POWER PLANT ENGINEERING HYDROELECTRIC PLANT, FLUID MACHINERIES, FLUID MECHANICS 1. This is a type of reaction turbine usually with typical spiral casing where water enters the runner radially at its outer periphery and changes direction (imparting energy to the runner) while flowing along the complex-shaped profiles to discharge axially. It is the most widely used type of hydraulic turbine for modern power generation purposes. a. Pelton Turbine b. Turgo Turbine c. Francis Turbine d. Kaplan Turbine 2. It is an expanding tube connecting the outlet passage of a turbine with the tail water. a. Draft Tube b. Penstock c. Forebay d. Surge Chamber 3. It is a hydroelectric plant in which excess water is pumped to an elevated space during off-peak period and the stored water will be used to drive hydraulic turbines during the peak period to meet the peak demand. a. Run-of-River Plant c. Pumped Storage Plant b. Storage Plant d. None of the above 4. It is a channel that conducts water away from the turbine. a. Headrace Pipe b. Penstock c. Forebay
d. Tailrace
5. This is a grid or screen composed of parallel bars to catch floating debris. It prevents leaves, branches, and other water contaminants from entering the penstock. a. Surge tank b. Butterfly valve c. Trash Rack d. Weir 6. It is the term used that refers to water in the reservoir. a. Headwater b. Tailwater c. Discharge
d. Stored water
7. This is a propeller- type reaction turbine with both adjustable guide vanes and runner blades. a. Kaplan Turbine b. Turgo Turbine c. Pelton Turbine d. Cross-flow 8. It is basically hydroelectric power utilizing the difference in elevation between high and low tide to produce energy. a. Water power b. Fluid Power c. Tidal Power d. Wave Power 9. The power output of this plant depends on the water flow in the river; at low river flows the decreases accordingly. a. Pumped Storage Plant b. Storage Plant c. Run-of-River Plant d. All of the above 10. The intake pipe to a hydraulic turbine from a dam. a. Forebay b. Penstock c. Draft tube
output
d. Tailrace
11. A kind of fluid flow where in the fluid travels parallel to the adjacent layers and the paths of individual particles do not cross or intersect. a. Turbulent flow b. Critical flow c. Laminar flow d. Steady flow 12. It conducts the water around the turbine. a. Spiral casing`b. Wicket gate c. Draft tube
d. Governor
13. These are movable vertical vanes that are actuated by the governor to control the flow of water and therefore the energy supplied to the runner. a. Spillway b. Headrace pipe c. Runner d. Wicket gate 14. The speed of a hypothetical model turbine having the same configuration as the actual turbine, when the model would be of the proper size to develop 1 hp at a head of 1 ft. a. Synchronous speed b. Runaway speed c. Specific speed d. Turbine speed 15. The difference in elevation between the headwater and the tailwater or tailrace. a. Dynamic head b. Gross head c. Net head d. Effective head 16. The ratio of the effective head to the gross head. a. Mechanical efficiency c. Hydraulic efficiency b. Penstock efficiency d. Volumetric efficiency
17. The ratio of the head utilized to the effective head. a. Mechanical efficiency c. Hydraulic efficiency b. Penstock efficiency d. Volumetric efficiency 18. Heads between 70 and 800 ft generally indicate this type of turbine. a. Impulse turbine b. Reaction turbine c. Propeller turbine
d. Pelton turbine
19. Heads below about 70 ft call for this type of turbine. a. Impulse turbine b. Reaction turbine c. Propeller turbine
d. Pelton turbine
20. The functions of this hydraulic turbine part are: (1) It enables the turbine to be set above the tailwater level without losing any head thereby. and (2) It reduces the head loss at submerged discharge to increase the net head available to the turbine runner. a. Spiral casing b. Wicket gate c. Draft tube d. Butterfly valve 21. It is a tank with free surface provided at the transition from the low-pressure headrace or tunnel to the penstock. It protects the headrace pipe or tunnel from excessive changes in pressure and supplying or storing water as required. a. Surge tank b. Butterfly valve c. Draft tube d. Spillway 22. The rotating part of the turbine where the water imparts its energy onto the turbine shaft. a. Runner b. Impeller c. Flywheel d. Lobe 23. The formation and collapse of vapor bubbles that occurs when the pump inlet suction pressure falls to or below the vapor pressure of the liquid is called a. Priming c. Foaming b. Cavitation d. Net positive suction head 24. A property of lubricating oil that measures the thickness of the oil and will help determine how long oil will flow at a given temperature is known as ________________. a. Pour point b. Relative density c. Flash Point d. Viscosity 25. A flow at low Reynold’s number with smooth steam lines and shear and conduction effects owing entirely to the fluids molecular viscosity and conductivity. a. Turbulent b. Critical c. Laminar d. Non-viscous
26. Flow of water in a pipe has a velocity at 10 meters per second. Determine the velocity head of the water. a. 50.1 meters b. 5.10 meters c. 8.20 meters d. 100 meters Solution: Velocity head = V2/2g = (10)2 / (2)(9.8066) = 5.099 m 27. The fact that the buoyant force on a floating object is equal to the weight of displaced liquid is known as a. Bernoulli’s theorem c. Archimedes’ principle b. Continuity equation d. Law of Conservation of mass 28. The primary purpose of a turbine in a fluid loop is to a. add energy to the flow c. add mass to the flow b. extract energy from the flow d. none of the above 29. It connects the turbine outlet to the tailwater so that the turbine can be set above the tailwater level. a. draft tube b. surge chamber c. penstock d. spillway 30. It provides an efficient and safe means of releasing flow water that exceeds the design capacity of the dam. a. draft tube b. surge chamber c. penstock d. spillway 31. The power required to deliver a given quantity of fluid against a given head with no losses in the pump is called: a. brake power b. indicated power c. hydraulic power d. none of the above 32. The velocity of fluid is zero at the wall and maximum at the center because of the a. velocity effect c. viscous effect b. temperature effect d. none of the above 33. The work termed for pumps, compressors, fans and blowers is negative since work a. done by the fluid c. done on the fluid b. rejected by the fluid d. none of the above 34. This is a type of water turbine where a jet of water is made to fall on the blades or buckets and due to the impulse of water the turbine will start moving. a. Steam turbine b. Reaction turbine c. Francis turbine d. Pelton wheel turbine 35. A device used to prevent water hammer in turbine. a. Governor c. guard b. Surge tank d. wicket gate
GEOTHERMAL PLANT, WIND POWER, OTEC, TIDAL POWER
