lrAR lr ARG GET
NT9E.MJeT [Sta [Stage ge - II] Paper Paper Code
PAPE APER - 1 (Set II)
9003.0 Maximum Maximum Marks: Marks: 100 100
Time: Time: 90 Minutes Minutes Instructions:
(i) Attemp Attemptt all ques questio tions. ns. (ii) (ii) This This pape paperr contai contains ns MA T MA T (iii) (iii) This This questio question n paper paper contai contains ns two sectio sections. ns. (iv) Section Section -I carries 90 questions questions and Section-II carries 10 questions. (v) Section Section -I contains 1 to 90 multip multiple le choice choice questi questions ons (singl (single e correc correctt choice choice questi questions ons)) Section -II -II contains 91 to 100 mixed and Section mixed questions. questions. (vi) (vi) No marks marks will will be deducte deducted d for any wrong wrong answer answer.. (vii) (vii) Use of logarit logarithmi hmic c table table and calculat calculator or is is NOT PERMITTED. PERMITTED.
Name Name of the Candida Candidate te Registra Registration tion
Number Number
Date Date of Examination Examination
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CPAT-20 CPAT-201111-NTSE NTSE-ST -STAGE AGE-II -II-P1 -P1-MA -MAT-Se T-Sett
2-(9003 2-(9003.0) .0)-2 -2
This This sect sectio ion n cont contain ains s 90 multi multiple ple choic choice e ques questio tions ns numb number ered ed choice choices s (A), (A), (B), (B), (C) (C) and (D), out out of whic which h ONL ONL Y ONE is correct correct
1 to
90. 90. Eac Each ques uestion tion
has 4
Direc Directi tion ons: s: (0. 1 to 5) In each each of the the follo followi wing ng quest question ions, s, a seri series es is giv given en with with one term term miss missin ing g choos choose e the the corr correc ectt alte altern rnat ativ ive e that that will will cont continu inue e the the same same patt patter ern n and replac replace e the the ques questi tion on mark mark in the the given series: series:
1.
3, 7, 23, 95,
? ( B) 128 ( 0) 575
(A) 62
( C) 479 2.
3.
3 , 1 2 , 2 7, 7 , 4 8 , 7 5 , 1 08 08 , ( A) 147 ( C) 183 2, 2, 5, 13, 28,
? ( B) 162 ( 0) 192
? (B) 50 (0) (0) 52
(A) 49 (C) 51 4.
5.
10, 14, 26, 42, 70, ( A) 100 ( C) 106
?
3, 7, 15, ?, 63, 99,
1 43 43
( B) 102 ( 0) 114
(A) 27 (C) 45
(B) 31 (0) (0) 56
Direc Directi tions ons:: (0. 6 to to 10) 10) In each each of the the followi following ng quest questio ions ns.. One One term term in the the numbe numberr serie series s is wrong. wrong. Find Find out the wrong wrong term. term. 6.
7.
121, 143, 165, 186, 209. ( A) 143 ( C) 186 15, 16, 22, 29, 45, 70. (A) (A) 16 (C) 45
8.
( B) 165 ( 0) 209
(B)22 (0) 70
1, 3, 12, 25, 48. (A) 3 (C) 25
(B) 12
(0) 48 (SPA (SPACE CE FOR FOR ROUGH ROUGH WORK) WORK)
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CPAT-20 CPAT-201111-NTSE NTSE-ST -STAGE AGE-II -II-P1 -P1-MA -MAT-Se T-Sett
2-(9003 2-(9003.0) .0)-2 -2
This This sect sectio ion n cont contain ains s 90 multi multiple ple choic choice e ques questio tions ns numb number ered ed choice choices s (A), (A), (B), (B), (C) (C) and (D), out out of whic which h ONL ONL Y ONE is correct correct
1 to
90. 90. Eac Each ques uestion tion
has 4
Direc Directi tion ons: s: (0. 1 to 5) In each each of the the follo followi wing ng quest question ions, s, a seri series es is giv given en with with one term term miss missin ing g choos choose e the the corr correc ectt alte altern rnat ativ ive e that that will will cont continu inue e the the same same patt patter ern n and replac replace e the the ques questi tion on mark mark in the the given series: series:
1.
3, 7, 23, 95,
? ( B) 128 ( 0) 575
(A) 62
( C) 479 2.
3.
3 , 1 2 , 2 7, 7 , 4 8 , 7 5 , 1 08 08 , ( A) 147 ( C) 183 2, 2, 5, 13, 28,
? ( B) 162 ( 0) 192
? (B) 50 (0) (0) 52
(A) 49 (C) 51 4.
5.
10, 14, 26, 42, 70, ( A) 100 ( C) 106
?
3, 7, 15, ?, 63, 99,
1 43 43
( B) 102 ( 0) 114
(A) 27 (C) 45
(B) 31 (0) (0) 56
Direc Directi tions ons:: (0. 6 to to 10) 10) In each each of the the followi following ng quest questio ions ns.. One One term term in the the numbe numberr serie series s is wrong. wrong. Find Find out the wrong wrong term. term. 6.
7.
121, 143, 165, 186, 209. ( A) 143 ( C) 186 15, 16, 22, 29, 45, 70. (A) (A) 16 (C) 45
8.
( B) 165 ( 0) 209
(B)22 (0) 70
1, 3, 12, 25, 48. (A) 3 (C) 25
(B) 12
(0) 48 (SPA (SPACE CE FOR FOR ROUGH ROUGH WORK) WORK)
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r CPAT-2 CPAT-2011 011-NT -NTSESE-STA STAGEGE-IIII-P1P1-MAT MAT-Se -Sett
9.
