,B1,B2) A. Green electric pump B. Blue electric pump C. Yellow electric pump 510.What is purpose of the spring loaded blocking piston in the manual selector valve of cargo door hydraulic system? (B1) A. To prevent door opening is pressure is < 3000 psi B. To lock the selector in the OPEN/CLOSE position until the actuator is fully opened/retracted. C. To ensure correct pressure in the extension chamber of the actuators before closing 511.When does the residual cabin pressure red light come on? (A,B1,B2) A. When all the engines are not running, the parking brake is applied and the residual cabin pressure exceeds 2.5 mbars B. When the engines are not running, the slide is disarmed and the residual cabin pressure exceeds 2.5 mbars C. When the engines are not running, the parking brake is applied, the slide is disarmed and the residual cabin pressure exceeds 2.5 mbars 512.When is the electro selector valve of the cargo door system applied? (B1,B2) A. When the locking shaft proximity switch target is NEAR and when the manual selector valve is operated. B. When the locking shaft proximity switch target is FAR and when the manual selector valve is operated. C. When the locking shaft proximity switch target is NEAR 513.The seal of pax door: (A,B1,B2) A. Is installed around the door on the inner side and when the door is closed, the it is pushed against the frame of the fuselage B. Is installed around the door on the outer side and when the door is closed, the it is pushed against the frame of the fuselage

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Is deflated when the door is closed and the passenger cabin is pressurized.

514.The air stoppers are installed between the PAX door and the door frame (A,B1,B2) A. Prevent the cold air from penetrating into the cabin B. Prevent the water comes into the cabin C. Protect the door structure during operation. 515.The proximity switches installed on PAX door transmit the position of: (B1,B2) A. The escape-slide control lever on the escape-slide control mechanism and the hook on the upper frame of the door B. The escape-slide control lever on the escape-slide control mechanism and the door handle on the shaft of the locking mechanism C. The hook on the upper frame of the door and the door handle on the shaft of the locking mechanism D. The escape-slide control lever on the escape-slide control mechanism and the hook on the upper frame of the door; the hook on the upper frame of the door; the door handle on the shaft of the locking mechanism 516.Each emergency exit door has a slide release mechanism with two operation modes: NORMAL mode and the MAINTENANCE mode (B1,B2) A. During the NORMAL mode, the latch pin of the slide release mechanism is in the ARMED position (the latch pin is extended) B. During the NORMAL mode, the latch pin of the slide release mechanism is in the ARMED position (the latch pin is retracted) C. During the MAINTENANCE mode, the latch pin is in the DISARMED position (the latch pin is extended) 517.Emergency exit door of a320 aircraft: (A,B1,B2) A. Can be opened from outside or/and inside and the door fall outside of aircraft. B. Can be opened from outside or/and inside and the door fall into the cabin. C. Can be opened from outside and the door fall outside of aircraft D. Can be opened from inside and the door fall into the cabin, 518.The pressurization of the cargo door hydraulic system does not occur when: (A,B1,B2) A. The locking mechanism is in the locked condition. B. The door not in fully close or/and open position. C. The door not in fully open position. D. The door is operated with hand pump 519.BULK Cargo-Compartment Door is opened: (A,B1,B2) A. Outward and upward. B. Outward and downward. C. Inward and upward. D. Inward and downward. 520.The FWD and AFT cargo doors: (A,B1,B2) A. Possible to open/close at the same time B. Possible to open at the same time when using the electric pump only C. Possible to open one by one only D. Possible to close at the same time only

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521.The external power receptacle (A,B1,B2) A. Is installed in the lower and is a quick-opening type door and opens outwards towards the front of the aircraft B. Is installed in the lower and is a quick-opening type door and opens outwards downwards the front of the aircraft C. Is installed in the lower and is a quick-opening type door and opens outwards upwards the front of the aircraft 522.Proximity switches send signal to the ECAM system for indication and warning (B1,B2) A. Data concerning passenger/crew doors, emergency exits and the avionics compartment doors are processed by the SDAC 1 and SDAC 2 B. Data concerning passenger/cargo compartment doors are processed by the LGCIU 1 and sent to the FWC 1 and FWC 2 C. Data concerning passenger/crew doors, cargo compartment doors, emergency exits and the avionics compartment doors are processed by the SDAC 1 and SDAC 2 D. Data concerning passenger/crew doors, cargo compartment doors, emergency exits and the avionics compartment doors are processed by the LGCIU 1 and sent to the FWC 1 and FWC 2 523.The escape slide will be automatically deployed if. (A,B1,B2) A. Girt bar attached with escape slide pack and the door is opened. B. Girt bar is still engaged into floor bracket and the door is opened. C. Girt bar is still engaged into floor bracket and the door is opened by outside handle 524.The function of the safety pin on the pax door is: (A,B1,B2) A. To hold the door when it is closed during whole flight. B. To hold the door in the closed position until it is locked. C. To hold the door in the closed position until it is unlocked. 525.Landing gear doors can be opened. (A,B1,B2) A. Hydraulically on ground only with landing gear selector set to down. B. Hydraulically or manually if aircraft is on jack. C. Manually on ground only with landing gear selector set to down 526.Avionics compartment can be accessed through: (A,B1,B2) A. Avionics lower side of the fuselage. B. Avionics door on the fwd cargo compartment. C. Access door in the cockpit. 527.Emergency exit door of a320 aircraft is equipped. (A,B1,B2) A. Slide, which is automatically disarmed when the door is opened from inside. B. Slide, which is automatically disarmed when the door is opened from outside. C. Slide, which can only be disarmed by release the latch pin from inside. A320 TO A321 DIFFERENCES 528.What happen during the RAT retraction? (B1) A. The red light comes on during RAT retraction and goes off when the RAT is retracted and locked. B. The green light comes on when the RAT is retracted and locked.

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The red light goes off when the ARM switch set to OFF.