36. This is a vent or hole in the earth’s surface usually in volcanic region, from which steam, gaseous vapors, or hot gases issue. a. Magma b. Fumarole c. Geyser d. Fault 37. The typical depth of a geothermal production well in meters. a. 1000 b. 1500 c. 3000
d. 4000
38. A wind energy system transforms the ______________________ of the wind into mechanical or electrical energy that can be harnessed for practical use. a. Potential Energy b. Internal Energy c. Heat Energy d. Kinetic Energy 39. It is the rhythmic rise and fall of the ocean waters. a. Tide range b. Wave c. Tide
c. Water current
40. The power available in the wind is proportional to the ________________ of its speed. a. Cube b. Square c. Fourth Power d. All of the above 41. It is the maximum tidal range. a. Neap tides b. Spring tide
c. Ebb tide
d. Tidal wave
STEAM PLANT, FUELS AND COMBUSTION & NUCLEAR POWER PLANT 42. Natural gas is considered _______________ when it is almost pure methane. a. Dry b. Wet c. Saturated d. Superheated 43. In this type of reactor, the water is heated by the nuclear fuel and boils to steam directly into the reactor vessel. It is then piped directly to the turbine. The turbine spins, driving the electrical generator, producing electricity. a. Heavy Water Reactor c. Boiling Water Reactor b. Pressurized Water Reactor d. All of the above 44. It is an air pollution control device that works by electrically charging the particles of fly ash in the flue gas and collecting them by attraction to charged metal plates. a. Wet scrubber b. Electrostatic Precipitator c. Bag houses d. Cyclone Separator 45. This nuclear reactor component, which is made up of carbon and beryllium, slows down the fast neutrons that are born during the fission process. a. Control Rods b. Moderator c. Coolant d. Reflector 46. These boron coated steel rods are used to regulate the rate of fission chain reaction. They are withdrawn from the core to start the chain reaction and inserted all the way into the core to stop it. a. Control Rods b. Moderator c. Coolant d. Reflector 47. In general usage, the term “combined cycle power plant” describes the combination of a gas turbine generator(s) (____________________ cycle) with turbine exhaust waste boiler(s) and steam turbine generator(s) (Rankine cycle) for the production of electrical power. a. Diesel Cycle b. Otto Cycle c. Reheat Cycle d. Brayton Cycle 48. Natural gas is a fossil fuel formed when layers of buried plants and animals are exposed to intense heat and pressure. It has been dubbed as the “fuel of the future” or “green fuel” and comprises mainly of _________________. a. Propane b. Butane c. Ethane d. Methane 49. It is the coal ash that exits a combustion chamber in the flue gas and is captured by air pollution control equipment such as electrostatic precipitators, baghouses, and wet scrubbers. a. Ash b. Bottoming Ash c. Fly Ash d. Refuse 50. Also known as brown coal, it is the lowest-rank solid coal with a calorific value of less than 8,300 Btu/lb on a moist mineral-matter free basis. a. Bituminous coal b. Peat c. Lignite d. Anthracite 51. It means using the same energy source for more than one purpose, such as using the waste heat from an engine for space heating. a. Superposing b. Topping c. Cogeneration d. Combined Cycle Plant 52. The minimum amount of air required for the complete combustion of fuel. a. Stoichiometric Air b. Excess Air c. Actual Air d. Percentage excess air 53. The device or instrument used for measuring the calorific value of a unit mass of fuel is called: a. calorimeter b. salimeter c. pyrometer d. thermometer
54. When water (H2O) in the products of combustion is in the vapor or gaseous form, the heating value is known as: a. Higher heating value (HHV) c. Lower heating value (LHV) b. Heating value (HV) d. Gross calorific value (GCV) 55. The percent excess air is the difference between the air actually supplied and the theoretical air required divided by: a. the theoretically air supplied c. the deficiency air supplied b. total air supplied d. none of the above 56. During a combustion process, the components which exist before the reaction are called ______ a. reactants b. products c. flue gases d. none of the above 57. The minimum amount of air needed for the complete combustion of fuel is called ________ a. excess air b. theoretical air c. combustion air d. none of the above 58. A gas which will not be found in the flue gases produced from the complete combustion of fuel oil is a. carbon dioxide b. hydrogen c. oxygen d. nitrogen 59. The higher heating value is determined when the water in the products of combustion is in a. solid form b. vapor form c. liquid form d. gas form 60. The amount of heat liberated by the complete combustion of a unit weight or volume of fuel is known as: a. heating value b. latent heat c. sensible heat d. work of compression 61. An “ attemporator ” is another name for a. Dry pipe c. Reheater b. Superheater d. Desuperheater 62. What is the fundamental indicator of good combustion? a. Colorless smoke. b. Releasing maximum nitrogen content of the combustion with minimum oxygen, carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide content. c. Presence of minimum oxygen, maximum carbon dioxide and nil combustibles in the flue gas. d. Saturated clean smoke. 63. It is a solidified mass of fused ash. a. Sludge b. Solidified ashc. Carbon residues
d. Clinker
64. Why does older types of economizers were constructed invariably of cast iron? a. Because cast iron resists corrosion better than mild steel and the pressures were comparatively low. b. Because it is cheap. c. Because cast iron is more abundant than any other type of steel. d. Because it’s thermal conductivity is very small and it gives greater efficiency to the system. 65. It is an accessory often installed on modern boilers to preheat air for combustion before it enters the boiler furnace. a. economizer b. air preheater c. reheater d. forced-draft fan 66. a. b. c. d.
What components are included in the proximate analysis in solid fuel? Carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide and excess oxygen Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, sulfur, ash and moisture Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, sulfur, nitrogen and ash Fixed carbon, volatile matter, ash and moisture
67. Which element of fuel is not combustible? a. Carbon b. Hydrogen
c. Sulfur
d. Oxygen
INTERNAL COMBUSTION ENGINE/ ENGINE PERFORMANCE 68. A device or an instrument used to record the cylinder pressure of an engine and piston travel in an X-Y graph, where pressure forms the vertical axis and piston travel forms the horizontal axis. a. Engine Indicator b. Planimeter c. Pyrometer d. Dynamometer 69. This diagram is used by the operating engineer to detect or determine leaky piston packing, sticking piston, incorrect valve timing, loose bearings, restricted and or outlet piping, etc. a. Timing diagram
