GATE Solved Question Papers for Civil Engineering [CE] by AglaSem.Com

SOLVED PAPERS

GATE CIVIL ENGINEERING (CE)

A comprehensive study guide for GATE

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CONTENTS • • • • • •

Introduction Question Paper Pattern Design of Questions Marking Scheme Syllabus Previous Year Solved Papers o Solved Question Paper 2014 (Set – 1) o Answer Key 2014 (Set – 1) o Solved Question Paper 2014 (Set – 2) o Answer Key 2014 (Set – 2) o Solved Question Paper 2013 o Answer Key 2013 o Solved Question Paper 2012 o Answer Key 2012

Introduction The Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE) is the all India level examination conducted by the Indian Institute of Science and seven Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs). A crucial part of GATE preparation is to solve and practice using previous year GATE papers. Solving previous year GATE papers help the candidate in understanding the exam pattern, knowing the level of difficulty of questions, and analyzing preparation. While attempting to solve any previous year GATE paper, it is advisable that it is done in a simulated test environment. This means, that the candidate sets a timer to countdown to test time, makes sure there is no other distraction, and then sits down to take the test as if he / she is in the exam hall. After attempting the paper, check how many questions you could get right in the first attempt. Analyse the strong and weak areas of preparation, and accordingly devise a study schedule or revision pattern. After going through those areas where in the first attempt could not do well, try the next paper. Almost all of the engineering colleges in India take admission in M.Tech courses on the basis of GATE scores. Apart from that, PSUs also recruit students directly on this basis. To score high in this elite examination is tough, but quite achievable.

_________________________________________________________ GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by

Question Paper Pattern In all the papers, there will be a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks, out of which 10 questions carrying a total of 15 marks are in General Aptitude (GA). In the papers bearing the codes AE, AG, BT, CE, CH, CS, EC, EE, IN, ME, MN, MT, PI, TF and XE, the Engineering Mathematics will carry around 13% of the total marks, the General Aptitude section will carry 15% of the total marks and the remaining percentage of the total marks is devoted to the subject of the paper. In the papers bearing the codes AR, CY, EY, GG, MA, PH and XL, the General Aptitude section will carry 15% of the total marks and the remaining 85% of the total marks is devoted to the subject of the paper. GATE would contain questions of two different types in various papers: (i) Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) carrying 1 or 2 marks each in all papers and sections. These questions are objective in nature, and each will have a choice of four answers, out of which the candidate has to mark the correct answer(s). (ii) Numerical Answer Questions of 1 or 2 marks each in all papers and sections. For these questions the answer is a real number, to be entered by the candidate using the virtual keypad. No choices will be shown for this type of questions.

________________________________________________________ GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by

Design of Questions The questions in a paper may be designed to test the following abilities: (i) Recall: These are based on facts, principles, formulae or laws of the discipline of the paper. The candidate is expected to be able to obtain the answer either from his/her memory of the subject or at most from a one-line computation. (ii) Comprehension: These questions will test the candidate's understanding of the basics of his/her field, by requiring him/her to draw simple conclusions from fundamental ideas. (iii) Application: In these questions, the candidate is expected to apply his/her knowledge either through computation or by logical reasoning. (iv) Analysis and Synthesis: In these questions, the candidate is presented with data, diagrams, images etc. that require analysis before a question can be answered. A Synthesis question might require the candidate to compare two or more pieces of information. Questions in this category could, for example, involve candidates in recognising unstated assumptions, or separating useful information from irrelevant information.

__________________________________________________________ GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by

Marking Scheme For 1-mark multiple-choice questions, 1/3 marks will be deducted for a wrong answer. Likewise, for2-marks multiple-choice questions, 2/3 marks will be deducted for a wrong answer. There is no negative marking for numerical answer type questions. General Aptitude (GA) Questions In all papers, GA questions carry a total of 15 marks. The GA section includes 5 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 5 marks) and 5 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 10 marks). Question Papers other than GG, XE and XL These papers would contain 25 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 25 marks) and 30 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 60 marks). The question paper will consist of questions of multiple choice and numerical answer type. For numerical answer questions, choices will not be given. Candidates have to enter the answer (which will be a real number, signed or unsigned, e.g. 25.06, -25.06, 25, -25 etc.) using a virtual keypad. An appropriate range will be considered while evaluating the numerical answer type questions so that the candidate is not penalized due to the usual round-off errors. GG (Geology and Geophysics) Paper Apart from the General Aptitude (GA) section, the GG question paper consists of two parts: Part A and Part B. Part A is common for all candidates. Part B contains two sections: Section 1 (Geology) and Section 2 (Geo-physics). Candidates will have to attempt questions in Part A and either Section 1 or Section 2 in Part B. Part A consists of 25 multiple-choice questions carrying 1-mark each (sub-total 25 marks and some of these may be numerical answer type questions). Each section in Part B (Section 1 and Section 2) consists of 30 multiple choice questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 60 marks and some of these may be numerical answer type questions). XE Paper (Engineering Sciences)


In XE paper, Engineering Mathematics section (Section A) is compulsory. This section contains 11 questions carrying a total of 15 marks: 7 questions carrying 1 mark each (subtotal 7 marks), and 4 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 8 marks). Some questions may be of numerical answer type questions. Each of the other sections of the XE paper (Sections B through G) contains 22 questions carrying a total of 35 marks: 9 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 9 marks) and 13 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 26 marks). Some questions may be of numerical answer type. XL Paper (Life Sciences) In XL paper, Chemistry section (Section H) is compulsory. This section contains 15 questions carrying a total of 25 marks: 5 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 5 marks) and 10 questions carrying 2-marks each (sub-total 20 marks). Some questions may be of numerical answer type. Each of the other sections of the XL paper (Sections I through M) contains 20 questions carrying a total of 30 marks: 10 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 10 marks) and 10 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 20 marks). Some questions may be of numerical answer type. Note on Negative Marking for Wrong Answers For a wrong answer chosen for the multiple choice questions, there would be negative marking. For1-mark multiple choice questions, 1/3 mark will be deducted for a wrong answer. Likewise, for 2-mark multiple choice questions, 2/3 mark will be deducted for a wrong answer. However, there is no negative marking for a wrong answer in numerical answer type questions.


Syllabus for General Aptitude (GA) Verbal Ability: English grammar, sentence completion, verbal analogies, word groups, instructions, critical reasoning and verbal deduction. Numerical Ability: Numerical computation, numerical estimation, numerical reasoning and data interpretation.

Syllabus for Civil Engineering (CE) ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS Linear Algebra: Matrix algebra, Systems of linear equations, Eigen values and eigenvectors. Calculus: Functions of single variable, Limit, continuity and differentiability, Mean value theorems, Evaluation of definite and improper integrals, Partial derivatives, Total derivative, Maxima and minima, Gradient, Divergence and Curl, Vector identities, Directional derivatives, Line, Surface and Volume integrals, Stokes, Gauss and Green’s theorems. Differential equations: First order equations (linear and nonlinear), Higher order linear differential equations with constant coefficients, Cauchy’s and Euler’s equations, Initial and boundary value problems, Laplace transforms, Solutions of one dimensional heat and wave equations and Laplace equation. Complex variables: Analytic functions, Cauchy’s integral theorem, Taylor and Laurent series. Probability and Statistics: Definitions of probability and sampling theorems, Conditional probability, Mean, median, mode and standard deviation, Random variables, Poisson, Normal and Binomial distributions. Numerical Methods: Numerical solutions of linear and non-linear algebraic equations Integration by trapezoidal and Simpson’s rule, single and multi-step methods for differential equations.

___________________________________________________________ GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by

STRUCTURAL ENGINEERING Mechanics: Bending moment and shear force in statically determinate beams. Simple stress and strain relationship: Stress and strain in two dimensions, principal stresses, stress transformation, Mohr’s circle. Simple bending theory, flexural and shear stresses, unsymmetrical bending, shear centre. Thin walled pressure vessels, uniform torsion, buckling of column, combined and direct bending stresses. Structural Analysis: Analysis of statically determinate trusses, arches, beams, cables and frames, displacements in statically determinate structures and analysis of statically indeterminate structures by force/ energy methods, analysis by displacement methods (slope deflection and moment distribution methods), influence lines for determinate and indeterminate structures. Basic concepts of matrix methods of structural analysis. Concrete Structures: Concrete Technology- properties of concrete, basics of mix design. Concrete design- basic working stress and limit state design concepts, analysis of ultimate load capacity and design of members subjected to flexure, shear, compression and torsion by limit state methods. Basic elements of prestressed concrete, analysis of beam sections at transfer and service loads. Steel Structures: Analysis and design of tension and compression members, beams and beam- columns, column bases. Connections- simple and eccentric, beam–column connections, plate girders and trusses. Plastic analysis of beams and frames. GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING Soil Mechanics: Origin of soils, soil classification, three-phase system, fundamental definitions, relationship and interrelationships, permeability &seepage, effective stress principle, consolidation, compaction, shear strength. Foundation Engineering: Sub-surface investigations- scope, drilling bore holes, sampling, penetration tests, plate load test. Earth pressure theories, effect of water table, layered soils. Stability of slopes-infinite slopes, finite slopes. Foundation types-foundation design requirements. Shallow foundations-bearing capacity, effect of shape, water table and other factors, stress distribution, settlement analysis in sands & clays. Deep


foundations–pile types, dynamic & static formulae, load capacity of piles in sands & clays, negative skin friction. WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING Fluid Mechanics and Hydraulics: Properties of fluids, principle of conservation of mass, momentum, energy and corresponding equations, potential flow, applications of momentum and Bernoulli’s equation, laminar and turbulent flow, flow in pipes, pipe networks. Concept of boundary layer and its growth. Uniform flow, critical flow and gradually varied flow in channels, specific energy concept, hydraulic jump. Forces on immersed bodies, flow measurements in channels, tanks and pipes. Dimensional analysis and hydraulic modeling. Kinematics of flow, velocity triangles and specific speed of pumps and turbines. Hydrology: Hydrologic

cycle,

rainfall,

evaporation,

infiltration,

stage

discharge

relationships, unit hydrographs, flood estimation, reservoir capacity, reservoir and channel routing. Well hydraulics. Irrigation: Duty, delta, estimation of evapo-transpiration. Crop water requirements. Design of: lined and unlined canals, waterways, head works, gravity dams and spillways. Design of weirs on permeable foundation. Types of irrigation system, irrigation methods. Water logging and drainage, sodic soils. ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING Water requirements: Quality standards, basic unit processes and operations for water treatment. Drinking water standards, water requirements, basic unit operations and unit processes for surface water treatment, distribution of water. Sewage and sewerage treatment, quantity and characteristics of wastewater. Primary, secondary and tertiary treatment of wastewater, sludge disposal, effluent discharge standards. Domestic wastewater treatment, quantity of characteristics of domestic wastewater, primary and secondary treatment Unit operations and unit processes of domestic wastewater, sludge disposal. Air Pollution: Types of pollutants, their sources and impacts, air pollution meteorology, air pollution control, air quality standards and limits.


Municipal Solid Wastes: Characteristics, generation, collection and transportation of solid wastes, engineered systems for solid waste management (reuse/ recycle, energy recovery, treatment and disposal). Noise Pollution: Impacts of noise, permissible limits of noise pollution, measurement of noise and control of noise pollution. TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING Highway Planning: Geometric design of highways, testing and specifications of paving materials, design of flexible and rigid pavements. Traffic Engineering: Traffic characteristics, theory of traffic flow, intersection design, traffic signs and signal design, highway capacity. SURVEYING Importance of surveying, principles and classifications, mapping concepts, coordinate system, map projections, measurements of distance and directions, leveling, theodolite traversing, plane table surveying, errors and adjustments, curves.


GATE Previous Year Solved Papers Civil Engineering - CE

2012 - 14

SET - 1 GATE 2014 Solved Paper CE: Civil Engineering Duration: 180 minutes

Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully. 1. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. Kindly go through the various symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination. 2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question paper, by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen. 3. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject specific GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory. The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each. The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 1 to 25 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 26 to 55 are of 2-mark each. 4. Depending upon the GATE paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for answering the questions. If the paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking on the Useful Common Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen. 5. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs specialized software that permits only one answer to be selected for multiple-choice questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse. 6. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the examination. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes. 7. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. 8. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer type. 9. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which only ONE is the correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble (⃝) placed before the choice. 10. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be any choices. For these questions, the answer should be enteredby using the virtual keyboard that appears on the monitor and the mouse. 11. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple choice type questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong answer will result in deduction of⅓ marks for a 1-mark question and ⅔ marks for a 2-mark question. 12. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE. 13. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, and mathematical tables are NOT allowed in the Examination Hall. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination centre for all your rough work. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination. Declaration by the candidate: “I have read and understood all the above instructions. I have also read and understood clearly the instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled. I also confirm that at the start of the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me are in proper working condition”.

GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by

GATE 2014

SET-1

General Aptitude - GA

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each. Q.1

A student is required to demonstrate a high level of comprehension of the subject, especially in the social sciences. The word closest in meaning to comprehension is (A) understanding

Q.2

(B) meaning

(C) concentration

(D) stability

Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence. One of his biggest ______ was his ability to forgive. (A) vice

Q.3

(B) virtues

(C) choices

(D) strength

Rajan was not happy that Sajan decided to do the project on his own. On observing his unhappiness, Sajan explained to Rajan that he preferred to work independently. Which one of the statements below is logically valid and can be inferred from the above sentences? (A) Rajan has decided to work only in a group. (B) Rajan and Sajan were formed into a group against their wishes. (C) Sajan had decided to give in to Rajan’s request to work with him. (D) Rajan had believed that Sajan and he would be working together.

Q.4

If y = 5x2 + 3, then the tangent at x = 0, y = 3 (A) passes through x = 0, y = 0 (C) is parallel to the x-axis

Q.5

(B) has a slope of +1 (D) has a slope of −1

A foundry has a fixed daily cost of Rs 50,000 whenever it operates and a variable cost of Rs 800Q, where Q is the daily production in tonnes. What is the cost of production in Rs per tonne for a daily production of 100 tonnes?

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each. Q.6

Find the odd one in the following group: ALRVX, EPVZB, ITZDF, OYEIK (A) ALRVX

Q.7

(B) EPVZB

(C) ITZDF

(D) OYEIK

Anuj, Bhola, Chandan, Dilip, Eswar and Faisal live on different floors in a six-storeyed building (the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it 2, and so on). Anuj lives on an even-numbered floor. Bhola does not live on an odd numbered floor. Chandan does not live on any of the floors below Faisal’s floor. Dilip does not live on floor number 2. Eswar does not live on a floor immediately above or immediately below Bhola. Faisal lives three floors above Dilip. Which of the following floor-person combinations is correct?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Anuj 6 2 4 2

Bhola 2 6 2 4

Chandan 5 5 6 6

Dilip 1 1 3 1

Eswar 3 3 1 3


Faisal 4 4 5 5

GATE 2014

SET-1


Q.8

The smallest angle of a triangle is equal to two thirds of the smallest angle of a quadrilateral. The ratio between the angles of the quadrilateral is 3:4:5:6. The largest angle of the triangle is twice its smallest angle. What is the sum, in degrees, of the second largest angle of the triangle and the largest angle of the quadrilateral?

Q.9

One percent of the people of country X are taller than 6 ft. Two percent of the people of country Y are taller than 6 ft. There are thrice as many people in country X as in country Y. Taking both countries together, what is the percentage of people taller than 6 ft? (A) 3.0

Q.10

(B) 2.5

(C) 1.5

(D) 1.25

The monthly rainfall chart based on 50 years of rainfall in Agra is shown in the following figure. Which of the following are true? (k percentile is the value such that k percent of the data fall below that value)

(i) On average, it rains more in July than in December (ii) Every year, the amount of rainfall in August is more than that in January (iii) July rainfall can be estimated with better confidence than February rainfall (iv) In August, there is at least 500 mm of rainfall (A) (i) and (ii) (C) (ii) and (iii)

(B) (i) and (iii) (D) (iii) and (iv)

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER


GATE 2014

SET-1

Civil Engineering - CE


 x + sin x  Lim  equals to x →∞  x 

(A) − ∞

(B) 0

(C) 1

(D) ∞

Q.2

3 2 1  1   Given the matrices J = 2 4 2 and K =  2  , the product K T JK is ___________ 1 2 6 − 1

Q.3

The probability density function of evaporation E on any day during a year in a watershed is given by 1  f (E) = 5 0

0 ≤ E ≤ 5 mm/day otherwise

The probability that E lies in between 2 and 4 mm/day in a day in the watershed is (in decimal) _____________

Q.4

The sum of Eigen values of the matrix, [M] is

215 650 795 where [M ] = 655 150 835 485 355 550 (A) 915

Q.5

(B) 1355

(C) 1640

(D) 2180

With reference to the conventional Cartesian (x, y) coordinate system, the vertices of a triangle have the following coordinates: (x1, y1) = (1, 0); (x2, y2) = (2, 2); and (x3, y3) = (4, 3). The area of the triangle is equal to (A)

3 2

(B)

3 4

(C)

4 5

(D)

5 2


GATE 2014

Q.6

SET-1


Match the information given in Group – I with those in Group - II.

Group – I

Q.7

Group – II

P

Factor to decrease ultimate strength to design strength

1 Upper bound on ultimate load

Q

Factor to increase working load to ultimate load for design

2 Lower bound on ultimate load

R

Statical method of ultimate load analysis

3 Material partial safety factor

S

Kinematical mechanism method of ultimate load analysis

4 Load factor

(A) P - 1; Q - 2; R - 3; S - 4

(B) P - 2; Q - 1; R - 4; S - 3

(C) P - 3; Q - 4; R - 2; S - 1

(D) P - 4; Q - 3; R - 2; S - 1

The possible location of shear centre of the channel section, shown below, is

R S

P Q

(A) P

Q.8

(B) Q

(C) R

(D) S

The ultimate collapse load (P) in terms of plastic moment Mp by kinematic approach for a propped cantilever of length L with P acting at its mid-span as shown in the figure, would be

P X

(A) P =

Q.9

2M p L

(B) P =

L 2

4M p L

L 2

(C) P =

6M p L

Y

(D) P =

8M p L

While designing, for a steel column of Fe250 grade, a base plate resting on a concrete pedestal of M20 grade, the bearing strength of concrete (in N/mm2) in limit state method of design as per IS:456-2000 is ________________


GATE 2014

Q.10

SET-1

A steel section is subjected to a combination of shear and bending actions. The applied shear force is V and the shear capacity of the section is Vs. For such a section, high shear force (as per IS:8002007) is defined as (A) V > 0.6Vs

Q.11


(B) V > 0.7Vs

(C) V > 0.8Vs

(D) V > 0.9Vs

The degree of static indeterminacy of a rigid jointed frame PQR supported as shown in the figure is

S y

Cable 45°

R

EI 90°

(A) zero

Q.12

x

EI

Q

(B) one

P

(C) two

(D) unstable

In a beam of length L, four possible influence line diagrams for shear force at a section located at a L distance of from the left end support (marked as P, Q, R and S) are shown below. The correct 4 influence line diagram is 1.0

0.75

0.6

0.5

0.6

0.5

0.25

L 4

3L 4

L 4

3L 4

P (A) P

Q.13

L 4

Q (B) Q

3L 4

R (C) R

3L 4

L 4

S (D) S

The degree of disturbance of the sample collected by the sampler is expressed by a term called the "area ratio". If the outer diameter and inner diameter of the sampler are Do and Di respectively, the area ratio is given by (A)

��2 −��2 ��2

(B)

��2 −��2 ��2

(C)

��2 −��2 ��2

(D)

��2 −��2 ��2


GATE 2014

Q.14

Q.15

SET-1


For a saturated cohesive soil, a triaxial test yields the angle of internal friction (φ) as zero. The conducted test is (A) Consolidated Drained (CD) test

(B) Consolidated Undrained (CU) test

(C) Unconfined Compression (UC) test

(D) Unconsolidated Undrained (UU) test

The action of negative skin friction on the pile is to (A) increase the ultimate load on the pile (B) reduce the allowable load on the pile (C) maintain the working load on the pile (D) reduce the settlement of the pile

Q.16

A long slope is formed in a soil with shear strength parameters: c' = 0 and φ' = 34°. A firm stratum lies below the slope and it is assumed that the water table may occasionally rise to the surface, with seepage taking place parallel to the slope. Use γsat = 18 kN/m3 and γw = 10 kN/m3. The maximum slope angle (in degrees) to ensure a factor of safety of 1.5, assuming a potential failure surface parallel to the slope, would be (A) 45.3

(B) 44.7

(C) 12.3

(D) 11.3

Q.17

An incompressible homogeneous fluid is flowing steadily in a variable diameter pipe having the large and small diameters as 15 cm and 5 cm, respectively. If the velocity at a section at the 15 cm diameter portion of the pipe is 2.5 m/s, the velocity of the fluid (in m/s) at a section falling in 5 cm portion of the pipe is ___________

Q.18

A conventional flow duration curve is a plot between (A) Flow and percentage time flow is exceeded (B) Duration of flooding and ground level elevation (C) Duration of water supply in a city and proportion of area receiving supply exceeding this duration (D) Flow rate and duration of time taken to empty a reservoir at that flow rate

Q.19

In reservoirs with an uncontrolled spillway, the peak of the plotted outflow hydrograph (A) lies outside the plotted inflow hydrograph (B) lies on the recession limb of the plotted inflow hydrograph (C) lies on the peak of the inflow hydrograph (D) is higher than the peak of the plotted inflow hydrograph


GATE 2014

Q.20


The dimension for kinematic viscosity is (A)

Q.21

SET-1

L MT

(B)

L T2

(C)

L2 T

(D)

ML T

Some of the nontoxic metals normally found in natural water are (A) arsenic, lead and mercury

(B) calcium, sodium and silver

(C) cadmium, chromium and copper

(D) iron, manganese and magnesium

Q.22

The amount of CO2 generated (in kg) while completely oxidizing one kg of CH4 to the end products is ____________

Q.23

The minimum value of 15 minute peak hour factor on a section of a road is (A) 0.10

Q.24

(B) 0.20

(C) 0.25

(D) 0.33

The following statements are related to temperature stresses developed in concrete pavement slabs with free edges (without any restraint):

P.

The temperature stresses will be zero during both day and night times if the pavement slab is considered weightless

Q.

The temperature stresses will be compressive at the bottom of the slab during night time if the self-weight of the pavement slab is considered

R.

The temperature stresses will be compressive at the bottom of the slab during day time if the self-weight of the pavement slab is considered

The TRUE statement(s) is(are) (A) P only

Q.25

(B) Q only

(C) P and Q only

(D) P and R only

The Reduced Levels (RLs) of the points P and Q are +49.600 m and +51.870 m respectively. Distance PQ is 20 m. The distance (in m from P) at which the +51.000 m contour cuts the line PQ is (A) 15.00

(B) 12.33

(C) 3.52

(D) 2.27


GATE 2014

SET-1



If the following equation establishes equilibrium in slightly bent position, the mid-span deflection of a member shown in the figure is

d2y P + y=0 dx 2 EI y

EI y

P M

P

x

N

L

If a is amplitude constant for y, then (A) y =

1 2πx   1 − a cos P L 

(C) y = a sin

Q.27

(B) y =

nπx L

1 2πx   1 − a sin P L 

(D) y = a cos

nπx L

A box of weight 100 kN shown in the figure is to be lifted without swinging. If all forces are coplanar, the magnitude and direction (θ) of the force (F) with respect to x-axis should be

y 40 kN 90 kN F

45° θ

30°

x 100 kN

(A) F = 56.389 kN and θ = 28.28°

(B) F = −56.389 kN and θ = −28.28°

(C) F = 9.055 kN and θ = 1.414°

(D) F = −9.055 kN and θ = −1.414°

Q.28

A particle moves along a curve whose parametric equations are: x = t 3 + 2t , y = −3e −2t and z = 2 sin (5t ), where x, y and z show variations of the distance covered by the particle (in cm) with time t (in s). The magnitude of the acceleration of the particle (in cm/s2) at t = 0 is ________

Q.29

A traffic office imposes on an average 5 number of penalties daily on traffic violators. Assume that the number of penalties on different days is independent and follows a Poisson distribution. The probability that there will be less than 4 penalties in a day is ___________


GATE 2014

Q.30

SET-1


Mathematical idealization of a crane has three bars with their vertices arranged as shown in the figure with a load of 80 kN hanging vertically. The coordinates of the vertices are given in parentheses. The force in the member QR, FQR will be

P (0, 4)

80 kN

22.84°

y

x

104.03°

R (3, 0)

Q (1, 0)

Q.31

53.13°

(A) 30 kN Compressive

(B) 30 kN Tensile

(C) 50 kN Compressive

(D) 50 kN Tensile

For the cantilever beam of span 3 m (shown below), a concentrated load of 20 kN applied at the free end causes a vertical displacement of 2 mm at a section located at a distance of 1 m from the fixed end. If a concentrated vertically downward load of 10 kN is applied at the section located at a distance of 1 m from the fixed end (with no other load on the beam), the maximum vertical displacement in the same beam (in mm) is __________ 20 kN

