CIVIL ENGINEERING COMPETITIVE QUESTIONS S.No. Question 1
Concrete contains (i)Siliceous aggregates, having higher coefficient of expansion (ii)Igneous aggregates, having intermediate coefficient of expansion (iii)Lime stones, having lowest coefficient of expansion [A]
i and iii
[B]
ii and iii
[C]
i and ii
[D]
i, ii and iii
Answer : D 2
Select the incorrect statement [A]
R.C.C has better fire resistance than steel
[B]
R.C.C. structure is economical than steel structure
[C]
Strength of concrete decreases as age increases
[D]
R.C.C can be used for under water and marine structures
Answer : C 3
Water cement ratio is the ratio of [A]
Water to cement by weight
[B]
Water to cement by volume
[C]
Cement to water by weight
[D]
Cement to water by volume
Answer : A 4
Concrete is [A]
Weak in tension
[B]
Strong in tension
[C]
Strong in both tension and compression
[D]
Weak in compression
Answer : A 5
The entrained air in concrete [A]
Increases the strength
[B]
Decreases the resistance to weathering
[C]
Increases the workability
[D]
Decreases the workability
Answer : C Civil Engineering Rocks Civil Engineering Rocks
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6
Concrete is unsuitable for compaction by vibration if it is [A]
Semi – plastic
[B]
Plastic
[C]
Earth moist
[D]
Dry
Answer : B 7
The strength and quality of concrete depends upon (i)Grading of aggregates (ii)Shape of aggregates (iii)Surface area of aggregates (iv)Surface texture of aggregates [A]
i, ii and iv
[B]
ii, iii and iv
[C]
i, iii and iv
[D]
i, ii, iii and iv
Answer : D 8
In order to avoid segregation, fresh concrete should be dropped from a height of [A]
Less than one meter
[B]
Less than two metres
[C]
More than one metre
[D]
More than two metres
Answer : A 9
The process of hardening of concrete in the presence of water is called [A]
Creep
[B]
Hydration
[C]
Shrinkage
[D]
Curing
Answer : B 10
The process of keeping the concrete structure moist is called [A]
Hydration
[B]
Curing
[C]
Creep
[D]
Shrinkage
Answer : B 11
The separation of water or water cement mixture from the freshly laid concrete is known as
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[A]
Workability
[B]
Segregation
[C]
Bleeding
[D]
Creep
Answer : C 12 The continuous strain, which the concrete undergoes due to application of external loads is called [A]
Creep
[B]
Bleeding
[C]
Workability
[D]
Segregation
Answer : A 13
The process of conversion of plastic concrete to solid stage is called [A]
Hydration
[B]
Hardening
[C]
Setting
[D]
Curing
Answer : C 14
At 28 days of curing concrete attains a strength of [A]
20 to 25%
[B]
60 to 70%
[C]
65 to 80%
[D]
90 to 95%
Answer : D 15
In a mass concrete, the aggregates occupy a space of [A]
25%
[B]
75%
[C]
40%
[D]
60%
Answer : B 16
The coarse aggregate which possess the property of good interlocking are [A]
rounded shape
[B]
elongated shape
[C]
angular shape
[D]
none of the above
Answer : C
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17
While placing of concrete the thickness of each layer for R.C.C. is [A]
150 to 300 mm
[B]
450 mm
[C]
500 to 750 mm
[D]
500 mm
Answer : A 18
Increase in water content in a cement concrete (i) Increases workability (ii) Increases the strength [A]
i
[B]
ii
[C]
both (i) and (ii)
[D]
neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer : A 19
Slump cone test is used to determine [A]
Shrinkage of concrete mix
[B]
Creep of concrete
[C]
Workability of concrete mix
[D]
Soundness of concrete
Answer : C 20 While determining the workability of concrete mix, the compaction factor test is ------than the slump cone test [A]
Less accurate
[B]
More accurate
[C]
Approximate method
[D]
None of the above
Answer : B 21
Workability of concrete mix with low water cement ratio is determined by [A]
Tensile strength test
[B]
Slump cone test
[C]
Compaction factor test
[D]
Flexural strength test
Answer : C 22
If the slump of a concrete mix is 50 to 100 mm, its workability is [A]
Very low
[B]
Low
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[C]
Medium
[D]
High
Answer : C 23
A compaction factor of 0.75 indicates ________workability [A]
Very low
[B]
Low
[C]
Medium
[D]
High
Answer : A 24
Shrinkage in concrete can be reduced by using (i) Low water cement ratio (ii) More amount of cement in the concrete (iii) Presaturated aggregates [A]
i
[B]
i and ii
[C]
i and iii
[D]
i, ii and iii
Answer : C 25 The process of proper and accurate measurement of concrete ingredients for uniformity of proportion, is known as [A]
Curing
[B]
Mixing
[C]
Grading
[D]
Batching
Answer : D 26
Select incorrect statement from the following [A]
With passage of time, the strength of cement decreases
[B]
With passage of time, the strength of cement increases
[C]
After a period of 24 months, the strength of cement reduces to 50%
[D]
The concrete made with storage deteriorated cement; gains strength with
time.
Answer : B 27
For compacting plain concrete road surface of thickness less than 20 cm, the following vibrator is used. [A]
Internal vibrator
[B]
Screed vibrator
[C]
Form vibrator
[D]
None of the above
Answer : B Civil Engineering Rocks Civil Engineering Rocks
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28
Slump test of concrete is a measure of its [A]
Consistency
[B]
Compressive strength
[C]
Tensile strength
[D]
Impact value
Answer : A 29
Concrete gains strength due to [A]
Chemical reaction of cement with sand and coarse aggregates
[B]
Evaporation of water from concrete
[C]
Hydration of cement
[D]
All the above
Answer : C 30
Minimum grade of concrete for R.C.C. should be _________ , as per IS. 456-2000 [A]
M10
[B]
M14
[C]
M20
[D]
M25
Answer : C 31
A concrete mass containing 5% of voids [A]
Increases its strength by 30%
[B]
Reduces its strength by 30%
[C]
Increases its strength by 5%
[D]
Reduces its strength by 5%
Answer : B 32
Workability of a concrete – mix is determined by (i)Slump cone test (ii)Compaction factor test (iii)Vee bee test [A]
i
[B]
ii
[C]
i and ii
[D]
i, ii and iii
Answer : D 33
High strength of concrete requires a water cement ratio of [A]
0.10 to 0.15
[B]
0.25 to 0.30
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[C]
0.45 to 0.60
[D]
0.75 to 0.90
Answer : B 34
One bag of cement is equivalent to [A]
50 litres
[B]
35 litres
[C]
28 litres
[D]
14 litres
Answer : B 35
One cubit metre of cement weights [A]
1000 kg
[B]
1200 kg
[C]
1440 kg
[D]
1600 kg
Answer : C 36
As per IS: 456-2000, modulus of elasticity of concrete (in N/mm2) is given by [A]
5700 vfCK
[B]
5000 vfCK
[C]
3700 vfCK
[D]
3000 vfCK
Answer : B 37 are
In working stress method of design, the factor of safety for concrete and steel respectively [A]
3.0 and 1.8
[B]
3.0 and 1.18
[C]
3.0 and 1.15
[D]
1.5 and 1.5
Answer : A 38
In Limit state method of design, the factor of safety for concrete and steel respectively are [A]
3.00 and 1.80
[B]
1.50 and 1.18
[C]
1.50 and 1.15
[D]
1.50 and 1.50
Answer : C 39
Specific weight of Reinforced cement concrete is [A]
24 N/m3
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[B]
24 kN/m3
[C]
25 N/m3
[D]
25 kN/m3
Answer : D 40
The tensile strength of concrete is about ________ of its compressive strength [A]
10% to 15%
[B]
30% to 40%
[C]
50%
[D]
60% to 75%
Answer : A 41
The shrinkage strain of concrete is generally taken as [A]
0.3
[B]
0.03
[C]
0.003
[D]
0.0003
Answer : D 42
The tensile strength of concrete is given by [A]
0.45 vfCK
[B]
0.60 vfCK
[C]
0.70 vfCK
[D]
0.90 vfCK
Answer : C 43
The ratio of bond stress for HYSD bars to that of plain bars [A]
0.714
[B]
0.9
[C]
1.4
[D]
1.8
Answer : C 44
The proof stress in steel is the stress corresponding to the strain of [A]
0.2
[B]
0.02
[C]
0.002
[D]
0.0002
Answer : C 45
In the mixer, the concrete should be mixed for at least [A]
1 to 2 minutes
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[B]
2 to 3 minutes
[C]
3 to 5 minutes
[D]
5 to 7 minutes
Answer : B 46
As per IS: 456-2000, the maximum size of aggregate is [A]
1/4 of maximum thickness of member
[B]
1/4 of minimum thickness of member
[C]
1/5 of maximum thickness of member
[D]
1/5 of minimum thickness of member
Answer : B 47
Water used for mixing of concrete should be free from (i)Oils (ii)Salts (iii)Acids [A]
i
[B]
iii
[C]
i and iii
[D]
i, ii and iii
Answer : D 48
Modulus of elasticity of concrete is primarily influenced by [A]
Elastic properties of aggregate
[B]
Curing of concrete
[C]
Age of concrete
[D]
Mix proportion and type of cement
Answer : A 49
As the workability increases compaction factor [A]
Decreases
[B]
Increases
[C]
Remains same
[D]
None of the above
Answer : B 50
Shrinkage of concrete is mostly influenced by [A]
Environmental conditions
[B]
Size of member
[C]
Cement in concrete
[D]
The total amount of water present in concrete
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Answer : D 51
During the process of hardening of cement, _______ will takes place [A]
Bleeding
[B]
Segregation
[C]
Hydration
[D]
All the above
Answer : C 52
Due to Bleeding action concrete becomes [A]
Weak
[B]
Strong
[C]
Hard
[D]
Durable
Answer : A 53
About 70% to 80% of cement is contributed by [A]
Tricalcium silicate and Tricalcium aluminate
[B]
Tricalcium silicate and Dicalcium silicate
[C]
Tricalcium Aluminate and Dicalcium silicate
[D]
Tricalcium Aluminate and Tetra calcium Aluminoferrite
Answer : B 54 When compared to ordinary Portland cement, Rapid hardening Portland cement contains ______________ amount of lime content [A]
Equal
[B]
Greater
[C]
Lesser
[D]
Zero
Answer : B 55
The following compound has the property of early strength as well as ultimate strength [A]
C3S
[B]
C2S
[C]
C3A
[D]
C4AF
Answer : A 56
Which of the following compounds is considered to be an undesirable compound for cement [A]
C3S
[B]
C2S
[C]
C3A
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[D]
C4AF
Answer : D 57
Which of the following compound is susceptible to be attached by alkalies and salts [A]
C3S
[B]
C3S
[C]
C3A
[D]
C3AF
Answer : C 58
The heat generated in ordinary cement at the end of 3 days is about [A]
60 cal/g
[B]
80 cal/g
[C]
100 cal/g
[D]
120 cal/g
Answer : B 59
Low heat cement contains more amount of __________ than that of ordinary Portland cement [A]
C3S
[B]
C2S
[C]
C3A
[D]
None of the above
Answer : B 60
In Portland Blast furnace slag cement, the blast furnace slag content shall not exceed [A]
50%
[B]
65%
[C]
80%
[D]
90%
Answer : B 61
White cement contains less amount of ___________ [A]
Lime
[B]
Silica
[C]
Alumina
[D]
Iron oxide
Answer : D 62
In fineness test on cement, residue left on I.S. sieve no.9 shall not exceed __________ by weight of the sample of cement [A]
5%
[B]
10%
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[C]
15%
[D]
20%
Answer : B 63
Ordinary Portland cement requires a specific surface of [A]
1250 cm2/gm
[B]
2250 cm 2/gm
[C]
3250 cm 2/gm
[D]
3500 cm 2/gm
Answer : B 64
The maximum percentage of chemical ingredient of cement is [A]
Iron oxide
[B]
Silica
[C]
Lime
[D]
Magnesium oxide
Answer : C 65
The minimum percentage of chemical ingredient of cement is [A]
Iron oxide
[B]
Silica
[C]
Lime
[D]
Magnesium oxide
Answer : D 66
Efflorescence in cement is caused due to an excess of [A]
Alkalies
[B]
Silica
[C]
Iron oxide
[D]
Alumina
Answer : A 67
Dicalcium silicate (C2S) [A]
rates rapidly
[B]
Hardens rapidly
[C]
Generates less heat of hydration
[D]
Has less resistance to sulphate attack
Answer : C 68
Tricalcium aluminate (C3A) [A]
Hydrating less rapidly
[B]
Is a redundant compound
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[C]
To be attacked by alkalies and salts
[D]
None of these
Answer : C 69
For road pavements, the cement generally used, is [A]
Ordinary Portland cement
[B]
Rapid hardening cement
[C]
Low heat cement
[D]
Blast furnace slag cement
Answer : A 70
For mass concrete work, the type of cement preferable is [A]
Ordinary Portland cement
[B]
Rapid hardening cement
[C]
Low heat cement
[D]
Blast furnace slag cement
Answer : C 71
Le-chatelier apparatus is used for [A]
Fineness test
[B]
Consistency test
[C]
Soundness test
[D]
Compressive strength test
Answer : C 72
The diameter of the Vicat plunger is 10 mm and its length varies form [A]
40 mm
[B]
50 mm
[C]
55 mm
[D]
60 mm
Answer : B 73
Inert material of a cement concrete mix, is [A]
Water
[B]
Aggregate
[C]
Cement
[D]
None of these
Answer : B 74
An aggregate is said to be flaky, if its least dimension is less than [A]
2/3 mean dimension
[B]
3/4 mean dimension
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[C]
3/5 mean dimension
[D]
5/8 mean dimension
Answer : C 75
Workability of concrete for a given water content is good, if the aggregates are [A]
Rounded
[B]
Irregular
[C]
Angular
[D]
Flaky
Answer : A 76
Setting time of cement increases by adding (i)gypsum (ii)sodium oxide (iii)calcium chloride [A]
i
[B]
i and ii
[C]
i and iii
[D]
i, ii and iii
Answer : A 77
The cement becomes useless if its absorbed moisture content exceeds [A]
1%
[B]
2%
[C]
3%
[D]
5%
Answer : D 78
The size of fine aggregates does not exceed [A]
2.75 mm
[B]
3.75 mm
[C]
4.75 mm
[D]
5.75 mm
Answer : C 79
Water used for mixing concrete should be [A]
Slightly acidic
[B]
Free from bacteria
[C]
Distilled
[D]
Potable
Answer : D Civil Engineering Rocks Civil Engineering Rocks
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80
The workability of concrete is mostly influenced by its [A]
Water cement ratio
[B]
Aggregate cement ratio
[C]
Cement content
[D]
Water content
Answer : A 81
Chief constituent of ordinary Portland cement is [A]
Lime
[B]
Alumina
[C]
Magnesia
[D]
Iron oxide
Answer : A 82
The heat of hydration for low heat cement at the age of 7 days shall not exceed [A]
80 cal / gm
[B]
75 cal / gm
[C]
70 cal / gm
[D]
65 cal / gm
Answer : D 83
Cement is obtained by burning a mixture of the following materials [A]
Siliceous materials
[B]
Argillaceous materials
[C]
Calcareous materials
[D]
All the above
Answer : D 84 For determining the compressive strength test on cement is, the percentage amount of water to be added as (Pa = Percentage of water for required consistency) [A]
0.25 Pa + 2.5
[B]
0.25 Pa + 3.5
[C]
0.35 Pa + 2.5
[D]
0.35 Pa + 3.5
Answer : B 85 Minimum compressive strength of cement required at the age of 3 days for ordinary Portland cement of grade 33 is [A]
1.15 N/mm2
[B]
11.5 N/mm2
[C]
2.10 N/mm2
[D]
21 N/mm2
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Answer : B 86
Bulking of sand takes place due to [A]
Surface tension
[B]
Viscosity
[C]
Capillarity
[D]
None of the above
Answer : A 87
Creep coefficient is the ratio of [A]
Ultimate Creep strain to elastic strain
[B]
Elastic strain to ultimate Creep strain
[C]
Elastic strain to plastic strain
[D]
Plastic strain to elastic strain
Answer : A 88
Generally the strength of concrete is represented by the crushing stress of concrete cube of size [A]
50 mm
[B]
100 mm
[C]
150 mm
[D]
250 mm
Answer : C 89
As per IS:1139, the characteristic yield strength for hot rolled High yield strength deformed bars is [A]
250 N/mm2
[B]
415 N/mm2
[C]
500 N/mm2
[D]
550 N/mm2
Answer : B 90
As per IS:1139, the characteristic yield strength for cold twisted deformed bars is [A]
250 N/mm2
[B]
415 N/mm2
[C]
500 N/mm2
[D]
550 N/mm2
Answer : C 91
For reinforced concrete work, aggregates having a nominal size of -------- are generally used [A]
20 mm
[B]
40 mm
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[C]
50 mm
[D]
60 mm
Answer : A 92
The proportion of coarse aggregates to fire aggregates in structural concrete is usually [A]
0.50 - 1.25
[B]
1.25 - 4.50
[C]
1.50 - 2.50
[D]
0.25 - 0.75
Answer : C 93
Fly ash when added to concrete [A]
Acts as aggregates
[B]
Acts as pozzolona
[C]
Improves appearance
[D]
Reduces setting time
Answer : B 94
As per IS:456, the strength of concrete sample is less than [A]
The characteristic strength minus 1.35times the standard deviation
[B]
0.80 times the characteristic strength
[C]
Greater of (a) and (b)
[D]
None of the above
Answer : C 95
Characteristic strength of steel has been defined as [A]
0.1 % proof stress
[B]
0.2 % proof stress
[C]
0.4 % proof stress
[D]
Equal to proof stress
Answer : B 96
For Ordinary Portland cement concrete exposed to dry and hot weather conditions, good moist curing period is [A]
7 days
[B]
10 days
[C]
14 days
[D]
None of the above
Answer : B 97
As per IS: 456-2000, recommended value for standard deviation for concrete mix from M30 to M50 is [A]
1 N/mm2
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[B]
2 N/mm2
[C]
4 N/mm2
[D]
5 N/mm2
Answer : D 98
As per 1S: 456-2000, minimum grade of concrete in seat water constructions is [A]
M20
[B]
M25
[C]
M30
[D]
M50
Answer : C 99
The section of a reinforced beam where most distant concrete fiber in compression and tension in steel attains permissible stresses simultaneously is called (i)Balanced section (ii)Economic section (iii)Critical section [A]
i
[B]
i and ii
[C]
i and iii
[D]
i, ii and iii
Answer : D 100
As the percentage of steel increases [A]
Depth of neutral axis decreases
[B]
Depth of neutral axis increases
[C]
Lever arm increases
[D]
None of the above are correct
Answer : B 101
In a Singly reinforced beam, if the permissible stress in concrete reaches earlier than that in steel, the beam section is called [A]
Under reinforced section
[B]
Over reinforced section
[C]
Balanced section
[D]
Critical section
Answer : B 102
The neutral axis corresponding to balanced section condition is termed as [A]
Critical neutral axis
[B]
Centroidal neutral axis
[C]
Balanced neutral axis
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[D]
All the above
Answer : A 103
In a singly reinforced beam, if the permissible stress in steel reaches earlier than that of concrete, the beam section as called [A]
Under reinforced section
[B]
Over reinforced section
[C]
Balanced section
[D]
Critical section
Answer : A 104
The depth of neutral axis for under reinforced section is --------- the depth of critical neutral axis [A]
Equal to
[B]
Greater than
[C]
Less than
[D]
None of the above
Answer : C 105
The depth of neutral axis for over reinforced section is ----------- the depth of critical neutral axis [A]
Equal to
[B]
Greater than
[C]
Less than
[D]
None of the above
Answer : B 106
For a balanced section, the tensile stress in the reinforcement [A]
reaches its allowable stress
[B]
is always less than its allowable stress
[C]
may be greater than its allowable stress
[D]
none of the above
Answer : A 107
The depth of neutral axis for a balanced section is --------- the depth of critical neutral axis [A]
equal
[B]
always greater than
[C]
always less than
[D]
may be sometimes greater than
Answer : A 108
Moment of resistance for a under reinforced section --------- that of a critical section
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[A]
Is equal to
[B]
Is always greater than
[C]
Is less than
[D]
May be sometimes greater than
Answer : C 109
By over-reinforcing a beam, the moment of resistance can be increased not more than [A]
10%
[B]
15%
[C]
25%
[D]
50%
Answer : C 110
The working stress method is also known as [A]
Elastic method
[B]
Load factor method
[C]
Critical method
[D]
All the above
Answer : A 111
Working stress method of design results in -------------- percentages of compression steel than that of a limit state method of design [A]
Equal
[B]
Larger
[C]
Smaller
[D]
Half of the
Answer : B 112
As per IS;456, in working stress method of design, permissible tensile stress for M20 grade concrete is given by [A]
1. 2 N/mm2
[B]
1.5 N/mm2
[C]
2.0 N/mm2
[D]
2.8 N/mm2
Answer : D 113
In working stress method of design, permissible compressive bending stress for M20 grade concrete is given by [A]
5.0 N/mm2
[B]
7.0 N/mm2
[C]
10.0 N/mm2
[D]
20 N/mm2
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Answer : B 114
As per IS: 456, permissible direct compressive stress M20 grade concrete in working stress method of designer [A]
5.0 N/mm2
[B]
7.0 N/mm2
[C]
10.0 N/mm2
[D]
20.0 N/mm2
Answer : A 115
As per IS: 456, permissible bond stress for plain bars in tension, in working stress method, where M20, is the grade of concrete [A]
0.6 N/mm2
[B]
0.8 N/mm2
[C]
1.0 N/mm2
[D]
1.2 N/mm2
Answer : B 116
The bond stress for plain bars in compression is more than that for bars in tension by [A]
25%
[B]
40%
[C]
60%
[D]
50%
Answer : A 117
The bond stress for deformed bars is more than that in plain bars by [A]
25%
[B]
40%
[C]
60%
[D]
50%
Answer : B 118
As per IS:456, maximum shear stress for M20 glade concrete in working stress method is [A]
1.6 N/mm2
[B]
1.8 N/mm2
[C]
2.0 N/mm2
[D]
2.2 N/mm2
Answer : B 119
When the nominal shear stress is less than permissible shear stress in concrete then [A]
Provide minimum shear reinforcement
[B]
No shear reinforcement is necessary
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[C]
Provide design shear reinforcement
[D]
None of the above
Answer : A 120
While compared with singly reinforced beams, the depth of doubly reinforced beam is [A]
Greater
[B]
Lesser
[C]
almost equal
[D]
twice
Answer : B 121
If the depth of actual neutral axis is greater than the depth of critical neutral axis, then [A]
Concrete attains its permissible stress earlier
[B]
Steel attains its permissible stress earlier
[C]
Both concrete and steel reaches its permissible stresses simultaneously
[D]
None of the above
Answer : A 122
Steel Beam theory is a method of designing [A]
Balanced sections
[B]
Critical sections
[C]
Singly reinforced beams
[D]
Doubly reinforced beams
Answer : D 123
According to steel Beam theory, stress in compressive steel is ------- stress in tension steel [A]
less than
[B]
greater than
[C]
equal to
[D]
twice
Answer : C 124
According to revised elastic theory, the steel in the compression zone is ------ that which is calculated simple elastic theory [A]
equal to
[B]
less than
[C]
greater than
[D]
half of
Answer : C 125
Maximum area of tension reinforcement shall not exceed [A]
0.02 bd
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[B]
0.02 bD
[C]
0.04 bd
[D]
0.04 bD
Answer : D 126
Maximum area of compression reinforcement shall not exceed [A]
0.02 bd
[B]
0.02 bD
[C]
0.04 bd
[D]
0.04 bD
Answer : C 127
Side face reinforcement is provided when the depth of beam exceeds [A]
250 mm
[B]
450 mm
[C]
550 mm
[D]
750 mm
Answer : D 128
The area of side face reinforcement shall not be less than [A]
0.10 percent of the web area on each vertical face
[B]
0.05 percent of the web area on each vertical face
[C]
0.15 percent of the web area on each vertical face
[D]
0.20 percent of the web area
Answer : B 129
The maximum of spacing of side face reinforcement shall not exceed [A]
300 mm
[B]
Web thickness
[C]
Lesser of (a) and (b)
[D]
Greater of (a) and (b)
Answer : C 130
A concrete block subjected to shear stresses, then the failure may result by [A]
Diagonal tension
[B]
Longitudinal tension
[C]
Diagonal compression
[D]
None of the above
Answer : A 131
The anchorage value of the hook for a mild steel bar is generally considered as (d = diameter of bar)
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[A]
8d
[B]
16 d
[C]
32 d
[D]
48 d
Answer : B 132
As per IS: 1139, permissible stress in compression steel reinforcement for High Yield strength deformed bars is [A]
140 N/mm2
[B]
190 N/mm2
[C]
230 N/mm2
[D]
415 N/mm2
Answer : B 133
According to IS: 456-2000 spacing of vertical stirrups for shear reinforcement has been limited to [A]
0.75 d
[B]
450 mm
[C]
lesser of 0.75 d or 300 mm
[D]
lesser of 0.75d or 450 mm
Answer : C 134
The maximum spacing of main steel in slabs has been limited to [A]
250 mm
[B]
300 mm
[C]
450 mm
[D]
500 mm
Answer : B 135
Limit state of collapse deals with [A]
strength and stability of the structure