10. 10.
1,5,9,15,25,37,49. (A) 9 (C) 25
(B) (B) 15 (D) 37
1,5,5,9,7,11,11,15,12,17. (A) (A) 11 (C) (C) 17
(B) 12 (D) (D) 15
Directions: 11. 11.
12. 12.
13. 13.
14. 14.
15. 15.
2-(900 2-(9003.0 3.0)-3 )-3
(Q. 11 to 15) Choose Choose the missing missing terms terms out of the the given given altern alternati atives ves..
Y, B, T, G, 0, ? (A) N (C) L
(B) (B) M (D) (D) K
bedf?hj?1 (A) i m (C) i n
(B) (B) m i (D) (D)j m
GH, GH, JL, JL, NO, NO, 8W, YO YO,, ? (A) (A) EJ (C) EL
(B) FJ (D) FL
AZ, GT, MN, ?, YB (A) JH (C) SK
(B) 8H (D) T8
azy, but, CXW, dwv, dwv, ? (A) eva (C)veu
(B) evu (D) vue
Directions: (Q. 16 16 to 20) 20) In eac each h of the the foll follow owin ing g ques questi tion on,, a lett letter er-n -num umbe berr seri series es is giv given en with with one one or more more missin missing g terms, terms, choose choose the missing missing term term out of the given given altern alternati atives ves.. 16. 16.
17.
11a2, 13d4, 17g12,? 17g12,? (A) 19i36 (C) 21j48
(B) 21j36 (D) 23j48
11P16, 10017, 9R18 9R18,, 8819 8819,? ,?,, (A) 18M14 (C)5V22
16K1 16K11 1 (B) 9F21 (D) 15J10
(SPA (SPACE CE FOR FOR ROUG ROUGH H WORK WORK))
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CPAT -20 11-NTSE-ST AGE-II-P1-MAT
1B.
TC
~
TK
TV
-Set 2-(9003.0)-4
~?
2003'2006'2011'2022'200B"
( A) (C)
19.
20.
TJ
(B)
2010
(0)
TN 2014
™
2013
TP 2016
XBP, S7L, V12J, ? (A) U3F (C) M6G
(B) A4E (0) QBJ
2, A, 9, B, 6 C, 13, 0, ? (A) 10 (C) 12
(B) 9 (0) 14
Directions: (Q. 21 to 25) In each of the following letter series, some of the letters are missing which are given in that order as one of the alternatives below it. Choose the correct alternative: 21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
abca_ bcaab _ ca_ bbc_ a. (A) ccaa (C)abac
(B) bbaa (0) abba
ab_ aa _ bbb (A) abba (C) aaab
aaa _ bbba (B) baab (O)abab
bbca _ bcca (A) abcba (C) bacab
ac _a_ cb.
c _ baa _ aca (A) acbaa (C) bccab
cacab _ acac _ bca
_ bcc _ ac (A) aabca (C) bacab
(B)acbab (0) bcaab
(B) bbcaa (0) cbaac
aabb _ ab _ cc (B) abaca (0) bcaca
Directions: (Q.26 to 30) In each of the following question, there is a certain relationship between two given words. Choose the correct alternative for the second word with same relationship. 26.
Tamil Nadu : Chennai : : U.P : ? (A) Oispur (C) Lucknow
(B) Patna (0) Shimla
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
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CPAT -20 11-NTSE-ST AGE-II-P1-MAT-Set
?
Scale: Length: : Odometer: (A) speed (C) current
27.
(B) mass (D) blood pressure
Anthropology: Man: : Nephrology: (A) Plants (C) Amphibians
28.
Advance: Retreat: (A) Abrupt (C) Worst
29.
30.
Acting: Theatre: (A) casino (C) bar
2-(9003.0 )-5
?
(B) Kidney (D) Moon
?
: Chaos:
(B) Expand (D) Peace ?
: Gambling:
(B) club (D) gym
Directions: (0. 31 to 35) A group of three/four words is given followed by four other words alternatives. Choose the alternative, which is similar to the given words. 31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
Rabbit, Rat, Mole, ? (A) Mongoose (C) Earthworm
(B) Frog (D) Ant
BASIC: PASCAL: (A) COMPUTER (C) BHOPAL
(B) COBOL (D) CYCLONE
Grafting, Budding, Layering, ? (A) Weeding (C) Field
(B) Digging (D) Seed
Lung, Pharynx, Bronchioles (A) Alveoli (C) Oesophagus
(B) Ribs (D) Nephrons
Norway, Poland, Spain (A) France (C) Kenya
(B) Rome (D) Tokyo
Directions: 36.
FORTRAN
(0.36 to 40) Choose the odd one out:
(A)Bake (C) Boil
(B) Peel (D) Fry (SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
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as
CPAT-20 11.NTSE-ST AGE-II-P1-MAT -Set 2-(9003.0 )-6
37.
(A) Spectacles (C) Binoculars
(B) Goggles (D) Microphone
38.
(A) Skull (C) Pelvis
(B) Appendix (D) Fibula
39.
(A) 140 - 45 (C)100-30
(B)110-35 (D) 80 - 25
40.
(A) 18 - 108 (C) 20 - 80
(B)23-138 (D) 26 -156
41.
In a certain code, INACTIVE is written as VITCANIE. How is COMPUTER code. (A) PMOCRETU (B) ETUPMOCR (C) UTEPMOCR (D) MOCPETUR
42.