2 mm

1m

Q.32

2m

For the truss shown below, the member PQ is short by 3 mm. The magnitude of vertical displacement of joint R (in mm) is _______________ R 3m P

Q 4m

4m


GATE 2014

Q.33


A rectangular beam of width (b) 230 mm and effective depth (d) 450 mm is reinforced with four bars of 12 mm diameter. The grade of concrete is M20 and grade of steel is Fe500. Given that for M20 grade of concrete the ultimate shear strength, τuc = 0.36 N/mm2 for steel percentage, p = 0.25, and τuc = 0.48 N/mm2 for p = 0.50. For a factored shear force of 45 kN, the diameter (in mm) of Fe500 steel two legged stirrups to be used at spacing of 375 mm, should be (A) 8

Q.34

SET-1

(B) 10

(C) 12

(D) 16

The tension and shear force (both in kN) in each bolt of the joint, as shown below, respectively are

4 3 5

Pu = 250 kN

(A) 30.33 and 20.00

(B) 30.33 and 25.00

(C) 33.33 and 20.00

(D) 33.33 and 25.00

Q.35

For a beam of cross-section, width = 230 mm and effective depth = 500 mm, the number of rebars of 12 mm diameter required to satisfy minimum tension reinforcement requirement specified by IS:456-2000 (assuming grade of steel reinforcement as Fe500) is _____________

Q.36

In a reinforced concrete section, the stress at the extreme fibre in compression is 5.80 MPa. The depth of neutral axis in the section is 58 mm and the grade of concrete is M25. Assuming linear elastic behavior of the concrete, the effective curvature of the section (in per mm) is (A) 2.0×10−6

(B) 3.0×10−6

(C) 4.0×10−6

(D) 5.0×10−6


GATE 2014

Q.37

SET-1


Group I contains representative load-settlement curves for different modes of bearing capacity failures of sandy soil. Group II enlists the various failure characteristics. Match the load-settlement curves with the corresponding failure characteristics.

Load

J

K

L

Settlement Group I P. Curve J

1.

No apparent heaving of soil around the footing

Q. Curve K

2.

Rankine’s passive zone develops imperfectly

R. Curve L

Q.38

3.

Well defined slip surface extends to ground surface

(A) P - 1, Q - 3, R - 2

(B) P - 3, Q - 2, R - 1

(C) P - 3, Q - 1, R - 2

(D) P - 1, Q - 2, R - 3

A given cohesionless soil has emax = 0.85 and emin = 0.50. In the field, the soil is compacted to a mass density of 1800 kg/m3 at a water content of 8%. Take the mass density of water as 1000 kg/m3 and Gs as 2.7. The relative density (in %) of the soil is (A) 56.43

Q.39

Group II

(B) 60.25

(C) 62.87

(D) 65.71

The following data are given for the laboratory sample.

σo' = 175 kPa ; eo = 1.1 ; σo' + Δσo' = 300 kPa ; e = 0.9 If thickness of the clay specimen is 25 mm, the value of coefficient of volume compressibility is ___________ ×10˗4 m2/kN


GATE 2014

SET-1


Q.40

The flow net constructed for the dam is shown in the figure below. Taking the coefficient of permeability as 3.8×10−6 m/s, the quantity of flow (in cm3/s) under the dam per meter of dam is ______________

Q.41

A horizontal jet of water with its cross-sectional area of 0.0028 m2 hits a fixed vertical plate with a velocity of 5 m/s. After impact the jet splits symmetrically in a plane parallel to the plane of the plate. The force of impact (in N) of the jet on the plate is (A) 90

(B) 80

(C) 70

(D) 60

Q.42

A venturimeter, having a diameter of 7.5 cm at the throat and 15 cm at the enlarged end, is installed in a horizontal pipeline of 15 cm diameter. The pipe carries an incompressible fluid at a steady rate of 30 litres per second. The difference of pressure head measured in terms of the moving fluid in between the enlarged and the throat of the venturimeter is observed to be 2.45 m. Taking the acceleration due to gravity as 9.81 m/s2, the coefficient of discharge of the venturimeter (correct up to two places of decimal) is ______________

Q.43

A rectangular channel having a bed slope of 0.0001, width 3.0 m and Manning’s coefficient ‘n’ 0.015, carries a discharge of 1.0 m3/s. Given that the normal depth of flow ranges between 0.76 m and 0.8 m. The minimum width of a throat (in m) that is possible at a given section, while ensuring that the prevailing normal depth is not exceeded along the reach upstream of the contraction, is approximately equal to (assume negligible losses) (A) 0.64

(B) 0.84

(C) 1.04

(D) 1.24


GATE 2014

Q.44

SET-1


Three rigid buckets, shown as in the figures (1), (2) and (3), are of identical heights and base areas. Further, assume that each of these buckets have negligible mass and are full of water. The weights of water in these buckets are denoted as W1, W2, and W3 respectively. Also, let the force of water on the base of the bucket be denoted as F1, F2, and F3 respectively. The option giving an accurate description of the system physics is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(A) W2 = W1 = W3 and F2 > F1 > F3 (B) W2 > W1 > W3 and F2 > F1 > F3 (C) W2 = W1 = W3 and F1 = F2 = F3 (D) W2 > W1 > W3 and F1 = F2 = F3

Q.45

An incompressible fluid is flowing at a steady rate in a horizontal pipe. From a section, the pipe divides into two horizontal parallel pipes of diameters d1 and d2 (where d1 = 4d2) that run for a distance of L each and then again join back to a pipe of the original size. For both the parallel pipes, assume the head loss due to friction only and the Darcy-Weisbach friction factor to be the same. The velocity ratio between the bigger and the smaller branched pipes is _________

Q.46

16 MLD of water is flowing through a 2.5 km long pipe of diameter 45 cm. The chlorine at the rate of 32 kg/d is applied at the entry of this pipe so that disinfected water is obtained at the exit. There is a proposal to increase the flow through this pipe to 22 MLD from 16 MLD. Assume the dilution coefficient, n = 1. The minimum amount of chlorine (in kg per day) to be applied to achieve the same degree of disinfection for the enhanced flow is (A) 60.50

Q.47

(B) 44.00

(C) 38.00

(D) 23.27

The potable water is prepared from turbid surface water by adopting the following treatment sequence. (A) Turbid surface water → Coagulation → Flocculation → Sedimentation → Filtration → Disinfection → Storage & Supply (B) Turbid surface water → Disinfection → Flocculation → Sedimentation → Filtration → Coagulation → Storage & Supply (C) Turbid surface water → Filtration → Sedimentation → Disinfection → Flocculation → Coagulation → Storage & Supply (D) Turbid surface water → Sedimentation → Flocculation → Coagulation → Disinfection → Filtration → Storage & Supply


GATE 2014

Q.48

SET-1


For a sample of water with the ionic composition shown in the figure below, the carbonate and noncarbonate hardness concentrations (in mg/l as CaCO3), respectively are:

meq/l 0

4

5 Mg2+

Ca2+ HCO3– meq/l 0

7 Na+

SO42– 3.5

7

(A) 200 and 50

(B) 175 and 75

(C) 75 and 175

(D) 50 and 200

Q.49

A straight 100 m long raw water gravity main is to carry water from an intake structure to the jack well of a water treatment plant. The required flow through this water main is 0.21 m3/s. Allowable velocity through the main is 0.75 m/s. Assume f = 0.01, g = 9.81 m/s2. The minimum gradient (in cm/100 m length) to be given to this gravity main so that the required amount of water flows without any difficulty is ___________

Q.50

A traffic survey conducted on a road yields an average daily traffic count of 5000 vehicles. The axle load distribution on the same road is given in the following table:

Axle load (tonnes)

Frequency of traffic (%)

18

10

14

20

10

35

8

15

6

20

The design period of the road is 15 years, the yearly traffic growth rate is 7.5% and the load safety factor (LSF) is 1.3. If the vehicle damage factor (VDF) is calculated from the above data, the design traffic (in million standard axle load, MSA) is ____________

Q.51

The perception-reaction time for a vehicle travelling at 90 km/h, given the coefficient of longitudinal friction of 0.35 and the stopping sight distance of 170 m (assume g = 9.81 m/s2), is _____________ seconds.

Q.52

The speed-density (u−k) relationship on a single lane road with unidirectional flow is u = 70 − 0.7 k , where u is in km/hr and k is in veh/km. The capacity of the road (in veh/hr) is ___________


GATE 2014

SET-1


Q.53

An isolated three-phase traffic signal is designed by Webster's method. The critical flow ratios for three phases are 0.20, 0.30, and 0.25 respectively, and lost time per phase is 4 seconds. The optimum cycle length (in seconds) is ___________

Q.54

A levelling is carried out to establish the Reduced Levels (RL) of point R with respect to the Bench Mark (BM) at P. The staff readings taken are given below.

Staff Station

BS

P

1.655 m

Q

-0.950 m

IS

FS

RL 100.000 m

-1.500 m

R

0.750 m

?

If RL of P is +100.000 m, then RL (in m) of R is (A) 103.355

Q.55

(B) 103.155

(C) 101.455

(D) 100.355

Group I lists tool/instrument while Group II lists the method of surveying. Match the tool/instrument with the corresponding method of surveying. Group I P. Q. R. S.

Group II

Alidade Arrow Bubble tube Stadia hair

1. Chain surveying 2. Levelling 3. Plain table surveying 4. Theodolite surveying

(A) P – 3; Q – 2; R – 1; S – 4

(B) P – 2; Q – 4; R – 3; S – 1

(C) P – 1; Q – 2; R – 4; S – 3

(D) P – 3; Q – 1; R – 2; S – 4



GATE 2014 - Answer Keys (SET -1) General Aptitude - GA Q. No. 1 2 3 4

Key / Range A B D C

Q. No. 5 6 7 8

Key / Range 1300 to 1300 D B 180 to 180

Q. No. 9 10

Key / Range D B

Q. No. 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38

Key / Range C D 2.7 to 2.8 C C B C A 12 to 12 0.26 to 0.27 A 1 to 1 1.0 to 2.5 A D 2 to 2 C A D

Q. No. 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55

Key / Range 7.6 to 8.0 7.10 to 7.85 C 0.93 to 0.96 B D 2 to 2 A A B 4.7 to 4.9 307 to 310 3.1 to 3.2 1750 to 1750 90 to 95 C D

Civil Engineering - CE Q. No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19

Key / Range C 23 to 23 0.4 to 0.4 A A C A C 9 to 9 A A A A D B D 22 to 23 A B

________________________________________________________________ GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by

SET - 2 GATE 2014 Solved Paper CE: Civil Engineering Duration: 180 minutes

Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully. 1. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. Kindly go through the various symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination. 2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question paper, by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen. 3. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject specific GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory. The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each. The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 1 to 25 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 26 to 55 are of 2-mark each. 4. Depending upon the GATE paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for answering the questions. If the paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking on the Useful Common Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen. 5. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs specialized software that permits only one answer to be selected for multiple-choice questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse. 6. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the examination. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes. 7. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. 8. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer type. 9. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which only ONE is the correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble (⃝) placed before the choice. 10. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be any choices. For these questions, the answer should be enteredby using the virtual keyboard that appears on the monitor and the mouse. 11. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple choice type questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong answer will result in deduction of⅓ marks for a 1-mark question and ⅔ marks for a 2-mark question. 12. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE. 13. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, and mathematical tables are NOT allowed in the Examination Hall. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination centre for all your rough work. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination. Declaration by the candidate: “I have read and understood all the above instructions. I have also read and understood clearly the instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled. I also confirm that at the start of the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me are in proper working condition”.


GATE 2014

SET-2



Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence. A person suffering from Alzheimer’s disease (A) experienced (C) is experiencing

Q.2

short-term memory loss. (B) has experienced (D) experiences

Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence. ____________ is the key to their happiness; they are satisfied with what they have. (A) Contentment

Q.3

(B) Ambition

(C) Perseverance

(D) Hunger

Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the sentence below? “As a woman, I have no country.” (A) Women have no country. (B) Women are not citizens of any country. (C) Women’s solidarity knows no national boundaries. (D) Women of all countries have equal legal rights.

Q.4

In any given year, the probability of an earthquake greater than Magnitude 6 occurring in the Garhwal Himalayas is 0.04. The average time between successive occurrences of such earthquakes is ____ years.