529.What happen if the stow switch is release before the RAT is fully retracted? (B1) A. The RAT continuously retracts. B. The RAT will return to the fully extended position. C. The RAT locked in the existing position. 530.The potable water is located at: (A,B1,B2) A. L/H behind the rear cargo compartment. B. R/H behind the forward cargo compartment. C. R/H behind the rear cargo compartment. 531.If the cabin emergency door is opened from outer side with the escape slide in ARMED mode. (A,B1,B2) A. The ARMED mode of the escape slide changes to DISARMED mode as well as passenger door. B. The escape slide will deploy. C. The door can not be opened. 532.For the emergency exits door, which device makes sure that the locking shaft mechanism is always in the over centered position? (B1) A. The spring unit. B. The control mechanism. C. The locking hook. 533. Where the escape slide pack of cabin emergency door located? (A,B1,B2) A. Holds on the door. B. Holds in a container underneath the door. C. Holds on the overhead stowage compartment. 534.Where the inflation reservoir of the emergency exits door located? (A,B1,B2) A. At the bottom of the door. B. In the overhead stowage compartment. C. In the AFT cargo compartment. 535.What is purpose of the ECON FLOW pushbutton? (B1,B2) A. To allows the cockpit to select 80%, 100% or 120% of the nominal airflow. B. To permits economic or normal pack flow according to the number of the passenger and ambient condition. C. When ON is selected the normal flow provides 20% more than economic flow. 536.The HOT AIR pushbutton switch of the cargo ventilation panel controls: (B1,B2) A. Blower fan. B. Aft cargo door. C. Pressure Regulating Valve. 537.Are main pumps running while the center tank is transferring? (B1,B2) A. Yes, main pumps are always running. B. No, only when the center tank is empty. C. No, because of center tank pump priority 538.Engine LP valve closes when: (B1,B2)

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The fuel booster pump pressure decrease. The engine is shut down or the ENG FIRE pushbutton is released out. The engine fire detection system detects an engine fire.

539.The APU can normally be supplied with fuel by: (A,B1,B2) A. Only the APU pump. B. Only the LH main pumps. C. LH main pumps or APU fuel pump. 540.What happen if a high level is detected? (A,B1,B2) A. A warning is triggered: too much fuel. B. The corresponding REFUEL valve closes. C. All refueling operations are stopped. 541.In which tanks are temperature sensors fitted? (B1,B2) A. Center tank. B. Wing tanks and center tank. C. Wing tank 542.What is purpose of the IDG SHUT-OFF sensor? (B1,B2) A. To stop the cooling fuel recirculation. B. To stop the center tank transfer valves. C. To restart cooling fuel recirculation. 543.What happen if one channel of the FQIC fails? (B1,B2) A. Half of the quantity indicating data is no longer available. B. FQIS operates normally, only CFDS report will indicate failure. C. Fuel warning is triggered in addition of CFDS report. 544.What happen if a quantity probe fails? (B1,B2) A. Corresponding tank quantity display flashes. B. Quantity indication disappears. C. Quantity indication remains the same. 545.What does the MODE SEL pushbutton control? (B1,B2) A. Center tank transfer valves and wing tank pump only. B. Center tank transfer valves only. C. Wing tank pump only. 546.When the center tank is empty, in AUTO MODE, the center tank transfer valves: (B1,B2) A. Must be manually switched OFF after 5mn. B. Stop automatically and wing tank pumps start running. C. Closed automatically after a time delay of 5mn. 547.Which tanks are the main supply tanks? (A,B1,B2) A. Wing tanks. B. Center (transfer) tank. C. Outer cells. 548.Where are the Wing Tip Brake located? (B1,B2) A. At the wing tips.

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Between the tracks 3 and 4 in each wing. Attached to track 4 offset gearbox.

549.Where are the torque limiters located? (B1) A. On the actuator offset gear box. B. On the actuator drive lever. C. On the steady bearing. 550.How many valves are used during the draining operation of water system? (A,B1,B2) A. One. B. Two. C. Three. 551.The automatic drain valve of the hydraulic reservoir pressurization unit. (B1,B2) A. Opened when at least one engine or APU running. B. Opened after each engine or APU shutdown. C. Closed after both engines and APU shutdown. 552.How many fuel Manual Magnetic Indicators are there (MMI)? (B1,B2) A. Five in each wing tank and one in the center tank. B. Six in each wing tank and two in the center tank. C. Seven in each wing tank and one in the center tank. 553.How are the cargo smoke detectors connected to the SDCU? (B2) A. In parallel. B. In series. C. In a loop. 554.How many smoke detectors are installed in the AFT cargo compartment? (B1,B2) A. Two. B. Four. C. Six. 555.When the cargo fire test pushbutton is pressed and held, which conditions are simulated? (B1,B2) A. A smoke only. B. A bottle pressure drop only. C. Both. 556.Where is the cargo fire extinguisher bottle located? (B1,B2) A. In the FWD cargo compartment. B. In the AFT cargo compartment. C. In the AFT section of the aircraft. 557.How many cargo fire extinguishers bottle are installed on the aircraft? (B1,B2) A. One. B. Two. C. Three. 558.What happens if smoke is detected in a cargo compartment? (B1,B2)

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 SMOKE light comes on + Continuous Repetitive Chime + MASTER WARNING + ECAM message. B. The CIDS duplicates the cargo smoke warning to the cabin. C. Lights come on. A.

