SV I
ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE ( MOTOR )
II
ENGINEE
Page No
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 III
1
Governor and overspeed protection Governor Maintenance
67 70
Automation, Instrumentation Po Power transmission, Gears and Clutches
78 81
Miscellaneous Questions SAFETY,ENVIRONMENTAL
86 211
2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Marine Co Ship Const Pipes and
Lubrication
ING KNOWLEDGE ( GENERAL ) Page No
164 172 187
204
SV I
ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE ( MOTOR )
II
ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE ( GENERAL )
Page No
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 Governor and overspeed protection 13 Governor Maintenance 14 15 16 Automation, Instrumentation 17 Power transmission, Gears and Clutches 18 19 20 Mi Miscellaneous Questions
III SAFETY,ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION,SHIP PROTECTION,SHIP CONTRUCTION AND NAVAL ARCHITECTURE
Page No
1
67 70
78 81
86
211
2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 Marine Control Systems and Instrumentation 13 Ship Construction, Repairs and Regulations 14 15 Pipes and valves 16 17 18 Lubrication and anti - friction berings
164 172
187
204
I
AKS ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE ( MOTOR )
II
ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE ( GENERAL )
Page No
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Design,Components Operation Mainteneance Starting and reversing Lubrication systems Lubrication - Maintenance Fuel systems, Maintenance Auxiliary boiler Auxiliary boiler - Maintenance Scavenging,Supercharging and Aircooling Tu T urbocharger and Aircooler - Maintenance
Four stroke engine - Design, components and operation 15 Four stroke engine - Maintenance 16 17 18 Cooling Systems 19 Cooling Systems - Maintenance 20 Mi Miscellaneous Questions
Page No
1 21 35 42 47 51 53 54 59 62 66 67 70 71
1 Workshop practice, Soldering, Brazing,Welding and Gas cutting 2 3 4 Compressed air systems 5 Propeller,Shafting and Sterntube Bearing 6 Metallurgy and Non - Destructive Testing 7 Steam,Heat and Thermodynamics 8 Bilge System 9 Sanitary and Sewage system 10 He H eat Exchangers 11 Fuel oil properties and Purif iers 12 13
103 131 144 150 153 154 159 160 161 163 164 172
75 78 81 84 85 86
14 15 16 17 18
178 187 190 194 204
89
CONTENTS JKD
JKD II
ENGI ENGINE NEER ERIN ING G KNO KNOWL WLED EDGE GE ( GEN GENER ERA AL )
Page No
Page No
4 Refrigeration and Airconditioning 5 Pumps and Eductors
98 125
14 Disti Distill llin ing g Syste System m and and Pota Potabl ble e Water Water Sy Systems stems
170 170
16 Stee Steeri ring ng 17 Hydraulics and deck machinery
183 186
IV
ELEC ELECTR TRO O -TEC -TECHN HNOL OLOG OGY Y
285
CONTENTS
I
ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE ( MOTOR )
II
ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE ( GENERAL )
Page No
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Design,Components Operation Ma Mainteneance Starting and reversing Lubrication systems Lubrication - Maintenance Fuel systems, Maintenance Au Auxiliary boiler Auxiliary boiler - Maintenance Scavenging,Supercharging and Aircooling Turbocharger and Aircooler - Maintenance Governor and overspeed protection Governor Maintenance Four stroke engine - Design, components and operation Four stroke engine - Maintenance Automation, Instrumentation Power transmission, Gears and Clutches Co Cooling Systems Cooling Systems - Maintenance Mi M iscellaneous Questions
III SAFETY,ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION,SHIP CONTRUCTION AND NAVAL ARCHITECTURE
V
MEO CLASS IV MMD Question Papers
Page No
1 21 35 42 47 51 53 54 59 62 66 67 70 71
1 Workshop practice, Soldering, Brazing,Welding and Gas cutting 2 Refrigeration and Airconditioning 3 Pumps and Eductors 4 Compressed air systems 5 Propeller,Shafting and Sterntube Bearing 6 Metallurgy and Non - Destructive Testing 7 Steam,Heat and Thermodynamics 8 Bilge System 9 Sanitary and Sewage system 10 He H eat Exchangers 11 Fuel oil properties and Purifiers 12 Marine Control Systems and Instrumentation 13 Ship Construction, Repairs and Regulations
103 131 144 150 153 154 159 160 161 163 164 172
75 78 81 84 85 86
14 15 16 17 18
Distilling System and Potable W ater Systems Pipes and valves Steering Hydraulics and deck machinery Lubrication and anti - friction berings
178 187 190 194 204
89
211
IV
ELEC ELECTR TRO O -TEC -TECHN HNOL OLOG OGY Y
297
361
VI
Sample Letter Writing
394
Page 7
ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE KNOWLEDGE - MOTOR MOTOR - DESIGN, COMPONENTS Precision engine bearing inserts are m anufactured with a small The method of piston cooling in which which oil is delivered through the 2 portion of the bearing ends extending extending beyond the bearing housing connecting rod to a compartment within within the piston, then distributed distributed or caps. The installation process of these bearings requires by the motion of the pistons, and allowed to drain to the crankcase sufficient ________. via one or more holes or pipes, is termed ________
1
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5
overlap crush lap or lead protrusion B The piston rod s craper box incorporated in a two-stroke/cycle, two-stroke/cycle, crosshead diesel engine engine serves to _____________. eliminate the necessity for an oil scraper ring prevent side thrust and cylinder scoring prevent sludge and dirty oil from entering the crankcase scrape oil and carbon deposits off the cylinder walls walls C The main advantage of unit injectors (combined fuel pump and injector) over other fuel injection systems is _____________. _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
quaker shaker circulation spray B In a large, slow-speed, main propulsion diesel engine, which of the parts listed is under tension tension when the engine engine is running?
A. B. C. D. Ans:
Bed plate Column Entablature Tie rod D Passages are drilled in the crankshafts of diesel engines to provide lubricating oil to the _____________.
4
6
A. the lack of high pressure fuel lines B. their relatively low injection pressures C. reduced wear of spray orifices D. the lessened chance of fuel leaks into the engine sump Ans: A When may the crankcase ventilation pipes or oil drain pipes of two 7 or more engines be connected? A. Propulsion engines under 1000 shaft horsepower may share a common crankcase vent provided the oil drains drains remain separate.
A. main bearings B. connecting rod bearings C. piston pin bushings D. All of the above Ans: D The main function of tie rods in the construction of large, low speed 8 diesel engines is to ____________. A. stiffen the bedplate in way of the main bearings to increase the engine's longitudinal strength
and cost effective for propulsion B. In most cases it is desirable and engines to share a common crankcase ventilation and monitoring system.
B. accept most of the tensile loading that results from the firing forces developed during operation
C. No interconnection may be made between the crankcase ventilation pipes or oil drain pipes. D. None of the above are correct. Ans: C On most modern diesel engines, the main and connecting rod 9 bearings receive their lubricating oil by ____________. A. banjo feed B. splash feed C. gravity feed D. pressure feed Ans: D Lubricating oil is supplied to the crankpin bearings in a marine 11 diesel engine by _____________. A. internal crankshaft passages B. immersion in oil C. spclearance lubrication D. injection lubrication Ans: A The camshaft drive is designed to maintain proper camshaft speed 13 relative to crankshaft speed. In maintaining this relationship, the camshaft drive causes the camshaft to rotate at _____________. _____________. in a two-stroke cycle diesel diesel engine A. one-half crankshaft speed in B. crankshaft speed in a two-stroke cycle diesel engine in a two-stroke cycle diesel diesel engine C. two times crankshaft speed in D. one-fourth times crankshaft speed in a four-stroke cycle diesel engine Ans: B The opening of an exhaust valve on a modern, large, low- speed, 15 main propulsion diesel engine, may be actuated by _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
direct action of cam shaft compressed air pressure hydraulic "push rods" direct action of the main piston moving down C
C. mount the engine frame securely to the hull to prevent shaft coupling misalignment D. connect the crosshead solidly to the piston rod Ans: B Fuel injection pumps using the port and helix metering metering principle 10 requires the use of a ___________. A. crosshatched design B. lapped plunger and barrel C. variable stroke D. variable cam lift Ans: B gudgeonpin bearings are difficult difficult to lubricate because of their 12 oscillating motion and _____________. A. their free-floating design B. their relatively small size C. the reciprocating motion of the piston D. their position in the lubrication system Ans: D Engines having a bore exceeding 250 mm, but not exceeding 300 14 mm are to have at least _________.
A. three compression rings per piston and the minimum of two oil scraper rings B. one intake and one exhaust v alve per cylinder provided no other means of scavenging is used C. one explosion relief valve in way of each alternate crank throw, with a minimum of two valves where an opposed piston design is D. one crankshaft except in cases where required Ans: C Shaker, circulation, and spray are the three general methods used 16 in _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
pre-injection fuel oil treatment lube oil filtration lube oil purification piston cooling D
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The speed of the camshaft in a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine, running at 950 RPM, is _____________. A. 475 RPM B. 950 RPM C. 1900 RPM D. 2400 RPM Ans: B A two stroke diesel engine exhaust temperaturewill be lower than a 19 four stroke diesel engine of the same displacement because the ___________. I. scavenging air is cooling the exhaust gases II. exhaust cycle time is longer
18
A. I only B. II only C. both I and II D. neither I nor II Ans: A Where is the fuel delivery check v alve located in a jerk pump fuel 21 injection system? A. In the cylinder head B. On the suction side of the delivery pump C. In the injection pump housing discharge D. On the inlet side of the spray valves Ans: C Which of the air intake systems listed will result in the lowest 23 specific fuel consumption? A. Natural aspiration B. Turbocharged
A. bottom B. back C. top D. side Ans: A How many crankcase relief valves are required for a 325mm bore, 22 eight cylinder in-line engine? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 Ans: D In which of the following areas of a crosshead engine is a 24 permanently connected fire extinguishing system required? A. Exhaust manifolds in excess of eight inches in diameter. B. Crankcases having a gross v olume in excess of 21 cubic feet.
17
A. B. C. D. Ans: 20
C. Roots blower D. Piston blower Ans: B Camshafts are usually driven by timing gears or ___________. 25 A. B. C. D. Ans: 27
A. B. C. D.
push rods chain drives rocker arms flywheels B The arrangement and shape of the cams on a diesel engine camshaft directly control which of the listed groups of operating conditions?
Ans: B A port-and-helix fuel injection pump having upper and lower plunger helixes is designed to _____________. A. vary fuel delivery and return pressure B. vary the beginning and ending of injection C. operate with residual fuels only D. provide maximum fuel delivery rate Ans: B Some fuel injection systems utilize port-and-helix metering. Which 31 of the following statement describes a system "timed for port closing"? A. B. C. D.
D. Scavenging spaces in open connection to the cylinders. Ans: D The valve cam slope angle determines the _____________. 26 A. B. C. D. Ans: 28
A. B. C. D.
opening and closing points of the valve opening and closing rate of the valve height of valve opening amount of time the valve remains open B Carbon deposits building up, in, and around the injection nozzle tip are least likely to occur when us ing which of the listed types of fuel injector nozzles? Hole Multi-hole Pintle Multi-pintle
Ans: C Which of the following statements describes a fuel injection pump marked "timed for port closing"? A. Injection has a c onstant beginning and variable ending. B. The pump stroke determines the amount of fuel injected. C. Fuel is metered by the pump's delivery valve. D. Timing reference marks should be c hanged. Ans: A An individual injection pump is designed for variable beginning and 32 constant ending of injection. For diesel engines operating at constant speeds, the start of injection will _____________. 30
Injection has a variable beginning and a constant ending. Injection is metered by an external delivery valve. Injection has a constant beginning and variable ending. Injection will not occur until the helix closes the delivery valve.
Ans: C A crankshaft whose center of gravity coincides with its center line is said to be __________. A. dynamically balanced B. statically balanced C. counter balanced D. resonantly balanced Ans: B The small end of the connecting rod is attached to the piston with a 35 _____________. A. crankpin B. sliding wedge 33
C. Turbocharger inlet piping in excess of twelve inches in diameter.
Speed, torque, and horsepower production Firing order, valve timing, and valve lift Fuel consumption, efficiency, and cylinder pressure Scavenge pressure, compression ratio, and exhaust pressure
29
Explosion relief valves on diesel engine crankcases should relieve the pressure at not more than _________. 0.1 bar 0.2 bar 1.0 bar 2.0 bar B The sealing surfaces of a diesel engine piston ring are considered to be the faces in contact with the cylinder wall, in addition to the ring groove ___________.