Q.5

The population of a new city is 5 million and is growing at 20% annually. How many years would it take to double at this growth rate? (A) 3-4 years

(B) 4-5 years

(C) 5-6 years

(D) 6-7 years

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6

In a group of four children, Som is younger to Riaz. Shiv is elder to Ansu. Ansu is youngest in the group. Which of the following statements is/are required to find the eldest child in the group? Statements 1. Shiv is younger to Riaz. 2. Shiv is elder to Som. (A) Statement 1by itself determines the eldest child. (B) Statement 2 by itself determines the eldest child. (C) Statements 1 and 2 are both required to determine the eldest child. (D) Statements 1 and 2 are not sufficient to determine the eldest child.


GATE 2014 Q.7

SET-2


Moving into a world of big data will require us to change our thinking about the merits of exactitude. To apply the conventional mindset of measurement to the digital, connected world of the twenty-first century is to miss a crucial point. As mentioned earlier, the obsession with exactness is an artefact of the information-deprived analog era. When data was sparse, every data point was critical, and thus great care was taken to avoid letting any point bias the analysis. From “BIG DATA” Viktor Mayer-Schonberger and Kenneth Cukier The main point of the paragraph is: (A) The twenty-first century is a digital world (B) Big data is obsessed with exactness (C) Exactitude is not critical in dealing with big data (D) Sparse data leads to a bias in the analysis

Q.8

The total exports and revenues from the exports of a country are given in the two pie charts below. The pie chart for exports shows the quantity of each item as a percentage of the total quantity of exports. The pie chart for the revenues shows the percentage of the total revenue generated through export of each item. The total quantity of exports of all the items is 5 lakh tonnes and the total revenues are 250 crore rupees. What is the ratio of the revenue generated through export of Item 1 per kilogram to the revenue generated through export of Item 4 per kilogram?

Exports Item 6 16% Item 5 12%

Item 4 22%

(A) 1:2

Q.9

Item 1 11%

Item 6 19% Item 2 20%

Item 2 20%

Item 5 20%

Item 3 19%

(B) 2:1

Item 1 12%

Item 4 6%

(C) 1:4

Item 3 23%

(D) 4:1

X is 1 km northeast of Y. Y is 1 km southeast of Z. W is 1 km west of Z. P is 1 km south of W. Q is 1 km east of P. What is the distance between X and Q in km? (A) 1

Q.10

Revenues

(B) √2

(C) √3

(D) 2

10% of the population in a town is HIV+. A new diagnostic kit for HIV detection is available; this kit correctly identifies HIV+ individuals 95% of the time, and HIV− individuals 89% of the time. A particular patient is tested using this kit and is found to be positive. The probability that the individual is actually positive is _______



GATE 2014

SET-2



A fair (unbiased) coin was tossed four times in succession and resulted in the following outcomes: (i) Head, (ii) Head, (iii) Head, (iv) Head. The probability of obtaining a 'Tail' when the coin is tossed again is (B)

(A) 0

1 2

Q.2

0 1 The determinant of matrix  2  3

Q.3

z=

(C)

1 0 3 0

1 5

3 0 is _____________ 1  2

(B) − 0.5 + 0.5i (D) 0.5 + 0.5i

The integrating factor for the differential equation (A) e − k1t

Q.5

(D)

2 − 3i can be expressed as −5+i

(A) − 0.5 − 0.5i (C) 0.5 − 0.5i

Q.4

2 3 0 1

4 5

(B) e − k 2t

dP + k 2 P = k1 Lo e − k1t is dt

(C) e k1t

(D) e k2t

If {x} is a continuous, real valued random variable defined over the interval (− ∞, + ∞) and occurrence is defined by the density function given as: �(�) =

1

√2�∗�

�

1 � −� 2 − � � 2 � where

its

'a' and 'b'

are the statistical attributes of the random variable {x}. The value of the integral �

1

∫−∞ √2�∗� �

(A) 1

1 �−� 2 � 2 �

− �

�� is

(B) 0.5

(C) π

(D)

π 2


GATE 2014 Q.6

SET-2


Group I contains representative stress-strain curves as shown in the figure, while Group II gives the list of materials. Match the stress-strain curves with the corresponding materials. Stress J K

Group I

L

P. Curve J Q. Curve K R. Curve L

Group II 1. Cement paste 2. Coarse aggregate 3. Concrete

Strain (A) P - 1; Q - 3; R - 2 (C) P - 3; Q - 1; R - 2

Q.7

(B) P - 2; Q - 3; R - 1 (D) P - 3; Q - 2; R - 1

The first moment of area about the axis of bending for a beam cross-section is (A) moment of inertia (C) shape factor

(B) section modulus (D) polar moment of inertia

Q.8

Polar moment of inertia (Ip), in cm4, of a rectangular section having width, b = 2 cm and depth, d = 6 cm is ________________

Q.9

The target mean strength fcm for concrete mix design obtained from the characteristic strength fck and standard deviation σ, as defined in IS:456-2000, is (A) fck + 1.35σ (C) fck + 1.55σ

(B) fck + 1.45σ (D) fck + 1.65σ

Q.10

The flexural tensile strength of M25 grade of concrete, in N/mm2, as per IS:456-2000 is __________

Q.11

The modulus of elasticity, E = 5000 f ck where f ck is the characteristic compressive strength of concrete, specified in IS:456-2000 is based on (A) tangent modulus (C) secant modulus

(B) initial tangent modulus (D) chord modulus


GATE 2014

SET-2


Q.12

The static indeterminacy of the two-span continuous beam with an internal hinge, shown below, is ______________

Q.13

As per Indian Standard Soil Classification System (IS: 1498 - 1970), an expression for A-line is

Q.14

(A) Ip = 0.73 (wL − 20)

(B) Ip = 0.70 (wL − 20)

(C) Ip = 0.73 (wL − 10)

(D) Ip = 0.70 (wL − 10)

The clay mineral primarily governing the swelling behavior of Black Cotton soil is (A) Halloysite

Q.15

(B) Illite

(C) Kaolinite

(D) Montmorillonite

The contact pressure for a rigid footing resting on clay at the centre and the edges are respectively (A) maximum and zero (C) zero and maximum

(B) maximum and minimum (D) minimum and maximum

Q.16

A certain soil has the following properties: Gs = 2.71, n = 40% and w = 20%. The degree of saturation of the soil (rounded off to the nearest percent) is __________

Q.17

A plane flow has velocity components u =

x y and w = 0 along x, y and z directions , v=− T1 T2

respectively, where T1 (≠ 0) and T2 (≠ 0) are constants having the dimension of time. The given flow is incompressible if (A) T1 = −T2

Q.18

(B) T1 = −

T2 2

(C) T1 =

T2 2

(D) T1 = T2

Group I lists a few devices while Group II provides information about their uses. Match the devices with their corresponding use. Group I P. Anemometer Q. Hygrometer R. Pitot Tube S. Tensiometer (A) P - 1; Q -2; R - 3; S - 4 (C) P - 4; Q - 2; R - 1; S - 3

Group II 1. Capillary potential of soil water 2. Fluid velocity at a specific point in the flow stream 3. Water vapour content of air 4. Wind speed (B) P - 2; Q - 1; R - 4; S- 3 (D) P - 4; Q - 3; R - 2; S - 1


GATE 2014 Q.19

SET-2

An isolated 3-h rainfall event on a small catchment produces a hydrograph peak and point of inflection on the falling limb of the hydrograph at 7 hours and 8.5 hours respectively, after the start of the rainfall. Assuming, no losses and no base flow contribution, the time of concentration (in hours) for this catchment is approximately (A) 8.5

Q.20

(B) 7.0

(C) 6.5

(B) − 0.5

(C) 0.5

(D) 1

The dominating microorganisms in an activated sludge process reactor are (A) aerobic heterotrophs (C) autotrophs

Q.22

(D) 5.5

The Muskingum model of routing a flood through a stream reach is expressed as O2 = K 0 I 2 + K1 I1 + K 2O1 , where K 0 , K1 and K 2 are the routing coefficients for the concerned reach, I1 and I 2 are the inflows to the reach, and O1 and O2 are the outflows from the reach corresponding to time steps 1 and 2 respectively. The sum of K 0 , K1 and K 2 of the model is (A) −1

Q.21


(B) anaerobic heterotrophs (D) phototrophs

The two air pollution control devices that are usually used to remove very fine particles from the flue gas are (A) (B) (C) (D)

Cyclone and Venturi Scrubber Cyclone and Packed Scrubber Electrostatic Precipitator and Fabric Filter Settling Chamber and Tray Scrubber

Q.23

The average spacing between vehicles in a traffic stream is 50 m, then the density (in veh/km) of the stream is ________________

Q.24

A road is being designed for a speed of 110 km/hr on a horizontal curve with a super elevation of 8%. If the coefficient of side friction is 0.10, the minimum radius of the curve (in m) required for safe vehicular movement is (A) 115.0

Q.25

(B) 152.3

(C) 264.3

(D) 528.5

The survey carried out to delineate natural features, such as hills, rivers, forests and man-made features, such as towns, villages, buildings, roads, transmission lines and canals is classified as (A) engineering survey (C) land survey

(B) geological survey (D) topographic survey


GATE 2014

SET-2



The expression lim� →0 (A) log �

� � −1 �

(B) 0

is equal to

(C) � log �

(D) ∞

Q.27

An observer counts 240 veh/h at a specific highway location. Assume that the vehicle arrival at the location is Poisson distributed, the probability of having one vehicle arriving over a 30-second time interval is ____________

Q.28

0 4 4  6  The rank of the matrix − 2 14 8 18  is _______________  14 − 14 0 − 10

Q.29

Water is flowing at a steady rate through a homogeneous and saturated horizontal soil strip of 10 m length. The strip is being subjected to a constant water head (H) of 5 m at the beginning and 1 m at d 2H = 0 (where x is the distance the end. If the governing equation of flow in the soil strip is dx 2 along the soil strip), the value of H (in m) at the middle of the strip is ___________

Q.30

The values of axial stress (σ) in kN/m2, bending moment (M) in kNm, and shear force (V) in kN acting at point P for the arrangement shown in the figure are respectively

Cable

P

Frictionless Pulley

Beam (0.2 m × 0.2 m)

Q

3m

50 kN

(A) 1000, 75 and 25 (C) 1500, 225 and 75

(B) 1250, 150 and 50 (D) 1750, 300 and 100


GATE 2014 Q.31

SET-2


The beam of an overall depth 250 mm (shown below) is used in a building subjected to two different thermal environments. The temperatures at the top and bottom surfaces of the beam are 36°C and 72°C respectively. Considering coefficient of thermal expansion (α) as 1.50×10−5 per °C, the vertical deflection of the beam (in mm) at its mid-span due to temperature gradient is ________ 36 °C 250 mm 72 °C 1.5 m

1.5 m

Q.32

The axial load (in kN) in the member PQ for the arrangement/assembly shown in the figure given below is _______________ P

2m 160 kN

R Beam

Q

S 2m

Q.33

2m

Considering the symmetry of a rigid frame as shown below, the magnitude of the bending moment (in kNm) at P (preferably using the moment distribution method) is 24 kN/m 4Ic 6m

Ic

4Ic

P

Ic

Ic

8m

8m

(A) 170

(B) 172

(C) 176

(D) 178


GATE 2014 Q.34

SET-2

A prismatic beam (as shown below) has plastic moment capacity of Mp, then the collapse load P of the beam is P 2 P

L 2

(A)

Q.35


2M p L

(B)

L 2

4M p

L 3

(C)

L

6M p

(D)

L

8M p L

The tension (in kN) in a 10 m long cable, shown in the figure, neglecting its self-weight is 3m

3m S

P

Q

y

Cable

Cable R 120 kN

(A) 120

Q.36

(B) 75

(C) 60

(D) 45

For the state of stresses (in MPa) shown in the figure below, the maximum shear stress (in MPa) is _______________ 4 4 2

2

4 Q.37

An infinitely long slope is made up of a c-φ soil having the properties: cohesion (c) = 20 kPa, and dry unit weight (γd) = 16 kN/m3. The angle of inclination and critical height of the slope are 40° and 5 m, respectively. To maintain the limiting equilibrium, the angle of internal friction of the soil (in degrees) is _________________


GATE 2014 Q.38

SET-2


Group I enlists in-situ field tests carried out for soil exploration, while Group II provides a list of parameters for sub-soil strength characterization. Match the type of tests with the characterization parameters. Group I

Group II

P. Pressuremeter Test (PMT) Q. Static Cone Penetration Test (SCPT) R. Standard Penetration Test (SPT) S. Vane Shear Test (VST)

(A) P - 1; Q - 3; R - 2; S - 4 (C) P - 2; Q - 3; R - 4; S - 1

1. 2. 3. 4.

