Class Assignments Book

CLASS ASSIGNMENTS 2016

INDEX Assignments

Pages

1.

Quantitative Aptitude Assignments ……………………………………………… 1- 27

2.

Logical Reasoning Assignments…………………………………………….……… 28-47

3.

Verbal Ability Assignments……………………………………………………………48-76

4.

General Awareness Assignments………………………………………..……….77-100

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE CLASS ASSIGNMENT -1 Average, Percentage, Profit/Loss (c) 20,000

AVERAGE Complete the following exercise: Observations 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10 21, 24, 27, 30, 33, 36 10, 20, ___ , 35, 45, 65

Complete the given exercise: No. Avg. No. Avg. of weight of weight girls of girls boys of boys 10 20 kg 20 30 kg 10 30 45 kg 15 kg 25 40 kg 1.

Average

Karna drove his chariot from Kurukshetra to Indraprastha at the speed of 40 km/hr and then he traveled the same distance on his foot at 10 km/hr towards Mathura. He then returned from Mathura to Kurukshetra via Indraprastha at 24 km/hr riding on a horse. The average speed of the whole trip is: (a) 20 km/hr (b) 25 km/hr (c) 19.2 km/hr (d) 18.5 km/hr

6.

The average of nine numbers is M and the average of three of these is P. If the average of remaining numbers is N , then (a) M = N + P (b) 2M = N + P (c) 3M = 2N + P (d) 3M = 2P + N

38.75 27.5

What is the average of the following observations: 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 4, 5, 5, 5, 5, 5, 6, 6, 6, 6, 6, 6, 7, 7, 7, 7, 7, 7, 7 (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) None of these

2.

The average age of A and B is 20 years, that of B and C is 19 years and that of A and C is 21 years. What is the age (in years) of B? (a) 39 (b) 21 (c) 20 (d) 18

3.

The average weight of 8 people increases by 2.5 kg when a new person comes in place of one of them weighing 65 kg. What might be the weight of the new person? (a) 84 kg (b) 85 kg (c) 86 kg (d) 87 kg

4.

5.

40

overall average weight

The average salary of 12 employees of STAR PLUS is Rs. 18,000 and that of 15 employees of NDTV is Rs. 25,000 per month. The average monthly of all employees in rupees is: (a) 17,000 (b) 16,500

(d) None of these

PERCENTAGE Complete the given exercise: Fraction Corresponding percentage 1/2 1/4 1/_ 12.5% 33.33% 16.66% 11.11% 1.

A number is increased by 37.5% and it gives 99 as the final answer. The number is: (a) 140 (b) 61.5 (c) 72 (d) 48

2.

Two candidates fought an election. One got 65% of the votes, and won by a margin of 3,600 votes. The total number of votes polled is: (a) 12,000 (b) 10,000 (c) 2,000 (d) 8,000

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE CLASS ASSIGNMENT - 1

Page 1

3.

4.

5.

The price of an item is increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%. The final price of the item as compared to its original price is: (a) 4% more (b) 4% loss (c) No profit No loss (d) Cannot be found The average weight of a class of students is 67.5 kg. The weight of the class teacher is 25% more than the average weight of the class. The average weight of the class is less than the class teacher by x%. The value of x is: (a) 33.33% (b) 25% (c) 20% (d) Cannot be found

4.

If the cost price of 15 apples is equal to the selling price of 20 apples. What is the gain or loss percentage? _________

5.

By selling 8 bananas, a fruit seller gains the selling price of 1 banana. Calculate his gain percentage. _________ Anna sold his muffler to Arvind at a profit of 20% and Arvind sold it to Kiran at a profit to 100%. Kiran sold it to Narendra at a loss of 9.09%. Narendra then sold the same muffler to Anna at a profit of 10%. What is Anna’s overall profit/loss percentage? _________

6.

Each side of a cube is increased by 20%. The total percentage increase in the surface area of the cube is: (a) 144% (b) 40% (c) 44% (d) 72.8%

PROFIT & LOSS Complete the following exercise: CP 100 50

Profit/Loss

SP 80

+25 -70

200

100 300

1.

Profit/Loss (%)

+25% +75%

Given are some questions without any option. Solve these questions and write your answer in the space provided Find the cost price of an article which is sold for Rs. 220 at a loss of 12% _________

2.

A man sells two wrist watches. One at a profit of 10% and another at a loss of 10%, but the selling price of each watch is Rs. 200. Find the: (1) Net percentage profit or loss. _________ (2) Net amount of profit or loss. _________

3.

A man sells a book at a profit of 20%. If he had bought it at 20% less and sold it for Rs. 18 less, he would have gained 25%. The cost price of book is _________.


Page 2

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE CLASS ASSIGNMENT - 2 Ratio / Proportion, Mixtures, Partnership Complete the given table Ratio Suraj’s Salary 3:4 300 3:4 3:4 2:_ 800 600

Dheeraj’s Salary 800 2800 1200 900

Find the ratio of 90 cm to 1.5 m

2.

The ratio of A: B is 1: 3, B: C is 2: 5, C: D is 2: 3. Find the value of A: B: C: D. _________

3.

The sum of two natural numbers is 64. Which of the following cannot be the ratio of these two numbers? (a) 3 : 5 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 7 : 9 (d) 3 : 4

4.

If A, B & C have some sweets with them all together weighing 110 kg. If A gives half of his share to B then he now has twice as much as A. but if C gives half of his share to B, then B now has four times as much as that of C. What amount of sweets does B has initially? (a) 60 kg (b) 30 kg (c) 20 kg (d) None of these

_________

5.

A cat takes 5 steps for every 7 steps of a dog, but 5 steps of a dog are equal to 6 steps of a cat. What is the ratio of speed of cat to that of dog? (a) 24 : 25 (b) 42 : 25 (c) 24 : 19 (d) 25 : 42

6.

A camel pursue an elephant and takes 5 leaps for every 7 leaps of the elephant, but 5 leaps of

1800 1200

elephant are equal to 3 leaps of camel. What is the ratio of the speeds of camel and elephant? (a) 5 : 4 (b) 4 : 5 (c) 25 : 21 (d) 21 : 25

RATIO 1.

Total Salary

MIXTURES 7.

In the 75 litres of mixture of milk and water, the ratio of milk and water is 4: 1. The quantity of water required to make the ratio of milk and water 3 : 1 is : (a) 1 litre (b) 3 litres (c) 4 litres (d) 5 litres

8.

450 litres of a mixture of milk and water contains the milk and water in the ratio 9: 1. How much water must be added to make a new mixture containing milk and water in the ratio 3: 1? (a) 54 litres (b) 90 litres (c) 45 litres (d) 63 litres

9.

The ratio of petrol and kerosene in a container is 3: 2. When 10 liters of mixture is taken out, and replaced by the kerosene, the ratio becomes 2: 3. The total quantity of the mixture in the container is: (a) 25 litres (b) 30 litres (c) 45 litres (d) Cannot be found


Page 3

PARTNERSHIP 10. A company makes a profit of Rs. 9,00,000. Twenty percent of which is paid as taxes. If the rest is divided among the partners, P, Q & R in the ratio 3

of 1 ∶ ∶ 2, then the shares of P, Q & R are 2

respectably: (a) Rs. 2,40,000, Rs. 3,20,000, Rs. 1,60,000 (b) Rs. 3,20,000, Rs. 2,40,000, Rs. 1,60,000 (c) Rs. 1,60,000, Rs. 3,20,000, Rs. 2,40,000 (d) Rs. 1,60,000, Rs. 2,40,000, Rs. 3,20,000 11. We have to divide a sum of Rs 13,950 among three persons A, B and C. B must get the double of A’s share and C must get Rs 50 less than the double of B’s shares. The share of A will be: (a) Rs 1,950 (b) Rs. 1,981.25 (c) Rs. 2,000 (d) Rs. 2007.75 12. A and B are partners in a business. They invest in the ratio 5 : 6, at the end of 8 months A withdraws. If they receive profits in the ratio of 5:9, find how long B’s investment was used? (a) 12 months (b) 10 months (c) 15 months (d) 14 months


Page 4

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE CLASS ASSIGNMENT - 3 Speed, Distance, Time, Work, Pipes

SPEED, DISTANCE, TIME Convert the given units. ___ m = 5 km ___ m = 2.5 km 1400 m = ____ km 8000 m = ____ km

150 m = ____ cm 189 m = ____ cm ____ Km = 400 cm ____ Km = 2400 cm

Complete the given table Sl. Distance Time No 1 100 km 20 hr 2 ____ km 2 hr 3 20 km _____ min 4 100 m 20 hr 5 ___ m 240 sec 6 20 m _____ hr

1 hr 0.5 hr 2.5 hr 4 hr

= _____ mins = _____ mins = _____ mins = _____ mins

60 min = _____ hr 480 min = _____ hr

Convert the given speeds Speed

Km/hr 32

___ km/hr 30 km/hr 4 km/hr ___ m/sec 30 km/min 4 km/hr

m/sec 15

60 100 2.5

Revise Your Basics 1.

A car travels 15 meters in 2 seconds. Find its speed in m/s.

4.

The rocket used to launch Mangalyaan covers 200 km in 6 minutes. Find its speed in km/hr.

2.

Usain Bolt runs 100 metres in 9 seconds. Find his speed in km/hr.

5.

A skateboarder rolls at 8 m/s. how long would it take him to roll 60 m at this speed?

3.

Boing 747 travels 15 kms in 3 minutes. Find its speed in m/s.

SPEED, DISTANCE, TIME 1.

A bus travels at an average speed of 100 km/hr, stopping for 3 minutes after every 75 km. How long did it take to reach its destination 600 km from the starting point? (a) 6 hr 24 min (b) 6 hr 21 min (c) 6 hr 18 min (d) 6 hr 15 min

2.

A car goes from a Delhi to Panipat at a speed of 32 km/hour but returns to Delhi at a slower speed. If its average speed for the trip is 28 km/hour, find the return speed of the train. (a) 48 km/hour (b) 25 km/hour (c) 52 km/hour (d) 47.4 km/hour


Page 5

3.

A train crosses a pole in 10 seconds. If the speed of the train is 10 m/s, then what is the length of the train? (a) 1 m (b) 10 m (c) 100 m (d) Cannot be found

6.

The speed of a boat is 10 kmph and that of a stream is 5 kmph. What will be the time taken by the boat to travel (a) Upstream 10 km in the stream? (b) Downstream 10 km in the stream?

4.

A train, 800 meter long is running with a speed of 78 km/hr. It crosses a tunnel in 1 minute. What is the length of the tunnel? (a) 650 meter (b) 555 meter (c) 500 meter (d) 458 meter

7.

By increasing its speed by 1km per hour, a person was able to reach his office early by 1 hour. If the distance between his office and his house is 20 km, then what was his original speed was? (a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr (c) 5 km/hr (d) 6 km/hr

5.

How many seconds will a 500 meter long train take to cross a man walking with a speed of 3 km/hr in the direction of the moving train if the speed of the train is 63 km/hr (a) 25 seconds (b) 28 Seconds (c) 30 seconds (d) 35 Seconds

PIPES & CISTERNS Complete the Given Table Sl. No

Capacity of Tank

Time taken to fill up tank

1

120 L

1 hr

2

240 L

2 hr

3

360 L

4

Fraction of Tank Filled in one minute

300 ml 3 min

1.

A pipe is known to fill up a tank in 1 hour. What portion of the tank is filled up by the pipe in 1 minute?

2.

In continuation to the previous question, if it is known that another pipe fills up the same tank in 30 minutes, then what portion of the tank is filled up by the pipe in 1 minute?

3.

Capacity of tank filled in 1 min

Two pipes ‘A’ and ‘B’ can fill a tank in 6 hours and 4 hours respectively. If they are opened on alternate hours and if pipe ‘A’ is opened first, in how many hours, the tank will be full?

400 ml 4.

In a house, the water supply provided by MCD guarantees to fill up a standard water tank in 3 hours. And a tap in the kitchen is known to drain the water tank in 5 hours. If the tank is initially empty and both of them are opened simultaneously, then in how much time will the tank be full?

5.

Two taps can fill a tub at 10 L/min. and 15 L/min. respectively. A pipe can empty it in at the rate of 8L/min. If all the three are kept open The tank gets filled in 24 hours. What is the capacity of the tank?


Page 6

WORK 1.

2.

3.

‘A’ can do a piece of work in 8 days, ‘B’ can do a piece of work in 12 days. How many days will they take to complete the piece of work working together? ‘A’ and ‘B’ can together complete a piece of work in 4 days. If ‘A’ alone can complete the same work in 12 days, in how many days can ‘B’ alone complete that work? (a) 4 days (b) 5 days (c) 6 days (d) 7 days ‘A’ is twice as good as workman as ‘B’ and together they finish a piece of work in 18 days. In how many days will ‘B’ alone finish the work? (a) 27 days (b) 54 days

(c) 56 days

(d) 68 days

4. 20 workers can finish a piece of work in 30 days. After how many days should 5 workers leave the job so that the work is completed in 35 days? (a) 5 days (b) 10 days (c) 15 days (d) 20 days 5. Tom can copy 50 pages in 10 hours: tom and brad together can copy 300 pages in 40 hours. In how much time can brad copy 30 pages? (a) 27 days (b) 54 days (c) 56 days (d) 68 days


Page 7

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE CLASS ASSIGNMENT – 4 Speed, Distance, Time, Work, Pipes

SPEED, DISTANCE, TIME 1.

2.

Two trains of equal length are running on parallel lines in the same direction at 46 km/hr and 36 km/hr. The faster train passes the slower train in 36 seconds. The length of each train is: (a) 40 meter (b) 45 meter (c) 50 meter (d) 55 meter A 270 metres long train running at the speed of 120 kmph crosses another train running in opposite direction at the speed of 80 kmph in 9 seconds. What is the length of the other train? (a) 220 meter (b) 225 meter (c) 230 meter (d) 235 meter

3.

Two cyclists start on a circular track from a given point but in opposite directions with speeds of 7 m/s and 8 m/s respectively. If the circumference of the circle is 300m, after what time will they meet at the starting point? (a) 20 𝑠 (b) 100 𝑠 (c) 300 𝑠 (d) 200 𝑠

4.

If Rahul rows 15 km upstream in 3 hours and 21 km downstream in 3 hours, then the speed of the stream is (a) 5 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr (c) 2 km/hr (d) 1 km/hr

5.

A man can row at 5 kmph in still water. If the velocity of the current is 1 kmph and it takes him 1 hour to row to a place and come back. How far is that place. (a) 0.4 km (b) 1.4 km

(c) 2.4 km

(d) 3.4 km

6.

Buses start from a bus terminal with a speed of 20 km/hr at intervals of 10 mins. What is the speed of a man coming from the opposite direction towards the bus terminal if he meets the buses at intervals of 8 mins? (a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr (c) 5 km/hr (d) 7 km/hr

7.

In a race of 600 meters, Ajay beats Vijay by 60 meters and in a race of 500 meters Vijay beats Anjay by 25 meters. By how many meters will Ajay beat Anjay in a 400 meter race? (a) 48 m (b) 52 m (c) 56 m (d) 58 m


Page 8

WORK, PIPES & CISTERNS 1.

Ram can do a piece of work in 8 days which Shyam can finish in 12 days. If they work at it on alternate days with Ram beginning, in how many days, the work will be finished? (a) 9 and 1/3 (b) 9 and 1/24 (c) 9and 1/2 (d) 10 and 1/3

2.

A is twice as good a workman as B and ‘together they complete a work in 15 days. In how many days can the work be completed by B alone. (a) 22 (c) 30

3.

4.

1

(b) 37

2

`

7.

Two candles of the same height are lighted at the same time. The first is consumed in 4 hr and the second in 3 hr. Assuming that each candle burns at a constant rate, in how many hrs after being lighted was the first candle twice the height of the second? (a) 0.45 hr (b) 1.5 hr (c) 2.6 hr (d) 2.4 hr

8.

40 men build a wall 4 meters high in 15 days. The number of men required to build a similar wall of 5 meters height in 6 days would be: (a) 115 (b) 105 (c) 135 (d) 125 (e) None of these

9.

If 12 men or 6 women can bake 48 cakes in one day, then how many cakes can 8 men and 8 women bake in one day?

1 2

(d) 45

4 men and 6 women finish a job in 8 days, while 3 men and 7 women finish it in 10 days. In how many days will 10 women working together finish it? (a) 30 days (b) 40 days (c) 50 days (d) 60 days 5 men and 2 boys working together can do four times as much work as a man and a boy. Working capacity of man and boy is in the ratio (a) 1:2 (b) 1:3 (c) 2:1 (d)2:3

5.

Sakshi can do a piece of work in 20 days. Tanya is 25% more efficient than Sakshi. The number of days taken by Tanya to do the same piece of work is: (a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 18 (d) 25

6.

Twenty women can do a work in sixteen days. Sixteen men can complete the same work in fifteen days. What is the ratio between the capacity of a man and a woman? (a) 3 : 4 (b) 4 : 3 (c) 5 : 3 (d) Data inadequate

10. X is 60% less efficient than Y. If X does the job in 30 days, Y would take how many days to finish the job? (a) 12 days (b) 18 days (c) 75 days

3

(d) 18 days 4

(e) None of these


Page 9

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE CLASS ASSIGNMENT - 5 Number Systems 1.

Which of the following is not correct : (a) 2 is a prime number (True / False) (b) -2 is a prime number 1

2.

(True / False)

(d) -12 is a composite number

(True / False)

If x is an odd integer, all of the following are odd except: (a) x – 2 (b) 6x + x 2 (c) x + 2x (d) x2 + x

3.

What number(s) can be put in place of ‘c’ in the number ‘38c’ to make it divisible by : (i) 2 (ii) 3 (iii) 4 (iv) 5 (v) 6 (vi) 8 (vii) 9 (viii) 10 (ix) 11

4.

If n is a positive integer, which one of the following numbers must have a remainder of 3 when divided by any of the numbers 4, 5, and 6? (a) 12n + 3 (b) 24n + 3 (c) 90n + 2 (d) 120n + 3

5.

6.

The largest possible length of measuring tape which can measure 525cm, 1050cm and 1155cm length of cloth in a minimum number of attempts (measuring it in cms only) is: (a) 25 (b) 10 (c) 75 (d) None of these

8.

Find the largest no. which divides 5, 7, 9, 12 & 15 and leaves a remainder 1 in each case:

9.

In a bangle shop, if the shopkeeper displays the bangles in the form of a square then he is left with 38 bangles with him. If he wanted to increase the size of the square by one unit on each side, then he notices that he is short of 25 bangles. The actual number of bangles that he has with him is: (a) 1690 (b) 999 (c) 538 (d) CBD

(True / False)

(c) is an even number 2

7.

A hundred and twenty digit number is formed by writing the first x natural numbers in front of each other as 12345678910111213.. Find the remainder when this number is divided by 8. (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 2 (d) 0 On a road three traffic lights change after 48, 72, 108 seconds. If all the three lights changes simultaneously on 8:20:00 pm, then at which of the following time the lights will again change simultaneously? (a) 8 : 27 : 12 (b) 8 : 25 : 14 (c) 8 : 30 : 00 (d) 8 : 29 : 30

10. What will be the remainder of 11. What will be the remainder of

(16)5 2

?

(9)5 2

?

12. What will be the remainder when 1623 is divided by 5? 13. If it is known that: 7! = 7X6X5X4X3X2X1 5! = 5X4X3X2X1 and so on. What is the value at the unit place of: 1! + 2! + 3! + 4! + 5! + … + 10! 14. What is the remainder when 1! + 2! + 3! + 4! + 5! + … + 15! is divided by 5? 15. What is the digit at the unit’s place of: (a) 623 (b) 156


Page 10

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE CLASS ASSIGNMENT - 6 Equations and Logarithm

Equations Identify the given equations Equation

Degree

Type of Equation (Put a check in the correct box) Linear Quadratic Cubic

Number of Variables

Value of Variables (If possible)

3𝑥 + 4 = 0 3𝑥 + 4𝑦 = 2 𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 + 1 = 0 𝑥 3 + 3𝑥 2 + −1 = 0 𝑥2 + 𝑦3 + 𝑥2𝑦2 = 9 Complete the following table: Equations

2𝑥 3𝑥

2𝑥 6𝑥

6𝑥 12𝑥

1.

+ 𝑦 + 7𝑦

+ 𝑦 + 3𝑦

+ 3𝑦 + 6𝑦

= 9 = 15

= 9 = 15

= 15 = 30

Value of Constants 𝑎1 = 𝑐1 =

Unique Solutions

=

Intersecting [ ] Parallel [ ] Coincident [ ]

Unique [ ] No solution [ ] Infinite [ ]

=



=



𝑏1 = 𝑎1

𝑎2 = 𝑐2 =

𝑏2 =

𝑎1 = 𝑐1 =

𝑏1 =

𝑎2

𝑎1

𝑎2 = 𝑐2 =

𝑏2 =

𝑎1 = 𝑐1 =

𝑏1 =

𝑎2 = 𝑐2 =

Type of Lines

Ratio of Constants

𝑎2

𝑎1

𝑏2 =

𝑎2

Solve the following questions: In an entrance test comprising of 100 questions, a student scores 6 marks for every correct answer and loses 2 marks for every wrong answer. If a student attempted 90 questions and scores 356 marks, then the number of questions answered correctly are:

=

𝑏1

=

𝑏1

=

𝑏1

𝑏2

𝑏2

𝑏2

2.

=

=

=

𝑐1 𝑐2

𝑐1 𝑐2

𝑐1 𝑐2

(a) 67 (b) 68 (c) 70 (d) 71 The number of values of 𝑘 for which the system of equations: (𝑘 + 1)𝑥 + 8𝑦 = 4𝑘 𝑘𝑥 + (𝑘 + 3)𝑦 = 3𝑘 − 1 has infinitely many solutions, is:


Page 11

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) Infinite Solving Quadratic Equations and Relation between roots of quadratic equation: Equations Root 1 Root 2 Sum of roots 𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 + 2 = 0 𝑥 2 + 4𝑥 + 4 = 0 1 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑥 − __ = 0 2 1.

2.

Kunal told Kanika that he has either 𝑎 or 𝑏 marbles. Further he stated that 𝑎, 𝑏 satisfy the equation 𝑥 2 − 𝑝(𝑥 + 1) + 𝑐 = 0, then (𝑎 + 1)(𝑏 + 1) = (a) 1 − 𝑐 (b) 𝑐 − 1 (c) 1 + 𝑐 (d) 𝑐

Product of roots

3.

The positive value of ‘m’ for which the roots of equation 𝑥 2 + 4(𝑚 − 2)𝑥 + 27 = 0 are in ratio 1:3, is: (a) 7 (b) 5 (c) 3 (d) 1

4.

If 𝛼, 𝛽 are the roots of the equation 3𝑥 2 + 4𝑥 + 1

1

𝛼 4

𝛽

7 = 0, then the value of + is

If one root of the equation ax 2 + bx + c = 0, a ≠ 0, be reciprocal of the other, then: (a) b = c (b) a = c (c) a = 0 (b) b = 0

(a) − (c) −

3 7 4 3

(b) − (d) −

7 7 4

Logarithm Fill in the blank Spaces 23 = _____

33 = _____

54 = _____

2(___ ) = 8

3(___ ) = 27

5(___ ) = 625

log 2 8 =

log 3 27 =

log 5 625 =

Using the given properties of log, solve the following: 1. log 4 434 = 4. log 8 16 = 2. log10 6 = 5. log 2 6 = 3. log10 0.01 = 6. log 𝑘 1 =

1.

Solve the following: log10 10000 = log 8 512 = log 3 9 =

2.

If log b (5) = c, then b4c will be: (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 25 (d) 625

3.

The number of real solutions of the equation log (−𝑥) = 2 log (𝑥 + 1) 𝑖𝑠 (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

4.

If log 2 log 4 (√𝑥 + 4 + √𝑥) = 0, then what is the value of? (a) 1/4 (b) 3/4 (c) 9/4 (d) Cannot be solved

Properties of log

(a) log ab = b × log(a) (b) log(ab) = log(a) + log(b) a

(c) log ( ) = log(a) − log(b) b

(d) log c a =

logk a logk c

Important log values: log10 2 = 0.3010

log10 3 = 0.4771

Solve the following questions: If log 4 64 + log 3 9 = log10 𝑥 , then 𝑥 is equal to (a) 105 (b) 107 12 (c) 10 (d) 1015


Page 12

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE CLASS ASSIGNMENT - 7 Permutation & Combination , Probability

1.

How many numbers of following digits can be formed by using 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (with repetition)? (a) 5 digit (b) 4 digit (c) 3 digit

2.

How many six digit numbers can be formed with 0, 1,2,3,4 and 5? (Without repetitions) Now play with restrictions: How many of these numbers are… i. Even numbers ii. Between 2000 and 4000 iii. Divisible by 5

3.

4.

Find the number of ways in which 6 boys & 6 girls be seated in a row so that: I. All the boys sit together II. All the girls are always together III. All the girls are never together IV. Boys & girls sit alternatively V. No two girls may sit together

V.

If Sachin is selected to play, Kambli must be selected. VI. If Sachin is selected, Kambli must be selected and vice versa. VII. If Sachin is selected to play, then Kambli must not be in the team. VIII. In these questions how do you find the batting orders 6.

There are 3 players of each state, Haryana Delhi & Mumbai respectively. In how many ways 3 people can be awarded such that at least 1 person from each state is awarded.

7.

If P(n, r) = 720 and C(n, r) = 120, find r?

8.

(i) If a dice is rolled. Then answer the following: (a) Probability of getting an even number? (b) Probability of getting number greater than 2 and less than 5? (ii) If two dices are rolled simultaneously, Find probability of : (a) Getting sum greater than 6. (b) Less than or equal to 6.

9.

Find: i. Probability of getting the card with 9 written on it from a pack of 52 cards? ii. Probability of getting a jack of spade or queen of hearts from a pack of 52 cards?

Find 𝒓 if 𝑷(𝟏𝟎, 𝒓 + 𝟏): 𝑷(𝟏𝟏, 𝒓) = 𝟑𝟎 ∶ 𝟏𝟏. Concept Puzzle: In how many ways can 9 identical balls be arranged?