A. B. C. D.
advance as the load increases retard as the load increases remain unchanged regardless of load always occur at top dead center
Ans: A The amount of fuel injected in a particular time, or degree, of crankshaft rotation is termed _____________. A. metering B. timing C. rate of injection D. rate of distribution Ans: C At dead center, the centerline of the connecting rod usually 36 coincides with the _____________. A. angularity of the piston motion B. inertia moment from the piston 34
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C. gudgeon pin D. torque bushing Ans: C Connecting rods in a diesel engine are used to connect the 37 _____________. A. engine to the bed B. rocker arm to the camshaft C. crankshaft to the gear train D. piston to the crankshaft Ans: D The purpose of a heat dam used in some diesel engine cast iron 39 pistons is to ____________. A. concentrate all heat in the piston crown B. increase the distance of travel for heat from the crown to the top ring groove C. ensure that all heat in the piston crown is conducted to the top ring D. provide a short direct path for heat to flow from the crown to the top ring Ans: B A diesel engine with a full speed of 1000 RPM drives a propeller at 41 300 RPM. What is the speed reduction ratio? A. 0.3 to 1 B. 3.33 to 1 C. 33 to 1 D. 300 to 1 Ans: B Why is the ring belt narrower in diameter than the skirt of a piston 43 designed for a diesel engine? A. To allow for greater expansion due to higher operating temperature. B. To seal the cylinder against leakage of combustion gases. C. To provide an additional surface for oil c ooling. D. To provide additional strength for the crown and lower structure.
45
Ans: A The diameter of a piston is usually less at the crown than at the skirt, in order to ______________. A. facilitate the installation of piston rings B. allow for the expansion of the piston during operation C. prevent crankcase vapors from entering the combustion chamber
D. reduce wearing of the upper cylinder liner Ans: B The fuel injection pumps on a diesel engine are controlled by a 47 linkage system attached to the _____________. camshaft crankshaft governor flywheel C The ability of a fuel particle to travel into the combustion chamber 49 before burning is called _____________. A. penetration B. permanence C. turbulence D. atomization Ans: A The function of the window cast into the housing of an individual 51 jerk pump is to ____________.
C. centerline of the cylinder D. centerline of the king pin Ans: C Movement of the pump control rack in a fuel injection system using 38 individual plunger-type pumps _____________. A. changes the position of the fuel inlet ports B. changes the length of the pump stroke C. varies the quantity of fuel delivered D. varies the compression of the delivery valve s pring Ans: C Diesel engines are classified as reciprocating internal combustion 40 engines because they ______________. A. use energy from fuel burned outside their cylinders B. burn fuel in a combustion chamber that moves back and forth C. burn fuel in a chamber where its energy moves a piston back and forth D. use a continuous combustion process to impart rotary motion to the pistons Ans: C Which of the listed design features is most common to a two42 stroke/cycle low-speed main propulsion diesel engines? A. Crosshead construction B. Cross-scavenging air flow C. Trunk type pistons D. Single reduction gearing Ans: A Which statement about diesel engine combustion is true? 44 A. Combustion does not begin until the piston starts down on the power stroke. B. Maximum combustion pressure is reached before TDC. C. Turbulence in the cylinder causes a delay in ignition. D. Maximum cylinder firing pressure is not developed until the piston passes TDC. Ans: D Why are some diesel engine cylinder liners plated on the wearing 46 surface with porous chromium? A. The chromium will not wear out the piston rings. B. Chromium eliminates the need for oil scraper rings. C. The chromium strengthens the liners in the way of the scavenging air ports. D. Pores in the plating aid in maintaining the lube oil film. Ans: D What type of fitting is to be used on diesel engine fuel injection line 48 piping?
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. allow the pump to be timed to the engine B. check for sludge on the pump barrel C. check that the fuel return passages are clear D. set up the fuel rack calibration in cubic millimeters Ans: A Turbulence in a diesel engine cylinder is of major importance in 53 providing _____________. A. proper fuel metering B. complete fuel/air mixing C. minimal fuel penetration D. proper fuel timing Ans: B Cavitation erosion in the cooling water system of a diesel engine 55 usually occurs at the pump impeller, and on the waterside of the _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 50 A. B. C. D. Ans: 52
Mild steel Hardened steel Extra heavy Double extra heavy C Theoretical perfect combustion in a diesel engine yields by-products of _____________. aldehydes and carbon dioxide water vapor and carbon monoxide nitrogen and carbon monoxide water vapor and carbon dioxide D The piston gudgeon pin used in some diesel engine pistons is prevented from contacting the cylinder wall by a __________.
piston relief groove piston pin cup snap ring bronze bushing C The load is always placed on the lower half of the main bearings in 54 a/an ____________. A. two-stroke/cycle engine B. four-stroke/cycle engine C. reverse cycle engine D. double acting engine Ans: A The main operating characteristic of diesel engines which 56 distinguishes them from other internal combustion engines is the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
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A. B. C. D. Ans: 57 A. B. C. D. Ans: 59 A. B. C. D. Ans: 61
A. B. C. D. Ans: 63
fuel nozzle holders exhaust valve guides engine cylinder liners engine exhaust manifold C Which term describes piston pins having bearing surfaces in both the piston bosses and connecting rod eye? Stationary Full floating Semi-floating Free rolling B Piston cooling fins are located _____________. on top of the piston crown underneath the piston crown at the base of the piston skirt inside the cylinder liner cooling water jacket B Besides the use of piston cooling fins to assist in cooling,they also provide extra strength for the piston ___________. skirt crown gudgeon pin oil rings B A thrust bearing is used with a propulsion diesel engine to _____________.
A. control axial movement of the crankshaft B. transmit engine thrust to the propeller shaft C. absorb vibrations in the propeller shafting D. prevent propeller thrust from being transmitted to the hull Ans: A Which of the following statements pertains to propulsion engines 65 with bores exceeding 200 mm? A. There shall be a means to display the cooling water outlet temperature of each cylinder. B. All engines connected to controllable pitch propellers shall be of the direct reversible type. C. The engines will be fitted with a means to display the exhaust gas temperature of each cylinder. D. All of the above are correct. Ans: C What is the function of the main thrust bearing? A. Prevents lateral movement of the slow speed gear. B. Transmits propeller thrust to the hull. C. Keeps spring bearings in line. D. Prevents main reduction gear axial movement. Ans: B The function of diesel engine piston compression rings is to 69 ____________. A. prevent piston side thrust B. prevent engine friction losses C. transmit heat from the piston to the cylinder liner D. remove oil from the cylinder combustion space Ans: C Modern marine diesel engines equipped with mechanical fuel 71 injection operate on a combustion phase within the cycle which is _________. 67
A. B. C. D.
73
method of supplying air cooling system method of igniting fuel valve operating mechanism C Compared to other fuel injection systems, unit injectors operate with 58 virtually no _____________. A. injection lag B. ignition delay C. moving parts D. control Ans: A A properly honed diesel engine cylinder liner will ________. 60 A. prevent piston ring wear B. shorten the ring break-in period C. prevent cylinder liner glazing D. appear slick and glazed Ans: B The minimum fuel oil delivery pressure required for efficient 62 injection depends primarily on the ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 64
A. increase cylinder turbulence B. prevent wear of the liner from occurring C. prevent wear of the liner from forming a ridge at the upper level of ring travel D. decrease compression ratio for easier s tarting Ans: C Exhaust gas pyrometers are useful for ____________. 75
power and intake intake and exhaust exhaust and compression compression and power D Where engine bores exceed 230 mm, a bursting disc or flame arrestor is fitted ____________. A. at the supply inlet to the starting air manifold for non-reversing engines B. on the exhaust manifold prior to the inlet of the turbocharger
A. B. C. D. Ans: 66
C. on all devices subject to the by-products of combustion or lubrication system vapors D. in way of the control valve of each cylinder for direct reversing engines having a main starting manifold Ans: A The main function of piston compression rings is to _______. 68 A. prevent excessive cylinder liner wear B. reduce friction losses in the engine C. seal the space between the piston and the liner D. limit upward flow of lube oil into the combustion space Ans: C Diesel engine piston ring gaps can be straight or angle cut. In 70 comparison, the angle cut ring ____________. A. allows piston ring expansion B. controls piston ring tension C. increases ring wearing quality D. decreases combustion gas leakage Ans: D Which of the listed designs is effectively used to provide the 72 turbulence necessary for proper combustion in a diesel engine cylinder?
entirely constant pressure entirely constant temperature a combination of constant volume and constant pressure a combination of constant temperature and c onstant pressure
Ans: C The purpose of counterboring the top of the cylinder liner, extending down to the top point of travel of the top compression ring, is to _____________.
degree of cylinder air turbulence maximum pressure in the engine c ylinders during injection quantity of the fuel to be injected duration of the ignition delay period B The two strokes of a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine are ____________.
A. B. C. D.
74
Masked exhaust valves Special piston rings Turbocharger Precombustion chamber
Ans: D The most rapid period of fuel c ombustion in a diesel engine cylinder should begin just before the piston reaches top dead center and ____________.
A. when fuel injection has been completed B. when fuel vaporization has been completed C. should efficiently continue through the after burning period in all properly designed engines D. should be completed shortly after passing top dead center Ans: D Oil control rings function to _____________. 76
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A. detecting faulty combustion in individual cylinders B. adjusting fuel racks to maintain equal loading between cylinders
A. allow proper lubrication of cylinders and compression rings B. reduce the amount of lube oil burned in the combustion chamber
C. adjusting the load limit setting of the gov ernor at idle conditions
C. scrape excess lube oil from the liner on the downstroke
D. calculating engine horsepower Ans: A In the construction of a diesel engine, what is the purpose of end 77 plates? A. To provide accessibility to the cylinder liners. B. To add rigidity to the block and a surface for attaching other parts.
D. all of the above Ans: D The main purpose of the piston oil scraper rings is to 78 _____________. A. seal the space between the piston and the liner B. reduce the amount of lube oil burned in the combustion chamber
C. To add stability to the engine block. D. To make a surface for the base. Ans: B What is commonly used to c reate turbulence in a diesel engine 79 combustion system? A. Shape of the piston crowns. B. Increasing the compression ratios. C. Increasing the effective plunger stroke. D. Increasing the turbocharger gear ratio. Ans: A To shut down a diesel engine after it exceeds the set maximum 81 speed, which type of device listed should be used? A. Speed limiting governor B. Overspeed governor C. Overspeed trip D. Overspeed relay Ans: C To function properly, oil control rings used on a diesel engine piston 83 must distribute sufficient oil to all parts of the cylinder wall and must also _____________.
C. transmit heat from the piston to the cylinder liner D. damp out fluctuations of the piston side thrust Ans: B How many power strokes per c rankshaft revolution are there in an 80 eight cylinder, two-stroke/cycle diesel engine? A. One B. Two C. Four D. Eight Ans: D Turbulence is created in the cylinders of a diesel engine to 82 _____________. A. obtain injection lag B. help mix fuel and air C. increase combustion pressure D. utilize higher injection pressures Ans: B An important design characteristic of an explosion relief valve for a 84 diesel engine is the ability to _________.
A. prevent any lubricant from reaching the compression rings B. prevent excessive lubrication from reaching the combustion space
A. close quickly in order to prevent an inrush of air B. open quickly against crankcase pressure to prevent a possible implosion C. open slowly to permit a gradual reduction of crankcase pressure
C. provide metal-to-metal contact to seal the cylinder against blow-by D. assure a positive means of sc raping carbon accumulation from the cylinder Ans: B In some modern large diesel engines, which of the followingis used 85 as the support for the main bearings? A. Bedplate B. Block C. Base D. Sump Ans: A In an internal combustion engine, which of the devices listed will 87 force the compression rings to seal the compression gases in the space above the piston? A. B. C. D. Ans: 89
Use of bimetallic piston rings Ring gap pretensioning Thermal increase in ring-end clearance Gas pressure acting against the back of the ring D The size of the exhaust valve opening is ____________.
D. close slowly to permit proper seating of the valve disc and neoprene sealing surfaces Ans: A Turbulence in the cylinder of a two-stroke/cycle main propulsion 86 diesel engine is mainly created by _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
directional intake valve ports masked intake valves precombustion chambers intake port design D The theoretical minimum compression ratio necessary to ensure compression ignition in a direct injection diesel engine is _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
0.334027778 0.418055556 0.500694444 0.584027778 C Provision is to be made for ventilation of an enclosed diesel engine crankcase by means of a small ________. aperture not exceeding 25mm diameter fan to develop a slight suction not exceeding 25mm of water vent line attached to the upper most area of the crankcase near the center of the engine breather or by means of a slight suction not exceeding 25mm of water D In a large slow-speed propulsion diesel engine, the force applied to the crosshead is ______________.
88
90
A. most critical in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine B. most critical in a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine C. most critical in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine if it is turbocharged
A. B. C.
D. of equal importance in a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine as in a fourstroke/cycle diesel engine Ans: B Which of the general advantages listed does the electrical 91 pyrometer have over the mechanical pyrometer?
D.
A. When heated, it will move proportional to the amount the metal has lengthened or expanded. B. The pointer associated with the pyrometer scale can be made to also measure engine RPM. C. It can be utilized in exhaust manifolds and heat exchangers interchangeably. D. It can indicate temperature at a distant point from the source of heat. Ans: D
Ans: 92
A. against the crosshead during power stroke and away from the crosshead during the compression stroke B. against the crosshead during the compression stroke and away from the crosshead during the power stroke C. against the crosshead during the power and compression strokes D. away from the crosshead during the power and compression strokes Ans: C
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A diesel engine is driving an alternator required to run at1800 RPM. The overspeed governor is normally required tobe set within a range of ______________.