In a certain code, CAT is written as SATC and DEAR is written as SEARD. How would SING be written in that code? (A) BFINS (B) SGNIS (C) SINGS (D) GNISS
43.
In a certain code, STOVE is written as FNBLK, then how will VOTES be written in the same code? (A) FLKBN (B) LBNKF (C)LKNBF (D)LNBKE
44.
If E 5 and HOTEL (A) 7 (C) 26
45.
If DICTIONARY is written as 1234256789, then ORDINARY is written as? (A) 59126789 (B) 58126789 (C) 57326789 (D) 56126789
46.
Looking at a portrait of a man, Harish said, "His mother is the wife of my father's son. Brother and sisters I have none". At whose portrait was Harish looking? (A) His son (B) His cousin (C) His uncle (D) His nephew
47.
Arun said, "This girl is the wife of the grandson of my mother". Who is Arun to the girl? (A) Father (B) Grand father (C) Husband (D) Father - in - law
=
=
written in the same
6, how will you code LAMB? (B)10 (D)28
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
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CPAT -2011-NTSE-ST AGE-II-P1-MAT -Set 2-(9003.0 )-7
(Q. 48 to 50) Read the following information and answer the questions given below. up is the son of Q. R, Q's sister, has a son T and daughter U. V is the maternal uncle of T".
Directions:
48.
49.
50.
How P is related to T? (A) Cousin (C) Uncle
(B) Nephew (D) Brother
How U is related to V? (A) sister (C) niece
(B) daughter (D) wife
How many nephews does V have? (A) nil (C) two
(B) one (D) three
Directions: (Q. 51 to 55) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. Four players A, B, C and D are holding 4 cards each. Each of them have an Ace (A), a king (K), a Queen (Q) and a Jack(J). All of them have all the suits (Spades, hearts, clubs and diamonds). I. A has Ace of spades and Queen of diamonds. II. B has Ace of clubs and king of diamonds. III. C has Queen of clubs and King of spades. IV. D has jack of clubs.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
Ace of diamonds with
(A) A (C) C
(B) B (D) D
Jack of hearts is with (A) A (C) C
(B) B (D) D
Queen of spades is with (A) A
(B)B
( C) C
(D) D
C has ? (A) Ace of hearts (C) King of hearts
(B) Jack of spades (D) Queen of spades
D has ? (A) Ace of hearts (C) king of hearts
(B) Queen of hearts (D) king of clubs (SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
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-Set 2-(9003.0 )-8
Direction: (Q. 56 to 60) Read the following passage to answer these questions Anitha, Mahima, Rajan, Lata and Oeepthi are five cousins Anitha is twice as old as Mahima. Rajan is half the age of Mahima. Anitha is half the age of Oeepthi and Rajan of twice the age of Lata. 56.
57.
Who is the youngest? (A) Oeepthi (C) Lata
(B) Rajan (0) Anitha
Who is the eldest? (A) Oeepthi (C) Anitha
(B) Lata (0) none of these
58.
Which of the following pair of persons are of the same age? (A) Mahima - Lata (B) Anitha - Mahima (C) Mahima - Rajan (0) none of these
59.
Anitha is younger than? (A) Rajan (C) Oeepthi
(B) Mahima (0) none of these
60.
If Mahima is 16 years old, then what is the age of Lata? (A)4 (B)5 (C) 7 (0) 14
61.
I am facing east, I turn 100 in the clockwise direction and then 145 direction which direction I am facing now? (A) East (B) North - East (C) North (0) South - East
62.
You go North, turn right, then right again and then go to the left. In which direction are you now? (A) East (B) North - West (C) South - East (0) North - East
63.
A watch reads 4 : 30. If the minute hand point East, in what direction will the hour hand point? (A) North (B) North - West (C) South - East (0) North - East
0
0
in the anticlock
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
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CPAT -20 11-NTSE-ST AGE-II-P1-MAT
-Set 2-(9003.0)-9
Direction: (Q. 64 to 65) In each of the following question arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary and thus choose the correct sequence. 64.
65.
1. Protein
2. Problem
3. Proverb
4. Property
5. Project
( A) 1, 2, 3 , 4, 5
( B) 2, 1, 4 , 3, 5
(C) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3
(D) 3, 4, 5, 2, 1
1. Eagle
2. Earth
3. Eager
4. Early
5. Each
( A) 1, 5, 2 , 4, 3
( B) 2, 1, 4 , 3, 5
(C) 2, 3, 5, 4, 1
(D) 5, 3, 1, 4, 2
Directions: (Q. 66 to 70) Choose the Venn diagram which best illustrates the three given classes in each question. 66.
67.
68.
Doctors, Lawyers, Professionals (A) a (C) d Yak, Zebra, Deer (A) c (C) b
(C) b
70.
c
(B) a (D)e
(B) c (D)a
Citizen, Educated, Men (A) a (C)d
(B) b
Diseases, Leprosy, Scurvy (A) d (C) e
(B)c
Directions:
71.
(D )
Animals, Men, Plants
(A) d
69.
(B) e
(D )
(D )
e
a
(Q. 71 to 73) Study the following five numbers and answer the questions below. 517325639841 792
What will be the first digit of the second highest number after the positions of only the second and third digits within each number are interchanged. (A) 7 (B)2 (C)8 (D)9 (SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
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CPAT-2011-NTSE-STAGE-II-P1-MAT-Set
2-(9003.0)-10
72.