b. T-s diagram
c. P-h diagram
70. The effective weight of the brake arm when the brake band is loose.
d. Indicator diagram
a. Tare Weight
b. Gross Load
71. The power output of the generator. a. Ideal Power b Indicated Power
c. Net Load
d. Net Tension
c. Brake Power d. Electrical Power
72. The amount of fuel needed to perform a unit of power. a. Specific fuel consumption b. Steam rate
c. Heat Rate
d. Mass flow rate
73. The ratio of heat converted to useful power to the heat supplied. a. Mechanical efficiency c. Thermal efficiency b. Generator efficiency d. Engine efficiency 74. The ratio of the actual power of the engine to its ideal power. a. Mechanical efficiency c. Thermal efficiency b. Generator efficiency d. Engine efficiency 75. The ratio of the cylinder volumes after and before the combustion process. a. Compression ratio b. Expansion ratio c. Cutoff ratio d. All of the above 76. The position of the piston when it forms the smallest volume in the cylinder. a. Crank End Dead Center Position b. Bottom Dead Center Position c. Head End Dead Center Position d. Clearance Volume 77. The position of the piston when it forms the largest volume in the cylinder. a. Crank End Dead Center Position b. Top Dead Center Position c. Head End Dead Center Position d. Clearance Volume 78. When four events take place in one revolution of a crankshaft of an engine, the engine is called: a. rotary engine b. steam engine c. 2-stroke cycle engine d. 4-stroke cycle engine
79. What is the model cycle for spark ignition engine? a. Diesel cycle b. Brayton cycle c. Otto cycle 80. Diesel engine fuel is rated in terms of: a. Cetane number b. Octane rating
d. Carnot cycle
c. Power output
81. The distance that the piston can travel in one direction. a. Bore `b. Stroke c. Clearance
d. Net Calorific Value
d. Displacement
82. The minimum volume formed in the cylinder when the piston is at the top dead center. a. Displacement volume c. Clearance volume b. Cylinder Volume d. None of the above 83. It is a fictitious pressure which, if it acted on the piston during the entire power stroke, would produce the same amount of net work as that produced during the actual cycle. a. Average pressure c. Maximum pressure b. Mean effective pressure d. Minimum pressure 84. The ratio of constant pressure specific heat to the constant volume specific heat. a. Compression ratio b. Expansion ratio c. Cutoff ratio d. Specific heat ratio 85. The ideal cycle for the compression-ignition reciprocating engines. a. Diesel cycle b. Otto cycle c. Dual cycle d. Carnot cycle 86. The power developed in the engine cylinder as obtained from the pressure in the cylinder. a. Ideal power b. Indicated power c. Brake power d. Electrical power 87. The pressure and torque spent in overcoming friction of reciprocating and revolving parts of the engine and automobile before it reached the drive shaft. a. Electrical losses b. Indicated power c. Brake power d. Friction power 88. It is an instrument for determining brake power, usually by the independent measurement of force, time and distance through which the force is moved. a. Planimeter b. Dynamometer c. Anemometer d. Barometer 89. It is the indicator used to determine the anti-knock characteristics of gasoline. a. Octane Number b. Cetane Number c. Compression Ratio d. Viscosity
90. Draws fuel from tank through the primary fuel filter. This provides flow throughout the low portion of the fuel system.
a. Fuel injection pump b. Valve lifter
c. Fuel transfer pump d. Oil pan
91. Acts as a balancer and provide momentum during dead stroke in a cycle. a. Flywheel c. Crankshaft b. Oil cooler d. After cooler 92. Are steel tubes with seat at both ends and bridges the motion from camshaft to rocker arm. a. Push rod c. Valve lifter b. Suction bell d. Flywheel 93. Passage of coolant from the engine block to the cylinder head. a. Water jacket c. Oil cooler b. Fuel transfer pump d. Turbo charger 94. Are used to cool incoming air so that the volume of air available is increased. a. After cooler c. . Radiator b. Waste gates d.Muffler 95. The difference between the maximum and minimum volume. a.Displacement Volume b.Clearance Volume cTop Dead Center d.Differential Volume 96. These are used to seal the gasses within the cylinder and to keep oil out. a.Piston Rings b.Combustion Chamber c.Cylinder Liner d.Piston Plug 97. Process where the heat is added in the Otto cycle. a. constant temperature b. constant volume c. constant entropy
d. constant pressure
98. Process where the heat is added in the Diesel cycle. a. constant temperature b. constant volume c. constant entropy
d. constant pressure
99. It is used to reduce the friction of bearings and sliding surfaces in machines and thus diminish the wear, heat and possibility of seizure of the parts a. Lubricant b. Gasoline c. Wax d. Benzene 100. In a heat engine, the ratio of brake power to the indicated power is called: a. thermal efficiency b. mechanical efficiency c. generator efficiency d. engine efficiency
POWER PLANT TERMS AND FACTORS 111. The ratio of the average load to the peak load over a designated period of time. a. Demand Factor b. Capacity Factor c. Load Factor d. Diversity Factor 112. The ratio of the sum of individual maximum demands of the system to the overall maximum demand of the whole system. a. Demand Factor b. Capacity Factor c. Load Factor d. Diversity Factor 113. The sum of the continuous ratings of all the equipment and outlets on the customer’s circuit. a. Reserve load b. Maximum demand c. Peak load d. Connected load 114. The ratio of the duration of the actual service of a machine or equipment to the total duration of the period of time considered. a. Operation factor b. Utilization factor c. Demand factor d. Capacity factor 115. The ratio of the brake mean effective pressure to the indicated mean effective pressure. a. Mechanical efficiency b. Brake engine efficiency c. Indicated engine efficiency d. Brake thermal efficiency 116. The ratio of the combined engine efficiency to the brake engine efficiency. a. Combined engine efficiency b. Generator efficiency c. Combined thermal efficiency d. Brake engine efficiency 117. The ratio of the average load to that of the peak load of a plant is called: a. output factor b. demand factor c. load factor d. capacity factor 118. The ratio of the peak load to the connected load is known as: a. output factor d. demand factor c. load factor d. capacity factor 119. The difference between the power plant installed capacity and the peak load is called: a. average load b. connected load c. reserve over peak d. none of the above
THERMODYNAMICS 120. A series of processes during which the initial state point and the final state point are the same.
a. Process
b. Change of state
c. Cycle
121. The compressibility factor of an ideal gas is equal to ______________. a. 1.00 b. 1.40 c. 0.90
d. All of the above
d. 1.30