93
A crankshaft whose center of gravity coincides with its center line is said to be __________. I. staticly balanced II. dynamically balanced
94
A. 1980 to 2070 RPM B. 2100 to 2200 RPM C. 2200 to 2300 RPM D. 2300 to 2400 RPM Ans: A A six cylinder 2-stroke/cycle, single acting diesel engine has a 580 95 mm bore and a 1700 mm stroke. What indicated power per cylinder will be developed if the average mean effective pressure is 15.3 kg/cm2 at a speed of 120 RPM?
A. I only B. II only C. both I and II D. neither I nor II Ans: A Using a diesel engine indicator P-V diagram, the cylinder mean 96 effective pressure is calculated to be 21.3 kg/cm2. What is the scale of the spring used on the indicator if the diagram area is 18.46 cm2 with a length of 13 cm?
A. 1,348 kW B. 2,696 kW C. 4,044 kW D. 8,088 kW Ans: A Diesel engine valve springs function to _____________. 97 A. hold the valves open B. keep the valves off their seats until the exhaust stroke is c ompleted
0.9 1 1.25 1.5 D A built-up exhaust valve is one in which _____________. 98 A. the stem and heads are made of different material B. the self-centering action comes from motion of the valve stem in the guide C. a replaceable valve disk is welded to the head D. low-alloy steel is used throughout Ans: A A seven cylinder, 2-stroke/cycle, single acting diesel engine has a 100 750 mm bore and a 2000 mm stroke. What indicated power will be developed if the average mean effective pressure is 14.8 kg/cm2 at a speed of 96 RPM?
C. close the valves D. open inlet valves when the air injection cycle begins Ans: C A six cylinder, two stroke/cycle diesel engine is 83% efficient and 99 has a cylinder constant of 0.998 while operating with a mean effective pressure of 15 kg/cm2 at a s peed of 100 RPM. What is the metric brake horse power developed? A. B. C. D. Ans: 101 A. B. C. D. Ans: 103
A. B. C. D. Ans: 105 A. B. C. D. Ans: 107
A. B. C. D. Ans: 109
5,559 kW 6,698 kW 7,455 kW 8,982 kW C Between the periods of injection and ignition of the fuel, a diesel engine crankshaft rotates through the ____________. detonation period firing period delay period advance period C The purpose of an interference angle in a diesel engineexhaust valve is to ________. I. work in conjunction with valve rotators to rotate the valve II. seat the valve quickly I only II only both I and II neither I nor II B One function of diesel engine lubricating oil is to _______. induce carbon formation on cylinder walls improve fuel penetration in the combustion space form a friction reducing film between mating surfaces lubricate the fuel injectors C In a diesel engine, exhaust valves open before the intakeports are uncovered to ___________. I. reduce pumping losses II. reduce back pressure I only II only both I and II neither I nor II C The amount of fuel injected into a diesel engine cylinder by a unit injector, is controlled by _____________.
the firing pressure in the cylinder a metering helix inside the pump varying the physical length of the plunger stroke varying the clearance between the injector cam and the injector rocker arm Ans: B A diesel engine operating at a light load, when compared to 111 operating at heavy load has a fuel/air ratio that is __________. A. B. C. D.
A. higher B. less
A. B. C. D. Ans:
1,959 kW 3,906 kW 7,182 kW 14,363 kW D The cylinder liner forming the cylinder wall and the inside of the 102 water jacket is called a _____________. A. dry liner B. wet liner C. jacket liner D. corrugated liner Ans: B The purpose of an interference angle in a diesel engineexhaust 104 valve is to ________. I. seat the valve quickly II. break up seat deposits A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 106 A. B. C. D. Ans: 108
A. B. C. D. Ans: 110
I only II only both I and II neither I nor II C Open combustion chambers are designed to _____________. eliminate carbon buildup improve piston cooling prevent air charge turbulence provide proper fuel/air mixing D Critical speeds occurring within the operating speed range of a main propulsion diesel engine may be changed, or have their damaging effects reduced by a/an _____________. engine support vibration isolator detuner or viscous fluid damper lightened crankshaft flywheel spherically seated crankshaft bearing B Which bearing half will receive the greatest load in a twostroke/cycle diesel engine?
A. All bearing halves share an equal load. B. Upper half of the main bearing. C. Lower half of the piston pin bearing in the connecting rod. D. Lower half of the connecting rod bearing at the crankshaft end of the rod. Ans: C A safety cover differs from other diesel engine access doors in that 112 it is fitted with a __________. A. spring-loaded pressure plate B. handwheel
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C. equal D. directly proportional Ans: A In an opposed piston engine, which of the following events would 113 happen if the lower crank lead were reduced from 12‚ to 0‚? A. B. C. D.
C. nut-operated clamp D. large gasket Ans: A Which of the following relationships should occur between the 114 temperature developed in a combustion space, and the compression ratio of the engine?
The exhaust ports would open before the scavenging ports. The scavenging ports would open before the exhaust ports. Neither the exhaust nor the scav enging ports would open. The exhaust and scav enging ports would open simultaneously.
Ans: D The valve s tem expansion associated with engine warm-up is allowed for by the ____________. A. valve springs B. hydraulic governor C. tappet clearance adjusters D. cooling system Ans: C A dry-type spark arrestor removes sparks from a diesel engine 117 exhaust by _____________. A. increasing the linear velocity of the exhaust gases B. changing directions of exhaust gas flow C. decreasing the temperature of the exhaust gases D. accelerating the exhaust gas through a reduced size orifice Ans: B When two cams of the same diameter, one with tangential flanks 119 and the other with convex flanks are compared, the cam with tangential flanks will cause___________. 115
A. B. C. D.
Higher compression ratios create higher temperature. Higher temperatures create higher compression ratios. Lower temperatures create higher compression ratios. Higher compression ratios create lower temperatures.
Ans: A Which of the bearing types listed is commonly used for main bearings in small internal combustion engines? A. Precision-type with shims B. Poured-type consisting of babbitt C. Poured-type with shims D. Replaceable precision-type Ans: D The most common instrument used to measure diesel engine 118 exhaust pressure is the _____________. A. pyrometer B. bourdon gauge C. pneumercator D. manometer Ans: D Which of the following types of engines have a combustion 120 chamber located between a cylinder head and the crown of a piston? 116
greater valve lift more abrupt valve action less valve seat wear less valve gear wear B The average pressure exerted on a piston during each power 121 stroke is termed _____________. A. indicated horsepower B. mean effective pressure C. exhaust back pressure D. compression pressure Ans: B Wet-type exhaust silencers, used with some diesel engines, have 123 which of the following design features in common? A. The silencer is equipped with a water seal. B. The exhaust gases are not mixed with cooling water. C. The internal baffles break up the exhaust gas pulsation. D. The exhaust noise is completely eliminated. Ans: C In a diesel engine, after ignition of the fuel occ urs, but before the 125 piston reaches TDC, there is little change in the cylinder _____________.
Horizontal opposed Opposed Single acting None of the above C The greatest turbulence in a diesel engine cylinder is created by 122 the _____________. A. shape of the combustion chamber B. fuel injection spray pattern C. cylinder swept volume D. degree of penetration of the fuel oil droplets Ans: A The exhaust system for a diesel engine is usually designed to 124 remove exhaust gases and to _____________. A. power the Roots-type exhauster B. remove the emission of exhaust smoke pollutants C. power a reciprocating supercharger D. muffle exhaust noise Ans: D Most practical diesel engines today operate on a c ycle which is a 126 combination of the Diesel and Otto cycles. In this process, compression ignition _____________.
A. volume B. pressure C. temperature D. energy Ans: A Main propulsion diesel engines having a bore exceeding 300 mm 127 are to have at least _________.
A. begins on a constant volume basis B. begins on a constant pressure basis C. ends on a constant volume basis D. begins and ends on a constant volume basis Ans: A In an opposed piston engine, the term "crank lead" refers to 128 _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. two independent means of starting the engine B. two engine driven lube oil pumps capable of parallel operation C. one (explosion relief) valve at the position of each main crank throw D. five air starting valves to permit the admission of starting air at any crank angle Ans: C A controllable pitch propeller on a diesel driven vessel eliminates 129 the need for ____________. A. friction clutches B. disconnect clutches C. reversing gears D. reduction gears Ans: C Mist detectors used on large low-speed main propulsion diesel 131 engines monitor and check for the presence of ____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. one crankshaft turning faster than the other B. the two crankshafts turning in different directions C. the piston in one cylinder reaching inner dead center several crankshaft degrees before the other piston D. the piston in one cylinder reaching dead c enter when the other reaches outer dead center Ans: C Which of the events listed does NOT occur during the instant the 130 piston just reaches top dead center? A. Intake B. Ignition C. Power D. Combustion Ans: A A main propulsion diesel engine crankshaft bearing lacking 132 sufficient "crush", will _____________.
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fuel oil vapor at the sludge tank vent unburned fuel vapors in the scavenge air receiver lube oil vapors in the crank case lube oil vapors in the engine room C A unit type fuel injector is used on a diesel engine to 133 _____________. A. meter the fuel B. produce the proper fuel oil pressure C. atomize the fuel D. all of the above Ans: D The closing of the exhaust valves used on a modern, large, low135 speed, main propulsion diesel engine may be directly provided by _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
pound under load be lubricated more easily than with sufficient crush tend to rotate with the journal have its back forced against the seat under load C The intake valves in a diesel engine are reseated by 134 _____________. A. cam followers B. push rods C. combustion gases D. valve springs Ans: D A characteristic of a bearing material which permits small dirt 136 particles to become embedded in it's surface is ________________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. large conical springs B. compressed air pressure C. hydraulic pressure D. exhaust gas pressure Ans: B A diesel engine crankcase ventilation system ______________. A. prevents spark generation B. removes combustible gases C. determines the level of combustible gases D. provides inert gas generation in crankcase Ans: B The bearings used to s upport the crankshaft are generally called 139 __________. A. line shaft bearings B. connecting rod bearings C. main bearings D. support bearings Ans: C Internal combustion engine crankcase vent outlets must be 141 equipped with ______. A. hinged rain guards B. corrosion resistant flame screens C. dipsticks for measuring oil levels D. crankcase ventilation fans Ans: B Cylinder lubrication oil for low speed main propulsion diesel 143 engines is admitted to each cylinder during _____________. 137
A. B. C. D. Ans: 145
the power stroke the compression stroke low load operation only periods of standby B Which of the following listed construction details of internal combustion engines is required?
A. A warning notice to caution against the opening of a hot crankcase for a specified period of time after shut down. B. The use of end block construction for engines developing over 1000 brake horsepower. C. Removable cylinder liners must be used for engines developing over 1000 brake horsepower. D. All engines shall be provided with an exhaust gas pressure monitoring system. Ans: A The term "proper metering", as applied to a diesel fuel injection 147 system, can be best defined as _____________. A. delivering the same quantity of fuel to each cylinder for each power stroke according to engine load B. maintaining the metering adjustment for a reasonable period under all load conditions C. timing fuel injection to obtain maximum power and good fuel economy D. distributing the fuel to all parts of the combustion chamber for proper combustion Ans: A The rate of fuel injection in a diesel engine cylinder depends 149 primarily on _____________. A. the size of the holes in the fuel nozzle B. timing of the pump C. supply pressure to the pump
A. desirable, as it will prevent damage to the journal surface B. desirable, as it will assist in keeping the lube oil filters clean C. undesirable, since the embedded particles will score the journal D. undesirable, since the particles will interfere with lube oil flow Ans: A Most fuel injection nozzles are opened by _____________. A. fuel oil pressure B. a cam operated follower C. a spring-loaded pressure plate D. timing gears keyed to the crankshaft Ans: A Injection pressure in a common rail fuel system is controlled by 140 _____________. A. engine speed B. varying the fuel pump piston stroke C. varying the injector needle valve clearance D. a bypass valve Ans: D What is to be installed on an internal combustion engine if its 142 cylinder bore exceeds 200mm? A. Crankcase vapor monitors B. Engine exhaust silencers C. Constant pressure type turbochargers D. Explosion relief valves Ans: D What is the purpose of the "window" installed in the housing of an 144 individual jerk pump? 138
A. To allow the pump to be timed to the engine. B. To check for sludge on the pump barrel. C. To check that fuel oil return passages are clear. D. To set up the fuel rack calibration in cubic millimeters. Ans: A Which statement regarding the arrangement and location of 146 explosion relief valves used on an internal combustion engines is true_____________? A. They may be omitted on all engines having a cylinder bore of nine inches or less B. They may be omitted provided the engine utilizes a crankcase monitoring system C. The type of engine and operating cycle must be considered by the designer D. Minimizing the danger from emission of flame is a key consideration Ans: D One function of the fuel pump delivery check valve is to 148 _____________. A. prevent carbon deposits from forming on the injector nozzle B. help the injector needle reseat without dribbling at the nozzle holes C. provide a prolonged pressure drop in the high pressure steel piping to the injector D. ensure a fuel leakoff between the plunger and barrel which provides lubrication for relative movement Ans: B Fuel injection systems meter fuel, atomize fuel, and 150 _____________. A. create turbulence in the combustion chamber B. aid in completing cylinder scavenging C. inject fuel at the proper time
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D. shape of the combustion chamber Ans: A The valve cam s lope angle determines the _____________. 151 A. engine torque characteristics B. acceleration rate of valve opening and closing C. engine fuel efficiency D. diameter of intake and exhaust valves Ans: B Cylinders diameters greater than 230 mm require additional safety 153 devices when the scavenging spaces are openly connected to the cylinders. Which of the following devices will be used to protect such spaces? Tri-knock fittings Explosion relief valves Quick release expansion joints Stacked plate type inlet check valves B Fuel injectors used in heavy fuel oil systems are usually provided 155 with cooling to reduce _____________. A. cold corrosion of the nozzles B. fuel viscosity for better atomization C. carbon accumulation on the nozzles D. fuel detonation in the cylinders Ans: C Increasing the load on an engine using a double-helix type injection 157 pump varies the effective stroke of the pump to start _____________.