[B]
conditions such as deflection, cracking
[C]
durability
[D]
all the above
Answer : A 136
Limit state method of design has _________ major limit state conditions [A]
one
[B]
two
[C]
three
[D]
four
Answer : B Civil Engineering Rocks Civil Engineering Rocks
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137
In Limit state design, the maximum working load that the structure has to withstand is called [A]
Service load
[B]
Factored load
[C]
Characteristic load
[D]
Ultimate load
Answer : C 138
The safe strengths for the materials are called their [A]
Ultimate strength
[B]
Characteristic strength
[C]
Maximum strength
[D]
none of the above
Answer : B 139
Partial safety factor for strength of concrete in Limit state design is [A]
1.15
[B]
1.25
[C]
1.5
[D]
1.65
Answer : C 140
Partial safety factor for strength in steel m Limit state design is [A]
1.15
[B]
1.25
[C]
1.5
[D]
1.65
Answer : A 141
The stress-strain curve concrete in compression follows [A]
a straight line
[B]
a rectangular parabolic curve
[C]
a semi circular arc
[D]
a cubic parabola
Answer : B 142
The ultimate strain of concrete at failure is [A]
0.002
[B]
0.0035
[C]
0.0045
[D]
0.006
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Answer : B 143
The theoretical stress-strain curve of the concrete in the Limit State design of structures is correspondingly reduced by the factor [A]
0.35
[B]
0.5
[C]
0.67
[D]
0.75
Answer : C 144
According to IS:456 minimum cement content inclusive of admixtures is [A]
200 kg/m3
[B]
300 kg/m3
[C]
450 kg/m3
[D]
550 kg/m3
Answer : B 145
According to IS: 456, maximum water-cement ratio should be [A]
0.45
[B]
0.55
[C]
0.65
[D]
0.75
Answer : B 146
The reduction of the PH value, by the action of atmospheric carbon dioxide with the alkali of the cement paste is called [A]
atmospheric corrosion
[B]
chloride corrosion
[C]
oxidation
[D]
carbonation
Answer : D 147
According to IS:456-2000, the maximum allowable crack width (in mm) for mild type of environmental condition [A]
0.1
[B]
0.2
[C]
0.25
[D]
0.3
Answer : D 148
According to IS:456-2000, the following type of environments are considered for durability of concrete [A]
two
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[B]
four
[C]
five
[D]
six
Answer : C 149
Nominal cover for M30 grade concrete in moderate exposure is (as per IS:456-2000) [A]
20 mm
[B]
30 mm
[C]
45 mm
[D]
50 mm
Answer : B 150
The main factors affecting the permeability of concrete are (i)Grade of concrete (ii)Minimum cement content (iii)Maximum water cement ratio [A]
i
[B]
i and ii
[C]
ii and iii
[D]
i, ii and iii
Answer : C 151
The pH value of Puzzolanic concrete is ________________ that of ordinary concrete [A]
lower than
[B]
much lower than
[C]
higher than
[D]
equal
Answer : B 152
According to IS: 456-2000, the maximum cement content exclusive of admixtures is [A]
200 kg/m3
[B]
300 kg/m3
[C]
450 kg/m3
[D]
550 kg/m3
Answer : C 153
The curing method is said to be good, when the relative humidity is kept [A]
Greater than 80%
[B]
Less than 50%
[C]
50% - 80%
[D]
None of the above
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Answer : A 154
The maximum amount of chlorides and sulphates should not be more than [A]
0.15% and 4% by mass of cement respectively
[B]
4% and 0.15% by mass of cement respectively
[C]
0.30% and 2% by mass of cement respectively
[D]
2% and 0.30% by mass of cement respectively
Answer : A 155
According to IS:456-2000, the total acid soluble chlorides in concrete is restricted to________ of concrete [A]
0.2 kg/m3
[B]
0.4 kg/m3
[C]
2 kg/m3
[D]
4 kg/m3
Answer : B 156
Minimum cover for fire resistance for a given simply supported beam, when the fire rating is 1 hour--------[A]
15 mm
[B]
20 mm
[C]
25 mm
[D]
30 mm
Answer : B 157
Modulus elasticity of steel is generally taken as [A]
2 x 105 N/mm2
[B]
2 x 106 N/mm2
[C]
2 x 106 N/mm2
[D]
2 x 105 N/mm2
Answer : A 158
Which of the following sections are preferable for designing a member [A]
under reinforced sections
[B]
over reinforced sections
[C]
both (a) and (b)
[D]
balanced sections
Answer : A 159
According to IS: 456-2000, limiting value of yield strain for Fe415 grade steel is [A]
0.031
[B]
0.0031
[C]
0.038
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[D]
0.0038
Answer : D 160
According to IS:456-2000, Limiting value of yield strain for Fe250 grade steel is [A]
0.031
[B]
0.0031
[C]
0.038
[D]
0.0038
Answer : B 161
For economical consideration, the ratio of overall depth to width should be [A]
less than 1.5
[B]
between 1.50 and 2.0
[C]
between 2.0 to 2.5
[D]
greater than 2.5
Answer : B 162
The concrete is assumed to reach failure with a compression strain of [A]
0.002
[B]
0.0035
[C]
0.0045
[D]
0.006
Answer : B 163
In general in the design of a section by limit method, it is assumed that [A]
the stress in steel to reach its yield limit before concrete failure
[B]
the stress in concrete to reach its permissible limit before to reach yield stress in steel
[C]
stresses in both concrete and steel reach their permissible values simultaneously
[D]
none of the above are correct
Answer : A 164
The expression for moment of resistance(Mu) of a singly reinforced section is, if the grade of steel in Fe415 [A]
0.149 fck bd2
[B]
0.138 fck bd2
[C]
0.125 fck bd2
[D]
0.0120 fck bd2
Answer : B 165
If the grade of steel is Fe250, then the expression for moment of resistance of a singly reinforced section is [A]
0.149 fck bd2
[B]
0.138 fck bd2
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[C]
0.125 fck bd2
[D]
0.012 fck bd2
Answer : A 166
Minimum percentage of tension steel for a singly reinforced section Fe415 grade is [A]
0.2
[B]
0.35
[C]
2
[D]
3.5
Answer : A 167
Design yield stress for steel in tension and compression is [A]
0.65 fy
[B]
0.87 fy
[C]
0.75 fy
[D]
None of the above
Answer : B 168
Strain compatibility method is the method used for the analysis and design of [A]
singly reinforced sections
[B]
doubly reinforced sections
[C]
both (a) and (b)
[D]
neither (a) nor (b)
Answer : C 169
The spacing of stirrups in doubly reinforced beams should be least of the following (i)Least Lateral dimension (ii)Sixteen times the diameter of longitudinal steel (iii)Forty eight times the diameter of transverse reinforcement [A]
i
[B]
i and ii
[C]
i and iii
[D]
i, ii and iii
Answer : D 170
Development length is the length or extension that should be provided on either side from the [A]
face of the support
[B]
point of maximum tension
[C]
point of maximum compression
[D]
point of minimum compression
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Answer : B 171
The ultimate average anchorage bond stress for plain bars in tension is _______ if the grade of concrete is M20 [A]
1.60 N/mm2
[B]
1.92 N/mm2
[C]
2.24 N/mm2
[D]
2.40 N/mm2
Answer : B 172
The length of bar necessary to develop the full strength of the bar is called [A]
Bond
[B]
Development length
[C]
End anchorage
[D]
Splicing
Answer : B 173
End anchorage of bars is taken as the greater of [A]
Effective depth or 12 times the diameter of bar
[B]
Effective depth or 16 times the diameter of bar
[C]
Effective depth of 24 times the diameter of bar
[D]
Effective depth of 48 times the diameter of bar
Answer : A 174
Lap splicing are not usually allowed for bars more than [A]
25 mm
[B]
32 mm
[C]
36 mm
[D]
None of the above
Answer : C 175
Flanged beams are preferred when the concrete in the slab is on the [A]
compression side of the beam
[B]
tension side of the beam
[C]
may be compression side or tension side of the beam
[D]
none of the above
Answer : A 176
The development length of bars in compression is taken as [A]
30 times bar diameter
[B]
40 times bar diameter
[C]
50 times bar diameter
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[D]
12 times bar diameter
Answer : A 177
Steel Beam theory is the method of analysis and a design of [A]
Singly reinforced sections
[B]
Doubly reinforced sections
[C]
Both (a) and (b)
[D]
Steel structures only
Answer : B 178
Limit state of collapse deals with [A]
strength and stability of the structure
[B]
conditions such as deflection, cracking
[C]
durability
[D]
all the above
Answer : A 179
Limit state method of design has _________ major limit state conditions [A]
one
[B]
two
[C]
three
[D]
four
Answer : B 180
In Limit state design, the maximum working load that the structure has to withstand is called [A]
Service load
[B]
Factored load
[C]
Characteristic load
[D]
Ultimate load
Answer : C 181
The safe strengths for the materials are called their [A]
Ultimate strength
[B]
Characteristic strength
[C]
Maximum strength
[D]
none of the above
Answer : B 182
Partial safety factor for strength of concrete in Limit state design is [A]
1.15
[B]
1.25
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[C]
1.5
[D]
1.65
Answer : C 183
Partial safety factor for strength in steel m Limit state design is [A]
1.15
[B]
1.25
[C]
1.5
[D]
1.65
Answer : A 184
The stress-strain curve concrete in compression follows [A]
a straight line
[B]
a rectangular parabolic curve
[C]
a semi circular arc
[D]
a cubic parabola
Answer : B 185
The ultimate strain of concrete at failure is [A]
0.002
[B]
0.0035
[C]
0.0045
[D]
0.006
Answer : B 186 The theoretical stress-strain curve of the concrete in the Limit State design of structures is correspondingly reduced by the factor [A]
0.35
[B]
0.5
[C]
0.67
[D]
0.75
Answer : C 187
According to IS:456 minimum cement content inclusive of admixtures is [A]
200 kg/m3
[B]
300 kg/m3
[C]
450 kg/m3
[D]
550 kg/m3
Answer : B 188
According to IS: 456, maximum water-cement ratio should be [A]
0.45
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[B]
0.55
[C]
0.65
[D]
0.75
Answer : B 189
The reduction of the PH value, by the action of atmospheric carbon dioxide with the alkali of the cement paste is called [A]
atmospheric corrosion
[B]
chloride corrosion
[C]
oxidation
[D]
carbonation
Answer : D 190
According to IS:456-2000, the maximum allowable crack width (in mm) for mild type of environmental condition [A]
0.1
[B]
0.2
[C]
0.25
[D]
0.3
Answer : D 191
According to IS:456-2000, the following type of environments are considered for durability of concrete [A]
two
[B]
four
[C]
five
[D]
six
Answer : C 192
Nominal cover for M30 grade concrete in moderate exposure is (as per IS:456-2000) [A]
20 mm
[B]
30 mm
[C]
45 mm
[D]
50 mm
Answer : B 193
The main factors affecting the permeability of concrete are (i)Grade of concrete (ii)Minimum cement content (iii)Maximum water cement ratio [A]
i
[B]
i and ii
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[C]
ii and iii
[D]
i, ii and iii
Answer : C 194
The pH value of Puzzolanic concrete is ________________ that of ordinary concrete [A]
lower than
[B]
much lower than
[C]
higher than
[D]
equal
Answer : B 195
According to IS: 456-2000, the maximum cement content exclusive of admixtures is [A]
200 kg/m3
[B]
300 kg/m3
[C]
450 kg/m3
[D]
550 kg/m3
Answer : C 196
The curing method is said to be good, when the relative humidity is kept [A]
Greater than 80%
[B]
Less than 50%
[C]
50% - 80%
[D]
None of the above
Answer : A 197
The maximum amount of chlorides and sulphates should not be more than [A]
0.15% and 4% by mass of cement respectively
[B]
4% and 0.15% by mass of cement respectively
[C]
0.30% and 2% by mass of cement respectively
[D]
2% and 0.30% by mass of cement respectively
Answer : A 198
According to IS:456-2000, the total acid soluble chlorides in concrete is restricted to________ of concrete [A]
0.2 kg/m3
[B]
0.4 kg/m3
[C]
2 kg/m3
[D]
4 kg/m3
Answer : B 199
Minimum cover for fire resistance for a given simply supported beam, when the fire rating is 1 hour--------[A]
15 mm
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[B]
20 mm
[C]
25 mm
[D]
30 mm
Answer : B 200
Modulus elasticity of steel is generally taken as [A]
2 x 105 N/mm2
[B]
2 x 106 N/mm2
[C]
2 x 106 N/mm2
[D]
2 x 105 N/mm2
Answer : A 201
Which of the following sections are preferable for designing a member [A]
under reinforced sections
[B]
over reinforced sections
[C]
both (a) and (b)
[D]
balanced sections
Answer : A 202
According to IS: 456-2000, limiting value of yield strain for Fe415 grade steel is [A]
0.031
[B]
0.0031
[C]
0.038
[D]
0.0038
Answer : D 203
According to IS:456-2000, Limiting value of yield strain for Fe250grade steel is [A]
0.031
[B]
0.0031
[C]
0.038
[D]
0.0038
Answer : B 204
For economical consideration, the ratio of overall depth to width should be [A]
less than 1.5
[B]
between 1.50 and 2.0
[C]
between 2.0 to 2.5
[D]
greater than 2.5
Answer : B 205
The concrete is assumed to reach failure with a compression strain of [A]
0.002
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[B]
0.0035
[C]
0.0045
[D]
0.006
Answer : B 206
In general in the design of a section by limit method, it is assumed that [A]
the stress in steel to reach its yield limit before concrete failure
[B]
the stress in concrete to reach its permissible limit before to reach yield stress in steel
[C]
stresses in both concrete and steel reach their permissible values simultaneously
[D]
none of the above are correct
Answer : A 207
The expression for moment of resistance(Mu) of a singly reinforced section is, if the grade of steel in Fe415 [A]
0.149 fck bd2
[B]
0.138 fck bd2
[C]
0.125 fck bd2
[D]
0.0120 fck bd2
Answer : B 208
If the grade of steel is Fe250, then the expression for moment of resistance of a singly reinforced section is [A]
0.149 fck bd2
[B]
0.138 fck bd2
[C]
0.125 fck bd2
[D]
0.012 fck bd2
Answer : A 209
Minimum percentage of tension steel for a singly reinforced section Fe415 grade is [A]
0.2
[B]
0.35
[C]
2
[D]
3.5
Answer : A 210
Design yield stress for steel in tension and compression is [A]
0.65 fy
[B]
0.87 fy
[C]
0.75 fy
[D]
None of the above
Answer : B 211
Strain compatibility method is the method used for the analysis and design of
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[A]
singly reinforced sections
[B]
doubly reinforced sections
[C]
both (a) and (b)
[D]
neither (a) nor (b)
Answer : C 212
The spacing of stirrups in doubly reinforced beams should be least of the following (i)Least Lateral dimension (ii)Sixteen times the diameter of longitudinal steel (iii)Forty eight times the diameter of transverse reinforcement [A]
i
[B]
i and ii
[C]
i and iii
[D]
i, ii and iii
Answer : D 213
Development length is the length or extension that should be provided on either side from the [A]
face of the support
[B]
point of maximum tension
[C]
point of maximum compression
[D]
point of minimum compression
Answer : B 214
The ultimate average anchorage bond stress for plain bars in tension is _______ if the grade of concrete is M20 [A]
1.60 N/mm2
[B]
1.92 N/mm2
[C]
2.24 N/mm2
[D]
2.40 N/mm2
Answer : B 215
The length of bar necessary to develop the full strength of the bar is called [A]
Bond
[B]
Development length
[C]
End anchorage
[D]
Splicing
Answer : B 216
End anchorage of bars is taken as the greater of [A]
Effective depth or 12 times the diameter of bar
[B]
Effective depth or 16 times the diameter of bar
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[C]
Effective depth of 24 times the diameter of bar
[D]
Effective depth of 48 times the diameter of bar
Answer : A 217
Lap splicing are not usually allowed for bars more than [A]
25 mm
[B]
32 mm
[C]
36 mm
[D]
None of the above
Answer : C 218
Flanged beams are preferred when the concrete in the slab is on the [A]
compression side of the beam
[B]
tension side of the beam
[C]
may be compression side or tension side of the beam
[D]
none of the above
Answer : A 219
The development length of bars in compression is taken as [A]
30 times bar diameter
[B]
40 times bar diameter
[C]
50 times bar diameter
[D]
12 times bar diameter
Answer : A 220
Steel Beam theory is the method of analysis and a design of [A]
Singly reinforced sections
[B]
Doubly reinforced sections
[C]
Both (a) and (b)
[D]
Steel structures only
Answer : B 221
Bending shear is sometimes referred to as [A]
One way shear
[B]
Punching shear
[C]
Two way shear
[D]
None of the above.
Answer : A 222
Design shear strength of concrete is a function of i.Percentage of tension steel ii.Grade of concrete
Civil Engineering Rocks Civil Engineering Rocks
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iii.Grade of steel [A]
i and ii
[B]
ii only
[C]
i and iii
[D]
i, ii and iii
Answer : A 223
Maximum allowable shear stress for M25 grade concrete is [A]
2.5 N/mm2
[B]
2.8 N/mm2
[C]
3.1 N/mm2
[D]
3.5 N/mm2
Answer : C 224
Minimum shear reinforcement is necessary to [A]
Prevent brittle shear failure
[B]
Prevent failure due to shrinkage and thermal stresses
[C]
Hold the reinforcements in place while pouring concrete
[D]
All the above.
Answer : D 225
Maximum allowable spacing of shear reinforcement for vertical stirrups is restricted to [A]
d
[B]
0.45 d
[C]
0.75 d
[D]
0.90 d
Answer : C 226
According to IS: 456-2000 Maximum spacing of shear reinforcement in no case shall not exceed [A]
250 mm
[B]
300 mm
[C]
350 mm
[D]
450 mm
Answer : B 227
Maximum allowable spacing of shear reinforcement for inclined stirrups with an inclination of 45° is restricted to [A]
0.75 d
[B]
0.45 d
[C]
0.90 d
[D]
d
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Answer : D 228
The diameter of the stirrups according to IS : 456-2000 should not be less than [A]
5 mm
[B]
6 mm
[C]
8 mm
[D]
10 mm
Answer : B 229
The Maximum shear stress in Slabs should not exceed -------- the maximum values allowed for beams. [A]
Half Of
[B]
One-Fourth Of
[C]
Twice
[D]
Those Given In
Answer : A 230
The principle used for control of deflection in beams and slabs. [A]
Maxwell method
[B]
Mohr‟s theorem
[C]
Span to effective depth ratio
[D]
Span to overall depth ratio.
Answer : C 231
Basic value .of Span to Depth ratio for cantilever to control deflection is [A]
7
[B]
20
[C]
26
[D]
35
Answer : A 232
Allowable crack width for reinforce concrete structure under normal conditions is [A]
0
[B]
0.1 mm
[C]
0.2 mm
[D]
0.3 mm
Answer : D 233
The Minimum bar spacing should not be less than [A]
Diameter of the largest bar
[B]
Maximum size of aggregate
[C]
Greater of diameter of the largest bar and maximum size of aggregate
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[D]
Greater of diameter of the largest bar and maximum size of aggregate plus 5 mm
Answer : D 234
The Maximum spacing of Main reinforcement „m‟ slabs shall be [A]
Less than three times of the effective depth
[B]
Less than 300mm
[C]
Smaller of (a) and (b)
[D]
Greater of (a) and (b)
Answer : C 235
Basic value of span to depth ratio for simply supported beam to control deflection is [A]
7
[B]
20
[C]
26
[D]
35
Answer : B 236
The Maximum spacing of Secondary reinforcement in slabs should be [A]
Less than 450 mm
[B]
Less than 300 mm
[C]
Smaller of three times the effective depth and 450 mm
[D]
Smaller of five times the effective depth and 450 mm
Answer : D 237
The basic value of span to depth ratio for one way continuous slab is [A]
20
[B]
26
[C]
35
[D]
40
Answer : B 238
The Minimum amount of steel for Main reinforcement in slab should be (Fe 415- grade of steel) [A]
0.12 percent of gross cross sectional area
[B]
0.15 percent of gross cross sectional area
[C]
0.20 percent of gross cross sectional area
[D]
0.25 percent of gross cross sectional area.
Answer : A 239
The Maximum percentage of steel in tension allowed for beams [A]
0.2
[B]
0.4
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[C]
2
[D]
4
Answer : A 240
The Maximum diameter steel in slabs should not exceed --------- the total thickness of the slab [A]
One-half
[B]
One-fourth
[C]
One-eighth
[D]
One-sixteenth
Answer : C 241
Minimum steel in the main direction of a slab when using high yield steel [A]
0.12%
[B]
0.15%
[C]
0.20%
[D]
0.25%
Answer : B 242
Maximum percentage of steel in compression should be [A]
0.20%
[B]
0.40%
[C]
2.00%
[D]
4.00%
Answer : D 243
Minimum percentage area of tension reinforcement , when the grade of steel is Fe-250 [A]
0.2
[B]
0.25
[C]
0.34
[D]
0.44
Answer : C 244
Select the incorrect from the following. The combinations of loads for serviceability conditions should be [A]
1.0 DL + 1.0 LL
[B]
1.0 DL + 1.0 WL
[C]
1.0 DL + 0.8 LL + 0.8 WL
[D]
0.8 DL + 0.8 LL + 0.8 WL
Answer : D 245
In moderate exposure , the allowable crack width at the surface of concrete should be
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[A]
0.20 mm
[B]
0.30 mm
[C]
0.45 mm
[D]
0.55 mm
Answer : A 246
For Fe- 415 steel and M20grade concrete, the balanced percentage of steel is [A]
0.65%
[B]
0.75%
[C]
0.86%
[D]
0.96%
Answer : D 247
According to IS : 456-2000, clause 39.4, stirrups should be provided for a shear of [A]
at least 75%
[B]
at least 50%
[C]
at least 25 %
[D]
none of the above.
Answer : B 248
For ductility consideration, the maximum percentage of steel used should not exceed ------of the balanced steel [A]
25%
[B]
50%
[C]
60%
[D]
75%
Answer : D 249
Minimum steel required in slabs is mainly controlled by the following consideration [A]
Cracking on the tension side
[B]
Shrinkage and creep
[C]
Both (a) and (b)
[D]
None of the above.
Answer : B 250
Secondary steel has to be provided across__________ of flanged beams [A]
Full effective width of flange
[B]
The width of web
[C]
Half of the width of flange
[D]
None of the above.
Answer : A
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251
The Percentage of steel in T-beam mainly based on [A]
Flange width
[B]
Rib width
[C]
Flange depth
[D]
None of the above.
Answer : B 252
The span/effective depth ratio is ----------------- for control of deflection [A]
An exact method
[B]
An empirical method
[C]
An accurate method.
[D]
Both (a) and (c)
Answer : B 253
Basic values of span/effective depth ratios to be used for beams and slabs with spans [A]
Less than 10m
[B]
Less than 20 m
[C]
10 m- 20 m
[D]
More than 20 m
Answer : A 254
In “Severe exposure” the allowable crack width at the surface of concrete should not exceed [A]
0.1 mm
[B]
0.2 mm
[C]
0.3 mm
[D]
0.4 mm
Answer : A 255
The minimum percentage of tension steel is mainly based on the [A]
Total depth
[B]
Effective depth
[C]
Both (a) and (b)
[D]
None of the above.
Answer : A 256
The Minimum percentage of secondary steel in slabs for Fe- 415 grade steel should be __________ of Gross cross-section area [A]
0.12%
[B]
0.15%
[C]
0.20%
[D]
0.25%
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Answer : A 257
In order to achieve economy, the spacing of stirrups at mid span section---------- compared to that of support section [A]
May be decreased
[B]
May be increased
[C]
Must be kept equal
[D]
None of the above.
Answer : B 258
Side face reinforcement shall not exceed [A]
0.1% of total cross sectional area
[B]
0.2% of total cross sectional area
[C]
0.1% web area
[D]
0.2 % web area.
Answer : C 259
To develop complete yield line pattern the slab must be [A]
Under reinforced
[B]
Over reinforced
[C]
Both (a) and (b)
[D]
None of the above.
Answer : A 260
Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of yield lines? [A]
Yield lines end at a slab boundary
[B]
Yield lines are of parabolical shape
[C]
Axes of rotation generally lie along the lines of supports
[D]
None of the above.
Answer : B 261
Negative yield line form i. Near the supports in the case of slabs fixed or continuous at the edge. ii. At mid span in the case of slabs fixed. iii.At mid span for simply supported circular slab [A]
i
[B]
i and ii
[C]
i and iii
[D]
i, ii and iii
Answer : A 262
The yield line ultimate moment is obtained when the yield line is --------------- to the direction of the reinforcement
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[A]
Parallel
[B]
At right angles.