122. The relation pV=C represents a process or change of state, which is known as _________. a. Isometric process b. Isobaric process c. Isothermal process d. Isentropic process 123. In the relation pVn= C, if the value of n= 0 the process is said to be ___________. a. Isometric process b. Isobaric process c. Isothermal process d. Polytropic process 124. In a Carnot cycle, the heat rejection ia the ____________________ process. a. Isentropic expansion c. Isentropic compression b. Isothermal expansion d. Isothermal compression 125. A system in which the mass inflow and outflow are not equal or vary with time and in which the mass within the system changes with time. a. Steady flow system c. Steady state system b. Unsteady state, unsteady flow system d. Steady flow, steady state system 126. A form of energy that is a sole function of temperature for perfect gases and a strong function of temperature and weak function of pressure for non-perfect gases, vapors, and liquids. a. Internal energy b. Enthalpy c. Flow work d. Pressure energy 127. It is that portion of the universe, an atom, a certain quantity of matter, or a certain volume in space that one wishes to study. a. Heat b. Work c. System d. Efficiency 128. It is the force of gravity per unit volume of a substance. a. Density b. Specific weight c. Specific volume
d. Specific gravity
129. It is a kind of thermodynamic system whose mass does not cross its boundaries. a. Open system b. Steady flow system c. Closed system d. Transient flow 130. Which law states that “the acceleration of a particular body is directly proportional to the resultant force acting on it and inversely proportional to its mass? a. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics b. First Law of Thermodynamics c. Second law of Thermodynamics d. Newton’s Second Law of Motion 131. A substance that receives, transports and transfers energy. a. Reservoir b. Working substance c. Engine
d. Heat sink
132. A system where energy and mass cross its boundaries. a. Open system b. Isolated System c. Closed system d. Transient flow system 133. The law of thermodynamics that deals with the law of conservation of energy, which states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed. a. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics b. First Law of Thermodynamics c. Second law of Thermodynamics d. Third Law of Thermodynamics 134. It states that in any mechanical mixture of gases and vapors (those that do not combine chemically) the total pressure of the gaseous mixture such as moist air is equal to the sum of the partial pressure exerted by the individual gases or vapors. a. Joule’s Law b. Dalton’s Law c. Amagat’s Law d. Charles’ Law 135. It is a substance existing in the gaseous phase but relatively near its saturation temperature. a. Gas b. Air c. Vapor d. Oxygen 136. The point at which the saturated liquid and saturated vapor states are identical. a. Critical point b. Triple point c. Saturated liquid-vapor point d. Saturation Point 137. The point at which heat transfer stops. a. Steady-flow b. Thermal equilibrium
c. Thermodynamic equilibrium d. Steady-state
138. It is an instrument used for determining the specific gravity of a solution. a. Barometer b. Hydrometer c. Calorimeter
d. Manometer
139. It refers to the temperature at which all molecular motion ceases according to the kinetic theory of heat. a. 0 oK b. 0 oR c. -273 oC d. All of the above
140. The area under the curve on a pressure-volume diagram represents _____________. a. Steady Flow Work b. Nonflow Work c. Net Work d. Cycle Work
141. A boiler steam pressure gage should have a range of at least _______ times the maximum allowable working pressure. a. 1.0 b. 1.25 c. 1.50 d. 1.75 142. It is a valve designed to allow a fluid to pass through in one direction only. a. Gate valve b. Globe valve c. Quick-return valve
d. Check valve
143. An ideal gas is compressed isothermally. The enthalpy change is equal to _________. a. Zero b. Positive c. Negative d. None of the above 144. The _________________ is constant in an adiabatic throttling process. a. Pressure b. Volume c. Internal energy 145. It is the ideal cycle for a gas turbine plant. a. Carnot cycle b. Rankine cycle c. Diesel cycle
d. Enthalpy
d. Brayton cycle
146. It is the most thermal efficient cycle consisting of two (2) isentropic processes and two (2) isothermal processes. a. Carnot cycle b. Rankine cycle c. Otto cycle d. Diesel cycle 147. How can the average temperature during heat rejection process of a Rankine cycle be decreased? a. increase boiler pressure c. increase inlet turbine pressure b. increase condenser pressure d. reduce turbine exit pressure 148. What is commonly done to a vapor power cycle when the turbine has excessive moisture? a. frosting b. diffusing c. reheating d. dehumidifying 149. A form of energy that is transferred between two systems by virtue of temperature difference. a. Heat b. Kinetic Energy c. Potential Energy d. Electrical Energy 150.A thermodynamic process with no heat transfer. a. Isentropic Process b. Adiabatic Process
c. Throttling Process
d. All of the above.
151.An energy interaction that is not caused by a temperature difference between a system and its surrounding. a. Work b. Conduction c. Convection d. Heat 152. Changing of solid directly to vapor, without passing through the liquid state, is called a. Sublimation c. Condensation b. Evaporation d. Vaporization 153. A rigid container is heated by the sun. There is no shaft work associated with the container. From the first law of thermodynamics, you determine the resulting work to be: a. equal to the heat transfer b. equal to the change in internal energy c. equal to the volume times the change in pressure d. equal to zero 154. The net work output of a heat engine is always __________________________. a. less than the amount of heat input c. more than the amount of heat input b. less than the amount of heat output d. none of the above 155. The sum of all the energies of all the molecules in a system, energies that appear in several complex forms. a. Enthalpy b. Internal Energy c. Kinetic Energy d. Potential Energy 156. It is a liquid whose temperature is below the saturation temperature corresponding to its pressure. a. Saturated liquid b. Superheated liquid c. Subcooled liquid d. none of the above 157. A device that violates the first law of thermodynamics is called a a. Perpetual motion machine of the second kind b. Perpetual motion machine of the third kind c. Perpetual motion machine of the first kind d. None of the above 158. The efficiencies of all reversible heat engines operating between the same two reservoirs ________. a. differ b. are the same c. are unequal d. none of the above 159. A process with no heat transfer is known as a. isobaric process c. isothermal process b. adiabatic process d. isometric process 160. The relative density of a substance is the ratio of its density to the density of:
a. mercury
b. oil
c. gas
d. water
161. This type of heat exchanger allows fluids to flow at right angles to each other a. Series flow b. Parallel flow c. Cross flow d. Counter flow 162. The fact the total energy in any one energy system remains constant is called the principle of _______. a.Conservation of Energy c.Conservation of Mass b.Second Law of Thermodynamics d.Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics 163. A process for which the inlet and outlet enthalpies are the same a. Isenthalpic b. Enthalpy Conservation c. Throttling
d. Steady State