D. minimize fuel penetration into the cylinder Ans: C Engine displacement is equal to the c ylinder _____________. 152 A. area times the stroke B. area times the stroke, times the number of cylinders C. volume times the stroke D. volume times the stroke, times the number of cylinders Ans: B A loop or cross scavenged engine utilizes the motion of its pistons 154 and a turbocharger to provide scavenging air. Which of the listed mechanical designs prevents the air under the pistons from being pumped back through the scavenge ports during the piston
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. earlier and end later B. later and end earlier C. and end later D. and end earlier Ans: A The duration of fuel injection developed by an individual port-and159 helix fuel injection pump, is determined by the ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 161 A. B. C. D. Ans: 163 A. B. C. D. Ans: 165 A. B. C. D. Ans: 167 A. B. C. D. Ans: 169 A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 156 A. B. C. D. Ans: 158
Masked intake ports Length of the piston skirt Positive pressure from the blower Lower liner seals B The possibility of damage from operating a diesel engine at critical speeds is reduced by the use of ______________. an isochronous governor elastic engine mounts a vibration damper a cast iron bed plate with good flexible qualities C The linear motion of a diesel engine piston is converted to the rotary motion required to drive gears, propeller shafts, and generators by the _____________.
A. flywheel B. crankshaft C. journal bearings D. camshaft Ans: B The plunger in a jerk pump is rotated until the release port is 160 uncovered. If the port remains uncovered all of the time, which of the listed operations will occur?
total pump stroke pump plunger diameter plunger helix angle effective pump stroke D When the lower edge of the spiral begins to uncover the release port in a jerk pump, the _____________. pumping continues until the plunger travels its full stroke effective pumping stroke of the plunger ends pressure drops slowly until the full stroke is attained plunger rotates to the zero delivery position until the next s troke B Which of the following will occur when the lower edge of the spiral, on the plunger of a jerk pump, uncov ers the spill port?
A. No fuel will be delivered. B. The maximum effective stroke will be attained. C. The fuel delivered to the cylinder will be excessive. D. The injection nozzle will overheat and carbonize. Ans: A The amount of fuel delivered by a helical plunger fuel injection 162 pump is controlled by _____________. A. varying the pump discharge pressure B. varying the pump return pressure C. rotation of the pump plunger D. rotation of the pump barrel Ans: C In a diesel engine, pistons are attached to the crankshaft by 164 _____________.
The plunger immediately reverses direction. The pressure drops and fuel delivery stops. The plunger rotates to the no fuel position. The barrel rotates to the zero effective stroke position. B Which of the components listed is NOT found in a single acting engine? Exhaust valves Scavenging ports Combustion chambers Double crankshafts D Cast iron pistons used in large propulsion diesel engines are constructed with ____________. no taper what so ever the skirt being tapered and s maller than the crown the skirt being tapered and larger than the crown the crown being tapered and smaller than the skirt D Successful combustion inside the cylinders of a diesel engine is dependent upon _____________. fine atomization high temperature good mixing of fuel and air all of the above D
push rods clearance adjusters connecting rods piston guides C In diesel engines designed with a crosshead, the motion of the 166 piston rod can be described as _____________. A. reciprocating at the piston pin, rotary at the crank pin B. reciprocating at the crank pin, rotary at the piston pin C. straight reciprocation D. straight rotation Ans: C Which of the following manufacturing methods is recommended for 168 diesel engine fuel injection line piping? A. Cold rolled B. Electric resistance welded C. Seamless drawn D. Straight seam Ans: C Which of the combustion parameters listed is used in a diesel 170 engine, but NOT related to the injection system? A. Atomization B. Metering C. Effective stroke D. Penetration Ans: C A. B. C. D. Ans:
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Fuel oil penetration into the cylinder of a diesel engine is _____________. A. dependent on air turbulence B. reduced by finer atomization C. increased by finer atomization D. nonexistent in the precombustion chamber system Ans: B What is required for crosshead type engines that have a 173 scavenging space in open connection to the cylinder? 171
172 A. B. C. D. Ans: 174
Proper atomization of fuel in diesel engine combustion chambers will _____________. affect the injection pressure improve combustion reduce compression pressure decrease power output B Which of the following statements is an accurate description of fuel injection piping used on diesel engines with a cylinder bore of 250 mm and above?
A. The air flow from the scavenging space must always be protected by plate type check valves and under no circumstance may other devices be used.
A. The piping shall be so arranged to allow for uncomplicated removal of the fuel injection equipment and other as sociated components located on the cylinder head.
B. A suitable gasket for the interface of both manifolds is necessary to prevent recirculation of scavenging gases, while additionally minimizing exhaust gas leakage.
B. All high pressure piping shall be of the double lined type, with the outer leakoff line suitably channeled to a dedicated tank.
C. The scavenging space is to be permanently connected to an approved fire extinguishing system, entirely separate from the fire extinguishing system of the engine room.
C. All storage tanks connected to the leakoff piping of fuel injection systems shall be prov ided with high level alarms and sufficient means for emptying.
D. The required equipment for a crosshead type engine is totally dependent upon manufacturer's ability to placate market demands
D. The piping is to be effectively shielded and secured to prevent fuel or fuel mist from reaching a source of ignition on the engine or its surroundings.
Ans: C In a diesel engine mechanical-type fuel pump, the delivery check valve is opened by ____________. A. push rod action B. cam action C. hydraulic action D. spring action Ans: C Differential needle valves used in fuel injectors are directly closed 177 by _____________. A. cam action B. spring force C. fuel oil pressure D. firing pressure Ans: B Injection lag can be caused by ____________. 179 A. improper timing of the intake valves B. setting of the pump plunger C. compressibility of the fuel D. position of the needle valve Ans: C A diesel engine with a combustion chamber located between the 181 crowns of two pistons is known as a/an _______________. 175
double-acting engine opposed pistons engine single-acting engine horizontal acting engine B An exhaust pipe from a internal combustion engine may not need to 183 be insulated when _________. A. installed on fishing vessels B. it is of the water jacketed type C. it is used as an emergency generator D. special provision is made by the Chief Engineer Ans: B In diesel engines, the four basic events (intake, compression, 185 power and exhaust) are performed once in _______________.
Ans: D What is the term given to the process of breaking up fuel oil into very fine particles for better combustion? A. Settling B. Straining C. Spraying D. Atomizing Ans: D Diesel engine fuel oil leakage should be drained and additional 178 precautions provided to __________. A. return this oil to the proper storage tank B. prevent contamination of lubricating oil by fuel oil C. ascertain an accurate measurement of this leakage D. drain cooling water system components Ans: B When is fuel injected into a cylinder of diesel engines? 180 A. Before air in the cylinder is c ompressed. B. After air in the cylinder is compressed. C. After combustion gases in the cylinder have expanded. D. As air is taken into the cylinder. Ans: B The rate of pressure rise during the period following fuel ignition 182 process in a diesel engine, is influenced chiefly by the ____________. 176
A. B. C. D. Ans:
two crankshaft revolutions in a two-stroke/cycle engine two power strokes in a two-stroke/cycle engine one power stroke in a two-stroke/cycle engine two piston strokes in a two-stroke/cycle engine D The main reason for using bimetallic piston rings is to 187 ______________. A. increase engine thermal efficiency B. reduce specific fuel consumption C. reduce the probability of ring fracture D. allow for ring expansion Ans: C The device used to limit engine torque at various engine speeds is 189 called a ______________. A. speed limiting governor A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 184 A. B. C. D. Ans: 186
percent of CO2 range of inflammability theoretical fuel/air ratio length of the ignition delay period D The driving force of a propeller is transmitted to the hull through the_____________. bevel gear teeth helically cut gear teeth sleeve bearings thrust bearing D Fuel supplied by each unit injector on a two-stroke/cycle single acting diesel engine is directed into each c ylinder at a very high pressure through the ____________.
high pressure fuel line spill deflector check valve spray tip of the injector D The time between injection and ignition of the fuel is known as 188 _____________. A. turbulence lag B. after burning ratio C. preignition lag D. ignition delay Ans: D Which characteristic of the Otto cycle occurs in the actual diesel 190 cycle but NOT in the theoretical diesel cycle? A. No pressure increase during combustion. A. B. C. D. Ans:
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B. C. D. Ans: 191 A. B. C. D. Ans: 193
variable speed governor constant speed governor load limiting governor D What causes diesel fuel to be ignited in the cylinder of an operating diesel engine? Spark plug Heat of compression Carburetor Glow plug B The purpose of compressing the air within the cylinder of a diesel engine is to __________.
B. C. D. Ans: 192 A. B. C. D. Ans: 194
A. produce the heat for ignition B. decrease injection lag C. increase ignition delay D. aid in exhausting burnt gases Ans: A The most important factor in engine performance is the actual 195 power output at the end of the crankshaft available for doing work. This is known as _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 197 A. B. C. D. Ans: 199 A. B. C. D. Ans: 201 A.
203
A. removes combustible gases from the crankcase B. prevents the formation of combustible gases in the crankcase C. cools lubricating oil D. improves cold weather starting Ans: A A diesel engine which is rated for normal operation at a crankshaft 196 speed of 800 RPM, is commonly classed as a ____________.
indicated horsepower brake horsepower net horsepower friction horsepower B The bore of a diesel engine cylinder describes the ________.
198
swept volume of the cylinder inside diameter of the cylinder piston displacement in the cylinder length of the piston stroke B Diesel engine exhaust valve springs are under compression when they are __________. wide open only partially open only closed only in any position D Which of the following statements describes the operating characteristics of a precombustion chamber? When fuel oil is injected into the precombustion chamber, it does not need to be as finely atomized as the fuel oil in diesel engines having direct injection.
A. return seating type B. spring centered type C. spring opened type D. duplex double acting type Ans: A Which of the factors listed has the greatest effect on the mechanical 200 efficiency of a diesel engine? A. Temperature of the intake air B. Friction within the engine C. Mechanical condition of the supercharger D. Mechanical condition of the turbocharger Ans: B Which of the following statements is correct concerning available 202 astern power for diesel main propulsion systems? A. The astern power of the main propelling machinery is to provide for continuous operation astern at 60% of the ahead rpm at rated speed.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
slow-speed diesel medium-speed diesel high-speed diesel constant-speed diesel B Crankcase explosion relief valves should be of the ________.
B. When operating correctly, combustion should not occur in the precombustion chamber.
B. Astern power is to be provided in a sufficient amount to secure proper control of the ship in all normal circumstances.
C. Engines which are designed with precombustion chambers are more likely to suffer blocked nozzle holes, due to fuel oil impurities, than engines designed with direct injection.
C. For main propulsion systems without reversing gears, controllable pitch propellers or electric propulsion drive, running astern is not to lead to overload conditions.
D. Engines with precombustion chambers, which do not have an increased compression ratio, are not as difficult to start when cold, as engines with direct injection.
D. Astern power available will be equal to ahead power when controllable pitch propellers are utilized, thus discounting the need for increased operating parameters.
Ans: A A multi-orifice fuel injection nozzle is usually used with which of the listed types of combustion chamber?
A. Open combustion chamber B. Precombustion chamber C. Turbulence chamber D. Energy cell Ans: A The flywheel reduces speed fluctuations by _____________. 205 A. B. C. D. Ans: 207
Rapid pressure increase during combustion. Rapid volume increase during combustion. No volume increase during c ombustion. D The efficient burning of fuel in a diesel engine is dependent upon the _____________. temperature of compression atomization of the fuel penetration of the fuel all of the above D The blower type crankcase ventilation system ____________.
maintaining a constant rack setting storing kinetic energy maintaining equal exhaust pressure maintaining even camshaft speed B In a single acting, two-stroke/cycle, diesel generator engine, the power impulse in an individual cylinder occurs ____________.
A. once every crankshaft revolution B. once every two crankshaft revolutions
204
Ans: B Combustion gases formed in the cylinder of a diesel engine are prevented from blowing past the piston by _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
206
cylinder valves compression rings piston skirts oil rings B Opposed piston diesel engines are classified as __________.