[C]
Passes through
[D]
Crosses at an angle of 45°
Answer : B 263
The ultimate load capacity of slabs can be determined by using the principle of i.Super position ii.Virtual work iii. Equilibrium [A]
i
[B]
ii
[C]
i and iii
[D]
ii and iii
Answer : D 264
Select incorrect statement from the following. In the Virtual work method, it is generally assumed that [A]
Elastic deformations in the slab are negligible
[B]
Plastic deformations in the slab are negligible
[C]
Plastic deformations takes place at the yield lines
[D]
Both (a) and (b)
Answer : B 265
Virtual work method and equilibrium method gives ---------------- to the collapse load on the slab [A]
Upper bound
[B]
Lower bound
[C]
Upper bound and lower bound respectively
[D]
None of the above.
Answer : A 266
It is essential that the all possible yield line patterns have to be investigated to find the ----------[A]
Highest value of the ultimate load
[B]
Lowest value of the ultimate load
[C]
Average value of all the loads.
[D]
None of the above.
Answer : B 267
The virtual work method is based on the principle [A]
External work done = Internal work done.
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[B]
External work done + Internal work done.
[C]
External work done - Internal work done.
[D]
None of the above.
Answer : A 268
Yield line analysis by equilibrium method gives ------------------ to that of obtained by virtual work method [A]
Equal values
[B]
Lesser values
[C]
Higher values
[D]
None of the above.
Answer : A 269
Yield line theory results in [A]
Elastic solution
[B]
Lower bound solution
[C]
Upper bound solution
[D]
Unique solution
Answer : B 270
The assumed yield line pattern is to be correct when the lower bound solution ---------the upper bound solution [A]
May be greater than
[B]
May be less than
[C]
Will coincide with
[D]
Must be less than
Answer : C 271
The slab is said to be orthotropically reinforced , when the reinforcement is arranged in; [A]
Single direction
[B]
Two directions at right angles with equal meshes
[C]
Two directions at right angles with unequal meshes
[D]
At the corners only
Answer : C 272
The percentage of reinforcement in slabs is generally in the range of [A]
0.3% to 0.5%
[B]
0.5% to 1.0%
[C]
1.0% to 1.5%
[D]
1.5 % to 2.0%
Answer : A
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273
In general, the depth of slab should be ---------------- the minimum depth required for balanced section. [A]
Equal to
[B]
Less than
[C]
Greater than
[D]
Half of
Answer : C 274
It is preferable, that the design of slab should result in [A]
A balanced section
[B]
An under reinforced section
[C]
Over reinforced section
[D]
None of the above.
Answer : B 275
In a two way slab flexural bending develops [A]
Along short span
[B]
Along long span
[C]
In Mutually perpendicular directions
[D]
At the center of short span
Answer : C 276
Slabs which are supported in such a way that the corners are prevented from lifting are referred to as; [A]
One way slabs
[B]
Two way slabs
[C]
Restrained slabs
[D]
Unrestrained slabs.
Answer : C 277
The size of the mesh at each corner meant for torsion reinforcement in a rectangular slab of size (Lx ´ Ly) is Lx = shorter span Lx = Longer span [A]
0.1 Ly x 1 Ly
[B]
0.2 Ly x 0.2 Ly
[C]
0.1 Lx x 0.1 Lx
[D]
0.2 Lx x 0.2 Lx
Answer : D 278
The span/over all depth ratio for a simply supported two-way slab according to IS : 4562000 is given by
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[A]
20
[B]
28
[C]
32
[D]
40
Answer : B 279
According to IS: 456-2000, the span/overall depth ratio for a continuous two-way slab in order to control deflection is given by [A]
20
[B]
28
[C]
32
[D]
40
Answer : C 280
Reinforced concrete slab supported only on columns is said to be [A]
Rigid slab
[B]
Flat slab
[C]
Both(a) and (b)
[D]
None of the above.
Answer : B 281
According to IS: 456-2000 the ultimate moment of resistance of a slab for Fe - 415 HYSD bars is; [A]
Mu = 0.138 fck bd2
[B]
Mu = 0.145 fck bd2
[C]
Mu = 0.152 fck bd2
[D]
Mu = 0.165 fck bd2
Answer : A 282
In a limit state method of design, when shear reinforcement is not provided, the calculated shear stress at the critical section of a slab shall not exceed; [A]
Ks 0.25 v fck
[B]
ks 0.20 v fck
[C]
ks 0.16 v fck
[D]
ks 0.10 v fck
Answer : A 283
The moments developed in the slab are influenced by the following factors i.Short span ii.Long span iii.Type of supporting edge. iv.Magnitude and type of load on slab
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[A]
i, iii and iv
[B]
ii ,iii and iv
[C]
i and iii
[D]
i, ii , iii and iv
Answer : D 284
Minimum reinforcement in slabs, when High yield strength deformed bars [A]
0.12% of gross cross sectional area
[B]
0.15% of gross cross sectional area
[C]
0.20% of gross cross sectional area
[D]
0.25% of gross cross sectional area.
Answer : A 285
Permissible width of crack at the surface of concrete for „moderate‟ environmental conditions according to IS : 456-2000 is [A]
0.1 mm
[B]
0.2 mm
[C]
0.3 mm
[D]
0.4 mm
Answer : B 286
Limiting moment of resistance of a singly reinforced section for mild steel is [A]
Mu = 0.133 fck bd2
[B]
Mu = 0.138 fck bd2
[C]
Mu = 0.148 fck bd2
[D]
Mu = 0.153 fck bd2
Answer : C 287
In slabs the Maximum horizontal distance between parallel main reinforcement should not exceed i.Three times effective depth ii Five times effective depth iii 300mm iv 450 mm [A]
i and iii
[B]
i and iv
[C]
ii and iii
[D]
ii and iv
Answer : A 288
Slenderness ratio of the column is the ratio of [A]
the effective length to width of column
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[B]
the effective length to depth of column
[C]
the effective length to least lateral design
[D]
none of the above
Answer : C 289
A Column is said to be short, when the slenderness ratio is [A]
Less than 6
[B]
Less than 12
[C]
Less than 18
[D]
None of the above
Answer : B 290
Columns in which lateral loads have to be resisted in addition to vertical loads by the strength of the columns themselves are considered as [A]
Braced columns
[B]
Un braced columns
[C]
Slender columns
[D]
None of the above
Answer : B 291
The unsupported height of column (Lo) is generally [A]
Clear height of the column
[B]
Less than the clear height of the column
[C]
More than the clear height of the column
[D]
None of the above
Answer : A 292
In order to avoid the material failure in a braced column, the clear distance between restraints should never exceed [A]
30 times the minimum dimensions of the column
[B]
40 times the minimum dimensions of the column
[C]
50 times the minimum dimensions of the column
[D]
60 times the minimum dimensions of the column
Answer : D 293
For Unbraced column, the ratio of the clear height of the column to the minimum dimension of the column shall not exceed [A]
30
[B]
40
[C]
50
[D]
60
Answer : A Civil Engineering Rocks Civil Engineering Rocks
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294
The ultimate failure is assumed to be reached when the section reaches a uniform compression strain of [A]
0.002
[B]
0.0035
[C]
0.0045
[D]
0.005
Answer : A 295
The compression in concrete (fc) at failure is given by [A]
0.30 fck
[B]
0.45 fck
[C]
0.50 fck
[D]
0.75 fck
Answer : B 296
The compression in steel (fS) at failure for Fe - 415 grade steel using stress-strain curve shall be [A]
0.87 fy
[B]
0.75 fy
[C]
0.45 fy
[D]
0.55 fy
Answer : B 297
According to IS:456-2000, the minimum eccentricity in no case [A]
Shall be not less than 20mm
[B]
Shall be not greater than 30mm
[C]
Shall be 20mm-30mm
[D]
None of the above
Answer : A 298
The minimum diameter of longitudinal steel should be [A]
10 mm
[B]
12 mm
[C]
16 mm
[D]
20 mm
Answer : B 299
Minimum number of bars for a column of rectangular section [A]
Two
[B]
Four
[C]
Six
[D]
Eight
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Answer : B 300
Minimum number of bars for a circular column [A]
Four
[B]
Five
[C]
Six
[D]
Eight
Answer : C 301
Minimum percentage of longitudinal steel in a column should not be less than [A]
0.60%
[B]
0.80%
[C]
1.00%
[D]
1.20%
Answer : B 302
Maximum percentage of longitudinal steel in a column should be less than [A]
6%
[B]
8%
[C]
9%
[D]
10%
Answer : B 303
Minimum cover to longitudinal steel in a column should be (if the diameter of bar, Ø> 12mm) [A]
25 mm
[B]
30 mm
[C]
40 mm
[D]
50 mm
Answer : C 304
The Maximum spacing of the longitudinal bars measured long the periphery of the column should be [A]
250 mm
[B]
300 mm
[C]
400 mm
[D]
450 mm
Answer : B 305
In any case, the minimum diameter of the link in a column, according to IS:456-2000 is [A]
5 mm
[B]
6 mm
[C]
8 mm
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[D]
10 mm
Answer : B 306
The diameter of the Links in column should be at least……….of the largest diameter of the longitudinal steel [A]
One-half
[B]
Three-fourth
[C]
One eighth
[D]
One – fourth
Answer : D 307
According to IS: 456 -2000, the spacing of links in a Column should be less than [A]
16 x diameter of smallest longitudinal bar
[B]
24 x diameter of smallest longitudinal bar
[C]
48 x diameter of smallest longitudinal bar
[D]
48 x diameter of greatest longitudinal bar
Answer : A 308
A column said to be under uniaxial bending, when the eccentricity is [A]
with respect to one axis only
[B]
with respect to two axes
[C]
zero
[D]
20 mm
Answer : A 309
Select the incorrect statement from the following In eccentrically loaded columns, [A]
The tensile strength of concrete is ignored
[B]
Design stress – strain curve for steel in compression is the same as in tension
[C]
The strain at different points in the section will be same
[D]
Plane section remain plane even after bending
Answer : C 310
The equilibrium equation for the condition that tension will be equal to the compression is given by [A]
Compression in concrete = Tension in steel
[B]
Compression in concrete + Compression in steel = Tension in steel
[C]
Compression in concrete = Compression in steel
[D]
None of the above
Answer : B 311
The Effective length of a column is defined as the [A]
length between the fixed joints
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[B]
length between the points of contra flexure
[C]
unsupported length of the column
[D]
Both (a) and (c)
Answer : B 312
When the ratio of the effective length of the rectangular columns to its lateral dimension exceeds12, then the column is said to be [A]
Short column
[B]
Slender column
[C]
Biaxial column
[D]
All the above
Answer : B 313
According to IS:456, the diameter of the helices in circular a column shall be at least [A]
The diameter of longitudinal steel
[B]
One-half the diameter of longitudinal steel
[C]
One-fourth the diameter of longitudinal steel
[D]
Three-fourth the diameter of longitudinal steel
Answer : C 314
The Maximum strength attained in concrete in limit state design is generally taken as [A]
fck
[B]
0.67 fck
[C]
0.45 fck
[D]
0.30 fck
Answer : C 315
The Pitch of helixes in circular columns shall not exceed [A]
25 mm
[B]
50 mm
[C]
60 mm
[D]
75 mm
Answer : D 316
The Minimum pitch of the helical reinforcement in circular columns should be [A]
25 mm
[B]
40 mm
[C]
50 mm
[D]
60 mm
Answer : A 317
Which of the following method that is used to taken into account the slenderness effect of columns according to IS:456 - 2000
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[A]
Reduction coefficient method
[B]
Slenderness method
[C]
Moment magnification method
[D]
None of the above
Answer : A 318
The Effective length of braced column generally varies…………the unsupported length of the column [A]
0.25 to 0.50 times
[B]
0.50 to 1.00 times
[C]
1.00 to 1.50 times
[D]
2.00 to 2.50 times
Answer : B 319
The purpose of lateral ties in short reinforced concrete columns is to [A]
Facilitate construction
[B]
Facilitate compaction of concrete
[C]
Increase the load carrying capacity of the columns
[D]
Avoid buckling of longitudinal bars
Answer : D 320
The load carrying capacity of helically reinforced column as compared to that of column with ties is about [A]
5% less
[B]
5% more
[C]
10% less
[D]
10% more`
Answer : B 321
Due to Circumferential action of the spiral reinforcement in a column [A]
Capacity of column is decreased but ductility of column increases
[B]
Both the capacity of column an ductility of column increases
[C]
Capacity of column increases
[D]
Ductility of the column reduces
Answer : B 322
According to IS:456-2000, the minimum slenderness ratio for a short column is [A]
Less than 12
[B]
Between 12 and 18
[C]
Less than 18
[D]
Must be greater than 18
Answer : A Civil Engineering Rocks Civil Engineering Rocks
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323
Select the incorrect statement from the following [A]
Reinforcing bars in a column should not be less than 12 mm in diameter
[B]
The number of longitudinal bars in a circular column should not exceed four
[C]
The minimum percentage of longitudinal steel in columns should be 0.8%
[D]
None of the above
Answer : B
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TEST-1 Sub-R.C.C Time :1hour Total Marks-40 Name of the Student:1. The strength of durability of concrete depends upon. (a) Size of aggregates (b) Grading of aggregates (c) Moisture contents of aggregates (d) All of these. 2. The workability of concrete is defined as the (a) Ease with which it can be mixed, transported and placed in position in a homogeneous state. (b) Bearing up of cohesion in a mass concrete. (c) Separation of water from the freshly mixed concrete. (d) None of these. 3. The maximum percentage of chemical ingredient of cement is (a) Alumina (b) Iron oxide (c) Lime (d) Silica 4. Which compound in cement, gives early age strength (a) C3S (b) C2S (c) C3A (d) C4AF 5. For cold weathering concreting the cement used is (a) O.P.C (b) R.H.C (c) L.H.C (d) None of these 6. The length of the vicat plunger is (a) 40mm (b) 60mm (c) 50mm (d) 30mm 7. The unit weight of cement in kN/m3 (a) 25 kN/m3 (b) 24 kN/m3
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8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
(c) 20 kN/m3 (d) 16 kN/m3 Sand that is recommended for R.C.C work should have fineness modulus. (a) 0-2 (b) 2-3.5 (c) 3-4.5 (d) 4-5 For dam construction the size of aggregates are (a) 40mm (b) 50mm (c) 60mm (d) 75mm The bulk density of aggregates , is (a) kN/m3 (b) Kg/1tr (c) g/cm3 (d) All the above. The PH value of water shall not less than. (a) 5.0 (b) 6.0 (c) 6.5 (d) 7.0 Water cement ratio is (a) Weight of water to that of cement. (b) Weight of concrete to that of water. (c) Volume of concrete to that of water. (d) All the above. The minimum water-cement ratio is (a) 0.35 (b) 0.45 (c) 0.50 (d) None of these The modules of elasticity of steel shall be taken as (a) 100kN/mm2 (b) 200 kN/mm2 (c) 250 kN/mm2 (d) 300 kN/mm2 Tensile strength of concrete from the compressive strength, is found to be (a) Fcr=0.7
N/mm2
(b) Fcr=0.8
N/mm2
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16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
(c) Fcr=0.6 N/mm2 (d) All the above Segregation in concrete results in (a) Honey combing (b) Porous Layers (c) Surface scaling (d) All the above Harshness in concrete is due to the excess of (a) Water (b) Finer particles (c) Middle sized particles (d) Coarse particles In order to avoid segregation, the concrete should not be thrown from a height (a) Agree (b) Disagree (c) Not known (d) None of these Reinforced cement concrete is equally strong in taking (a) Tensile and compressive stress (b) Compressive and shear stresses. (c) Tensile, compressive and shear stresses. (d) Tensile and shear stresses. Plain cement concrete is strong in taking (a) Compressive stress. (b) Tensile stress (c) Shear stress (d) All of these Unit weight of P.C.C . in kN/m3 is (a) 24 KN/m3 (b) 25 kN/m3 (c) 20kN/m3 (d) 26 kN/m3 For one bag of cement water required is (a) 10 kg (b) 30 kg (c) 35 kg (d) 39 kg The removal of excess air after placing concrete helps in increasing the strength of concrete by (a) 15 to 20% (b) 20 to 30% (c) 30 to 50%
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24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
(d) 50 to 70% Cement concrete is __________________to moisture (a) Permeable (b) Impermeable (c) Rapid Harden (d) None of these The concrete without any reinforcement has _______________tensile strength (a) High (b) Medium (c) Low (d) All the above Segregation of concrete (a) Increases the strength of concrete (b) Decreased the strength of concrete. (c) Not effect to strength of concrete. (d) None of these. The material used as an ingredient of concrete is usually (a) Cement (b) Aggregate (c) Water (d) All the above A suitable admixture added at the time of preparing the concrete mix, makes the concrete (a) Water proof (b) Acid proof (c) Highly strong (d) All of the above The function of aggregates in concrete is to serve as (a) Binding material (b) Filler (c) Catalyst (d) All the above Calcareous and argillaceous materials used in manufacture of cement consists of (a) Lime stone (b) Chalk (c) Shales (d) All the above In the manufacture of cement, the dry of wet mixtue of calcareous and argillaceous materials is burnt in a (a) A Rotary kiln (b) A Grinder (c) Country kiln (d) All the above
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32. The proportion of lime, silica, alumina and iron oxide in a Portland cement is (a) 63:22:6:3 (b) 63:22:3:6 (c) 22:63:6:3 (d) All the above 33. The presence of lime in cement (a) Make s the cement sound and provides strength to the cement. (b) Prolong the setting time (c) Causes unsoundness in cement (d) All the above 34. The gypsum is added to the cement for (a) Providing high strength to the cement (b) Controlling the initial setting time of cement. (c) Lowering the clinkering temp of cement (d) All the above. 35. Which of the following ingredient of cement when added in excess quantity, causes the cement to set slowly. (a) Lime (b) Silica (c) Alumina (d) Iron oxide 36. Excess lime when added (a) Makes the cement unsound (b) Causes the cement to expand and disintegrate (c) Lowering the clinkering temp of cement (d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ 37. In order to provide colour, hardness and strength to the cement, the ingredient used is (a) Lime (b) Solica (c) Alumina (d) Iron oxide 38. After the final grinding, the cement is sieved through IS sieve number (a) 9 (b) 12 (c) 24 (d) 48 39. Efflorescence is cement is caused due to the excess of (a) Lime (b) Silica (c) Alkalies (d) Iron oxide 40. The presence of tricalcium silicate in cement
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(a) (b) (c) (d)
Hydrates the cement rapidly Generates less heat of hydration. Offer high resistance to sulphate attack All of these
ANSWER: 1(d),2(a),3(c),4(a),5(b),6(c),7(d),8(b),9(a),10(b),11(b),12(a),13(a),14(b),15(a),16(d),17(c),18(a),19(c),20( a),21(a),22(c),23(a),24(b),25(c),26(b),27(d),28(d),29(b),30(d),31(a),32(a),33(a),34(b),35(b),36(d),37(d),3 8(a),39(c),40(a)
TEST-2 Sub-R.C.C Time :1hour Total Marks-40 Name of the Student:1. The presence of dicalcium silicate in cement. (a) Hydrates the cement slowly. (b) Generates less heat of hydration. (c) Has more resistance to sulphate attack. (d) All of these 2. High percentage of tricalcium silicate and low percentage of dicalcium silicate in cement results in. (a) Rapid hardening (b) High early strength (c) High heat of generation (d) All the above 3. The first compound which reacts with water when mixed with cement is (a) Tricalcium Aluminate (b) Tricalcium silicate (c) Di-calcium silicate (d) Teracalcium aluminate 4. The sum of the percentage of tricalcium silicate and dicalcium silicate for Portland cement varies from. (a) 50 to 60% (b) 60 to 70% (c) 70 to 80% (d) 80 to 90%
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5. The rate of hydration is ___________proportional to the generation of heat (a) Directly (b) Indirectly (c) Equally (d) None of these 6. Rapid hardening cement is used (a) Where high early strength is desired (b) Where form work is to be removed as early as possible (c) For construction of road pavements. (d) All of the above 7. Low heat cement is used in (a) Thin structures (b) Thick structures (c) Sea structures (d) Submarine structures 8. Blast furnace slag cement concrete requires ___________time for shuttering and curing. (a) Less (b) More (c) Medium (d) All the above 9. Which of the following cements is expected to have the highest compressive strength after 3 days (a) Ordinary Portland cement (b) Rapid hardening cement (c) High alumina cement (d) Sulphate resisting cement. 10. Under sea structure, the cement used is (a) R.H.C (b) L.H.C (c) H.A.C (d) RSC 11. The cement, widely used in retaining walls, is (a) R.H.C (b) L.H.C (c) S.R.C. (d) O.P.C. 12. The strength of concrete using air entraining cement gets reduced by (a) 5 to 10% (b) 10 to 15% (c) 15 to 20% (d) 20 to 25% 13. Pozzolana is essentially a silicious material containing clay up to
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(a) 20% (b) 40% (c) 60% (d) 80% 14. Which of the following statements is correct? (a) Sulphate resisting cement is particularly used for canal lining. (b) Low heat cement should not be used for thin concrete structures. (c) Rapid hardening cement should not be used for massive concrete structures (d) All of the above 15. Match the correct answer Group A Group B `1. Bhakra dam (A) High alumina cement 2. Chemical plants (B) Pozzolana cement 3.Not to be used in thin R.C.C. structures. (C)Sulphate resisting cement 4. Marina works (D) Blast furnace slag cement 16. The degree of grinding of cement is called (a) Fineness (b) Soundness (c)Impact value (d) Bulking 17. Too much fineness of cement (a) Results cracks in concrete (b) Generates greater heat (c) Develops later strength (d) All the above 18. According to IS Code , the requirement of an ordinary Portland cement is (a) The residue does not exceed 10% when sieved through is sieve no .9 (b) Its initial setting time is not less than 30 minutes. (c) its expansion is not morethan 10mm for unaerated cement (d) All the above. 19. The compressive strength an ordinary Portland cement (1:3) after 7 days test should not be less than. (a) 11N/mm2 (b) 17.5 N/mm2 (c) 22 N/mm2 (d) 27.5N/m2 20. The percentage of water for making a cement paste of normal consistency varies from (a) 15 to 25% (b) 25 to 35% (c) 35 to 50% (d) 50 to 60% 21. For performing the compressive strength test of cement, the size of cube mould should be (a) 7.06cm (b)75mm (c)80mm
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(d)All the above 22.The cubes of cement prepared for compressive strength test should be kept at a temp of _____________in an atmosphere of at least 90% humidity of r 24hours (a) 150 20C (b) 210 20C (c) 270 20C (d) 300 20C 23. The inert mineral material used for the manufacture of mortars and concrete is (a) Cement (b) Water (c) Aggregates (d) Admixture 24. Accordingly to IS: 383-1970, a good aggregate for concrete construction should be (a) Chemically inert (b) Sufficiently strong (c)Sufficiently hard and durable (d) All the above 25. For reinforced concrete, the aggregate used is (a) Sand (b) Gravel (c) Crushed rock (d) All of these 26. For the manufacture of concrete a low density, the aggregate used is (a) Furnace clinker (b) Coke breeze (c)Saw dust (d) All the above 27. The aggregate which pass through 75mm IS sieve and entirely retain on 4.75 IS sieve is known as (a) Cyclopean aggregate (b) Coarse aggregate (c)Fine aggregate (d) Aall-in-aggregate 28. The minimum particle size of fine aggregate is (a) 0.0075mm (b) 0.075mm (c)0.75mm (d)0.95m 29. . The aggregates of __________________-shape have manimum voids (a) Irregular (b) Angular (c)Rounded (d) Flaky 30. The aggregates of __________________-shape have maximum voids (a) Irregular (b) Angular (c)Rounded (d) Flaky 31.Which of the following statement is correct
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(a) The maximum size of coarse aggregate should not exceed one fourth of the minimum dimension of the plain concrete member. (b) The maximum size of coarse aggregate should not exceed one fifty of the minimum dimension of the reinforced concrete member (c)The aggregates of 40mm, 20mm and 10mm sizes are commonly used for concrete works (d) All the above 32. An aggregate which may contain some moisture in the pores but having dry surface is known as. (a) Dry aggregate (b) Moist aggregate (c) Saturated surface dry aggregate (d) All the above 33. An aggregate having all the pores filled with water but having dry surface is called . (a) Dry aggregate (b) Moist aggregate (c) Saturated surface dry aggregate (d) All the above 34. An aggregate having all the pores are filled with water and also having its surface wet is called (a) Dry aggregate (b) Moist aggregate (c) Saturated surface dry aggregate (d) All the above 35. The deleterious materials present in the aggregate (a) Prevent normal hydration of cement (b) Reduce the strength and durability of concrete. (c) Modify the setting action and cause efloresecence. (d) All of the above 36. The resistance of an aggregates to compressive forces is known as (a) Crushing value (b) Impact value (c)Abrasion value (d) None of these 37. The resistance of an aggregates to wear is known as (a) Shear value (b) Crushing value (c)Abrasion value (d) Impact value 38. Los Angles machine is used to perform (a) Crushing strength (b) Impact test (c) Water absorption (d) Abrasion resistance test 39. The value fineness modules for fin sand is (a) 1.1 to 1.3 (b) 1.3 to 1.6 (c)1.6 to 2.2 (d) 2.2 to 2.6 40. If th fineness modules of sand is 3, then the sand is graded as (a) Very fine sand
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(b) Fine sand (c)Medium sand (d) Coarse sand
ANSWER: 1(d),2(d),3(a),4(c),5(a),6(d),7(b),8(b),9(c),10(c),11(b),12(b),13(d),14(d),15(1.b)(2.a)(3.d)(4.c),16(a),17(d) ,18(d),19(b),20(b),21(a),22(c),23(c),24(d),25(d),26(d),27(b),28(b),29(c),30(b),31(d),32(a),33(c),34(b),35( d),36(a),37(c),38(d),39(d),40(d)
TEST-3 Sub-R.C.C Time :1hour Total Marks-40 Name of the Student:1. The standard sand now used in India is obtained from (a) Ennore (Chennai) (b) Mumbai (c) Orissa (d) Jajpur 2. Insufficient quantity of water (a) Makes the concrete mix harsh (b) Makes the concrete mix unworkable (c) Causes segregation in concrete (d) Causes bleeding in concrete. 3. Excess quantity of water (a) Makes the concrete mix harsh (b) Makes the concrete mix unworkable (c) Causes segregation in concrete (d) Causes bleeding in concrete. 4. According to the rule of water cement ratio, the strength of concrete wholly depends upon. (a) The quality of cement.