164. The sum of energies of all the molecules in system, energies that appear in several complex forms. a. Kinetic Energy b. Internal Energy c. External Energy d. Flow Work 165. A system that is completely impervious to its surrounding. Neither mass nor energy cross its boundaries. a. Open system b. Closed system c. Adiabatic system d. Isolated system 166. A device used to measure small and moderate pressure difference. a. Manometer b. Bourdon gage c. Barometer
d. Piezometer
167. A vapor having a temperature higher than the saturation temperature corresponding to its pressure. a. Superheated vapor c. Super saturated vapor b. Saturated vapor d. Subcooled vapor 168. The energy or stored capacity for performing work possessed by a moving body, by virtue of its momentum. a. Internal energy c. Gravitational potential energy b. Work d. Kinetic energy 169. The thermodynamic process wherein temperature is constant and the change in internal energy is zero. a. Isobaric process b. Isometric process c. Isothermal process d. Polytropic process 170. The function of a pump or compressor is to a. transfer heat from one fluid to another b. increase the total energy content of the flow c. extract energy from the flow d. exchange heat to increase energy to the flow 171. This law states that “all energy received as heat by a heat-engine cannot be converted into mechanical work”. a. 1st Law of Thermodynamics b. 2nd Law of Thermodynamics c. 3rd Law of Thermodynamics d. All of the above. 172. The intensity of pressure that is measured above absolute zero is called: a. Gage pressure b. Absolute pressure c. Vacuum pressure d. Saturation pressure 173. This is the ratio of the heat equivalent of the brake or useful horsepower developed by an engine and available on its crankshaft to the heat during the same time. a. Brake engine efficiency b. Indicated thermal efficiency c. Combined thermal efficiency d. Brake thermal efficiency 174. Flow work is equal to pressure times ____________. a. temperature b. entropy c. internal energy
d. specific volume
175. This form of energy is due to the position or elevation of the body. a. internal energy b. kinetic energy c. potential energy 176. Another term for constant volume process. a. isometric b. isochoric
c. isovolumic
d. work
d. all of the above
177. Work done by the steam during a reversible adiabatic expansion process in the turbine. a. Brake Work c. Actual Fluid Work
b. Ideal Work
d. Combined Work
178. The efficiency of Carnot cycle depends upon the a. pressure b. entropy
c. volume
d. temperature
179. It is the heat required in a constant-pressure process to completely vaporize a unit-mass of liquid at a given temperature. a. latent heat vaporization b. enthalpy of vaporization c. hfg d. all of the above 180. It is a commonly used device for measuring temperature differences or high temperatures. a. Thermistor b. Thermocouple c. Bimetallic Strip d. Mercury in glass 181. The science and technology concerned with precisely measuring energy and enthalpy. a. Thermodynamics b. Chemistry c. Calorimetry d. None of the above 182. The rate of doing work per unit of time a. Torque b. Power
c. Force
d. Moment
183. In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed boiler and condenser pressure. What is the effect of superheating the steam to a higher temperature to the cycle thermal efficiency? a. the cycle thermal efficiency will increase b. the cycle thermal efficiency will decrease c. the cycle thermal efficiency will remain constant d. none of the above 184. A vapor having a temperature higher than the saturation temperature corresponding to the existing pressure. a. Superheated Vapor b. Saturated Vapor c. Wet Vapor d. None of the above 185. It is the work done in pushing a fluid across a boundary, usually into or out of a system. a. Mechanical work b. Nonflow Work c. Flow Work d. Electrical work 186. A liquid that has a temperature lower than the saturation temperature corresponding to the existing pressure. a. Subcooled liquid b. Saturated liquid c. Unsaturated liquid d. Water BOILERS/STEAM GENERATORS 207. In this type of boiler, the water passes through the tubes while the flue gases burn outside the tubes. a. Water-tube boiler b. Fire-tube Boiler c. Steam generator d. Electric Boiler 208. It shows the water level in the boiler drum. a. Water column b. Try cocks
c. Gauge glass d. All of the above
209. It prevents damage to the boiler by giving warning of low water. a. Safety valve b. Fusible plug c. Relief valve d. Try cocks 210. It has several functions. When necessary it empties the boiler for cleaning, inspection, or repair. It blows out mud, scale, or sediment when the boiler is in operation and prevents excessive concentration of soluble impurities in the boiler. a. Blow-down line b. Boiler feedwater pump c. Steam valve d. None of the bove 211. It is a heat exchanger which utilizes the heat of the flue gases to preheat the air needed for combustion. a. Economizer b. Feedwater heater c. Reheater d. Air preheater 212. It is a feedwater preheating and waste heat recovery device which utilizes the heat of the flue gases. a. Economizer b. Open heater c. Closed heater d. Waterwalls 213. It is a system of furnace cooling tubes which can extend the evaporative capacity of the water-tube boiler and at the same time protect the furnace walls from high temperature. a. Reheater b. Waterwalls c. Superheater d. Feedwater heater 214. It is based on the generation of 34.5 lbm/hr of steam from water at 212 oF to steam at 212 oF and equivalent to 33, 500 Btu/hr. a. One horsepower b. One kilowatt c. One boiler horsepower d. None of the above
215. It prevents boiler pressure from rising above a certain predetermined pressure by opening to allow excess steam to escape into the atmosphere when that point is reached, thus guarding against a possible explosion through excessive pressure. a. Relief valve b. Safety valve c. Fusible plug d. Pressure switches 216. In a water-tube boiler, the water will pass through _________________________. a. inside the tubes b. outside the tubes c. inside the shell d. outside the shell
AIR CONDITIONING/REFRIGERATION 217. It is the temperature to which the air becomes saturated at constant pressure. a. dry-bulb temperature b. wet-bulb temperature c. dewpoint temperature d. saturation temperature 218. In a _________________ cooling tower, the air moves horizontally through the fills as the water moves downward. a. Cross-flow b. Counter -flow c. Parallel flow d. Double-flow 219. It is the subject that deals with the behavior of moist air. a. Psychrometer b. Psychrometry c. Refrigeration d. Pneumatics 220. It is the ratio of the mass of water vapor in a certain volume of moist air at a given temperature to the mass of water vapor in the same volume of saturated air at the same temperature. a. Humidity ratio b. Specific humidity c. Humidity d. Relative Humidity 221. Air whose condition is such that any decrease in temperature will result in condensation of water vapor into liquid. a. Saturated air b. Unsaturated air c. Saturated vapor d. Moist air 222. It is the warm water temperature minus the cold-water temperature leaving the cooling tower. a. Approach b. Terminal difference c. Cooling Range d. LMTD 223. The temperature where the relative humidity becomes 100% and where the water vapor starts to condense is known as ___________________. a. dry-bulb temperature c. wet-bulb temperature b. dewpoint temperature d. saturation temperature 224. The surrounding air ____________ temperature is the lowest temperature to which water could possibly be cooled in a cooling tower. a. Dry-bulb b. Wet-bulb c. Dew-point d. Saturation temperature 225. Which is not a major part of the vapor compression system? a. compressor b. condenser c. evaporator