A. two-stroke/cycle single acting B. two-stroke/cycle double acting C. four-stroke/cycle single acting D. four-stroke/cycle double acting Ans: A In an operating diesel engine, the sealing of the cylinder is the result 208 of the compression rings being forced against the cylinder walls by _____________. A. oil pressure acting behind the ring B. compression pressure acting beneath the ring
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C. once every piston stroke D. twice every piston stroke Ans: A In a modern internal combustion diesel engine, the load carrying 209 part of the engine is referred to as the _________. A. bedplate or base B. sump or oil pan C. cylinder block D. frame Ans: A The purpose of piston ring end clearance is to ____________. 211
C. ring expansion from the heat of c ombustion D. combustion gas pressure acting behind the ring Ans: D In diesel engines, hydraulic valve lifters are used to 210 ____________. A. reduce valve gear pounding B. increase valve operating clearance C. obtain greater valve lift D. create longer valve duration Ans: A What is the purpose of a hydraulic tappet clearance adjuster? 212
A. allow the combustion gases to press the ring down on the land
A. Insures proper pressure in a hydraulic system.
B. allow the combustion gases to get behind the ring and press it against the cylinder liner
B. Allows for constant contact between the valve stem and the rocker arm regardless of whether the engine is cold or warm.
C. prevent buckling and breaking of the ring D. aid in protecting the oil film Ans: C What is the swept volume per cylinder per revolution of a six213 cylinder, two-stroke/cycle diesel engine with a 580 mm bore and a 1700 mm stroke operating at 100 RPM?
C. Eliminates need to remove valve springs. D. Provides far easier removal of the valve cage. Ans: B In a unit injector the amount of fuel that will be forced through the 214 spray nozzle on each stroke of the plunger depends on _____________.
0.45 cubic meters (450 L) 0.90 cubic meters (900 L) 2.7 cubic meters (2700 L) 5.4 cubic meters (5400 L) B The intake and exhaust valves used in a diesel engine are returned 215 to their seats by _____________. A. push rod pressure B. spring force C. combustion pressure D. exhaust pressure Ans: B In a diesel engine, an integral liner is one in which thecooling water 217 __________. I. flows through the cylinder liner jackets II. touches the outer side of the liner
the pump supply pressure the slope of the fuel cam how the plunger is rotated the number of sleeve segments engaged with the rack C Valve cages are used on some large diesel engines to 216 _____________. A. reduce wear on the valve stem B. permit the use of alloy valve seat materials C. reduce heat transfer from the valve seat D. facilitate valve removal for servicing Ans: D A diesel engine indicator diagram has an area of 22 cm2 and a 218 length of 12.5 cm. If the scale of the indicator spring is 1 mm = 1 kg/cm2, what is the cylinder mean effective pressure?
A. I only B. II only C. both I and II D. neither I nor II Ans: A Which of the listed bearing types is an example of a solid bearing? 219
A. 17.6 kg/cm2 B. 27.5 kg/cm2 C. 34.5 kg/cm2 D. 36.0 kg/cm2 Ans: A In which of the scavenging methods listed will the exhaust valve be 220 located in the cylinder head? A. Return-flow B. Uniflow C. Crossflow D. Direct flow Ans: B The device most commonly used to measure exhaust gas 222 temperature of cyclinders is a _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. Piston gudgeon pin bushing B. Turbine bearing C. Spring bearing D. Diesel engine main bearing Ans: A A method of finishing diesel engine cylinder walls to aid in the 221 proper ring seating and lubrication is known as ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
ribbed honing angled honing cross hatch honing doubled honing C The rate of pressure rise during the period following fuel ignition in a diesel engine is influenced by the length of the ignition delay period due to the ______.
A. pyrometer B. calorimeter C. dynamometer D. tachometer Ans: A The lower water seal on a diesel engine wet cylinder liner must 224 allow for liner axial movement. This seal is most commonly a _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
valve overlap volumetric efficiency turbulence of the air change fuel efficiency C Which of the devices listed is installed on a diesel engine to isolate some of the crankshaft vibrations caused by rotational and reciprocating forces?
A. neoprene O-ring B. soft copper gasket C. precision ground flange joint D. flexible metallic seal ring Ans: A Differential type fuel oil nozzles in a diesel engine areclosed directly 226 by _____________. I. spring pressure II. fuel oil pressure
223
225
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. Planetary gear set B. Torsional vibration damper C. Friction clutch D. Air bladder clutch Ans: B Modern marine diesel engines equipped with mechanical fuel 227 injection operate on a combustion cycle which is _________.
A. I only B. II only C. either I or II D. neither I nor II Ans: A An efficient seal between the cylinder block and cylinder heads on 228 many diesel engines is obtained with _____________.
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A. B. C. D.
229
entirely constant pressure entirely constant volume a combination of constant volume and constant pressure a combination of constant temperature and constant pressure
Ans: C For a four-stroke/cycle medium-speed diesel engine, fuel injection commences from 7 to 26 crankshaft degrees before top dead center. After fuel injection commences, how many degrees does the camshaft rotate before the exhaust valve push rod mov es up? A. B. C. D. Ans:
231 A. B. C. D. Ans: 233
21‚-31‚ 45‚-55‚ 66‚-76‚ 106‚-115‚ C Poor timing of the fuel injection system is similar to the effects of poor _____________. metering of the fuel flow control of the rate of fuel injection atomization of the fuel distribution of the fuel B The exhaust ports of a diesel engine using the crossflow scavenging method are opened and closed by the ____________.
reciprocating motion of exhaust valves rotary motion of the camshaft reciprocating motion of the piston developed differential C Valve rotators are commonly used on which of the listed diesel engine cylinder head valves? A. Air starting B. Cylinder relief C. Exhaust D. Blowdown Ans: C Piston cooling fins are located _____________. A. atop the piston crown B. beneath the piston crown C. at the base of the piston skirt D. inside the cylinder liner cooling water jacket Ans: B In the cylinder head of a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine, valves are used for _____________. A. air intake B. a fuel outlet C. cooling water inlets D. exhausting combustion gas Ans: D The intake ports of a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine are opened and closed by the action of the _____________. A. camshaft B. piston movement C. exhaust valves D. vertical drive Ans: B Which of the listed conditions will affect the mean effective pressure the most in the cylinders of a diesel engine? A. TBN of the lubricating oil B. Temperature of the lube oil C. Completeness in the mixing of the fuel and air D. Temperature of the cooling (sea) water Ans: C The primary purpose of the open combustion chamber used in diesel engines is to _____________. A. improve piston cooling B. stratify the fuel charge C. prevent carbon buildup D. provide a place for combustion Ans: D Which of the following is an example of a solid bearing? A. Piston pin bushing B. Turbo-generator turbine bearing C. Spring bearing
A. B. C. D.
230
235
237
239
241
243
245
247
Ans: D Oil for piston cooling is delivered through the c onnecting rod to a compartment in the piston head, then distributed as a result of piston motion, and finally drained to the crankcase through one or more holes or pipes. This procedure is known as the A. B. C. D. Ans:
232 A. B. C. D. Ans: 234
A. B. C. D. Ans:
graphite packing sealing compound lubricating oil gaskets
A. B. C. D. Ans: 236 A. B. C. D. Ans: 238 A. B. C. D. Ans: 240 A. B. C. D. Ans: 242 A. B. C. D. Ans: 244 A. B. C. D. Ans: 246 A. B. C. D. Ans: 248 A. B. C.
splash method spray method shaker method throw off method C The "breaking-up" of fuel as it enters a diesel engine cylinder is known as _____________. airification vaporization atomization gasification C Which of the bearings listed below is most widely used for the m ain and connecting rod bearings of a modern high-speed diesel engine? Steel-lined Poured babbitt, self-aligning Split roller Precision insert D Exhaust valve openings in a diesel engine cylinder head are made as large as practical to _____________. increase back pressure during the exhaust process facilitate periodic replacement of the v alves reduce the pumping loss ass ociated with scavenging reduce tension on valve springs C Diesel engine mufflers reduce noise by ______________. packing muffler chambers the use of long head pipes the use of zinc electrodes changing exhaust gas direction D Which of the listed characteristics is common to both wet and dry type diesel engine exhaust mufflers? Both mufflers contain moving parts. They never require any maintenance. They function as spark arresters. Both have a dust collecting chamber. C Compared to four-stroke/cycle engines, two-stroke/cycle diesel engines have the disadvantage of _____________. less even torque higher cylinder head temperatures fewer power strokes per revolution greater weight/size requirements B In comparing engines of equal horsepower, higher exhaust gas temperatures occur in a/an _____________. opposed-piston engine double-acting engine two-stroke/cycle engine four-stroke/cycle engine D Which of the bearings listed are most widely used for the main and connecting rod bearings of a diesel engine? Roller Sleeve Precision insert Mechanical lubricators C The upper section of a piston is called the _____________. land skirt crown
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D. Thrust bearing Ans: A In a diesel engine, the main bearings are used between the _____________. A. connecting rod and the crankshaft B. gudgeon pin and the connecting rod C. camshaft and the engine block D. crankshaft and the engine block Ans: D Which of the bearings listed is most widely used for main and connecting rod bearings of modern diesel engines? A. Steel-lined B. Poured babbitt, self-aligning C. Split roller D. Precision insert Ans: D Fuel is admitted to a diesel engine cylinder through the _____________. A. intake valves B. carburetor C. exhaust ports D. scrape oil and carbon deposits off the cylinder walls Ans: D Telescopic pipes to the piston of a large slow-speed main propulsion diesel engine are designed to prevent __________.
A. excessive crankcase pressure B. excessive lube oil temperature C. contamination of the lube oil by water D. All of the above are correct. Ans: C A large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine uses sea water 257 to directly cool the _____________. A. cylinder heads B. exhaust valves C. scavenging air D. injectors Ans: C One method of constructing large marine diesel engines and 259 reducing the total engine frame weight is through ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 261 A. B. C. D.
casting interlocking components welding plates to form sections for assembly forging integral components main shaft flexible coupling B Concerning diesel propelled vessels, the astern power is to provide for continuous operation astern ___________. equal to that available for ahead operation at 70 percent of the ahead rpm at rated speed while underway and under all normal conditions at 70 percent of the ahead rpm of average continous sea speed
Ans: B Which of the fuel systems listed combines the injection pump and the injection nozzle in one housing? A. Common rail B. Unit injector C. Air injection D. Hydraulic governing Ans: B Regarding a Diesel engine crankcase, the general arrangement 265 and installation should preclude the possibility of ________. 263
A. free entry of air to the crankcase B. water entering the crankcase while engine washdowns are being performed C. excessive oil leakage during periods of increased blowby D. all of the above Ans: A What function is provided by the crankcase ventilation system on 267 some diesel engines? A. Increases the sludge forming tendency of lube oil. B. Prevents the accumulation of combustible gases. C. Improves lube oil cooling. D. Improve cold weather starting
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D. plate Ans: C Which of the listed bearing installations is subjected to swinging motion? A. Crankshaft journal B. Crankpin bearings C. gudgeon pin bearings D. aluminum piping with expansion loops Ans: C The proper location for journal bearing oil grooves is _______________. A. in the region of the load bearing surface B. as a side relief where the two shells meet C. at the bottom of the bearing D. halfway between bottom and where shells meet Ans: B Directional intake ports in diesel engines are used to _____________. A. reduce air charge turbulence B. induce air swirl C. deflect hot combustion gas away from the valves D. lock all safety interlock switches closed Ans: B How are hydraulic tappet clearance adjusters on diesel engine rocker arm assemblies lubricated?
Cup-fed grease Sealed self-lubricators Metered hydraulic oil supply losses to escaping exhaust gases D The purpose of an oil mist detector in a main propulsion diesel 258 engine is to warn of ____________. A. excessive mist density in the crankcase B. excessively high crankcase vacuum C. excessively high bearing temperatures D. excessive carbon buildup in the lube oil Ans: A Which of the fuel injection systems listed uses a spring loaded 260 differential spray needle valve and an individual pump for each cylinder? A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. Common-rail injection B. Air injection C. Jerk pump injection D. Distributor injection Ans: C The crankcase of many diesel engines are kept under a slight 262 vacuum by the ______________. A. scavenging action of the piston B. crankcase exhaust fan C. gland exhausting manometer D. piston type vacuum pump taking suction off a differential manometer Ans: B In a unit injector, an upper helix and lower helix are machined in the 264 lower part of the plunger for _____________. A. facilitating plunger rotation B. positioning the control sleeve C. accurate metering of the fuel oil D. eliminating injection lag Ans: C In a diesel engine, internal combustion causes the piston to be 266 moved by _____________. A. the pressure of gases developed B. the simple admission of fuel and air into the combustion space only C. specially designed parts connected to a shaft D. the concept of reciprocity Ans: A For diesel engine piston cooling, lubricating oil can be supplied to 268 the pistons by a/an ____________. A. oil spray B. oil bath C. oil control rings D. drilled passage through the camshaft
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Ans: B The purpose of the delivery check valve used in a diesel fuel injection jerk pump is to _____________. A. assist in a quick cutoff of fuel injection B. allow oil backflow from the injector to the helix C. reduce fuel oil pressure between injection strokes D. meter the quantity of fuel delivered Ans: A The primary function of a fuel delivery check valve assembly is to 271 _____________. A. deliver proper fuel quantity to the injection nozzle B. provide rapid fuel injection cutoff C. control fuel quantity entering the pump body D. control fuel pressure delivered to the combustion chamber Ans: B The upper piston rings in large, slow-speed, two-stroke/ cycle diesel 273 engines are most effectively lubricated by oil _____________. 269
A. fed from mechanical lubricators B. thrown off from the main bearings C. supplied from wick fed drip lubricators D. flow from a centrifugal or banjo oiler Ans: A The delivery valve installed in a port and helix fuel injection pump is 275 designed to ____________. A. maintain constant pressure in the discharge line B. maintain a column of fuel in the line C. accurately meter the quantity of fuel injected D. close with hydraulic action Ans: B Additional explosion relief valves are fitted on separate spaces of 277 the crankcase such as gear or chain cases for camshaft or similar drives when the __________.