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5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
(b) The quality of cement mixed with aggregate. (c) The amount of water used in preparation of concrete mix. (d) All of the above The strength of cement concrete increases with (a) The increase of water cement ratio. (b) The decrease of water cement ratio. (c) The increase of cement ratio (d) None of these In case of honey –comb structure, the water-cement ratio is (a) More than 0.35 (b) Less than 0.35 (c) More than 0.45 (d) Less than 0.45 Hydration of cement is due to the chemical action of water with. (a) Tricalcium silicate (b) Dicalcium silicate (c) Tricalcium aluminate (d) All of these The development of first 28 days strength is on account of the hydration of (a) Tricalcium silicate (b) Dicalcium silicate (c) Tricalcium aluminate (d) Tetra calcium alumina ferrite Water cement ration is, usually, expressed in (a) Litres of water required per bag of cement (b) Litres of water required per kg of cement (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these High temp_______________the setting time of cement in concrete (a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) No effect (d) None of these The concrete mix is said to be workable if it has (a) Compatibility (b) Movability (c) Stability (d) All of these The internal friction between the ingredients to concrete is minimized by (a) Adopting coarse aggregates (b) Using more water (c) Reducing the surface area
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13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
(d) All of these For the improvement of work ability of concrete , the shape of aggregate recommended is (a) Irregular (b) Angular (c) Round (d) Flaky The use of air-entraining agents in concretes (a) Increases workability of concrete (b) Decreases bleeding (c) Decreases strength (d) All of these The workability of concrete is expressed by (a) Water-cement ratio (b) Slump value (c) Compaction factor (d) Both (a) and (b) The workability of concrete can be improved by adding (a) Hydrated lime (b) Fly ash (c) Calcium chloride (d) All the above The steel mould used for slump test is in the form of a (a) Cube (b) Cylinder (c) Frustrum of a cone (d) None of these The top diameter, bottom diameter and height of the mould used for slump test are (a) 100mm, 200mm, 300mm (b) 200mm,100mm,300mm (c) 200mm,300mm,100mm (d) 100mm,300mm,200mm For high degree of workability, the slump value should vary between (a) 0 to 25mm (b) 25 to 50mm (c) 50 to 80mm (d) 80 to 100mm For high degree of workability , the compaction factor is (a) 0.65 (b) 0.75 (c) 0.85 (d) 0.95 Vibrated concrete needs ________________slump values
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22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
(a) High (b) Less (c) Nil (d) None of these The slump test of concrete is used to measure its (a) Consistency (b) Mobility (c) Homogeneity (d) All the above The Vee-Bee test is suitable for concrete mixes of low and very low workabilities (a) True (b) False (c) Not known (d) All the above As per IS:456-1978, the concrete mixes are designated into (a) 4 grades (b) 5 grades (c) 6 grades (d) 7 grades Which of the following grade is not recommended by IS 456-1978? (a) M10 (b) M20 (c) M40 (d) M55 In order to prepare a test specimen, it is necessary to (a) Mix the cement and fine aggregate (sand ) dry hand (b) Mix the coarse aggregate (c) Mix water to the cement, fine aggregate and coarse aggregate (d) All of the above The ratio of differenct ingredients (cement, sand and aggregate) in concrete mix of grade M 20 is. (a) 1:1:2 (b) 1:1.5:2 (c) 1:2:4 (d) 1:3:6 For mass concrete in piers and abutments, the grade of concrete mix used, is (a) 1:1:2 (b) 1:1.5:2 (c) 1:2:4 (d) 1:3:6 For highly loaded columns, the concrete mix used is (a) 1:1:2 (b) 1:1.5:2
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30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
(c) 1:2:4 (d) 1:3:6 The correct proportioning of various ingredients of concrete largely (a) Bulking of sand (b) Water context (c) Absorption (d) All the above The maximum quantity of aggregate per 50kg of cement should not axceed. (a) 100kg (b) 200kg (c) 350kg (d) 450kg The minimum quantity of cement to be used in controlled concrete is (a) 120kg/cm2 (b) 160 kg/cm2 (c) 220 kg/cm2 (d) 280 kg/cm2 The concrete in which no preliminary tests are performed for designing the mix is called (a) Rich concrete (b) Controlled concrete (c) Lean concrete (d) Ordinary concrete The factors which effects the design of concrete mix is (a) Fineness modulus (b) Water cement ratio (c) Slump (d) All of these The process of mixing, transporting, placing and compacting the cement, concrete should not take more than. (a) 30 minutes (b) 60minutes (c) 90 minutes (d) 120mm To prevent segregation the concrete should to be thrown from a height of more than. (a) ½ m (b) 1m (c) 1.5m (d) 2m The process of consolidating concrete mix after placing it in position is termed as. (a) Curing (b) Wetting (c) Compaction
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(d) All of these 38. The object of curing is to (a) Prevent the loss of water by evaporation. (b) Reduce the shrinkage of concrete (c) Preserve the properties of concrete (d) All of these 39. If 30% excess water is added, the strength of concrete is reduced by (a) 30% (b) 40% (c) 50% (d) 60% 40. After moulding, the test specimens of trial mix are placed at a temp. of (a) 10 20C (b) 15 20C (c) 23 20C (d) 27 20C ANSWER: 1(a),2(botha&b),3(bothc&d),4(c),5(a),6(b),7(d),8(a),9(a),10(b),11(d),12(d),13(c),14(d),15(d),16( d),17(c),18(a),19(d),20(d),21(b),22(a),23(a),24(d),25(d),26(d),27(b),28(d),29(a),30(d),31(d),32(c ),33(d),34(d),35(a),36(b),37(c),38(d),39(c),40(d)
TEST-4 Sub-R.C.C Time :1hour Total Marks-40 Name of the Student:1. In the reinforced cement concrete structure, the steel reinforcement consists of . (a) Deformed bars (b) Cold twisted bars (c) Mildsteel and medium tensile steel bars (d) All of these 2. In singly reinforced beams, steel reinforcement is provided in (a) Compressive zone (b) Tensile zone (c) Neutral zone
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3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
(d) All the above In a simply supported reinforced concrete beam, the reinforcement is placed. (a) Above the neutral axis (b) Below the neutral axis (c) At the neutral axis (d) None of these In a singly reinforced beam, the effective depth is measured form the compression edge to the (a) Tensile edge (b) Centre of tensile reinforcement (c) Neutral axis of the beam (d) All of the above The application of elastic theory to the beams is based on the assumption that (a) At any cross-section, plane sections before bending remain plane after bending (b) All tensile stresses are taken up by reinforcement alone and none by the concrete. (c) Steel reinforcement is free from initial stresses when it is embedded in concrete. (d) All of the above In case of a cantilever beam , the tensile zone is D. (a) Above the neutral axis (b) Below the neutralaxis (c) At the neutral axis (d) All the above If is the permissible stress in compression due to bending in concrete in N/mm 2 , the modular ration(m) is of the order of (a) (b)
(c) (d) None of these 8. In a singly reinforced concrete beam, if the load is vey small. (a) Only concrete will resist tension (b) Only steel bars will resist tension. (c) Both concrete & steel will resist tension. (d) Both concrete & steel will resist compression. 9. The modular ratio is the ration of (a) Young’s modulus of steel to the young’s modulus of concrete (b) Young’s modules of concrete to the young’s modulus of steel (c) Load carried by steel to the load carried by concrete. (d) Load carried by concrete to the load carried by step.
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10. In a reinforced concrete column, the cross –sectional area of steel bar is as and that of concrete ia AC; the equivalent area of the section n terms of concrete is equal to. (a) As+mAc (b) Ac+mAs (c) As-mAc (d) Ac-mAs 11. In a singly reinforced concrete beam, as the load increases. (a) Only concrete will resist tension (b) Only steel bars will resist tension. (c) Both concrete and steel will resist tension. (d) Both concrete and steel will resist compression. 12. Normally, the tensile strength of concrete is about____________of its compressive strength (a) 10 to 15% (b) 15 to 20% (c) 20 to 25% (d) 25 to 30% 13. If the load on beam is increased, the tensile stress sin the concrete below the neutral axis will (a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Remain unchanged (d) None of these 14. Under normal loading conditions, the tensile stressed setup in the concrete will be _________the permissible stress. (a) More than (b) Less than (c) Equal to (d) All the above 15. A reinforced concrete beam will crack if tensile stress set up in the concrete below the neutral axis is (a) More than the permissible stress (b) Less than the permissible stress (c) Equal to the permissible stress (d) All the above. 16. In a sibgly reinforced beam the depth of neutral axis below the top of the beam (nc) is (a) Nc= (b) Nc= (c) Nc=
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(d) Nc= 17. If the breadth of a singly reinforced beam is d, effective depth is d, depth of neutral ax is below the top of beam is n and the compressive stress in the extreme fibre of concrete is , the the moment of resistance of the beak is equal to . (a) M.R=bn (b) M.R=bn (c) M.R=bn (d) M.R=bn 18. The leave arm in a singly reinforced beam is (a) (b) (c) (d) 19. In a beam section, if the steel reinforcement is of such a magnitude that the permissible stresses in concrete and steel are developed simultaneously, the section is. (a) Balanced section (b) Economical section (c) Critical section (d) All the above 20. The section in which concrete is not fully stressed to its permissible value when stress in steel reaches its maximum value is (a) Under-reinforced section (b) Over-reinforced section (c) Critical section (d) Balanced section 21. The actual neutral axis of n under reinforced section is above the critical neutral axis of a balanced section (a) Correct (b) Incorrect (c) Not known (d) None of these 22. The neutral axis of a balanced section is called (a) Balanced neutral axis (b) Critical neutral axis
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(c) Equivalent neutral axis (d) All of these 23. The moment of resistance of an under- reinforced section is computer on the basis of (a) Compressive force developed in concrete (b) Tensile force developed in steel (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) All the above 24. In a singly reinforced beam, if the stress in concrete reaches its allowable limit later than the steel reaches, its permissible value, the beam section is said to be (a) Under-reinforced section (b) Over-reinforced section (c) Critical section (d) Balanced section 25. If the tensile stress in steel reinforcement is depth of neutral axis is n and the effective depth d, then the moment of resistance of an under-reinforced section is (a) (b) (c) (d) 26. In an over-reinforced section (a) Steel reinforcement is not fully stressed to its permissible value (b) Concrete is not fully stressed to its permissible value (c) Either (a) and (b) (d) Both (a) and (b) 27. For an over –reinforced (singly reinforced )rectangular reinforced concrete section (a) The lever arm will be less than that for a balanced section (b) The maximum stress developed by concrete will be equal to allowable stress in concrete (c) The maximum stress developed by steel will be equal to the allowable (d) All the above 28. The moment of resistance of an over-reinforcement section is determined on the basis of (a) Compressive force developed in concrete (b) Tensile force developed in steel (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these 29. The neutral axis of an over –reinforced section falls (a) On the critical neutral axis of balanced section.
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(b) Below the critical neutral axis of balanced section (c) Above the neutral axis o balanced section (d) Al l the above 30. For a balanced section, the moment of resistance obtained from compressive force will be ___________the moment of resistance obtained from the tensile force (a) Greater than (b) Less than (c) Equal to (d) None of these 31. As the percentage of steel in a beam increases, the depth of neutral axis (a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Equal to (d) None of these 32. For a balanced reinforced section, the depth of critical neutral axis from the top of the beam (nc) is given by (a)
=
(b)
=
(c)
=
(d) = 33. The effective depth of a singly reinforced rectangular beam is 300mm. the section is over-reinforced and the neutral axis is 120mm below the top. If the maximum stress attained by concrete is 5N/mn2 and the modular ratio is 18, then the stress developed in the steel will (a) 130N/mm2 (b) 135N/mm2 (c) 160N/mm2 (d) 180N/mm2 ) in a reinforced concrete beam of width (b) and 34. The maximum shear stress ( subjected to as hear force (F) is equal to (a) (b) (c) (d) 35. Regarding the working stress design of under reinforced concrete section,
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(a) (b) (c) (d)
The neutral axis depth will be greater than that of a balanced section. The stress in steel intension will reach its maximum permissible value first. The moment of resistance will be less than that of the balanced section. The concrete on the tension side is also be considered for calculating the moment of resistance of the section.
36. If modular ratio is m, effective depth is d and stress ratio is r= Then the depth of neutral axis (nc) of a balanced section is (a) (b) (c) (d) 37. The deep beams are designed for (a) Shear force only (b) Bending moment only (c) Both S.F & B.M (d) Bearing 38. In a reinforced concrete beam , the shear stress distribution above the neutral axis following a (a) A straight line (b) Circular curve (c) Parabolic curve (d) All the above 39. The maximum shear stress in rectangular beam is _____________________times of average shear stress. (a) 1.15 (b) 1.25 (c) 1.50 (d) 1.75 40. For a reinforced concrete beam section, the shape of shear stress diagram is (a) Parabolic over the whole section with maximum value at the neutral axis. (b) Parabolic above the neutral axis and rectangular below the neutral axis. (c) Linearly varying as the distance form the N.A. (d) All the above. ANSWER: 1(d),2(b),3(b),4(b),5(d),6(a),7(b),8(c),9(c),10(b),11(b),12(a),13(a),14(a),15(a),16(a),17(a),18(c),19(d),20( a),21(a),22(b),23(b),24(b),25(c),26(a),27(b),28(a),29(b),30(c),31(a),32(a),33(b),34(c),35(bothb&c),36(b), 37(b),38(c),39(c),40(b)
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TEST-5 Sub-R.C.C Time :1hour Total Marks-40 Name of the Student:1. Shear reinforcement is provided in the form of (a) Vertical bars (b) Inclined bars (c) Combination of vertical and inclined bars (d) All the above 2. At the centre of beam, the shearing stresses are (a) More (b) Less (c) Negligible (d) None of these 3. The centre to centre spacing of vertical stirrups, in a rectangular beam, is (a) Increased towards the centre of the span of the beam (b) Decreased towards the centre of the span of the beam. (c) Increased at the ends. (d) None of these 4. The number of stirrups resisting shear force, in a reinforced beam, is given by (a) (b) (c)
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(d) 5. A stirrups consists of ____________diameter mildsteel bars bent round the tensile reinforcement (a) 1 to 5mm (b) 5 to 12mm (c) 12 to 18mm (d) All the above 6. According to IS:456-1978, the spacing of stirrups shall not exceed a distance ______the leverarm of the resisting moment. (a) Equal to (b) Two times (c) Three times (d) All the above 7. The torsion resisting capacity of a given reinforced concrete section. (a) Decreases with decrease in stirrups spacing. (b) Decreases with increase in longitudinal bars. (c) Does not depend upon stirrups and longitudinal steels. (d) Increases with increase in stirrups and longitudinal steels. 8. When the steel bars are embedded in concrete. The concrete after setting, adheres to the surface of the bars and thus resist any force that tends to pull or push this road. The intensity of this adhesive force is called. (a) Bond stress (b) Shear stress (c) Compressive stress (d) All of these 9. The longitudinal shearing stresses acting on the surface between the steel and concrete are called. (a) Bond stress (b) Tensile stresses (c) Compressive stresses (d) None of these 10. If L is the lever arm in reinforced concrete beam, S is the total perimeter of the steel bars and F is the shear force, then bond stress developed in concrete around the steel reinforcement is (a) (b) (c) (d) 11. As per IS :456-1978, the permissible value of bond – stress for M15 grade of concrete is (a) 0.5 N/mm2
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12.
13.
14.
15.
(b) 1 N/mm2 (c) 1.5 N/mm2 (d) 2 N/mm2 If the bond stress developed in a reinforced concrete beam is more than permissible value, it can be brought down by. (a) Increasing the depth of beam (b) Increasing the number of bars. (c) Decreasing the diameter of the bars (d) All of these If is the diameter of reinforcing bar, then for M15 grade concrete and mild steel, the bond length used for spicing bar in tension is equal to (a) 28 (b) 38 (c) 58 (d) 68 When the diameter of a reinforcement bar is the anchorage value of the hook alone is equal to (a) 2 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 32 If is the bar diameter, is the actual tensile stress in bar and is the permissible average bond stress the length of lap for reinforcement bars in tension shall not be less than. (a)
or 24
which ever is smaller
(b)
or 24
which ever is smaller
(c)
or 24
which ever is smaller
or 24 which ever is smaller (d) 16. If is the bar diameter, , is the actual compressive stress in bar and is the permissible average bond stresses the length for reinforcement bars in compression shall not be less than. or 24
which ever is smaller
(b)
or 24
which ever is smaller
(c)
or 30
which ever is smaller
or 30 which ever is smaller (d) 17. In a doubly reinforced beam , steel reinforcement is provided in a
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(a) Tensile zone (b) Compression zone (c) Either (a) & (b) (d) Both (a) & (b) 18. A doubly reinforced section is used (a) When the members are subjected to alternate external loads and the bending moment in the sections reverses. (b) When the member are subjected to loading eccentric in either side of the axis. (c) When the members are subjected to accidental lateral loads . (d) All of the above 19. In doubly reinforced rectangular beam, the allowatte stress in compression steel is___________the permissible stross intension insteel. (a) Greater than (b) Less than (c) Equal to (d) All of these 20. If the effective depth of a doubly reinforced concrete is d, the maximum stress in steel & concrete are
and
, then the neutral axis depth factor (k) if given by
(a) K=
(b) K= (c) K= (d) K= 21. The section of the beam having greater width at the top in comparison to the width below neutral axis is known as. (a) Critical section (b) T-section (c) L-section (d) None of these 22. The portion of the slab which acts monolithically with the beam and which resists the compressive stresses, is called _________of flange of the T-beam (a) Length (b) Breadth (c) Thickness (d) Depth 23. The breadth of the flange of a T-beam is (a) 1/3rd of the effective span of the T-beam (b) Twelve times the depth of slab plus breadth of rib.
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24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
(c) Centre to centre distance between the adjacent beam. (d) Least of (a) , (b) or (c) In a T-beam , the breadth of the rib is equal to the (a) Total thickness of the slab, including cover (b) Width of the portion of the beam in the compression zone (c) Width of the portion of the beam in the compression zone (d) All the above. The thickness of flange in a T-beam is taken equal to the total thickness of the slab, including cover. (a) True (b) False (c) Not known (d) None of these Slab forms the compression flange of the T-beam (a) Yes (b) No (c) Not known (d) None of these The breadth of rib in a T-beam should at least be equal to __________the depth of rib (a) One –half (b) One –third (c) One-fourth (d) One –sixth In a T-beam, the vertical distance between the bottom of the flange and the centre of the tensile reinforcement is (a) Breadth of flange (b) Thickness of flange (c) Breadth of slab (d) Depth of rib The effective depth of a T-beam is the distance between the (a) Centre of the flange and the top of the tensile reinforcement (b) Top of the flange and the centre of the tensile reinforcement (c) Bottom of the flange and the centre of the tensile reinforcement (d) Centre of the flange and the bottom centre of the tensile reinforcement The neutral axis in a T-beam section falls (a) Within the flange (b) Outside the flange (c) Either (a) or (b) (d) All the above When the neutral axis of T-beam falls outside the flange (below the slab), then (a) Bds
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=mAst(d-n)
(b) Bds =mAst(d-n) (c) Bds =mAst(d+n) (d) None of these 32. For Q.No.31, the depth of the net compression (a)
=
(b)
=
(c)
=
between the top of the beam is given by
(d) = 33. The moment of resistance of a T-beam where the neutral axis falls in the web is (a)
)
(b)
)
(c) 34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
)
) (d) When a vertical member is carry by mainly axial loads, is called as (a) Strut (b) Column (c) Tie (d) All of these Along column is one whose ratio of effective length to its least lateral dimension exceeds (a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 20 The analysis of slab spanning in one direction is done by assuming it to be a beam of (a) 1m length (b) 1m width (c) 1m (d) None of these The purpose of transverse reinforcement, in a slab is to (a) Distribute the effect to f point load on the slab more evenly and uniformly (b) Distribute the shrinkage and temp cracks more ever (c) Keep the main reinforcement in position (d) All of the above. In a slab, the transverse reinforcement is provided at ___________to the span of the slab (a) 450
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(b) 600 (c) 900 (d) 1800 39. The distribution reinforcement is also called ________________reinforcement. (a) Longitudinal (b) Transverse (c) Main (d) None of the these 40. The diameter of bars for main reinforcement in slabs, may be (a) 2 to 4mm (b) 4 to 8mm (c) 8 to 14mm (d) 14 to 18mm ANSWER: 1(d),2(c),3(a),4(b),5(b),6(a),7(d),8(a),9(a),10(c),11(b),12(d),13(c),14(c),15(d),16(b),17(d),18(d),19(b),20( b),21(b),22(b),23(d),24(c),25(a),26(a),27(b),28(d),29(b),30(c),31(a),32(b),33(a),34(b),35(c),36(b),37(d),3 8(c),39(b),40(c)
TEST-6 Sub-R.C.C Time :1hour Total Marks-40 Name of the Student:1. The pitch of bars of main reinforcement in slab should not exceed ________the effective depth of slab. (a) Double (b) Three times (c) Five times (d) Six times
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2. If plain bars are used, the area of distribution reinforcement in slabs should not less than (a) 0.12% of the gross area f concrete (b) 0.15% of the gross area of concrete (c) 0.18% of the gross area of concrete (d) 0.20% of the gross area of concrete 3. If high yield strength deformed bars are used, the are of distribution reinforcement in slabs, should not less than. (a) 0.12% of the gross area of concrete (b) 0.15% of the gross area of concrete (c) 0.18% of the gross area of concrete (d) 0.20% of the gross area of concrete 4. The diameter of bars used for distribution reinforcement in slabs, may vary from (a) 2 to 4mm (b) 4 to 6mm (c) 6mm to 8mm (d) 8 to 12mm 5. If the maximum bending moment of a simply supported slab in M and moment of resistance factor is R, then the effective depth of slab (d) is given by (a) d= (b) d=
(c) d= (d) d= 6. in a simply supported slab, the pitch of distribution reinforcement should not be more than_____________the effective depth of slab or 60cm which ever is smaller. (a) Double (b) Three times (c) Five times (d) Six times 7. The clear cover in a simply supported slab should not be less than the diameter of the reinforcing bar (a) Correct (b) Incorrect’ (c) Not known (d) None of these
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8. When a slab is continuous over several spans, negative (i.e. hogging ) bending moment is induced over the (a) End supports (b) Intermediate supports (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) Non of the 9. The reinforcement in a continuous slab is provided (a) At the top of the slab portion over the intermediate supports. (b) At the bottom of the slab portion over the intermediate supports. (c) All the middle of the slab portion over the intermediate supports (d) All the above 10. For a slab continuous over two equal spars, the maximum bending moment near the centre of each span is taken as: (a) (b) (c) (d) 11. Find the correct statement from the followings. (a) For a cantilever slab, the ratio of span to overall depth should not 12. (b) One way slab which carry uniformly distributed load should be designed to resist a sagging bending moment near mid-span. (c) When the slab is built into a brick or masonry wall the slab should be designed to resist a hogging moment at the face of the support. (d) All of the above. 12. When the slab is supported on all the four edges and the ratio of long span to short span is small, bending takes place along both the spans, such a slab is known as (a) Slab spanning in one direction (b) One way slab. (c) Slab spanning in two direction. (d) Two-way slab. 13. A two way slab (a) May be simply supported on the four edges, with comers not held down and carrying uniformly distributed load. (b) May be simply supported on the four edge , with corners held down and carrying uniformly distributed load. (c) May have edges fixed or continuous and carrying uniformly distributed load. (d) All the above. 14. A slab simply supported on the four edges, with corners not held down and carrying uniformly distributed load, is used in
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(a) Singly storeyed buildings. (b) Double storeyed buildings. (c) Multi storeyed buildings (d) All the above 15. The reinforcement in the short span is placed________________the reinforcement in the long span. (a) Below (b) Above (c) Middle (d) None of these 16. The maximum bending moment and deflection for two way slab is much _________than that of a one wayslad. (a) Greater (b) Smaller (c) Equal (d) All of these 17. According to Grushoff-rankine theory for a two way slab (a)
=
(b)
=
(c)
=
= (d) 18. If the sides o a slab simply supported on its edges and spanning in two way are equal, then the maximum bending moment is multiplied by. (a) 0.25 (b) 0.50 (c) 0.75 (d) 0.85 19. A reinforcing slab, build monolithically with the supporting columns and is reinforced in two or more directions, without any provision of beams is called a (a) Two way slab (b) Flat slab (c) Continus slab (d) Cireulashion 20. In a simply supported slab, alternate bars are curtailed at (a) 1/4th of the span (b) 1/5th of the span (c) 1/6th of the span
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21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
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(d) 1/7th of the span The floor slab of a building is supported on reinforced cement floor beams. The ratio of the end and intermediate span is kept. (a) 0.7 (b) 0.8 (c) 0.9 (d) 0.6 The effective span of a simply supported slab is (a) Distance between the centers of the bearings (b) Clear distance between the inner faces of the walls plus twice he thickness of the slab. (c) Cleat spa plus effective depth of the slab. (d) All the above The maximum ratio of span to depth of a slab simply supported and spanning in one direction is (a) 35 (b) 25 (c) 30 (d) 20 The maximum ratio of span to depth of a slab simple supported and spanning in two directions, is (a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 35 (d) 40 The maximum ratio of span to depth of a cantilever slab is (a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 14 The amount of reinforcement for main bars in a slab, is based upon (a) Maximum bending moment (b) Minimum bending moment (c) Maximum shear force (d) Minimum shear force The transverse reinforcements provided at right angles to the main reinforcement. (a) To distribute the load. (b) To resist the temp stresses (c) To resist the shrinkage stresses (d) All the above The weight of reinforced concrete is generally take as (a) 2300 kg/m3
(b) 2400 kg/m3 (c) 2500kg/m3 (d) 2800kg/m3 29. If the permissible compressive stress for a concrete in bending is ckg/m2, the modular ratio is (a) 2800/C (b) 2300/C (c) 2800/3C (d) 2800/4C 30. For a continuous slab supported at ends and carried over intermediate beams. (a) Max 3 sagging B.M for the end spans=WL2/10 (b) Max 3hogging B.M. at support next of the end support=-WL2/10 (c) Max 3sagging B.M for the interior span=+WL2/12 (d) Max 3hogging B.M at other interior support=-WL2/12 (e) All the above
ANSWER: 1(b),2(b),3(a),4(c),5(c),6(c),7(a),8(b),9(a),10(d),11(d),12(c),13(d),14(a),15(a),16(b),17(d),18(b),19(b),20( d),21(c),22(c),23(c),24(c),25(c),26(a),27(d),28(d),29(d),30(e),
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TEST BOOKLET CIVIL ENGINEERING PAPER I IES-2011 UPSC (ESE) INSTRUCTIONS
A
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your response ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See direction in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to rake away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
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(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
1.