5. I. II. III.

IV.

In how many ways can a team of 11 cricketers be selected from 15 players? Total number of ways (unrestricted) In the team a player named ‘Sachin’ must always be there If out of 15 players, 7 are batsmen, 6 are bowlers and 2 are wicketkeepers. In how many ways the team can be formed comprising of 5 batsmen, 5 bowlers and 1 wicketkeeper? If out of 15 players, 7 are batsmen, 6 are bowlers and 2 are wicketkeepers. In how many ways the team can be formed comprising of at least 3 batsmen, at least 3 bowlers and 1 wicketkeeper?

10. If we have to pick 3 balls out of a box containing 3 yellow and 4 black balls then find probability that we will get all the balls of same colour. 11. A dice is thrown twice. What is the probability that at least one of the two throws comes up with the number ‘4’?


Page 13

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE CLASS ASSIGNMENT - 8 Probability 1. An urn contains three white and two blackballs. Balls are drawn one by one with replacement. What is the probability that a black ball appears at the fourth draw? 2 24 (a) (b) 5 625 (c)

54

(d)

625

81

7. The probability of A and B occurring together is 0.45. The probability of A occurring is 0.6, the n the probability that B will occur, given that A has already occurred is (a) 0.75 (b) 0.27 (c) 0.5 (d) cannot be found.

625

2. If A and B are two arbitrary events and we denote by 𝑆1=[𝐴]+𝑃[𝐵], 𝑆2=[𝐴∩𝐵], then the probability that exactly one of the events will occur is (a) 𝑆1−𝑆2 (b) 𝑆1−2𝑆2 (c) 𝑆1+𝑆2 (d) 𝑆1

8. An urn has four coins. Three coins are fair and one coin is biased. The probability of head for the 3 biased coin is . A coin is drawn at random from 4 the urn and tossed.What is the probability that a head is observed? 9 7 (a) (b) (c)

3. Two coins with probability of heads p and q, respectively are tossed independently. If P (both coins show up tails) = P (both coins show up heads), then p +q equals 1 1 (a) (b) (c)

4 3

16 7

32

(d)

16 3

16

2

(d) 1

4

4. Let A and B be two events such that P (B)>0 and P (A/B) > P (𝐴𝑐 /B), then 1 1 (a) P (A/B) > (b) P (A/B) = (c) P (A/B) <

2 1 2

(d) P (A/B) =

2 1 3

5. The minimum number of tosses of an unbiased coin, necessary to ensure a probability of getting at least one head, greater than 0.5 is (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 6. Event S and T are independent with P(S)

1 5 3 5

25

(b) (d)

2 5 1 25


Page 14

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE CLASS ASSIGNMENT - 9 Sequences and Series, Complex Numbers and Advance Number Systems

Sequences and Series Concept Puzzle: Is number series 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 ….. an arithmetic progression? Why or Why not? 1.

IMPORTANT QUESTION:

Given a series as 𝒂𝒏 = 𝒂𝒏−𝟏 + 𝒂𝒏−𝟐 ,and 𝒂𝟎 and 𝒂𝟏 are 𝟏 and 𝟏, then find 𝒂𝟓 Find the sum to 𝒏 terms of the series 𝟑 + 𝟏𝟓 + 𝟑𝟓 + 𝟔𝟑 + ⋯

9.

st

If on 1 January, 20115 you got Rs. 1 , Rs. 2 on the second day, Rs. 3 on the third day and so on, what will be the amount that you have on 31st December 2015?

10. Find the sum of the series: 𝐥𝐨𝐠 𝟏𝟎 + 𝐥𝐨𝐠 𝟏𝟎𝟎 + 𝐥𝐨𝐠 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎 + … + 𝐥𝐨𝐠𝟏𝟎𝐧

2.

If the pth term of an A.P. is ‘q’ and the q th term is ‘p’, then the rth term is

11. Insert three geometric means between 2 and 32

3.

Find four numbers in A.P. whose sum is 20 and the sum of whose squares is 120.

4.

th

th

12. What is the sum of series 𝟏

√𝟐+√𝟓

th

If the p , q and r terms of an A.P. are a, b, c respectively, find the value of a (qr) + b(r-p) + c (p-q)

Find the value of:

𝐥𝐨𝐠 (𝐭𝐚𝐧 𝟒𝟎𝟎 ) − 𝐥𝐨𝐠 (𝐭𝐚𝐧𝟒𝟏𝟎 ) − … … − 𝐥𝐨𝐠 (𝐭𝐚𝐧 𝟓𝟎𝟎 ) 5.

The first term of a G.P. is 1. The sum of the third and fifth terms is 90. Find the common ratio of the G.P.

6.

Sum the series to infinity

8.

For all 3 digit numbers that leave a remainder of ‘2’ when divided by 3 (a) Find the number of terms, (b) Find the sum of number of terms. The sum of first three terms of a G.P. is 16 and the sum of the next three terms is 128. Find the sum of 𝒏 terms of the G.P.

𝟏

√𝟓+√𝟖

up to 𝑛 terms

+

𝟏

√𝟖+√𝟏𝟏

+⋯

13. Find the value of 𝟑 𝟐 ∑𝟏𝟎 𝒙=𝟏 𝟐𝒙 + 𝟑𝒙 − 𝟐𝒙 − 𝟓 14. Which of the following is Harmonic Progression? (a) 2,3,4,5 1 1 1 1 (b) . , , … 2 4 6 8 (c) 2, 4, 5, 8 (d) 2, 4, 8, 16, 32

Complex Numbers

3 5 3 5 3 5 - 2 + 3 - 4 + 5 - 6 +… 4 4 4 4 4 4 7.

+

IMPORTANT CONCEPTS What is the cube root of 1? What is 𝒊𝟕𝟓 ?

  1.

Find the least positive value of 𝒏, if (

2.

𝟏+ 𝒊 𝒏 𝟏− 𝒊

) =1

Find real values of x and y for which the following equalities hold. (𝟏 + 𝒊)𝒚𝟐 + (𝟔 + 𝒊) = (𝟐 + 𝒊)𝒙

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE CLASS ASSIGNMENT 9

Page 15

(a) 5, 7 or − 6, −7 (b) 8, 9 or − 9, 8 (c) 5, 2 or 5, −2 (d) 7, 10 or – 7, 10 1.

Convert 𝟏 + 𝒊 into polar form.

2.

If 𝝎𝟐 + 𝝎 + 𝟏 = 𝟎, then find the value [𝝎 +

𝟏 𝟐 𝟏 𝟐 𝟏 𝟐 ] + [𝝎𝟐 + 𝟐 ] + ⋯ + [𝝎𝟐𝟕 + 𝟐𝟕 ] 𝝎 𝝎 𝝎

Advance Number System 𝟑𝟐𝟕

1.

Find the remainder of

2.

Find the remainder of

3.

What is the remainder of

4.

What is the reminder of : 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎

∑ 𝒏=𝟏

5.

𝟐 𝟕𝟒𝟎 𝟒 𝟏𝟎𝟎! 𝟐𝟓

?

𝒏! 𝟒

How many zeros are there at the end of 100!


Page 16

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE CLASS ASSIGNMENT - 10 Sets, Relations & Functions (Part – I) 1.

Which of the following is correct? (a) {𝑎} ⊂ {{𝑎}, 𝑏} (b) {𝑏, 𝑐} ⊂ {𝑎, {𝑏, 𝑐}} (c) {𝑎, 𝑏} ⊂ {𝑎, {𝑏, 𝑐}} (d) None of these

2.

Which of the following collection is a set? (a) The collection of all girls in your class (b) The collection of intelligent girls in your class (c) The collection of beautiful girls in your class (d) The collection of tall girls in your class

3.

The set of all subsets of a set A is called the power set of A and is denoted by 𝐏(𝐀). If 𝑨 = {𝟏, 𝟐, 𝟑}, then (𝐀) ?

4.

20 teachers of a school either teach Mathematics or Physics. 12 of them teach Mathematics while 4 teach both the subjects. Find the number of teachers teaching Physics only.

5. Which of the following is the empty set? (a) {𝑥 ∶ 𝑥 𝑖𝑠 𝑎 𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑙 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥 2 − 1 = 0} (b) {𝑥 ∶ 𝑥 𝑖𝑠 𝑎 𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑙 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥 2 + 1 = 0} (c) {𝑥 ∶ 𝑥 𝑖𝑠 𝑎 𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑙 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥 2 − 9 = 0} (d) {𝑥 ∶ 𝑥 𝑖𝑠 𝑎 𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑙 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥 2 = 𝑥 + 2} 6.

Given a relation A from 𝒁 → 𝒁 𝐀 = {(𝐱, 𝐲) ∶ 𝐱 = 𝐲 + 𝟏 , 𝟐 ≤ 𝐱 ≤ 𝟓} What is the domain, codomain and range of A?

7.

Let 𝐀 = {𝟏, 𝟐, 𝟑}, then the relation 𝐑 = {(𝟏, 𝟏), (𝟐, 𝟐), (𝟏, 𝟑)} on A is: (a) Reflexive (b) Transitive (c) Symmetric (d) None of these.

8.

Identify the correct match for a function 𝒇: 𝒙 → 𝒚 : Type of Definition functions 1. Injective (a) Every element of 𝑦 is the image of some element of 𝑥 under𝑓. (b) Every element of x 2. Many-one should have a distinct image in 𝑦 and should cover every element of 3. Surjective 𝑦. (c) Different element of 𝑥 have different images in 𝑦 under f. 4. Bijective (d) If two or more elements of set 𝑥 have the same image in 𝑦.

9.

If a set A contains 4 elements and a set B contains 8 elements, the maximum number of elements in 𝐀 ∪ 𝐁 is (a) 4 (b) 12 (c) 8 (d) None of these

10. Let 𝐑 = { (𝟑, 𝟑)(𝟔, 𝟔), (𝟗, 𝟗)(𝟏𝟐, 𝟏𝟐), (𝟔, 𝟏𝟐), (𝟑, 𝟗) (𝟑, 𝟏𝟐), (𝟑, 𝟔) } be a relation on the set 𝐀 = { 𝟑, 𝟔, 𝟗, 𝟏𝟐 }. The relation is (a) Reflexive and transitive (b) Reflexive only (c) An equivalence relation (d) Reflexive and symmetric only


Page 17

11. What is a function? 12. What is Domain and codomain for a function? 13. Is the given graph a continuous function?

14. Identify the domain and codomain of the given graph:

IMPORTANT CONCEPTS:  What is the difference between codomain and range?  What are one-one, onto and into functions?  What are the other names of one-one, onto and into functions? 15. What is the range and codomain of the function 𝒇(𝒙) = √𝒙. 16. Draw the given functions: |𝒙| 𝒙𝟐

𝐥𝐨𝐠 𝒙


Page 18

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE CLASS ASSIGNMENT – 11 Sets, Relations & Function (Part – II) , Height and Distances 1.

Is |𝑥| continuous, at 𝒙 ≠ 𝟎?

2.

Given: 𝒇(𝒙) = 𝒙 + 𝟐, 𝒈(𝒙) = 𝒙𝟐 + 𝟑 Find 𝒇𝒐𝒈 and 𝒈𝒐𝒇. Also find 𝒇−𝟏 (𝒙) and 𝒈−𝟏 (𝒙).

3.

Given:

|𝑥|

𝑓(𝑥) = {

𝑥

(d) 6

,𝑥 ≠ 0

The domain of the function 𝒇(𝒙) = √𝟒𝒙 − 𝟑 + √𝟐𝒙 − 𝟔

6.

Which of the following pair of functions is identical? (a) 𝑓(𝑥) = √𝑥, 𝑔(𝑥) = (√𝑥) (b) 𝑓(𝑥) =

1 √𝑥 2

, 𝑔(𝑥) =

11. Rohan found that for a function 𝒇, 𝒇(𝒙) = 𝟑𝒙 − 𝟓 and 𝒇(𝒈(𝒙)) = 𝟐𝒙, then the function 𝑔(𝑥) = (a) 2𝑥

𝑥 𝑥2

(c)

is: (a) (b) (c) (d)

𝟏 𝟗𝟗𝟗

)+ 𝒇(

𝟐 𝟗𝟗𝟗

)+ 𝒇(

𝟑 𝟗𝟗𝟗

) + ⋯+ 𝒇(

𝒙+𝟏 𝒙−𝟏

𝟗𝟗𝟖 𝟗𝟗𝟗

(d) 2

3

𝐴 = {(𝑥, 𝑦)|𝑦 = , x ≠ 0, x ∈ ℝ} and 𝑥 𝐵 = {(𝑥, 𝑦)|𝑦 = −𝑥, 𝑥 ∈ ℝ}, then (a) A ∩ B = A (b) A ∩ B = B (c) A ∩ B = ϕ (d) None of these

)

Height and Distances 1.

, 𝒙 ≠ 𝟏, find the value of

𝒇(𝒇(𝒇(𝒇(𝒇(𝟐))))) (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4

(b) 𝑥 + 3

1

998 1 499 None of these

If 𝒇(𝒙) =

2𝑥+5

12. If two sets A and B are defined as

If 𝒇(𝒙) = 𝟏 − 𝒇(𝟏 − 𝒙), then the value of 𝒇(

8.

10. In a class test consisting of Maths and Physics, 80% passed in Maths and 50% passed in Physics 15% failed in both subjects. If 180 students passed in both the subjects how many students failed in both the subjects? (a) 80 (b) 60 (c) 90 (d) 50

2

(c) 𝑓(𝑥) = log(𝑥 − 1) + log(𝑥 − 2), 𝑔(𝑥) = log(𝑥 − 1)(𝑥 − 2) (d) None of these 7.

Let 𝑨 = {𝝓, $}, 𝑩 = {𝒂, 𝒃, 𝒍, 𝒂} then the number of distinct relations from A to B is (a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 2 (d) 6

0 ,𝑥 = 0

The point of discontinuity for the above given function is: ______________ 4. The domain of the function 𝒇(𝒙) = √𝒙 5.

9.

A radio transmitter antenna of height 100 m stands at the top of a tall building. At a point on the ground, the angle of elevation of bottom of the antenna is 45° and that of top of antenna is 60°. What is the height of the building? (a) 100 m (b) 50 m


Page 19

(c) 50(√3+1) m

(d) 50(√3-1) m

2.

The angle of elevation of the top of an unfinished pillar at a point 150 m from its base is 30°. If the angle of elevation at the same point is to be 45°, then the pillar has to be raised to a height of how many meters? (a) 59.4 m (b) 61.4 m (c) 62.4 m (d) 63.4 m

3.

A ladder 25 m long is leaning against a wall which is perpendicular to the level ground. The bottom of the ladder is 7 m from the base of the wall. If the top of the ladder slips down 4 m, how much will the bottom of the ladder slip? (a) 7 m (b) 8 m (c) 10 m (d) 15 m

4.

The shadow of a pole 6 metre high is 15 metre long and at the same time the shadow of a tree is 25 metre long. What is the height of the tree? (a) 21 m (b) 10 m (c) 35 m (d) None of the above


Page 20

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE CLASS ASSIGNMENT – 12 Limits, Continuity and Differentiation CONCEPT: What do you understand by the concept of limits? 1.

Find lim(𝑥 2 + 4)2

2.

Find lim

3.

lim

3𝑥 −2𝑥

x→0 4 𝑥 −9𝑥 1

8.

is :

2

(c) 1

(b) −

𝟏 𝐥𝐨𝐠|𝒙|

(a) (b) (c) (d)

𝑥−3

𝑥→3 𝑥 2 −5𝑥+6

The points of discontinuity for 𝒇(𝒙) = (

𝑥→2

(a)

4.

7.

1

) are

0. ±1 1, −1 0, 1 0, −1

The graph of a function 𝒈(𝒙) is shown below. Which of the following statements are true of 𝒈(𝒙)?

2

(d) -1

Find the exact value of 𝐥𝐢𝐦 𝐱→𝟎

√𝟑−𝒙−√𝟑 𝒙

(a) √3 (b) 0 1 (c) −

2√3

(d) The limit does not exist (i)

CONCEPT: What is the requirement for a function to be continuous?

𝑙𝑖𝑚 𝑔(𝑥) = 2

𝑥→−1

(ii) 𝑙𝑖𝑚 𝑔(𝑥) = 1 𝑥→−1

(iii) 𝑙𝑖𝑚 𝑔(𝑥) does not exist 𝑥→−1

(iv) 𝑙𝑖𝑚 𝑔(𝑥) = −1 5.

(a) (b) (c) (d) 6.

The given function: 𝒙𝟑 + 𝟑, 𝒙 ≠ 𝟎 𝒇(𝒙) = { 𝟏 ,𝒙 = 𝟎 Is continuous at 𝑥 = 0 Not continuous at 𝑥 = 0 Continuous but not differentiable at 𝑥 = 0 Both continuous and differentiable at 𝑥 = 0 For what value of k is the given function continuous? 𝒌𝒄𝒐𝒔𝒙

𝒇(𝒙) = {

𝝅−𝟐𝒙

𝟑

, 𝒊𝒇 𝒙 ≠

𝝅 𝟐

, 𝒊𝒇 𝒙 =

𝝅 𝟐

_________

𝑥→1

(v) 𝑙𝑖𝑚 𝑔(𝑥) does not exist 𝑥→1

(a) (b) (c) (d) 9.

Only (i) and (iv) are true Only I and V are true Only II and IV are true Only II and V are true

Consider again the function g(x) whose graph is shown in problem 8. Which of the following statements are true of g(x)? I. g is continuous at x = -1 II. g is continuous at x = 1 III. g is differentiable at x = -1 IV. g is differentiable at x = 0 V. g is differentiable at x = 1 (a) only I and IV are true


Page 21

(b) only II and IV are true (c) only I and V are true (d) only II and V are true 10. What is the derivative of: (a) 𝑥 2 (c) (e)

(b)

𝑥2

(d) cos 𝑥 + 4

𝑥+4 𝑥

(f) et+4 w. r. t ′t′

log 𝑥

11. If 𝒚 = In( (A) 𝑥 − (C)

10

𝑎

1 𝑥

𝒆𝒙 𝐞𝒙 −𝟏𝟎 𝑒𝑥

𝑒 𝑥 −10

), then

𝐝𝒚 𝐝𝒙

=

(B)−

(a) zero (c) Negative

1 𝑒𝑥

(b) positive (d) None of these

(D) 0

10−e𝑥

12. If a function has the equation

𝒅 𝒅𝒙

(𝟓𝒙𝟒 +

𝟑𝒙𝟑 − 𝟐𝒙 + 𝟒), then what is its value at 𝒙 = 𝟓? 13. What will be the slope of the line parallel to the curve 𝒙𝟓 − 𝟒𝒙 + 𝟒 at 𝒙 = 𝟔 14. What will be the slope of the line perpendicular to the curve 𝒙𝟓 − 𝟒𝒙 + 𝟒 at 𝒙 = 𝟔 15. Given a curve 𝟐𝒙𝟐 + 𝟔𝒙 − 𝟒. Fid its (a) Minimum Value (b) Maximum Value 16. The Profit of a company is given by 𝑷(𝒙) = 𝟏𝟎𝟎 + 𝟐𝟒𝒙 − 𝟏𝟖𝒙𝟐 . The maximum profit that the company can make is: 17. For the graph of f(x) depicted, what is the value of

𝒅𝒇(𝒙) 𝒅𝒙

at the point ‘a’?


Page 22

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE CLASS ASSIGNMENT – 13 Co-ordinate Geometry, Integration

Co-ordinate Geometry 1.

The equation of the line through the point of intersection of 3x-y-1=0 and x-3y+5=0, passing through the point (1,5) is (a) 2x-y+5=0 (b) 2x+y+5=0 (c) x+y=0 (d) x=1

2.

The points (0,8/3), (1,3) and (82,30) are the vertices of (a) An obtuse-angled triangle (b) A right-angled triangle (c) An isosceles triangle (d) None of these

3.

The line segment joining (-3,-4) and (1,-2) is divided by y-axis in the ratio (a) 1: 3 (b) 2: 3 (c) 3: 1 (d) 3: 2

4.

The locus of the point, the sum of whose distances from the coordinate axes is 9 is (a) 𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 = 9 (b) 𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 = −9 (c) 𝑦 2 − 𝑥 2 = 9 (d) None of these

5.

The equation of the line passing through the point (1,1) and perpendicular to the 3x+4y5=0 is (a) 3x+4y-7=0 (b) 3x+4y+k=0 (c) 4x-3y+1=0 (d) 4x-3y-1=0

6.

The centroid of a triangle formed by (7,p),(q,6),(9,10) is (6,3), then (p,q)= (a) (4, 5) (b) (5, 4) (c) (-5,-2) (d) (5, 2)

7.

The base vertices of a right angled isosceles triangle are (2,4) and (4,2) then its third vertex is (a) (1, 1) or (2, 2) (b) (2, 2) or (4, 4) (c) (1, 10) or (3, 3) (d) (2, 2) or (3, 3)


Page 23

Integration 1.

2.

∫ 𝒙𝒙 (𝟏 + 𝒍𝒐𝒈𝒙)𝒅𝒙 = (a) 𝑥 𝑥 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥 + 𝐶 (c) 𝑥 𝑥 + 𝐶

1

1

−1

2(𝑥−1) 1

−1

2(𝑥−1) 1

(a) (𝑥−1)2 +

𝑥

(b) 𝑥 + 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥 + 𝐶 (d) log(𝑥 𝑥 ) + 𝐶

(b) (𝑥−1)2 − (c) (𝑥−1)2 +

𝒄𝒐𝒔𝟐𝒙

∫ 𝐜𝐨𝐬𝟐 𝒙𝒔𝒊𝒏𝟐𝒙 dx is equal to. (a) cotx-tanx+c (c) –cotx+tanx+c

2(𝑥−1)

1

𝑥+1

4 1

𝑥−1 𝑥+1

4 1

𝑥−1 𝑥+1

4

𝑥−1

− 𝑙𝑜𝑔⃓ + 𝑙𝑜𝑔⃓ − 𝑙𝑜𝑔⃓

⃓+𝐶 ⃓+𝐶 ⃓+𝐶

(d) None of these (b) cotx+tanx+c (d) –cotx-tanx+c

8.

𝒙𝟑 −𝟏

∫ 𝒙𝟑 +𝒙 dx is equal to 1

3.

If ∫

𝒅𝒙 𝟏+𝒔𝒊𝒏𝒙 𝜋

𝒙

(a) x+logx+ log(𝑥 2 + 1)-tan−1 𝑥 + 𝐶

𝟐

(b) x-logx+ log(𝑥 2 + 1)-tan−1 𝑥 + 𝐶

2 1

= 𝐭𝐚𝐧 ( + 𝒂) + 𝒃,then

2 1

(a) a =− , 𝑏 =arbitrary constant 𝜋

4

(c) x-logx- log(𝑥 2 + 1)-tan−1 𝑥 + 𝐶

(b) a = , 𝑏 =arbitrary constant

2

4 𝜋

(d) None of these

(c) a = , 𝑏 =arbitrary constant 2

(d) None of these 4.

∫

𝒙𝟐 𝐭𝐚𝐧−𝟏 𝒙𝟑 𝟏+𝒙𝟔

9.

𝒅𝒙 is equal to

(a)

(a) tan−1 𝑥 3 + 𝐶 1 (b) (tan−1 𝑥 3 )2 + 𝐶 6

(d) 5.

2

𝑥

2 1

𝑥

𝒙𝟑

10. ∫ 𝒅𝒙 = 𝒙+𝟏

∫ 𝒆√𝒙 dx is equal to: (a) 𝑒 √𝑥 +A

(a)

1

(b) 𝑒 √𝑥 + 𝐴 2

(b)

(c) 2(√𝑥 − 1)𝑒 √𝑥 + 𝐴

6.

𝑥

sin (𝑥) − √1 − 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 2

(d) sin−1 (𝑥) − √1 − 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 2 2

+𝐶

(d)2(√𝑥 − 1)𝑒 √𝑥 + 𝐴, constant

𝑥

2 1

1

2

2 )3

dx is equal to:

(c) [3 sin−1 (𝑥) − 𝑥√1 − 𝑥 2 ] + 𝑐

1

(tan−1

𝟏+𝒙𝟐

√𝟏−𝒙𝟐 3 −1

(b) sin−1 (𝑥) + √1 − 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 2 2

(c) − (tan−1 𝑥 3 )2 + 𝐶 1

I=∫

A

is

an

arbitrary

(c) (d)

𝑥3

3 𝑥3 3 𝑥3 3

+ − − 𝑥4

𝑥4

4 𝑥2 2 𝑥2 2

2(𝑥+1)2

+𝐶 + 𝑥 − log(𝑥 + 1) + 𝐶 + 𝑥 + log(𝑥 + 1) + 𝐶 +𝐶

𝒙𝟒 +𝟏

∫ 𝒙𝟐 +𝟏dx is equal to (a) (b) (c)

𝑥3

3 𝑥3 3 𝑥3 3

− 𝑥 + 𝑙𝑜𝑔 + 𝑥 + 𝑙𝑜𝑔 − 𝑥 + 𝑙𝑜𝑔

x−1

+C

𝑥+1 x−1

𝑥+1 x+1 𝑥−1

+C

+C

(d) None of these 7.

𝟑𝒙+𝟏

∫ (𝒙−𝟏)𝟑(𝒙+𝟏)dx is equal to


Page 24

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE CLASS ASSIGNMENT – 14 Mensuration / Matrices / Determinants

1.

2.

3. 4.

5. 6.

7.