Ans: A In a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine, the camshaft rotates at _____________. A. twice the crankshaft speed B. half the crankshaft speed C. the same speed as the crankshaft D. a speed independent of the crankshaft Ans: C For any piston ring to operate smoothly without scuffing, the ring 272 must be _____________. A. of a material harder than the cylinder liner B. properly lubricated C. prevented from compressing D. prevented from rotating during engine operation Ans: B Fuel injector nozzles are usually of the multi-orifice type with the 274 number and placement of the holes arranged according to the _____________. 270
A. B. C. D. Ans:
type of piston rings pressure of the fuel system size of the pump plunger spring design of the combustion chamber D The shape of a diesel engine cam determines the ___________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
points of opening and closing of the valve velocity of opening and closing of the valve amount of the valve lift from its seat all of the above D If all other conditions such as bore, stroke, speed, and mean effective pressures are equal, a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine will develop approximately _____________.
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A. gross volume of such spaces exceeds 0.6+D340 cubic meters
A. the same indicated horsepower as a four-stroke/cycle engine
B. possibility of explosion exists due to the formation of volatile gases
B. one half the indicated horsepower as a four-stroke/cycle engine
C. unit is operating in extreme overload conditions
C. twice the indicated horsepower as a four-stroke/cycle engine
D. gross volume of such space exceeds 0.6 cubic meter Ans: A In order to reverse the rotation of a two-stroke/cycle loop 279 scavenged, direct reversing, propulsion diesel engine, the cam positions must be changed for the _____________. A. starting air and fuel pumps B. piston cooling pumps C. exhaust valves D. all of the above Ans: A The rotary motion of a diesel engine crankshaft is obtained from the 281 up and down motion of the piston via the _________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 283
camshaft reduction gears rocker arm connecting or piston rod D Diesel engine main and connecting rod precision bearings are made in halves. Each half exceeds one-half the bearing circumference by a small amount. The small amount is termed _____________.
clearance crush pitch thrust B The end of fuel injection in a port-and-helix metering pump can be 285 controlled by _____________. A. uncovering a fuel port in the pump barrel B. covering a fuel port in the pump barrel C. closing the fuel pump delivery valve D. opening the fuel pump delivery valve Ans: A For a given size engine, the two-stroke/cycle diesel engine will 287 deliver more power than a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine because ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
D. one power stroke for ev ery two crankshaft revolutions Ans: C A viscous damper, as used on a marine diesel, is a sealed 280 precision built device which dampens the torsional vibrations in the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
camshaft flywheel crankshaft thrust shaft C Indirect cooling of fuel injector nozzle holders for diesel engines is accomplished primarily by ____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
heat conduction into the injected fuel oil heat conduction into the water jacket wall water circulation through passages in the holder fuel oil circulation through passages in the holder B The port-and-helix metering pumps, used in diesel fuel injection systems, are usually designed to produce a constant beginning and a variable ending of fuel injection. These pumps are usually _____________.
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284
timed for port opening timed for port closing controlled by rack movement controlled by plunger stroke B The main reason counterweights are added to c rankshafts is to 286 _____________. A. reduce piston side thrust B. reduce crankshaft end thrust C. provide uniform loading and wear of main bearings D. increase the strength of the crank webs Ans: C In a jerk pump, the amount of fuel that will be forced through the 288 spray nozzle on each upward stroke of the plunger depends on _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
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it has a longer power stroke more air gets into the cylinder each stroke it develops twice as many power strokes at the same speed higher combustion pressure is developed C Modern marine diesel engines using mechanical fuel injectors operate on a combustion cycle which is _________. A. a combination of constant volume and constant pressure B. a combination of constant temperature and c onstant pressure
A. B. C. D. Ans: 289
C. entirely constant pressure D. entirely constant volume Ans: A The diesel engine valve subjected to most sev ere conditions of 291 service is the ____________. A. cylinder exhaust valve B. air starting valve C. air inlet valve
the pump supply pressure the slope of the fuel cam how the plunger is rotated the number of sleeve segments engaged with the rack C The amount of fuel delivered by a unit injector is controlled by the _____________. A. camshaft B. main spring
A. B. C. D. Ans: 290
C. rack position D. nozzle orifice size Ans: C For a given fuel, a change in the compression ratio will affect the 292 ignition lag by which of the listed means? A. An increase in compression ratio will increase the ignition lag. B. An increase in compression ratio will decrease the ignition lag. C. A decrease in compression ratio will decrease the ignition lag.
D. cylinder relief valve Ans: A The lower section of a piston is called the _____________. 293 A. land B. skirt C. crown
D. A decrease in ignition lag will increase the compression ratio Ans: B What is the function of an engine's stationary parts? 294 A. To add power to the engine. B. To keep the engine firmly attached to its supporting base. C. To keep moving engine parts in their proper relative positions.
D. plate Ans: B Fuel oil discharged to the diesel engine cylinder is atomized at the 295 _____________. A. turbocharger B. injector nozzle tip C. carburetor D. fuel oil pump Ans: B In a diesel engine, crosshatch on the liner surface aids 297 in___________.I. rapid ring seating II. the retention of lube oil A. I only is correct B. II only is correct C. both I and II are correct D. neither I or II are correct Ans: C Which of the following statements concerning a closed type fuel 299 injection nozzle is true?
D. To rotate the crankshaft. Ans: C Proper dispersion of fuel in a diesel engine cylinder is dependent 296 upon the _____________. A. injection pressure B. shape of combustion space C. turbulence in combustion space D. all of the above Ans: D Why is it necessary to compress the air charge in the cylinders of a 298 diesel engine? A. To ignite the fuel. B. To insure pumpimg losses are held to a minimum. C. To increase fuel consumption. D. To keep exhaust temperature low. Ans: A Many diesel engine exhaust valves are being constructed with 300 hollow stems filled with sodium in order to _____________.
A. The hole type of a closed nozzle is self-cleaning. B. Multi-hole type nozzles are only suitable for use in engines with precombustion chambers. C. Most closed nozzles open inward under the pressure acting on the differential area of the needle valve. D. The pintle type nozzles are most susceptible to carbon deposits building up in and around the orifice. Ans: C Turbulence of the compressed air c harge in a diesel engine cylinder 301 increases _____________. A. ignition lag B. piston side thrust C. the efficiency of the engine D. compression pressure Ans: C In the Otto cycle, the fuel/air mixture is ignited at what point and by 303 what means? A. At TDC by heat generated by compression. B. Just before TDC by heat generated by compression. C. Just before TDC by s park ignition. D. At TDC by spark ignition Ans: C A diesel engine piston ring face is in direct contact with the 305 _____________. A. B. C. D.
top of the ring groove cylinder liner oil film bottom of the ring groove back of the ring groove
A. increase overall valve strength due to the high gas pressures B. provide added wear protection against today's corrosive quality of fuel C. assist in dissipating heat due to the extreme operating temperatures D. reduce the overall weight of the valve thus helping eliminate valve spring surge and hammering Ans: C Thin bronze rings are inserted in the face of some chromium plated 302 piston rings to _____________. A. promote piston ring seating in the cylinder B. prevent rapid wear on the ring face C. provide better lubrication of the piston ring D. produce an even glaze on the cylinder Ans: A Critical speed in diesel engines occurs when engine torque 304 pulsations become _____________. A. opposed to the crankshaft rocking couple B. resonant with the crankshaft natural frequency C. critical fore and aft crankshaft vibrations D. horizontal whipping motions of the crankshaft Ans: B A secondary function of diesel engine piston rings is to 306 _____________. A. B. C. D.
reduce friction losses in the engine absorb the piston side thrust prevent cylinder liner wear prevent excess lubricant from reaching the combustion space
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307
Ans: B Fuel is ignited in a diesel engine cylinder by ____________.
a spark plug injectors the heat of compression increasing jacket water temperatures C Injectors for use with heavy fuel oil must be cooled by either water 309 or light oil to _____________. A. prevent heat corrosion to internal components B. increase fuel delivery rate and economy C. prevent preignition D. avoid carbonisation of the nozzle tips Ans: D In a diesel engine, the time taken to heat the fuel particles, turn 311 them into vapor, and bring about combustion is called _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
injection lag ignition delay compression ignition turbulance lag B The thermal energy produced by an internal combustion engine is 313 transformed into ______________. A. combustion energy B. internal energy C. external energy D. mechanical energy Ans: D Oil control rings are designed with slotted holes to 315 _____________. A. decrease ring contact area and cut down heat transfer B. decrease contact pressure between ring and cylinder wall C. increase contact pressure between ring and cylinder wall D. permit excess oil to drain back to the sump Ans: D The primary purpose of oil control rings on a diesel engine piston is 317 to _____________. A. provide a reservoir for cylinder lubrication B. pump oil into the combustion space for cylinder cooling
Ans: D Barrel face, taper face, grooved, and chrome plated are all types of diesel engine _____________. A. pistons B. piston rings C. piston skirts D. cylinder liners Ans: B Which of the equal power diesel engines listed, running at the same 310 speed, is least affected by exhaust back pressure? A. A four-stroke/cycle "V" type engine B. A two-stroke/cycle "V" type engine C. An in-line two-stroke/cycle engine D. An opposed piston engine Ans: A In a diesel engine, the contact surfaces of the piston compression 312 rings are those in contact with the___________. I. back of the ring groove II. bottom of the ring groove 308
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 314 A. B. C. D. Ans: 316 A. B. C. D. Ans: 318 A. B.
I only II only both I and II neither I nor II B The reason some two-stroke/cycle, diesel engine piston rings are pinned to prevent rotation, is _____________. cylinder lubricant is spread more evenly on the cylinder wall less blow-by as the pin seals the end gap to keep the ring ends from catching in the scavenging ports to promote more even ring wear C Precombustion chambers differ from turbulence chambers in that precombustion chambers _____________. allow fuel injection directly into the space above the piston do not contain the fuel injector nozzle tip contain the major portion of the total clearance volume contain a smaller portion of the total clearance v olume D The compression ratio of a diesel engine refers to the ratio between the _______________. piston area to connecting rod length cylinder volumes at top dead center and at bottom dead center
C. prevent excessive lubricating oil consumption D. allow hydraulic oil film formation on the cylinder Ans: C In describing basic diesel engine operation, the term "event" refers 319 to _____________. A. the production of high pressure gases B. the removal of expended combustion gases C. the admission of air to the cylinder D. All of the above Ans: D Slots are provided in a diesel engine piston oil scraper ring to 321 _____________. A. decrease piston side thrust pressure B. allow for thermal expansion of the ring within the ring land C. permit drainage of excess oil to the engine sump D. make it more flexible for scraping c ylinder surfaces Ans: C How are the pressure and temperature affected in a diesel engine 323 cylinder during compression? A. Pressure and temperature decrease B. Pressure and temperature increase
C. engine cylinder size to piston size D. the number of compression strokes for a given horsepower Ans: B The ratio of the brake horsepower to the indicated horsepower of a 320 diesel engine is its ______________. A. thermal efficiency B. mechanical efficiency C. brake thermal efficiency D. volumetric efficiency Ans: B The function of the piston compression rings used in a diesel 322 engine is to _____________. A. seal the space between the piston and liner B. transmit heat from the piston to the cylinder liner C. reduce the amount of c ombustion gas blow-by D. All of the above. Ans: D Modern marine diesel engines using mechanical fuel injection, 324 operate on a combustion cycle which is _________. A. a combination of constant volume and constant pressure B. a combination of constant temperature and constant pressure
C. Pressure decreases and temperature increases D. Pressure increases and temperature decreases Ans: B If the compression ratio is increased on any diesel engine, 325 _____________. A. the expansion ratio will decrease B. combustion will be slowed down C. thermal efficiency will decrease D. thermal efficiency will increase Ans: D
C. entirely constant pressure D. entirely constant volume Ans: A Piston compression rings used in a diesel engine function to 326 _____________. A. transfer heat from the cylinder to the piston B. scrape oil from the sides of the piston C. seal the combustion space from the crankcase D. prevent any piston contact with the c ylinder liner Ans: C
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At bottom dead center, the centerline of the connecting rod usually coincides with the _____________. A. angularity of the piston m otion B. inertia moment from the piston C. centerline of the cylinder D. centerline of the king pin Ans: C A piston is said to be at top dead center when it is ______. 329 A. opening the exhaust ports 327
B. C. D. Ans: 331
placed on top of the engine along its centerline farthest from the cylinder head nearest to the cylinder head D A seven cylinder, two-stroke/cycle, single acting diesel engine with a cylinder indicated horsepower calculated as 1350 kW and brake horsepower measured at 7466 kW has a mechanical efficiency of ______________.