For different concrete specimens, each hydrated tot he same degree, the permeability is (a) Higher with lower water cement ratio and higher cement content (b) Lower with lower water cement ratio and higher cement content (c) Lower with higher water cement ratio and lower cement content (d) Lower with higher water cement ratio and higher cement content
Ans: (b) 2.
Modulus of elasticity of concrete is increased with (a) Higher W/C ratio (b) Shorter curing period (c) Lesser vibration (d) Increase in age
Ans: (d) 3.
Increase-strain curve of concrete is (a) A perfect straight line upto failure (b) Straight line up to 0.002% strain value and then parabolic upto failure (c) Nearly parabolic up to 0.002% strain value and the a straight line upto failure (d) Hyperbolic up to 0.002% strain value and then a straight line upto failure
Ans: (c) 4.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I ListII (Grade of cement & Age) (Compressions strength in Nlmm2) A. Grade 33 (7 days) 1. 27 B. Grade 43 (28 days) 2. 43 C. Grade 53 (3 days) 3. 22 D. Grade 43 (7 days) 4. 33
Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
A 4 3 4 3
B 2 2 1 1
C 1 1 2 2
D 3 4 3 4
Ans: (b) 5.
When percentage of mica present in sand is large, it (a) Reduces the strength of mortar, or concrete (b) Increases the strength of mortar or concrete (c) Has no effect on mortar, or concrete strength (d) Enhances the strength of mortar, or concrete, but only marginally
Ans: (c)
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6.
Consider the following statements: 1. Dry rot in sap wood is caused by fungal attack 2. Brown rot in coniferous woods is a result of fungal attack 3. Alternate wetting and drying of unseasoned timber causes ‘powdery’ form of decay in wood. Which of these statements are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 b)1 and 2 only c)2 and 3 only d)1 and 3 only Ans: (a) 7.
Which of the following statements refer to correct purpose as regards testing of concrete by ultrasonic pulse velocity method? 1. To assess the quality of concrete in-situ. 2. To determine the dynamic modulus of elasticity of concrete. 3. To locate the presence of cracks in it (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d)1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d) 8.
If ‘W’ is the percentage of water required for normal consistency of cement, water to be added for determination of initial setting time is (a) 0.50 W (b) 0.62 W (c) 0.75 W (d) 0.85 W
Ans: (d) 9.
Consider the following statements Fibre saturation point in wood is reached when 1. Free water is removed 2. Cell water is removed 3. Shrinkage of wood is rapid 4. Strength gain is rapid Which of these statements are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (d) 10.
Which of the following theories of failure is most appropriate for a brittle material? (a) Maximum principal strain theory (b) Maximum principal stress theory (c) Maximum shear stress theory (d) Maximum strain energy theory
Ans: (b) 11.
A simply supported beam AB is subjected to a concentrated load at C, the centre of the span. The area of the SF diagram from A to C will give a) BM at C b) Load at S
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c) SF at C
d)Difference between BM values at A and C
Ans: (d) 12.
In a strained material, the principal stresses in the X and Y directions respectively are 100 N/mm2 (Tensile) and 60 N/mm2 (Compressive). On an inclined plane, the normal to which makes an angle of 300 to the X-axis, the major principal stress, in N/mm2 would be (a) 60 (b) 80 (c) 20 (d) 40
Ans: (c) 13.
Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) Principal stress is defined as the shear stresses on planes on which the normal stress is maximum or minimum (b) The centre of Mohr’s circle for a two-dimensional stress system always lies in the yaxis (adopting conventional axes notation). (c) The plane of maximum shear stress is inclined to the plane of principal stress at an angle of 450 (d) In case of biaxial state of normal stresses, the normal stress on 45 0 plane is equal to the sum of normal stresses.
Ans: (c) 14.
Consider the following statements: 1. Failure occurs beyond elastic limit 2. Rupture takes place immediately after elastic limit 3. Permanent set occurs beyond elastic limit Which of these are considered in the theories of failure? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only
Ans: (d) 15.
Consider the following salient points in a stress-strain curve of a mild steel bar: 1. Yield point 2. Braking point 3. Yield plateau 4 . Proportionality limit 5. Ultimate point The correct sequence in which they occur while testing the mild steel bar in tension from initial zero strain to failure is (a) 4, 1, 2, 3 and 5 (b) 1, 4, 3, 5 and 2 (c) 4, 1, 3, 5 and 2 (d) 1, 4, 2, 3 and 5
Ans: (c) 16.
A pedestal of rectangular cross-section of size B x D is subjected to a vertical load P. For the stress to be zero at the farthest point in the first quadrant of X-Y axes of the section (with the origin at the symmetric midpoint) due to the load acting in the third quadrant is bounded by the straight line. (a)
6 X 6Y =1 B D
(b)
6X 6Y + = -1 B D
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(c)
6X 6Y + =1 B D
(d)
6X 6Y + =1 D B
Ans: (d) 17. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists List I List II Mohr’s Circle Stress System y A.
1. x
B.
y
2. x
C.
y
3. x
D.
y
4.
x
Code: a) b) c) d)
A 2 3 2 3
B 4 4 1 1
C 1 1 4 4
D 3 2 3 2
Ans: (c) 18.
A uniformly distributed load (w) of length shorter than the span crosses a girder. The bending moment at a section in the girder will be maximum when (a) Head of the load is at the section
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(b) (c) (d)
Tail of the load is at the section Section divides the load in the same ratio as it divides the span Section divides the load in two equal lengths.
Ans: (c) 19.
The bending moment diagram for the above shown portal frame is a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans: (c) 20.
The truss is shown in figure. The cross-sectional area of each member is ‘A’ and the modules of elasticity of the material is uniformly E. The strain energy in the member XY is given by
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(a)
p2L 6 AE
(b)
p2L 3 AE
(c) Zero
(d)
p2L 2 AE
Ans: (c) 21.
The force in the member CD is (a) P Tensile (b) P Compressive (c) 2P Tensile (d) 2P Compressive Ans: (a) 22.
The influence line for vertical reaction at A of the beam is
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Ans: (a)
23.
The moment capacity of section at plastic hinge equals a) Yield moment b) Zero c) Fully plastic moment d) Twice the yield moment
Ans: (c) 24.
Which one of the following is the correct ratio of plastic moment to yield moment for a simply supported beam of uniform square cross section throughout the span (a)
1.5
(b) 1.7
(c) 2.0
(d) 2.34
Ans: (a) 25.
A fixed beam with central point load undergoes a slight settlement at one end. Select suitable answer from the following: (a)
Moment induced at both ends will be same
(b)
Moment induced at the end that has undergone settlement will be maximum
(c)
Moment induced will be maximum at the end having no settlement
(d)
Zero moment at the end that has settled.
Ans: (c) 26.
An increase in temperature on the top fibre of a simply supported beam will cause (a) Downward deflection (b) Upward deflection (c) No deflection (d) Angular rotation about neutral axis
Ans: (b) 27.
The number of independent equations to be satisfied for static equilibrium in a space structure is
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(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 2
Ans: (b) 28.
The loading on a beam is shown
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Ans: (a)
29.
The correct bending moment diagram for the column is
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Ans: (c) 30.
A propped cantilever AB of span L is subjected to a moment M at the prop end B. The moment at fixed end A is (a) 2M
(b)
M 2
(c) M
(d)
3M 4
Ans: (b) 31.
Which of the following steel sections should preferably be used at places where torsion occurs? (a) Box-type section (b) Channel section (c) Angle section (d) Any of the above
Ans: (a) 32.
The effective length of the fillet weld is (a) Total length – 2 x throat size (b) Total length – 2 x weld size (c) 0.7 x total length
Weldsize 2
(d) Total length -
Ans: (b) 33.
The compatibility conditions in terms of strains in a two-dimensional problem are associated with (a) Stresses (b) Forces (c) Properties of materials (d) Deformations
Ans: (d) 34.
The material in which large deformation is possible before absolute failure by rupture takes place, is known as (a) Ductile (b) Plastic (c) Brittle (d) Elastic
Ans: (a) 35.
The moment-distribution method in structural analysis falls in the category of (a) Displacement method (b) Force method (c) Flexibility method (d) First order approximate method
Ans: (a) 36.
Consider the following statements: Web crippling due to excessive bearing stress can be avoided by 1. Increasing the web thickness 2. providing suitable stiffeners 3. Increasing the length of the bearing plates Which of these statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 11
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Ans: (d)
37.
In the virtual work method of plastic analysis of steel structures, the virtual quantity is (a) Slope (b) Moment (c) Load (d) Displacement
Ans: (d) 38.
A protective or decorative non-structural element placed at the level of the truss supports and column head is called (a) Eaves girder (b) Baluster (c ) Eaves board (d) Tie girder
Ans: (c) 39.
The purlins in roof trusses are placed at the panel points essentially to avoid (a) Axial force in rafter (b) Shear force in rafter (c ) Deflection in rafter (d) Bending moment in rafter
Ans: (d) 40.
When the distance between centers of two adjacent rivets connecting the members subjected to either compression or tension exceeds the maximum pitch, then the additional rivets which are not subjected to the calculated stresses are known as (a) Packing rivets (b) Long-grip rivets (c) Tacking rivets (d) Auxiliary rivets
Ans: (c) 41.
Which of the following conditions is to be satisfied both in elastic and plastic analyses? (a) Equilibrium condition (b) Yield condition (c ) Plastic moment condition (d) Mechanism condition
Ans: (a) 42.
The base of a column is subjected to moment. If the intensity of bearing pressure due to axial load is equal to stress due to moment, then the bearing pressure between the base and the concrete is (a) Uniform compression throughout (b) Zero at one end and compression at the other end (c) Tension at one end and compression at the other end (d) Compression, verying as a parabolic profile
Ans: (b) 43.
The allowable shear stress in the web of mild steel beams decreases with (a) Decrease in h/t ratio (b) Increase in h/t ratio
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(c ) Decrease in thickness (d) Increase in height Where h is the height and t is the thickness Ans: (b) 44.
The most critical consideration in the design of a rolled steel column carrying axial loads is the (a) Percentage elongation at yield and the net cross-sectional area (b) Critical bending strength and axial yield strength of material (c) Buckling strength based on the net area of the section and percentage elongation at ultimate load (d) Compressive strength based on slenderness ratio and gross cross-sectional area.
Ans: (d) 45.
For an I beam, the shape factor is 1.12. If the allowable stress (with factor of safety in bending as 1.5) is increased by 20% for wind and earthquake loads, the modified load factor is (a) 1.10 (b) 1.25 (c) 1.35 (d) 1.40
Ans: (d) 46.
Top chord of a truss is continuous over joints l apart. Effective lengths of the member in the plane perpendicular to the truss is (a) 0.7 l (b) 0.85 l (c ) l (d) 1.5 l
Ans: (c) 47.
The mechanism method and the statical method guide in estimating (a) The lower and upper bounds respectively on the strength of structure (b) The upper and lower bounds respectively on the strength of structure (c) The lower bound on the strength of structure (d) The upper bound on the strength of structure
Ans: (b) 48.
If the shape factor of a section is 1.5 and the factor of safety to be adopted is 2, then the load factor will be (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 1.5 (d) 2
Ans: (a) 49.
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A tie bar 100 mm x 16 mm thick is to be welded to another plate as shown in figure using 8 mm fillet welds. If the tensile stress in plates is 150 N/mm2 and shear stress in weld is 110.0 N/mm2, minimum overlap required will be (a) 50 mm (b) 75 mm (c) 100 mm (d) 150 mm Ans: (c) 50. A propped cantilever beam of span ‘L’ and constant plastic moment M p, carries a concentrated load at midspan. The load at collapse will be 8M p 2M P 6M P 4M P (a) (b) (c) (d) L L L L Ans: (c) 51.
For two plates of equal thickness, full strength of square-edged fillet weld can be ensured if its maximum size is limited to (a) 1.5 mm less than the plate thickness (b) 67% of the plate thickness (c) 80% of the plate thickness (d) Thickness of the plate
Ans: (a) 52.
When a column is supported throughout its length either by masonry walls or by construction on all the sides, then its slenderness ratio is (a) Infinite (b) Zero (c ) Reasonably high (d) Low
Ans: (b) 53.
The allowable shear stress in stiffened webs of mild steel beams decreases with (a) Decrease in the spacing of the stiffeners (b) Increase in the spacing of the stiffeners (c) Decrease in the effective depth (d) Increase in the effective depth
Ans: (b) 54.
In a roof truss, if pitch is ½ and slope is 1, the angle of inclination with the horizontal would be (a) 300 (b) 450 (c ) 600 (d) 750
Ans: (b) 55.
In a plastic hinge, the actual distribution of strain across the section is essentially as (a)
(b)
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(c)
(d)
Ans: (a) 56. Consider the following statements in respect of design of web and flange as splices: 1. Flange splice shall be designed for actual BM at the section. 2. Flange splice shall be designed to resist the actual shear at the section. 3. Web splice shall be designed to resist the actual shear at the section 4. Web splice shall be designed for actual BM. Which of these statements are correct? (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d)1 and 4 Ans: (a) 57.
Lap length of reinforcement in compression shall not be less than (a) 30 φ (b) 24 φ (c) 20 φ (d) 15 φ Where φ = diameter of bar
Ans: (b) 58.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I A. Doubly reinforced section B. Limit state design C. Minimum cover D. Span-depth ratio
List II 1. Serviceability 2. Durability 3. Reduction in sectional depth 4. Ultimate moment capacity
Code: (a) (b) (c ) (d)
A 1 3 1 3
B 2 2 4 4
C 4 4 2 2
D 3 1 3 1
Ans: (d) 59.
The main reinforcement of a R.C. slab consists of 10 mm bars at 100 mm spacing; if it is desired to replace the 10 mm bars by 12 mm bars, then the spacing of 12mm bars should be (a) 120 mm (b) 140 mm (c ) 144 mm (d) 160mm
Ans: (c) 60.
In prestressed concrete members, the shear force depends upon (a) Distributed load (b) Torsion
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(c) Concentrated load
(d) Variation in net bending moment
Ans: (d) 61.
In case of Magnel- Blaton system of prestressing, each sandwich plate can generally anchor (a) 6 wires (b) 8 wires (c) 10 wires (d) 16 wires
Ans: (a) 62.
Inc case of prestressed concrete members, the bursting stresses develop at (a) Bond zone (b) Maximum bending moment zone (c ) Maximum shear stress zone (d) Anchorage zone
Ans: (d) 63.
In limit state approach, spacing of main reinforcement controls primarily (a) Cracking (b) Deflection (c ) Durability (d) Collapse
Ans: (a) 64.
Minimum clear cover (in mm) to the main steel bars in slab, beam, column and footing respectively, are (a) 10, 15, 20 and 25 (b) 15, 25, 40 and 75 (c ) 20, 25, 30 and 40 (d) 20, 35, 40 and 75
Ans: (b) 65.
Shear resistance of concrete in a reinforced concrete beam is dependent on (a) Tension reinforcement in the beam (b) Compression reinforcement in the beam (c ) Shear reinforcement in the beam (d) None of the reinforcements in the beam
Ans: (a) 66.
A prestressed concrete section is said to have failed in strength at the moment when all the material in the section has exhausted its (a) Stress limitations (b) Strain limitations (c) Stress as well as strain limitations (b) Laad limitations
Ans: (a) 67.
The minimum wall thickness of any load bearing wall in case of public building built with mortar, as per IS code, should be not less than (a)
1 brick 2
(b) 1 brick
(c ) 1
1 brick 2
(d) 2 brick
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Ans: (c)
68.
The position of the neutral axis in reinforced brick masonry is independent of the loading and is at a depth of (a) One-third of the effective depth (b) Half of the effective depth (c) Full depth (d)
1 times the effective depth 2
Ans: (a) 69.
Maximum slenderness ratio for load-bearing masonry wall in cement mortar, as per IS code, shall not exceed. (a) 13 (b) 20 (c) 27 (d) 30
Ans: (c) 70.
As per masonry code, the stiffening coefficient for walls stiffened by piers, buttresses or intersecting walls can be (a) 0 to 1.0 (b) 1.0 to 2.0 (c ) Greater than 2.0 (d) Invariantly 1.0
Ans: (b) 71.
Consider the following statements: Maximum slenderness ratio of load-bearing masonry walls for a dwelling having more than two storeys shall not exceed. 1. 12, if lime mortar is used 2. 18, if cement-lime mortar 1:2:9 is used 3. 24, if cement mortar 1:6 is used\ Which of these statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d)1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b) 72.
The loss due to relaxation of stress in steel in PSC member depends on 1. Applied stress level 2. Temperature 3. Type of steel (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only ( c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only
Ans: (c) 73.
The ‘transmission length’ requirement is to be satisfied in the design of (a) Pre-tensioned concrete beams (b) Post-tensioned concrete beam 17
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(c) Unbonded post-tensioned concrete (d) Post-tensioned continuous concrete beams Ans: (a) 74.
Which one of the following statements is not correct with respect to PSC beams? (a) Loss due to shrinkage is proportional to water-cement ratio used in concrete (b) Loss due to creep is proportional to the age of the member at the time of loading. (c) Loss due to elastic deformation is directly proportionally to the modulus of elasticity of concrete (d) Loss due to friction occurs in post tensioned concrete members
Ans: (c) 75.
In limit state design of concrete for flexure, the area of stress block is taken as (a) 0.530 fck. Xu (b) 0.446 fck . Xu ( c) 0.420 fck .Xu (d) 0.360 fck . Xu Where fck is characteristic compressive strength of concrete and Xu is the depth of neutral axis from top.
Ans: (d) 76.
In a combined footing, in the zones where the shear stresses are less than 5 kg/cm 2, stirrups to be provided are generally (a) 2 – legged (b) 4-legged (c) 8 – legged (d) 12 legged
Ans: (b) 77.
The purpose of lateral ties in short R.C. columns is to (a) Increase the load carrying capacity of column (b) Facilitate compaction of concrete (c) Facilitate construction (d) Avoid buckling of longitudinal bars
Ans: (d) 78.
The number of plastic hinges required in a structure of indeterminate status for a ‘mechanism’ to develop is (a) i (b) i + 1 ( c) i + 2 (d) i – 1 Where ‘i' is the degree of indeterminacy
Ans: (b) 79.
According to IS 456, minimum slenderness ratio for a short concrete column is (a) Less than 12 (b) Between 12 and 18 (c) Between 18 and 24 (d) More than 24
Ans: (a)
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80.
For a continuous slab of 3 m x 35 m size, the minimum overall depth of slab to satisfy vertical deflection limits is (a) 120 mm (b) 100 mm (c) 75 mm (d) 50 mm
Ans: (a) 81.
The effective length of a R.C column continuing through two storeys, properly restrained at both ends in position and direction, is (a) 0.50 L (b) 0.75 L (c) L (d) 2 L
Ans: (b) 82.
A reinforced concrete slab is 75 mm thick. The maximum size of reinforcement bar that can be used is (a) 6 mm diameter (b) 8 mm diameter (c) 10 mm diameter (d) 12 mm diameter
Ans: (b) 83.
A reinforced concrete cantilever porch has thickness t. The main reinforcing steel will be placed (a) At mid-thickness (b) At t/3 from the top (c) Close to the bottom surface (d) Close to the top surface
Ans: (d) 84.
A simply supported rectangular beam is uniformly loaded and is prestressed. The tendon provided for prestressing should be (a) Straight, above centroidal axis (b) Straight, below centroidal axis (c) parabolic, with convexity upward (d) Parabolic, with convexity downward
Ans: (d) 85.
For a certain set of external loads, concordant profile in a prestressed beam represents to some scale the (a) Influence line diagram (b) Shear force diagram (c) Bending moment diagram (d) Williot-Mohr diagram
Ans: (c) 86.
Consider the following statements: Cement mortars richer than 1 : 3 are not used in masonry work because 1. There is no gain in strength of masonry 2. There is high shrinkage 3. They are prone to segregation Which of these statements are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
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Ans: (b)
87.
Consider the following statements: Percentage of steel for balanced designed of a singly reinforced rectangular section by limit state method depends on (1) Characteristic strength of concrete (2) Yield strength of concrete (3) Modulus of elasticity of steel (4) Geometry of the section. Which of these statements are correct? (a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b) 88.
The minimum strain at failure in the tensile reinforcement (Fy = 400 MPa) of RCC beam as per limit state method is (a) 0.0020 (b) 0.0028 (c) 0.0037 (d) 0.0045
Ans: (c) 89.
A bar chart is commonly used because (a) It is simple to draw and easy to understand (b) It indicates at a glance the overall progress of the project (c) It shows critical and non-critical activities (d) It incorporates uncertainties for delay in estimation of time required for completion of activities.
Ans: (a) 90.
Which one of the following rollers is suitable for soil-cement stabilized road construction? (a) Vibratory roller (b) Sheepfoot roller (c) Pneumatic roller (d) Smooth wheel roller
Ans: (c) 91.
In a group housing project, it is proposed to use pre-fabricated RCC beams and columns. The most useful construction equipment is (a) Derrick Crane (b) Chute (c) Weigh Batcher (d) Transit Mixer
Ans: (a) 92.
Tractive coefficient of a Crawler truck in loose soil is
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(a) Less than that of rubber tyre tractors (b) More than that of rubber tyre tractors (c) Same as that of rubber tyre tractors (d) Nearly zero Ans: (d) 93 The thickness of web for unstiffened plate girder with clear distance‘d’ between the flanges shall be not less than (a)
d 200
(b)
d 85
( c)
d 100
(d)
d 160
Ans: (b) 94.
The maximum longitudinal pitch in bolted joints, subjected to tensile forces, wherein t = thickness of the plate and D = diameter of bolt, is (a) 32 D (b) 16 D (c) 32 t (d) 16 t
Ans: (d) 95.
A centrifugal pump 18 cm diameter, running at 1460 rpm delivers 0.096 m3/sec water against a head of 36 m of water with an efficiency of 86%. If another pump, twice the size of this said pump, is run at the same speed, how much water would the bigger pump deliver and at what head of water? (Take 3 2 = 1.26) (a) 0.192m3/sec and 45.36 m (b) 0.192m3/sec and 90.72 m 3 (c) 0.384 m /sec and 45.36 m (d) 0.384 m3/sec and 90.72 m
Ans: (d) 96.
In the network shown above, the number on the arrow gives the duration of the activity. The earliest expected time for event 6 to be attached is (a)
22
(b) 27
(c) 23
(d) 24
Ans: (b) 97.