𝒙 + 𝟑 𝒛 + 𝟒 𝟐𝒚 − 𝟕 If [ −𝟔 𝒂−𝟏 𝟎 ]= 𝒃 − 𝟑 −𝟐𝟏 𝟎 𝟎 𝟔 𝟑𝒚 − 𝟐 [ −𝟔 −𝟑 𝟐𝒄 + 𝟐 ] 𝟐𝒃 + 𝟒 −𝟐𝟏 𝟎 Find the values of a, b, c, x, y and z State True / False (a) The value of determinant is changed if rows & column and interchanged (b) If any two rows & column are interchanged, then the value of determinant changes by minus sign only. (c) If any two rows & Column are identical then value of determinant is equal to 1. (d) If each element of row (column) are zero, the determinant is also equal to 0. Construct a 𝟑 × 𝟒 matrix 𝑨 = [𝒂𝒊𝒋 ] whose elements are given by 𝒂𝒊 +𝒋 If A & B are two matrices then which of the following is true? (a) (𝐴𝑇 )𝑇 = 𝐴 (b) (𝐴 + 𝐵)𝑇 = 𝐴𝑇 + 𝐵𝑇 , A and B being of same order. (c) (𝐾𝐴)𝑇 = 𝐾𝐴𝑇 , K be any scalar (d) (𝐴𝐵)𝑇 = 𝐵𝑇 . 𝐴𝑇 (e) All of these Show that the points (𝒂, 𝒃 + 𝒄), (𝒃, 𝒄 + 𝒂) and (𝒄, 𝒂 + 𝒃) are collinear. State true or false: (a) All zero matrix are equal. (b) All diagonal matrix are square matrix (c) All identity matrix are scalar matrix (d) If product of two matrix is zero matrix then one of the matrix must be 0. If A, B and C are matrices with orders 3x3, 2x3 and 4x2 respectively, how many of the following matrices are defined? (i) 6B (ii) A +B (iii) 3BT+ C (iv) AB T T (v) B A (vi) (CB) (vii) CBA

8.

Find area of shaded region. (Take

 = 22/7)

r 14

9.

The length of a room is double the breadth. The cost of colouring the ceiling at Rs. 25 per sq.m is Rs 5,000 and the cost of painting the four walls at Rs. 240 per sq. m is Rs. 64,800. Find the height of the room. 10. A well of 11.2 m diameter is dug 8m deep. The earth taken out has been spread all around it to a width of 7 m to form a circular embankment. Find the height of this embankment? 11. What is the value of: (i) Interior angle and (ii) Exterior angle of a regular decagon? 12. Find the value of AB in the following figure: Here, 𝑷𝑨 = 𝟔𝒄𝒎, 𝑷𝑪 = 𝟑𝒄𝒎, 𝑷𝑫 = 𝟒𝒄𝒎

A 6 𝑐𝑚

P

D 4 𝑐𝑚

3 𝑐𝑚

C

B

13. What is the value of ‘x’ in the following figure? Given, ∠𝑲𝑵𝑶 = 𝟔𝟎° KL is the diameter.

M

𝑥

L

K 60° N O

14. In a triangle ABC, O is the center of incircle PQR, ∠BCA = 75° and ∠BAC = 65°, find ∠ROQ:


Page 25

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE CLASS ASSIGNMENT – 15 Vector & 3-D

Vector 1.

Vectors (p,q) and (5,1) are parallel if (a) pq=5 (b) q=5p (c) p+q=5 (d) p=5q

2.

If a,b,c are three vectors such that a+b=c, then b is called. (a) a projection of c (b) a complement of c (c) a component of c (d) None of these

3.

4.

5.

6.

If a=(1,-1) and b=(-2,m) are two collinear vectors, then m= (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 0 If a and b are two non-zero and non-colliners vectors, then a+b and a-b are (a) linearly dependent vectors (b) linearly independent vectors (c) linearly dependent and independent vector (d) None of these If i+2j+3k is parallel to the sum of vectors 3i+𝝀j+2k and -2i+3j+k, then 𝝀 is equal to: (a) 1 (b) -1 (c) 2 (d) -2 If the point A,B,C and D have position vectors a,2a+b,4a+2b and 5a+4b respectively. Then the three collinear points are (a) A, C and D (b) B, C and D (c) A,B and C (d) A,B and D

7.

̂ is to be written as ⃗⃗ = 𝟑𝒋̂ +4𝒌 The vector 𝑩 ⃗ = i+j ⃗ parallel to ⃗𝑨 the sum of a vector ⃗𝜶 ⃗⃗ perpendicular to 𝑨 ⃗⃗ . Then and a vector 𝜷 ⃗𝜶 ⃗= (a) (b) (c) (d)

8.

2 2 3 1 1 1 3

(𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂) (𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂) (𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂) (𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂)

̂ and (2b-c)𝒊̂ +(3a+c)𝒋̂ If vectors a𝒊̂+2b𝒋̂+a𝒌 ̂ +b𝒌 are parallel, then unit vector in their direction is 1 (a) (2𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ + 2𝑘̂) (b) (c) (d)

9.

3

√17 1 √6 1

(𝑖̂ + 2𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂)

√11 1 3

(𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂)

(2𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ + 2𝑘̂)

̂ and 𝒊̂ + If the version 𝒊̂ − 𝟐𝒙𝒋̂ − 𝟑𝒚𝒌 ̂ are orthogonal to each other 𝟑𝒙𝒋̂ + 𝟐𝒚𝒌 then the locus of the point (x,y) is (a) A circle (b) an ellipse (c) A parabola (d) a straight line

̂ 10. The projection of the vector 𝒊̂ − 𝟐𝒋̂ + 𝒌 ̂ on the vector 𝟒𝒊̂ + 𝟒𝒋̂ + 𝟕𝒌 is (a) (c)

√5 2 √6 16


(b) 2 (d)

1 9

9 16

Page 26

3-D 1.

2.

If 𝜶,𝜷, 𝜸 are the angles which a half ray makes with the positive directions of the axes, then (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0 (d) -1

5.

6.

7.

1

3

2

2

(b) ( , 1, )

1

3

2

2

(c) (− , −1, − )

4.

8.

(d) none of these

The distance of the point (1, 2, 3) from the coordinate axes are A, B and C respectively. Now consider the following equations. 1. 𝐴2 = 𝐵2 + 𝐶 2 2.𝐵2 = 2𝐶 2 3. 2𝐴2 𝐶 2 = 13𝐵2 (a) 1 only (b) 1 & 3 (c) 1 & 2 (d) 2 & 3 The ratio in which the join of (2,1,5) and (3,4,3) is divided by the plane (x+y-z)= 1/2 is (a) 3:5 (b) 5:7 (c) 1:3 (d) 4:5 The direction ratio of the line OP are equal and the length OP=√𝟑. Then the coordinates of the point P are (a) (-1,-1,-1) (b) (√3, √3, √3) (c) (√2, √2, √2) (d) (2, 2, 2) If a line makes angles 𝟑𝟓° and 𝟓𝟓° with x-axis and y-axis respectively, then the angle which this line subtends with z-axis is (a) 35° (b) 45° (c) 55° (d) 90° If A=(1,2,3), B=(-1,0,2), C=(1,-1,2) and D is the foot of the perpendicular from A on BC. Then BD: (a) 3:2 (b) 2:3

(d) 1:3

The circumcentre of the triangle formed by the points (1,0,0), (0,1,0) and (0,0,1) is (a) the origin (b) (1,1,1) 1 1 1

The point equidistant from the points (0,0,0),(1,0,0),(0,2,0) and (0,0,3) is (a) (1, 2, 3)

3.

(c) 3:1

(c) ( , , )

(d) (-1,-1,-1)

3 3 3

9.

The angle between the lines (x=1,y=2) and (y=-1,z=0) is (a) 90° (b) 30°

10. The angle between the lines whose direction ratios are 1,1,2 and √𝟑 -1,-√𝟑-1,4 is (a) 45° (b) 30° ° (c) 60 (d) 90° 11. The angle between the straight lines 𝒙+𝟏 𝟐

=

𝒚−𝟐 𝟓

=

𝒛+𝟑 𝟒

and

(a) 45° (c) 60°

𝒙−𝟏 𝟏

=

𝒚+𝟐 𝟐

=

𝒛−𝟑 −𝟑

is

(b) 30° (d) 90°

12. The coordinates of A,B,C,D are (3,5,-3), (2,3,1), (1,2,3) and (3,5,7) respectively. Then (a) AB is perpendicular to CD (b) AB is parallel to CD (c) The angle between AB and CD is 𝜋/3 (d) The angle between AB and CD is 2𝜋/3 13. The angle between a line with direction ratios 2:2:1 and a line joining (3,1,4) to (7,2,12) is 2

2

(a) cos −1 ( )

(b) cos −1 (− )

(c)

(d) none of these

3 2 𝑡𝑎𝑛−1 ( ) 3

3

14. The angle between the lines whose direction cosines satisfy the equations L+m+n=0 and 2lm+2nl-mn=0 is (a) 60° (b) 90° ° (c) 120 (d) 150°


Page 27

LOGICAL REASONING CLASS ASSIGNMENT - 1 Logical Venn Diagrams, Venn Diagrams, Seating Arrangement

Logical Venn Diagrams These questions are based on the following figures. Study the figures carefully and then answer the questions given below it.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

1. Mothers, Women, Divorcees 2. Historian, Scientist, Economist 3. Travelers, Train travellers, Bus travellers 4. Donkey, Pet, Horse

(e)

1.

2.

Venn Diagrams

In a certain region, the number of children who have been vaccinated against rubella is twice the number who have been vaccinated against mumps. The number who have been vaccinated against both is twice the number who have been vaccinated only against mumps. If 5,000 have been vaccinated against both, how many have been vaccinated only against rubella? (a) 2,500 (b) 7,500 (c) 10,000 (d) 15,000 (e) 17,500

Passed in all the subjects Failed in all the subjects Failed in Chemistry Failed in Physics Failed in Mathematics Passed in Chemistry only Passed in physics only Passed in Mathematics only

197 70 170 210 192 64 51 46

3.

How many failed in Chemistry only? (a) 84 (b) 49 (c) 3 (d) 100

In a class test consisting of mathematics and physics, 80% passed in mathematics and 50% passed in physics. 15% failed in both the subjects. If 180 students passed in both the subjects, how many failed in both the subjects? (a) 80 (b) 60 (c) 90 (d) 50

4.

How many failed in one subject only? (a) 40 (b) 161 (c) 237 (d) 70

5.

How many passed in at least one subject? (a) 197 (b) 398 (c) 70 (d) 271

Direction for Questions 3 to 5: Answer the questions based on the following information. Data on the 468 students, who took an examination Chemistry, Physics and Mathematics, is as follows:

6.

30% people of Saharanpur like cold weather, 40% like summer, 55% like autumn. 18% like cold and summer, 20% like summer and

LOGICAL REASONING CLASS ASSIGNMENT - 1

Page 28

of the employers in Sun Metals are general graduates and 75% of the engineers earn more than Rs 5 lakhs per year. If 50% of the organization’s employees earn more than 5 lakhs per year, what proportion of general graduates employed by the organization earn Rs 5 lakhs or less? (a) 3/5 (b) 3/4 (c) 1/2 (d) none of these

autumn, 12% like cold and autumn. 10% like all three weathers. (a) How many like none of the weathers (b) How many like only cold (c). How many like only cold and summer. (d). How many like cold and autumn. (e). How many like atleast one (f). How many like only one (g). How many like at least two. 7.

One hundred and twenty-five aliens descended on a set of film on extra-terrestrial beings. Of these, 40 had two noses, 30 had three legs, 20 had four ears, 10 had two noses and three legs, 12 had three legs and four ears, 5 had two noses and four ears, and 3 had all the three unusual features. How many were there without any of these unusual features? (a) 5 (b) 35 (c) 80 (d) None of these

8.

There are two types of employees in Sun Metals, general graduates and engineers. 40%

9.

Of 30 students who took the GMAT, 14 had been out of school for at least 3 years, 18 had business degree, 3 had been out of school for less than 3 years and did not have business degrees. How many students had been out of school for at least 3 years and had degrees in business (a) 14 (b) 13 (c) 9 (d) 7 (e) 5

Seating Arrangement Linear Arrangement Direction for questions 10 to 12: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: (i) A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are standing in a row facing North. (ii) B is not adjacent to G. (iii) F is to the immediate right of G and is also adjacent to E. (iv) G is not at either extreme. (v) A is sixth to the left of E. (vi) H is sixth to the right of C. 10. Who among the following are not adjacent to each other? (a) AC (b) DG (c) FH (d) CB 11. Which one among the following defines the position of D? (a) Fifth to the left of H (b) Third to the right of C (c) Neighbour of B and E

(d) To the immediate right of B. 12. Which of the following is true? (a) C is to the immediate left of A (b) G is to the immediate Right of D (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these There are ten lights in a row on a control board. The lights are numbered—1 to 10—in sequence from left to right. Each light is either on or off. The following is also known: No two consecutively numbered lights are on. No three consecutively numbered lights are off. Exactly four of the ten lights are on. Light 3 is off. 13. If light 4 is off, which of the following must be true? (a) Light 1 is on (b) Light 2 is off (c) Light 5 is off (d) Light 6 is off (e) Light 7 is on


Page 29

14. If lights 9 and 10 are off, which of the following must be true? (a) Light 1 is on (b) Light 2 is off (c) Light 4 is on (d) Light 5 is on (e) Light 6 is off

15. If light 6 is on and light 8 is off, for how many of the lights can on-off status be determined? (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7 (e) 8

Circular Arrangement Direction for Q.16 to Q.18: Six friends Ajay, Rohit, Sony, Donald, Mickey and Tom are sitting around a circular table facing the center? 1. Tom is sitting in between Mickey and Ajay. 2. Sony is sitting in between Ajay and Rohit. 3. Mickey is on left of Donald. 16. Who is sitting to the left of Rohit? (a) Ajay (b) Sony (c) Donald (d) Mickey (e) None of these 17. Which person is sitting to the right of Sony? (a) Ajay (b) Rohit (c) Donald (d) Mickey (e) Tom 18. Which of the condition if removed will doesn’t effect to solve earlier questions? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) All of these (e) None of these Direction for Q.19 to Q.22: Six men are sitting around a round table facing its centre. They are

A, B, C, D, F and G. F is not between B and D but some other one. A is next to the left of G, C is fourth to the right of A 19. Which of the following is NOT true? (a) D is just next to the right of C (b) F is just next to the right of G (c) C is second to the left of F (d) A is second to the right of C 20. If A and C interchange their positions then which of the following pair will sit together? (a) CF (b) AG (c) GC (d) BG 21. What is the position of F? (a) Just next to the right of B (b) Second to the left of A (c) Between B and C (d) To the immediate right of G 22. Which one is sitting diagonally opposite to G? (a) B or D (b) C (c) F (d) A


Page 30

LOGICAL REASONING CLASS ASSIGNMENT - 2 Syllogism, Series, Data Interpretation - I

Syllogism 1.

2.

Treat the statement(s) to be true and verify the conclusions for the following: Statement 1: All jets are fast. Statement 2: All fast are exciting. Conclusion 1: All jets are exciting. Conclusion 2: All exciting are jets. Conclusion 3: Some exciting are jets. Statement 1: All jets are fast. Statement 2: All jets are exciting. Conclusion 1: All fast are exciting. Conclusion 2: All exciting are fast. Conclusion 3: Some fast is exciting.

3.

Statement 1: All jets are fast. Statement 2: Some fast is exciting Conclusion 1: Some exciting are fast. Conclusion 2: Some exciting are jets. Conclusion 3: All exciting are fast. Conclusion 4: Some fast is jet.

4.

Statement 1: Some jets are fast. Statement 2: Some fast is exciting. Conclusion 1: Some exciting are fast. Conclusion 2: Some exciting are jets. Conclusion 3: All exciting can be fast.

5.

Statement 1: Some jets are fast. Statement 2: No fast is exciting. Conclusion 1: No jet is exciting. Conclusion 2: Some jets are not exciting. Conclusion 3: Some exciting are not jets.

6.

Statement 1: All jets are fast. Statement 2: No fast is exciting. Conclusion 1: No jet is exciting. Conclusion 2: No exciting is jet.

7.

Statement 1: All jets are fast. Statement 2: No jet is exciting. Conclusion 1: No exciting is a fast.

Conclusion 2: No exciting is jet. Conclusion 3: Some fast are not exciting. Conclusion 4: Some exciting are not fast. 8.

Statement 1: No jet is fast. Statement 2: No fast is exciting. Conclusion 1: No jet is emotion. Conclusion 2: Some jets are not exciting. Conclusion 3: Some jets are exciting.

Practice Exercise 9.

Statements: (i) All knives are hammers. (ii) No hammer is sword. (iii) Some swords are nails. Conclusions: I. Some nails are hammers. II. Some swords are knives III. No nail is hammer. Chose the correct option: (a) None follow (b) Only either I or III follow (c) Only II follow (d) Only III follow (e) Only I follow

10. Statements: (i) All hills are roads. (ii) All roads are stones. (iii) All stones are jungles. (iv) All jungles are rivers. Conclusions: I. Some rivers are stones. II. Some Jungles are hills. III. Some stones are hills. IV. All rivers are jungles. Chose the correct option: (a) Only I and II follow (b) Only II and III follow (c) Only I, II and III follow


Page 31

(d) Only II, III and IV follow (e) All follow

13. Statements: Some elephants are rats. All rats are flowers. Some flowers are not elephants. Conclusions: (I) Some flowers are elephants. (II) All elephant are flowers. (III) All rats are elephants (IV) No flower is an elephant Chose the correct option (a) Only I follows (b) Only I and II follow (c) Only II and III follow (d) None follows

11. Statements: (i) Some apple is bat. (ii) No bat is cap. Conclusions: (i) Some apple is cap. (ii) No apple is cap. Chose the correct option: (a) Only (i) follows (b) Only (ii) follows (c) Either (i) or (ii) follows (d) None follows 12. Statements: (i) All drivers are mechanics. (ii) All mechanics are cleaners Conclusions: (i) All cleaners are drivers. (ii) Some drivers are mechanics. (iii) All drivers are cleaners. (iv) Some cleaners are mechanics. Chose the correct option: (a) All conclusions follow (b) Only (ii) (iii) (iv) follow (c) Only (iii) (iv) follow (d) Only (ii) (iii) follow

14. Statements: All pens are papers. All papers are aeroplanes. All aeroplanes are skies. Conclusions: (I) All pens are skies (II) All skies are papers (III) All aeroplanes are pens (IV) All papers are skies Chose the correct option (a) Only I follow (b) Only I and III follow (c) Only I and IV follow (d) Only III and IV

SERIES Numeric Series 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

2, 4, 7, 11, 16, 22, __ 720, 504, 336, 210, __ 86, 78, 87, 77, 88, ___ , ____ 21, 15, 6, 25, 11, 3, 29, 7, 0, __ 1, 5, 17, 37, 65, ___ 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, ____ 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 11, 41, 161, 641 _____ 5, 15, 60, 300, ____ 3505, 700, 135, ___

Alphabet and Alphanumeric series 1. 2.

A, Z, B, Y, C, X, D, __ E5V, J10Q, O15L, T20G, Y25B___

3. 4.

ND, IY, DT, YO, TJ,__ abb _ baa _ a _ bab _ aba (a) abba (b) abab (c) ccac (d) aabb

Practice Questions 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

3, 8, 11, 19, 30, 49, __ 0, 2, 3, 10, 15, 26, 35, 50, 63, __ 2, 7, 20, 61, 182, 285__ RQP, ONM, LKJ, __ , FED -3, -2, 5, 24, 61, 122, ____ 36, 9, 27, 6, 21, 3, ___ 0, 0, 4 , 18, 48, 100, 180, __


Page 32

Data Interpretation - I Directions for Q1 to Q3 : Study the data of 19 companies and answer the questions (all figures in Rs. Crore)

1.

How many companies have the same rank by sales, and by profit (if arranged in their decreasing order) in the last year for which data is available? (a) None (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

2.

If the companies are arranged on the basis of total assets in decreasing order in 2000-01 and similar lists are prepared based on sales and profit parameters also for the same year, how many companies will be among top ten in all the three lists? (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9

3.

Which of the following statements is not true? (a) All the companies which have decline in sales in 2001-02 have experienced decline in the profit also. (b) Top two companies by avg mkt cap (AMC) have combined AMC exceeding 25 times combined AMC of bottom two companies by this parameter. (c) In 2001-02, 13 companies saw their sales as well as profit going up. (d) There are 5 companies with total assets exceeding 1000 lakh in 200001.


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Post Class Assignment Question 1-10 In each question, three (or two) statements are followed by four conclusions I, II, III, IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they appear to be at variance with commonly known facts, and then decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements. For each question, mark out an appropriate answer choice that you think is correct. 1.

2.

Statements 1. All small are books. 2. Some books are windows. 3. No windows is pencil. Conclusions: I. Some windows are small. II. Some books are pencils. III. No window is small. IV. Some books are not pencils. Chose the correct option (a) I and either II or IV follow (b) I, III and IV follow (c) I, II and III follow (d) IV follows. Statements: 1. Some blacks are Canadians. 2. Some Indian are black. 3. No Indian is white. Conclusions: I. Some Canadians are Indian. II. Some whites are blacks. III. Some whites are not black. IV. Some blacks are not whites.

2. Some goats are flowers. 3. No chocolates are boxes. Conclusions: I. Some flowers are chocolates. II. No goats are chocolates. III. Some flowers are boxes. IV. Some flowers are not chocolates. Chose the correct option (a) II, III and IV follow (b) I, III and IV follow. (c) Only II and III follow (d) Only III and either I or IV follow 4.

Statements: 1. Some cookies are papers. 2. All papers are chocos. 3. Some chocos are trams. Conclusions: I. Some cookies are trams. II. Some papers are trams. III. Some trams are papers. IV. Some chocos are cookies. Chose the correct option (a) Only II and III follow (b) I and IV follow (c) Only IV follows (d) II, III and IV follow

5.

Statements: 1 No foods are mangoes. 2. No oranges are potatoes. 3. All mangoes are oranges. Conclusion: I. Some foods are not oranges. II. Some oranges are not foods. III. No mangoes are potatoes. IV. Some oranges are foods. Chose the correct option (a) Only III and I follow (b) Only II and IV follow (c) Either II or IV follow (d) Only II and III follow.

6.

Statements: 1. All coats are paints.

Chose the correct option (a) I and IV follow. (b) II and III follow. (c) Only III follow. (d) Only IV follow. 3.

Statements: 1. All goats are boxes.


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2. No paints are shirts. 3. Some shirts are vests. Conclusions: I. Some vests are not shirts. II. Some coats are shirts. III. No coat is a shirt. IV. Some vests are not coats. Chose the correct option (a) I, II and III follow (b) I and IV follow. (c) I and III follow (d) III and IV follow. 7.

1. Some stars are birds. 2. No birds are elephants. Conclusions: I. Some stars are not elephants. II. All stars are elephants. III. Some elephant are not stars. IV. All elephants are stars. Chose the correct option (a) Either I or II and either III or IV follow (b) Only I follows (c) Either III or IV follows (d) I and III follow (e) I and either III or IV follow

Statements: 1. All boxes are tables. 2. No desks are tables. 3. Some desks are curtains. Conclusions: I. No boxes are desks. II. Some boxes are desks. III. Some curtains are not boxes. IV. Some curtains are boxes. Chose the correct option (a) III and either I or II follow (b) I and either III or IV follow (c) Either I or II and either III or IV follow (d) I and III follow (e) None of the above

8.

Statements: 1. Some trees are sharks. 2. Some sharks are balloons. Conclusions: I. All balloons are sharks. II. All balloons are trees. III. Some trees are balloons. IV. No tree is a balloon. Chose the correct option (a) Only I follows (b) Only II and III follow (c) Only either I or III follows (d) Only either I or IV follows (e) Only either III or IV follows

9.

Statements:

10. Statements: 1. Some copies are desks. 2. No desks are pens. Conclusions: I. Some copies are pens. II. Some copies are not pens. III. Some pens are desks. IV. Some pens are not desks. Chose the correct option (a) Only II follows (b) II and III follow (c) Either I or II follows (d) II and IV follow (e) Either III or IV follows


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LOGICAL REASONING CLASS ASSIGNMENT – 3 Analytical Reasoning, Data Interpretation - II

Analytical Reasoning Directions: Read the text and the statements carefully and answer the questions. Four people of different nationalities live on the same side of a street in four houses, each of different colour. Each person has a different favourite drink. The following additional information is also known: (i) The Englishman lives in the red house. (ii) The Italian drinks tea. (iii) The Norwegian lives in the first house on the left (iv) In the second house from the right, they drink milk (v) The Norwegian lives adjacent to the blue house. (vi) The Spaniard drinks fruit juice (vii) Tea is drunk in the blue house. (viii) The white house is to the right of the red house.

5.

Q is P’s (a) Father (c) Son

(b) Mother (d) Grandmother

S is P’s (a) Brother (c) Mother

(b) Father (d) Sister

R is Q’s (a) Daughter (c) Grandson

(b) Son (d) Daughter- in- Law

R is S’s (a) Wife (c) Husband

(b) Son (d) Daughter

A.

1.

2.

3.

Milk is drunk by: (a) Norwegian (c) Italian

(b) Englishman (d) None of these

The Norwegian drinks: (a) Milk (c) Tea

(b) Cocoa (d) Fruit Juice

Which of the following is not true? (a) Milk is drunk in the red house (b) Italian lives in the blue house (c) The Spaniard lives in a corner house (d) The Italian lives next to the Spaniard

B. P, Q, R, S live together in a house (i) P lives with his/her parents (ii) Q lives with at least 3 persons younger than him/her (iii) S lives with his mother, and is older than at least 2 people living with him (iv) R lives with his/her son and is not older than S 4.

Total number of persons in the house is (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6

6.

7.

8.

C.

Six scientists A, B, C, D, E and F are to present a paper each at a one-day conference. Three of them will present their paper in the morning session before the lunch break while the other three would present it in the afternoon session. The lectures have to be scheduled in such a way that they comply with the following restrictions (i) B should present his paper immediately before C’s presentation; their presentations cannot be separated by the lunch break (ii) D must be either the first or the last scientist to present his paper

9.

In case C is the fifth scientist to present his paper then B must be (a) First (b) Second (c)Third (d) Fourth

10. B could be place in any of the places in the order of presenters EXCEPT (a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Fourth 11. In case F is to present his paper immediately after D presents his paper, then C could be


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scheduled for which of the following places in the order (a) Second (b) Third (c) Fourth (d) Fifth 12. In case F and E are fifth and sixth presenters respectively then which of the following must be true? (a) A is first in the order (b) A is third in the order (c) A is fourth in the order (d) B is first in the order D.