0.18 0.55 0.79 0.83 C In a diesel engine, pistons are attached to the crankshaft by 333 _____________. A. push rods B. piston rods C. connecting rods D. piston guides Ans: C Vibrations from diesel engines and engine driven equipment are 335 isolated from the hull structure by _____________. A. torsional-vibration dampers B. harmonic balancers C. a detuner flywheel A. B. C. D. Ans:
D. flexible engine mountings Ans: D The most rapid period of fuel combustion occurring in a diesel 337 cylinder should begin just before the piston reaches top dead center and ______________. when fuel injection has been c ompleted when fuel vaporization has been completed should continue through the afterburning period should be completed after the top dead centre D The power developed by a large slow-speed main propulsion diesel engine is dependent upon the ______________. A. quantity of air it takes in and retains in the cylinders during a given time period B. proportion of trapped air that is utilized in the combustion process
A. B. C. D. Ans: 339
C. thermodynamic efficiency of the engine cycle D. all of the above Ans: D Cylinder linings constructed as an integral part of the block, are 341 characterized by which of the following disadvantages? A. B. C. D. Ans: 343
They conduct heat poorly. They are expensive. They cannot be replaced. They require special tools for removal. C Where is the charge for an air starting system stored?
A. Air compressor B. Pressurized tank C. Distributor assembly D. cylinder check valve
345
Ans: B Many cast iron pistons are designed with heat dams, which serve to _____________. A. keep piston crown temperatures elevated for smoother combustion
A diesel engine exhaust valve spring is under compression when _____________. A. the valve is open B. the piston is at top dead center C. the valve is closed D. all of the above Ans: D The purpose of the flywheel is to ______________. 330 A. provide energy to operate the engine between power impulses 328
B. neutralize the primary inertia force of the crankshaft C. reduce the shock of starting loads on the main bearings D. prevent the engine from operating at c ritical speed Ans: A What is the metric brake horse power developed per cylinder by an 332 83% efficient, six cylinder, two-stroke/cycle diesel engine with a cylinder constant of 0.998 and a mean effective pressure of 15 kg/cm2 at 100 RPM? 1,497 kW 1,242 kW 1,116 kW 926 kW B One advantage of dry cylinder liners used in a diesel engine is the 334 _____________. A. lower thermal expansion rates than wet liners B. greater heat transfer rate than wet liners C. greater wear resistance than wet liners D. procedure to replace dry liners is simpler than for wet liners Ans: D Which of the following statements concerning fuel atomization in a 336 diesel engine cylinder is correct? A. The greater the atomization, the greater the penetration. B. The greater the atomization, the lesser the penetration. C. The degree of atomization has nothing to do with the degree of penetration. D. Atomization and penetration are one and the same. Ans: B When comparing different fuels for different engines, the ignition 338 quality of diesel fuel oils becomes a less critical consideration as ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
the amount of lube oil additives increase piston speeds increase injection pressures decrease engine speeds decrease D An indicator card or pressure-volume diagram, shows graphically 340 the ____________. A. relationships between pressure and volume during one stroke of the engine B. relationships between pressure and volume during one cycle of the engine C. volume of the engine D. compression ratio of the engine Ans: B One end of a diesel engine cylinder is sealed by the cylinder head 342 and the other end by the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 344
crankcase piston cylinder liner crank cheek B Maximum power of a diesel engine is attained ____________.
when the engine RPM is pulled down by ov erload at rated engine RPM at 95% of rated engine RPM at 95% of a properly adjusted governor RPM with the engine under full load Ans: B During the fuel injection period, fuel pressure must exceed cylinder 346 gas pressure to _____________. A. ensure penetration and distribution of the fuel in the combustion chamber A. B. C. D.
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B. reduce the possibility of overheating the top compress ion ring
B. ensure the needle valve is flushed clean during each injection
C. help retain the heat of compression to prevent ignition delay D. help retain the heat of compression to prevent combustion knock
C. prevent combustion gas blowback into the open needle valve D. prevent reflected pressure waves when the needle valve closes
Ans: B The difference in crank lead between the upper and lower cranks of an opposed piston engine causes the lower crankshaft to ____________. receive less power than the upper shaft receive more power than the upper shaft operate the fuel oil booster pump rotate faster than the upper shaft B The exhaust system for a turbocharged two-stroke/cycle diesel engine functions to _____________. A. discharge exhaust gases and smoke B. furnish energy to the turbocharger C. reduce engine room noise D. all of the above Ans: D When monitoring diesel engine performance, the most useful instrument to use is the _____________. A. dwell-tachometer B. exhaust gas pyrometer C. fuel flow rate meter D. exhaust gas analyzer Ans: B A water jacket is placed around the exhaust manifoldsof propulsion diesel engines to ________. A. reduce heat radiation to the engine room B. aid in preventing turbocharger overheating C. condense and drain moisture from exhaust gases D. dampen exhaust gas pulsations in the manifold Ans: A Diesel engine mufflers or silencers reduce the engine exhaust noise by ________________. A. passing the exhaust through long head pipes B. diffusing exhaust vibrations through activated carbon baffles
348
A. B. C. D. Ans: 349
351
353
355
C. increasing the exhaust gas v elocity D. reducing the exhaust gas velocity Ans: D Exhaust gases in a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine are discharged 357 through _____________. A. the air valves B. a roots-type blower C. exhaust ports or valves D. direct to the atmosphere Ans: C Many diesel engines have pistons with concave heads to 359 _____________. A. decrease air turbulence and improve fuel mixing B. increase air turbulence and improve fuel mixing C. prevent fuel afterburning when injection ends D. prolong fuel afterburning when injection ends Ans: B Additional explosion relief valves are fitted on separate spaces of 361 the crankcase, such as gear or chain cases for camshaft or similar drives, when the _______. A. overall volume of such spaces exceeds 0.6 cubic meters B. possibility of explosion exists due to the formation of volatile gases C. unit is operating in extreme overload conditions D. gross volume of such space exceeds 0.6 cubic meter Ans: D Which of the following statements concerning the factors affecting 363 ignition delay is correct? A. An increase in intake air temperature will increase ignition delay. B. An increase in coolant temperature will decrease ignition delay. C. An increase in combustion chamber turbulence will increase ignition delay. D. An increase in compression ratio will increase ignition delay. Ans: B
Ans: A Telescopic pipes to the piston of a large slow speed main propulsion diesel engine are designed to prevent _________________. excessive crankcase pressure excessive lub oil temperature contamination of the lub oil by water contamination of the cooling watyer by the lub oil C Which of the diesel engine exhaust mufflers listed is usually equipped with a spark arrestor? A. A wet-type exhaust muffler B. A constant pressure muffler C. A dry-type exhaust muffler D. A constant velocity muffler Ans: C The exhaust system of a diesel engine is usually designed to remove exhaust gases and to _____________. A. provide exhaust back pressure B. prevent exhaust smoke emissions C. power a reciprocating supercharger D. muffle exhaust gas noise Ans: D In a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine, the exhaust gases are expelled from the cylinder by the ______________. A. exhaust manifold B. valve bridge C. pressure of the fresh air charge D. valve adjusting gear Ans: C The exhaust gases in a supercharged two-stroke/cycle diesel engine are expelled from the cylinder by __________. A. pumping action of the piston B. pressure of the fuel charge A. B. C. D. Ans:
350
352
354
356
C. vacuum developed in the manifold D. pressure of the fresh air charge Ans: D A disadvantage of a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine is 358 ___________. A. more power strokes per rev olution B. the use of scavenge air C. more complicated valve gear D. higher working temperatures of the piston and cylinder Ans: D In a single-acting diesel engine, the cylinder liner area that is mos t 360 difficult to lubricate is the ______________. A. major thrust side B. minor thrust side C. top circumference D. bottom circumference Ans: C Which of the following design features will reduce the possibility of 362 overheating the top compression rings of a cast iron piston? A. The top ring is located as close to the piston rim as possible. B. The inside surface of the piston head is rounded into the ring belt. C. A nickel-bearing insert is cast into the top ring groove. D. A heat dam design is sometimes used in the piston head Ans: D Which of the following statements is a description of the combustion 364 cycle? A. The mechanics of engine operation. B. The number of piston strokes involved. C. The heat process which produces the force to initiate the movement of the engine parts. D. The mechanical equivalent of heat. Ans: C
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365
In a large slow-speed propulsion diesel engine, the force applied to the piston is ______________. A. against the crosshead during power stroke and away from the crosshead during the compression stroke B. against the crosshead during the compression stroke and away from the crosshead during the power stroke C. against the crosshead during the power and compression strokes
D. away from the crosshead during the power and compression strokes Ans: C Which of the construction techniques listed is used on new piston 367 rings to facilitate run-in or seating?
366
One of the advantages in the use of a dry liner over a wet liner is _____________. A. it is fitted with neoprene O-ring seals B. the honing process makes it easier to maintain the desired oil film C. there is less likelihood of water leaking into the combustion space
D. it fits more loosely due to a decrease in heat transfer through the composite wall Ans: C In diesel engines, the four basic events (intake, compression, 368 power, and exhaust) are performed once in ______________.
A. Special ring facings, such as a thin bearing surface of antifriction metal. B. The oil control ring face is machined at an angle of 10 degrees.
A. one complete crankshaft revolution in a two-stroke/cycle engine
C. The ring diameter, when free, is machined slightly smaller than the cylinder bore to allow for expansion at high combustion temperatures.
C. two power strokes in a two-stroke/cycle engine
B. two crankshaft revolutions in a two-stroke/cycle engine
D. Oil control rings maintain continuous oil film. Ans: A The intake air ducting to a diesel engine should not draw from an 369 area on deck where flammable vapors released from tanks are present, because ____________.
D. two piston strokes in a four-stroke/cycle engine Ans: A In a two-stroke/cycle, opposed piston, diesel engine, one crankshaft 370 operates several crank angles in advance of the other crankshaft to _____________.
A. flammable vapors will accelerate corrosion of the turbocharger
A. allow the exhaust ports to open and close before the inlet ports close B. allow the scavenge ports to open and close s imultaneously with the exhaust ports
B. the engine may overspeed and the normal governor or overspeed trip will not be able to secure the engine C. the flammable vapors will result in an excessively rich mixture which will increase the brake horsepower output D. all of the above Ans: B The purpose of the delivery check valve used in a diesel fuel 371 injection jerk pump is to _____________. I. assist in a quick cutoff of fuel injection II. prevent fuel oil backflow from the injection pump A. I only B. II only C. both I and II D. neither I nor II Ans: A A large low-speed main propulsion engine must be operated with 373 one cylinder secured. When the engine was stopped, the affected cylinder ended in a position preventing the engine from being restarted. Which of the following actions should be taken
C. prevent the exhaust piston from reaching TDC and BDC before the intake piston D. prevent scavenge air pressure buildup in the cylinders Ans: A In a diesel engine, what is the advantage of 372 precombustionchambers over the open type of combustion chamber? I. Precombustion chambers permit coarser fuel atomization. II. Precombustion chambers allow lower fuel injection pressure. A. B. C. D. Ans: 374
A. Turn the shaft with the turning gear while applying starting air.
A. two-stroke/cycle diesel engines have a higher M.E.P. than fourstroke/cycle diesel engines B. four-stroke/cycle diesel engine exhaust is cooled by scavenging air
B. Increase starting air pressure by s mall amounts until the air pressure is high enough to crank the engine over. C. Admit starting air in the direction opposite to the desired direction, then restart in the desired direction. D. Open the indicator cocks on those cylinders on compression and apply increased starting air pressure.
375
Ans: C Oil control rings used in two-stroke/cycle diesel engines are located near the bottom of the piston skirt in order to _____________.
I only II only both I and II neither I nor II C The average exhaust temperature of a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine with a turbine-driven supercharger is lower than a similar four-stroke/cycle diesel engine at equal loads because ____________.
C. two-stroke/cycle diesel engines have a lower M.E.P. than fourstroke/cycle diesel engines D. the opening of the two-stroke/cycle diesel exhaust ports or valves occurs much later than in four-stroke/cycle diesel engines
376
Ans: C Which of the following statements represents the function of the compression rings installed at the top of a diesel engine piston?
A. increase the liner area covered by the oil film B. maintain an oil film on the lower liner where scuffing is prev alent
A. Transmit heat from the piston to the cylinder liner. B. Control the amount of lube oil burned in the combustion chamber.