What will be the last digit of the third number from top when they are arranged in descending order after reversing the positions of the digits within each number? (A) 2 (B)3 (C)5 (0)7
73.
What will be the middle digit of the second lowest number after the positions of only the first and the second digits within each number are interchanged. (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (0) 7
74.
If P denoted 'x', T denotes '-', M denotes '+' and B denotes '+' then 28B7P8T6M4
%
(B) 30
(C) 32
(0) 34
(A) -
= ?
Directions: (0. 75 to 83) In each of the rows below there are five figures. Find one figure in each row that is most unlike the other four and mark its letter on the answer sheet. 75.
<#
~
(A )
(C )
(8)
76. ••
+ 0 (A )
~
-W (C )
(8)
(0)
•
(0)
77.
(A )
(8)
(C )
(0)
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
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CPAT
AGE-II-P1-MA
T-Set
2-(9003.0)-11
0 0
78.
( C)
( D)
fj
8
(8)
(A ) 79.
-20 11-NTSE-ST
;fj (8)
(A )
( D)
( C)
80.
~
( C)
(A ) 81.
( C)
(8)
(A )
~
~
~
~
( D)
82. I . ~
~
~
~
(A )
(8)
( C)
83.
(A )
(8)
( C)
( D)
:J ( D)
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
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CPAT-2011-NTSE-STAGE-II-P1-MAT-Set
2-(9003.0)-12
Three friends had dinner at a restaurant. When the bill was received, Amita paid ~ as much as
84.
3
Veena paid and Veena paid (A)
.! as much 2
as Tanya paid. What fraction of the bill did Veena pay
.!
(B) ~
g
( 0) ~
11
3
(C)
8
31
85.
A man has a certain number of small boxes to pack into parcels. If he packs 3, 4, 5 or 6 in a parcel, he is left with one over; if he packs 7 in a parcel. none is left over. What is the number of 'boxes, he may have to pack? (A) 106 (B) 301 (C) 309 (0)400
Directions: (0. 86 to 89) To the left in each of the lines below there are five squares arranged in order. One of these squares has been left empty. Find which one of the five squares on the right should take the place of the empty square and mark its letter on your answer sheet.
•
•
I~ I f ~ I ~ I ~ I f ~IIL : J ~ ~ E ; ; ] I I I ; I ~ ~ I I i B l i ollDDDD I c d l ~ ~ I l< ) S t l* . I I ~ ~ [!]~
86.
1 f f ir r u
87.
0 . 0 . 0 .
.• =
~U1J
0 . 0 . 0 . 0
==0
0
•
;,==:?
0
• 0
0 .0 .0 .
~~
a
b
c
d
a
b
c
d
JI
88.
89.
a
b
c
d
a
b
c
d
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
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CPAT-2011-NTSE-STAGE-II-P1-MAT-Set
90.
2-(9003.0)-13
The number of boys in a class is three times the number of girls. Which the of the following numbers cannot be represent the total number of children in the class?
( A)48 ( C)42
( B) 44 ( D) 40
'SECTION~II This section contains
10 mixed/
subjective questions.
91.
Rohit is seventeenth from the left end of a row of 29 boys and karan is seventeenth from the right end in the same row. How many boys are there between them in the row?
92.
A pineapple costs Rs 7 each. A watermelon costs Rs 5 each. X spends Rs 38 on these fruits. The number of pineapple purchased is _
93.
A is 3 years older to Band 3 years younger to C, while Band D are twins. How many years older is C to D? (SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
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CPAT-2011-NTSE-STAGE-II-P1-MAT-Set
2-(9003.0)-14
94.
If the 25th August in a year is Thursday, then what is the number of Mondays in that month?
95.
If Thursday was the day after the day before yesterday five days ago, what is the least number of days ago when Sunday was three days before the day after tomorrow?
96.
In a group of 15 people, 7 read French, 8 read English while 3 of them read none of these two. How many of them read French and English both?
97.
In a family, each daughter has the same number of brothers as she has sisters and each son has twice as many sisters as he has brothers. How many sons are there in the family. (SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
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98.
-Set 2-(9003.0)-15
From the word 'BEHIND', how many independent meaningful words can be formed without changing the order of the letters and using each letter only once?
Directions: (0.99 to 100) In each of the following questions, find out how many such pairs of letters are there in the given word each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet. 99.
ADVERTISEMENT
100.
PICKLE (SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
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CPAT-2011-NTSE-STAGE-II.P1.MAT.Set
2-(9003.0)-16
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Paper Code
PAPER - 2 (Set II) Time: 90 Minutes
9004.0 Maximum.
Marks: 100
Important Instructions: (i) (ii)
Attempt all questions. This paper contains SA T (Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Mathematics and Geography, History and Civics). This question paper contains two sections. Section -I carries 90 questions and Section-II carries 10 questions. Section -I contains 1 to 90 multiple choice questions (single correct choice questions) and Section -II contains 91 to 100 mixed questions. No marks will be deducted for any wrong answer. Use of logarithmic table and calculator is NOT PERMITTED.
(iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii)
Useful data: Velocity of light in vaccum Boltzmann's constant Planck's constant Charge of an electron Atomic mass unit Rydberg's constant Acceleration due to gravity Universal gas constant Gravitational Constant Wein's constant Permeability of free space Permittivity of free space Radius of the Earth Acceleration due to gravity
c
k
h e 1u
R g
R G b Po &0
R
e
9
= = = = = = = = = = = = = =
8
3x10 m/s 1.38x1(J23J/K 6. 63x1 (J34J-s 19 1.6x1O' C 1.67x1(J27kg. = 931.4 MeV 1.097x107 m,l 2 10m/s 1 1 8.314 Jmor K 6.67 x 10,11 Nm2/kl O.29cmK. 4Jr x 10,7H/m 8.8 x 10,12F/m 6400km 2 10 m/ s
Atomic
masses:
H = 1; C = 12; 0= 16; Na = 23; CI = 35.5 ; Ca = 40; Br = 80 Ag = 108; As = 75; I = 127; S = 32; Cu = 63.5, Fe = 56.
Atomic
Number:
Cr = 24; Fe = 26; Cu = 29; Ni = 28' V = 23' Ti = 22.
Name of the Candidate Registration
Number
Date of Examination
FIIT./EE
Zn = 30; Co = 27;
DDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDD DDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDD DDDDDD Centre: DDDDDDDDD
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AGE-II-P2-SAT-Set
2-(9004.0)-2
SECFION-I This section contains 90 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (e) and (D), out of which ONL Y ONE is correct.
Physics 1.
When a force retards the motion of a body (A) its kinetic energy always decreased (B) the work done by the force is negative (C) the force acts opposite to the displacement of the body (0) all the above
2.
The three vessels shown in figure have same base area. All the vessels are filled with a liquid to the same height. The force exerted by the liquid at the base area will be (A) maximum in vessels A (B) maximum in vessels B (C) maximum in vessels C (0) equal in all vessels
3.
C
C
The resistance of a wire is R. It is cut into four equal parts and all parts are bundled together side by side. The resistance of the bundle is (A) R
(B) R
( C) ! 3 .
(0)
4
8 4.
A
R 16
A bar magnet hangs by a thread attached to the ceiling of a room. When a horizontal magnetic field directed to the right is established. (A) both the string and the magnet will deviate from the vertical (B) the string will deviate from the vertical and magnet will remain vertical (C) the string will remain vertical and the magnet will deviate from vertical (0) both will remain vertical
N
s
Space for rough work
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5.
The displacement-time graph of a moving particle is shown in the figure. The instantaneous velocity of the particle is negative at the point (B) Q (A) P (C) R ( 0) S
2-(9004.0)-3
l' 0: c Q)
E
Q
Q)
s
o III
a. l/)
is
Time(t)~
6.
The numerical ratio of average velocity to average speed is (A) always less than one (B) always equal to one (C) always more than one (0) equal to or less than one
7.
If a body is placed on another body and is moving with it, then work done by frictional force on upper body relative to the ground is (A) Negative (B) Zero (C) Positive (0) May be positive or negative
8.
The meteors are commonly known as (A) shooting stars (C) evening stars
(B) Moving stars (0) constellation
Which mirror cannot form a magnified image (A) Convex mirror (B) Both convex and concave mirror
(B) Concave mirror (0) None of these
9.
10.
Which of the following combinations of properties would be most desirable for a cooking pot? (A) High specific heat and low thermal conductivity. (B) Low specific heat and high thermal conductivity. (C) High specific heat and high thermal conductivity. (0) Low specific heat and low thermal conductivity.
11.
'Stationary waves' are so called because in them (A) there occurs no flow of energy along the wave (B) the particles of the medium do not execute SHM (C) the particles of the medium are not disturbed at all (0) None of these
12.
When there is an electric current through a conducting wire along its length, then an electric field must exist. (A) outside the wire but normal to it (B) outside the wire but around it (C) inside the wire but parallel to it (0) inside the wire but normal to it Space for rough work
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2-(9004.0)-4
Chemistry 13.
An atom of an electronegative (A) gain of electrons (C) loss of its radius
element become ion by (B) loss of electrons (0) serving as a reducing agent
14.
Alkali metals in each period have (A) smallest size (C) highest ionization energy
(B) lowest ionization energy (0) highest electronegativity
In the reaction S02 + 2H2S ~ 3S + 2H 20, the substance which is oxidized, is
15.
(A) H2S (C) S 16.
(B) S02 (0) H20
56Fe2+contains 26
(B) 26 electrons + 26 neutrons (0) 26 electrons + 30 neutrons
(A) 26 protons + 26 neutrons (C) 26 protons + 30 neutrons 17.
Which of the following pairs of elements possess least electron-affinity? (A) Xe and Rn (B) CI and I (C) Nand (0) and S
°
18.
°
In the following neutralization reaction, the salt formed is H2S04
+ AI( OH)3 ~ H20 +
.
(A) AIS0 4 (C) AI3S04
(B) A12(S04h (0) A13(S04h
19.
Aluminium does not oxidize readily in air because (A) it is high in the electrochemical series (B) it is low in the electrochemical series (C) the metal does not combine with oxygen (0) the metal is covered with a layer of oxide which does not rub off
20.
Soda-acidfire extinguisher, extinguishes the fire (B) by removing the combustible substance (A) by cutting the supply of air (0) none of these (C) by raising the ignition temperature Space for rough work
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21.
The gas used in the welding and cutting of metals is (A) ethane (B) ethene (C) ethyne (0) propene
22.
In each of the following the carbonyl group is present except in (A) HCHO (B) CH3COCH3 (C) HCH20H (0) CH3CHO
23.
The number of electrons in the outer shell of the most stable or inert atom is (A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 6 (0) 8
24.
The percentage of hydrogen in H 20 is (A) 44.45 (C) 88.89
2-(9004.0)-5
(B) 5.55 (0) 11.11
Biology 25.