d. refrigerant
226. This refers to the rate of heat transfer attributable only to a change in dry-bulb temperature. a. sensible heating or cooling b. humidification c. dehumidification d. cooling and dehumidifying 227. It is a binary mixture of dry-air and water- vapor. a. Dry air b. Saturated vapor
c. Moist air d. Wet mixture
228. The temperature measured by an ordinary thermometer. a. Wet-bulb temp. c. Dew-point temp. b. Dry-bulb temp. d. Wet-bulb depression 229. The mass of water interspersed in each kilogram of dry air. a. enthalpy
b. humidity ratio
c. specific volume
d. relative humidity
230. This system combines two vapor-compression units, with the condenser of the low-temperature system discharging its heat to the evaporator of the high-temperature system. a. Cascade systems c. Binary system b. Multi-stage system d. Multi-pressure system 231. A process of increasing the humidity ratio at constant dry-bulb temperature. a. Dehumidifying process c. Heating process b. Cooling process d. Humidifying process
232. The ratio of the partial pressure of water vapor in the air to the saturation pressure corresponding to the temperature of the air. a. Humidity Ratio c. Specific humidity b. Relative Humidity d. Moisture content 232. It is an air conditioning process that involves heating without changing the moisture content of air. The process is represented by a horizontal line in the psychrometric chart, from left to right. a. Sensible cooling process c. Humidifying process b. Sensible heating process d. Heating and dehumidifying process
233. It is an air conditioning process of increasing the humidity ratio without changing the dry-bulb temperature of air. The process is represented in the psycrometric chart by a vertical line, from up to down. a. Sensible cooling process c. Humidifying process b. Sensible heating process d. Heating and dehumidifying process 234. The temperature at which the water vapor content of moist air begins to condense when air is cooled at constant pressure a. Dew Point Temperature c. Dry Bulb Temperature b. Wet Bulb Temperature d. Condensing temperature 234. It is the index of performance of a refrigeration system which is a dimensionless quantity. a. Coefficient of Performance c. Energy Efficiency Ratio b. Energy Ratio d. Performance Ratio 235. It is simply the compression of the gas in two or more cylinders in place of a single cylinder compressor. a. Intercooled Compression c. Efficient Compression b. Multistage Compression d. High Power Compression 236. The transfer of energy from the more energetic particles of a substance to the adjacent less energetic ones as a result of interactions between the particles. a. Heat transfer c. Conduction b. Radiation d. Convection 237. What is the simultaneous control of temperature, humidity, air movement, and quantity of air in space? a. Refrigeration b. Psychrometry c. Air-conditioning d. Humidification 238. The non-condensing component of the moist air. a. Hydrogen b. Water vapour c. Nitrogen
d. Dry air
239. The substance used for heat transfer in a vapor compression refrigerating system. It picks up heat by evaporating at a low temperature and pressure and gives up this heat by condensing at a higher temperature and pressure. a. Water c. Ammonia b. Air d. Gas 240. What is the pressure of the refrigerant between the expansion valve and the intake of the compressor in a multi pressure refrigeration system? a. High-side pressure c. Condensing pressure b. Discharge pressure d. Low-side pressure 241. A refrigerating machine that is classified as a one-ton machine has the capacity to produce a cooling effect of: a. 3.517 kW b. 12,000 Btu/hr c. 211 kJ/min d. All of the above
THERMODYNAMICS If the initial volume of an ideal gas is compressed to one-half its original volume and to twice its temperature, the pressure: A. Doubles B. Quadruples C. Remains constant D. Halves Solution: P1V1/T1 = P2V2/T2 P1V1/T1 = P2 (1/2 V1)/ (2T1) P 2= 4 P 1
2.) If the gage pressure of a medium is 30 kPa (vacuum) and the atmospheric pressure is 101.3 kPa, the absolute pressure will be: A. 131.3 kPa B. – 71.3 kPa C. 71.3 kPa D. -131.3 kPa Solution: Pabs = Patm – Pvac = 101.3 kPa – 30 kPa = 71.3 kPa 3.) If a particle has a velocity of 4 meters per second and a kinetic energy of 144 Joules, then the mass, in kilograms of this particle must be: A. 44 B. 16 C. 18 D. 24 Solution: KE = (1/2) (m)(V2)/ 2k 144 = (1/2) (m) (4)2 / [(2) (1)] m = 18 kg 4.) A very important consequence of the ideal gas model is that the internal energy of an ideal gas is a function of _______________ only. A. pressure B. Temperature C. Point function D. Volume 5.) At what temperature readings do the Fahrenheit and Celsius scales have the same value? A. – 35 degrees B. – 40 degrees C. – 45 degrees D. – 30 degress 6.) States that if the temperature of a given quantity of gas is held constant, the volume of the gas varies inversely with the absolute pressure during a change of state. A. Daltons Law B. Charles’ Law C. First Law of Thermodynamics D. Boyle’s Law 7.) A condenser vacuum gauge reads 715 mm Hg when the barometer stands at 757 mm Hg. State the absolute pressure in the condenser in kN/m2 or kPa. A. 5.6 kPa B. 5.9 kPa C. 6.5 kPa D. 5.2 kPa Solution: Pabs = Patm – Pvac = 757 – 715 = 42 mm Hg (101.325 kPa/760 mm Hg) = 5.60 kPa 8.) A unit of force that produces unit acceleration (in ft/s2) in a unit mass (in lbm) A. Poundal B. Pound C. Newton D. Dyne 9.) Determine the force in Newton in a piston of 465 mm2 area with a pressure of 0.172 MPa. A. 65 N B. 72 N C. 80 N D. 111 Solution: F = PA = (0.172 MPa) (106 Pa/ MPa) (465 mm2) (m2/ 106 mm2) F = 79.98 N 10.) Which of the following does not belong to the group? A. Potential Energy B. Kinetic Energy 11.) Why does a cube of ice float in water? A. Ice has lower temperature than water B. The density of ice is lesser than water
C. Heat Energy
D. Flow energy
C. There are more water than ice D. None of the above
12.) One piston of a hydraulic press has an area of 1 cm2. The other piston has an area of 25 cm2. If a force of 150 N is applied on the smaller piston, what will be the total force on the larger piston is both piston surfaces are the same level? A. 6 N B. 175 N C. 3750 N D. 4250 N Solution: F1/A1 = F2/A2 (150/1) = (F2/ 25) F2 =3750 N 13.) If the pressure of a confined gas at a constant temperature is tripled, what will happen to the volume? A. The volume will be tripled C. The volume will remain unchanged B. The volume will be reduced to one-third of its original value D. The volume is constant Solution:
P1V1 = P2V2 P1V1 = (3P1) V2 V2 = (1/3) V1 14.) The work done on air is 10.86 kJ/kg, determine the compressor power if it is receiving 272 kg/min if air. A. 36.72 hp B. 49.23 hp C. 2954 hp D. 66 hp Solution: W= (10.86) (272/60) = 49.232 kJ/s or kW = 49.232 kW (1 hp/ 0.746 kW) = 65.99 hp 15.) A water tank of 18 ft wide, 14 ft long and 4 ft high, calculate the pressure at the bottom of the tank. A. 1.733 psi B. 1.999psi C. 2.337 psi D. 3.773 psi Solution: P = (62.4 lbf/ft3) (4 ft) (1ft2 / 144 in2) = 1.733 psi 16.) The pressure of 750 mm Hg in kN/m2. A. 90 B. 100 C. 103 Solution: P = 750 mm Hg (101.325 kPa/760 mm Hg) = 99.99 kPa
D. 110
17.) A double purpose tank 18 ft wide, 24 ft long and 4 ft depth is filled with water. What is the weight of water in the tank in long tons? A. 49 tons B. 48 tons C. 54 tons D. 50 tons Solution: W = (62.4 lb/ft2) [(18)(24)(4)] ft3 = 107,827.2 lbf = 107, 827.2 lb (1 ton/ 2200 lb) = 49 tons 18.) Oil flow though a 16 tubes on a single cooler with a velocity of 2 m/s. The internal diameter of the tube is 30mm and oil density is 0.85 gm/ml. Find the volume flow in liters per sec. A. 22.62 B. 32.22 C. 62.22 D. 42.62 Solution: Volume flow rate = (3.1416) (0.015)2(2) (16) =0.02262 m3/s or 22.62 liters/s 19.) A substance temperature was 620 deg R. What is the temperature in deg C? A. 50.7 B. 45.54 C. 71.11 Solution: T, oC = [(620-460) – 32] (5/9) = 71.11
D. 94.44
20.) Unknown volume of container gas of gas of 1 atmosphere is allowed to expand to another container of 10 m3 volume at 500 mm Hg at constant temperature. Find the unknown volume. A. 6.58 m3 B. 6.75 m3 C. 5.67 m3 D. 7.65 m3 Solution: P1V1 = P2V2 (760) V1 = (500) (10) V1= 6.58 m3 21.) An iron block weighs 5 Newton and has volume of 200 cm3. What is the density of the block? A. 2458 kg/m3 B. 2485 kg/m3 C. 2584 kg/m3 D. 2549 kg/m3 Solution: Density = specific weight [At sea level or near the surface of the earth] = (5 N/200 cm3)(106 cm3/ m3) (1 kg/9.8066 N) = 2549.30 kg/m3 22.) If air is at a pressure of 22.22 psia and at temperature of 800oR, what is the specific volume? A. 11.3 ft3/lbm B. 33.1 ft3/lbm C. 13.3 ft3/lbm D. 31.3 ft3/lbm Solution: Pv = RT v= (53.34) (800)/ [(22.22) (144)] = 13.33 ft3/lbm 23.) The specific gravity of mercury is 13.55. What is the specific weight of mercury? A. 123.9 kN/m3 B. 139.2 kN/m3 C. 132.9 kN/m3 D. 193.2 kN/m3 Solution: γ = (13.55) (9.8066) = 132.88 kN/m3
24.) The equivalent weight of mass 10 kg at a location where the acceleration of gravity is 9.77 m/sec 2. A. 97.7 N B. 79.7 N C. 77.9 N D. 977 N Solution: Weight = mg/k = [(10) (9.77)]/1 = 97.7 N 25.) A transportation company specializes in the shipment of pressurized gaseous materials. An order is received fro 100 liters of a particular gas at STP (32oF and 1 atm). What minimum volume tank is necessary to transport the gas at 80 oF and maximum pressure of 8 atm? A. 16 liters B. 14 liters C. 10 liters D. 12 liters Solution: P1V1/T1 = P2V2/T2 [(1) (100)/ (32 +460)]/ [(8) (V2)/ (80+460)] V2 = 13.72 liters 26.) 100 g of water are mixed with 150 g of alcohol (density = 790 kg/m3). What is the specific volume of the resulting mixtures, assuming that the fluids mixed completely? A. 0.82 x 10-3 cu.m/kg B. 0.88 x 10-3 cu.m/kg C. 0.63 x 10-3 cu.m/kg D. 1.16 x 10-3 cu.m/kg Solution: Mass of mixtures = 100 + 150 = 250 g Volume of mixture = [(0.100) / (1000)] + [(0.150)/ (790)] = 0.00029 m3 Specific Volume of mixture = (0.00029)/ (0.250) = 1.16 x 10-3 cu.m/kg 27.) How much does 30 lbm weigh on the moon? (gmoon = 5.47 ft/s2). A. 2.0 lbf B. 3.2 lbf C. 3.4 lbf Solution: Weight = mg/k = {[(30) (5.47)]/32.174} = 5.1 lbf
D. 5.096 lbf
28.) A 10 kg block is raised vertically 3 meters. What is the change in potential energy? A. 320 J B. 350 kg-m2/s2 C. 294 J D. 350 N-m Solution: PE = mgz/k = {[(10)(9.8066)(3)]/1} = 294.2 J 29.) How many cubic meters is 100 gallons of liquid? A. 3.7850 cu.m B. 0.1638 cu.m C. 0.3785 cu.m Solution: 100 gal (3.785 liters/gal) (1m3/1000 liters) = 0.3785 m3
D. 1.638 cu.m
30.) Steam turbine is receiving 1014 lbm/hr of steam, determine the horsepower output of the turbine if the work done by steam is 251 Btu/lbm A. 100 Hp B. 462.7 Hp C. 200 Hp D. 6002.7 Hp Solution: W = (251 Btu/lbm) (1014 lbm/hr) (1 hp/2545 Btu/hr) = 100 hp 31.) What is the resulting pressure when one pound of air at 15 psia and 200oF is heated at constant volume to 800oF? A. 52.1 psia B. 15 psia C. 28.6 psia D. 36.4 psia Solution: P1/T1 = P2/T2 P2 = [ (800+460)/(200+460)](15) = 28.64 psia 32.) A bicycle tire has a volume of 600 cm3. It is inflated with carbon dioxide to pressure of 551.43 kPa at 20 oC. How many grams of CO2 are contained in the tire? RCO2 = 0.18896 kJ/kg.K A. 5.98 g B. 6.43 g C. 4.63g D. 3.83 g Solution: m = PV/RT = [(551.43) (600)/ (106)]/ [(0.18896) (20+273)] = 0.00598 kg or 5.98 g 33.) The absolute pressure at the bottom of a vertical column of water is 15.5 psia. What is the height of this column? A. 22 in. B. 9.2 in C. 12 in D. 9.8 Solution: h = [(15.5- 14.7) (144)]/ (62.4) = 1.846 ft or 22.15 in. 34.) The work done in pushing a fluid across a boundary, usually into or out of a system is called ________ A. Potential Energy B. Flow Energy C. Kinetic Energy D. Internal Energy 35.) Energy balance for steady flow process is:
A. Energy (in) = Energy (out) B. Energy (int) = change in total energy
C. Energy (in) – Energy (out) = change in total energy D. Energy (in) + Energy (out) = change in total energy
36. A water temperature rise of 18 oF in the water cooled condenser is equivalent in oC to: A. 7.78oC B. 10oC C. 263.56oK D. -9.44oC Solution: Delta T = 18 oF (1 oC/1.80 oF) = 10 oC 37. ____________ is a composite property applicable to all fluids and is defined by sum of internal energy and the product of pressure and volume A. Heat B. Work C. Enthalpy D. Total Work 38. An oil storage tank contains oil with specific gravity of 0.88 and depth of 20 meters. What is the hydrostatic pressure at the bottom of the tank in kg/cm2? A. 1.67 B. 1.76 C. 1.56 D. 1.87 Solution: P = (0.88) (9.8066)(20) = 172.60 kN/m2 (1 m2/104 cm2)(103 N/kN) (1 kg/9.8066 N) = 1.76 kg/cm2 39. A vertical column of water will be supported to what height by standard atmospheric pressure? A. 34 ft B. 36 ft C. 24 ft D. 26 ft Solution: h = [14.7 (144)]/62.4 = 33.92 ft of water 40. The specific weight of liquid is 60 lb/ft3 what is the equivalent to kN/m3: A. 9.334 B. 9.249 C. 9.643 D. 9.420 Solution: (60 lb/ft3)(1kg/2.205 lb) (0.0098066 kN/kg)((3.28)3ft3/ m3) = 9.42 kN/m3 41. A cylinder weighs 150 lbf. Its cross-sectional area is 40 square inches. When the cylinder stands vertically on one end, what pressure does the cylinder exert on the floor? A. 14. 1 kPa B. 58.2 kPa C. 0.258 bar D. 0.141 bar Solution: P = F/A = 150/40 = 3.75 psi (6.895 kPa/psi) (1 bar/100 kPa) = 0.2586 bar 42. States that energy is neither created nor destroyed; it can only change forms: A. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics C. Daltons Law B. First Law of Thermodynamics D. Archimedes Principle 43. What is the absolute pressure exerted on the surface of a submarine cruising 300 ft below the free surface of the sea? Assume specific gravity of sea water is 1.03. A. 133.9 psia B. 148.6 psia C. 100.7 psia D. 103.7 psia Solution: Pabs = (62.4) (1.03) (300)/ (144) + 14.7 = 148.60 psia 44. Air enters a nozzle steadily at 2.21 kg/m3 and 30 m/s. What is the mass flow rate through the nozzle if the inlet area of the nozzle is 80 cm2? A. 0.35 kg/s B. 3.5 kg/s C. 5.3 kg/s D. 0.53 kg/s Solution: Mass flow rate = (80/104) (30) (2.21) = 0.5304 kg/s 45. The work required to accelerate an 800-kg car from rest to 100 km/h on a level road: A. 308.6 kJ B. 806.3 kJ C. 608.3 kJ D. 386 kJ Solution: W = KE = (1/2) (800) [(100 km/h) (1000m /km) (1h/3600s)]2/ [1(1000)]= 308.64 kJ 46. Heat is defined as form of energy that is transferred between two systems by the virtue of a ________________. A. Pressure difference B. Mass difference C. Volume difference D. Temperature difference 47. Assuming that there are no heat effects and no friction effects, find the speed of a 3220-lbm body after it falls 778 ft from rest. A. 422 ft/sec B. 424 ft/sec C. 224 ft/sec D. 424 ft/sec Solution: Velocity = [(2) (32.174) (778)]1/2 = 223.75 ft/s