A whole seller dealing in readymade garments sent a consignment of two brands of shirts to a retailer by goods train. However, the consignment was tampered in transit and the retailer refused to accept it. Meanwhile, whole seller also lost the details of consignment in a fire in his accounting office. Later on only following data about number of T-shirts sent could be recovered:

A frenetic search for more data revealed the following facts about consignment: *60% of the shirts were of size Large or Extra Large *Brand B shirts formed 45% of the consignment *50% of Brand A shirts were of Medium size 13. What percentage of the Brand B shirts are of size ‘L’? (a) 37% (b) 25% (c) 50% (d) 33% 14. What percentage of Large size shirts belong to Brand A? (a) 49% (b) 42% (c) 52% (d) 30% 15. How many Brand ‘A’ shirts are of Large size? (a) 91 (b) 94 (c) 63 (d) None of these

SELECTION BASED ON GIVEN CONDITIONS E.

Direction: Shahrukh Khan in Chak De!! wants to build a composite team of six members for next Olympics. He has with him six men (Dhanraj, Deepak, Deevesh, Ramandeep, Mohd. Riaz, and Barla) and five girls (Bindia Naik, Nethra Reddy, Preeti Sabharwal, Komal Chautala and Vidya Sharma). Following things need to be taken care of: 1. Dhanraj and Ramandeep have to be together. 2. Deevesh will not like to be in a team with Komal Chautala. 3. Komal Chautala and Vidya Sharma have to be together. 4. Deepak does not like to be in team with Mohd. Riaz. 5. Ramandeep will not like to go with Bindia Naik. 6. Deepak and Preeti Sabharwal have to be together. 7. Deevesh and Nethra Reddy have to be together.

16. If Sharukh Khan chooses five males in team, then which fortunate lady got into the team? (a) Bindia Naik (b) Nethra Reddy (c) Preeti Sabharwal (d) Komal Chautala (e) None of these 17. If including Bindia Naik, the team has three ladies, then how is the team composed? (a) Deepak, Deevesh, Barla, Nethra Reddy & Preeti Sabharwal (b) Dhanraj, Ramandeep, Mohd. Riaz, Komal Chautala, Vidya Sharma (c) Dhanraj, Ramandeep, Deepak, Komal Chautala, Vidya Sharma (d) Deepak, Barla, Preeti Sabharwal, Komal Chautala, Vidya Sharma (e) None of these 18. If including Deevesh the team has four male members, then what are the other members of the team? (a) Dhanraj, Ramandeep, Deepak, Nethra Reddy, Preeti Sabharwal (b) Dhanraj, Ramandeep, Mohd. Riaz, Bindia Naik, Nethra Reddy


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(c) Barla, Ramandeep, Mohd. Riaz, Dhanraj, Nethra Reddy (d) Deepak, Mohd. Riaz, Barla, Preeti Sabharwal, Nethra Reddy (e) None of these 19. If four members of the team have to be girls, then the members of the team are? (a) Dhanraj, Barla, Komal Chautala, Bindia Naik, Nethra Reddy, Preeti Sabharwal (b) Deepak, Bindia Naik, Ramandeep, Nethra Reddy, Komal Chautala, Vidya Sharma (c) Deepak, Komal Chautala, Vidya Sharma, Deevesh, Nethra Reddy, Preeti Sabharwal (d) Deepak, Barla, Komal Chautala, Bindia Naik, Vidya Sharma, Preeti Sabharwal (e) None of these

F.

COMPARISON TYPE QUESTIONS Direction: Five brands- Tata, Maruti, Honda, Hyundai and General Motors are to be rated. 1. Tata is rated higher than Maruti but rated lower than General Motors. 2. Honda is rated lowest.

3. Hyundai is rated higher than Maruti and little lower than Tata. 20. Which brand is rated the highest? (a) Tata (b) Maruti (c) Honda (d) Hyundai (e) General Motors 21. Which brand was rated in the middle? (a) Tata (b) Maruti (c) Honda (d) Hyundai (e) General Motors 22. Which brand is rated second? (a) Tata (b) Maruti (c) Honda (d) Hyundai (e) General Motors 23. Which brand is rated at the fourth place? (a) Tata (b) Maruti (c) Honda (d) Hyundai (e) General Motors


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Data Interpretation - II The following pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of the expenditure incurred in publishing a book. Study the pie-chart and the answer the questions based on it. Various Expenditures (in percentage)

1. If for a certain quantity of books, the publisher has to pay Rs. 30,600 as printing cost, then what will be amount of royalty to be paid for these books? (a) Rs. 19,450 (b) Rs. 21,200 (d) Rs. 22,950 (d) Rs. 26,150

3. The price of the book is marked 20% above the C.P. If the marked price of the book is Rs. 180, then what is the cost of the paper used in a single copy of the book? (a) Rs. 36 (b) Rs. 37.50 (c) Rs. 42 (d) Rs. 44.25

2. What is the central angle of the sector corresponding to the expenditure incurred on Royalty?

4. If 5500 copies are published and the transportation cost on them amounts to Rs. 82500, then what should be the selling price of the book so that the publisher can earn a profit of 25%? (a) Rs. 187.50 (b) Rs. 191.50 (c) Rs. 175.00 (d) Rs. 180.00

(a) 15º (c) 54º

(b) 24º (d) 48º


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LOGICAL REASONING CLASS ASSIGNMENT – 4 Data Sufficiency, Family Relations, Coding-Decoding, DI –III

Data sufficiency Direction for Q. 1-10: Each of the following consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give the answer. (a) Statement (I) alone is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient. (b) Statement (II) alone is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient. (c) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient. (d) Each statement alone is sufficient. (e) Both statements are insufficient. 1.

2.

At Delhi Metro Rail Corporation, the average age of an executive employee is 50 years and the average age of non-executive employee is 30 yrs. What is the average age of the employees at Delhi Metro Rail Corporation? (I) There are 100 executive employees. (II) The number of non-executive employees is 20 times the number of executive employees. Among five boys A, B, C, D, E who is the youngest? (I) D is younger to both A and C (II) B is elder to E but younger to D

3.

If Sanya’s age is exactly twice of Peter’s age, what is Sanya’s age? (I) Four years ago, Sanya’s age was exactly three times Peter’s age. (II) Eight years from now, Sanya’s age will be exactly 1.5 times Peter’s age.

4.

On a straight road, car X and Y are traveling at different constant rates. If car X is now 2 km ahead of car Y, how much time for now will car X be 4 km ahead of car Y?

(I) Car X is travelling at 45 km/hr and car Y is traveling at 30 km/hr (II) 6 minutes ago, car X was ½ km ahead of car Y. 5.

What are the values of X and Y (I) Y is an even integer, X is an odd integer and X is greater than Y (II) Product of X and Y is 30

6.

Is x<0? (I) −2𝑥 > 0 (II) 𝑥 3 < 0

7.

The symbol ∇ represents one of the following operations: addition, subtraction, multiplication, or division. What is the value of 3 ∇ 2? (I) 0 ∇ 1=1 (II) 1 ∇ 0=1

8.

How much did a certain telephone call cost? (I) The call lasted 53 minutes. (II) The cost for the first 3 minutes was 5 times the cost for each additional minute.

9.

If n is a positive integer; is 𝒏 odd? (I) 3𝑛 is odd (II) 𝑛 + 3 is even

10. A total of 9 women and 12 men reside in the 21 apartments that are in a certain apartment building, one person to each apartment. If a poll taker is to select one of the apartments at random, what is the probability that the resident of the apartment selected will be a woman who is a student? (I) Of the women, 4 are students. (II) Of the women, 5 are not students


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Family Relationship Type 1

Type 2

1.

X introduces Y saying, ‘he is the husband of the granddaughter of the father of my father’. How is Y related to X. (a) Husband (b) Brother (c) Brother in law (d) Data insufficient

2.

Deepak said to Nitin, “That boy playing the football is the younger of the two brothers of the daughter of my father’s wife”. How is the boy playing football related to Deepak? (a) Brother (b) Cousin (c) Brother in Law (d) data insufficient

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow: P & Q means P is the father of Q. P * Q means P is the sister of Q. P + Q means P is the brother of Q. P - Q means P is the mother of Q. P % Q means P is the son of Q. P = Q means P is the daughter of Q.

3.

Ravi introduced X as “X is the grandson of the paternal grandfather of my son’s son”. How is X related to Ravi? (a) Grandson (b) Some other distant relation (c) Neither a nor b (d) a or b

1.

Which of the following choices mean that X is the maternal uncle of Z? (a) X % Y – Z (b) X = Y % Z (c) X + Y – Z (d) X * Y + Z

2.

Which of the following means that X is the nephew of Z? (a) X – Y % Z (b) X + Y * Z (c) X % Y – Z (d) X % Y * Z

Coding- Decoding 1.

The code ‘TABLESTESF’ stands for the word ‘BELONGINGS’ how will you code the following: (1) LONG (2) ON (3) GIN (4) SONG (5) NO

2. If POSTED is coded as DETSOP, how will be word SPEED be coded? 3. KAPIL is coded as IFMXH, then PATHAN is coded as? 4. RETAISH is coded as 80, then how is OXFORD coded 5. If ‘tera mera sakba” means “lets enjoy school”, “jaisa mera waisa” means “enjoy before work”, “kuch is tera” means “school only sunday” then what does ‘sabka’ denote?


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Data Interpretation - III 1. Convert the following percentage into fraction (a) 12.5% - ______ (b) 37.5% - ______ (c) 67.5% - ______ (d) 16.67% ______ (e) 55.55% - _____ (f) 54.54% -______ (g) 09.09% - ______ (h) 90.90%- _____ (i) 3.125% -______ (j) 7.69230% -____ Refer to the table below and answer the questions that follow No. of students registered for JET 2010 Subject

1st year

Science History Maths Economics

20 30 40 50

2nd year 40 60 80 70

3rd year 80 120 160 100

2. No. of students registered for History for all the three years is less than the number of students registered for Maths for all the three years by (a) 12.5% (b) 17.5% (c) 25% (d)22.5% 3. The total registration fees collected from the students of 1st year for Science, History, Maths and economics is in the ratio 3:2:3:1. If the total registration fee collected is Rs 135000, then what is the registration fee for Economics (in Rs)? (a) 350 (b) 300 (c) 250 (d) 287.5 4. Assuming the data for Q3, what is the total registration fee collected for Maths in 1st year?

(a) 45000 (c) 50500

(b) 47500 (d) 50725

5. If maximum 40 students can sit in a room then what is the minimum number of classrooms required to run the classes effectively? (a) 25 (b) 24 (c) 22 (d) 23 Directions for Q6-Q9: The proportion of male students and the proportion of vegetarian students in a school are given below. The school has a total of 800 students, 80% of whom are in the secondary section and rest equally divided in class 11 and 12. JET 2011 Male Vegetarian Class 12 0.60 _____ Class 11 0.55 0.5 Secondary _____ 0.55 section Total 0.475 0.53 6. What percentage of male students are in the secondary section? (a) 40 (b) 45 (c) 50 (d) 55 7. What is the percentage of vegetarian students in class 12? (a) 60 (b) 55 (c) 50 (d) 40 8. In the secondary section, 50% of the male are vegetarian. Which of the following statements is correct? (a) Except vegetarian males, all other groups have same number of students (b) Except non-vegetarian males, all other groups have same number of students


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(c) Except vegetarian females, all other groups have same number of students (d) Except non-vegetarian females, all other groups have same number of students 9.

In class 12, 25% of the vegetarians are male. What is the difference between the number of female vegetarians and number of male non-vegetarians? (a) 16 (b) 14 (c) 12 (d) 10

Directions for Q10 to Q13: Answer the questions based on the following hypothetical information BMS 2013 Profile of Parliamentarians in year 20XX Lok Sabha Rajya Sabha Party Support UPA 371 155 supporters NDA Suporters 181 95 552 250 Gender Male 530 250 Female 22 0 Age (in years) Youngest 34 40 Oldest 84 89 Average 48 55 Religion Hindu 323 173 Muslim 136 30 Sikhs 23 13 Christian 5 8 Others 65 26

Profession Lawyer Businessman

Lok Sabha

Rajya sabha

273 103

157 38

Educator Farmer Scientist Doctors Unskilled Social Workers Govt. Officials Others Nominated Anglo-Indian Experts

57 18 0 3 8 30 28 32

15 15 5 0 0 10 0 10

2 0

0 12

10. In the Rajya Sabha, if 28 Hindu members were replaced by 28 Christian members, the approx. ratio of Hindu members to Christian members would be (a) 4:1 (b) 5:1 (c) 3:2 (d) 9:2 11. If 18 members of Rajya Sabha are Muslim supporting UPA, how many members of Rajya Sabha are neither Muslim nor supporters of UPA? (a) 95 (b) 167 (c) 83 (d) 65 12. Approximately what percentage of the members of Parliament are lawyers? (a) 49% (b) 54% (c) 63% (d) 56% 13. Which of the following can be inferred from the information given in the Table? (I) The percent of members who are Educators is greater for the Rajya Sabha than for the Lok sabha (II) More than 2/3rd of men in Parliament are members of Lok Sabha (a) I only (b) II only (c) both I and II (d) None of these


Page 43

LOGICAL REASONING CLASS ASSIGNMENT – 5 Miscellaneous Reasoning, Calendars, Cubes, Clocks

Direction Test 1.

2.

A starts from his office and walks 3 km towards north. He then turns right and walks 2 km and then turns right and walks 5 km. He then turns right and walks 2 km and then again turns right and walks 2 km. In which direction is he from the starting point? (a) South (b) North-east (c) South-east (d) he is at the starting point (e) None of these

anticlockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now? (a) North (b) East (c) North-East (d) North-West (e) None of these 3.

A man is facing north. He turns 45° in the clockwise direction and then 90° in the

Anurag travels 20 km to the north, turns left and travels 8 km and then again turns right and covers another 10 km and then turns right and travels another 8 km. How far is he from the starting point? (a) 8 km (b) 40 km (c) 30 km (d) 20 km (e) None of these

Nonverbal Reasoning From the given options 1, 2, 3, 4, & 5, find the option that best completes the given sequence logically.

1. A

B

C

D

E

1

2

3

4

5

2.


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Input / Output Direction for Q 1 to 4: Observe the given pattern and solve the following questions. Input: go now 53 39 18 for again 66 Step 1: 66 go now 53 39 18 for again Step 2: 66 again go now 53 39 18 for Step 3: 66 again 53 go now 39 18 for Step 4: 66 again 53 for go now 39 18 Step 5: 66 again 53 for 39 go now 18 Step 6: 66 again 53 for 39 go now 18 Step 7: 66 again 53 for 39 go 18 now Output: 66 again 53 for 39 go 18 now

1. Input: trees 18 27 desk are 91 hour zero 31 16 chairs. Which of the following will be step 4? (a) 91 are 31 trees 18 27 desk hour zero 16 chairs (b) 91 trees 18 27 desk are hour zero 31 16 chairs (c) 91 are 31 chairs trees 18 27 desk hour zero 16 (d) 91 are 31 chairs 27 desk 18 trees hour zero 16 (e) None of these

2. Step 2 of an input is: 94 car 86 window shut 52 31 house Which of the following is definitely the input? (a) 94 car window 86 shut 52 31 house (c) car shut window 86 52 31 house 94

(b) 86 window 94 car shut 52 31 house (d) Cannot be determined

3. Input: show 51 37 now for 82 49 goot Which of the following steps will be the last but one? (a) Step 7 (b) Step 8 (c) Step 6

(d) Step 5

4. Step 4 of an input is: 58 box 47 dew 15 21 town pot Which of the steps will be the last? (a) Step 7 (b) Step 6

(c) Step 8

(d) Step 9

Direction for Q 5 to 7: A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two-digit numbers.) Input: tall 48 13 rise alt 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn Step I: 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 bam alt Step II: 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 56 alt barn Step III: 32 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 wise jar 56 alt barn high


Page 45

Step IV: 48 32 28 13 tall rise 99 76 wise 56 alt barn high jar Step V: 56 48 32 28 13 tall 99 76 wise alt barn high jar rise Step VI: 76 56 48 32 28 13 99 wise alt barn high jar rise tall Step VII: 99 76 56 48 32 28 13 alt barn high jar rise tall wise And Step VII is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input. Input: 84 why sit 14 32 not best ink feet 51 27 vain 68 92 5. Which step number is the following output? 32 27 14 84 why sit not 51 vain 92 68 feet best ink (a) Step V (b) Step VI (c) Step IV (e) There is no such step. 6. Which word/number would be at 5th position from the right in Step V? (a) 14 (b) 92 (c) feet (e) why

(d) Step III

(d) best

7. How many elements (words or numbers) are there between 'feet' and '32' as they appear in the last step of the output? (a) One (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five

Cubes 1. A solid cube is painted Red on all sides, and is then cut into 1000 identical smaller cubes (a) What is the minimum number of cuts required to do so? (b) How many of the smaller cubes have their three sides painted (c) How many of the smaller cubes have their two sides painted (d) How many of the smaller cubes have their one sides painted (e) How many of the smaller cubes have their no side painted

Calendars 1.

What was the day on 19th July 2001?

2.

If 3rd October, 2013 was Monday, then what will be the day on: (a) 3rd October 2031 (b) 3rd October 1991


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Clocks 1. What is the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of an analog clock at 4:35 pm?

2. There are two digital clocks. One is two minutes faster than the other one. If both the clocks show the same time at 12:00 PM today, when will they show the same time together again for the first time?


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VERBAL ABILITY CLASS ASSIGNMENT - 1 Subject-Verb Agreement, Phrasal Verbs, Vocabulary

Subject Verb Agreement DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 5: Identify the errors in each sentence and correct them. If there is no error, then write 'no error'. 1. I and you are going to enjoy this outing. 2. Either of these roads leads to the theatre. 3. She sent word that she would be arriving soon. 4. The minister as well as his team are arriving tomorrow. 5. Fourteen rupees are a large sum for the migrant worker. DIRECTIONS for questions 6 to 12: Fill in the blanks with the proper form of verb. 1. Bread and butter ____________ his favourite food. (are, is) 2. French, as well as German, ____________ taught in the institute. (was, were) 3. There ____________ neither food nor water in the house. (were, was) 4. Politics ____________ always discussed during his lecture. (is, are) 5. The cattle ____________ grazing in the meadow till late evening. (was, were) 6. Neither of my children ____________ to school.(go, goes) 7. Neither Ram nor his parents ____________ present in the party. (was, were)

Phrasal Verbs Directions for questions 1 to 5: Fill in the blank with the appropriate option 1. Please ____________ a card from the box that is before you. (a) pick on (b) pick out

4. The machine is ____________ the needs of share brokers and their clients. (a) adapted to (b) adapted for 5. One can ____________ from the paragraph That birds are further categorized into various types of species (a) infer (b) imply Directions for questions 1 to 5: Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate set of words from the options. 1. The __________ policies of the new government seem to throw the economy of the country ____________. (a) backward, backwards (b) backwards, backward 2. Did the manager resort to ____________ ways in order to ____________ such statements from his secretary? (a) illicit, elicit (b) elicit, illicit 3. I have an idea that the employees ____________ the developments in the ____________ appraisal criteria. (a) recent, resent (b) resent, recent 4. The ____________ forecast will tell us ____________ to step out of the house today or not. (a) whether, weather (b) weather, whether 5. The ____________ forbids everyone from climbing the ____________. (a) statue, statute (b) statute, statue

2. Why are you ____________ your food? Aren’t you hungry? (a) picking at (b) picking up 3. If you are yet to think of an excuse, you are ____ (a) done for (b) done in

Verbal Ability Class Assignment - 1

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VOCABULARY Words

Definitions

Aspire (v):

To strive for a goal; to want or desire something excellent or far beyond the current state. Having two sides Honesty or straightforwardness, especially being honest about something unpleasant. To cheat; to gain something dishonestly, as through a lie, deception, or confidence game. A god or goddess. To escape from someone or something giving chase or searching; especially to use clever tactics to escape from pursuers. A permanency; a person or thing remaining fixed, in the same position. The character or style of a person’s writing by hand; cursive writing. Chaos or large-scale destruction. To drink a liquid; to absorb or take in something. A joint or seam, where two parts meet. In a plant, a grain or seed; often edible and found inside the plant The act of falling from a righteous or just position; a slight or temporary moral failure. A disease, illness, or medical condition, especially a serious or chronic condition. Many; a large number; countless. To make something necessary. To lay or be enclosed comfortably; to snuggle. To destroy; to break down into nothing; to eliminate. To break something down into its parts in order to explain or understand it; especially to break apart a sentence into words and phrases, describing each part. A line; a group of people waiting in order. Extremely hungry; filled with hunger that cannot be satisfied. To sink a ship by creating a hole or holes in the ship beneath the water line; also to destroy or wreck. A government ruled by the leaders of a religion or by the power of a god or gods. A world beneath or below the normal world, especially a criminal world such as mafia society or a world of the dead such as Hades. To move uncomfortably; to twist around, especially to express pain

Bilateral (adj) Candor (n): Defraud (v) Deity (n) Elude (v) Fixture (n) Handwriting (n) Havoc (n) Imbibe (v) Juncture (n) Kernel (n) Lapse (n) Malady (n) Myriad (n) Necessitate (v) Nestle (v) Obliterate (v) Parse (v)

Queue (n) Ravenous (adj) Scuttle (v) Thearchy (n) Underworld (n) Writhe (v)

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

SYNONYMS In the blank space, write the word from the list above that means the same (about the same) as the word given. Squirm ____________ Starving ____________ Demolish ____________ Countless `____________ Convergence ____________

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Directness Realize Require Devastation Nether Region


____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ ____________

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1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

ANTONYMS In the space provided, write the word from the list above that means opposite of the word given. Float ___________ One-Sided ___________ Confront ___________ Mortal ___________ Steadfastness ___________

ANALOGIES: Choose the word from the list that best completes the analogy, creating the same relationship between the second set of words as exists between the first set of words. 1. store: shop ::________: wait 2. hallucination: unreal ::_______: unmoving 3. processor : computer ::______: plant 4. courageous : cowardly ::______: few 5. relax : bath ::_______: blanket 6. monarchy : king ::_______: deity 7. burn : log ::_______: vessel 8. lie : recant ::______: repay 9. infestation : exterminate ::______: cure 10. dissect : animal ::______: sentence

1.

FILL IN THE BLANKS: In the space provided, write the word from the list above that best completes each given sentence. After awakening from hibernation, a bear is _________________ for food.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Printing Heaven Drift Health Expel

___________ ___________ ___________ ___________ ___________

7.

Milton’s Paradise Lost portrays Heaven as a true______________, ruled by God.

8.

Car accidents _____________notifying the state Department of Motor Vehicles.

9.

_____________ talks between the two warring factions did not result in compromise.

10. Criminals ______________ unsuspecting consumers by stealing their online passwords. 11. Kittens _______________ against their mother for comfort and warmth. 12. For some reason, I cannot _________ that sentence correctly; what are you trying to say? 13. To _______________ the medicine was unpleasant, but the patient dutifully drank the mixture.

2.

The patient was relieved to hear that her _____________ was not serious.

14. All my children ______________ to great things; one wants to be president, another a lawyer, and the third a teacher.

3.

The store owner wanted to ________________ the memory of the robbery from her mind.

15. The puppy wreaked ___________ on our living room, tearing up all the furniture.

4.

The man’s date was offended by his ________________ in saying she was not beautiful.

5.

Because of her shaky hands, the woman’s ______________ was difficult to read.

6.

The ship was obsolete, so the navy decided to ________________it.


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VERBAL ABILITY CLASS ASSIGNMENT - 2 Parallelism, Tenses, Vocabulary (c) A and B (e) None of these

Parallelism A.

Directions for questions 1 to 5: Identify the INCORRECT sentence or sentences.

1. A. I am very fond of my dog, my cat and my canary. B. I am very fond of my dog, cat and canary. C. I am only fond of my dog but not of my cat or my canary. D. I am only fond of my dog but not of my cat nor my canary. E. I am neither fond of my dog, nor of my cat or canary. (a) A and C (b) B and E (c) C and D (d) A and B (e) D and E 2. A. Not only has the Director impressed the workers, but has motivated them. B. The Director has impressed the board with his inspiring speeches that have improved employee morale. C. If the Director has made a good impression on the workers, then he has succeeded in motivating them as well. D. The workers were motivated and the Directors of the company were impressed with their hard-work. E. The board has been impressed by the Director as he has singlehandedly motivated the workers. (a) A only (b) B and D (c) C only (d) D only (e) None of these. 3. A. You can play neither indoors nor outdoors. B. You can play either indoors or outdoors. C. Being able to play outdoors is more important than playing indoors. D. To be able to play indoors is only a substitute for playing outdoors. E. Playing indoors is vastly preferred to playing outdoors. (a) C only (b) D and E

(d) E only

4. A. Caffeine in coffee has been attributed to quicken the aging process and increasing the risk of cancer. B. He always is in a hurry and often forgets his keys and wallet. C. The power station provides electricity to around one million people, and is situated on the outskirts of the township. D. The boy played with his blocks, his toy cars and crayons. E. The creek begins the drop by falling down a 20 feet cascade, then impacts a large, egg-shaped dome and spreads into a wide fan, dropping 400 feet. (a) A, C and D (b) B, C and D (c) A, B and D (d) C only (e) C, D and E B. 1. 2. 3.

Identify the error(s) in the given sentences It was both a long journey and very tiring. I enjoy swimming, running and to jog. The revamping of the office is neither simple not it will be cheap. 4. When I was in London, I learned piano and how to play the guitar. 5. Father supports my view because, first, its simplicity and second, it is unique. 6. We were either asked to change our flight or to take a train. 7. One cannot always be worried or terrified of the difficulties in life. 8. The manager taught his client how to stand, how to cry and how talk with fans. 9. I like to officiate basketball than playing basketball. 10. Clara likes singing carols and to play the mandolin.

Tenses A. 1. 2. 3.