Weeds not only use nutrients from the soil but are also a. harmful for some organisms including human beings b. useful for the crops and harmful for human beings c. not harmful to the crops and some animals d. crop specific Select the alternative which includes all correct statements. (A) a and d (B) b, c and d (C) a, band c (0) a, band d
26.
Eutrophication is the result of (A) increase of the nutrients in (B) increase of the nutrients in (C) increase of the nutrients in (0) increase of the nutrients in
27.
the the the the
water bodies atmosphere soil food
Read the following statements. a. A few rivers in India are like sewers. b. Some cattle may die by feeding on plastic bags. c. Installation of waste water treatment plants have cleaned up most of the rivers in India. d. Sludge is the effectively utilized in the production of biomass. Select the alternative which includes all correct statements. (A) a, band c (B) a and b (C) b, c and d (0) a, c and d Space for rough work
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28.
2-(9004.0)-6
Notice the following symptoms of a patient: i. High fever ii. Severe frontal headache iii. Pain behind eyes iv. Muscle and joint pain v. Loss of appetite vi. Measles-like rashes over chest and upper limbs vii. Nausea and vomiting On the basis of above symptoms, identify the most probable disease along with its causative agent. (A) Cholera - Bacteria (B) Rabies - Virus (C) Dengue - Virus (D) Dysentry - Protozoa
29.
with the cause/deficiencies
in
(B) (a ~ t), (b ~ q), (c ~ r), (d ~ s), (e ~ p) (D) (a ~ r), (b ~ p), (c ~ t), (d ~ s), (e ~ q) 30.
31.
Which of (A) Both (B) Both (C) Only (D) Both
the following statement is not true? mitochondria and chloroplasts provide energy to cells in the same way mitochondria and chloroplasts have more than one membrane chloroplasts contain the pigment chlorophyll animal and plant cells contain mitoch(;mdria also coined the name 'Suicide bags' to lysosomes as they contain hydrolytic
enzymes. (A) Porter (C) Camillo Golgi 32.
(B) Palade (D) De duve
Troposphere is the lowest region of atmosphere which contain air, extends from the surface of earth upto (A)5-10km (B)5-11km (C) 8 - 20 km (D) 8 - 10 km Space for rough work
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AGE-II-P2-SAT-Set
2-(9004.0 )-7
33.
Out (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (A) (C)
of the following statements, choose the true statements (s). There are more number of mitochondria in a sperm than in an ovum Nuclear membrane is absent in a blue-green algal cell. The size of cells in elephant are very large and are very small in ant. Chlorophyll containing plastids are found in all parts of the plants. Only (i) is correct (B) Only (ii) is correct Both (ii) and (iii) are correct (0) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
34.
Many breeds of sheep are available in our country and they can be distinguished by different ualit of wool in different laces. Kee in that in mind, match items in column I and column II. Column I
Column II
Name of breed
State where found
I. Lohi a. Uttar Pradesh II. Ram ur Bushair b. Gu'arat III. Bakharwal c. Ra'asthan IV. Patanwadi d. Jammu and Kashmir Select the alternative which shows the correct matching. (A) 1- c, II - a, III - d, IV - b (B) 1- c, II - b, III - a, IV - d (C) 1- b, II - a, III - d, IV - c (0) I -b, II - c, III - d, IV - a 35.
The life supporting zone of the earth, where the atmosphere, the hydrosphere and the lithosphere interact and make life possible is called (A) ecosystem (B) mesosphere (C) ionosphere (0) biosphere
Mathematics 36.
An error of 2% in excess is made while measuring the side of a square. The percentage of error in the calculated area of the square is: (A) 2% (B) 2.02% (C) 4% (0) 4.04%
37.
Consider the volumes of the following: (i) A parallelopiped of length 5 cm, breadth 3 cm and height 4 cm (ii) A cube of each side 4 cm (iii) A cylinder of radius 3 cm and length 3 cm (iv) A sphere of radius 3 cm The volumes of these in the decreasing order is: (A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (B) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv) (C) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i) (0) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i) Space for rough work
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38.
AGE-II-P2-SAT
-Set 2-(9004.0 )-8
A shopkeeper sells 25 articles at Rs 45 per article after giving 10% discount and earns 50% profit. If the discount is not given, the profit gained is: (A) 66 ~% 3
(B) 66%
(C) 60 ~% 3
(D) 60%
1
1
~( 12- -1140)
~(8- J60)
39.
2
= = = =
~10+J84
is equal to: (B) 1 (D) cannot be determined
(A) 2 (C) 0 40.
When the price of tea is decreased by 20%, 4kg of tea can be purchased more for Rs 80. Then, the original price of tea is: (A) Rs 4/kg (B) RS 5/kg (C) Rs 6/kg (D) none of these
41.
The average weight of three men A, Band C is 84 kg. Another man D joins the group and the average now becomes 80 kg. If another man E, whose weight is 3 kg more than that of D replaces A, then the average weight of B, C, D and E becomes 79 kg. Then, the weight of A is: (A) 70 kg (B) 75 kg (C) 80 kg (D) 85 kg
42.
A, Band C can complete a piece of work in 12, 18 and 24 days respectively. They begin it together but C continues till it is finished, A leaves off 3 days after they started working and B leaves of 1 ~ days before its completion. Time taken to finish the work is:
2
(B) 8
(A) 60 days
4
(C) 8-
7
43.