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Consider a series of activities A, B, C, D and E comprising a project wherein, a, m, b durations of each activity are indicated. What is the probability of completing the project in 45 days? The area under the normal probability curve is indicated in the table by adopting standard notations. Z X (a) 0.20
1.0 0.841
0.8 0.788
0.6 0.725
(b) 0.23
0.4 0.655 (c) 0.26
0.2 0.579
0.0 0.500 (d) 0.29
Ans: (d) 98.
Which one of the following is the objective in crashing? (a) Reduction in duration (b) Reduction in resources (c) Reduction in cost (d) Reduction in project size
Ans: (c) 99.
If the depth of actual axis in a beam is more than the depth of critical axis, then the beam is called (a) Over reinforced beam (b) Under-reinforced beam (c) Balanced beam (d) Deep beam
Ans: (a) 100.
Consider the three activities indicated in sequence. The possible alternatives for individual durations (D) in days, and the corresponding cost of resource consumption in units of money per day (R ) respectively, are also indicated beside the activities. Overhead costs are to be added at 12 units of money per day of duration. What is the most optimal total cost including overheads, if all the activities are to be completed in either 22 or 21 days? (a) 466 units of cost (b) 460 units of cost (c)453 units of cost (d) 450 units of cost Ans: (c) 101.
In a R.C section under flexure, the assumption that “a plane section before bending remains plane after bending” leads to (a) Strain distribution being linear across the depth (b) Stress distribution being linear across the depth (c) Both stress and strain distribution being linear across the depth (d) Shear stress distribution being uniform along the depth
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Ans: (a) 102.
Critical path moves along the activities having total float as (a) Positive (b) Negative ( c) Zero (d) Unity
Ans: (c) 103. The probability distribution taken to represent the completion of time in PERT analysis is (a) Normal Distribution (b) Bet Distribution (c) Gamma Distribution (d) Gaussain Distribution Ans: (a) 104.
The output from a power shovel is 144 cum/hr. The required number of trucks of 12 cum capacity each with 16 minute cycle time and with 80% operating efficiency will be (a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2
Ans: (c) 105.
A supercharger is used in the engines of earthmoving machines at higher altitudes because (a) The ambient atmospheric pressure is less at higher altitudes (b) Four-cycle engines depend on the suction of the engines for the supply of air (c) Two-cycle engines are not rugged enough for higher altitude (d) The ambient temperature is less as the altitude is higher
Ans: (a) 106.
A contractor wishes to determine a suitable combination of manual labour and machine work for the excavation of a multistory construction. For every cum of excavation, 3 man-hours are needed; or 0.2 machine-hour. Costs involved are Rs. 20 per man-hour and Rs. 500 per machine-hour. The total quantity of excavation is estimated to be 4,000 cum. The optimal quantity of excavation to be done manually for minimum total cost will be (a) 1500 cum (b) 1800 cum (c) 2250 cum (d) 2500 cum
Ans: (d) 107
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I List II A. Concrete pumps 1. Ready Mix concrete B. Agitating trucks 2. Multi-storey concreting works C. Transit Mixer 3. Tunnel works D. Crane Bucket 4. Built up and busy area Code: A B C D (a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 2 1 4 3
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(c) (d)
3 2
1 4
4 1
2 3
Ans: (d) 108.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I List II A. Crawler-mounted 1. Limiting load is within 75% lifting cranes of tipping load B. Rubber-tire mounted 2. Allow use of dipper with its stick Lifting cranes C. Drag lines with 1.34 cum 3. Time taken in swinging between Bucket, digging and loading 450 to 1800 is 23 to 35 seconds In gravel D. Power shovel converted 4. Limiting load is up to 85% of tipping Into hoe load Code A 1 2 1 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
B 3 3 4 4
C 4 4 3 3
D 2 1 2 1
Ans: (c) 109.
Slack time is associated with (a) A real activity (c) Both event and real activity
(b) An event (d) Dummy activity
Ans: (b) 110.
A crane is purchased now; its useful life is 8 years after which a new crane must be purchased. If the interest rate is 6%, the capital recovery factor (crf) is (a) 0.3141 (b) 0.5420 (c) 0.1610 (d) 0.1259
Ans: (c) 111.
If the effective length, effective height and effective thickness of a masonry wall are l, h and to respectively; then the slenderness ratio of the wall shall be (a)
l t
(b)
h t
(c ) Larger of
l h and t t
(d) Smaller of
l h and t t
Ans: (d) 112.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
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(a) Adding 5% to 6% of moisture by weight increases the volume of dry sand from 18% to 38% (b) The bulking of fine sand is more than that of coarse sand (c ) Volume of fully saturated sand is equal to that of dry sand (d) All of the above Ans: (d) 113. What is the distance away from midspan of a plastic hinge if developing in a simply supported beam of rectangular cross-section and span 6 m, subjected to a point load at the centre? (a) Zero (b) 1 m (c) 2 m (d) 3 m Ans: (a) Directions:
Each of the next seven (07) items consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as Reason (R )’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true 114. Assertion (A) Reason (R)
: :
Pumps for concreting are generally of the positive displacement category Roto-dynamic pumps may effect more crushing of the coarse aggregate
Ans: (b) 115. Assertion (A) Reason (R)
: :
The tests for determining the setting times of coments are of little use in assessing the hardening of cement concrete Ultimate strength of concrete in-situ is not dependent upon the setting times of cement used.
Ans: (b) 116. Assertion (A) Reason (R)
: :
A material is incompressible if its Poisson’s ratio is 0.5 The Bulk modulus K is related to Modulus of elasticity E and to Poisson’s ratio µ as per well known relationship
Ans: (b) 117.
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Assertion (A) Reason (R)
: For the frame shown above, the BM at every cross-section is zero : The shape of the structure follows the funicular polygon
Ans: (d) 118.
Assertion (A)
:
Reason (R)
:
The propped cantilever beam shown in figure above is a determinate structure. At the internal hinge shown, there exists a shear transfer and no bending moment.
Ans: (a) 119. Assertion (A) Reason (R )
: :
In a plate girder of uniform cross-section, intermediate vertical stiffeners are provided at closer spacing in the middle rather than at supports. Intermediate vertical stiffeners are provided to prevent the web from buckling under a complex and variable stress situation resulting from combined action of shear force and bending moment.
Ans: (a) 120. Assertion (A) Reason (R )
: :
Centrifugal pumps are not normally usable for pumping mixed concrete even if the concrete (to be pumped) can be dropped in by a hopper system. When dropping (mixed) concrete, segregation of aggregates may occur.
Ans: (b)
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TEST BOOKLET CIVIL ENGINEERING PAPER II IES-2011 UPSC (ESE) INSTRUCTIONS
A
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your response ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See direction in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to rake away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
CANDIDATE IN
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
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01. Singing of telephone wires in the wind occurs due to : (a) Vibrations caused by birds as they sit on or get off, the wires (b) Tensioning at the ends (c) Magnus effect (d) Generation of Karman Vortex street Ans: (d) 02. Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) Local atmospheric pressure is always lesser than standard atmospheric pressure (b) Local atmospheric pressure depends upon the elevation of the locality only (c) Standard atmospheric pressure is the mean atmospheric pressure at sea level (d) A barometer reads the difference between local, and standard atmospheric pressure Ans: (c) 03. Pressure Gauge 0.7 m
Air
Sp.gr.(1.6) 0.7 m
0.25 m
Sp.gr.(13.6)
In the above figure the pressure gauge will record a gauge pressure equivalent to : (a) 6.12 m of water (b) 1.21 m of mercury (c) 0.5 bar (d) 34,000 Pa Ans: (c) 04. The movement of air mass in the case of Tornado can be described as : (a) Forced vortex throughout (b) free vortex throughout (c) Forced vortex at the core and free vortex outside (d) Free vortex at the core and forced vortex outside Ans: (c)
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05. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I List II A. Specific gravity B. Coefficient of viscosity C. Kinematic viscosity D. Stress Code: A
B
C
D
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3 1 1
1 1 3 3
4 2 4 2
2 4 2 4
1. Mo L2 T –1 2. Mo Lo T o 3. ML–1 T –1 4. ML–1 T–2
Ans: (a) 06. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I List II A. Rehbock formula B. Francis formula C. A special trapezoidal weir D. Linear proportional weir Code: A
B
C
D
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3 5 5
4 4 4 3
1 2 1 2
2 5 2 1
1. Sutro weir 2. Rectangurlar suppressed weir 3. Broad crested weir 4. Cippolletti weir 5. Rectangular contracted weir
Ans: (c) 07. Poise has the unit of : (a) Dyne-cm/s2 s/cm2
(b) Dyne-cm/s
(c) Dyne- s/cm
(d) Dyne-
Ans: (d) 08. Consider the following statements : 1. There is no flow across a streamline 2. Streamline spacing varies directly with velocity at the section 3. Streamlines do not cross 4. In steady flow, streamline pattern does not change with time Which of these statements in respect of stream flow pattern are correct? (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
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Ans: (c) 09. A fire hose has a nozzle attached to it, and the nozzle discharges a jet of water into the atmosphere at a velocity of 20 m/s. this causes the joint of the nozzle with the hose to be in : (a) Tension (b) A state of zero stress (c) Compression (d) Bending stress Ans: (a) 10. The absolute percentage error in the computed discharge over a rectangular weir corresponding to an absolute error of 1.5 % in the measurement of head over the sill of the weir would be : (a) 1.5 (b) 2.25 (c) 2.5 (d) 3.75 Ans: (b) 11. The terminal velocity of a sphere setting in a viscous fluid varies as : (a) The Reynolds number (b) The square of its diameter (c) Directly proportional to the viscosity of the fluid (d) Its diameter Ans: (b) 12. Distorted modes are needed for : 1. Rivers
2. Dams across wide rivers
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
3. Harbours
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d) 13. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I List II A. Sudden closure of a sluice gate 1. Uniform flow B. Hydraulic jump is a stilling basin 2. Rapidly varied flow C. Spreading of irrigation water in a field 3. Unsteady flow D. Flow in a main irrigating canal 4. Spatially varied flow Code a) b) c) d) Ans: (b)
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A
B
C
D
1 3 1 3
2 2 4 4
4 4 2 2
3 1 3 1
14. Which one of the following statements is correct ? a) For water at 100o Celsius at sea level, the vapour pressure is equal to atmospheric pressure b) Surface energy (or tension) is caused by the force of adhesion between liquid molecules c) Viscosity of a fluid is the property exhibited by it both in static and in dynamic conditions d) Air is 50,000 times more compressible than water Ans: (c) 15. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I List II A. Uniform flow B. Laminar flow
1. Flow through a water supply pipe 2. Flow through a straight tube of uniform diameter and uniform roughness 3. Flow above the drainhole of a wash basin 4. Flow of blood in veins and arteries
C. Turbulent flow D. Irrotational flow Code a) b) c) d)
A 3 2 3 2
B 1 1 4 4
C 4 4 1 1
D 2 3 2 3
Ans: (d) 16.
GVF to be identified CDL NDL
NDL CDL
Steep Mild The water surface profile in the flow situation as shown in the figure is : (a) S3
(b) M3
(c) S2
Ans: (b) 17. Consider the following devices : 1. Orifice
2. Borda’s mouthpiece running free
3. Bell mouthed orifice
4. External mouthpiece
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(d) M1
What is the correct sequence of these devices by decreasing magnitude of coefficient of discharge? a) 2, 3, 1 and 4
b) 4, 3, 1 and 2
c) 4, 1, 3 and 2
d) 2, 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (b) 18. Two identical pumps, each capable of delivering 0.2 cumec, against a head of 30 m, are connected in parallel. The resulting discharge is : a) 0.4 cumec against a head of 30 m b) 0.4 cumec against a head of 60 m c) 0.2 cumec against a head of 30 m d) 0.2 cumec against a head of 60 m Ans: (a) 19. For attaining maximum efficiency, a Francis turbine runner is so designed as to result in radial discharge at exit. This is done by : a) Providing runner vane angle at inlet as 90o b) Providing guide vane angle at inlet as 90o c) Providing runner vane angle at exit as 90o d) Designing for absolute velocity at outlet to be inclined at 90o to direction of vane there Ans: (d) 20. Assume that water vaporizes at an absolute pressure of 1.5 m, barometric pressure head is 9.5 m and cavitation coefficient is 0.1 A turbine operates under a head of 40 m. the safe height of the runner above the tail water level, in meters, is : a) 6 b) 4 c) 3 d) 2 Ans: (b) 21. A rail which is tapered to a toe at one end and has a heel at the other end is called as : a) Stock rail b) Tongue rail c) Wing rail d) Lead rail Ans: (b) 22. A stilling well is required when the stage measurement is made by employing : a) Bubble gauge b) Float gauge recorder c) Vertical staff gauge d) Inclined staff gauge Ans: (b) 23. Consider the following statements. Morphological characteristics of a river are represented by : 1. Changes in the river form 2. Changes in the characteristics of the river bed s a result of variation of discharge in the river 3. No change in the river plan form Which of these statements are correct ? a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3 c) 2 and 3 d) 3 and 4 Ans: (a)
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24. Consider the following statements. In case of flood routing in a river channel by Muskingum method, the coefficient x represents : 1. A dimensionless constant indicating the relative importance of inflow and outflow in determining storage 2. A storage constant having the dimension of time 3. In natural channels, x usually varies between 0.1 and 0.3 4. When the values of x equals 0.5, there exists the influence of both inflow and outflow on storage Which of these statements are correct ? (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans: (b) 25. Consider the following situation in a flow mass curve study when demand line drawn from a ridge in the mass curve does not intersect the mass curve again. This means that : (a) The storage is not adequate (b) The demand cannot be met by the inflow as the reservoir will not refill (c) The reservoir was not full at the beginning (d) The reservoir is wasting water by spill Ans: (b) 26. Consider the following zones : 1. Saturation zone 3. Intermediate zone
2. Capillary zone 4. Soilwater zone
Which of these does not relate to the zone of aeration in the soil profile ? a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 4 only
d) 1 only
Ans: (d) 27. An invar type, 50 m in length, standardized at 20o C temperature and 10 kg pull, is used to measure a base line. The correction per tape length, if at the time of measurement the temperature was 30o C and the coefficient of linear expansion of the tape was 1 x 10-6 per oC will be : a) 0.0200 m b) 0.0050 m c) 0.0005 m d) 0.0001 m Ans: (c) 28. A constant centre (in plan-view) arch dam is best suited for: a) A V- shaped gorge b) A U- shaped gorge c) Both U- and V- shaped gorges d) multi- peaked gorges Ans: (a)
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29. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I List II A. Shallow open well B. Deep open well C. Shallow tube well D. Deep tube well Code A B a) 3 2 b) 1 2 c) 3 4 d) 1 4
1. Submersible pump 2. Wind power (mill) 3. Persian wheel 4. Centrifugal pump C 4 4 2 2
D 1 3 1 3
Ans: (c) 30. An identified source of irrigation water has ion concentrations of Na+, Ca++ and Mg++ as 20, 10 and 8 milliequivalents per litre, respectively. The SAR of this water is approximately : a) 2.06 b) 6.67 c) 2.67 d) zero Ans: (b) 31. Two different channels, M and N, in two different sites are designed based on Lacey’s theory, to carry same quantum of discharge. But the bed material of M is found to be finer than that of N. a) Channel M will have steeper longitudinal slope b) Channel N will have steeper longitudinal slope c) Channels M and N can have same longitudinal slopes d) Silting is more in M than in N Ans: (b) 32. In alluvial channels carrying clear water, the ratio of maximum tractive shear stress on the slides and that on the channel beams approximately. a) 0.5 b) 1.76 c) 0.76 d) 1.5 Ans: (c) 33. The relation between suspended sediment transport Qs and stream flow Q is often represented by an equation of the form Qs = K . Qn Where n commonly varies between : a) 1/3 and 1/2 Ans: (c)
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b) 0.2 and 0.3
c) 1 and 3
d) 0.6 and 0.8
34. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I List II a) Deflector
1. Low-height wall across canal down-stream of the fall
b) Biff wall
2. Vertical end wall with horizontal projection
c) Cistern
3. Short wall at down-stream end of the fall
d) Baffle wall Code a) b) c) d)
4. Pond level below the fall
A
B
C
D
1 3 1 3
2 2 4 4
4 4 2 2
3 1 3 1
Ans: (b) 35. Consider the following statements: Mitra’s hyperbolic transition design is based on the principle that : 1. Flow depth in the canal, as well as the discharge, is constant 2. width of the canal varies along with the discharge 3. Rate of change of velocity per unit length of transition is constant throughout the length of the transition. Which of these statements are correct ? a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Ans: (d) 36. Which one of the groyne arrangements represents an ‘attracting groyne’ ? (a)
Flow direction
(b)
Flow direction
(c)
Flow direction
(d)
Flow direction
Ans: (c)
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37. Consider the following statements : 1. In a super-passage, the drain runs over the canal 2. In a siphon, the drain runs below the canal 3. In a siphon aqueduct, type- II, the canal banks are made of RCC walls Which of these statements are correct ? a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 and 3 only Ans: (d) 38. A depth-discharge relationship of the canal section is maintained at a notch fall because the sill of the notches is : a) Level with downstream canal bed b) Below the upstream canal bed c) Level with upstream canal bed d) Above the upstream canal bed Ans: (c) 39. Flexibility of an outlet may be defined as the ratio of the rate of change of : a) Outlet discharge to the rate of change of water level of the parent channel b) Outlet discharge to the rate of change of the discharge of the parent channel c) Parent channel discharge to the rate of the change of the outlet discharge d) Parent channel water level to the rate of the outlet discharge Ans: (b) 40. Consider the following statements The general depth of scour calculated by Lacey’s formula in a river represents the depth below the: 1. Maximum flood level in the river 2. Minimum flow water level in the river 3. Normal flow water level in the river 4. Existing river bed level Which of these statements is/are correct ? a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 b) 1, 2 and 3 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1 only Ans: (d) 41. If Organic sources of carcinogenic compounds in water persist even after chlorination, then what is the correct sequence among treatment processes listed below if all these are considered compulsory ? 1. Coagulation 2. Sedimentation 3. Filtration in general 4. Activated carbon bed filtration 5. Flocculation a) 4-5-3-2-6 and 1 b) 1-2-3-4-5 and 6 c) 4- 2- 3- 1- 5 and 6 d) 1-5-2-3-4 and 6 Ans: (d)
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6. Chlorination
42. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I (Parameters) List II (Units) A. Turbidity B. Pathogen C. Odour D. Colour
1. TON 2. TCU 3. JTU 4. MPN
Code A 2 3 2 3
a) b) c) d)
B 1 1 4 4
C 4 4 1 1
D 3 2 3 2
Ans: (d) 43. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I List II A. Viruses in water
1. Parasite-based diseases
B. Depletion of oxygen
2. Fish extinction
C. Excess nitrates in water
3.Methemeglobinemia
D. Excess fluorides in water
4. Mottling of teeth
Code a) b) c) d)
A 1 4 1 4
B 2 2 3 3
C 3 3 2 2
D 4 1 4 1
Ans: (a) 44. Consider the following statements. The role of the gravel bed in a rapid sand filter is : 1. To filter out large suspended matter 2. To support the sand bed above it 3. To prevent the escape of sand particles 4. To uniformly distribute the backwash water 5. To prevent algae growth Which of the following statements are correct ? a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 c) 3, 4 and 5 only Ans: (b)
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b) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2 and 3 only
45. Consider the following statements. The following factors relate to the process of coagulation : 1. Percentage removal is higher when turbidity is more 2. Additional of activated silica aids in the process of coagulation 3. pH of water is an important consideration for selecting a coagulant Which of the following statements are correct ? a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3
Ans: (a) 46. Which of the following methods are employed for determination of free and combined chlorine residuals in water ? 1. Starch-iodide method
2. Orthotolidine method
3. Amperometric titration method
4. SNORT method
5. DPD method a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 3, 4 and 5 only
d) 2, 3, and 4 only.