Choose the correct verb form from those given in brackets. He (has, is having) a house in Bombay. I shall meet you when he (comes, will come) back. It started raining while we (played, were playing) football.


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4.

Can I have some milk before I (go, am going) to bed? 5. He (fell, had fallen) asleep while he was driving. 6. I am sure I (met, had met) him at the station yesterday. 7. He (is living, has been living) in this house (since, for) ten years. 8. He thanked me for what I (have done, had done) for him. 9. If you (start, started) at once, you will reach there by this evening. 10. He (went, has gone) out five minutes ago. B.

Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the verb in any aspect of the past tense. Eric and Ilsa are brother and sister. They (grow) _______ (1) up together in the city that used to be known as West Berlin, in the former West Germany. Eric (move) _______ (2) to the United States decades ago, before the eastern and western parts of both Berlin and Germany were reunited in 1990.Ilsa and her family (visit) ________ (3) Eric and his family last year. llsa's Family (fly) __________ (4) from Berlin to Detroit for the visit. Although the children (never, meet) _______ (5) before, except

through e-mail, the families (have) __________ (6) a great time together. Every day for a week, the adults and the children (play) _____ (7), talking, and eating together. One day, they (cook) _______ (8) some German recipes that (be) _______ (9) in the family for generations. For years, Ilsa (save) ____ (10) them and treasuring them in a box their mother (give) _______ (11) her just before she (die) _______ (12). One of their mother's favorites (be) ________ (13) a dessert called Apple Kuchen. One night after everyone else (already, go) ________ (14) to bed, Eric and Ilsa (quietly, sit) ________(15) and talking. "What have you (miss) ___________ (16) most about Berlin?" Ilsa wanted to know. Eric (pause) __________ (17), then answered, "Mostly, I miss living in a city with such wonderful landmarks. The kids and I (look) _________ (18) at some books about Berlin and Germany for a while before you and your family (arrive) __________ (19). We (discuss) _________ (20) the Brandenburg Gate when Franz interrupted to ask why its image (use) _________ (21) as a design on some of the coins back when Germany had converted its money to euros."

REVISION OF PRACTICE TEST BOOK -1 Mark the Synonyms of the words in Capital 1. DETRACT (a) Borrow (b) Diminish (c) Dampen (d) Ruin 2.

3.

4.

5.

PROLOGUE (a) Event (c) Preface TRIMMING (a) Skimming (c) Planning DISPARITY (a) Disseminate (c) Discord

6.

He tried to CAJOLE her, but it was in vain. (a) Rejoice (b) Inspire (c) Enjoin (d) Coax

7.

CONSTERNATION (a) Group of stars (c) Large display

(b) Humble service (d) Great amazement

COVERT (a) Patent (c) Ditch

(b) Secret (d) Greedy

TRIVIAL (a) Crucial (c) Vital

(b) Significant (d) Ordinary

10. POMPOUS (a) Pretentious (c) Demanding

(b) Supportive (d) Flashy

(b) Index (d) Caption 8. (b) Arranging (d) Cutting 9. (b) Difference (d) Difficult

On account of the PAUCITY of the funds plan remained incomplete, (a) Lack (b) Scarcity (c) Abundance (d) Excess


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VOCABULARY REVISION OF CLASS ASSIGNMENT-1 Write the Synonyms 1. Aspire 2. Bilateral 3. Candor 4. Defraud 5. Deity 6. Elude 7. Fixture 8. Handwriting 9. Havoc 10. Imbibe 11. Juncture 12. Kernel 13. Lapse 14. Malady 15. Myriad

______________ ______________ ______________ ______________ ______________ ______________ ______________ ______________ ______________ ______________ ______________ ______________ ______________ ______________ ______________

4.

______________: to break something down into its parts in order to explain or understand it. 5 ______________: a group of people waiting in order 6. ______________: filled with hunger that cannot be satisfied 7. ___________: to sink a ship by creating a hole or holes in the ship beneath the water line 8. ____________:a government ruled by the leaders of a religion or by the power of a god or gods 9. ______________: a world beneath or below the normal world, especially a criminal world such as mafia society or a world of the dead such as Hades 10. ______________ to move uncomfortably; to twist around, especially to express pain

Fill in the blanks 1. ______________: to make something necessary. 2. _____________: to lay or be enclosed comfortably. 3. ________:to break down into nothing.

1.

Greek and Latin Roots Exercise: Circle the correct meaning of the italicized and underlined word(s) in each sentence. The Latin root am means love. An amiable person is (a) Talkative (b) Truthful (c) Well educated (d) Friendly, good natured

(c) Illogical. (d) One that blames others. 4.

The Latin root qui means quiet. A QUIESCENT place is (a) Very isolated. (b) Very chaotic. (c) Very dangerous (d) Very still and restful

2.

The Latin root plac means to please. A complacent person is one who (a) Makes frequent mistakes (b) Is argumentative (c) Is self-satisfied (d) Is known to tell frequent lies

5.

The Latin root loc/loq/loqu means word, speech. Something that is ELOQUENT is (a) Dull and trite (b) Expressed in an effective way (c) Very old-fashioned (d) Equally divided into parts

3.

The Latin root luc/lum/lus means light. A LUCID argument is (a) Very clear and understandable. (b) Loosely held together.

6.

The Greek root auto means self. To have AUTONOMY means to (a) Have a lot of money (b) Be independent (c) Have courage (d) Have strong opinions


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3. 7.

8.

9.

The Greek root pas/pat/path means feeling, suffering, disease. To have EMPATHY is to (a) Give to others. (b) Have a love for others. (c) Identify with the feelings of others. (d) Be similar to others. The Greek root pseudo means false, fake. The root nom/nym means name. A PSEUDONYM is (a) A false name. (b) An ancient god or deity. (c) A harsh sound. (d) A long and boring speech.

One from Many Read the clues. The LATIN / GREEK root is hidden within the clues. Look for the word parts that are the same in the BOLDFACE words. 1.

all the people born around the same time. To generate means to produce. You are the progeny of your parents. Greek root for birth or race: _ _ _ 4.

Latin root for mother. Maternal means related to

Greek root for life. A biography is the story of a person’s life. An autobiography is the story of the writer’s life. Biology is the science of living things. Greek root for life: _ _ _

5.

Latin root for see or look. A spectator is a member of an audience. A spectacle is something to see.

The Greek root dog/dox means opinion. The suffix -ic means having the quality of. A person who is DOGMATIC is (a) Not in touch with reality (b) Intolerant of other opinions (c) One who asserts opinions in an arrogant way (d) Secretive and ungenerous

10. The Greek root phil means love and the root anthro/andro means human. PHILANTHROPY is (a) The love of humankind (b) A preference for something in particular (c) Using force to control others (d) Spreading unkind rumors

Greek root meaning birth or race. A generation is

To inspect is to look carefully. Latin root for see or look: _ _ _ _

For each sentence, below, the Greek/ Latin root and meaning are provided. The sentences use a variation of the root word. Fill in the blanks from the word bank for each sentence. 1.

Verto = turn

a.

Create a(n)_____ so the teacher doesn’t see my surprise! The old man ____ to his former ways and began smoking again. The quiet student is a(n) ____; he never speaks to anyone. The Chevy ____ drove in the rain with the top down. I have a(n) ___ to insects; I stay away from them.

b. c. d. e.

motherhood, kind, caring, in a protective, Aversion, Diversion

motherly way. Maternity means the condition of

Introvert,

Reverted,

Convertible,

being a mother. Your alma mater is a school you graduated from. Latin root for mother: _ _ _ _ _ 2.

Latin root for water. An aquarium is a water tank for fish. Aqua and aquamarine are two watery blue colors. Aquarius is the sign of the Zodiac pictured as a man pouring water. Latin root for water: _ _ _ _

2.

Scio = know

a.

His ____ wouldn’t let him lie; he confessed about the crime. In ____, we are studying biology, electricity, and cells. The worker was ____ after his fall from the tower. People say dreams are thoughts we have in our ____minds. Theater goers should be ___ and throw away their trash in the appropriate receptacles.

b. c. d. e.


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Activate, Unconscious, Conscience, Conscientious, Science, Subconscious

Fill in the blank with the root word that completes the sentence.

3.

Phobos = fear

Canto, Culpa, Genus, Jungo, Porto, Scio, Sophos, Totus, Tractum,

a. b.

If you are afraid of something, you have a(n) ___. Locked in a closet as a child, she has fear of close spaces, ___. The boy was afraid of anyone from other countries; he’s a(n)___. A fear of open spaces, such as golf courses, is called ___. She has an aversion to water; this is called____.

c. d. e.

Agoraphobia, Hydrophobia, Xenophobe, Phobia, Claustrophobia Caput = head

a.

He is the ___ of the ship; In charge of everyone here. We are not supposed to wear baseball _____in school. The head of government for a state is located in the city that is the_____. The heading of a chapter, newspaper, or picture is called the ____. A tax levied per head, or a fee for each individual, is called ____.

c. d. e.

The root word that means “carry” is: ______.

b.

“Drawn or pulled” is the meaning of the root word: ____.

c.

If someone wants to discuss blame or guilt, they need the root word: ____.

d.

The root word that means “wise” is: ___.

e.

This word means “know” and has many words referring to the mind: ____.

4.

b.

a.

f.

A choir might perform for an audience using this root word: ____.

g.

If we talk about the kind or origin of something, the word we need is: _________.

h.

The word that means “join” is: ____.

Capitation , Capital, Caps, Captain, Caption

5.

Acta = things done

a.

What was your ____ to the movie we saw in history? The Supreme Court took ___in the Brown Boardcase. The drivers created a(n)_____of the crash. The woman deposited her money into vault, completing the ___. She could not __ her credit card until she called it in.

b. c. d. e.

Reaction,

Reenactment,

Transaction,

Action,


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VERBAL ABILITY CLASS ASSIGNMENT - 3 Sentence Correction, Para Jumbles, Vocabulary

Sentence Correction Direction: Each of the questions consists of a certain number of sentences. Some sentences are grammatically incorrect or inappropriate. Select the option that indicates the grammatically incorrect or inappropriate sentence(s). 1 A. B. C. D.

2 A. B. C. D. E.

It is a perfect plan to execute. Jane looks good. A conical old Ming vase was on the table. It is terribly hot during the day. E. The cat smells badly. (a) C and E (b) B, C and D (c) B, C and E (d) A and C (e) C only The CEO spoke out surely. She plays hockey good. Jack entered the bar deadly drunk. A snake slithered past our tent. John always spoke to her kindly. (a) A and B (b) B, C and D (c) B and C (d) C, D and E

(e) C and D

3. A. They signed the oath in blood. B. His writings offer a radical point of view on the origin of ancient cultural rituals and traditions play prime roles. C. The criminal must go on trial for what he has done. D. I got the job because I had the necessary experience. E. He was educated at a local high school. (a) E only (b) C and D (c) B and C (d) A only (e) B only 4. A. He was a fiction writer who liked to dabble in mythology. B. It is often difficult to speak with foreigners in their mother tongue. C. It made me angry to have to listen to such lies. D. The antidote must be administered two times in a day. E. I was angered by their constant interruptions. (a) A and E (b) C and E (c) B only (d) D only (e) B and D

B. The economy is based on tourism, food industry, agriculture and on trading and harbour activities. C. It is the more colourful and wealthy district of the city threaded by narrow lanes and its economy centres around the tourist industry. D. It is the capital of the new democratic country and historically it was an important city as it was here that the treaty was signed. E. Less than two minutes had elapsed since departing the dock. (a) A and C (b) B and E (c) B and C (d) B only (e) A, D and E 6. A I am probably the world’s worst cook. B I am fine when it comes to appreciating this cuisines of great chefs but, left to myself, I couldn’t even fry an egg. C It is not that I don’t know how to do all this. D I can tell you how a kakori kabab is made, how the flavor of a coq au vin is directly related to the wine you should use. (a) A only (b) B only (c) B and D (d) C only (e) No Error 7. A “I just read in a news magazine that TV comprise 67 percent of the Indian entertainment industry”. B Films and other things comprise the other 23 percent. C Finally, television is at par with film industry. D A TV actor is a bonafide star now and TV is not a poor cousin of Bollywood anymore. (a) A and C (b) B only (c) A, B and C (d) A and D (e) C only 8. A A print design project communicates a message. B Contrast is a good way to create a noticeable design and layout. C Contrast can be size, color, direction, format or the expected versus the unexpected. D Size contrast can involve graphics or type. (a) B (b) B and C (c) C (d) A, B and C (e) A and C

5. A. The busiest air route from the airport in terms of passengers is Mumbai airport. Verbal Ability Class Assignment - 3

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Para jumbles Direction: Each question consists of a number of sentences that need to be properly sequenced, to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph/sentences. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the choices given below. 1 I. II. III. IV. V. VI.

2 I. II. III. IV. V.

knowledge, even when it is exact because we tend to forget what we know if we do not pay attention forget how to process it properly does not often lead to appropriate actions even when we are experts (a) I, V, II, IV, III, VI (b) I, V, III, IV, II, VI (c) VI, V, II, I, III, IV (d) III, VI, I, II, V, IV in the classroom once they are let out on streets statisticians, it has been shown and engage in most trivial inferential errors tend to leave their brains (a) III, V, I, IV, II (b) II, III, V, I, IV (c) I, V, II, III, IV (d) III, I, V, IV, II

3. I. II. III. IV. V.

sure enough failed I have tested myself and by carefully setting a wide range even while consciously trying to be humble as we will see the core of my professional activities VI. and yet such underestimation happens to be (a) I, II, V, III, IV, VI (b) IV, II, I, III, V, VI (c) V, II, I, IV, III, VI (d) II, I, IV, III, VI, V 4. I. except that people got all excited II. so I would not have cared III. and talked quite a bit about IV. the least about them V. pouring verbal sauce around the forecasts VI. at these figures were going to mean (a) I, II, IV, V, III, VI (b) I, III, II, IV, V, VI (c) II, IV, I, III, VI, V (d) V, II, IV, VI, I, III Direction: A number of sentences are given below, which when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the choice given to construct a coherent paragraph.

C. Have you ever seen a play or motion picture that was so charming that you felt sheer delight as you watched? D. I have not spoken of books that grip you emotionally, of plays and movies that keep you on the edge of your seat in surprise, or of food that satisfies a ravenous hunger. E. Or perhaps you have had a portion of pumpkin pie, light and airy and mildly flavoured, and with a flaky, delicious crust, that was the last word in gustatory enjoyment? (a) AECDB (b) CEBDA (c) DBACE (d) ACEBD 2. A. The rapid pace of developments is probably a strong answer to the rival National Cricket league challenging its supremacy over cricket in the country. B. And that seems to be the strategy for success for the BCI, especially with cricket lovers moving towards the faster version of the game. C. Already the board has signed up thirty international cricketers and has already invited bids for the teams. D. The board is busy signing up players for its new cricket league as if there is no tomorrow. (a) DABC (b) BACD (c) DBCA (d) ADBC (e) DBAC 3. A. He believed that honesty is the best policy. B. He would otherwise be forced to resign from his position, which he could not afford. C. However, the situation demanded that he bend the rules according to the wish of his boss. D. He was facing a great dilemma and could not decide what should be done. (a) ADCB (b) DBAC (c) ACBD (d) DACB (e) BCAD 4. A. You can’t miss a huge blue sign displayed near the exit. B. “Beware!” it announces in bold red lettering as you start thinking where you have reached. C. As soon as you land at the new Mumbai airport and enter the terminal, you feel like you can get lost in the crowd. D. “Do not leave your baggage unattended. Watch out for pickpockets” says the fine print. E. You stop and read to find out more. (a) CABDE (b) BCADE (c) ABCED (d) CBAED (e) CABED

1. A. Have you ever gone through a book that was so good you kept hugging yourself mentally as you read? B. Now, notice the examples I have used Verbal Ability Class Assignment - 3

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REVISION TEST OF PRACTICE TEST BOOK - 2 Mark the synonyms of the following words (b) Sorrowful (d) Laborious

6. PERDITION (a) Firmness (c) Damnation

(b) Bounty (d) Objection

2. DOLOROUS (a) Sorrowful (c) Sacred

(b) Financial (d) Parsimonious

7. TARDY (a) Casual (c) Late

(b) Pliable (d) Favourable

3. DOWDY (a) Corpulent (c) Elegant

(b) Rakish (d) Unstylish

8. MAMMOTH (a) Straight (c) Wild

(b) Huge (d) Greedy

(b) Prohibition (d) Surety

9. EULOGY (a) Apology (c) Speech

(b) Address (d) Praise

1. CUMBERSOME (a) Heavy (c) Unwieldy

4. INSURRECTION (a) Blessing (c) Uprising 5. ERR (a) Hasten (c) Despise

(b) Scrawl (d) Be wrong

10. ORDERLY (a) Semitic (c) Democratic

(b) Colic (d) Chaotic

VOCABULARY REVISION OF CLASS ASSIGNMENT - 2 Fill in the blanks with correct words: 1. Lucid ______________ 2. Eloquent ______________ 3. Progeny ______________ 4. Reverted ______________ 5. Agoraphobia ______________ 6. Capitation ______________

7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.

Scio Caput Canto Genus Ravenous Nestle

______________ ______________ ______________ ______________ ______________ ______________

Abdicate (v) Affectation (n)

To decline or reject a powerful position, such as a kingship An exaggerated or deliberate mannerism

Arbitrary (adj) Beseech (v)

Done or chosen without a reason; random To beg or plead

Censorious (adj) Consensus (n)

Finding fault; judging harshly An opinion that is agreed upon by all members of a group of people Verbal Ability Class Assignment - 3

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Cudgel (n) Despite (prep)

A short, thick blunt weapon; a club In spite of

Effrontery (n) Fealty (n) Hesitant (adj)

oldness; audacity Loyalty; fidelity Lacking decisiveness; uncertain or unwilling to make a decision

Inaudible (adj) Lithe (adj)

Unable to be heard Moving or bending easily; graceful and fluid in motion, supple

Metamorphosis (n)

A change in form or shape, often from one stage of development to another, as a caterpillar turning into a butterfly

Nocturnal (adj)

Belonging to, occurring in, or related to the night time

Opulence (n)

Riches or affluence, especially as shown by expensive or ostentatious possessions or lifestyle

Partition (n) Phonetic (adj)

Something which separates two parts or areas Of, relating to, or representing the sounds of speech

Prolong (v) Reckless (adj)

To make something last longer; to extend a period of time Careless or unwise; unheeding of danger

Rigor (n) Somnolent (adj)

A harsh or stern rigidity; unyielding Drowsy or inclined to sleep

Tenacious (adj) Umbrage (n) Veto (n)

Stubborn; holding fast to a belief or goal Resentment based on a feeling of having been injured A vote that blocks a decision, the order or right to prohibit

SYNONYMS: In the blank space, write the word from the list above that means the same (about the same) as the word given. 1. Offense ____________ 2. Allegiance ____________ 3. Pretension ____________ 4. Divider ____________ 5. Persistent ____________ 6. Judgmental ____________ 7. Sleepy ____________ 8. Accord ____________ 9. Transformation ____________ 10. Implore ____________

ANTONYMS: In the space provided, write the word from the list above that means opposite of the word given. 1. Cautious ____________ 2. Wakeful ____________ 3. Timidity ____________ 4. Purposeful ____________ 5. Flexibility ____________ 6. Awkward ____________ 7. Disagreement ____________ 8. Poverty ____________ 9. Shorten ____________ 10. Certain ____________

ANALOGIES: Choose the word from the list that best completes the analogy, creating the same relationship between the second set of words as exists between the first set of words.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

invisible : see :: : hear resign : job :: : throne molecular : matter :: : speech exclaim : tell :: : ask pistol : shot :: : blow


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6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

diurnal : sun :: : moon stretch : space :: : time into : out of :: : because of rejection : application :: : law spendthrift : poverty :: : danger

In the space provided, write the word from the list above that best completes each given sentence. 1. His ________________ of raising one eyebrow to express disdain was pretentious. 2.

The committee could not come to a ________________ about which offer to choose; there were three members who disagreed with the majority.

3.

Because of her __________ in upholding the rules, the students thought she was cruel.

4.

The victim was hit over the head with a blunt object, like a _______________.

5.

Many schools use a ___________ method to teach young children to read, by teaching what sounds letters or combinations of letters represent.

6.

The president may ___________ a bill, but congress can still pass it if there is enough support.

7.

In order to ______________ their interview, he thought of as many things to talk about as he could.

8.

She considered it _______________ for the young man to ask her age.

9.

The _______________of a caterpillar into a butterfly takes place inside a cocoon.

12. The little girl continued to ________ her mother to buy her a pony. 13. The ________________ dancer gracefully complete even the complicated movements.

could most

14. Josh's parents' ______________ attitude made him miserable; they were always criticizing him! 15. The music was practically _____________because he had the volume on its lowest setting.

10. He was _________ in trying to get the street renamed; he just wouldn't give up. 11. The _______________ of the palace was amazing to her; she had never seen such wealth before.


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VERBAL ABILITY CLASS ASSIGNMENT - 4 Critical Reasoning, Implicit Statement, Statement Conclusion, Strong & Weak Argument

Critical Reasoning Directions: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Virtually all health experts agree that secondhand smoke poses a serious health risk. After the publication of yet another research paper explicating the link between exposure to secondhand smoke and a shorter life span, some members of the State House of Representatives proposed a ban on smoking in most public places in an attempt to promote quality of life and length of lifespan. 1. Which of the following, if true, provides the most support for the actions of the State Representatives? (A) The amount of damaging chemicals and fumes released into the air by cigarette smoke is far less than the amount released from automobiles, especially from older models. (B) Banning smoking in most public places will not considerably reduce the percent of the population in the state in question that smokes. (C) The state whose legislators are proposing the tough smoking legislation has a relatively high percent of its population that smoke. (D) Another state that enacted a similar law a decade ago saw a statistically significant drop in lung cancer rates among non-smokers.

(C) The study was only conducted in one city. (D) The participants in the study who ate beets were more likely to exercise regularly than those who did not eat beets. Directions: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Automation, the trademark of a modern economy, is essential to maximizing a country's economic production while minimizing its costs. Health care executive want to increase revenues while reducing costs. Consequently, they propose significantly greater automation of health care. Yet, this should be rejected. Radical automation of health care would cause patients to lose trust in the system as the health care they would receive would lack the in-person care that studies show patients desire. 3. Which of the following expresses the main point of the argument? (A) Health care should not be heavily automated (B) Patients desire customized in-person care (C) Trends in the general economy do not apply to the health care industry (D) Health care executives are becoming too greedy

Eating beets significantly lowers the risk of cancer, according to an article in a nutritional magazine. The article refers to a study that found that people who consumed one or more beets per day were half as likely to be diagnosed with the disease as people who did not.

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. E-businesses are starting to gradually take over traditional "bricks-and-mortar" businesses. Last year, companies listed on the NASDAQ, a stock exchange index for new technological companies, rose on average twice as fast as the fastest-rising stocks listed on the Dow Jones index.

2. Which of the following, if true, most weakens the argument in the magazine article? (A) Another study found that people who consumed one tablespoon of flax seed oil per day were more than four times less likely to be diagnosed with cancer as those who did not. (B) Participants in the study reported consuming no vegetables other than beets.

4. The argument about e-businesses would be strengthened the most by which of the following? (A) A report by a financial expert stating that share prices are set to rise in the future. (B) An end-of-year statement by a company listed on the NASDAQ announcing record profits for the past year.


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(C) An article in the Financial Times indicating that a larger proportion of traditional firms (that is, non e-business firms) have gone bankrupt than new e-businesses. (D) A novel by a company director about an ebusiness that ends up on the bestsellers list. Directions: In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be cause and effect relationship between the two statements. These two statements may be the effect of same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes without any relationship. Read the statements and answer using the options that follow. 5. Statements I. The prices of petrol and diesel in the domestic market have remain unchanged for the past few months. II The crude oil prices in the international market have gone up substantially in the last few months. (a) Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect (b) Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect (c) Both the statements are independent causes (d) Both the statements are independent effects of the independent causes 6. Statements I. The private medical colleges have increased the tuition fees in the current year by 200% over the last year’s fee to meet the expenses. II.The Government medical colleges have not increased their fees in spite of the price escalation (a) Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect (b) Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect (c) Both the statements are independent causes (d) Both the statements are independent effects of the independent causes

IMPLICIT STATEMENT In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. Consider the statement and assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement BMS 2013 1. Statement: A notice in the train compartment reads-“To stop the train, pull this chain. Fine for improper use is RS 500”. Assumptions I) Some people misuse chain pulling II) Sometimes people want to stop a running train a) Only I is implicit b) Only II is implicit c) Either I or II is implicit d) Both I and II are implicit 2. Statement: The patient’s condition would not improve even after operation. Assumptions I) The patient cannot be operated upon in this condition II) The patient can be operated upon in this condition a) Only I is implicit b) Only II is implicit c) Either I or II is implicit d)Both I and II are implicit 3. Statement: In spite of poor services, the commuters have not complained against it. Assumptions I) Generally people do not tolerate poor services. II) Complaints help in improving services. a) Only I is implicit b) Only II is implicit c) Either I or II is implicit d) Both I and II are implicit 4. Statement: This book is so prepared that even a layman can study Geology in the absence of a teacher.


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Assumptions I) A teacher may not always be available to teach Geology II) A layman generally finds it difficult to learn Geology on its own. a) Only I is implicit b) Only II is implicit c) Either I or II is implicit d) Both I and II are implicit

STATEMENT AND CONCLUSION Direction: Study the statements and the two conclusions and give answer (a) If only conclusion I follows (b) If only conclusion II follows (c) If both conclusions I and II follow (d) If neither I nor II follow 1. Statement: The most polluting units are those engaged in electroplating metals. These units generate highly toxic substances. Such industries are concentrated in the walled city. Conclusions: (I) Electroplating industries must be shut down. (II) In the walled city there is greater pollution. 2. Statement: Imports have led to a difficult foreign exchange position. Exports have not been stepped up. So industry has suffered. Conclusions: (I) Industries need foreign exchange. (II) We spend foreign exchange for importing goods. 3. Statement: Maintenance of peace is essential for progress. As most of the Asian countries are passing through a developing stage, they should honestly work for peace. Conclusion: (I) Asian countries must make progress. (II) Asian countries are not working for progress.