559.What happens if the SDCU is faulty? (B1,B2) A. The lavatory smoke detection is inoperative. B. The cargo smoke detection is inoperative. C. Both A and B with Single Chime + MASTER CAUTION + ECAM message. 560.What happen on A321 aircraft If a fuel tank overflows during a refuel or a fuel transfer and fuel has entered the vent surge tanks (B1,B2) A. A jet pump moves the fuel into the related wing tank outer cell. B. A jet pump moves the fuel into the related wing tank inner cell. C. The clack valves let the fuel return to the related wing tank. D. A booster pump will collect the fuel back to inner cell when underfull is detected in the inner cell. 561.When in all A321 aircraft tanks are full of fuel, what happen if: Tank pumps are running; XFR valve mode selector in Manual; XFR valve pushbuttons are pressed in. (B1,B2) A. XFR valve closed to stop the fuel transfer to wing tanks. B. XFR valve open and the fuel transfer to wing tanks. C. XFR valve open but the fuel does not transfer to wing tanks. D. Tank pump does not provide fuel flow to XFR valve. 562.Which cabin emergency exits door can be used as passenger door? (A,B1,B2) A. All emergency exits doors B. Two FWD emergency exits doors C. Two AFT emergency exits doors D. FWD L/H emergency exits doors 563.What happen when the emergency exit door of A321 aircraft is opened from the outside and slide system is armed? (A,B1,B2) A. The locking mechanism is blocked B. The escape slide will deploy C. The slide system is disarmed D. There is no possibility to open the door from the outside 564.Is it possible to fill the A321 aircraft water tank without electrical supplied? (A,B1,B2) A. Yes, fill/overflow drain valve can operate manually B. Yes, but when finished you must manually return the control handle to the NORMAL position to close the fill/overflow drain valve C. No, because level transmitter can not send signal to close the fill/overflow drain valve D. No, because the fill/overflow drain valve operate electrically 565.The cargo hot air pushbutton switch control the: (B1,B2) A. Blower fan. B. Aft cargo door.

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Pressure Regulating Valve.

566.How are the cargo smoke detectors connected to the SDCU? (B1,B2) A. In parallel B. In series C. In a loop. 567.How many smoke detectors are installed in the FWd cargo compartment? (B2) A. Two B. Four C. Six D. Eight 568.How many smoke detectors are installed in the AFt cargo compartment? (B2) A. Two B. Four C. Six D. Eight 569.When the cargo fire test pushbutton is pressed and held, which conditions are simulated? (B1,B2) A. Smoke only B. Bottle pressure drop only C. Both 570.If smoke is detected in a cargo compartment what happen? (B1,B2) A. SMOKE lights comes ON + continuous repetitive chime + MASTER WARNING + ECAM message. B. The CIDS duplicates the cargo smoke warning to the cabin. C. Lights come on. 571.What happen if the SDCU is faulty? (B1,B2) A. The lavatory smoke detection inoperative B. The cargo smoke detection inoperative C. Both A and B with single chime + MASTER caution + ECAM message. 572.On A321 aircraft with tanks are the main supply tanks? (B1,B2) A. Wing tanks B. Center (transfer) tank C. Outer cells D. Inner cells 573.The APU of A321 aircraft can normally be supplied with the fuel by: (A,B1,B2) A. Only the APU pump B. Only the LH main pumps C. LH main pumps or APU fuel pump 574.When the center tank is empty, in AUTO MODE, the center tank transfer valves: (B1,B2) A. Must be manually switched OFF after 5 mn. B. Stop automatically and wing tank pumps start running. C. Close automatically after a time delay of 5mn.

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575.The vent float valve in fuel tank of A321 aircraft (B1) A. Prevents fuel from entering the vent surge tank. B. Allows fuel to drain from the vent line. C. Maintains the fuel tanks pressurized. 576.To which tank does the recirculated fuel return? (B1) A. Wing tank near rib 16. B. Center tank. C. Wing tank collector box. 577.What happens if the fuel level in the wing tank drops to the low level sensor? (B1) A. The Fuel Diverter and Return Valve closes B. The Fuel Diverter and Return Valve opens C. The wing tank pumps stop 578.The fuel suction VALVE OF A321 aircraft is in operation, therefore: (B1) A. The two wing tank pumps are in operation. B. Only one wing tank pump supplies the engine. C. Both pumps are stopped. 579.With the X-FEED valve open, both engines running and the pumps in the left wing tank stopped, the fuel transfer from the center tank: (B1) A. Stop if the cross-feed valve is open B. Continues, but only to the right hand tank. C. Remains unchanged 580.In which tanks are temperature sensor fitted? (B1,B2) A. Center tank B. Wing tanks and center tank C. Wing tanks 581.What kind of design is the compressor for APS APU? (B1) A. Two stage centrifugal compressor design. B. Single stage centrifugal compressor design. C. Two stage axial compressor design 582.What kind of design is the turbine for APS APU? (B1) A. Two stage centrifugal turbine design. B. Single stage centrifugal turbine design. C. Two stage axial turbine design 583.On A321 aircraft emergency exits door, When does the damper and emergency operation cylinder work as an actuator? (B1) A. When the slide control handle is in DISARMED position. B. When the door is fully closed. C. When the arming lever is in the ARMED position. 584.On a321 aircraft emergency exits door, Which device transfers the operation of the outboard handle to the ARM/DISARM unit? (B1) A. The release shaft assembly B. The transmission shaft

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The intermediate shaft.

ATA 71/80 - POWER PLANT – GENERAL & ENGINE STARTING. 585.For thrust balance and prevention of A/C movement during engine run up: (B1) A. The single engine operation is allowed up to 80% N1. B. The non-tested/ opposite engine must be run at 60% N2. C. If power is higher than 75% N1, the A/C must be immobilized by wheel chocks and parking brake. D. If power is higher than 75% N1, the A/C must be immobilized by wheel chocks and brake pedals. 586.Engine replacement requires: (B1) A. Both fan and T/R cowling to be removed. B. Only fan cowls to be removed. C. Only T/R cowls to be removed. D. Neither Fan nor T/R cowl needs to be removed. 587.To replace the engine you need to (B1) A. Open the thrust reverser cowls at 35 degrees position. B. Open the thrust reverser cowls at 45 degrees position. C. Remove the thrust reverser cowls 588.Fan cowls: (B1) A. Must always be held open by both struts each. B. Must be held open by both struts each when the wind is more than 65 knots. C. Should be opened by releasing 4 latches in sequence from the rear to the front. D. Should be opened by releasing 4 latches in sequence from the front to the rear. 589.Fan cowls can be opened: (B1) A. At 40 degrees position. B. At 55 degrees position. C. Either A or B. 590.The engine anti-ice air overboard discharge grill is located? (A,B1,B2) A. On the outboard side of the inlet cowl. B. On the right side fan cowl door. C. On the lower right side of the inlet cowl. D. At the bottom (5 o’clock position) of fan cowling 591.The engine oil servicing panel is located? (A,B1,B2) A. On the outboard side of the inlet cowl. B. On the left side fan cowl door. C. On the left side of the inlet cowl. D. On the left side of the reverser cowl. 592.Each reverser cowl: (A,B1,B2) A. Is hold closed by 6 single latches. B. Is held open by a single hold open rod. C. Is held open by two hold open rods. 593.When the engine is running : (A,B1,B2)

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 No personnel is allowed to get access to the engine. Access to the engine is permitted within the Entry/Exit corridor if power do not exceed min idle. C. Access to the engine is permitted within the Entry/Exit corridor at all power rating. A. B.