Ans: (a) 47. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List – I List – II A. Primary sedimentation B. Coagulation C. Flocculation D. Secondary sedimentation Codes: A (a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 5
B 5 3 4 4
C 4 4 3 3
1. Differential settling 2. Hindered settling 3. Charge neutralization 4. Growth of flocs 5. Flow- through velocity
D 1 2 1 2
Ans: (b) 48. Which of the following operational problems relate to the functioning of rapid gravity filter ? 1. Inadequate media comprising filter bed 2. Sludge bulking 3. Mud balls 4. Negative head 5. Incrustation of media (a) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
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Ans: (a) 49. Conversion of dynamic velocity head into static pressure head in a centrifugal pump is the result of : (a) Increasing area of flow between adjacent vanes from inlet to outlet (b) Difference in pressure between suction and delivery ends (c) Radial thrust in pumps (d) Stuffing Box Ans: (b) 50. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List – I List – II A. Steel pipe B. Concrete pipe C. AC pipe D. Vitrified clay pipe Codes: A B C (a) 2 3 1 (b) 4 3 1 (c) 2 1 3 (d) 4 1 3
1. Highly resistant to corrosion but can break easily 2. Virtually corrosion resistant 3. Sulfide corrosion 4. Electrolyte corrosion D 4 2 4 2
Ans: (b) 51. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List – I List – II A. Pelton turbine B. Francis turbine C. Kaplan turbine D. Banki turbine Codes: A B (a) 4 2 (b) 3 1 (c) 4 1 (d) 3 2
1. Mixed flow reaction turbine 2. Operating under low head and large discharge 3. Operating under high head and large discharge 4. No draft tube C 1 2 2 1
D 3 4 3 4
Ans: (c) 52. Consider the following statements : Activated sludge process can be said to comprise : 1. Conversion of dissolved organic matter into biological flocs 2. Removal of dissolved BOD of the waste water 3. Digestion of the sludge Which of these statements are correct ? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
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(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans: (b) 53. Which one of the following tests employs ferroin indictor ? (a) Chemical oxygen demand (b) Ammonia nitrogen (c) Nitrate nitrogen (d) Fluoride Ans: (a) 54. During sewage treatment, effluent from which one of the following treatment units has minimum wt/vol amount of suspended solids? (a) Detritus channel (b) Primary sedimentation tank (c) Secondary sedimentation tank (d) Activated sludge process aeration tank Ans: (d) 55. In a pressure penstock 4500 m long, water is flowing at a velocity of 4 m/s. If the velocity of the pressure wave traveling in the pipe, due sudden complete closure of a valve at the downstream end, is given as 1500 m/s, what would be the period of oscillation in second under frictionless conditions? (a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 11 Ans: (a) 56. The group of micro-organisms involved in production of methane from acetic acid (or acetate) in anaerobic wastewater treatment process is : (a) Methodnotrix and Methanobacterium (b) Methanobacterium and Methanosarcina (c) Methanosarcina and Methanospirillum (d) Methanothrix and Methanosarcina Ans: (d) 57. When sufficient energy through mechanical mixing is supplied to keep the entire contents, including the sewage solids, mixed and aerated, the reactor is termed : (a) An aerobic lagoon (b) An aerobic pond (c) A facultative lagoon
(d) A facultative pond
Ans: (a) 58. Deep ponds, in which oxygen is absent except, perhaps, across a relatively thin surface layer, are called : (a) Aerobic ponds (c) Facultative ponds Ans: (b)
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(b) Anaerobic ponds (d) Polishing ponds
59. The Manufacturer of aeration devices reports the oxygen transfer rate of the device obtained through laboratory tests carried under standard conditions. Such standard condition are : (a) Wastewater at zero DO, 25°C and 760 mm Hg (b) Tapwater at zero DO, 0°C and 700 mm Hg (c) Tapwater at zero DO, 20°C and 760 mm Hg (d) Wastewater at zero DO, 0°C and 700 mm Hg Ans: (c) 60. Which of the following are responsible for the formation of photochemical smog ? 1. Light intensity 2. Ratio of hydrocarbons to nitric oxide 3. CO2 4. Hydrocarbon reactivity 5. SO2 (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 5 only
Ans: (b) 61. A flownet for seepage under a sheetpile wall has nf = 4, nd = 8 and the permeabilities of − the soil in the horizontal and vertical directions are : KH = 8 x 10 5 m/sec and −5 KV = 2 x 10 m/sec. If the head loss through the soil is 2 m, the quantity of seepage per meter length of the wall will be : −
−
(a) 2 x 10 5 m3/sec (b) 4 x 10 5 m3/sec
−
−
(c) 8 x 10 5 m3/sec (d) 16 x 10 5 m3/sec
Ans: (b) 62. On analysis of particle size distribution of a soil, it is found that D 10 = 0.1 mm, D30 = 0.3 mm and D60 = 0.8 mm. The uniformity coefficient and coefficient of curvature, as given by the particle size distribution curve, are, respectively (a) 3 and 3
(b) 2.67 and 1.125
(c) 2.67 and 3
(d) 8 and 1.125
Ans: (d) 63. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List – I List – II A. Plate load B. Pycnometer C. Core cutter D. Mechanical sieve
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1. Specific gravity 2. Bearing capacity 3. Grain size analysis 4. Field density
Codes: A (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 2
B 1 1 4 4
C 4 4 1 1
D 2 3 2 3
Ans: (b) 64. When the compaction energy increases the compaction of soils: (a) Both of OMC and maximum dry density decrease (b) Both of OMC and maximum dry density increase (c) OMC decreases but maximum dry density decrease (c) OMC increases but maximum dry density increase Ans: (c) 65. Unconfined compression test it most suitable for determining the : 1. Sensitivity of clays 2. Settlement of embankments 3. ‘Strength’ of partially saturated clay sample 4. ‘Strength’ of fully saturated clay sample (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only Ans: (d) 66. During consolidation process of clayey soils, indicate the sequence of occurrence of the following events in the order from first to last : 1. Load being taken up by the pore water 2. Load being taken up by the soil grains 3. Drainage of water from the pores of the soil (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 1 (c) 1, 3 and 2 (d) 2, 1 and 3 Ans: (c) 67. If, instead of single drainage, the number of drainage faces is increased to two in responding soils, the rate of compression will be : (a) 4 times slower (b) 2 times slower (c) 4 times faster (d) 2 times faster Ans: (c) 68. Settlement due to creep in soils is contingent on : (a) Primary consolidation (b) Secondary consolidation (c) Initial settlement (d) Compaction settlement Ans: (b)
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69. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List – I List – II A. Geophysical method B. SPT C. DCPT D. Piston-type sampler Code: A (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 3
B 1 1 4 4
C 4 4 1 1
1. Primarily for cohesive soils 2. Clays and silts 3. Reconnaissance covering large area and large depth 4. Suitable for sandy soils D 3 2 3 2
Ans: (d) 70. The observed N- value from a standard penetration test conducted in saturated sandy strata is 30; the N- value corrected for dilatancy may be taken as : (b) 15 (a) 20 (c) 23 (d) 39 Ans: (c) 71. Which one of the following statements is correct ? (a) Dynamic viscosity is the property of a fluid which is not in motion (b) Surface energy is a fluid property giving rise to the phenomenon of capillarity in water (c) Cavitation results from the action of very high pressure (d) Real fluids have lower viscosity than ideal fluids Ans: (d) 72. The lateral earth pressure coefficients of a soil, Ka for active state, Kp for passive state and Ko for at-rest condition, compare as : (a) Ko < Ka < Kp (b) Ka < Ko < Kp (c) Ka < Kp < Ko (d) Kp < Ko < Ka Ans: (b) 73. In a closed traverse ABC, following readings were taken : Line AB BC CA
Fore Bearing
Back Bearing
20° 101° 278°
201° 278° 50°
Station A is free from local attraction. Correct bearing of CB is : (a) 275° Ans: (d)
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(b) 276°
(c) 281°
(d) 280°
74. Best side slope for most economical trapezoidal section in open channel flow, wherein side slopes are defined by : X horizontal to 1 vertical, is when X equals : (a) 0.404 (b) 0.500 (c) 0.577 (d) 0.673 Ans: (c) 75. Two footings, one circular and the other square, are founded on the surface of a purely cohesionless soil. The diameter of the circular footing is the same as that of the side of the square footing. The ratio between their ultimate bearing capacities will be : (a) 1.0
(b) 1.3
(c) 1.33
(d) 0.75
Ans: (d) 76. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List – I List – II A. Large diameter piles B. Drilled pier C. Open caisson D. Box caisson
1. Heavy loads in water structures, but foundation strata shallow depth 2. Heavy loads in water structures with horizontal loads 3. Heavy but isolated loads 4. Very heavy loads
at
Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
A
B
C
D
3 1 3 1
2 2 4 4
4 4 2 2
1 3 1 3
Ans: (c) 77. Working from the whole to the part is followed as the fundamental principle of surveying so as to : 1. Distribute errors 2. Improve ease of working 3. Prevent accumulation of errors 4. Compensate error in a way 5. Refer to common datum, say MSL (a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 5
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 5
Ans: (c) 78. A rectangular plot of 16 km2 in area is shown on a map by a similar rectangular area of 1 cm2. R.F. of the scale to measure a distance of 40 km will be : (a)
1 1600
Ans: (b)
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(b)
1 400000
(c)
1 400
(d)
1 16000
79. An object on the top of a hill 100 m high is just visible above the horizon from a station at sea level. The distance between the station and the object is : (a) 38.53 km (b) 3.853 km (c) 3853 km (d) 385.3 km Ans: (a) 80. The magnitude of ‘sag correction’ during measurement of lengths by taping is proportional to the : (a) Cube of the weight of the tape, in kg per m run (b) Cube root of the weight of the tape, in kg per m run (c) Square of the weight of the tape, in kg per m run (d) Square root of the weight of the tape, in kg per m run Ans: (c) 81. The angle between the index glass and the horizon glass of a box sextant is 40°; the horizontal angle between the two points sighted by the instruments is : (a) 20° (b) 60° (c) 40° (d) 80° Ans: (a) 82. Which one of the following statements is not correct ? (a) A surveyor’s compass has two sight vanes (b) A prismatic compass has an object vane and an eye vane (c) A trough compass is an accessory to a plane table (d) In a prismatic compass the graduations on the aluminimum disc rotate and the index remains stationary Ans: (a) 83. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List – I List – II A. Traverse surveying B. Geodetic surveying C. Plane table surveying D. Hydrographic surveying Codes : A
B
C
D
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 4 2 2
2 2 4 4
1 3 1 3
3 1 3 1
Ans: (a)
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1. Weddel’s sounding machine 2. Alidade 3. Chain and compass 4. Theodolite
84. Which one of the following statements is not correc t? (a) Parallax error is eliminated when there is no change in the staff reading when eye is moved up and down (b) The objective lens is to be focused towards a white or bright background for clear visibility of cross-hairs (c) Temporary adjustments of the dumpy level are to be performed at every set up (d) The eyepiece need not be adjusted after the first set up when the same surveyor is taking readings Ans: (b) 85. The purpose of a ‘satellite station’ in triangulation can be served by : (a) A ‘Church spire’ in order to secure a well- shaped triangle (b) A ‘Flag pole’ in order to secure a well- shaped triangle (c) A ‘Steeple’ in order to secure a well- shaped triangle (d) An ‘Eccentric station’ near the true station whereon the instrument cannot be setup Ans: (d) 86. The sum of the three interior angles of a triangle, the vertices of which lie on the surface of the earth, covering a vast area of several hundreds of sq kms, is : (a) Less than 180° (b) Equal to 180° (c) More than 180° but not less than 270° (d) More than 180° but not more than 225° Ans: (d) 87. With all other relevant conditions remaining the same, the speed of a vehicle negotiating a curve is proportional to : (a) Weight of the vehicle (b) Weight of the vehicle 1
(c) Weight of the vehicle
(d)
1 Weight of the vehicle
Ans: (d) 88. If a ‘vertical aerial photograph’, (20 cm x 20 cm) in size, on a R.F.I: 10,000, has 60% longitudinal overlap and 40% side overlap, the actual ground length covered by each photograph in the longitudinal direction of the flight will be : (a) 4 km (b) 6 km (c) 0.8 km (d) 0.4 km Ans: (c) 89. If the original scale of a negative is 1 : 10,000, the ground resolution, considering that we get nearly 20 lines pair per mm, will be : (a) 50 mm (b) 20 cm (c) 2 m (d) 25 cm Ans: (d) 90. In a solution of the three-point problem in plane table surveying, the converging of error is attained through :
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(a) Concyclic concept (c) Triangle of error
(b) Bessel’s method (d) Tracing paper method
Ans: (c) 91. A 3% downgrade curve is followed by a 1% upgrade curve and rate of change of grade adopted is 0.1% per 20 m length. The length of the respective vertical curve is : (a) 800 m (b) 200 m (c) 100 m (d) 400 m Ans: (a) 92. In a concrete pavement, during summer, at and soon after mid-day, the combined stress at the interior of the slab is equal to : (a) Wheel load stress + Temperature warping stress + Sub grade resistance stress (b) Wheel load stress + Temperature warping stress – Sub grade resistant stress (c) Wheel load stress – Temperature warping stress + Sub grade resistant stress (d) Wheel load stress – Temperature warping stress − Sub grade resistant stress Ans: (b) 93. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List – I List – II A. Lateral friction B. Cut-off lagoons C. Skid D. Sight distance Code : A (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 3
B 1 1 4 4
1. Disparity between relevant travel distances 2. Vehicle movement on curve 3. Summit curves 4. Prevention of flooding C 4 4 1 1
D 3 2 3 2
Ans: (c) 94. Which of the following correspond to the recommendations of IRC for pavement thickness determination by CBR Method ? 1. CBR tests are to be conducted in-situ 2. Static compression is best adopted 3. The top 50 cm of sub grade should be compacted to as near the proctor density as possible (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only Ans: (c) 95. If the ruling gradient is 1 in 150 on a particular section of a broad gauge track, the allowable ruling gradient on a 4° curve in the track will be :
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(a) 0.51%
(b) 0.53%
(c) 0.61%
(d) 0.67%
Ans: (a) 96. Wind-rose diagram is useful in deciding on the orientation of : (a) Taxiway (b) Hanger (c) Apron
(d) Runway
Ans: (d) 97. Which of the following complete sets do not recommend the siting of a harbor layout in that vicinity ? 1. Submarine canyon 2. Lee of an island 3. Closely located promontories 4. Indentation coves on the coastline 5. Hooked bays with not-so-rugged rocky bottom (a) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 4 and 5 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 3, 4 and 5 only Ans: (a) 98. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List – I list – II A. Rails B. Sleepers C. Ballast D. Fish Plates
1. Connect one section of rail to next 2. Convert lien load into uniformly distributed load 3. Convert point load into uniformly distributed load 4. Convert rolling loads into points load(s)
Codes : A
B
C
D
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 2 2 3
2 3 3 2
1 4 1 4
4 1 4 1
Ans: (a) 99. For safe landing and takeoff, the following factors need to be carefully considered : 1. Cross-wind 2. Runway grade 3. Runway width and side clearance 4. Obstructions (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only Ans: (b) 100. Overland flow drainage on and from the tarmac of an airport invokes, in its design, principles involving : (a) Spatially varied flow without hydraulic jumps (b) Backwater flow
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(c) Subcritical flow throughout (d) Attention to rolling flows within spatially varied flows and possibly to moving hydraulic jumps Ans: (a) Directions: Each of the next Twenty (20) items consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: Codes : (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true 101. Assertion (A) : At the point of boundary layer separation, the shear stress is zero. Reason (R) : The point of separation demarcates between zones of forward and reverse flow close to the wall. Ans: (a) 102. Assertion (A) : Loss of head at a sudden contraction in a pipe is smaller than the loss at a sudden expansion in the pipe. Reason (R) : Increase in turbulence level is higher at a sudden expansion than at a sudden contraction. Ans: (a) 103. Assertion (A) : The efficiency of a reciprocating pump is 10-20 percent higher than that of a centrifugal pump for comparable discharge head conditions. Reason (R) : The discharge from a reciprocating pump is dependent upon speed. Ans: (b) 104. Assertion (A) : In centrifugal pumps, flow takes places from low pressure zone to high pressure zone. Reason (R) : Possibility of separation occurring in pumps can be more; and characterizing efficiency of pumps is less than that of turbines. Ans: (a)
105. Assertion (A) : In the case of water power plants, it is advisable to provide the surge tank as close to the turbine unit as possible. Reason (R) : Purpose of surge tank is to provide the intended protection for the portion of the penstock which lies on the upstream of it.
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Ans: (c) 106. Assertion (A) : Fluorides should always be present in drinking water upto a value 1.5 mg/l. Reason (R) : Such a water helps clean the teeth well. Ans: (a) 107. Assertion (A) : The duty of water decreases as the point of its measurement moves away from the field of application. Reason (R) : Duty depends on soil characteristics. Ans: (b) 108. Assertion (A) : The BOD gets removed at a very fast rate immediately after sewage is discharged into a river. Reason (R) : A part of the BOD in the sewage is due to settleable organic matter therein. Ans: (d) 109. Assertion (A) : The bottom layers of water in a deep reservoir are usually not acceptable as raw water in a water supply system. Reason (R) : The bottom water layers may contain products of anaerobic degradation. Ans: (a) 110. Assertion (A) : Disinfection is the last treatment given to water before it is supplied to consumers. Reason (R) : Any other treatment after disinfection may incidentally also contaminate the water. Ans: (a) 111. Assertion (A) : Laterals of minimum specified diameter in sewerage systems have to be laid at slopes designed for self – cleaning velocity. Reason (R) : For the specified minimum lateral diameter at specified slopes, a minimum flow rate is not essential to maintain self – cleansing velocity. Ans: (b) 112. Assertion (A) : In non – cohesive soils, settlement occurs immediately after application of load. Reason (R) : The settlement is attributed to volume changes caused by lateral yielding or shear strains occurring in the soil. Ans: (c) 113. Assertion (A) : In the secondary sedimentation tank of a sewage treatment plant, the settling particles form a blanket which descends and captures more particles. Reason (R) : The particles are flocculant and in very high concentration whenever there is an efficient working activated sludge, or trickling filter, process.
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Ans: (_____) 114. Assertion (A) : Batter piles are provided to resist lateral loads coming onto structures. Reason
(R): The batter of batter piles is helpful in converting a part of the applied lateral load into axial compressive load on the batter piles.
Ans: (a) 115. Assertion (A): The angle made by the lines of the magnetic force with the earth’s surface is called dip. Reason (R): In the northern hemisphere, the south end of the needle dips downwards; and in the southern hemisphere, the north end of the needle dips downwards. Ans: (c) 116. Assertion (A) : The diurnal variation is the variation of the declination in a year from the mean position during the year. Reason (R): The diurnal variation is greater in summer than in winter. Ans: (d) 117. Assertion (A) : Reciprocal leveling is adopted to decide the precise difference of level between two points at a considerable distance apart. Reason (R): Reciprocal leveling eliminates errors due to: (i) Curvature, (ii) Refraction, and (iii) Line of collimation not being exactly parallel to bubble line. Ans: (a) 118. Assertion (A) : IRC has recommended a minimum coefficient of friction in the longitudinal direction on wet pavements after allowing a suitable factor of safety in the range 0.15 – 0.30 Reason (R): When the longitudinal coefficient of friction on 0.40 is allowed for stopping the vehicle, the resultant retardation is 3.93 m/sec2, which is not too uncomfortable to the passengers. Ans: (b)
119. Assertion (A) : The efficiency of the sheep foot roller depends on the weight of the roller and the number of ‘feet’ in contact with the ground at a time. Reason (R): Sheep foot rollers are considered most suitable for compacting clayey soils. Ans: (c)
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120. Assertion (A) : In a compaction test, at γd max and OMC, the degree of saturation is never 100%. Reason (R): It is not possible to expel all the air entrapped in soil by compaction. Ans: (a)
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Test Booklet Series
CIVIL ENGINEERING (OBJECCTIVE TYPE) PAPER – II
C
INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet 4. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions), 60 in PART – A and 60 in PART – B. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers: THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happiness to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii)If a question is left blank, i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO 1 Civil Engineering Rocks
01.
Consider the following statements: 1. 2.
Standard penetration test is commonly used for cohesionless soils. Standard penetration test results in respect of a cohesionless soil are correlated to its density index and friction angle. 3. Use of H-value not corrected for overburden pressure leads to highly conservative design of footings at shallow depths. Which of these statements are correct? (a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 1 & 2 only (c) 2 & 3 only (d) 1 & 3 only Ans: (a) 02.
Consider the following statements: 1. The benefit of surcharge and depth of foundation is only marginal in case of footings on purely cohesive soils. 2. The bearing capacity of a footing in pure clay increases with increase in size of the footing. 3. Size effects in plate load tests are more important in case of cohesionless soils. Which of these statements are correct? (a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 1 & 2 only (c) 2 & 3 only (d) 1 & 3 only
Ans: (d) 03.
The mean unconfined compressive strength of a purely cohesive soil was found to be 50 kN/m2. The ultimate bearing capacity of a square footing calculated by Terzaghi’s concept (bearing capacity factor NC = 5.7) will be (a) 185.25 kN/m2 (b) 390.5 kN/m2 (c) 285 kN/m2 (d) 142.5 kN/m2
Ans: (a) 04.
The field density and field moisture content of a soil can be determined by 1. Core cutter method 2. Sand replacement method 3. Proctor compaction test 4. Modified proctor compaction test (a) 1, 2, 3 & 4 (b) 1 & 2 only (c) 2 & 3 only (d) 2 & 4 only
Ans: (b) 05.
Consider the following statements: 1. Friction piles are also called floating piles 2. Minimum number of piles to qualify as a pile group is three. 3. The group efficiency of a pile group may be either less than 100% or more than 100%. Which of these statements are correct? (a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 1 & 2 only (c) 2 & 3 only (d) 1 & 3 only
Ans: (a)
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06.
Consider the following statements relating to foundations on expansive soils: 1. Strength should be improved and compressibility should be reduced. 2. Compressibility should be increased. 3. No stabilization should be done. Which of these statements is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 2 only (c) 1 only (d) 3 only
Ans: (c) 07.
Consider the following statements: 1. Buried service lines should be avoided in an expansive soil region. 2. A swelling pressure less than 20 kN/m2 is not of much consequence. 3. If soil is not black in colour, it is unlikely to be an expansive soil. Which of these statements are correct? (a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 1 & 2 only (c) 2 & 3 only (d) 1 & 3 only
Ans: (b) 08.
If L is the length of the chain, W is the weight of the chain and T is the tension, the sag correction for the chain line is W 2 L2 W 2L W 2 L2 W 2 L3 (a) (b) (c) (d) 24 T 3 24 T 2 24 T 2 24T 3
Ans: (b) 09.
In an inclined terrain, if the elevation difference between the two ends of a line is h and the inclined length of the line is L, the correlation for slope is h2 h2 h2 2h 2 (a) 2 (b) (c) 2 (d) 2L L 2L2 L
Ans: (d) 10.
If the whole circle bearing is 315o 20’, its quadrantal bearing would be (a) S 36o 30’ W (b) N 44o 40’ W (c) N 57o 24’ W (d) S 60o 40’ W
Ans: (b) 11.
If the observed forebearing of a line xy is 16o 26’, the back bearing of this line is (a) 103o 26’ (b) 118o 36’ (c) 196o 26’ (d) 206o 26’
Ans: (c) 12.
The subtense tacheometry method is adopted when the ground is (a) Flat (b) Inclined (c) Undulating (d) A waterbody
Ans: (a)
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13.
In an instrument, the bubble tube with divisions of 1 mm and a radius of 0.9 m has the sensitivity of 1 1 1 1 (a) (b) (c) (d) 2 70 90 900 Ans: (d) 14.
R.L. of floor at a building is 74.4 m, staff reading on the floor is 1.625 and staff reading when it is held inverted with bottom touching the ceiling of a hall is 2.870; then the height of the ceiling above the floor is (a) 3.593 m (b) 3.953 m (c) 4.495 m (d) 4. 594 m
Ans: (c) 15.
Consider the following pre-conditions for correct use of a theodolite: 1. The vertical axis need not be perpendicular to the plane of the plate level bubble. 2. The line of sight must be perpendicular to the horizontal axis. 3. The axis of the level tube attached to the telescope need not be parallel to the line of sight. 4. The vertical axis, the horizontal axis and the line of sight should all pass through a point known as stadia centre. Which of these conditions is/are necessary? (a) 1, 2, 3 & 4 (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 & 4 only
Ans: (b) 16.
Following observations were taken with a transit fitted with stadia wires. The line of sight was horizontal and the staff was held vertical. Reading on staff (m) Top hair 1.726 Middle hair 2.278 Bottom hair 2.830 The tacheometric constants k and C are 100 and 0.4 m respectively. The horizontal distance between staff and instrument is (a) 90.8 (b) 100.8 (c) 110.8 (d) 120.8
Ans: (b) 17.
Following observations were taken during a reciprocal leveling: Instrument near P Q Staff reading at P 1.824 0.928 Staff reading at Q 2.748 1.606 If reduced level of P is 140.815 m, the reduced level of Q is (a) 138.014 m (b) 139.616 m (c) 140.014 m
Ans: (c)
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(d) 141.616 m
18.
A counter may be defined as an imaginary line passing through (a) Points on the longitudinal section (b) Points of equal elevation (c) Point of equal local ground slope (d) Points of transverse section surveys
Ans: (b) 19.
A closed contour line with two or more higher contours inside it will represent a (a) Depression (b) Hill (c) Cave (d) Well
Ans: (b) 20.
When compared with the co-latitude of the place of observation, the declination of a circumpolar star is always, (a) Lesser (b) Greater (c) Equal (d) Either lesser or equal
Ans: (b) 21.
Which of the following reasons are responsible for adoption of post-chlorination of water? 1. Chlorine demand is reduced. 2. Possibility of taste and odour formation is reduced. 3. Possibility of carcinogenic compounds is reduced. 4. Chloramines are formed. (a) 1, 2, 3 & 4 (b) 1, 2 & 3 only (c) 1, & 4 only (d) 2, 3 & 4 only
Ans: (c) 22.
Which one of the following tests employs Ethylene Diamine Tetra Acetic Acid as a titrating agent? (a) Chlorides (b) Dissolved oxygen (c) Hardness (d) Residual chlorine
Ans: (c) 23.
In case of levelling, backsight is (a) A fixed point of known elevation (b) The last staff reading taken before shifting the instrument (c) The first staff reading taken after setting the instrument (d) Any staff reading taken on a point of unknown elevation
Ans: (c) 24.
The needle of a magnetic compass is generally supported on a (a) Bush bearing (b) Ball bearing (c) Needle bearing
Ans: (c)
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(d) Jewel bearing
25.
Consider the following statements: For pure clay, the shear strength parameters will be 1. Cohesion c = 0; and angle of internal friction will be maximum. 2. Cohesion c is maximum; and angle of internal friction is also maximum. 3. Angle of internal friction is zero, with some value of cohesion c. Which of these statements is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 1 only (c) 3 only (d) 2 only
Ans: (c) 26.
Consider the following statements: 1. Consolidation time increase with increasing compressibility 2. Consolidation time decreases with increasing permeability. 3. Consolidation time is dependent on the magnitude of stress increase. Which of these statements are correct? (a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 1 & 2 only (c) 2 & 3 only (d) 1 & 3 only
Ans: (b) 27.
On nephelometry turbidity unit (NTU) is equal to the turbidity produced by (a) 1 mg SiO2 dissolved in 1 l of distilled water with the test being run according to absorption principle (b) 1 mg SiO2 dissolved in 1 l of distilled water with the test being run according t scattering principle (c) 1 mg Formazin dissolved in 1 l of distilled water with the test being run according to absorption principle (d) 1 mg Formazin dissolved in 1 l o f distilled water with the test being run according to scattering principle.
Ans: (d) 28.
Consider the following statements: 1. Relative density is a meaningful parameter for all types of soils 2. Relative density is a meaningful parameter only for cohesion soils. 3. Relative density is a better indicator of the denseness of an in-situ granular soil deposit than the void ratio. Which of these statements are correct? (a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 1 & 2 only (c) 2 & 3 only (d) 1 & 3 only
Ans: (d) 29.
An approximate estimation of total dissolved solids of a given water sample is often made by measuring (a) Electrical conductivity of the water sample (b) Electro-magnetic conductivity of the water sample (c) Sound conductivity of the water sample (d) Thermal conductivity of the water sample
Ans: (a)
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30.
The ratio between the adopted centrifugal ratios for roads and railways is (a) 3:1 (b) 4:1 (c) 2:1 (d) 5:1
Ans: (-) 31.
If the radius of a sample curve is R, then the length of the chord for calculating the offsets by the “method of chords produced” should not exceed R R R R (a) (b) (c) (d) 5 10 20 25 Ans: (b) 32.
If R is the radius of the curve and L is the length of the long chord, the shift of the curve is (all in metre units) L2 L2 L2 L2 (a) (b) (c) (d) R 2R 24R 6R Ans: (c) If the angle of deflection of a simple curve is and its radius is R, then the length of the chord is (a) 2R sin (b) 2R sin (c) 2R cos (d) 2R tan 2 2 Ans: (b) 33.
34.
The transitional property of a lemniscate curve is disrupted when its deflection angle is around (a) 30o (b) 45o (c) 60o (d) 90o
Ans: (d) 35.
An ideal horizontal transition curve is a (a) Parabola (b) Circle
(c) Clothoid spiral
(d) Hyperbola
Ans: (c) 36.
Total float in a planning network is (a) Late start time – Early start time (c) Late start time – Late finish time Ans: (a & d)
(b) Early start time – Late start time (d) Late finish time – Early finish time
37.
The plotting of inaccessible points in a plane-table survey can be done by the method of (a) Interpolation (b) Radiation (c) Intersection (d) Traversing Ans: (c) 38.
In a plane-table survey, the process of determining the plotted position of a station occupied by the plane-table by means of sights taken towards known points, the locations of which have already been plotted, is known as (a) Radiation (b) Resection (c) Intersection (d) Traversing Ans: (b)
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39.
Regarding plane-table survey, which of the following statements does not hold? (a) All the plotting work including contouring can be done in the field (b) It is quite suitable for small scale survey (c) Less number of control points are required (d) It can be done in all seasons
Ans: (d) 40. When H is the flight height, R is the appropriate radial measure and d is the relief displacement, the vertical height of an object appearing on an aerial photograph is R dH H RH (a) (b) (c) (d) dH R dR d Ans: (b) 41.