Menard’s modulus (Em) Number of blows (N) Skin resistance (fc) Undrained cohesion (cu)

(B) P - 1; Q - 2; R - 3; S - 4 (D) P - 4; Q - 1; R - 2; S - 3

Q.39

A single vertical friction pile of diameter 500 mm and length 20 m is subjected to a vertical compressive load. The pile is embedded in a homogeneous sandy stratum where: angle of internal friction (φ) = 30°, dry unit weight (γd) = 20 kN/m3 and angle of wall friction (δ) = 2φ/3. Considering the coefficient of lateral earth pressure (K) = 2.7 and the bearing capacity factor (Nq) = 25, the ultimate bearing capacity of the pile (in kN) is _______________

Q.40

A circular raft foundation of 20 m diameter and 1.6 m thick is provided for a tank that applies a bearing pressure of 110 kPa on sandy soil with Young's modulus, Es' = 30 MPa and Poisson's ratio, υs = 0.3. The raft is made of concrete (Ec = 30 GPa and υc = 0.15). Considering the raft as rigid, the elastic settlement (in mm) is (A) 50.96

(B) 53.36

(C) 63.72

(D) 66.71

Q.41

A horizontal nozzle of 30 mm diameter discharges a steady jet of water into the atmosphere at a rate of 15 litres per second. The diameter of inlet to the nozzle is 100 mm. The jet impinges normal to a flat stationary plate held close to the nozzle end. Neglecting air friction and considering the density of water as 1000 kg/m3, the force exerted by the jet (in N) on the plate is _________

Q.42

A venturimeter having a throat diameter of 0.1 m is used to estimate the flow rate of a horizontal pipe having a diameter of 0.2 m. For an observed pressure difference of 2 m of water head and coefficient of discharge equal to unity, assuming that the energy losses are negligible, the flow rate (in m3/s) through the pipe is approximately equal to (A) 0.500

Q.43

(B) 0.150

(C) 0.050

(D) 0.015

A rectangular channel of 2.5 m width is carrying a discharge of 4 m3/s. Considering that acceleration due to gravity as 9.81 m/s2, the velocity of flow (in m/s) corresponding to the critical depth (at which the specific energy is minimum) is _______


GATE 2014

SET-2


Q.44

Irrigation water is to be provided to a crop in a field to bring the moisture content of the soil from the existing 18% to the field capacity of the soil at 28%. The effective root zone of the crop is 70 cm. If the densities of the soil and water are 1.3 g/cm3 and 1.0 g/cm3 respectively, the depth of irrigation water (in mm) required for irrigating the crop is ________

Q.45

With reference to a standard Cartesian (x, y) plane, the parabolic velocity distribution profile of fully developed laminar flow in x-direction between two parallel, stationary and identical plates that are separated by distance, h, is given by the expression

�=−

� 2 ℎ2 �� 1 − 4 � � � ℎ 8� ��

In this equation, the y = 0 axis lies equidistant between the plates at a distance h/2 from the two plates, p is the pressure variable and µ is the dynamic viscosity term. The maximum and average velocities are, respectively

(A) (B) (C) (D)

�� = −

�� =

ℎ2

8� ��

8� ��

�� = − �� =

ℎ 2 ��

ℎ2

ℎ2

and

��

8� ��

8� ��

and

3

2

�� = �� 3

and

and

2

�� = �� 3

�� = �� 8

3

�� = �� 8

Q.46

A suspension of sand like particles in water with particles of diameter 0.10 mm and below is flowing into a settling tank at 0.10 m3/s. Assume g = 9.81 m/s2, specific gravity of particles = 2.65, and kinematic viscosity of water =1.0105×10−2 cm2/s. The minimum surface area (in m2) required for this settling tank to remove particles of size 0.06 mm and above with 100% efficiency is _______________

Q.47

A surface water treatment plant operates round the clock with a flow rate of 35 m3/min. The water temperature is 15 oC and jar testing indicated an alum dosage of 25 mg/l with flocculation at a Gt value of 4×104 producing optimal results. The alum quantity required for 30 days (in kg) of operation of the plant is ____________

Q.48

An effluent at a flow rate of 2670 m3/d from a sewage treatment plant is to be disinfected. The laboratory data of disinfection studies with a chlorine dosage of 15 mg/l yield the model N t = N o e −0.145t where Nt = number of micro-organisms surviving at time t (in min.) and No = number of micro-organisms present initially (at t = 0). The volume of disinfection unit (in m3) required to achieve a 98% kill of micro-organisms is ______________


GATE 2014 Q.49

SET-2


A waste water stream (flow = 2 m3/s, ultimate BOD = 90 mg/l) is joining a small river (flow = 12 m3/s, ultimate BOD = 5 mg/l). Both water streams get mixed up instantaneously. Crosssectional area of the river is 50 m2. Assuming the de-oxygenation rate constant, k' = 0.25/day, the BOD (in mg/l) of the river water, 10 km downstream of the mixing point is

(A) 1.68

(B) 12.63

(C) 15.46

(D) 1.37

Q.50

In a Marshall sample, the bulk specific gravity of mix and aggregates are 2.324 and 2.546 respectively. The sample includes 5% of bitumen (by total weight of mix) of specific gravity 1.10. The theoretical maximum specific gravity of mix is 2.441. The void filled with bitumen (VFB) in the Marshall sample (in %) is ___________

Q.51

A student riding a bicycle on a 5 km one-way street takes 40 minutes to reach home. The student stopped for 15 minutes during this ride. 60 vehicles overtook the student (assume the number of vehicles overtaken by the student is zero) during the ride and 45 vehicles while the student stopped. The speed of vehicle stream on that road (in km/hr) is (A) 7.5

Q.52

(B) 12

(C) 40

(D) 60

2 k] ; 3 where � is in km/h and � is in veh/km. The capacity (in veh/h) of this section of the highway would be

On a section of a highway the speed-density relationship is linear and is given by v = [80 −

(A) 1200

(B) 2400

(C) 4800

(D) 9600

Q.53

A pre-timed four phase signal has critical lane flow rate for the first three phases as 200, 187 and 210 veh/hr with saturation flow rate of 1800 veh/hr/lane for all phases. The lost time is given as 4 seconds for each phase. If the cycle length is 60 seconds, the effective green time (in seconds) of the fourth phase is ______________

Q.54

A tacheometer was placed at point P to estimate the horizontal distances PQ and PR. The corresponding stadia intercepts with the telescope kept horizontal, are 0.320 m and 0.210 m, respectively. The ∠QPR is measured to be 61o 30' 30". If the stadia multiplication constant = 100 and stadia addition constant = 0.10 m, the horizontal distance (in m) between the points Q and R is _________________ Q P R


GATE 2014 Q.55

SET-2


The chainage of the intersection point of two straights is 1585.60 m and the angle of intersection is 140o. If the radius of a circular curve is 600.00 m, the tangent distance (in m) and length of the curve (in m), respectively are (A) 418.88 and 1466.08 (C) 218.38 and 418.88

(B) 218.38 and 1648.49 (D) 418.88 and 218.38



GATE 2014 - Answer Keys (SET -2) General Aptitude - GA Q. No. 1 2 3 4

Key / Range

Q. No. 5 6 7 8

Key / Range

Q. No. 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27

9

Key / Range B 88 to 88 B D B B B 40.00 to 40.00 D

10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19

3.5 to 3.5 B 0 to 0 A D D 81.0 to 81.5 D D D

D A C 25 to 25

Q. No. 9 10

Key / Range

Key / Range D A C 20.0 to 20.0 D D A 0.25 to 0.28

Q. No. 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46

Key / Range 6150 to 6190 B 318 to 319 C 2.45 to 2.55 91 to 91 A 31.0 to 32.0

28

2.0 to 2.0

47

29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38

3.0 to 3.0 B 2.38 to 2.45 50.0 to 50.0 C C B 5.0 to 5.0 21.0 to 23.0 A

48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55

37800 to 37800 49.0 to 51.0 C 62 to 66 D B 14.0 to 18.0 28.0 to 29.0 C

A A C D

C 0.48 to 0.49

Civil Engineering - CE Q. No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8


GATE 2013 Solved Paper CE:CIVIL ENGINEERING Maximum Marks:100

Duration: Three Hours

Paper specific instructions:

1. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. Questions are of multiple choice type or numerical answer type. A multiple choice type question will have four choices for the answer with only one correct choice. For numerical answer type questions, the answer is a number and no choices will be given. A number as the answer should be entered using the virtual keyboard on the monitor. 2. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2marks each. The 2marks questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is not attempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated. 3. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks. Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2marks each. 4. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark. Wrong answers for multiple choice type questions will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, ̃ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, ̄ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question. There is no negative marking for questions of numerical answer type. 5. Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. 6. Do the rough work in the Scribble Pad provided.


GATE 2013


Q. 1 – Q. 25carries one mark each. Q.1

There is no value of x that can simultaneously satisfy both the given equations.Therefore, find the ‘least squares error’ solution to the two equations, i.e., find the value of that minimizes the sum of squares of the errors in the two equations. __________

Q.2

What is the minimum number of multiplications involved in computing the matrix product PQR? Matrix has 4 rows and 2 columns, matrix has 2 rows and 4 columns, and matrix has 4 rows and 1 column. __________

Q.3

A 1-h rainfall of 10 cm magnitude at a station has a return period of 50 years. The probability that a 1-h rainfall of magnitude 10 cm or more will occur in each oftwo successive years is: (A) 0.04

Q.4

0.2

(C)0.02

(B) 1.0

(C) 1.5

(D) 2.0

As per IS 800:2007, the cross-section in which the extreme fiber can reach the yield stress, but cannot develop the plastic moment of resistance due to failure by local buckling is classified as (A) plastic section (C) semi-compact section

Q.6

(D) 0.0004

Maximum possible value of Compacting Factor for fresh (green) concrete is: (A) 0.5

Q.5

(B)

(B) compact section (D) slender section

The creep strains are (A) caused due to dead loads only (B) caused due to live loads only (C) caused due to cyclic loads only (D) independent of loads

Q.7

As per IS 456:2000 for M20 grade concrete and plain barsin tension the design bond stress . .Further, IS 456:2000 permits this design bond stress value to be increased by % . Find the for HSD bars. The stress in theHSDreinforcing steel barsin tension, required development length, , for HSD barsin terms of the bar diameter, . __________

Q.8

The ‘plane section remains plane’ assumption in bending theory implies: (A) strain profile is linear (B) stress profile is linear (C) both strain and stress profiles are linear (D)shear deformations are neglected


GATE 2013 Q.9

) and Q (length and yield Two steel columns P (length and yield strength ) have the same cross-sections and end-conditions. The ratio of buckling strength load of column P to that of column Q is:

(A) 0.5

Q.10


(B) 1.0

(C) 2.0

(D) 4.0

The pin-jointed 2-D truss is loaded with a horizontal force of at joint S and another vertical force at joint U, as shown.Find the force in member RS (in ) and report your answer taking tension as positive and compression as negative. __________ 4m

4m

4m

R

S

15 4m

Q

V

U

T

4m 15 W

Q.11

Q.12

A symmetric I-section (with width of each flange depth of web = 100 mm, and thickness of web . Find the magnitude of the shear stress(in flange. __________

In its natural condition, a soil sample has a mass of . and a volume of . . After being completely dried in an oven, the mass of the sample is . .Specific gravity is . . Unit weight of water is / . The degree of saturation of the soil is:

(A) 0.65

Q.13

/

, thickness of each flange , ) of steel is subjected to a shear force of in the web at its junction with the top

(B) 0.70

(C) 0.54

(D) 0.61

The ratio Nf/Nd is known as shape factor, where Nf is the number of flow lines and Nd is the number of equipotential drops. Flow net is always drawn with a constant b/a ratio, where b and a are distances between two consecutive flow lines and equipotential lines, respectively. Assuming that b/a ratio remains the same, the shape factor of aflow net will change if the (A) upstream and downstream heads are interchanged (B) soil in the flow space is changed (C) dimensions of the flow space are changed (D) head difference causing the flow is changed


GATE 2013 Q.14


Following statementsare made on compacted soils, wherein DS stands forthe soils compacted on dry side of optimum moisture content and WS stands for thesoils compacted on wet side of optimum moisture content. Identify the incorrect statement. (A) Soil structure is flocculated onDS and dispersed on WS. (B) Construction pore water pressure is low on DS and high on WS. (C)On drying, shrinkage is high on DS and low on WS. (D)On access to water, swelling is high on DS and low on WS.