594.The engine run up at Min idle can be carried out with : (A,b1,B2) A. Fan cowls opened and secured. B. Both Reverser and Fan cowls opened and secured. C. Thrust Reverser cowls opened and secured. D. Non engine cowl opened. ATA 72 – ENGINE CFM 56-5b 595.Features of CFM-56-5B4 engine are: (A, B1,B2) A. Two spools, axial flow, high fan bypass ratio and mixed exhaust. B. Two spools, radial flow, high fan bypass ratio and mixed exhaust. C. Two spools, axial flow, high fan bypass ratio and separated exhaust. D. Two spools, axial flow, high fan bypass ratio and mixed exhaust. 596.Select the correct type of combustion chamber for CFM-56-5B4 engine? (A,B1,B2) A. Annular combustor. B. Tubular combustor. C. Reverse flow combustor. 597.The H.P. Compressor has how many stages? (A,B1,B2) A. Twelve. B. Ten. C. Nine 598.The HP Turbine has how many stages? (A,B1,B2) A. Only one stage. B. Four stages C. Two stages. 599.Identify the number of blades in one engine fan set? (A,B1,B2) A. Thirty six (36) B. Twenty two (22) C. Thirty two (32) 600.The engine gear boxes are driven by which shaft? (A,B1,B2) A. N1 rotor. B. N2 rotor via the transfer gear box. C. N2 rotor. 601.The Aerodynamic station 2 is at: (B1,B2) A. Fan inlet front frame at the fan blade tip area. B. Fan inlet front frame at the fan blade hub area. C. Fan outlet discharge area. 602.The Aerodynamic station 3 is: (B1,B2) A. HP compressor inlet.

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 B. HP compressor discharge. C. Combustion chamber discharge. 603.You can use the ignitor holes to do borescope inspection OF? (B1) A. Leading edge area of HPT blades. B. Trailing edge area of the first stage LPT blades. C. Leading edge area of the first stage LPT blades. 604.The hand cranking drive connects to? (A,B1,B2) A. LP rotor. B. HP rotor. C. Both LP and HP rotors. ATA 73 – ENGINE FUEL AND CONTROL. 605.Switching between the A/C 28VDC and PMA power supplies to FADEC is done: (B1,B2) A. Manually thru the FADEC GND PWR pushbutton. B. Automatically by the EIU. C. Automatically by the ECU. D. Automatically by the both ECU and EIU. 606.What is/ are the protection(s) for N2 OVERLIMIT? (B1) A. There is no protection, the Thrust lever must be moved aftward manually B. There is a mechanical protection to open the Bypass valve C. There is a mechanical protection to close the Bypass valve D. There is a mechanical protection to close FMV 607.The engine control unit is supplied by a dedicated generator on the engine: (B1,B2) A. When the start sequence is completed B. When N2 is greater than 12 % C. If the aircraft is in flight D. Only when both engines are running 608.What is the engine system signal which causes the ECU to open the fuel return valve? (B1,B2) A. IDG oil temperature B. Engine oil supply temperature C. Fuel by pass temperature D. Engine scavenge oil temperature 609.What valve ensures adequate fuel flow to nozzles? (B1) A. FMV. B. PRSOV. C. BSV. 610.What kind of shut off signal does the HMU shut off valve sends to the FRV? (B1,B2) A. Direct fuel pressure. B. Direct electrical signal.

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 C. Electrical signal send through the ECU. 611.An output fault in one channel of ECU causes: (B1,B2) A. System goes to designed failed safe position. B. Switch over to control from the other channel. C. Affected channel generate another output signal. 612.In case of ECU channel input loss, what happens? (B1,B2) A. Switch over to the other channel B. The channel in control uses values from the other channel C. The channel in control uses default values. D. Control goes to Fail-Safe position 613.What of the following is controlled by FADEC? (B1,B2) A. The throttle lever angle. B. The EIU. C. The engine thrust rating. 614.What happens in case EIU power supply is LOST? (B1,B2) A. The EIU takes power from the ECU generator. B. The EIU failed and engine restart is not possible. C. The ECU and ignition power supplies are no longer available. ATA 74 – ignition system. 615.Of which type is the ignition system? (A,B1,B2) A. Low voltage, high energy. B. High voltage, low energy. C. High voltage, high energy. 616.What provide the selection of ignition A/B? (A,B1,B2) A. The ECU. B. The engine control panel. C. The ECAM control panel. 617.The ignition is cut off (B1,B2) A. Automatically during start when N2 reaches 50%. B. Automatically during start when N1 reaches 50%. C. Automatically when engine stabilized at idle. 618.When the ignition is inhibited? (A,B1,B2) A. During automatic start when N2 is above 16%. B. During dry crank sequence. C. During wet crank sequence. D. During wet and dry crank sequences. 619.What conditions cause automatic selection of continuous relight (B1,B2) A. Engine anti-ice on, wing anti-ice on, engine flame out B. Engine anti-ice on, EIU failed, engine flame out C. Engine anti-ice on, wing anti-ice on, EIU failed D. Wing anti-ice on, EIU failed, mode selector at norm position