STRONG AND WEAK ARGUMENTS Direction: An interrogative sentence is followed by two arguments-one beginning with ‘Yes’ and the other with ‘No’. You are to pick one of the following answer choices which is applicable to each of the following questions: (a) If only argument I is strong (b) If only argument II is strong (c) If both argument I and II are strong (d) If neither I nor Ii is strong 1. Has India been consistently non-aligned? (I) Yes, because India has not sided with any big power. (II) No, because India did not condemn Russian occupation of Afghanistan. 2. Should education be job oriented? (I) Yes, because the purpose of education is to prepare us for earning. (II) No, because education should be for the sake of education. 3. Should sports be made compulsory for all able bodied students? (I) Yes, because it will help them to keep healthy. (II) No, because sports will divert the attention of the students from studies. 4. Should India remain secular? (I) Yes, because that is the best way of harmony in a diverse culture like India. (II) No, because the different religious groups do not see eye to eye with one another. 5. Should the press in India be given full freedom? (I) Yes, because only, then people will become politically enlightened. (II) No, because such a press will create problems. 6. Should the public sector in India be abolished? (I) Yes, because it is entirely inefficient (II) No, because it has always given us high quality goods.


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REVISION TEST OF PRACTICE TEST BOOK - 3 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

ERRAND (a) Energy (c) Mistake

(b) Task (d) Blunder

NONCHALANT (a) Imaginary (c) Neutral

(b) Casual (d) Formal

DULCET (a) Melodious (c) Pastry

(b) Squadron leader (d) Battleground

EDIFY (a) Amuse (c) Satisfy

(b) Consume (d) Instruct

YEARN (a) Confront (c) Deny

(b) Crave (d) Accept

6.

7.

8.

9.

IMPECCABLE (a) Upright (c) Inoffensive

(b) Harmless (d) Flawless

CAMOUFLAGE (a) Demonstrate (c) Disguise

(b) Fabric (d) Cover

PENSIVE (a) Contemplative (c) Reluctant

(b) Precise (d) Unhappy

FILIAL (a) Parent (c) Son

(b) Duty (d) Wise man

10. AFFLUENT (a) Volatile (c) Vanishing

(b) Wealthy (d) Ill

VOCABULARY REVISION OF CLASS ASSIGNMENT Fill in the blanks with correct words 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Lucid _________________ Eloquent _________________ Offense _________________ Allegiance _________________ Agoraphobia________________

6. Capitation _________________ 7. Scio _________________ COMPLETE THE GIVEN ANALOGIES 8. diurnal : sun :: : moon 9. stretch : space :: : time 10. rejection: application :: : law

Word List with Definitions Aberration (n) A variation or change from what is normal or right; something unnatural Aghast (adj) Shocked; terrified or amazed Appellation (n) A name or title; a word used to identify a person or thing Bewilder (v) To perplex or confuse; to disorder a person's thinking Chattel (n) A thing that is owned; a possession Contemptuous (adj) Thinking poorly of; scornful or disdainful Debonair (adj) Charming; having a sophisticated and attractive manner Detest (v) To have a profound dislike or abhorrence for; to hate


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Elasticity (n)

The physical property of matter wherein matter returns to its original form after being reshaped, as an elastic band returns to its original shape after Being stretched

Fickle (adj)

Capriciously changeable in affection or belief; not remaining faithful to one idea or feeling

Hindrance (n) Inconceivable (adj) Litigious (adj) Minimize (v) Notorious (adj) Ordeal (n) Ostracize (v)

An obstruction or impediment; something that blocks progress Unimaginable or unthinkable Willing and likely to pursue a lawsuit To make as small as possible Widely known but viewed negatively or critically An experience that is extremely difficult or trying To banish from or force out of a group or situation

Peccadillo (n) Placid (adj) Prosaic (adj) Rectitude (n) Salient (adj) Spurious (adj) Tincture (n) Vigilance (n)

A minor sin or fault; a trifling wrongdoing Tranquil and calm; at rest Matter-of-fact; without spirit, style, or imagination Correctness or uprightness; unerring in following principles Noticeable or important; standing out Inauthentic; not bona fide A typically alcoholic mixture containing a medicine or remedy Alertness; unbreaking attention to a duty

SYNONYMS:

ANTONYMS:

In the blank space, write the word from the list above that means the same (about the same) as the word given. 1. Unbelievable ____________ 2. Peaceful ____________ 3. Obstacle ____________ 4. False ____________ 5. Horrified ____________ 6. Abnormality ____________ 7. Righteousness ____________ 8. Infamous ____________ 9. Loathe ____________ 10. Exclude ____________

In the space provided, write the word from the list above that means opposite of the word given. 1. Rude ____________ 2. Inconspicuous ____________ 3. Inattentiveness ____________ 4. Plasticity ____________ 5. Help ____________ 6. Steadfast ____________ 7. Lauded ____________ 8. Enlighten ____________ 9. Creative ____________ 10. Maximize ____________

ANALOGIES: Choose the word from the list that best completes the analogy, creating the same relationship between the second set of words as exists between the first set of words. 1. degree : B.A. :: _______ : Mr. 6. conundrum : problem:: _______: situation 2. hunted : sought :: __________ : famous 7. explain : confusion : :___________: clarity 3. awestruck : admire :: __________: scorn 8. flirtation : love :: ________: cardinal sin 4. product : buy : :____________ : own 9. gorgeous : looks :: _________ : manners 5. saline : salt :: _____________ : medicine 10. ambitious : power ::__________: lawsuits


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1. 2.

3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17.

18. 19. 20.

In the space provided, write the word from the word list that best completes each given sentence. The nun lived her life with _______and propriety. References to slaves as "________" from pre-Civil War times make it clear that slaves were viewed more as property than as people. Jenny felt that her little sister was more of a __________ than a help in baking cookies. In Oedipus Rex, the gods _______ Oedipus from Thebes, and he becomes a wanderer. The artist's work is _________,lacking originality. The conclusion that is most _______ to me in this report is that we must raise our prices. The monster created by Dr. Frankenstein was an ________, an unnatural beast. Mr. Siddle was _____________ at the horrifying sight that met his eyes. Josie learned a recipe to make a homemade _____________ of medicinal herbs and alcohol. The waters were so ____________ that it seemed impossible to believe a storm was brewing. Like many teenagers, Omar was _______, with a new crush each week. Antonia accused her mother of being _________ when she filed her third lawsuit. Cary Grant was very _______, and his suave, refined persona made him popular. She tried to ________ the number of trips she had to make each week to save gas. Joshua was ______________ of his elder brother, who seemed ignorant and crude. Arnold Schwarzenegger became known by the informal ______ "The Governator." Margaret felt that being late for curfew was just a _________, but her parents thought it a serious transgression. The little girl began to __________ the taste of spinach, and she refused to eat it. Rubber bands have high _________, which constricts them after they've been stretched. It is ____________ to me that aliens have visited our planet.


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VERBAL ABILITY CLASS ASSIGNMENT - 5 Tone of Passage/Summary, Reading Comprehension

Tone of Passage/Summary Directions for question: From among the options, choose the summary of the passage that is written in the same style as that of the passage.

(d) TILA is definitely working for the betterment of the society as its goals are aligned with those of human progress. (e) The rights of customers have to be protected. TILA seeks to standardize disclosure of costs to aid the consumer to shop but it does offer protection from certain high- cost mortgage loans.

1) The purpose of TILA is to promote the informed use of consumer credit by requiring disclosures about its terms, cost to standardize the manner in which costs associated with borrowing are calculated and disclosed. TILA also gives consumers the right to cancel certain credit transactions that involve a lien on a consumer's principal dwelling, regulates certain credit card practices, and provides a means for fair and timely resolution of credit billing disputes. With the exception of certain high- cost mortgage loans, TILA does not regulate the charges that may be imposed for consumer credit. Rather, it requires uniform or standardized disclosure of costs and charges so that consumers can shop. (a) I have realized that TILA is a law which protects the rights of consumer. As a consumer I have noticed that TILA seeks to standardize disclosure of costs to aid the consumer to shop. (b) TILA protects the rights of consumers by regulating the calculation and disclosure of the costs associated with borrowing. TILA seeks a standardized disclosure of costs to aid the consumer to shop. (c) Whether TILA will prove to be useful remains to be seen. It aims at protecting the rights of consumers. At present, TILA seeks to standardize disclosure of costs to aid the consumer to shop.

2) Democracy doesn't mean much if people have to confront concentrated systems of economic power as isolated individuals. Democracy means something if people can organize to gain information, to have thoughts for that matter, to make plans, to enter into the political system in some active way, to put forth programs and so on. If organizations of that kind exist, then democracy can exist too. Otherwise it's a matter of pushing a lever every couple of years; it's like having the choice between Coca-Cola and Pepsi- Cola. (a) Democracy means something only if there exist organizations that can help people to mobilize themselves into performing some concrete action. (b) Democracy is a form of government that symbolizes concentrated systems of economic power and the inability of individuals to try and bring about any meaningful change. (c) Democracy means something only if people can organize to gain information, to have thoughts for that matter, to make plans, to enter into the political system and to put forth programs and so on. (d) While democracy may be the best and most civilized form of governance, the fact remains that unless organizations exist that can enable people to perform some concrete actions, like entering into the


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political system, putting forth programs and so on; it means very little in real terms. (e) I feel that democracy only means something if organizations exist that can enable people to gain information, to put forth programs and so on. Otherwise it means very little in real terms. Directions for questions 3 and 4: Answer the questions based on the passage given below. In the colonies the most striking feature of Spanish economic policy was its wastefulness. After the conquest of the New World, it was to the interest of the Spaniards to gradually wean the native Indians from barbarism by teaching them the arts and sciences of Europe, to encourage such industries as were favored by the soil, and to furnish the growing colonies with those articles which they could not produce themselves, and of which they stood in need. Only thus could they justify their monopoly of the markets of Spanish America. The same test, indeed, may be applied to every other nation which adopted the exclusivist system. Queen Isabella wished to carry out this policy, introduced into the newly-discovered islands wheat, the olive and the vine, and acclimatized many of the European domestic animals. Her efforts, unfortunately, were not seconded by her successors, nor by the Spaniards who went to the Indies. In time the government itself, as well as the colonist, came to be concerned, not so much with the agricultural products of the Indies, but with the return of the precious metals. Natives were made to work the mines, while many regions adapted to agriculture, Guiana, Caracas and Buenos Ayres, were neglected, and the peopling of the colonies by Europeans was slow. The emperor, Charles V, did little to stem this tendency, but drifted along with the tide. Immigration was restricted to keep the colonies free from the contamination of heresy and of foreigners. The Spanish population was concentrated in cities, and the country divided into great estates granted by the crown to the families of the conquistadores or to favourites

at court. The immense areas of Peru, Buenos Ayres and Mexico were submitted to the most unjust and arbitrary regulations, with no object but to stifle growing industry and put them in absolute dependence upon the metropolis. 3). Identify the tone of the following sentence. After the conquest of the New World, it was to the interest of the Spaniards to gradually wean the native Indians from barbarism by teaching them the arts and sciences of Europe, to encourage such industries as were favored by the soil, and to furnish the growing colonies with those articles which they could not produce themselves, and of which they stood in need. (a) Pessimistic (b) Didactic (c) Cynical (d) Concern (e) Sympathetic 4). Identify the tone of the following sentence. The immense areas of Peru, Buenos Aires and Mexico were submitted to the most unjust and arbitrary regulations, with no object but to stifle growing industry and put them in absolute dependence upon the metropolis. (a) Cynical (b) Sympathetic (c) Concern (d) Critical (e) Didactic Directions for questions Q5 to Q7: Answer the questions based on the passage given below. In the United Kingdom, funding the war had a severe economic cost. From being the world's largest overseas investor, it became one of its biggest debtors with interest payments forming around 40% of all government spending. Inflation more than doubled between 1914 and its peak in 1920, while the value of the Pound Sterling (consumer expenditure) fell by 61.2%. Reparations in the form of free German coal depressed the local industry, precipitating the 1926 General Strike. British private investments abroad were sold,


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raising £550 million. However, £250 million new investment also took place during the war. The net financial loss was therefore approximately £300 million; less than two years investment compared to the pre-war average rate and more than replaced by 1928. Material loss was "slight": the most significant being 40% of the British merchant fleet sunk by German U-boats. Most of this was replaced in 1918 and all immediately after the war. The military historian Correlli Barnett has argued that "in objective truth the Great War in no way inflicted crippling economic damage on Britain" but that the war "crippled the British psychologically but in no other way". Less concrete changes include the growing assertiveness of Commonwealth nations. Battles such as Gallipoli for Australia and New Zealand, and Vimy Ridge for Canada led to increased national pride and a greater reluctance to remain subordinate to Britain, leading to the growth of diplomatic autonomy in the 1920s. These battles were often decorated in propaganda in these nations as symbolic of their power during the war. Traditionally loyal dominions such as Newfoundland were deeply disillusioned by Britain's apparent disregard for their soldiers, eventually leading to the unification of Newfoundland into the Confederation of Canada. Colonies such as India and Nigeria also became increasingly assertive because of their participation in the war. The populations in these countries became increasingly aware of their own power and Britain's fragility. 5). A suitable title for this passage can be: (a) The aftermath of World War I on Britain. (b) Post war Great Britain. (c) The futility of war. (d) The economic depression in Great Britain. (e) The Great War – A wasted effort.

6). What is the Central Idea of this passage? (a) The involvement of the British Empire in the First World War and its after effects. (b) The economic losses and the resulting changes faced by the British after the war. (c) The rising reluctance in British colonies over being ruled as a result of their active participation in war activities. (d) The economic and psychological damages suffered by Britain in the post war era. (e) The post war battles and uprisings in the commonwealth nations after the First World War. 7) Which of the following options best summarizes the passage given above? (a) The United Kingdom faced an economic crisis after the war in the form of investment losses, rising inflation and labour strikes. Apart from this, 40% of the British fleet was wiped out by the Germans. (b) Britain not only suffered huge economic losses and national crises but also had to deal with growing assertiveness of their colonies which happened as a result of their participation in the First World War. (c) The United Kingdom, even though victorious, suffered greatly due to the war and faced problems of both economic as well as of a psychological nature. (d) Investment losses worth 300 million pounds, the consumer expenditure reducing by 61.4%, the General Strike of 1926, depletion of 40% of their fleet and tensions rising in their colonies were some of the problems faced by the British after the war. (e) British colonies like Newfoundland, Australia, New Zealand, India and Nigeria gained voice because of their participation in the war and made life


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difficult for the Empire in the post war era.

Reading Comprehension Directions: Read the following passage and answer the questions, choosing the correct answer from among the choices given. Passage-1 The Great Debates The first of the Great Debates, between Senator John F. Kennedy of Massachusetts and the incumbent Vice President Richard Nixon on September 26, 1960, centered on domestic issues. The topic of the next debate, on October 7, was a clash over U.S. policy regarding two small islands off the Chinese coast, and on October 13, this controversy continued. On October 21, the final debate, the candidates focused on American/Cuban relations. Few of the 70 million viewers could have fathomed what this first–ever televised presidential debate augured, not only for this specific series of debates, but more importantly for the preeminent role the fledgling medium would play in the future of the political arena. A pallid Nixon arrived at the Chicago CBS studios after a grueling day of campaigning. The previous August a knee infection had sidelined him. He was still twenty pounds underweight, and he perspired profusely in an ill–fitting shirt. Moreover, he declined makeup to burnish his hospital pallor. The freshly– painted studio backdrop had dried to an ashen hue that obscured his matching suit. The Democratic contender by contrast exuded a robust glow after a month of 15 campaigning in California. He had spent his day rehearsing potential questions and relaxing. An aide later admitted that he supplemented his natural glow with a smidge of makeup. He was fit, trim, and confident. Despite the remarkably similar agendas and arguments of the Republican and the Democrat, TV viewers unequivocally believed

Kennedy to be the victor – whereas people who 20 had followed the debates on the radio held the opposite opinion. The age of TV had arrived, and the subsequent party shuffle proved the undeniable potency of television. 1) The author is mainly concerned about (a) The debating styles of John Kennedy and Richard Nixon during the 1960 Great Debates (b) The domestic issues which affected the result of 1960 Great Debates (c) The health of Richard Nixon at the time of the 1960 Great Debates (d) The number of television viewers who tuned in to the 1960 Great Debates (e) The effect of television on the results of the 1960 Great Debates 2) It can be inferred from the passage that (a) Kennedy was a better debater than Nixon (b) Nixon was the unequivocal winner of the 1960 debates (c) The Democrat beat the Republican in the 1960 election (d) Nixon was more prepared for the first debate than Kennedy (e) Kennedy and Nixon disagreed strongly on issues on the home front. 3) According to the passage, which of the following was true of Richard Nixon? (a) He had a five o’clock shadow during the first debate. (b) He wore a brown suit during the first debate. (c) He warned of the impending Cuban crisis. (d) He limped onstage for the first debate. (e) He lost his job after the election. Passage-2 A sanctuary may be defined as a place where man is passive and the rest of nature active. Till quite recently nature had her own sanctuaries, where man either did not go at all or went only as a tool using animal in comparatively small


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numbers. But now, in this machinery age, there is no place left where man cannot go with overwhelming forces at his command. He can strangle to death all the nobler wild life in the world today. Tomorrow he certainly will have done so, unless he exercises due foresight and self-control in the meantime. There is not the slightest doubt that birds and mammals are now being killed off much faster than they can breed. And it is always the largest and noblest forms of life that suffer most. The whales and elephants, lions and eagles, go. The rats and flies, and all mean parasites, remain. This is inevitable in certain cases. But it is wanton killing off that I am speaking of tonight. Civilized man begins by destroying the very forms of wild life he learns to appreciate most when he becomes still more civilized. The obvious remedy is to begin conservation at an earlier stage, when it is easier and better in every way, by enforcing laws for close seasons, game preserves, the selective protection of certain species, and sanctuaries. I have just defined a sanctuary as a place where man is passive and the rest of nature active. But this general definition is too absolute for any special case. The mere fact that man has to protect a sanctuary does away with his purely passive attitude. Then, he can be beneficially active by destroying pests and parasites, like bot-flies or mosquitoes, and by finding antidotes for diseases like the epidemic which periodically kills off the rabbits and thus starves many of the carnivore to death. But, except in cases where experiment has proved his intervention to be beneficial, the less he upsets the balance of nature the better, even when he tries to be an earthly providence. 4) The author implies that his first definition of a sanctuary is (a) Totally wrong (b) Somewhat idealistic (c) Unhelpful (d) Indefensible (e) Immutable

5) The author’s argument that destroying bot-flies and mosquitoes would be a beneficial action is most weakened by all of the following except (a) Parasites have an important role to play in the regulation of populations. (b) The elimination of any species can have unpredictable effects on the balance of nature. (c) The pests themselves are part of the food chain. (d) These insects have been introduced to the area by human activities. (e) Elimination of these insects would require the use of insecticides that kill a wide range of insects. 6) It can be inferred that the passage is (a) Part of an article in a scientific journal. (b) Extracted from the minutes of a nature club. (c) Part of a speech delivered to an educated audiences. (d) A speech delivered in a court of law. (e) From a polemical article published in a magazine. 7) The purpose of the final paragraph is (a) To sum up the main points of the author’s argument (b) To urge a solution to an increasingly pressing problem (c) To qualify the author’s definition of an important term (d) To propose a program (e) To suggest that man should not intervene in natural environments Passage-3. The existence of mammals on the earth can be traced back to at least the Triassic time. The rate of development was retarded, till evolutional change suddenly accelerated in the oldest Paleocene. This resulted in an increase in average size, larger mental capacity, and special adaptations for different modes of life, during the Eocene time. Further improvement was seen during the Oligocene Epoch, with the


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appearance of some new lines and extinction of other of various groups and a continued approach toward modern characters. It is in the Miocene time that the mammals reached their peak with reference to variety and size. The ability of the mammals to adapt to various modes of life finds a parallel in the reptiles of the Mesozoic time, and apart from their greater intelligence, the mammals apparently have not done much better than the corresponding reptilian forms. Undoubtedly the bat is a better flying animal than the pterosaur, but at the same time the dolphin and whale are hardly more fish like than the ichthyosaur. Quite a few of the swift-running mammals inhabiting the plains, like the horse and the antelope, must excel any of the dinosaurs. Although the tyrannosaur was a more weighty and robust carnivore than perhaps any carnivorous mammal, the lion and the tiger, by virtue of their superior brain are far more efficient and dangerous beasts of prey. It is significant to note that various species of mammals gradually adapted themselves to various kinds of lifestyles, some took to grazing on the plains and were able to run swiftly (horse, deer, bison), others started living in rivers and swamps (hippopotamus, beaver), inhabiting trees (sloth, monkey), burrowing underground (rodent, mole), feeding on flesh (tiger, wolf), swimming in the water (dolphin, whale, seal), and flying in the air (bat). Human beings on account of their superior brain have been able to harness mechanical methods to conquer the physical world and adapt to any set of conditions. Such adaptation to different conditions leads to a gradual change in form and structure. This is a biological characteristic of the youthful, plastic stage of a group. It is seen that early in its evolutional cycle animals possess the capacity for change, but as the animal progresses in its cycle becoming old and fixed, this capacity for change disappears. The generalized types of organisms retain longest that ability to make adjustments when required, and it is from them that new, fecund stocks take origin certainly not from any

specialized end products. With reference to mammals, we see their birth, plastic spread in many directions, increased specialization, and in some cases, extinction; this is a characteristic of the evolution of life, which can be seen in the geologic record of life. JET-2012 8) From the following, choose the most appropriate title for the above passage. (a) From Dinosaur to Man (b) Adaptation and Extinction (c) The Superior Mammals (d) The Geologic Life Span 9) From the above passage, we can infer that, the pterosaur: (a) Resembled the Bat (b) Was a Mesozoic mammal (c) Was a flying reptile (d) Inhabited the seas 10) As inferred from the passage, the largest numbers of mammals were found in which of the following periods? (a) Eocene period (b) Oligocene epoch (c) Pliocene period (d) Miocene period 11) It is clear from the passage, that the evidence used to discuss the life of past time periods: (a) Was developed by Charles Darwin (b) Has been negated by more recent evidence (c) Was never truly established (d) Is based on Oligocene Epoch Passage-4 The terms “intelligence augmentation” and “intelligence amplification” evoke images of human beings with computer chips embedded in their skulls or bizarre accoutrements attached to their heads. However, according to an article entitled Get Smart by Jamais Cascio, human beings’ ability to augment their intelligence is precisely the prowess which has


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empowered us to survive “a series of convulsive glacial events” evinced by the last ice age. Neurophysiologist William Calvin asserts that the human species continues to evolve cognitively and to create its own cognitive evolution in two basic ways: external and internal. Cascio states that humans have been externally augmenting their intelligence for millennia. By developing written language, we boosted our capacity to share information over space and time. Other advancements, such as agricultural and industrial technologies, reduced the exigencies of manual labor. Current external digital systems augment human intelligence by allowing us to perform tasks that would be unfeasible with recourse only to the rational skills of a singular human brain. Cascio cites as examples the “powerful simulations and massive data sets (which) allow physicists to visualize, understand, and debate models of an 11–dimension universe, real–time data from satellites, global environmental databases, and high–resolution models (which) allow geophysicists to recognize the subtle signs of long–term changes to the planet,” and similar man–made interactions which have the functional effect of augmenting human intelligence. Conceivable potential software could incorporate individual “attention filters” or “focus assistants” which would discern and highlight your individual preferences in a computer display, permitting you to focus and direct your computer searches more efficiently than you do now. It could incorporate individualized planning and foresight systems which could allow people to play “what–if” with their life choices. Such systems could co–evolve with people to produce intimate technologies which would become “something akin to collaborative intuition,” through web–based information systems with personalized components, according to Cascio. Somewhat more problematic in social terms might be pharmacological intelligence augmentation, evoking Brave New World nightmares – pharmaceutically placated

people tranquilized to zombie–like subservience to the collective and a central bureaucracy dedicated to its own continued survival. However, as with external cognitive augmentation, the future has arrived –– in the form of, for example, ADD drugs, pharmaceutical agents which mitigate sleep disorders, and antidepressants, all of which enhance human problem–solving ability and cognitive efficiency. According to Cascio, “people who don’t know about (such drugs) or don’t want to use them will face stiffer competition from people who do. From the perspective of a culture immersed in athletic doping wars, the use of such drugs may seem like cheating. From the perspective of those who find they’re much more productive using this form of enhancement, it’s no more cheating than getting a faster computer or a better education.” Cognitive amplification, whether by external or internal means, may constitute evolution, if Calvin’s assertion is correct. Some societies may readily embrace it, while others may shy away. As science fiction writer William Gibson observes, “The future is already here; it’s just unevenly distributed.” 12) The author is mainly concerned about (a) Various dangers of intelligence augmentation. (b) The advantages of intelligence augmentation. (c) The basic methods of intelligence augmentation. (d) Some scientists who are working on intelligence augmentation. (e) The differences between external and internal intelligence augmentation. 13) The author’s use of the phrase “somewhat more problematic in social terms” refers to (a) The difficulty of making cognitive enhancement widely available. (b) The difficulty of making pharmacological enhancement socially acceptable.


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(c) Equalizing cognitive competitive advantages among social groups. (d) Bureaucracies which hamper cognitive enhancement activities. (e) The relationship between external and internal intelligence augmentation. 14) According to the passage the italicized word “placated” most closely means (a) Deprived. (b) Enhanced. (c) Cured. (d) Assisted. (e) Quieted. 15) In the context of the passage, which of the following best articulates the author’s opinion? (a) Intelligence amplification by external means might be more difficult to achieve than by internal means. (b) Cognitive augmentation does not really constitute evolution. (c) Some people consider intelligence enhancement to be a form of cheating. (d) External and internal intelligence enhancement might constitute evolution in cultures that accept them. (e) Personalized software could be misused by a bureaucracy intent on its own continued survival. 16) The primary purpose of the passage is to (a) Describe different kinds of intelligence enhancement. (b) Discuss society’s reactions to pharmacological cognitive augmentation. (c) Examine the differences between external and internal intelligence enhancement. (d) Dispel misgivings about humanity’s attempts at creating its own evolution. (e) Illustrate the limitations of external intelligence augmentation.