Q.15

Four columns of a building are to be located within a plot size of 10 m x 10 m. The expected load on each column is 4000 kN. Allowable bearing capacity of the soil deposit is 100 kN/m2. The type of foundation best suited is (A) isolated footing (C) pile foundation

Q.16

(B) raft foundation (D)combined footing

For subcritical flow in an open channel, the control section for gradually varied flow profiles is (A) at the downstream end (C) at both upstream and downstream ends

Q.17

(B) at the upstream end (D) at any intermediate section

Group-I contains dimensionless parameters and Group- II contains the ratios. Group-I P. Mach Number Q. Reynolds Number R. Weber Number S. Froude Number

Group -II 1. Ratio of inertial force and gravitational force 2. Ratio of fluid velocity and velocity of sound 3. Ratio of inertial force and viscous force 4. Ratio of inertial force and surface tension force

The correct match of dimensionless parameters in Group- I with ratios in Group-II is: (A) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1 (C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

Q.18

(B) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (D) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4

For a two dimensional flow field, the stream function  is given as 





3 2 y  x 2 . The 2

magnitude of discharge occurring between the stream lines passing through points (0,3) and (3,4) is: (A)

Q.19

6

(B)

3

(C)

1.5

(D)

2

An isohyet is a line joining points of (A) equal temperature (C) equal rainfall depth

(B) equal humidity (D) equal evaporation


GATE 2013 Q.20


Some of the water quality parameters are measured by titrating a water sample with a titrant. Group-I gives a list of parameters and Group-IIgives the list of titrants. Group-I

Group-II

P.Alkalinity Q. Hardness R. Chloride S. Dissolved oxygen

1. N/35.5 AgNO3 2. N/40 Na2S2O3 3. N/50 H2SO4 4. N/50 EDTA

The correct match of water quality parameters in Group-I with titrants in Group-II is: (A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (C)P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

Q.21

(B)P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

A water treatment plant is designed to treat 1 m3/s of raw water. It has 14 sand filters. Surface area of each filter is 50 m2. What is the loading rate (in backwashing? __________

Q.22

∙

) with two filters out of service for routine

Selectthe strength parameter of concrete usedindesign of plain jointed cement concrete pavements from the following choices: (A) Tensile strength (B) Compressive strength (C) Flexural strength (D) Shear strength

Q.23

It was observed that 150 vehicles crossed a particular location of a highway ina duration of 30 minutes. Assuming that vehicle arrival follows a negative exponential distribution, find out the number of time headways greater than 5 seconds in the above observation? __________

Q.24

For two major roads with divided carriageway crossing at right angle,a full clover leaf interchange with four indirect ramps is provided. Following statements are made on turning movements of vehiclesto all directions from both roads. Identify the correct statement: (A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.25

Merging from left is possible,butdiverging to left is notpossible. Both merging from left and diverging to left arepossible. Merging from left is not possible,butdiverging to left is possible. Neithermergingfrom left nordivergingto leftispossible.

The latitude and departure of a line AB are +78 m and -45.1 m, respectively. The whole circle bearing of the line AB is: (A) 30°

(B) 150°

(C) 210°

(D) 330°


GATE 2013


Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each. Q.26

The state of 2D-stress at a point is given by the following matrix of stresses:

What is the magnitude of maximum shear stressin MPa? (A) 50 Q.27

(B) 75

(C) 100

(D) 110

Find the magnitude of the error (correct to two decimal places) in the estimation of following integral using Simpson’s

 x 4

4

1 Rule. Take the step length as 1. __________ 3



 10 dx

0

 6

Q.28 The solution for

 cos

3 sin 3 6 d is:

4

0

(A) 0

Q.29

(B)

(C) 1

(D)

8 3

Find the value of λ such that the function f (x ) is a valid probability density function. __________

f ( x)   ( x  1)(2  x) 0 Q.30

1 15

for 1  x  2 otherwise

Laplace equation for water flow in soils is given below.

2H 2H 2H 0   z 2 y 2 x 2 Head H does not vary in y and z directions. Boundary conditions are: at x = 0, H = 5;and

dH  1 . dx

What is the value of H at x = 1.2? __________


GATE 2013 Q.31


All members in the rigid-jointed frame shown are prismatic and have the same flexural stiffness Find the magnitude of the bending moment at Q (in ) due to the given loading. __________ 3m

.

4m S

2m T

P

R 100 kNm

2m Q

Q.32

A uniform beam and free at the end

in the form of a quarter-circle of radius is fixed at end is applied as shown. The vertical downward displacement,

, where a load

, at the loaded point places). __________

is given by:

. Find the value of

(correct to 4-decimal

Q

W R P


GATE 2013

Civil Engineering - CE E

Q.33

u beam m weighing is suupported at E and F by cable ABCD. Determine the tension A uniform (in in segmeent AB of thiis cable (corrrect to 1-deccimal place). Assume thee cables ABC CD, BE and CF to be weightless. ___________

Q.34

haas internal hiinges in spanns and as shownn. The beam mmay be sub bjected to a Beaam ⁄ moving distribuuted verticall load of maaximum intensity of any leength anywh here on the beaam. The maaximum absoolute value of o the shear force f (in ) that can occcur due to this t loading justt to the right of support Q shall be: P

Q

5m

(A A) 30 Q.35

R

20 m

5m

(B B) 40

(C) 45

S

5m

5m

((D) 55

deep is pre-stresseed by meanss of 16 high A rectangular r c concrete beam m w wide and tensile wires, each e of 7 mm m diameter, located at m the bottom m face of th he beamat a from , what is the maximu um sagging givven section. If the effective pre-streess in the wires is bennding momennt (in ) (correct to 1-decimal 1 plaace) due to live l loadthat this sectiono of the beam cann withstand without w caussing tensile stress s at the bottom face of the beam m? Neglect th he effect of deaad load of beam. ___________


GATE 2013 Q.36


The soil profile below a lake with water level at elevation m and lake bottom at elevation m is shown in the figure, where k is the permeability coefficient. A piezometer (stand pipe) installed in the sand layer shows a reading of +10 m elevation. Assume that thepiezometric headis uniform in the sand layer. The quantity of water (in m3/s) flowing into the lake from the sand layer through the silt layer per unit area of the lake bed is:

(A) 1.5 x 10-6 (C) 1.0 x 10-6

Q.37

(B) 2.0 x 10-6 (D) 0.5 x 10-6

The soil profile above the rock surface for a 25oinfinite slope is shown in the figure, where su is the undrained shear strength and t is total unit weight. The slip will occur at a depth of

(A) 8.83 m

(B) 9.79 m

(C) 7.83 m

(D) 6.53 m


GATE 2013 Q.38


Two different soil types (Soil 1 and Soil 2) are used as backfill behind a retaining wall as shown in the figure, where t is total unit weight, and c' and ' are effective cohesion and effective angle of shearing resistance. The resultant active earth forceper unit length (in kN/m) acting on the wall is:

Retaining wall

2 m

2 m

(A) 31.7 Q.39

20.1

(D) 57.0

(B)0.35

(C) 2.52

(D) 1.25

(B) 15.4

(C)

10.5

(D) 17.2

The transplantation of rice requires 10 days and total depth of water required during transplantation is 48 cm. During transplantation, there is an effective rainfall (useful for irrigation) of 8 cm. The duty of irrigation water (in hectares/cumec) is: (A) 612

Q.42

(C) 51.8

The normal depth in a wide rectangular channel is increased by 10%. The percentage increase in the discharge in the channel is: (A)

Q.41

Soil 2: t = 20 kN/m3; c' = 0; ' = 40o

A 2 km long pipe of 0.2 m diameter connects two reservoirs. The difference between water levels in the reservoirs is 8 m. The Darcy-Weisbachfriction factor of the pipe is 0.04. Accounting for frictional, entry and exit losses, the velocity in the pipe (in m/s) is: (A) 0.63

Q.40

(B) 35.2

Soil 1: t = 15 kN/m3; c' = 0; ' = 30o

(B) 216

(C)300

(D) 108

A settling tank in a water treatment plant is designed for a surface overflow rate of30

∙

.

Assumespecific gravity of sedimentparticles = 2.65, density of water (ρ) = 1000 kg/m3, dynamic viscosity of water (µ)=0.001 N.s/m2,and Stokes’ lawisvalid.The approximate minimum size of particles that would be completely removed is: (A) 0.01mm Q.43

(B) 0.02 mm(C) 0.03 mm(D) 0.04 mm

A student began experiment for determination of 5-day, 20°C BOD on Monday. Since the 5thday fell on Saturday, the final DO readings were taken on next Monday. On calculation, BOD (i.e. 7 day, 20°C) was found to be 150 mg/L. What would be the5-day, 20°C BOD (in mg/L)? Assume value of BOD rate constant (k) at standard temperature of 20°C as 0.23/day (base e). __________


GATE 2013 Q.44


Elevation and temperature data for a place are tabulated below: Elevation, m 4 444

Temperature, °C 21.25 15.70

Based on the above data, lapse rate can be referred as: (A) Super-adiabatic Q.45

(C) Sub-adiabatic

(D) Inversion

The percent voids in mineral aggregate (VMA) and percent air voids (Vv) in a compacted cylindrical bituminous mix specimen are 15 and 4.5respectively. The percent voids filled with bitumen (VFB) for this specimen is: (A) 24

Q.46

(B) Neutral

(B) 30

(C) 54

(D) 70

Following bearings are observed while traversing with a compass. Line AB BC CD DE EA

Fore Bearing 126°45´ 49°15´ 340°30´ 258°30´ 212°30´

Back Bearing 308°00´ 227°30´ 161°45´ 78°30´ 31°45´

After applying the correction due to local attraction, the corrected fore bearing of line BC will be: (A) 48°15´ Q.47

(B)50°15´

(C) 49°45´

(D) 48°45´

A theodolite is set up at station A and a 3 m long staff is held vertically at station B. The depression angle reading at 2.5 m marking on the staffis 6°10´. The horizontal distance between A and B is 2200 m. Height of instrument at station A is 1.1 m and R.L. of A is 880.88 m.Apply the curvature and refraction correction, and determine the R.L. of B (in m). __________

Common Data Questions Common Data for Questions 48 and 49: A propped cantilever made of a prismatic steel beam is subjected to a concentrated load P at mid span as P shown.

R 1.5m

1.5m

Q.48

If load __________

Q.49

If the magnitude of load is increased till collapse and the plastic moment carrying capacity of steel beam section is , determine reaction (in )(correct to 1-decimal place) using plastic analysis. __________

,find the reaction (in

) (correct to 1-decimal place)using elastic analysis.


GATE 2013


Common Data for Questions 50 and 51: For a portion of national highway where a descending gradient of 1 in 25 meets with an ascending gradient of 1 in 20, a valley curve needs to be designed for a vehicle travelling at 90 kmphbased on the following conditions. (i) (ii)

headlight sight distance equalto the stopping sight distance (SSD) of a level terrain consideringlength of valley curve> SSD. comfort condition with allowablerate of change of centrifugal acceleration = 0.5 m/sec3.

Assume total reaction time = 2.5 seconds; coefficient of longitudinal friction of the pavement= 0.35; height of head light of the vehicle =0.75 m; andbeam angle = 1°. Q.50

What is the length of valley curve (in m) based on the head light sight distance condition? __________

Q.51

What is the length of valley curve (in m)based on the comfort condition? __________

Linked Answer Questions Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53: A multistory building with a basement is to be constructed. The top 4 m consists of loose silt, below which dense sand layer is present up to a great depth. Ground water table is at the surface. The foundation consists of the basement slab of 6 m width which will rest on the top of dense sand as shown in the figure. For dense sand, saturated unit weight = 20kN/m3, and bearing capacity factors Nq = 40 and N = 45. For loose silt, saturated unit weight = 18kN/m3, Nq = 15 and N = 20.Effective cohesion c' is zero for both soils.Unit weight of water is 10 kN/m3. Neglect shape factor and depth factor. Average elastic modulus E and Poisson’s ratio  of dense sand is 60 x 103kN/m2 and 0.3 respectively.

Ground surface Loose silt 4 m

Loose silt

Basement Foundation slab

6 m Dense sand Q.52

Using factor of safety = 3, the net safe bearing capacity (in kN/m2) of the foundation is: (A) 610

Q.53

(B) 320

(C) 983

(D) 693

The foundation slab is subjected to vertical downward stresses equal to net safe bearing capacity derived in the above question. Using influence factor If = 2.0, and neglecting embedment depth and rigidity corrections, the immediate settlement of the dense sand layer will be: (A) 58 mm

(B) 111 mm

(C) 126 mm

(D) 179 mm


GATE 2013


Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55:

At a station, Storm I of 5 hour duration with intensity 2 cm/h resulted in a runoff of 4 cm and Storm II of 8 hour duration resulted in a runoff of 8.4 cm. Assume that the ϕ-index is the same for both the storms. Q.54

The ϕ-index (in cm/h) is: (A)1.2

Q.55

(B)1.0

(C)1.6

(D) 1.4

(C)1.50

(D)2.25

The intensity of storm II (in cm/h) is: (A)

2.00

(B)1.75

General Aptitude (GA) Questions


A number is as much greater than 75 as it is smaller than 117. The number is: (A) 91

Q.57

(C) 89

(D) 96

The professor ordered to the students to go out of the class. I II III IV Which of the above underlined parts of the sentence is grammatically incorrect? (A) I

Q.58

(B) 93

(B) II

(C) III

(D) IV

Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below: Primeval (A) Modern (C) Primitive

Q.59

(B) Historic (D) Antique

Friendship, no matter how _________it is, has its limitations. (A) cordial (B) intimate (C) secret (D) pleasant

Q.60

Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the pair: Medicine: Health (A) Science: Experiment (C) Education: Knowledge

(B) Wealth: Peace (D) Money: Happiness


GATE 2013


Q. 61 to Q. 65 carry two marks each. Q.61

X and Y are two positive real numbers such that , following values of , the function

and . For which of the will give maximum value?