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 620.Each engine equipped with? (A,B1,B2) A. One ignition system with two igniters. B. Two ignition systems, each has two igniters. C. Two ignition systems with two igniters. 621.Ignition system power supply is? (A,B1,B2) A. 115 V from the aircraft. B. 115 V from engine generator. C. 28 V from the FADEC PMA. 622.What causes the automatic continuous relight of the engine? (B1,B2) A. ECU failure. B. Engine flame out. C. Ignition/Start selection. 623.The ignition systems are enable during engine manual start at? (B1,B2) A. 16% N2. B. 22% N2. C. Selection of the master lever. 624.What does Continuous Relight mean? (A,B1,B2) A. An active ignition system will work continuously. B. Both ignition systems are selected during engine start. C. Both ignition systems are demanded to work continuously. ATA -75 – AIR SYSTEM 625.The operating servo pressure in the VSV system is? (B1) A. Stage 10th air pressure. B. Fuel servo pressure. C. Aircraft hydraulic system pressure. 626.The compressor airflow system control is from? (B1) A. The Bleed Monitoring Computer (BMC). B. The Electronic Engine Control (EEC). C. The Engine Interface unit (EIU). 627.Air is supplied to the LPT Active Clearance Control system from? (B1) A. The ram air. B. The HP Compressor stage 9. C. The Fan delivery. 628.The operating force in the Active Clearance Control actuators is? (B1) A. HMU fuel delivery pressure. B. HP compressor delivery air pressure. C. EDP hydraulic delivery pressure. 629.Which air speeds and reference signal are used to control the HPT clearance? (B1) A. 4th and 9th stage compressor air controlled by HP turbine clearance control valve with reference from T case

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 B. Fan air controlled by the HP turbine clearance control valve with reference from T case C. 5th and 9th stage compressor air controlled by HP turbine clearance control valve with reference from P case D. 5th and 9th stage compressor air controlled by the low pressure turbine clearance control valve with reference from P case 630.Is the purpose of the Active Clearance Control (ACC) system? (A,B1,B2) A. To improve compressor efficiency B. To improve and maintain engine performance C. To reduce overall engine thermal growth 631.Is the L.P. compressor bleed valve (VBV)? (B1) A. Multi – ports. B. Annular. C. Two positions slider. 632.When open, where does the VBV direct airflow? (B1) A. Into the A/C bleed system. B. All valves discharge overboard directly. C. To bypass flow. 633.What is used to cool the ECU? (A,B1,B2) A. Ram air taken from dedicated air intake scoop. B. Fan air taken from dedicated air intake scoop. C. Fan air taken from nacelle cooling system. 634.What is used to cool the fan and core compartments? (A,B1,B2) A. Ram air for both compartments B. Fan air for both compartments. C. Ram air for fan compartment and Fan air for core compartment. ATA 76 – ENGINE CONTROLS. 635.Release the engine fire push button causes the closure of: (B1,B2) A. Engine fuel Low pressure valve B. Engine fuel Low pressure valve and Engine fuel high pressure valve C. Engine fuel high pressure valve D. Nothing 636.How is the HP fuel shut off valve solenoid energized to close? (B1,B2) A. Directly by engine Master switch selection B. By a signal from the ECU (engine control unit) C. Directly by a fuel pressure signal in case of start abort D. By a signal processed by the EIU and sent to the ECU 637.With the engine Master switch at Off: (B1,B2) A. The HP fuel valve and LP fuel shut off (fire) valve are closed B. The HP fuel valve is closed and the LP fuel shut off (fire) valve is open C. The HP fuel valve is open and the LP fuel shut off (fire) valve is closed D. The HP fuel valve and the LP fuel shut off (fire) valves are open

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 638.Which condition required to open the PRSOV? (B1,B2) A. Commanded fuel pressure from the FMV. B. PRSOV latching solenoid de-energized. C. Both the above conditions. 639.In which condition the ECU controls the opening of the HP fuel shut off valve. (B1,B2) A. Mode SEL in IGN/START or CRK position. B. Master lever in ON position. C. Both the above conditions. 640.How is the engine LP fuel valve controlled? (B1,B2) A. By two electrical motors. B. By a dual solenoids. C. Hydraulically by the servo fuel. 641.Which computer controls the engine thrust? (B1,B2) A. ECU in both manual and automatic thrust modes. B. FMGC in automatic thrust mode and ECU in manual mode. C. FCU in both manual and automatic thrust modes. 642.When the throttle is between two detent points, what position corresponds to the thrust limit? (B1,B2) A. The upper detent point. B. The lower detent point. C. The actual throttle lever position. 643.What does the FMGC compute? (B1,B2) A. N1 limit. B. N1 target. C. N1 command. 644.What is the normal engine throttle cruise detent point? (B1,B2) A. CL B. FLX/MCT C. TOGA ATA - 77: ENGINE INDICATION. 645.The engine primary parameters are displayed on? (A,B1,B2) A. The lower ECAM engine page. B. The upper ECAM. C. Both The lower ECAM engine page and the upper ECAM. 646.The engine page is selected? (A,B1,B2) A. Manually or automatically depend on flight phases. B. Manually only. C. Automatically only depend on flight phases. 647.The engine vibration parameter is displayed on? (A,B1,B2) A. The Upper ECAM. B. The Lower ECAM engine page.

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 C. The Lower ECAM engine page or Cruise page. 648.The engine oil quantity parameters are displayed on? (A,B1,B2) A. The Upper ECAM. B. The Lower ECAM engine page. C. The Lower ECAM engine page or Cruise page. 649.The engine oil pressure parameters are displayed on? (A,B1,B2) A. The Upper ECAM. B. The Lower ECAM engine page. C. The Lower ECAM engine page or Cruise page. 650.The IGN indication is displayed on? (B1,B2) A. The Upper ECAM during engine start. B. The Lower ECAM engine page during engine start. C. The Lower ECAM engine page or Cruise page. 651.The fuel used indication is reset to Zero : (A,B1,B2) A. Five minutes after engine shut down B. After a new take-off C. Through the MCDU D. At each engine start 652.The TRF vibration sensor is used? (B1,B2) A. In parallel with the 1st sensor. B. As standby for the 1st sensor and will automatically activated in case the 1st sensor failure. C. As standby for the 1st sensor and will not automatically activated in case the 1st sensor failure. 653.The engine thrust indicated on ECAM via what parameter? (A,B1,B2) A. N1 speed. B. N2 speed C. EGT 654.Which engine parameters are displayed on the ECAM upper display? (B1,B2) A. FF, N1 & N2. B. N1, N2, EPR, oil pressure, oil temperature. C. N1, EGT, N2. ATA 78 – ENGINE THRUST REVERSER. 655.In what position and power state is the Directional Control Valve during flight? (B1,B2) A. Stow position-solenoid energized. B. Stow position-solenoid de-energized. C. Neutral position-solenoid de-energized. D. Deploy position- solenoid de-energized. 656.What is the function of the HCU de-activation lever? (B1) A. Mechanically prevents operation of the Pressurization Valve.