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VOCABULARY REVISION OF CLASS ASSIGNMENT - 4 Fill in the blanks with correct words 1. 2. 3. 4.

Elude Malady Tractum Cudgel

5. 6. 7. 8.

_________________ _________________ _________________ _________________

Phrasal verbs 1. Complete with one of these phrasal verbs: be through, go on, fill in, take off, stay out, speak up. A. Could you ………........... this application form, please? B. I ‘ ll never talk to you again. We..........! C. If you don ́t .........., we can ́t hear you. D. I ́m tired because I ………......... too late last night. E. The plane ................late because of the bad weather. 2.

Complete with one of these phrasal verbs: go off, put off, see off, take off, turn off. A. Let ́s go to the airport to .......... them B. The plane doesn ́t .......... till 5 o ́clock. C. He was sleeping soundly when the alarm clock.......... D. The meeting has been .......... till next month. E. Don ́t forget to .......... all the lights when you leave.

3.

Complete with: carry on, get on, hold on, put on, try on. A. Hi! Is Mr. Knight in? .........., I ́ll call him. B. Excuse me, could I .................. this dress, please? C. How are you ................... at college? D. Are you still ...................... with your tennis lessons? E. It was a bit chilly, so she.................... her jacket.

4.

Complete with: give up, hang up, look up, wake up, wash up.

Beseech Litigious Tincture Anthro

__________________ __________________ __________________ __________________

A. The kind of housework I hate most is…………............ B. If he rings back, just .......... C. I didn ́t know that word, so I .......... it in a dictionary. D. Don ́t ................ You can do it if you try hard. E. When I ................... in the middle of the night, I had some temperature. 5.

Match the phrasal verbs with their corresponding synonyms. 1. put off a. cancel 2. call off b. switch off 3. look up c. postpone 4. go off d. continue 5. carry on e. explode 6. turn off f. check

Fill in the correct form of one of the phrasal verbs . 1. I looked for my keys everywhere but I couldn’t _____________ where I put them 2. I _____________ you at the party but I couldn’t see you. 3. Although he tried to eat less he __________ some weight during the holidays 4. I _____________ Karen and her new boyfriend when I went shopping 5. Over a hundred people ______________ for the news conference 6. Our plane ________________ an hour late because of the fog. 7. My son drove me crazy about buying a new bike, so finally I________________. 8. Erich is very sick at the moment but I am sure


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he’ll ________________ 9. She shouldn’t ____________________ him like that. You’re not his boss. 10. I understand you opinion but I have to ________________ Linda on this question.

Vocabulary for describing character and personality The words and expressions in the box can all be used informally to describe different kinds of people. Use them to complete sentences 1 – 20. Note that many of the words / expressions have a negative connotation and are not very polite, so you should be careful how you use them! Anorak, bigmouth, bunny boiler, busybody, chatterbox, chinless wonder, clock-watcher, couch potato, crank, creep, daydreamer, Don, Juan, eager, beaver, early bird, golden boy, happy camper, life and soul of the party, moaning Minnie, pain in the neck, rolling stone, rough diamond, salt of the earth, Scrooge scrounger, skiver, slave driver, smart Alec, smart cookie, stuffed shirt, tear away, troublemaker, wallflower, wet blanket, wimp, wolf in sheep's clothing 1. Nobody likes Peter very much because he's so annoying. He's a right __________! 2. Andy is so boring. Did you know that his idea of a perfect day is going to the station to collect train registration numbers? What a / an __________! 3. I know that you don't like your job very much, but I wish you would stop complaining about it all the time. Don't be such a / an __________! 4. Imelda loves working here: she's a real __________. 5. Alan is an excellent and intelligent manager who runs the department well and deals effectively with any problems that come up. Everyone agrees that he's a / an __________. 6. You've been sitting in front of the television for

almost four hours. Why don't you turn it off and go for a walk? You're turning into a / an __________. 7. We were having a wonderful evening until Anne joined us. Why does she have to be so negative about everything all the time? She's such a / an __________! 8. Don't be such a /an __________! If you concentrated instead of speaking all the time, you would get more work done. 9. If you want some help, ask Imelda. She's always happy and willing to help out: she's a real __________! 10. I hope Rick comes out with us tonight. He's such good fun, always the __________. 11. Poor Samantha is a bit of a / an __________. She would have much more fun and would get to know more people if she had more confidence. 12. Don is a bit of a / an __________. He never eats vegetables because he thinks they slow down your brain! 13. Don't be such a / an __________! You've only got a small cut on your hand; you haven't lost a whole arm! 14. All the newspapers are writing about Gordon Stapleton. He's the new __________ of English football. 15. When Laurence ended his relationship with Mandy, she refused to accept it and started sending him insulting letters. Then one day she went to his house and threw a brick through his window! I never realised she was such a __________! 16. My line manager Mr Burton is a real __________. Yesterday he made us work for six hours without a break, and wouldn't let us leave until 7 o'clock. 17. Maureen is the __________ in this company. She starts work at 7 o'clock, two hours before anyone else arrives. 18. I'm afraid my son has become a bit of a / an __________. He stays out all night with his friends and he never listens to a word I say. 19. All the girls in the office love Daniel, and he loves them right back! He's a regular __________. 20. Mrs. Ranscombe is such a /an __________. I wish she would stop interfering in my private life!


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GENERAL AWARENESS CLASS ASSIGNMENT – 1 History, Polity, Geography History 1.

Which was the largest site of Indus Civilization? (a) Mohenjodaro (b) Lothal (c) Chanhudaro (d) Rakhigarhi

2.

Which is the oldest text in the world? (a) Yajur Veda (b) Atharva Veda (c) Rig Veda (d) Sama Veda

3.

4.

5.

6.

Which Veda contains cure of diseases? (a) Sama Veda (b) Atharva Veda (c) Rig Veda (d) Yajur Veda Ajatasatru was son of: (a) Bimbisara (c) Shisunaga

(b) Udayin (d) None of above

Alexander invaded India in : (a) 526 B.C (b) 326 A.D (c) 326 B.C (d) 26 B.C. The famous Indian astronomer Aryabhatta (476 – 520 AD) lived during the reign of: (a) Chandragupta Vikramaditya (b) Ashoka (c) Harsh Vardhana (d) Kanishka

10. Delhi’s Qutab Minar, the tallest (250ft or 72.5 m) free standing stone tower in the world was completed by: (a) Qutab-u-din Aibak (b) Feroze Tughlaq (c) Iltutmish (d) Alauddin Khilji 11. Founder of the Lodhi Dynasty was: (a) Bahlol Lodhi (b) Daulat Khan Lodhi (c) Abraham Lodhi (d) Ibrahim Lodhi 12. First battle of Panipat was fought between? (a) Babur & Lodi (b) Akbar & Hemu (c) Mughal & British (d) Akbar & Lodi 13. Grand Trunk Road was built by: (a) Babar (b) Sher Shah Suri (c) Rana Sanga (d) Birbal 14. When Humayun was succeeded by Akbar, he was: (a) 13 years old (b) 14 years old (c) 15 years old (d) 16 years old 15. Second battle of Panipat was fought between: (a) Babur & Lodi (b) Akbar & Hemu (c) Mughal & British (d) Akbar & Lodi

7.

Arthashastra was written by: (a) Manu (b) Panini (c) Harsha Vardhan (d) Kautilya

16. Din-e-Ellahi was founded by: (a) Aurangzeb (b) Jehangir (c) Akbar (d) Shah Jahan

8.

Chandragupta Maurya was succeeded by: (a) Sannidhata (b) Ashoka (c) Hemusara (d) Bindusara

17. With whose permission did the English set up their first factory in Surat? (a) Akbar (b) Jahangir (c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb

9.

To which king belongs the Lion capital at Sarnath? (a) Chandragupta (b) Kanishka (c) Ashoka (d) Harsha

18. The Red Fort was built by : (a) Akbar (b) Shahjahan (c) Jahangir (d) Sher Shah Suri 19. Last Sikh Guru was: (a) Guru Ramdas

GENERAL AWARENESS CLASS ASSIGNMENT - 1

(b) Guru Govind Singh Page 77

(c) Guru Ranjit Singh

(d) Guru Angad

(c) Landlordism

20. Last of the Mughal Ruler was: (a) Bahadur Shah Jafar (b) Aurangzeb (c) Shah Alam (d) Faroq Siyar 21. The Indian National Congress was founded in 1885 by: (a) A.O. Hume (b) Motilal Nehru (c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Dadabhai Naoroji 22. The treaty of Versailles humiliated: (a) Austria (b) France (c) Germany (d) England

(d) Apartheid

24. The Opium wars were fought between: (a) Britain & China (b) Britain & India (c) Britain & Poland (d) India & China 25. Waterloo is located in: (a) China (b) Belgium (c) France (d) Germany 26. The Second World War started in the year: (a) 1939 (b) 1940 (c) 1941 (d) 1941

23. The American Civil War saw the end of: (a) Slavery (b) Monarchy

Polity 27. The constituent assembly constitution on: (a) 15th August 1947 (b) 26th January, 1946 (c) 26th November 1949 (d) 26th January 1950

adopted

our

28. Who is the custodian of the constitution of India? (a) President (b) Parliament (c) Vice President (d) Chief Justice 29. The President of India exercises his power on the advice of the: (a) Council of Ministers (b) Union Cabinet (c) Vice President (d) Parliament 30. Article 370 of the Constitution deals with: (a) Centre-State Relations (b) Accession of Jammu and Kashmir in India (c) Quantum of State Authority (d) Special provision in respect of J & K 31. Who is the custodian of the Fundamental Rights embodied in the Indian Constitution? (a) President of India (b) Prime Minister

(c) Supreme Court of India (d) State Assemblies 32. The meetings of Lok Sabha are presided over by: (a) Prime Minister (b) Speaker (c) Vice President of India (d) President of India 33. The term of the Rajya Sabha comes to an end after: (a) 2 years (b) 4 years (c) 5 years (d) Is not subject to dissolution as it is a permanent body 34. The fundamental rights in Constitution are enjoyed by: (a) Aliens only (b) Adults only (c) Indian citizens (d) All male citizens of India

the

Indian

35. The minimum age for a member of the Lok Sabha should be: (a) 18 years (b) 21 years (c) 25 years (d) 30 years


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36. The International Court of Justice is located at: (a) The Hague (b) Geneva (c) Amsterdam (d) Vienna 37. Who appoints the Governors in India? (a) Prime Minister (b) Union Cabinet (c) President (d) Vice President 38. A candidate for the office of the president of India should not be less than: (a) 35 years (b) 30 years (c) 25 years (d) 20 years 39. In the Indian constitution who has no power over money bill (Budget)? (a) President (b) Lok Sabha (c) Rajya Sabha

(d) Neither the Lok Sabha nor the Rajya Sabha 40. Which of the following is a Directive Principle of State Policy? (a) Equitable distribution of wealth or the socialistic pattern of society (b) Provision for Uniform Civil Code (c) Free and compulsory education for all children below the 14 years of age (d) All of the above 41. Chairman of Constituent Assembly was: (a) Rajendra Prasad (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) B.R. Ambedkar

GEOGRAPHY 42. Which of the following is true regarding International Date Line? (a) Longitude (b) It is a straight Line (c) It is a big circle (d) It is a curved line beyond earth 43. On which of the following planets is the water cycle available? (a) Venus (b) Earth (c) Jupiter (d) Mars 44. Ozone Hole in the atmosphere is largely caused by the presence of: (a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen (c) Chloro-floro-carbon (d) Radio Active Waste 45. The deepest ocean of the world is: (a) Atlantic Ocean (b) Arctic Ocean (c) Indian Ocean (d) Pacific Ocean

47. The largest ocean of the world is: (a) Atlantic (b) Indian (c) Arctic (d) Pacific 48. Which of the following is the hottest planet? (a) Venus (b) Mercury (c) Jupiter (d) Mars 49. In the context of time, GMT means: (a) General Merdian Time (b) Greenwich Mean Time (c) Global Mean Time (d) None of these 50. The Himalayan Mountain Range is an example of: (a) Volcanic mountains (b) Residual Mountains (c) Block Mountains (d) Folded Mountains

46. The light from the Sun reaches the earth in about: (a) 8 seconds (b) 8 minutes (c) 10 seconds (d) 10 minutes


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CURRENT AFFAIRS - I 51. Which US-based solar power company won a bid to sell solar power in India? (a) SunEdison (b) SunSol (c) SunPow (d) SolPow 52. Which railway station became the first visuallychallenged-friendly station in India? (a) Mysuru (b) Itarsi (c) Vizag (d) Nagpur 53. Google’s project to provide internet connectivity using large balloons is…….. (a) Project Balloon (b) Project Loon (c) Project Internet (d) Project Data Free 54. Which automobile Car Company has roped in Argentinian football legend ‘Lionel Messi’ as the new global brand ambassador? (a) Mahindra & Mahindra (b) Toyota (c) Tata Motors (d) Chevrolet

(c) South Africa (d)France 58. The APEC Summit for 2015 was held in which city? (a) Manila (b) Dubai (c) Tokyo (d) Toronto 59. ‘The Magic of the Lost Temple’, which is the name of a newly released children’s book, is the 25th book of which noted author? (a) Jhumpa Lahiri (b) Sudha Murty (c) Sheetal Singh (d) Rashmi Vajpayee 60. What is the name of the Advanced Torpedo Defence System developed by the DRDO? (a) Mareech (b) Khamb (c) Sheen (d) Jaitsh

55. What is India’s position in the recently released annual report on world’s most valuable nation brands compiled by Brand Finance? (a) 6th (b) 7th (c) 8th (d) 9th 56. Men’s Hockey World League final 2015 was held at: (a) Raipur (b) Amritsar (c) Mohali (d) Jaipur 57. The 2015 Rugby World Cup (Men) was won by which country on 31 October 2015? (a) Australia (b) New Zealand


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GENERA AWARENESS CLASS ASSIGNMENT – 2 BRANDS AND TAGLINES Revision of Practice Test Book – 1 1.

Supreme Court Judges retire upon attaining the age of: (a) 65 years (b) 62 years (c) 68 years (d) 70 years

2.

What was the main feature of Indus valley civilization? (a) Rural Planning (b) Town Planning (c) Art and Architecture (d) Administrative System

3.

The second atom bomb was dropped on Nagasaki on which date? (a) Aug. 6, 1914 (b) Aug. 9, 1945 (c) Aug. 6, 1943 (d) Aug. 9, 1943

4.

ISO-9000 is a : (a) Quality Standard Mark (b) Space Project (c) Trade Technique (d) Loan Security

5.

Big Cinemas’ an entertainment company belongs to which of the following business groups of India? (a) Tata’s (b) Reliance Group (c) Mahindra and Mahindra (d) Dalmia Group

6.

7.

8.

Who is the brand ambassador for National Tobacco Control Campaign? (a) Rahul Dravid (b) Kapil Dev (c) Sachin Tendulkar (d) Anil Kumble Who invented Dynamite? (a) Sir Alexander Graham Bell (b) Benjamin Franklin (c) Thomas Alva Edison (d) Alfred B. Nobel On which date is United Nations Day observed? (a) 4 October (b) 12 October (c) 19 October (d) 24 October

9.

On which date is Human Rights Day observed? (a) 4 December (b) 10 December (c) 17 December (d) 23 December

10. Who is the recipient of Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2015? (a) P.V. Sindhu (b) Virat Kohli (c) Sania Mirza (d) Abhijeet Gupta 11. The boundary line b/w India and Pakistan is called as: (a)Line of control (b) Radcliffe line (c) 38th Parallel (d) Durand Line 12. Match the columns: State Capital (A) Uttaranchal 1. Ranchi (B) Chhattisgarh 2. Dispur (C) Jharkhand 3. Dehradun (D) Assam 4. Raipur (a) A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2 (b) A - 4, B - 3, C - 1, D - 2 (c) A - 3, B - 4, C - 2, D - 1 (d) A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D – 1 13. Security of Delhi Metro is handled by? (a) Delhi Police (b) CISF (c) Paramilitary forces (d) SFF 14. When a bank returns a cheque unpaid, it is called: (a) Payment of the cheque (b) Drawing of the cheque (c) Cancelling of the cheque (d) Dishonour of the cheque 15. The compulsory Education Act ensures education to the children up to the age of? (a) 10 years (b) 12 years (c) 8 years (d) none of these


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BRANDS AND TAGLINES Write the parent company of the following brands Fair and Lovely Kissan Ariel Vicks Gillette Dove Kwality Walls Head & Shoulders Duracell Olay Lakme Oral-B Pears Surf Excel Brooke Bond Taj Mahal Wella Pantene Clinic Plus Tide Knorr Bru Pure it Brooke Bond Red Label AXE deodorant

Pepsodent Lifebuoy Rin Detergent Pampers Vaseline Close up Toothpaste Ambi pur Sunsilk Vim Tresemme

Given below are famous celebrities. List down all the possible brands that you can think of that are promoted by these actors.

__________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________


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__________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________

__________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________


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__________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________ __________________________________________

Name the current brand ambassadors of the following brands/companies. Anti-tobacco campaign Titan Raga _________________ Bitia Bachao campaign Whirlpool Refrigerators _________________ Polio campaign Boost _________________ Clear Shampoo _________________ BSF _________________ Identify the Company from the given tagline Fresh N Juicy _________________ Taste The Feeling _________________ The taste of India _________________ Dimag ki Batti Jala de _________________ Tedha hai Par Mera Hai _________________ Desh ka namak _________________ India's International Bank _________________ Daag Acche hain _________________ Har Ghar Kuchch Kahta hai _________________ The best a man can get _________________ Impossible is nothing _________________ Just do it _________________

The Complete Man Tyres with Muscle Do you have it in you Bajaate raho Born Tough Bond with the best

Identify the manufacturer of the following two wheelers Discover _____________ Stunner _____________ Pulsar _____________ Access _____________ Hayate _____________ Platina _____________ Fazer _____________ Activa _____________ Aviator _____________ Crux _____________ Unicorn _____________ Gladiator_____________ Dio _____________ Glamour _____________

Identify the International corporates form its tagline Soooo!! GOOOOD!!!!! _________________ I’m lovin’ it _________________ Pizzas and much more _________________ Yeh hai Rishton ka time _________________ Applying thought _________________

_________________ _________________ _________________

_________________ _________________ _________________ _________________ _________________ _________________

Karizma _____________ Splendor _____________ Passion _____________ Apache _____________ Wego _____________ Jupiter _____________

Think different Everything is possible Innovation and you Wires that don’t catch fire Inspire the next


_________________ _________________ _________________ _________________ _________________ Page 84

BRANDS AND TAGLINES QUIZ 1.

Who among the following is not a co-founder of Facebook? (a) Mark Zuckerberg (b) Dustin Moskovitz (c) Steve Wozniak (d) Chris Hughes

7.

Which of the following is the largest employer of India? (a) Indian Army (b) Indian Oil (c) India Post (d) Indian Railways

2.

‘Nothing like anything’ is the tagline of: (a) Nokia (b) Samsung (c) Micromax (d) Spice

8.

Which of the following does not belong to the Bennet and Coleman group? (a) Times of India (b) Economic Times (c) Femina (d) Outlook

3.

Which of the following is the tagline of the sports company Nike? (a) All in (b) Just do it (c) Impossible is nothing (d) Just Imagine

9.

Who heads the Tata Group at present? (a) Ratan Tata (b) Russi Mody (c) Cyrus Mistry (d) None of these

4.

Find the odd one out: (a) Mountain Dew (c) 7UP

(b) Slice (d) Maaza

5.

'Kitchens of India' ready to eat food, is the product of: (a) Hamdard (b) ITC Limited (c) Britannia (d) MTR

6.

‘Dettol’ is a product of: (a) Procter and Gamble (c) Johnson & Johnson

10. Consider the following statements: 1. WhatsApp has been acquired by Facebook. 2. Motorola has been acquired by Lenovo. Which of the statements given is/are correct? (a) 2 only (b) 1 only (c) Both 1 & 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) HUL (d) Rickitt-Benckiser

CURRENT AFFAIRS II 11. What is the name of the first indigenouslydesigned and built torpedo launch and recovery vessel that was commissioned into the Indian Navy?

(a) INS Akash (b) INS Vyom (c) INS Ashtradharini (d) INS Gagan

14. In which city, U.N. Climate Change Summit held in December 2015?

(a) New York (c) London

12. Who was nominated as the new head of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)?

(a) Hoesung Lee (c) Lime Koex

(b) Shashank Manohar (c) Kiran More (d) Chetan Chauhan

(b) Kim Xiang (d) Sue Nali

(b) Madrid (d) Paris

15. Who has been selected for prestigious 2015 Nobel Prize in Literature?

(a) Svetlana Alexievich (b) Maria Upton (c) Roes White (d) Karina Benitez

13. Who is the new president of BCCI?

(a) Rajeev Shukla GENERAL AWARENESS CLASS ASSIGNMENT - 2

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GENERAL AWARENESS CLASS ASSIGNMENT – 3 Books/Authors, Important Days, Invention, Management Communication-I

Revision of Practice Test Book – 2 1.

The Britishers came to India as traders and formed company named: (a) Indo-British Company (b) The Great Britain Company (c) Eastern India Company (d) East India Company

2.

This form of writing was used by the Egyptians: (a) Pictograms (b) Hieroglyphics (c) Ebonics (d) Cuneiform

3.

The members of Lok Sabha hold office for a term of__________. (a) 4 years (b) 5 years (c) 6 years (d) 3 years

4.

Who is the author of the book “A SuitableBoy”? (a) Husain Haqqani (b) Vikram Seth (c) Ishrat Husain (d) M.J. Akbar

5.

Match the following books with their authors: (A) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (B) Jawaharlal Nehru (C) Rajendra Prasad (D) Bhagat Singh

(i) India divided (ii) Discovery of India (iii) India Wins Freedom (iv) Why I am an Atheist

(a) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv (b) A – iii, B – ii, C – I, D – iv (c) A – I, B– ii, C – iv, D – iii (d) A – iii, B – iv, C – I, D – ii 6.

What did ‘J. B. Dunlop’ invented? (a) Pneumatic rubber tire (b) Automobile wheel rim (c) Rubber boot (d) Model airplanes

7.

Which scientist discovered the radio active element ‘Radium’? (a) Isaac Newton (b) Albert Einstein (c) Benjamin Franklin (d) Marie Curie

8.

Fields Medal is given in which subject?

(a) Physics (c) Botany 9.

(b) Chemistry (d) Mathematics

What is Mendeleev’s contribution to the modern day science? (a) He invented the Atom Bomb (b) He created the first ever clone (c) He created the periodic table (d) He developed the microwave oven

10. The World's largest river is: (a) Brahmaputra (b) Amazon (c) Nile (d) Mississippi 11. Which country is the highest producer of cars in the world in as per latest data release? (a) U.S.A (b) Germany (c) Japan (d) China 12. World Bank is also known as: (a) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (b) International Bank for Rehabilitation and Development (c) International Bank for Refinance and Development (d) International Bank for Research and Development 13. Park Avenue, Parx, Colorplus, Manzoni etc. are the brands of which company? (a) Future Group (b) Levi Strauss (c) Raymond (d) Arvind Mills 14. Who has been appointed as the Brand Ambassador of Border Security Force? (a) M S Dhoni (b) Virat Kohli (c) Rohit Sharma (d) Shikhar Dhawan 15. ‘Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojna’ is associated with:


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(a) Ration (c) Voting

18. How many rings are present on the Olympic flag? (a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five

(b) Banking (d) Identity

16. Who is called the Iron Man of India? (a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Bhagat Singh (c) Vallabh Bhai Patel (d) Udham Singh 17. The UNO was formed in: (a) 1935 (b) 1945 (c) 1955 (d) 1965

19. Which country is called the sugar bowl of the world? (a) China (b) Cuba (c) India (d) Pakistan 20. Pali is a: (a) Computer Program (c) Computer Virus

(b) Language (d) None of these

Books/Authors 1.

‘Playing it my way’ is the autobiography of which of the following sports person? (a) M.C. Mary Kom (b) Yuvraj Singh (c) Sachin Tendulkar (d) Milkha Singh

2.

‘As I See’ is a book written by: (a) Kiran Bedi (b) Arvind Kejriwal (c) Narendra Modi (d) Manmohan Singh

3.

‘Asthadhyayi’ is a book written by: (a) Valmiki (b) Ved Vyas (c) Panini (d) Tulsi Daas

4.

The book ‘Things a little bird told me’ is a book from the co-founder of Twitter. The name of the co-founder is: (a) Biz Stone (b) Mark Zuckerberg (c) Steve jobs (d) None of these

5.

6.

7.

What is the name of the autobiography of ‘Naseeruddin Shah’ (a) Two Days Later (b) Fir ek Sham Huyi (c) And then One day (d) Meri Daastaan What is the name of the book written the current RBI governor Raghuram Rajan? (a) Fault Lines (b) Indian Decline (c) Economic Nightmare (d) Reforms Who is also known as the Indian Shakespeare? (a) Chetan Bhagat (b) Kalidaas (c) R.K. Narayanan (d) Kabir Daas

8.

Who wrote the India National Anthem? (a) B.C. Chatterjee (b) S.C. Naidu (c) Rabindra Nath Tagore (d) Javed Akhtar

9.

Who wrote the Panchtantra? (a) Valmiki (b) Ved Vyas (c) Vishnu Sharma (d) Tulsi Daas

10. The White Tiger is a famous book from? (a) Khushwant Singh (b) Arvind Adiga (c) Dadabhai Naoroji (d) Nathuram Godse 11. Who is the Man Booker Prize winner of 2014? (a) Eleanor Catton (b) Shashi Tharoor (c) V.S. Naipaul (d) None of these 12. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle is a famous author. His most famous creation is the character: (a) Jams Bond (b) Sherlock Holmes (c) Mowgli (d) Scrooge 13. Which one of the following literary works was not written by R.K. Narayan? (a) Malgudi Days (b) Guide (c) Swami and friends (d) Gardner 14. Who is the author of Discovery of India and Glimpses of World History? (a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Dadabhai Naoroji (c) Jawahar Lal Nehru (d) Sardar Patel


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Important Days 1.