4
5
days
(D) 56 days
days
In triangle ABC, AB= 12, AC= 7 and BC= 10. If sides AB and AC are doubled while BC remains the same, then: (A) the area is doubled (C) the area is four times the original area
(B) the altitude is doubled (D) the area of the triangle is O.
Space for rough work
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44.
2-(9004.0)-9
The medians of a right triangle which are drawn from the vertices of the acute angles are 5 and 140 , The value of hypotenuse is: (A) 10 (C)
45.
46.
47.
(B) 3140
J13
(D) 2 J13
A refrigerator is offered for sale at Rs 250.00 After successive discounts of 20% and 15%. The sale price of the refrigerator is: (A) 35% less than Rs 250.00 (B) 65% of Rs 250.00 (C) 77% of Rs 250.00 (D) 68% of Rs 250.00 3x If x3 + 2 3x + 1 (A) 10 (C) 12
341 th
=-
91
" . I en x IS equa to: (B) 11 (D) 13
In the adjoining figure, ABCD is a trapezium in which AB I I DC and P, Q are the mid points of AD and BC respectively. DQ and AB when produced meet at E. Then, which of the following is false? (B) PR I I AB (A) DQ QE (D) all are true (C) AR RC =
o
c
~ A
B
E
=
48.
If x
=
3
+
. . . f8 then the value of x 4 + -;.
is:
x
(B)1153 (D) 1151
(A) 1154 (C) 1152
49.
m 32.1235 when expressed in - form, equals to: n
(A) 318023 9990
(B) 318023 9900
(C) 318032 9999
(D) 318032 999 Space for rough work
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50.
51.
52.
ifi. ~.1~ (A) l~.V1,ifi (C) ~,l~,V1
On arranging
If x2
in ascending order. the correct order is: (B) ifi,V1,l~ (D) V1,l?/48,~
4 is a factor ofax 4
-
1
(A) a
=
-
2" ' b
(C) a
=
-
2" . b
1
=
8
=
-
2-(9004.0)-10
+ 2x3 -
3x2
+ bx + 4 then values
8
of a and b respectively are:
1
(B) a
=
2 "' b
(D) a
=
2 "' b
1
=
8
=
-
8
In figure, AE bisects LBAC and AD ..L BC. Then, LDAE is equal to:
(A) !(LB + LC) 2
A
2
(B) !(LB - LC) 2
53.
(C)
~ ( L A + LB;LC)
(D)
~ ( L A - LB;LC)
B
The unit digit in {(6374)1793 x(625)317
x(341)491}
(A) 0 (C)3
54.
If 2'
=
is: (B)2 (D)5
3Y
=
z
6- , then
(!+! +!) x
y
z
is equal to:
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) ~
(D) --
3
55.
DEC
1
2
A right cylindrical vessel is full of water. How many right cones having the same radius and height as those of the right cylinder will he headed to store that water? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 8 Space for rough work
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Geography : - - : " ~- ~- - : - - - - - : - : ~- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - 56. Rock phosphate deposits are found in 57.
58.
(A) Rajasthan and Nainital (C) Chikmanglur and Shimoga
(B) Singh bum and Vishahapatum (0) Lohardagga and Bokaro
The total forested land of India is (A) 22.5 % (C) 13.8 %
(B) 25 % (0) 33 %
Among the following, the deepest sea is: (A) Caribbean Sea (C) Mediterranean Sea
(B) Red Sea (0) Bering Sea
59.
Heat budget on the surface of the earth is maintained by? (A) reflection of incoming solar radiation (B) absorption by the earth (C) refraction by the dust particles (0) incoming insolation in short waves and terrestrial radiation
60.
When it rains, the relative humidity in the atmosphere is: (A) 0 percent (B) 50 percent (C) 75 percent (0) 100 percent
61.
Mango showers occur in (A) Haryana (C) Kerala
(B) Assam (0) Madhya Pardesh
Name the rainiest place of the world (A) Mawasynram (C) Mumbai
(B) Cherrapunji (0) Thiruvanthapuram
Who launched the Chipko Movement? (A) Rallan (C)SunderLalBahuguna
(B) ram Lal Bahuguna (0) None of the above
62.
63.
64.
The distance between two consecutive meridians near the equator is: (A) 100 km (B) 105 km (C)111km (0) 125km Space for rough work
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65.
The first hydroelectric plant was installed in (A) Siva Samundram (C) Kanpur
(B) Bombay (D) Nainital
66.
Which of the following steel plants was started with the collaboration of Russia? (A) Bhilai (B) Durgapur (C) Rourkela (D) Bhadravati
67.
Bangalore is famous for (A) Iron and steel industry (C) Aircraft industry
(B) Aluminium industry (D) Railway industry
History 68.
The first achievement of the Russian revolution was (A) nationalization of industries (B) overthrow of autocracy (C) execution of the Czar (D) Birth of USSR
69.
During the great economic depression 9, 000 banks closed in (A) UK (B) USSR (C) USA (D) France
70.
The Sino-Indian relations deteriorated when the border war erupted in (A) 1960 (B) 1961 (C) 1962 (D) 1964
71.
Which amongst the following was NOT annexed to the British empire under Subsidiary Alliance? (A) Hyderabad (B) Mysore (C) Jodhpur (D) Jhan~
72.
Which natural calamity is also regarded as turning point of Indian revenue system? (A) Orissa famine of 1866-1867 (B) Bengal famine of 1854 - 55 (C) Gujarat famine of 1866 -1867 . (D) Punjab famine of 1854 -1855
73.