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 B. Mechanically prevents movement of the Directional Control Valve. C. Inhibits operation of the hydraulic pressure switch. D. To close the hydraulic SOV. 657.Which important safety procedure should be performed before any maintenance work on or near the ‘C’ ducts or reverser system? (A,B1,B2) A. Unlock and pin the actuators. B. Lock out the translating sleeves. C. Deactivate and pin the lever on the HCU. D. Deactivate and pin the lever on the HCU and lock out translating sleeves. 658.How is the Thrust Reverser system actuated? (B1) A. Electrically. B. Pneumatically. C. Hydraulically. 659.How is the Thrust reverser controlled? (B1) A. By the ECU only. B. By the ECU and the two conditions from SEC and inhibition relay. C. Directly by the Thrust reverser lever. 660.In normal T/R operation, “door not stow” condition is indicated by? (B1,B2) A. REV in green appears inside the N2 gauge. B. REV in amber appears inside the N1 gauge. C. REV in green appears inside the N1 gauge. 661.How is Thrust Reverser fully deployed indicated? (B1,B2) A. REV in amber appears inside the N1 gauge. B. REV in green appears inside the N1 gauge. C. REV in green appears inside the N2 gauge. 662.Can the Thrust Reverser be operated if the engine is not running? (B1,B2) A. Not possible. B. Yes, use the T/R test on the MCDU. C. Yes, provided A/C is on ground and hydraulic pressure is available. 663.What the CFDIU simulate during Thrust Reverser MCDU test? (B1,B2) A. TLA signal. B. N2 signal. C. Ground condition. 664.What does the pressure detector indicate to the ECU? (B1) A. The system is pressurizing. B. The actuators are depressurized C. The actuators latches are unlocked. ATA -79 : ENGINE OIL SYSTEM 665.Oil pressure indicator becomes red when pressure is lower than: (B1,B2) A. 10 psi B. 13 psi C. 200 psi

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 D. There is no specific limit itself. 666.What happen in case the main filter on the lubrication line is clogged (B1) A. The by-pass valve opens, half of the oil flow passes through the main filter, and the other part through the back up filter B. A low oil pressure warning is triggered C. A red warning is triggered, oil temperature increases D. The engine page appears on ECAM oil passes through the by pass valve, back up filter and to the bearings 667.What is (are ) the indications in case of metallic parts in the common scavenge oil pipe? (B1) A. Only a popped clogging indication on the electrical chip detector indicator B. An ECAM warning and a popped clogging indication on the electrical chip detector indicator C. A low oil pressure indication and warning D. A high oil temperature indication and warning 668.Normal engine oil consumption is? (B1) A. 0,85 QT per hour. B. 0.25 QT per hour. C. 0.57 QT per hour. 669.Engine oil system is ventilated at? (B1) A. RH fan cowl exhaust nozzle. B. LH fan cowl exhaust nozzle. C. Engine center body exhaust. 670.The oil tank content can be checked by? (A,B1,B2) A. Opening a dedicated servicing access panel in the LH fan cowl. B. Opening an access panel on the LH “C’ duct. C. Opening the RH fan cowl 671.How is the main cooling of the oil system achieved? (A,B1,B2) A. By an air-cooled oil cooler. B. By a fuel cooled oil cooler in the HP fuel system. C. By a fuel cooled oil cooler in the LP fuel system. 672.Engine oil heat exchanger is on? (B1) A. The oil supply circuit. B. The oil scavenge circuit. C. The oil ventilation circuit. 673.Engine oil MCD is on? (A,B1,B2) A. The oil supply circuit. B. The oil scavenge circuit. C. The oil ventilation circuit. 674.Engine oil temperature indication is measured on? (A,B1,B2) A. The oil supply circuit. B. The oil scavenge circuit. C. The oil ventilation circuit.

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ATA - 80 – ENGINE STARTING. 675.Engine starter is lubricated by? (B1) A. Engine oil system. B. A separate oil circuit. C. Oil from the IDG. 676.How can you assure that the oil servicing of starter is accomplished? (A,B1,B2) A. Checking the engine oil sign glass. B. Check ECAM indication. C. Check the oil flows though the overflow port. 677.During engine start in manual mode, ignition systems A and B are shown on ECAM: (B1,B2) A. It means that either system A or B has failed B. It means that system A has failed C. It means that system B has failed D. This is normal. A and B are selected in manual start 678.If the EGT is over limit, in which case can the ECU abort start? (B1,B2) A. Automatic start. B. Manual start. C. Automatic and manual start. 679.What happen in automatic start when N2 reached 50%? (B1,B2) A. MAN start P/B ON light goes off. B. The ECU provides the ECAM message telling to close the SAV. C. SAV closes automatically. 680.When doing engine dry crank, you open the circuit breaker 1kc1(2) in order to: (B1,B2) A. Open the HP fuel valve. B. Open the LP fuel valve. C. Open both LP & HP valves D. Close the LP fuel valve. 681.If starter air valve solenoid is INOPERATIVE? (B1,B2) A. You can not start the engine. B. You can still start the engine using manual start sequence. C. You can only start engine by operating the SAV manually. 682.In AUTO mode, the ECU is able to perform several start attempts? (B1,B2) A. If IGN failed. B. If EGT over limit or stall fault occurred. C. Both the above cases. 683.What is the best wind direction for engine STARTING? (A,B1,B2) A. Side wind. B. Tail wind. C. Front wind.