48. What is the flow rate through a pipe 4 inches in diameter carrying water at a velocity of 11 ft/sec? A. 430.84 gpm B. 7.18 gpm C. 340.28 gpm D. 39.16 gpm Solution: Volumetric flow rate = (3.1416) (2/12)2(11)= 0.96 ft3/s (7.48 gal/ft3)(60sec/min)= 430.84 gpm 49. If the specific weight of a liquid is 58.5 lbf per cubic foot, what is the specific volume of the liquid, cm3/g ? A. 0.5321 cm3/g B. 0.6748 cm3/g C. 0.9504 cm3/g D. 1.0675 cm3/g Solution: Density = specific weight = 58.50 lb/ft3 (At sea level or near the surface of the earth) Specific Volume = (1/58.50) = 0.0171 ft3/lbm (1lbm/453.6 g) [(30.48)3cm3/ft3] = 1.0675 cm3/g 50. What is the resulting pressure when one pound of air at 0.3 psig and 200 oF is heated at constant volume to 800 oF? A. 0.572 psig B. 28.6 psia C. 7.857 psia D. 1.2 psig Solution: P1/T1 = P2/T2 (0.30 + 14.70) / (200 +460) = P2/ (800 + 460) P2 = 28.64 psia
FLUID MACHINERIES 1.) Axial fans are best suitable for application. A. Large flow, low head C. Low flow, high head B. High head, large flow D. Low flow, low head 2.) Which of the following axial fan types is most efficient? A. Propeller
B. Tube axial
C. Vane axial
D. Radial
3.) Constant rotative speed of the hydraulic turbine runner under varying load is achieved by a ___________ that actuates a mechanism that adjust the gate openings. A. Governor
B. Wicket gates
C. Runner
D. Draft tube
4.) A pipe or conduit used to carry water from reservoir intake to a reaction turbine is known as: A. Guide Vane
B. Draft Tube
C. Wicket Gate
D. Penstock
5.) The efficiency of forward curved centrifugal fans compared to backward curved fans is_________ A. Higher
B. Lower
C. Same
D. None
6.) When selecting a pump for a given application, it is usually desirable to use a pump that will operate near its BEP which stands for _________. A. Brake Effective Horsepower B. Best Efficiency Point
C. Best Effective Point D. Break Even Point
7.) In order to prevent shock or water hammering in the penstock when the governor quickly closes the gates, many turbines are provided with a _______________. A. Surge Tank
B. Draft Tube
C. Intake Valve
D. Flywheel
8.) Name the fan which is more suitable for high pressure application? A. Propeller type fans C. Backward curved centrifugal fan B. Tube-axial fans D. All of the above 9.) A type of centrifugal pump impeller characterized by wide passages for water and the ratio of outside impeller to impeller eye diameter is about 1.5. A. Francis type
B. Radial type
C. Mixed Flow type
D. Axial type
10.) The seal that allows the impeller shaft of centrifugal pump to pass from outside of the pump to inside, while maintaining an air tight seal. A. Sleeve B. Wearing Ring C. Mechanical Seal D. Packing
11.) The general shape of pump performance characteristic curves for two identical pumps in series:
A.
B.
H
C.
H
Q
D.
H
H
Q
Q
Q
12.) The effect (2) of system characteristic curves when throttling valve (valve partially closed) is used for given system (1) A.
B.
C.
D.
(2) H
(1)
H
(1)
H
(2)
H (1)
Q
Q
(2)
(2)
Q
(1)
Q
13.) Stationary guide vanes of a centrifugal pump surround the impeller converts velocity energy to pressure head. A. Diffuser
B. Volute Casing
C. Impeller
D. Impeller vanes
14.) If two identical centrifugal pumps are installed in parallel the _______________ is doubled. A. Flow rate
B. Power
C. Head
D. Efficiency
15.) ____________ are used isolate as well as regulates the flow. They have a high pressure drop even wide open. A. Check Valve
B. Ball Valve
C. Gate Valve
D. Globe Valve
16.) Which pipe accessories do not belong to the group? A. Elbows
B. Tees
C. Unions
D. Strainers
17.) ________________ pump are known as vortex and periphery pumps. A. Turbine (Regenerative) Pumps C. Vertical Turbine Pumps B. Diaphragm Pumps D. Sliding Vane Pumps 18.) Which types of pump does not belong to the group: A. Screw Rotary Pump C. Diaphragm Pump B. Direct Acting Steam Pump D. Centrifugal Pump 19.)
_____________ impellers are generally preferred when handling average waters, because it does no rust and machining it, making its surface smooth are easy. A. Stainless Steel B. Cast-Steel C. Bronze D. Cast-iron
20.) A valve used to prevent backflow in the fluid pipe is called: A. Check Valve
B. Angle Valve
C. Globe Valve
D. Gate Valve
21.) ______________ is a single-stage or multistage centrifugal pump with pumping element suspended from discharge piping also known as deep well or bore hole pumps. A. Turbine (Regenerative) Pump C. Vertical Turbine Pump B. Screw Pump D. Sliding Vane Pump 22.) ___________________ pumps are intended for handling thick pulps, sewage sludge, acid, or alkaline solutions, mixture of water and gritty solids that wear out metal pumps. A. Direct acting steam pumps C. Vertical Turbine Pumps B. Lobe pumps D. Diaphragm pumps 23.) ___________________ is that part of a rotary pump mounted on the drive shaft; it is the principal pumping member. A. Idle Rotors
B. Rotor
C. Stator
D. Driver
24.) What is the relationship of the capacity of centrifugal pump, Q to impeller diameter, D, when there are two impeller diameters (one is original the other cut down diameter) in the same pump? A. Q is directly proportional to the square of D. B. Q is inversely proportional to D.
C. Q is directly proportional to D. D. Q is inversely proportional to the square of D.
25.) What is the relationship of the horsepower of a centrifugal pump, P, to the impeller speed, N, is pump is at two different rotative speeds? A. P is inversely proportional to the cube of N. B. P is directly proportional to N.
C. P is inversely proportional to N. D. P is directly proportional to the cube of N.
26.) Hydraulic turbine suitable for low head: A.) Pelton wheel
B.) Kaplan turbine
C.) Francis turbine
D.) Turgo turbine
27.) If two identical centrifugal pump are installed in series, the system flow rate ____________________. A.) is doubled
B.) remains the same
C.) is halved
D.) zero
28.) The formation ad collapse of vapor bubbles that occurs when pump inlet suction pressure falls to or below the vapor pressure of the liquid is called: A.) sublimation
B.) water hammering
C.) oxidation
D.) cavitation
29.) The process done in centrifugal pump by filling-up the suction line and pump casing with liquid to remove air or vapors from the waterways of the pump is called: A.) priming
B.) water hammering
C.) charging
D.) pumping
30.) Which term does not belong to the group: A.) gear pump
B.) vane pump
C.) screw pump
D.) diaphragm pump