Adivasis cooked food with the oil they extracted from the seeds of the (A) Sal (B) Coconut (C) Sunflower (D) Mustard One of the immediate results of the 1857 Mutiny was that it led to (A) The founding of the Indian National Congress (B) Expansion of the military powers of the East India Company (C) Assumption of direct responsibility for administration of India by the Crown (D) All the above
74.
.
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75.
Chintz, cossaes as bandana were the types of (A) Machines (C) Spices
. (B) Clothes (0) Crops
76.
Wootz, Ukku, Hukku and Urukku were used for which metal? (A) Iron (B) Bronze (C) Brass (0) Steel
77.
Which commissioned painter painted the portrait of Nawab Muhammad Alikhan of Arcoh? (A) Johanm Zoffany (B) George Willison (C) Tilly Kettle (0) Thomas Oashwood
78.
The French Queen, Marie Antonitte, was termed as (A) empty headed (B) hot headed (C) high headed (0) dumb headed
79.
Who built the 'Seven Ratha' temple at Mahabalipuram? (A) Krishnadeva Raya (B) Narshinha Varman (C) Rajraja I (0) Rajendra Khalji
Civics 80.
In how many countries of the world Polio is still prevailing: (A) 5 (B) 3 (C) 4 (0) 10
81.
When was Jharkhand inaugurated as state? (A) 1 November 2000 (C) 15 November 2000
(B) 8 November 2000 (0) 15 August 2000 th
82.
Who among the following was not the part of women's movement in 19 th 20 century? (A) Sarojni Naidu (B) Pandita Ramabai (C) Annie Basant (0) Medha Patkar
century and early half of
83.
What is he name of the news paper run by eight Oalit women in Chitrakoot? (A) Khabar Kesri (B) Khabar Lahriya (C) Khabar Ujala (0) Khabar-e-Hind Space for rough work
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84.
85.
AGE-II-P2-SAT-Set
2-(9004.0)-14
'Next is what' is the slogan of which company? (A) LG (C) Electrolux
(B) IFB (D) Samsung
Panchayati Raj System was introduced in (A) 1952 (C) 1979
(B) 1947 (D) 1959
86.
Protective discrimination means a special provision for the reservation of posts in favour of: (A) soldiers of the army (B) forward classes (C) SC/ST (D) engineers and doctors
87.
The fundamental Duties of Indian citizens were in incorporated in the constitution in (A) 1952 (B) 1976 (C) 1979 (D) 1981
88.
In India these places are prohibited from display or promotion of one religion: (A) Private places (B) Government place (C) Gardens (D) Hotels
89.
In which year protection of women form domestic violence came into force? (A) 2002 (B) 2004 (C) 2006 (D) 2007
90.
The common High Court for seven north eastern state is: (A) Dispur (B) Agartala (C) Guwahati (D) Kolkata Space for rough work
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SECTION-II This section contains 91.
10 mixed/
subjective questions.
A well cut diamond appears bright because (A) it emits light (C) of total internal reflection
(B) it is radioactive (D) of dispersion
93.
Phobos is a natural satellite of (A) Jupiter (C) Earth What is valence shell?
94.
What is the normal room temperature?
95.
Which is the largest mass of Lymphatic tissue in the human body?
96.
Three sides of a quadrilateral are 2 cm, 3 cm and 9 cm respectively and diagonals are perpendicular to each other, find the fourth side. P is the midpoint of BC and Q is the midpoint of AP in ~ABC. If BQ when produced meets AC at
92.
97.
R. Prove that RA 98.
=
(B) Mars (D) Uranus
..!CA . 3
99.
Give a single term for a single crop farming done on a large scale that resembles production. Define Muvendar.
100.
What is the sex ratio in India.
factory
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AGE-II-P2-SAT
FlIT JEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, .29.A, Kalu
-Set 2-(9004.0 )-16
Sarai, Sarvaprlya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, website, www.jlitjee.com.
Ph 46106000,
.26569493, Fax .2651394.2
CPAT-2011-NTSE-ST
PAPER-1
AGE.II-P1.MAT-Set
2-(9003.0)-17
(Set II) Paper Code
ANSWERS
9003.0
OBJECTIVE 1.
~C-
2.
A
3.
D
4.
D
5.
8
6.
C
7.
8
8.
C
9.
8
10.
8
11.
C
12.
A
13.
D
14.
B
15.
8
16.
D
17.
C
18.
D
19.
C
20.
A
21.
8
22.
A
23.
8
24.
A
25.
C
26.
C
27.
A
28.
8
29.
D
30.
A
31.
A
32.
8
33.
A
34.
A
35.
A
36.
8
37.
D
38.
B
39.
C
40.
C
41.
8
42.
C
43.
8
44.
8
45.
8
46.
A
47.
D
48.
A
49.
e
50.
C
51.
D
52.
A
53.
D
54.
A
55.
e
56.
e
57.
A
58.
D
59.
e
60.
A
61.
D
62.
A
63.
D
64.
e
65.
D
66.
8
67.
A
68.
D
69.
8
70.
C
71.
A
72.
8
73.
8
74.
8
75.
e
76.
e
77.
e
78.
D
79.
D
80.
D
81.
D
82.
D
83.
8
84.
8
85.
8
86.
D
87.
A
88.
8
89.
D
90.
e
91.
3
92.
4
93.
6
94.
5
95.
2
96.
3
97.
3
98.
2
99.
5
100.
5
FIIT.IEE Ltd., FIlTJEE House, 29.A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvaprlya
Vihar, New Delhi .110016, website: www.flitjee.com
Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