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ATA 71-80: V2500 ENGINE – DIFFERENCE. 684.Features of V2530-A5 engine are: (A,B1,B2) A. Two spools, axial flow, annular combustor and mixed exhaust. B. Two spools, radial flow, annular combustor and mixed exhaust. C. Two spools, axial flow, annular combustor and separated exhaust. D. Two spools, axial flow, tubular combustor and mixed exhaust. 685.“V2530-A5” means: (A,B1,B2) A. Engine is rated at max thrust of 25300 lbs to install in the Airbus A/C. B. Engine is rated at max thrust of 30000 lbs to install in the Airbus A/C. C. Engine is rated at max thrust of 25000 lbs to install in the Airbus A/C. 686.The engine exhaust directs rearwards? (A,B1,B2) A. Fan air discharge. B. Engine core exhaust. C. Both fan air discharge and the engine core exhaust. 687.Reverser cowling: (A,B1,B2) A. Is attached to the engine core by 6 hinges each half. B. Is hold closed by 5 single latches. C. Should be opened/closed using the Auxiliary latch assembly. 688.Each half of reverser cowl c duct: (A,B1,B2) A. Is held closed by 4 latches. B. Is held open by a single hold open rod. C. Is held open by two hold open rods. 689.Fan cowls: (A,B1,B2) A. Must be held open by both struts each when the wind is more than 26 knots (30 mph). B. Should be opened by releasing 6 latches in sequence from the front to the rear. C. Must always be held open by both struts each. 690.The H.P. Compressor has how many stages? (A,B1,B2) A. Twelve. B. Ten. C. Fourteen. 691.Identify the number of blades in one engine fan set? (A,B1,B2) A. Thirty three (33) B. Twenty two (22) C. Thirty two (32) 692.What statement is NOT correct? (A,B1,B2) A. Fan stage has 22 fan blades. B. Fan stage has 24 fan blades. C. Engine is constructed by 05 modules. D. Gearboxes are driven by HP shaft. 693.The air starter valve access panel is on? (A,B1,B2)

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RH fan cowl. LH fan cowl RH reverser cowl. Out board fan cowl.

694.Aerodynamic station 2.5 means: (B1,B2) A. LPC Outlet guide vanes exit. B. Fan Outlet guide vanes exit. C. LPC inlet. D. LPT exit. 695.The compressor stage N0 12 is? (B1) A. The 12th stage of the HPC. B. The 10th stage of the HPC. C. The 7th stage of the HPC. 696.EGT thermal couples are at? (B1,B2) A. HPT area. B. First stage of LPT. C. Exhaust area. 697.P2 pressure signal: (B1,B2) A. Are supplied directly to EEC at the bottom pressure connection. B. Are supplied to EEC as digital electronic signal. C. Are supplied to EEC from ADIRS computers. 698.What information contained in the engine Data Entry Plug? (B1,B2) A. N1 Modifier; EPR Modifier; Engine S/N; Engine rating. B. EPR Modifier; Engine S/N; EEC P/N. C. EPR Modifier; Engine S/N; Engine rating; EEC P/N. D. EPR Modifier; Engine S/N; Engine rating. 699.What is the engine pressure ratio (EPR)? (B1,B2) A. The ratio of P2 – P3. B. The ratio of P3 – P2. C. The ratio of P4.9 – P2. D. The ratio of P4.9 – P3. 700.Is the L.P. compressor bleed valve (BSBV)? (B1) A. Multi – ports. B. Annular. C. Two positions slider. 701.When open, where does the bleed valve direct airflow? (B1) A. BSBV to bypass flow; stages 7 & 10 valves into the A/C bleed system. B. All valves discharge overboard directly. C. To Bypass flow all. D. BSBV to bypass flow; stages 7 & 10 valves discharge overboard directly. 702.The airflow control system is a combination of which sub-SYSTEMS? (B1) A. Stage 7 and 10 Bleed valves and aircraft service bleed. B. BSBV, HPC VSV and stage 7 & 10 Bleed valves.

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 C. HPC VSV, BSBV and stages 5 & 8 bleed valves. 703.Which bleed valve is (are) fully modulating? (B1) A. Stage 7 valves. B. Stage 2.5. C. Stage 10 valve. D. All of the above. 704.How many bleed valves are there to control the HPC air flow? (B1) A. Three 10th stage valves and one 7th stage valve. B. Three 7th stage valves and one 10th stage valve. C. One 10th stage valves and one 7th stage valve. 705.Servo pressure to operate HPC stage 7 & 10 bleed valves is from? (B1) A. P 2.5 bleed pressure. B. Servo fuel pressure from FMU. C. Air pressure from stage 10th HPC D. P3 air pressure. 706.The HPC stage 7 & 10 bleed valves is controlled? (B1) A. By EEC through respective solenoids. B. By EEC through respective torque motors. C. Pneumatically using 10th stage air pressure. 707.What is (are) the indications in case of metallic parts in the common scavenge oil pipe? (B1) A. Only a popped clogging indication on the electrical chip detector indicator. B. An ECAM warning and a popped clogging indication on the electrical chip detector indicator. C. There is no indication. 708.Engine oil flow: (B1) A. Always pass totally through the ACOC at all HMS modes. B. Either totally or Not pass through ACOC depending on HMS modes. C. Either partly or Not pass through ACOC depending on HMS modes. D. Depending on the ACOC valve position. 709.What does the ACOC valve regulate? (B1) A. The engine oil flowing through the ACOC. B. The flow of fan air crossing the ACOC. C. The flow of ram air crossing the ACOC. D. Both engine oil and flow of fan air. 710.Engine oil system is ventilated at? (B1) A. RH fan cowl breather outlet. B. LH fan cowl breather outlet. C. Engine center body exhaust. 711.Has the oil pressure filter a pop out indicator fitted? (A,B1,B2) A. Yes. B. No. C. There is no pressure filter in the system.