Consider the following types of turbines: 1. Francis 2. Pelton with a single jet 3. Kaplan The correct sequence of these turbines in increasing order of their specific speeds is (a) 1, 3 & 2 (b) 2, 1 & 3 (c) 1, 2 & 3 (d) 2, 3 & 1
Ans: (b) 42.
Two Pelton turbines A and B have the same specific speed and are working under the same head. Turbine A produces 400 kW at 1000 rpm. If turbine B produces 100kW, then its rpm is (a) 4000 (b) 2000 (c) 1500 (d) 3000
Ans: (b) 43.
A turbine discharging 10 m3/s is to be designed so that a torque of 1600 kg-m is to exerted on the impeller turning at 200 rpm under the condition that the existing liquid exerts no moment in spite of its momentum. The tangential component of the velocity at the outer periphery of the impeller of radius 1.0 m is (a) 0.98 m/s (b) 1.57 m/s (c) 2.10 m/s (d) 2.26 m/s
Ans: (b) 44.
Given below are two lists. Which of these are properly matched? (Types of Pump) 1. Propeller pump
:
2. Single stage : centrifugal pump with backward curved blades 3. Turbine pump :
(a) 1 & 2
(Head Discharge performance) Large discharges and low heads with negligible percentage variation in head Medium heads, with decreasing head as discharge increases Medium to high heads with low, but constant, discharges
(b) 2 & 3
(c) 2 only
Ans: (a) 8 Civil Engineering Rocks
(d) 3 only
45.
Consider the following statements: 1. 2. 3.
The specific speed for turbines is directly proportional to
5 H4
. 5 The specific speed for turbines is inversely proportional to H . 4 The specific speed for pumps is directly proportional to
3 H4
4. The specific speed for pumps is inversely proportional to Which of these statements are correct? (a) 1 & 3 (b) 2 & 4 (c) 1 & 4
.
3 H4
. (d) 2 & 3
Ans: (b) 46.
Consider the following statements: Air vessels are fitted on the suction and delivery sides of a reciprocating pump to 1. Achieve higher speed without separation. 2. Reduce work in overcoming frictional resistance. 3. Avoid excessive vibration permanently. 4. Have nearly uniform discharge. Which of these statements are corrects? (a) 1, 2 & 4 only (b) 1, 2 & 3 only (c) 2, 3 & 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
Ans: (d) 47.
The velocity of pressure wave in water of infinite extent is 1414 m/s. The velocity of propagation of water hammer pressure in a pipe carrying water and having diameter = 40 cm, pipe thickness = 4 mm, with E (Modulus of elasticity) of the pipe material = 2.1 x 1011 Pa, K (Bulk modulus of water) = 2.1 x 109 Pa, is (a) 1410 m/s (b) 2000 m/s (c) 1000 m/s (d) 700 m/s
Ans: (c) 48.
Let C1 be the velocity of pressure wave traveling along rigid pipe carrying water with its bulk modulus 2.16 x 109 N/m2. Let C2 be the velocity of pressure wave traveling along a rigid pipe carrying oil of relative density 0.600 with its bulk modulus as 1.296 x C 109 N/m2 through a similar pipe. What will be the ratio 1 ? C2 (a) 0.01 (b) 0.1 (c) 1.0 (d) 10.0
Ans: (c)
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49.
The pipes A, B and C have the following basic geometries: Pipe A B C Diameter D D/2 2D Length L L 4L If these pipes are connected in series, by assuming the value of friction factor f to be same for all the three pipes and the equivalent pipe, this set of pipes in series in equivalent to a pipe of length Le and diameter D and friction factor f with the equivalent length Le being equal to 1 1 1 1 (a) 5 L (b) 4 L (c) 26 L (d) 33 L 8 8 8 8
Ans: (d) 50.
Consider the following statements in respect of steady laminar flow through a circular pipe: 1. Shear stress is zero on the central axis of the pipe 2. Discharge varies directly with the viscosity of the fluid 3. Velocity is maximum at the centre of the pipe. 4. Hydraulic gradient varies as the square of the mean velocity of flow. Which of these statements are correct? (a) 1, 2 , 3 & 4 (b) 1 & 3 only (c) 2 & 4 only (d)3 & 4 only
Ans: (b) 51.
The pressure drop in a 30 cm diameter horizontal pipe is 60 kPa in distance of 15m. The wall shear stress in kPa is (a) 0.1 (b) 0.2 (c) 0.3 (d) 0.4
Ans: (c) 52.
Consider the following statements related to water surface profile in gradually varied flow in an open channel: 1. M1 and S1 curves approach Y0 line asymptotically; and tend to be horizontal as y tends to . 2. M2 and S2 curves meet Y0 line horizontally, and Y0 line asymptotically. 3. M3 and S3 curves meet Y0 line normally, and also meet the channel bed normally. 4. C1 and C2 curves will be slightly curved if Chezy’s equation is used; otherwise they may tend to be straight lines. Which of these statements are correct? (a) 1, 2, 3 & 4 (b) 1 & 4 only (c) 2 & 3 only (d) 3 & 4 only
Ans: (c) 53.
The velocity with which an elementary surge wave can travel upstream in a channel with depth y = 1.6 m and velocity V = 2.4 m/s is (Take g = 10 m/s2) (a) 16 m/s (b) 13.6 m/s (c) 2.4 m/s (d) 1.6 m/s
Ans: (d)
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54.
For hydraulically efficient rectangular channel of bed width 4.0 m, the depth of flow is (a) 4 m (b) 0.5 m (c) 1 m (d) 2 m
Ans: (d) 55.
Consider the following statements in respect of critical flow in a wide rectangular channel: 1. The specific energy is minimum for a given discharge. 2. The discharge is maximum for a given specific energy 3. The specific force is minimum for a given discharge. 4. The Froude number is equal to unity. Which of these statements are correct? (a) 1 , 2 & 3 only (b) 1, 2, 3 & 4 (c) 1, 2 & 4 only (d) 2, 3 & 4 only
Ans: (b) 56.
A high tension cable 5 cm in diameter is strung-out between two towers. At a wind velocity of 22.22 m/s (corresponding Reynolds number being 7.4 x 104) the frequency of vortex shedding is (a) 100 Hz (b) 9.33 Hz (c) 93.3 Hz (d) 10.0 Hz
Ans: (c) 57.
Consider the following assumption made in the analysis of a jet impinging normally on a moving plate to introduce the principle of moment of momentum: 1. Friction between jet and plate is neglected. 2. Flow is steady 3. Impinging momentum of jet is uncharged. 4. Plate moves at a constant velocity. Which of these statements are relevant? (a) 1, 2 & 4 only (b) 1, 2 & 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
Ans: (a) 58.
The thickness of a laminar boundary layer over a flat plate at two different sections P and Q are 0.8 cm and 2.4 cm respectively. If the section Q is 3.6 m downstream of P, the distance of section P from the leading edge of the plate is (a) 0.32 m (b) 0.22 m (c) 0.40 m (d) 0.53 m
Ans: (c) Correct Answer is: 0.45 m 59.
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? 1. Piezometric head : Sum of datum head and pressure head 2. Dynamic head : Sum of datum head and velocity head 3. Stagnation head : Sum of Piezometric head and velocity head 4. Total head : Sum of Piezometric head and dynamic head (a) 1, 2 & 3 only (b) 1, 3 & 4 only (c) 2, 3 & 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 & 4 Ans: (b)
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60.
A rectangular tank 10 m x 5 m in plan and 3 m deep is divided by a partition wall parallel to the shorter wall of the tank. One of the compartments contains water to a depth of 3 m, and the other a lighter liquid of specific gravity 0.75 to a depth of 2 m. The resultant pressure thrust on the partition wall is (a) 1000 kg (b) 1500 kg (c) 2000 kg (d) 2500 kg Correct Answer is 15000 kg 61.
Which of the following are pertinent to the realization of hydrological cycle? 1. Latitudinal difference in solar heating of the Earth’s surface 2. Inclination of the Earth’s axis 3. Uneven distribution of land and water 4. Coriolis effect (a) 1, 2 & 3 only (b) 1, 2 & 4 only (c) 2, 3 & 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
Ans: (b) 62.
The maximum velocity Um, the mean velocity U and shear velocity u* in the case of U m U turbulent flow through circular pipes are related as = u* (a) 2.5 for rough boundary flow only (b) 5.75 for smooth boundary flow only (c) 3.75 for both smooth and rough boundary flows (d) 5.75 for both smooth and rough boundary flows.
Ans: (c) 63.
The rainfall on five successive days on a catchment was 3, 6, 9, 5 and 1 cm respectively. If the -index for the storm can be assumed to be 3 cm/day, the total direct runoff from the catchment due to this storm is (a) 11 cm (b) 24 cm (c) 9 cm (d) 20 cm
Ans: (a) 64.
The excess runoff hydrograph from a catchment area 10km2 due to a storm of 6 hrs duration has been observed to be triangular in shape. The peak flow is observed to be 10m3/s and the base length is 20 hrs. The rainfall excess in the catchment is (a) 5.1 cm (b) 3.6 cm (c) 4.5 cm (d) 2.5 cm
Ans: (b) 65.
Consider the following statements: 1. Over the oceans there is more evaporation than precipitation. 2. On land it is more precipitation than evapo-transpiration. Which of these statements are correct? (a) Both 1 & 2 (b) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 only
Ans: (a)
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(d) 2 only
66.
The hydrologic risk of a 100-year flood occurring during the 2-year service life of a project is (a) 9.8% (b) 9.9% (c) 19.9% (d) 1.99%
Ans: (d) 67.
The design flood commonly adopted in India for barrages and minor dams is (a) Probable maximum flood (b) A flood of 50 – 100 years return period (c) Peak flood (d) Standard project flood or a 100-year flood, whichever is higher
Ans: (d) 68.
The Muskingum method of flood routing is a (a) Form of hydraulic routing of a flood (b) Form of reservoir routing (c) Complete numerical solution of St. Venant equations (d) Hydrological channel routing method
Ans: (d) 69.
What would be the volume of water stored in a saturated column with a porosity of 0.35 with a cross-sectional area of 1 m2 and depth of 3 m? (a) 2.0 m3 (b) 0.105 m3 (c) 1.05 m3 (d) 3.0 m3
Ans: (c) 70.
The surface joining the static levels in several non-pumping wells penetrating a continuous confined aquifer represents (a) Water-table surface (b) Capillary fringe (c) Piezometric surface of the aquifer (d) Physical top surface of the aquifer
Ans: (c) 71.
Two observation wells penetrating into a confined aquifer are located 1500 m apart in the direction of flow. Heads of 50 m and 25 m are indicated at these two observation wells. If the coefficient of permeability for the aquifer is 30 m/day and its porosity is 0.25, the time of travel of an inert tracer from one well to another is (a) 75 days (b) 750 days (c) 1200 days (d) 3000 days
Ans: (b) 72.
The local scour depth in front of a semicircular shaped rectangular pier having width equal to W aligned parallel to the flow below the surrounding bed is (a) 2.0 W (b) 1.5 W (c) 1.2 W (d) 1.0 W
Ans: (-)
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73.
Critical shear stress of cohesive sediment (a) Decreases with the void ratio for a given plasticity index (b) Increases with the plasticity index for a given void ratio (c) Increases with shear strength for a given clay content (d) All of the above.
Ans: (c) 74.
A discharge of 72 m3/s is to be allowed through siphon spillways of 2 m width and 75 m depth with working head of 8 m. The number of spillways to be provided will be (Take coefficient of discharge for the spillways = 0.64) (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
Ans: (c) 75. Coefficient of permeability of an underground stratum is 0.001 m/s. Discharge obtained from a well of area 20 m2 dug into this stratum (with drawdown of 2 m) will be (a) 2400 Ipm (b) 2000 Ipm (c) 1200 Ipm (d) 1000 Ipm Ans: (a) 76. EDTA titration method of hardness determination of water sample uses an indicator which combines with hardness-causing divalent cations and forms a coloured complex. The name of the indicator and the colour of the formed complex respectively are (a) Ferroin and dark blue (b) Ferroin and wine red (c) Eriochrome Black T and dark blue (d) Eriochrome Black T and wine red Ans: (d) 77. Consider the following statements: 1. Carbonate hardness is due to bicarbonates. 2. Non-carbonate hardness is due to sulphates and chlorides of Ca and Mg. 3. Both the hardnesses can be removed by lime-soda method. 4. Both the hardnesses can be removed by ion-exchange method. Which of these statements are correct? (a) 1, 2 & 3 only (b) 1, 2 & 4 only (c) 2, 3 & 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 & 4 Ans: (a) 78. If the velocity of flow as well as the diameter of the flowing pipe are respectively doubled through a pipe system in use since long, the head loss will thereafter be (a) Halved (b) Doubled (c) Increased 4 times (d) No change Ans: (b)
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79. Consider the following statements: The total head against which a pump has to work must include, besides any other items, 1. the suction lift. 2. the delivery head. 3. the head lost due to friction at entrance in the rising main. 4. the head lost due to friction at exit in the rising main. Which of these statements are correct? (a) 1, 2 & 3 only (b) 2 & 3 only (c) 1, 2, 3 & 4 (d) 3 & 4 only Ans: (c) 80. An urban area is located in plains having “average climatic conditions”. The impervious area thereof for which drainage must be provided is 3.6 ha and the design rainfall intensity is 2.0 cm/hr. The drains will be designed for a runoff of (a) 0.05 m3/s (b) 0.10 m3/s (c) 0.20 m3/s (d) 0.40 m3/s Ans: (c) 81. If water table is encountered in the standard pit while conducting plate load test (a) The load test should be abandoned (b) The pit is considered unsafe (c) Test should be conducted with complete dewatering continuously throughout the test duration (d) The bearing capacity of soil cannot be determined in this condition Ans: (c) 82. A wall with smooth vertical back and 10 meters height retains cohesionless material with a horizontal surface. The cohesionless material weighs 4.91 kN/m3 and has an angle of internal friction of 300. The total active earth pressure is (a) 81.585 kN/m length of wall (b) 91.585 kN/m length of wall 2 (c) 40.743 kN/m (d) 8.158 kN/m2 Ans: (a) 83. Consider the following statements regarding Coulomb’s theory of earth pressure: 1. It is based on wedge theory of earth pressure. 2. It assumes the wall surface to be rough. 3. It may or may not satisfy the static equilibrium condition occurring in nature. Which of these statements are correct? (a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 1 & 2 only (c) 2 & 3 only (d) 1 & 3 only Ans: (b) 84. An isobar is a line which connects all points below the ground surface at which (a) The local ground elevation is same (b) The settlement is same (c) The vertical stress is the same (d) The ground elevation is varying Ans: (c)
15 Civil Engineering Rocks
85. For the determination of shear strength parameters, c and , of soil in the laboratory, the test to be conducted will be (a) Triaxial compression test (b) Sieve analysis (c) Compaction test (d) Relative density test Ans: (a) 86. Consider the following statements: 1. For a saturated soil, Skempton’s B-parameter is nearly equal to unity. 2. For an undisturbed sensitive clay, the stress-strain curve shows a peak. 3. Interlocking contributes significantly to the shearing strength in case of dense sand. Which of these statements are correct? (a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 1 & 2 only (c) 2 & 3 only (d) 1 & 3 only Ans: (a) 87. Consider the following statements: 1. Mathematically speaking, the time taken for 100% consolidation is infinite. 2. The time factor for a particular average degree of consolidation depends upon the distribution of initial excess hydrostatic pressure. 3. Secondary consolidation obeys Terzaghi’s one-dimensional theory of consolidation. Which of these statements are correct? (a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 1 & 2 only (c) 2 & 3 only (d) 1 & 3 only Ans: (b) 88. Consider the following statements: 1. Organic matter decreases the permeability of a soil. 2. Entrapped air decreases the permeability of a soil. Which of these statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 &2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c) 89.
The porosity of a certain soil sample was found to be 80% and its specific gravity was 2:7; the critical hydraulic gradient will be estimated as (a) 0.34 (b) 0.92 (c) 1.0 (d) 1.5
Ans: (a) 90.
The porosity of a soil sample having its void ratio equal unity would be (a) 33.33% (b) 50.0% (c) 66.66% (d) 75.0%
Ans: (b) 91.
The natural water content of the soil sample was found to be 40%, specific gravity is 2.7 and void ratio 1.2; then the degree of saturation of the soil will be (a) 100% (b) 69% (c) 87% (d) 90%
Ans: (d)
16 Civil Engineering Rocks
92.
Environmental impact assessment includes (a) Environmental statement (b) Environmental management plan (c) Risk and hazard assessment and mitigation (d) All of the above
Ans: (d) 93.
For noise measurement, formula for sound pressure level (SPL) is 20 log will be the resultant noise in dB if P is 0.0002 bar? (a) 0 (b) 60 (c) 90
P . What Pref
(d) 100
Ans: (a) 94.
Consider the following statements: 1. Particulates have irregular shapes. 2. Size can be determined by an equivalent aerodynamic diameter by comparing with a perfect sphere. 3. Particulates larger than 10 are said to settle relatively quickly since their settling velocity is not less than 10 cm/min. 4. The particles roughly the size of bacteria have aerodynamic diameter of 0.1 m to 10 m. Which of these statements are correct? (a) 1, 2, 3 & 4 (b) 1 & 3 only (c) 1, 2 & 4 only (d) 2, 3 & 4 only
Ans: (c) 95.
Which of the following factors contribute to formation of photochemical smog? 1. Stable atmosphere 2. NOx 3. Solar insolation 4. CO (a) 1, 2, 3, & 4 (b) 2, 3 & 4 only (c) 1 & 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans: (a) 96.
It takes 0.4 hrs to drive from the garage to the head of the route, 0.4 hrs to drive between the route head and disposal site and 0.25 hrs to return from the disposal site. It takes 0.2 hrs to offload a truck at the disposal site. The crew is permitted two 15-minute breaks and a further 30 minutes for miscellaneous delays. It two runs are made to the deposit site each day, how much time is left in an 8-hr nominal duty duration for refuse collection before starting to return to garage from disposal site? Take loading time as 30 minutes. (a) 4.15 hrs (b) 4.25 hrs (c) 4.75 hrs (d) 4.85 hrs
Ans: (a)
17 Civil Engineering Rocks
97.
Consider the following statements: The time of BOD assimilation in a stream can be affected by 1. Ratio of stream depth to flow width. 2. Stream BOD value 3. BOD rate constant. Which of these statements are correct? (a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 1 & 2 only (c) 2 & 3 only
(d) 1 & 3 only
Ans: (a) 98.
The most common constituents of alkalinity in natural water are measured by titrating the water sample with 0.02 N H2SO4 using (a) Eriochrome Black T and Ferroin indicators (b) Ferroin and Phenolphthalein indicators (c) Phenolphthalein and Methyl Orange indicators (d) Methyl Orange and Ericochrome Black T indicators
Ans: (c) 99.
A sample of sewage is estimated to have a 5 days 200C BOD of 250 mg/l. If the test temperature be 300C, in how many days will the same value of BOD be obtained? (a) 1.5 days (b) 2.5 days (c) 3.3 days (d) 7.5 days
Ans: (c) 100. A sewer has a diameter of 300 mm and slop of 1 in 400. While running full it has a mean velocity of 0.7 m/s. If both the diameter and slope are doubled (to respectively be 600 mm and 1 in 200), what will be the changed mean velocity when running half-full? Use Manning’s formula. (a) 1.59 m/s (b) 2.80 m/s (c) 0.90 m/s (d) 1.00 m/s Ans: (a) Direction: Each of the next following twenty (20) items consists of two statements, one labelled as ‘Statement (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using code given below: Codes: (a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I) (b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true but Statement (II) is not the correct explanation of Statement (I) (c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false (d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true 101. Statement (I): Statement (II):
In a flownet, each field must be a (curvilinear) square. Each flow channel in a flownet has the same rate of flow.
Ans: (d)
18 Civil Engineering Rocks
102. Statement (I): Statement (II):
Boundary layer theory is applicable only in the vicinity of the leading edge of a flat plate. Boundary layer theory is based on the assumption that its thickness is small when compared to other linear dimensions in the flow.
Ans: (d) 103. Statement (I): Statement (II): Ans: (c) 104. Statement (I): Statement (II):
The best hydraulic section always has the minimum excavation. The best hydraulic section gives the minimum area for a given discharge. A given channel may be classifiable as mild for one discharge, critical for another discharge, and steep for yet another discharge. Normal depth and critical depth are independent functions of the discharge along with, or without, other appropriate parameters.
Ans: (a) 105. Statement (I): Statement (II):
For a hydraulic ram, D’Aubuisson’s efficiency is always more than Rankine’s efficiency. By definition, efficiency is always less than unity in any system of mechanics; and addition of a small value to both numerator and denominator in the ratio of such a case always improves the value.
Ans: (a) 106. Statement (I): Statement (II):
Air pollutant concentration and time of retention increase due to inversion. During winter, the heavy cold layer in the atmosphere retains the hot toxic pollutants for a longer period in the atmosphere.
Ans: (a) 107. Statement (I): Statement (II):
Chlorides are added to kill pathogens as a disinfection process in the treatment of water. It forms hypochlorous acid to oxidize the organic compounds including bacteria.
Ans: (d) 108. Statement (I):
Statement (II):
When a tube well penetrates into a homogeneous aquifer and is then pumped, there will occur lowering of water surface. The resultant surface is designated as ‘Drawdown curve’. Since the pressure on the surface of the ‘Drawdown curve’ is always at atmospheric level, it is called by this name.
Ans: (b)
19 Civil Engineering Rocks
109. Statement (I): Statement (II):
Fluoride concentrations of approximately 1.0 mg/l in drinking water help to prevent dental cavities in children. During formation of permanent teeth, fluoride combines chemically with tooth enamel resulting in softer and weaker teeth that are less resistance to decay.
Ans: (c) 110. Statement (I): Statement (II):
Ans: (d) 111. Statement (I): Statement (II):
Virus is living organisms in a natural environment including soil. Virus comes to life after entering the host tissue through contamination. The BOD test is conducted for 5 days at 200C. The amount of oxygen utilized by microorganisms anaerobically is called BOD.
Ans: (c) 112. Statement (I): Statement (II):
An epidemic of infection is hepatitis is transmitted by drinking contaminated water. Since infective hepatitis is transmitted by bacteria, it can be controlled by filtration and disinfection of water.
Ans: (c) 113. Statement (I):
Statement (II):
The ability of water to conduct electricity, known and measured as the specific conductance, and concentration of total dissolved solids are not relatable on a one-to-one basis. Many organic molecules and compounds dissolve in water without ionizing and hence are not taken into account while measuring specific conductance.
Ans: (a) 114. Statement (I): Statement (II):
Water with heavy algal growth often has pH values as high as 9 to 10. Non-utilization of the bicarbonate ion as a carbon source by algae can result in substantial accumulation of OH- ions.
Ans: (c) 115. Statement (I): Statement (II):
Municipal Solid Waste is disposed off in the Transport Safe Disposal Facility (TSDF) to convert it into organic compost. The organic Municipal Solid Waste is converted into compost by worms; and the process is called ‘Vermicomposting’.
Ans: (a)
20 Civil Engineering Rocks
116. Statement (I): Statement (II):
Chlorophyll-bearing plants take water and carbondioxide to synthesize carbohydrates. Wasted food ultimately leads to production of various natural resources like water and sunlight energy.
Ans: (c) 117. Statement (I): Statement (II):
A curved, or straight, line connecting the relevant stress points is called the stress path. All the total stress paths and the effective stress paths for the drained tests are straight lines at a slope of 450.
Ans: (b) 118. Statement (I): Statement (II):
Foundations may not be geometrically categorized as shallow, or deep, foundations. A foundation is shallow if its depth is equal to or less than its width; otherwise it is deep.
Ans: (a) 119. Statement (I):
Statement (II):
Different types of piles are used in construction work depending on the type of load to be carried, the sub-soil conditions and the ground water table. The load transfer mechanism from a pile to the soil is selfsame in all cases.
Ans: (c) 120. Statement (I): Statement (II):
Present usage of GPS for positioning includes personal navigation, aircraft navigation, offshore survey, vessel navigation, etc. GPS is a satellite navigation system designed to provide information about instantaneous velocity and time almost anywhere on the globe at any time and in any weather.
Ans: (a)
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On what btui~ iR l.h(ll di~tano" n• whkh the 68. ouu~r ~ignnl i!J t 4) I)(~ plth:.od, (.'t.Hu puttt.d ?
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Th~~ t1uv.: tukc:!:' stre.•tmHnt·!!i .
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ce
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In n re.cumgula.r r..har.nJ<:if:c <>ne rgy is :H) rn. Th11 ty~e of now w-!!1 he!
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ln a wide re<:I&J>gular chunn~l wiih · unifom. Oow thv ilpecitlc N>ergy i• 1·08 tn . Whnl L• lhr
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lhr~ cquh~aJent friction fttd.qr f to Mun ning'.s E'l1U~hnr::sa r.ot~ffic:ient n (tnt! bydru.uHc m~an
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