2.

When is Air Force Day celebrated in India? (a) 4th October (b) 9th November th (c) 15 August (d) None of these

6.

When is ‘National Hindi Diwas’ celebrated? (a) 14th September (b) 15th September th (c) 16 September (d) None of these

When is sparrow day observed in India? (a) 20th March (b) 20th October (c) 20th November (d) 20th Fanuary

7.

‘Mandela Day’ is celebrated in honor of Nelson Mandela (the famous South African revolutionary, politician and philanthropist), on his birthday every year. On which day is Mandela Day celebrated? (a) 17th July (b) 18th July th (c) 19 July (d) 20th July

8.

When is international Day of Non Violence celebrated? (a) 15th August (b) 2nd October th (c) 26 January (d) None of these

3.

International Women’s Day is observed on: (a) 8th March (b) 8th April th (c) 8 May (d) 8th June

4.

‘World Water Day’ is observed on: (a) 24th May (b) 24th June th (c) 24 July (d) 22nd March

5.

‘Labour Day’ is observed on: (a) 1st May (b) 1st July (c) 1st December (d) 1st June

Inventions 1.

The first telescope was built by: (a) Galileo (b) Newton (c) Hans Lippersheyt (d) David Young

2.

Match the following: I. Baird II. Otis III. Colt IV. Tesla V. Galileo

3.

i. Revolver ii. Elevator iii. Thermometer iv. Television v. Induction Coil

Write the names of the inventors of: (a) Light Bulb ________________ (b) Computer ________________ (c) Telephone ________________ (d) Braille Language ________________ (e) Penicillin ________________ (f) Pasteurization ________________ (g) AK-47 ________________ (h) Jet Engine ________________


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Management Communication-I 1.

2.

3.

Which of the following strategies is an example of ‘promotion’ for a new brand of hair oil? (a) Packing it in eco-friendly bottles (b) Creating a brand name (c) Advertising it as adding shine to hair and helping prevent hair fall (d) Making it available only in barber shops and beauty saloons The OTC Exchange of India was modelled on the lines of which stock exchange? (a) NYSE (b) NASDAQ (c) Euronext (d) SWX Swiss Exchange Which of the following actions involves a senior manager to perform a decisional role? (a) Identifying trends that affect the company (b) Allocating funds for developing new products (c) Holding group meetings with his junior colleagues (d) Attending conferences about increasing corecompetency

4.

Which partner’s association with the company is unknown to the general public? (a) Secret partner (b) Active partner (c) Nominal partner (d) Sleeping partner

5.

If two rival companies join hands in order to secure a major contract, then this action can best be described by which of the following terms? (a) Outsourcing (b) Strategic alliance (c) Networking (d) Industry vertical

6.

Which of the following contracts is not applicable in life insurance? (a) Unilateral contract (b) Indemnity contract (c) Conditional contract (d) None of these

7.

Employees who inform authorities of wrong doings of their companies or co-workers are known as: (a) Wikileakers (b) Whistle blowers (c) Spokespersons (d) Black sheep

8.

Under which of the following business structures is there separation of ownership and management? (a) Company (b) Sole proprietorship (c) Partnership (d) All business organizations

9.

Which of the following roles is performed by a merchant bank? (a) Providing loans, mainly to companies (b) Disciplining companies over unethical business practices (c) Monitor activities of publicly listed companies (d) Providing licenses to brokers for trading in the stock market

10. Which of the following practices best defines ‘hedging’? (a) Reducing credit risks on international transactions (b) Minimizing the effects of global business cycle (c) Using transfer pricing between subsidiaries (d) Protecting against fluctuating exchange rates 11. Which is the highest level of need in the Maslow theory of motivation: (a) Physiological needs (b) Social needs (c) Self-actualization needs (d) Safety needs 12. What is the full form of USP? (a) Unit Sale Pivot (b) Unique Selling Proposition (c) Unique Selling Presumption (d) Unit Sales Production


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Current Affairs-III 1.

Which of the following organizations published the World Economic Situation and Prospects (WESP) 2016 report? (a) World Bank (b) OECD (c) United Nations (d) WTO

2.

Which of the following countries has won the first Blind T20 Asia Cricket Cup? (a) Bangladesh (b) Sri Lanka (c) India (d) Pakistan

3.

The first Ministerial Meeting of the Arab-India Cooperation Forum took place in which country? (a) Kuwait (b) Bahrain (c) Oman (d) Yemen

4.

5.

Which of the following is the first railway station in India to have free high-speed Wi-Fi Internet facility? (a) Chennai Central station (b) Mumbai Central station (c) New Delhi station (d) Kolkata station Syed Mushtaq Ali trophy is related to which sports? (a) Hockey (b) Badminton (c) Volleyball (d) Cricket

6.

Which of the following teams has won the 2016 Premier Badminton League (PBL)? (a) Hyderabad Hunters (b) Delhi Acers (c) Mumbai Rockets (d) Awade Warriors

7.

Which company has launched India’s first social mobile wallet ‘Udio’? (a) Oxigen (b) Twitter (c) TranServ (d) Facebook

8.

Who has been named as the new CEO of Tata Motors? (a) Keyur Joshi (b) Guenter Butschek (c) John Leahy (d) Tom Williams

9.

Who won the Nobel Prize in Economics for 2015 as announced on 12 October 2015? (a) Angus Deaton (b) Satrick Carl (c) Mat Seamons (d) Cathy Dennis

10. What is the name of the book written by former Pakistani foreign minister Khurshid Mahmud Kasuri? (a) To the Brink & Back (b) Neither a Hawk nor a Dove (c) The Pakistan Paradox (d) The Silk Roads


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GENERAL AWARENESS CLASS ASSIGNMENT – 4 Awards, Sports, Science, Banking Awareness, World Bodies, PSUs

Revision of Practice Test Book – 3 1.

Who was known as the Punjab Kesari (Lion of the Punjab)? (a) Lala Lajpat Rai (b) Bhagat Singh (c) Jatin Das (d) Bipin Chandra Pal

2.

Who is popularly known as 'Father of Indian Constitution'? (a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) B.R. Ambedkar (c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

3.

What is the maximum number of seats in Lower House of Parliament? (a) 545 (b) 565 (c) 530 (d) 552

4.

What is the maximum number of seats in Upper House of Parliament? (a) 250 (b) 210 (c) 215 (d) 284

5.

Which is the second highest mountain peak in the world? (a) Kangchenjunga (b) Mount Everest (c) K2 (d) Lhotse

6.

What was the name of the first artificial satellite that was launched by Russia? (a) Sputnik 1 (b) Explorer 1 (c) HS-333 (d) MILSTAR

7.

“Innovation and You” is the tagline of which company? (a) Toshiba (b) Sony (c) Philips (d) Panasonic

8.

“The Banker to Every Indian” is the tagline of which bank? (a) State Bank of India (b) Union Bank (c) Deutsche Bank (d) Yes Bank

9.

The headquarters of Pepsico is located at: (a) Redmond, Washington (b) Detroit (c) Purchase, New York (d) Palo Alto, California

10. ____________ acquired Tropicana in 1998 and Quaker Oats in 2001. (a) Fanta (b) Coca Cola (c) Limca (d) PepsiCo 11. Which FMCG major owns ‘Real’ a beverage brand? (a) Nestle (b) PepsiCo (b) Dabur (d) Coca-Cola 12. Which of the following is the correct description of the Capital Market? (a) Stock Markets and Bond Markets (b) Banks and Insurance Companies (c) RBI and Nationalized Banks (d) Stock Markets and Banks (e) None of these 13. Which of the following is not a mode of foreign capital inflow in India? (a) FDI (b) NRI deposits (c) FII (d) None of these 14. Which of the following terms is used in the field of finance and banking? (a) Single Bond (b) Quantum number (c) Adjustment Credit (d) Absolute zero 15. Many times we read a term CBS used in banking operations. What is the full form of the letter 'C in the term 'CBS'? (a) Complete (b) Continuous (d) Core (d) None of these


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16. Where would you find the Great Barrier Reef? (a) India (b) USA (c) Russia (d) Australia 17. The present Indian monetary system is based on— (a) Gold Reserve System (b) Proportional Reserve System (c) Convertible Currency System (d) Minimum Reserve System 18. Who is the author of the book “The Test of My Life”? (a) Yuvraj Singh (b) Rahul Dravid

(c) Sachin Tendulkar

(d) Adam Gilchrist

19. Which of the following is the tallest building of the world? (a) Burj Khalifa (b) Taipei 101 (c) Sears Towers (d) Pentagon 20. What does URL stand for? (a) Universal Remote Location (b) Unidentified Resource Lookup (c) Uniform Resource Locator (d) None of these

Awards, Sports & Science 1.

The highest civilian award in India is: (a) Bharat heera (b) Bharat Ratna (c) Padma Shree (d) Padma Bhushan

2.

Who among the following has not won the Bharat ratna Award? (a) Lal Krishna Advani (b) Morarji Desai (c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

3.

Which is India’s highest military honour? (a) Param Vir Chakra (b) Vir Chakra (c) Maha Vir Chakra (d) Bharat Ratna

4.

Who gets Dronacharya Award? (a) Best Wrestler (b) Best Batsman (c) Best Tennis Player (d) Best Coach

5.

On whose name are the Nobel Prizes named? (a) Sir William Nobel (b) Sir Arthur Nobel (c) Sir Alfred Nobel (d) Sir Anthony

6.

Who was the first foreigner to win the Bharat Ratna? (a) Benazir Bhutto (b) Winston Churchill (c) Nelson Madela (d) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan

7.

Which of the following awards has not been conferred to Amitabh Bachchan? (a) Padma Bhushan (b) Padma Vibhushan (c) Leign of Honour (d) Unesco Pyramide con Marni

8.

Who was the first person to win Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award? (a) Geet Sethi (b) Karnam Malleswari (c) Kapil Dev (d) Vishwanathan Anand

9.

What is the venue of Olympics 2016? (a) Greece (b) Rio (Brazil) (c) Delhi (India) (d) Tokyo (Japan)

10. Which of the following international tennis tournaments is held on grass court? (a) Australian Open (b) Wimbledon (c) French Open (d) US Open 11. Which one among the following is the coral group of islands of India? (a) Andaman (b) Lakshadweep (c) Minicoy (d) Nicobar 12. Who is the current World Chess Champion?


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(a) Vishwanathan Anand (c) Garry Kasprov

(b) Magnus Carlsen (d) None of these

13. For which game Jeev Milkha Singh is famous? (a) Basketball (b) Football (c) Golf (d) Pole-vault 14. Who among the following is credited with the invention of light-bulb? (a) Einstein (b) Edison (c) Faraday (d) Tesla 15. Deficiency of which vitamin in body causes the disease Beri-Beri? (a) Vitamin-A (b) Vitamin-B (c) Vitamin-C (d) None of these 16. The disease Goitre affects which part of the human body? (a) Eyes (b) Nose (c) Ears (d) Neck 17. Where is the National Centre for Good Governance setup by Indian government? (a) Jaipur (b) Delhi (c) Bangalore (d) Mussoorie 18. Which of the following is used in pencils? (a) Graphite (b) Lead (c) Silicon (d) Charcoal 19. Washing soda is the common name for: (a) Sodium Carbonate

(b) Calcium Bicarbonate (c) Sodium Bicarbonate (d)Calcium Carbonate 20. Which of the following gas is not a Green House Gas? (a) Methane (b) Nitrous Oxide (c) Carbon Dioxide (d) Hydrogen 21. Which of the following is used as a lubricant? (a) Graphite (b) Silica (c) Iron Oxide (d) Charcoal 22. The group of metals Fe, Co, Ni may best called as: (a) Alkali Metals (b) Alkaline Earth Metals (c) Transition Metals (d) Rare Metals 23. Heavy water is: (a) Deuterium Oxide (b) PH7 (c) Tritium Oxide (d) Addition of a substance 24. The element common to all acids is: (a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen (c) Carbon (d) Sulphur 25. Find the Odd one out: (a) Diamond (c) Carbon

(b) Graphite (d) Plati

Banking Awareness 1.

2.

Which of the following currency is the costliest? (a) US Dollar (b) Bahraini Dinar (c) Euro (d) British Pound Sterling Issuing of credit cards is a component of: (a) Investment Banking (b) Retail Banking

(c) Rural Banking (d) None of these 3.

Which of the following is not a type of cheque? (a) Bearer Cheque (b) Account Payee Cheque (c) Cancelled Cheque (d) Running cheque


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4.

5.

6.

Which of the following countries has not accepted Euro as its main currency? (a) Germany (b) United Kingdom (c) France (d) Italy Which of the following bank was called the Imperial Bank of India? (a) State Bank of India (b) Bank of India (c) Central Bank of India (d) Reserve bank of India Which of the following is a function of RBI?

1. Issue of Bank Notes 2. It is the banker to the government of India 3. It is the Custodian of cash reserves of banks. (a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 & 3 (c) All of the above (d) None of these 7.

Who among the following is the 23rd RBI Governor? (a) D Subbarao (b) Raghuram Rajan (c) Bimal Jalan (d) Y.V. Reddy

8.

Find the odd one out: (a) SLR (c) Repo Rate

9.

(b) CRR (d) IPO

Which of the following is the tagline of State bank of India: (a) The banker to every Indian (b) The nation you can Bank upon (c) Hum hain na (d) None of these

10. Which of the following are terms used in stock market?

(a) Bear (c) Long

(b) Bull (d) IPO

11. Which of the following is India’s oldest stock exchange? (a) Amsterdam Stock Exchange (b) New York Stock Exchange (c) Bombay Stock Exchange (d) National Stock Exchange 12. Which among the following committee suggested to establish Insurance Regulatory Authority in India? (a) Rangrajan Committee (b) Malhotra Committee (c) Dandekar Committee (d) Usha Committee 13. Which of the following institutions provides short term loans to its member countries to stabilize their fluctuating economies? (a) World bank (b) International Monetary Fund (c) Reserve Bank of India (d) Federal Bank 14. Who among the following is the current president of World Bank? (a) Jim Yong Kim (b) Tony Blair (c) Mark Anthony (d) Kofi Annan 15. Select the correct match: i. India I. NASDAQ/NYSE ii. China II. EURONEXT iii. France III. SSE iv. USA IV. NSE/BSE (a) i-I, ii-II, iii-III, iv-IV (b) i-IV, ii-II, iii-I, iv-III (c) i-IV, ii-III, iii-II, iv-I (d) i-II, ii-III, iii-IV, iv-I

World Bodies & PSUs 1.

Which of the following was the first to be established? (a) United Nations (b) NAM (c) League of Nations (d) BRICS

2.

Where is the headquarters of United Nations? (a) Geneva (b) Washington D.C. (c) New York (d) None of these


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3.

4.

5.

Which of the Organization? (a) UNESCO (c) ILO

following

is

a

cultural

(b) WHO (d) FAO

Which of the following is not associated with the UNO? (a) ILO (b) WHO (c) ASEAN (d) All of the above Which of the following was formed by the amalgamation of 5 financial institutes (namely IBRD, IFC, IDA, MIGA & ICSID)? (a) IMF (b) World Bank (c) RBI (d) SBI

6.

Which country among the following does not hold the Veto power in the Security Council of UN (a) USA (b) France (c) China (d) India

7.

What is the expansion of ‘E’ in OPEC? (a) Energy (b) Economy (c) Expenses (d) Exporting

8.

The Red Cross Society has its headquarter in: (a) New Delhi (b) Geneva (c) Hague (d) Rome

9.

Which of the following country was admitted into G7, converting it to G8? (a) Ukraine (b) Russia (c) Kazakhstan (d) Canada

10. INTERPOL means (a) International Political Conference (b) International Criminal Police Organisation (c) International Association of Police Officers (d) None of these 11. What is BRICS? (a) It is a type of material used to build buildings (b) It is a fashion brand (c) It is an association of five major emerging national economies

(d) It is a group of cricket playing countries 12. The next G-20 summit will be held at: (a) Russia (b) USA (c) France (d) None of these 13. India is not a part of which of the following associations? (a) BRICS (b) UN (c) SAARC (d) ASEAN 14. Where is the headquarters of ADB (Asian Development Bank) located? (a) Philippines (b) Manila (c) Geneva (d) Hague 15. Which of the following countries is not a member of ASEAN? (a) Cambodia (b) Indonesia (c) Canada (d) Malaysia 16. Which of the following is NOT a Maharatna Company? (a) Gas Authority of India Limited (b) Coal India Limited (c) Steel Authority of India Limited (d) Airport Authority of India 17. Today there are companies in India. (a) 5 (c) 7

________

Maharatna

(b) 6 (d) 8

18. Which is India’s largest oil production company? (a) ONGC (b) IOC (c) OIL (d) GAIL 19. PSU companies are divided into ________ categories. (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 20. Which company is associated with distribution of Aluminium products? (a) SAIL (b) HAL (c) NALCO (d) AAI


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Current Affairs -IV 1.

Dena Bank ties up with ________ for Group Life Insurance to its Housing Loan customers under “Dena Grihaswami Suraksha Yojana”. (a) ICICI (b) Axis (c) HDFC (d) SBI Life

5.

The title of Hero World Challenge has been conferred upon which of the following professional golfer? (a) Anirban Lahiri (b) Ricky Fowler (c) Patrick Reed (d) Bubba Watson

2.

Who was awarded with four world record certificates scoring five goals in nine minutes? (a) Cristiano Ronaldo (b) Lionel Messi (c) Marco Reus (d) Robert Lewandowski

6.

Which city Police has been conferred with “Express IT excellence award” in acknowledgment with IT initiatives launched by them ? (a) Chattisgarh Police (b) Karnataka Police (c) Hyderabad Police (d) Lucknow Police

3.

Which bank launches country’s first ‘display variant’ debit card? (a) ICICI Bank (b) Yes Bank (c) Axis Bank (d) HDFC BanK

7.

International Monetary Fund (IMF) has block its financial aid program to which country? (a) Zimbabwe (b) Russia (c) Ukraine (d) Indonesia

4.

Which country has passed Anti-Terrorism law to strip dual nationals of their citizenship if they are convicted of terrorism offences? (a) Japan (b) Australia (c) Russia (d) Austria

8.

Who is named as the Sports Illustrated‘s 2015 Sportsperson of the Year? (a) Sania Mirza (b) Lyndrea Price (c) Serena Williams (d) Venus Williams


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GENERAL AWARENESS CLASS ASSIGNMENT – 5 Economics, Finance, Govt. Policies, Rankings 1.

Which of the following statements is/are not correct about National Population Register (NPR): (a) It is a project of home ministry. (b) It is a substitute for Aadhar (UID). (c) It collects identity through three biometrics photographs, fingerprints and iris impression. (d) All the residents above five years of age have to be enrolled mandatorily.

7.

2.

What is the purpose of Make in India scheme? (a) To make India a global country. (b) To encourage small industries in India to open branches all over the world. (c) To attract businesses from around the world to invest and manufacture in India. (d) To increase HDI of India.

8.

3.

Niti Aayog has commission? (a) Urban Commission (b) Finance Commission (c) Judicial Commission (d) Planning Commission

Which of following statement is true about the Economic Growth: (a) It refers to increase in Gross Domestic Product (GDP) (b) It refers to the long and sustained rise in real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) (c) It is characterized by fall in unemployment rate (d) Rise in GDP on monetary term

9.

Market Based economy means: (a) All economic decision are taken based on the demand and supply forces (b) Some economic decision are taken by government and other are left to market forces (c) Government has full control over the private sector (d) Economic decisions are taken after keeping in view the social welfare

4.

5.

6.

replaced

(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 and 3 (c) Only 1 and 3 (d) All of them

which

The scheme by which each MP adopt a village of his/her constituency and then turn them into a model village within 2 years is known as? (a) Deendayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana (b) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) (c) Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojna (d) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana Which of the following org. is associated with HRD ministry: (a) INDEST (b) National Book Trust (c) National Bal Bhavan (d) All of above Correct chronological order? (older to newer) (a) Mid Day meal, RTE, SSA (b) SSA, Mid Day Meal, RTE (c) RTE, Mid Day meal, SSA (d) Mid Day Meal, SSA, RTE

Governing council of the Niti Aayog includes (1) Prime minister (2) Finance minister (3) Chief ministers of all states

10. Sustainable Development implies: (a) Sustained rise in real GDP (b) Long lasting development without negatively impacting the environment (c) Full exploitation of natural resources (d) Reduction in unemployment and poverty 11. Mixed Economy Implies: (a) Absence of Public Sector (b) Absence of private sector (c) Co-existence of public and private sector (d) All economic activities are motivated by social welfare 12. Who operates the monetary policy in India?


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(a) Ministry of Finance (b) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) (c) Security and Exchange Board of India (d) All of above 13. Forward Markets Commission (FMC) to be merged with which organization? (a) BSE (b) RBI (c) SEBI (d) SBI 14. GAAR Stands for? (a) Govt. Anti-Avoidance Rules (b) General Anti-Avoidance Rules (c) General Arm Avoidance Rules (d) None of above 15. Which was the first Indian bank to provide internet banking facility? (a) HSBC (b) HDFC bank (c) SBI (d) ICICI bank

20. What is India’s rank on global corruption index? (a) 85th (b) 76th (c) 67th (d) None of above 21. What is India’s rank on global hunger index? (a) 52nd (b) 53rd (c) 55th (d) None of above 22. Revealed Preference Theory was propounded by? (a) Adam Smith (b) Marshall (c) P. A. Samuelson (d) J.S. Mill

16. Which of the following is used for the measurement of distribution of income? (a) Laffer Curve (b) Engel’s Law (c) Gini-Lorenz Curve (d) Philip Curve

23. The annual record for all the monetary transactions of a country with other countries of the world is known as— (a) Balance of trade (b) Balance of monetary receipts (c) Balance of payments (d) Balance-Sheet

17. Liquidity refers to: (a) Wealth available with investors (b) Ease with which assets can be converted into the money (c) Currency convertibility (d) All of above

24. One of the essential conditions of monopolistic competition is— (a) Many buyers but one seller (b) Price discrimination (c) Product differentiation (d) Homogeneous product

18. Which of following statement is true about the Primary deficit? (a) It is difference between Revenue receipts and Revenue Expenditure (b) It is difference between capital receipts and Interest Payment (c) It is difference between the Fiscal Deficit and Interest Payment (d) It is addition of Fiscal Deficit and Interest Payment

25. In Economics the terms ‘Utility’ and ‘usefulness’ have— (a) Same meaning (b) Different meaning (c) Opposite meaning (d) None of the above

19. What does the term NSDL stands for? (a) National Securities Development Limited (b) National Securities Depository Limited (c) National Safety Development Limited (d) Natural Safety Deployment Limited

26. Gross Domestic Product is defined as the value of all— (a) Goods produced in an economy in a year (b) Goods and services produced in an economy in a year (c) Final goods produced in an economy in a year (d) Final goods and services produced in an economy in a year


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Management Communication II 1.

The ideal behaviour of an administrator of an organization is: (a) Influential and essential (b) Impartial (c) Organization welfare oriented (d) Justified according to the situation

2.

The maximum number of members in a private company is: (a) 7 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 50

3.

The minimum number of directors in a Public Company is? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

4.

In which type of company there is no restriction on the transfer of shares: (a) Public company (b) Private company (c) Both of the above (d) None of the above

5.

6.

The board of director of a Joint Stock Company is elected by: (a) General Public (b) Government Bodies (c) Shareholders (d) Employees A decision is taken to put capital of the company in different assets. What is this decision called: (a) Dividend decision

(b) Investment decision (c) Financing decision (d) Working capital decision 7.

Which is the highest level of need in the Maslow theory of motivation: (a) Physiological needs (b) Social needs (c) Self-actualization needs (d) Safety needs

8.

The psychological barriers to effective communication does not include which of the following: (a) Premature evaluation (b) Lack of attention (c) Faulty translations (d) Distrust

9.

The first step in the process of organizing is: (a) Departmentalization (b) Establishing reporting relationships (c) Assignment of duties (d) Identification and division of work

10. The first step in the process of organizing is: (a) Departmentalization (b) Establishing reporting relationships (c) Assignment of duties (d) Identification and division of work

Current Affairs V 1.

2.

Which city has launched the first metro station in the country to run by only women staff? (a) Bengaluru (b) Lucknow (c) Jaipur (d) Mumbai Orange Day campaign has been organised in which Indian State to end violence against women as stipulated by the UN General Assembly? (a) Karnataka (b) New Delhi

(c) Kerala (d) Tamil Nadu 3.

Which two Indian banks are going to list their bonds on the London Stock Exchange? (a) Axis and ICICI (b) Yes bank and SBI (c) ICICI & SBI (d) HDFC & YES Bank

4.

To make the rail sector passenger friendly, Ministry of Railways launched a scheme for waitlisted passengers named _____.


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(a) Nirnay (b) Sujhav (c) Vikas (d) Vikalp 5.

6.

7.

(c) Greece (d) Iran

Who is the Runner-Up of Men’s Wimbledon 2015? (a) Rafael Nadal (b) Andy Murray (c) Roger Federer (d) Novak Djokovic What is the name of recently developed world’s first malaria vaccine? (a) Mosquip (b) Mosquin (c) Mosquirix (d) Mostinct The G-20 Meeting of Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors was held at? (a) Syria (b) Turkey

8.

What is ‘Homonaledi’? (a) Newly Discovered Species of Human Relative (b) Newly Discovered Plant (c) Newly Discovered Drug (d) None of These

9.

2015 Commonwealth Youth Games (CYG) being held at? (a) South Africa (b) Samoa (c) Somalia (d) Singapore

10. Book Titled ‘To the Brink and Back: India's 1991 Story’ is written by? (a) Digvijay Singh (b) Kapil Sibal (c) Manish Tewari (d) Jairam Ramesh


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NOTES

NOTES

Class Assignments Book

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