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712.Which filters in the oil system have associated “filter clog” messages on the ECAM? (A,B1,B2) A. Pressure Scavenge and Scavenge strainers. B. Pressure only. C. Scavenge only. 713.Which normal indications are displayed on the ECAM for the oil system? (A,B1,B2) A. Oil differential pressure, oil temperature, oil tank quantity. B. Oil temperature, oil pressure. C. Oil differential pressure, oil quantity, 714.The ECAM oil pressure indication is? (B1,B2) A. Pump delivery pressure. B. Pressure pump — scavenge pump differential pressure. C. Pressure pump delivery — No 4 bearing scavenge. 715.What is the purpose of the No 4 bearing scavenge valve? (B1) A. Scavenge No 4-bearing compartment. B. Controls the venting/scavenge flow of air/oil mixture to the de-oiler. C. Controls the ACAC (buffer) air flows for No 4 bearing compartment. 716.What does the HMS heat and cool? (A,B1,B2) A. Fuel, engine oil and IDG oil. B. Engine oil and IDG oil. C. Fuel only. D. Fuel and engine oil. 717.The HMS has how many modes? (B1) A. One B. Four C. Five 718.In which HMS mode does the ACOC valve fully close? (B1) A. Mode 1. B. Mode 3. C. Mode 5. 719.What is the failed safe position of the ACOC valve? (B1) A. Fully opened. B. Fully closed. C. Stay at the last position. 720.The EEC controls the HMS with? (B1) A. ACOC modulating valve and FD&RV and IDG FCOC. B. ACOC modulating valve; FD&RV; IDG FCOC; FCOC. C. ACOC modulating valve and FD&RV. D. ACOC modulating valve; FD&RV and FCOC. 721.The combined fuel diverter and return to tank valve (FD&RV) is located on? (B1) A. The HP fuel pump case.

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CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321 B. FCOC case. C. IDG FCOC case. D. ACOC case. 722.How the Nose Cone (Spinner) is anti-iced? (A,B1,B2) A. Electrically. B. Pneumatically. C. Neither electrically nor pneumatically. D. Not required. 723.What maintains the T/R in stow position for normal forward flight? (B1,b2) A. Hydraulic pressure to stow side of actuator piston. B. Mechanical locks on the piston of the lower actuators. C. Lockout pins inserted into the translating cowls. 724.What senses movement of the T/R translating sleeve? (B1,B2) A. The hydraulic pressure switch inside the HCU. B. The LVDT’s on the upper actuators. C. The proximity switches on the locking actuators. D. The LVDT’s on the lower actuators. 725.How is movement of the two T/R translating cowls synchronized? (B1) A. A double latch assembly between the left and right cowl. B. A flexible drive cable between the actuators. C. A combination of all “C” ducts latches and flexible drive cables. D. A combination of the double latch and flexible drive cables. 726.The lower actuators can be unlocked: (B1) A. Manually only. B. Hydraulically only. C. Manually or hydraulically. D. Manually and hydraulically. 727.In normal T/R operation, actuator unlocked condition is indicated by? (A,B1,B2) A. REV in green appears inside the EPR gauge. B. REV in amber appears inside the N1 gauge. C. REV in amber appears inside the EPR gauge. 728.The Air Cooled Air Cooler (ACAC) or Buffer cooler is located? (B1) A. On the fan case. B. On the Common Nozzle Assembly. C. On the H.P. turbine case. 729.The Overspeed valve and the PRSOV in the FMU are opened by? (B1) A. Signals from the EEC to a modulating torque motor. B. Signals from the EEC to a micro switches. C. Metered fuel pressure. 730.Fuel samples can be taken from? (A,B1,B2) A. The LP fuel filter cover. B. The LP fuel pump case. C. The HP fuel pump outlet.

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731.How the Fuel distribution valve works? (B1) A. It follows the EEC demand. B. It is electrically controlled by EEC and fuel pressure operated C. There’s no control of the valve. 732.Where is the aircraft services, engine pneumatic system check valve positioned? (B1) A. Stage 10 offtake, engine left side. B. Stage 7 offtake, engine right side. C. Stage 7 offtake, engine left side. 733.The N1 speed signal is sensed from? (B1,B2) A. Speed probes interacting with a phonic wheel in the front bearing compartment. B. A tachometer generator fitted into the accessory gearbox. C. Speed probes located in the LP Turbine. 734.The indicated N2 speed is measured from? (B1,B2) A. Speed probes and a phonic wheel. B. EEC computes value from frequency of 1 phase of the dedicated alternator (PMA) 3 phase output signal. C. A tachometer generator fitted into the accessory gearbox. 735.How many probes interact with the phonic wheel? (B1,B2) A. 4 - 3 Speed probes and a once per revolution probe. B. 3 - 2 Speed probes and 1 spare probe. C. 2 - 1 for Channel A and 1 for Channel B. 736.How many vibration sensors are installed on each engine? (B1,B2) A. Two, one in bearing N0 1 compartment, one on the Turbine Rear Frame. B. One dual sensor on the intermediate case. C. One sensor on the fan case. 737.Which engine parameters are displayed on the ECAM upper display? (A,B1,B2) A. EPR, N1 & N2. B. N1, N2, EPR, oil pressure, oil temperature. C. N1, N2, EPR & EGT. 738.Air is supplied to the HPT Active Clearance Control system from? (B1) A. The ram air. B. The HP Compressor stage 9. C. The Fan delivery. 739.When and how is the P2/T2 probe heated? (B1,B2) A. Continuously when the engine is running B. Only if selected by the pilot by 115v supply. C. Continuously at all conditions, by stage 7 air. 740.The engine igniters are on? (B1,B2) A. RH of the engine. B. LH of the engine. C. One is on the RH, one is on the LH of the engine.

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741.Where is the air taken to cool the N0 4 bearing compartment? (B1) A. 10th stage HPC. B. 12th stage HPC. C. 7th stage HPC. 742.Engine nacelle temperature sensor is? (B1,B2) A. In the pylon area. B. In the fan area. C. In the core area. 743.The EEC controls the ACC system via the torque motor located? (B1,B2) A. In side the FMU. B. On the ACC actuator. C. On the ACC valve body.

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A320 QB

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