(A) (4/3, 10/3) (B) (8/3, 20/3) (C) (8/3, 10/3) (D) (4/3, 20/3) Q.62

If |

(A) 2, 1/3 Q.63

|

then the values of (B) 1/2, 3

| |

|

| is:

(C) 3/2, 9

(D) 2/3, 9

Following table provides figures (in rupees) on annual expenditure of a firm for two years - 2010 and 2011. Category

2010

2011

Raw material

5200

6240

Power & fuel

7000

9450

Salary & wages

9000

12600

Plant & machinery

20000

25000

Advertising

15000

19500

Research & Development

22000

26400

In 2011, which of the following two categories have registered increase by same percentage? (A) Raw material and Salary & wages (B) Salary & wages and Advertising (C) Power & fuel and Advertising (D) Raw material and Research & Development Q.64

A firm is selling its product at Rs. 60 per unit. The total cost of production is Rs. 100 and firm is earning total profit of Rs. 500. Later, the total cost increased by 30%. By what percentage the price should be increased to maintained the same profit level. (A) 5

Q.65

(B) 10

(C) 15

(D) 30

Abhishek is elder to Savar. Savar is younger to Anshul. Which of the given conclusions is logically valid and is inferred from the above statements? (A) Abhishek is elder to Anshul (B) Anshul is elder to Abhishek (C) Abhishek and Anshul are of the same age (D) No conclusion follows

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by

GATE 2013 - Answer Keys Civil Engineering - CE Q. No 1 2 3

Key/Range 0.5 16 D

Q. No 23 24 25

Key/Range Marks to All B D

Q. No 45 46 47

4 5 6 7 8 9 10

B C A 46 to 47 A D 0

26 27 28 29 30 31 32

48 49 50 51 52 53 54

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22

70 to 72 C C C C A C B C B 143 to 145 C

33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44

A 0.52 to 0.55 B 6 3.8 25 0.785 to 0.786 1310 to 1313 C 85.5 to 86.5 D A A A D B B 127 to 132 A

Key/Range D D 641.9 to 642.3 25 60 308 to 311 106 to 107 Marks to All Marks to All A

55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65

D D B C B C A B D A D


GATE 2012 Solved Paper CE : CIVIL ENGINEERING Duration: Three Hours

Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator. 2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully. 3. On the right half of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ball point pen, (i) darken the bubble corresponding to your test paper code and the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration number and (ii) write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre and put your signature at the specified location. 4. This Question Booklet contains 16 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are permitted to open the seal, please check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator. 5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ball point pen against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response. 6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ball point pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken the bubbles in the ORS very carefully. 7. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated. 8. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks. Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2 marks each. 9. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, ̃ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, ̄ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question. 10. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. 11. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the question paper for rough work. 12. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided below using a black ink ball point pen. Name Registration Number

CE


GATE 2012


Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each. 1.5

Q.1

The estimate of

dx obtained using Simpson’s rule with three-point function evaluation exceeds x 0.5



the exact value by (A) 0.235 Q.2

(D) 0.012

(C) 75%

(D) 100%

x 2 x3 x 4    ... corresponds to 2! 3! 4!

(B) ex

(C) cos x

(D) 1+sin2x

The Poisson’s ratio is defined as axial stress lateral stress

(A) Q.5

(B) 50%

The infinite series 1  x  (A) sec x

Q.4

(C) 0.024

The annual precipitation data of a city is normally distributed with mean and standard deviation as 1000 mm and 200 mm, respectively. The probability that the annual precipitation will be more than 1200 mm is (A) < 50%

Q.3

(B) 0.068

(B)

lateral strain axial strain

(C)

lateral stress axial stress

axial strain lateral strain

(D)

The following statements are related to bending of beams: I II III IV

The slope of the bending moment diagram is equal to the shear force. The slope of the shear force diagram is equal to the load intensity. The slope of the curvature is equal to the flexural rotation. The second derivative of the deflection is equal to the curvature.

The only FALSE statement is (A) I Q.6

(B) II

(B)

p 2

(C) p

fy Es

(B)

fy Es

 0.002

(C)

fy 1.15 Es

(D)

fy 1.15Es

 0.002

Which one of the following is categorised as a long-term loss of prestress in a prestressed concrete member? (A) Loss due to elastic shortening (C) Loss due to relaxation of strands

Q.9

(D) 2p

As per IS 456:2000, in the Limit State Design of a flexural member, the strain in reinforcing bars under tension at ultimate state should not be less than (A)

Q.8

(D) IV

If a small concrete cube is submerged deep in still water in such a way that the pressure exerted on all faces of the cube is p, then the maximum shear stress developed inside the cube is (A) 0

Q.7

(C) III

(B) Loss due to friction (D) Loss due to anchorage slip

In a steel plate with bolted connections, the rupture of the net section is a mode of failure under (A) tension

(B) compression

(C) flexure

(D) shear


Q.10

The ratio of the theoretical critical buckling load for a column with fixed ends to that of another column with the same dimensions and material, but with pinned ends, is equal to (A) 0.5

Q.11

Q.12

(B) 1.0

(C) 2.0

(D) 4.0

The effective stress friction angle of a saturated, cohesionless soil is 38. The ratio of shear stress to normal effective stress on the failure plane is (A) 0.781 (B) 0.616 (C) 0.488 (D) 0.438 Two series of compaction tests were performed in the laboratory on an inorganic clayey soil employing two different levels of compaction energy per unit volume of soil. With regard to the above tests, the following two statements are made. I The optimum moisture content is expected to be more for the tests with higher energy. II The maximum dry density is expected to be more for the tests with higher energy. The CORRECT option evaluating the above statements is (A) Only I is TRUE (C) Both I and II are TRUE

Q.13

Q.14

(B) Only II is TRUE (D) Neither I nor II is TRUE

As per the Indian Standard soil classification system, a sample of silty clay with liquid limit of 40% and plasticity index of 28% is classified as (A) CH (B) CI (C) CL A smooth rigid retaining wall moves as shown in the sketch causing the backfill material to fail. The backfill material is homogeneous and isotropic, and obeys the Mohr-Coulomb failure criterion. The major principal stress is

(D) CL-ML

(A) parallel to the wall face and acting downwards (B) normal to the wall face (C) oblique to the wall face acting downwards (D) oblique to the wall face acting upwards

Q.15

An embankment is to be constructed with a granular soil (bulk unit weight = 20 kN/m3) on a saturated clayey silt deposit (undrained shear strength = 25 kPa). Assuming undrained general shear failure and bearing capacity factor of 5.7, the maximum height (in m) of the embankment at the point of failure is

Q.16

(A) 7.1 (B) 5.0 (C) 4.5 (D) 2.5 A trapezoidal channel is 10.0 m wide at the base and has a side slope of 4 horizontal to 3 vertical. The bed slope is 0.002. The channel is lined with smooth concrete (Manning’s n = 0.012). The hydraulic radius (in m) for a depth of flow of 3.0 m is

Q.17

(A) 20.0 (B) 3.5 (C) 3.0 (D) 2.1 A rectangular open channel of width 5.0 m is carrying a discharge of 100 m3/s. The Froude number of the flow is 0.8. The depth of flow (in m) in the channel is (A) 4

(B) 5

(C) 16

(D) 20

GATE 2012

Q.18


The circular water pipes shown in the sketch are flowing full. The velocity of flow (in m/s) in the branch pipe “R” is

P

dia = 4 m

Q

V = 6 m/s

V = 5 m/s R V=?

(A) 3 Q.19

(B) 4

(B) 0.6 to 0.9

(D) 1.0 to 2.0

(B) potassium dichromate (D) sulphuric acid

Assertion [a]: At a manhole, the crown of the outgoing sewer should not be higher than the crown of the incoming sewer. Reason [r]: Transition from a larger diameter incoming sewer to a smaller diameter outgoing sewer at a manhole should not be made. The CORRECT option evaluating the above statements is : (A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.22

(C) 0.0 to 1.0

A sample of domestic sewage is digested with silver sulphate, sulphuric acid, potassium dichromate and mercuric sulphate in chemical oxygen demand (COD) test. The digested sample is then titrated with standard ferrous ammonium sulphate (FAS) to determine the un-reacted amount of (A) mercuric sulphate (C) silver sulphate

Q.21

(D) 6

The ratio of actual evapo-transpiration to potential evapo-transpiration is in the range (A) 0.0 to 0.4

Q.20

(C) 5

dia = 2 m

Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a] Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a] Both [a] and [r] are false [a] is true but [r] is false

Two major roads with two lanes each are crossing in an urban area to form an un-controlled intersection. The number of conflict points when both roads are one-way is “X” and when both roads are two-way is “Y”. The ratio of X to Y is (A) 0.25

(B) 0.33

(C) 0.50

(D) 0.75

Q.23

Two bitumen samples “X” and “Y” have softening points 45C and 60C, respectively. Consider the following statements:

I.

I Viscosity of “X” will be higher than that of “Y” at the same temperature. II Penetration value of “X” will be lesser than that of “Y” under standard conditions. The CORRECT option evaluating the above statements is (A) Both I and II are TRUE (C) Both I and II are FALSE

Q.24

(B) I is FALSE and II is TRUE (D) I is TRUE and II is FALSE

Road roughness is measured using (A) Benkelman beam (C) Dynamic cone penetrometer

(B) Bump integrator (D) Falling weight deflectometer


GATE 2012

Q.25


Which of the following errors can be eliminated by reciprocal measurements in differential leveling? I Error due to earth’s curvature II Error due to atmospheric refraction (A) Both I and II

(B) I only

(C) II only

(D) Neither I nor II

Q. 26 - Q. 55 carry two marks each. Q.26

The error in

d for a continuous function estimated with h = 0.03 using the central f ( x) dx x  x0

difference formula

f ( x0  h)  f ( x0  h) d , is 2×10−3. The values of x0 and f(x0) are f ( x)  dx 2 h x x0

19.78 and 500.01, respectively. The corresponding error in the central difference estimate for h = 0.02 is approximately (A) 1.3×10−4 Q.27

1 32

(B)

(D) 9.0×10−4

2 32

(C)

3 32

(D)

6 32

9 5 

The eigenvalues of matrix   are 5 8  (A) -2.42 and 6.86

Q.29

(C) 4.5×10−4

In an experiment, positive and negative values are equally likely to occur. The probability of obtaining at most one negative value in five trials is (A)

Q.28

(B) 3.0×10−4

(B) 3.48 and 13.53

(C) 4.70 and 6.86

(D) 6.86 and 9.50

For the parallelogram OPQR shown in the sketch, OP  a iˆ  b ˆj and OR  c iˆ  d ˆj . The area of the parallelogram is Q R P O

Q.30

(A) a d – b c

(B) a c + b d

(C) a d + b c

(D) a b – c d

The solution of the ordinary differential equation

dy  2 y  0 for the boundary condition, y = 5 at dx

x = 1 is (A) y  e Q.31

2x

(B) y  2e2 x

(C) y  10.95 e2 x

(D) y  36.95 e2 x

A simply supported beam is subjected to a uniformly distributed load of intensity w per unit length, on half of the span from one end. The length of the span and the flexural stiffness are denoted as l and EI, respectively. The deflection at mid-span of the beam is (A)

5 wl 4 6144 EI

(B)

5 wl 4 768 EI

(C)

5 wl 4 384 EI

(D)

5 wl 4 192 EI


GATE 2012

Q.32


The sketch shows a column with a pin at the base and rollers at the top. It is subjected to an axial force P and a moment M at mid-height. The reaction(s) at R is/are

Q h/2

M

(A) a vertical force equal to P (B) a vertical force equal to P/2 (C) a vertical force equal to P and a horizontal force equal to M/h (D) a vertical force equal to P/2 and a horizontal force equal to M/h Q.33

P

h/2 R

A concrete beam prestressed with a parabolic tendon is shown in the sketch. The eccentricity of the tendon is measured from the centroid of the cross-section. The applied prestressing force at service is 1620 kN. The uniformly distributed load of 45 kN/m includes the self-weight.

500 750

145

Cross-section (tendon not shown)

7300 Sectional elevation

All dimensions are in mm The stress (in N/mm2) in the bottom fibre at mid-span is (A) tensile 2.90 (C) tensile 4.32 Q.34

A symmetric frame PQR consists of two inclined members PQ and QR, connected at ‘Q’ with a rigid joint, and hinged at ‘P’ and ‘R’. The horizontal length PR is l. If a weight W is suspended at ‘Q’, the bending moment at ‘Q’ is (A)

Q.35

(B) compressive 2.90 (D) compressive 4.32

Wl 2

(B)

Wl 4

(C)

Wl 8

Two plates are connected by fillet welds of size 10 mm and subjected to tension, as shown in the sketch. The thickness of each plate is 12 mm. The yield stress and the ultimate tensile stress of steel are 250 MPa and 410 MPa, respectively. The welding is done in the workshop (mw = 1.25). As per the Limit State Method of IS 800:2007, the minimum length (rounded off to the nearest higher multiple of 5 mm) of each weld to transmit a force P equal to 270 kN is

(D) zero P 100 mm

150 mm P

(A) 100 mm

(B) 105 mm

(C) 110 mm

(D) 115 mm


GATE 2012

Q.36


Two soil specimens with identical geometric dimensions were subjected to falling head permeability tests in the laboratory under identical conditions. The fall of water head was measured after an identical time interval. The ratio of initial to final water heads for the test involving the first specimen was 1.25. If the coefficient of permeability of the second specimen is 5-times that of the first, the ratio of initial to final water heads in the test involving the second specimen is (A) 3.05

Q.37

(B) 9 mm

(C) 14 mm

(D) 16 mm

(B) 15.89

(C) 16.38

P

2m

Q R

(D) 18.34

The top width and the depth of flow in a triangular channel were measured as 4 m and 1 m, respectively. The measured velocities on the centre line at the water surface, 0.2 m and 0.8 m below the surface are 0.7 m/s, 0.6 m/s and 0.4 m/s, respectively. Using two-point method of velocity measurement, the discharge (in m3/s) in the channel is (A) 1.4

Q.40

(D) 6.25

Steady state seepage is taking place through a soil element at Q, 2 m below the ground surface immediately downstream of the toe of an earthen dam as shown in the sketch. The water level in a piezometer installed at P, 500 mm above Q, is at the ground surface. The water level in a piezometer installed at R, 500 mm below Q, is 100 mm above the ground surface. The bulk saturated unit weight of the soil is 18 kN/m3 and the unit weight of water is 9.81 kN/m3. The vertical effective stress (in kPa) at Q is (A) 14.42

Q.39

(C) 4.00

A layer of normally consolidated, saturated silty clay of 1 m thickness is subjected to one dimensional consolidation under a pressure increment of 20 kPa. The properties of the soil are: specific gravity = 2.7, natural moisture content = 45%, compression index = 0.45, and recompression index = 0.05. The initial average effective stress within the layer is 100 kPa. Assuming Terzaghi’s theory to be applicable, the primary consolidation settlement (rounded off to the nearest mm) is (A) 2 mm

Q.38

(B) 3.80

(B) 1.2

(C) 1.0

(D) 0.8

Group I contains parameters and Group II lists methods/instruments. P. Q. R. S.

Group I Streamflow velocity Evapo-transpiration rate Infiltration rate Wind velocity

1. 2. 3. 4.

Group II Anemometer Penman’s method Horton’s method Current meter

The CORRECT match of Group I with Group II is (A) P – 1, Q – 2, R – 3, S – 4 (C) P – 4, Q – 2, R – 3, S – 1 Q.41

Wheat crop requires 55 cm of water during 120 days of base period. The total rainfall during this period is 100 mm. Assume the irrigation efficiency to be 60%. The area (in ha) of the land which can be irrigated with a canal flow of 0.01 m3/s is (A) 13.82

Q.42

(B) P – 4, Q – 3, R – 2, S – 1 (D) P – 1, Q – 3, R – 2, S – 4

(B) 18.85

(C) 23.04

(D) 230.40

A water sample has a pH of 9.25. The concentration of hydroxyl ions in the water sample is (A) 10−9.25 moles/L (C) 0.302 mg/L

(B) 10−4.75 mmoles/L (D) 3.020 mg/L


GATE 2012

Q.43

A town is required to treat 4.2 m3/min of raw water for daily domestic supply. Flocculating particles are to be produced by chemical coagulation. A column analysis indicated that an overflow rate of 0.2 mm/s will produce satisfactory particle removal in a settling basin at a depth of 3.5 m. The required surface area (in m2 ) for settling is (A) 210

Q.44

Q.45

Q.46

Q.47


(B) 350

(C) 1728

(D) 21000

A pavement designer has arrived at a design traffic of 100 million standard axles for a newly developing national highway as per IRC:37 guidelines using the following data: design life = 15 years, commercial vehicle count before pavement construction = 4500 vehicles/day, annual traffic growth rate = 8%. The vehicle damage factor used in the calculation was (A) 1.53 (B) 2.24 (C) 3.66 (D) 4.14 The following data are related to a horizontal curved portion of a two-lane highway: length of curve = 200 m, radius of curve = 300 m and width of pavement = 7.5 m. In order to provide a stopping sight distance (SSD) of 80 m, the set back distance (in m) required from the centre line of the inner lane of the pavement is (A) 2.54 (B) 4.55 (C) 7.10 (D) 7.96 A two-lane urban road with one-way traffic has a maximum capacity of 1800 vehicles/hour. Under the jam condition, the average length occupied by the vehicles is 5.0 m. The speed versus density relationship is linear. For a traffic volume of 1000 vehicles/hour, the density (in vehicles/km) is (A) 52 (B) 58 (C) 67 (D) 75 The horizontal distance between two stations P and Q is 100 m. The vertical angles from P and Q to the top of a vertical tower at T are 3 and 5 above horizontal, respectively. The vertical angles from P and Q to the base of the tower are 0.1 and 0.5 below horizontal, respectively. Stations P, Q and the tower are in the same vertical plane with P and Q being on the same side of T. Neglecting earth’s curvature and atmospheric refraction, the height (in m) of the tower is (A) 6.972

(B) 12.387

(C) 12.540

(D) 128.745

Common Data Questions Common Data for Questions 48 and 49: The flow net around a sheet pile wall is shown in the sketch. The properties of the soil are: permeability coefficient = 0.09 m/day (isotropic), specific gravity = 2.70 and void ratio = 0.85. The sheet pile wall and the bottom of the soil are impermeable.

Q.48

The seepage loss (in m3 per day per unit length of the wall) of water is (D) 0.54

Q.49

(A) 0.33 (B) 0.38 (C) 0.43 The factor of safety against the occurrence of piping failure is (A) 3.55

(D) 0.39

(B) 2.93

(C) 2.60


GATE 2012


Common Data for Questions 50 and 51: An activated sludge system (sketched below) is operating at equilibrium with the following information. Wastewater related data: flow rate = 500 m3/hour, influent BOD = 150 mg/L, effluent BOD = 10 mg/L. Aeration tank related data: hydraulic retention time = 8 hours, mean-cell-residence time = 240 hours, volume = 4000 m3, mixed liquor suspended solids = 2000 mg/L.

Influent

Aeration Tank

Secondary Clarifier

Effluent

Sludge Recycle Solids Wasted Q.50

The food-to-biomass (F/M) ratio (in kg BOD per kg biomass per day) for the aeration tank is (A) 0.015

Q.51

(B) 0.210

(C) 0.225

(D) 0.240

The mass (in kg/day) of solids wasted from the system is (A) 24000

(B) 1000

(C) 800

(D) 33

Linked Answer Questions Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53:

1000 The cross-section at mid-span of a beam at the edge of a slab is shown in the sketch. A portion of the slab is considered as the effective flange width for the beam. The grades of concrete and reinforcing steel are M25 and Fe415, respectively. The total area of reinforcing bars (As) is 4000 mm2. At the ultimate limit state, xu denotes the depth of the neutral axis from the top fibre. Treat the section as under-reinforced and flanged (xu > 100 mm).

Q.52

650

570 As 325 All dimensions are in mm.

The value of xu (in mm) computed as per the Limit State Method of IS 456:2000 is (A) 200.0

Q.53

100

(B) 223.3

(C) 236.3

(D) 273.6

The ultimate moment capacity (in kNm) of the section, as per the Limit State Method of IS 456:2000 is (A) 475.2

(B) 717.0

(C) 756.4

(D) 762.5


GATE 2012


Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55: The drainage area of a watershed is 50 km2. The  index is 0.5 cm/hour and the base flow at the outlet is 10 m3/s. One hour unit hydrograph (unit depth = 1 cm) of the watershed is triangular in shape with a time base of 15 hours. The peak ordinate occurs at 5 hours. Q.54

The peak ordinate (in m3/s/cm) of the unit hydrograph is (A) 10.00

Q.55

(B) 18.52

(C) 37.03

(D) 185.20

For a storm of depth of 5.5 cm and duration of 1 hour, the peak ordinate (in m3/s) of the hydrograph is (A) 55.00

(B) 82.60

(C) 92.60

(D) 102.60


GATE 2012


General Aptitude (GA) Questions Q. 56 – Q. 60 carry one mark each. Q.56 Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following sentence: Despite several ––––––––– the mission succeeded in its attempt to resolve the conflict. (A) attempts

(B) setbacks

(C) meetings

(D) delegations

Q.57 The cost function for a product in a firm is given by 5q2, where q is the amount of production. The firm can sell the product at a market price of 50 per unit. The number of units to be produced by the firm such that the profit is maximized is (A) 5

(B) 10

(C) 15

(D) 25

Q.58 Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following sentence: Suresh’s dog is the one ––––––––– was hurt in the stampede. (A) that

(B) which

(C) who

(D) whom

Q.59 Choose the grammatically INCORRECT sentence: (A) They gave us the money back less the service charges of Three Hundred rupees. (B) This country’s expenditure is not less than that of Bangladesh. (C) The committee initially asked for a funding of Fifty Lakh rupees, but later settled for a lesser sum. (D) This country’s expenditure on educational reforms is very less. Q.60 Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below? Mitigate (A) Diminish

(B) Divulge

(C) Dedicate

(D) Denote

Q. 61 - Q. 65 carry two marks each. Q.61 A political party orders an arch for the entrance to the ground in which the annual convention is being held. The profile of the arch follows the equation y = 2x – 0.1x2 where y is the height of the arch in meters. The maximum possible height of the arch is (A) 8 meters

(B) 10 meters

(C) 12 meters

(D) 14 meters

Q.62 Wanted Temporary, Part-time persons for the post of Field Interviewer to conduct personal interviews to collect and collate economic data. Requirements: High School-pass, must be available for Day, Evening and Saturday work. Transportation paid, expenses reimbursed. Which one of the following is the best inference from the above advertisement? (A) Gender-discriminatory (B) Xenophobic (C) Not designed to make the post attractive (D) Not gender-discriminatory


GATE 2012


Q.63 Given the sequence of terms, AD CG FK JP, the next term is (A) OV

(B) OW

(C) PV

(D) PW

Q.64 Which of the following assertions are CORRECT? P: Adding 7 to each entry in a list adds 7 to the mean of the list Q: Adding 7 to each entry in a list adds 7 to the standard deviation of the list R: Doubling each entry in a list doubles the mean of the list S: Doubling each entry in a list leaves the standard deviation of the list unchanged (A) P, Q

(B) Q, R

(C) P, R

(D) R, S

Q.65 An automobile plant contracted to buy shock absorbers from two suppliers X and Y. X supplies 60% and Y supplies 40% of the shock absorbers. All shock absorbers are subjected to a quality test. The ones that pass the quality test are considered reliable. Of X’s shock absorbers, 96% are reliable. Of Y’s shock absorbers, 72% are reliable. The probability that a randomly chosen shock absorber, which is found to be reliable, is made by Y is (A) 0.288

(B) 0.334

(C) 0.667

(D) 0.720



GATE 2012 - Answer Keys Civil Engineering – CE Q. No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22

Key / Range D A B B C A D C A D A B B B A D A B C B B Marks to Ali

Q. No. 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44

Key / Range C B A D D B A D B C B D B A D A C C A C B Marks to All

Q. No. 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65

Key / Range Marks to All C B B C Marks to All C C B B D B A Marks to All D A B D A C B


GATE Solved Question Papers for Civil Engineering [CE] by AglaSem.Com

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