C. keep excess oil away from intake and exhaust ports
C. Prevent damage to ring groove inserts by acting as a heat dam.
D. help cushion piston skirt side thrust by providing a hydrodynamic oil wedge Ans: C In a diesel engine, the time period between fuel injection and 377 ignition is usually defined as _____________. A. B. C. D.
injection duration ignition timing precombustion lag ignition delay
D. Dissipate combustion chamber gas pressure by channeling it through the ring gap. Ans: A
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Ans: D MOTOR - OPERATION A loose crosshead plunger assembly in a metering or In a naturally aspirated diesel engine, the volume of air intake is 379 proportioning pump will cause _____________. directly related to engine ________________. A. rapid wear on the crosshead A. compression ratio B. damage to the stroke adjustment arm B. valve size C. rapid wear on the plunger packing C. fuel pressure D. damage to the pressure compensator valve D. cylinder clearance volume Ans: C Ans: B A naturally aspirated diesel engine at full throttle will have an intake An increase in the air inlet manifold pressure of a diesel engine will 380 381 manifold pressure ____________. result in a/an ____________. A. slightly less than atmospheric pressure A. decrease in maximum cylinder pressure B. approximately equal to exhaust manifold pressure at all times B. increase in ignition lag C. that is widely fluctuating C. decrease in fuel consumption per kilowatt-hour D. constantly decreasing as engine load increases D. decrease in exhaust manifold pressure Ans: A Ans: C On a large diesel engine installation, crankshaft axial alignment is The crankcases of many diesel engines are kept under a slight 382 383 maintained by the ______________. vacuum to _____________. A. piston rod guides A. improve fuel economy B. engine thrust bearing B. increase the air charge v elocity C. crosshead bearing C. reduce the risk of explosion D. main shaft flexible coupling D. all of the above Ans: B Ans: C Maintaining the lowest poss ible scavenging air temperature at all On a turbocharged, medium-speed, diesel engine, which of the 384 385 times is not recommended due to the possibility of the following problems is an indication of a restricted air intake ________________. passage? 378
air charge density becoming too high piston crown surfaces becoming too cold formation of excessive quantities of condensate compression pressure being greatly reduced C An indication of a diesel engine air intake being partially clogged, is 386 ____________. A. low firing pressure and low exhaust temperatures B. low firing pressure and normal exhaust temperatures C. high firing pressure and low exhaust temperatures D. high firing pressure and high exhaust temperatures Ans: B Operating a diesel engine for prolonged periods, with a closed 388 freshwater cooling system, at temperatures lower than the normal design temperature can cause _____________.
A. engine is hard to start B. engine misses C. surges at governed RPM D. coolant temperature is too low Ans: A Load control on a diesel engine is accomplished by 387 _____________. A. regulating the speed of the turbocharger B. rotating the fuel injector pump plunger C. regulating the speed of the fuel oil transfer pump D. changing engine timing Ans: B The air supplied to a diesel engine is compressed to___________.I. 389 provide heat for the ignition of the fuel II. decrease injection delay
A. the formation of sulphuric acid B. a decrease in lube oil viscosity C. a decrease in cooling water pH D. a thermostat failure Ans: A Fuel droplets injected into a diesel engine c ylinder must have 390 adequate penetration to _____________. A. prolong the ignition delay period B. ensure the beginning of fuel injection C. thoroughly utilize the air charge D. allow controlled fuel combustion Ans: C The amount of fuel injected into a cylinder by a unit injector is 392 controlled by _____________. A. the firing pressure in the cylinder B. a metering helix C. varying the length of the plunger stroke D. varying the clearance between the injector cam and the injector rocker arm Ans: B The amount of fuel delivered for each cycle must be in accordance 394 with the engine load, and the same quantity of fuel must be delivered to each cylinder for each power stroke at that load. Which of the following statements describes this requirement?
A. I only is correct B. II only is correct C. both I and II are correct D. neither I or II are correct Ans: A Loss of lubricating oil pressure to the main propulsion diesel engine 391 will actuate a/an _____________. A. overspeed trip B. audible/visual alarm C. the ships/boats general alarm D. reserve oil storage tank Ans: B The dripping of fuel from an injector nozzle after injection 393 terminates, often results in ____________. A. early combustion B. incomplete combustion and decreased fuel consumption C. coking and blocking of the fuel nozzles D. decreased cylinder wall temperatures and increased exhaust gas temperatures Ans: C The knock occurring when a cold diesel engine is started and 395 continues while running at low speed, but stops when the engine reaches normal operating speed and temperature, is _________________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. Proper timing B. Accurate metering C. Suitable injection rate D. Suitable atomization rate Ans: B The most crucial time for any bearing with regards to lubrication is 396 _____________. A. during low loads B. after proper oil viscosity is reached
caused by retarded injection timing caused by a mechanical defect in one cylinder caused by high fuel injection pressures normal for these conditions D Which of the listed diesel engine operating conditions should be checked immediately after any diesel engine is s tarted? A. Exhaust temperature B. Lube oil level
A. B. C. D. Ans: 397
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C. during starting D. after cleaning filters Ans: C If the coolant temperature is excessively low as it passes through 398 the internally cooled fuel injectors, the injectors may be damaged by _____________.
C. Lube oil pressure D. Water level in the expansion tank Ans: C What occurs in the combustion space of a diesel engine cylinder 399 shortly after ignition and before the piston reaches TDC?
water condensation in the fuel corrosion of the nozzle tip carbon deposits on the leakoff inlet over lubrication of the needle valve B The effective pump stroke of an individual port-and-helix fuel 400 injection pump is determined by the ________________. A. fuel delivery pressure B. pump plunger diameter C. plunger control rack position D. total pump stroke Ans: C Which of the following conditions will develop if the flow of "raw" 402 cooling water to a diesel engine is obstructed? A. Air will enter the cooling system. B. Carbon will plug the water c ooled exhaust manifolds. C. The jacket water temperature will rise. D. The lube oil viscosity will increase. Ans: C Which of the listed conditions will occur if a diesel engine exhaust 404 valve is leaking?
Rapid increase in temperature with constant pressure. Rapid increase in pressure with constant temperature. Rapid increase in pressure and temperature. Rapid increase in volume and decrease in pressure. C The amount of fuel delivered by a helical plunger type fuel injection 401 pump is controlled by _____________. A. rotation of the pump plunger B. rotation of the pump barrel C. varying the pump supply pressure D. varying the pump return pressure Ans: A The effective stroke of a constant-stroke, individual, fuel injection 403 pump is varied by the _____________. A. control rack B. delivery valve C. governor speed D. plunger crossbar Ans: A High firing pressures and a low exhaust temperature in a diesel 405 engine may result from _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
406
408
410
412
A. Loss of compression for that cylinder B. Misfiring or rough running C. Damage to the valve D. All of the above Ans: D Exhaust pyrometer readings provide an indication of the _____________. A. effectiveness of water-cooled exhaust elbows B. distribution of the load between engine cylinders C. amount of fuel penetration into the engine cylinders D. indicated horsepower of the engine cylinders Ans: B Diesel fuel oil having a low cetane rating can result in _____________. A. improved cold weather starting B. smoother engine operation C. combustion knock D. reduce ignition lag Ans: C High exhaust temperature and black smoke exhausting from an auxiliary diesel engine can be caused by _____________. A. engine overload B. low combustion temperature C. plugged fuel nozzle holes D. excessive compression pressure Ans: A Which of the following problems can cause fluctuating pressures in the closed cooling system of a main propulsion diesel engine? A. B. C. D. Ans:
414 A. B. C. D. Ans: 416 A. B. C. D. Ans:
Defective temperature controls in the system. Cavitation in the cooling water pump. Opened vent in the cooling system. Restricted water passages in the engine. B Individual cylinder performance in a diesel engine is routinely determined by exhaust gas _____________. chemical analysis pressure readings pyrometer readings infrared analysis C The injection pressure of a hydraulic fuel injection nozzle can be increased by _____________. increasing fuel oil booster pump pressure increasing the injector nozzle orifice size removing shims from under the nozzle spring increasing compression on the pressure spring D
A. B. C. D. Ans:
decreased piston to cylinder head clearance increased exhaust system back pressure early fuel injection timing low scavenge air temperature C A change in the degree of fuel atomization in a diesel engine cylinder has the greatest effect on the ____________. A. cylinder air turbulence B. fuel spray angle C. fuel injection rate D. combustion in that cylinder Ans: D To successfully reduce an excess ively high diesel engine exhaust gas temperature, you should _____________. A. reduce the engine driven fuel pump outlet pressure B. retard the fuel injector timing to reduce power C. increase the fuel rack s etting D. reduce the load on the engine Ans: D Combustion gas venting through the expansion tank can be caused by a _____________. A. leaking oil cooler B. cracked cylinder head C. leaking exhaust valve D. worn piston ring Ans: B A fuel leak occurs in the high pressure fuel piping between the injection pump and fuel nozzle. This requires immediate repair because of the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
407
409
411
413
high cost of fuel serious fire hazard possibility of pollution poor combustion which will occur in that cylinder B Excessive diesel engine cylinder exhaust back pressure will be 415 caused by _____________. A. slight timing discrepancies B. heavy fuel injection C. an obstruction in the exhaust silencer D. a fouled intake m anifold Ans: C Combustion knock occurring in a diesel engine can be caused by 417 _____________. A. excessive fuel penetration B. prolonged injection lag C. reduced ignition lag D. prolonged ignition lag Ans: D A. B. C. D. Ans:
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Which of the following problems could develop due to the accumulation of oil vapors in the crankcase of a diesel diesel engine?
418
A. B. C. D. Ans: 420
Reduced lubrication Poor fuel economy Combustion knock Crankcase explosion D Which of the listed reasons is the most likely cause of a sudden drop in compression pressure in one diesel engine cylinder?
Missing filter segment of an intake filter Malfunctioning Malfunctioning v alves Leaking fuel injector nozzle Excessively early fuel injection B Failure to open the diesel engine test cocks after a long period of 422 shutdown, prior to starting may result in _______. A. an air bound fuel system B. damage to cylinder heads and pistons C. excessive fuel injection D. excessive air valve lift Ans: B If the coolant temperature is too low as it passes through internally 424 cooled fuel injectors, injectors, the injectors can be damaged by ________________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 426 A. B. C. D. Ans: 428
water condensation in the fuel corrosion of the nozzle tip carbon deposits on the nozzle tip inadequate lubrication of the needle valve B The overspeed trip installed on most diesel engines will stop the engine by shutting off the ____________. water supply fuel oil supply lube oil supply exhaust damper B Black smoke exhausting from an operating diesel engine can be caused by _____________.
One problem resulting from a diesel engine fuel injector opening pressure being lower than specified by the engine manufacturer, is that the _____________.
419
A. B. C. D. Ans: 421
start of injection will always be retarded duration of injection will always be reduced quantity of fuel injected will always be decreased quantity of fuel injected tends to be increased D A sudden drop in diesel diesel engine cylinder cylinder compression pressure can be caused by ____________.
a leaking fuel injector nozzle a clogged air filter excessively early fuel injection malfunctioning valves D Which of the listed conditions is most likely to cause a crankcase 423 explosion? temperature A. A high cooling water temperature B. Fuel dilution of the lube oil C. Excessive engine speeds D. Improper lube oil viscosity Ans: B A diesel engine is operating with with excessively high exhaust 425 temperatures at all cylinders. To correct this condition, you should FIRST _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. reduce the engine load B. increase the cooling water flow C. increase the lube oil pressure D. adjust the fuel rack Ans: A White smoke exhausting from an operating diesel engine may 427 indicate _____________. A. a cracked liner B. burning lube oil C. an overloaded engine D. insufficient combustion air Ans: A A device which functions functions to bring a diesel engine to to a full stop stop to 429 protect it from damage is known as a/an ___________.
A. fuel dribbling from leaking fuel injectors B. burning fuel with a high carbon content C. burning fuel with a high vanadium content D. burning fuel with a lower sulphur content Ans: A Which of the following conditions can cause oil to accumulate in 430 the cooling system of a diesel engine? lubrication. A. Excessive valve train lubrication. B. Defective oil cooler core. C. Excessive lube oil pressure. D. Overfilled lube oil system. Ans: B When the opening pressure of a diesel fuel injector injector is greater than 432 that specified by the engine manufacturer, the _____________.
torque limiter overspeed trip overspeed governor load limit governor B Lube oil accumulating in in the cooling water system system of a diesel 431 engine will result in _____________. A. lube cooler failure B. poor heat transfer C. mechanical lubricator failure D. camshaft seizure Ans: B Black smoke exhausting from an operating diesel engine is an 433 indication of poor combustion which may be c aused by _____________.
A. quantity of fuel injected is decreased B. quantity of fuel injected will always be increased C. start of injection is advanced D. duration of injection will always be greater Ans: A The highest pressure in a diesel engine cylinder normally occurs 434 _____________. A. at TDC B. before TDC C. after TDC D. during air starting Ans: C A broken pintle in in a fuel injector injector usually causes _________. _________. 436 A. corrosion of the spray nozzle B. clogging of the orifices
water in the fuel insufficient fuel for combustion clogged air intake passages burning lubricating oil C Diesel engine lube oil diluted with fuel oil is indicated by 435 _____________. A. decreased viscosity B. decreased pour point C. increased fclearance point D. increased viscosity Ans: A Diesel engine cylinder head test cocks are used to ________. 437 A. check cylinder lubrication prior to starting engine B. connect exhaust gas analyzers to determine engine efficiency
C. distortion of the spray pattern D. erosion of the valves Ans: C
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
C. pressure test cylinder heads to check for leaks cylinders prior to starting D. remove moisture accumulations from cylinders Ans: D
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A practical way of checking for excessive excessive fuel injection in one cylinder of an operating diesel engine engine is to _____________.
438
A. B. C. D. Ans: 440
feel the high pressure fuel line check the cylinder exhausts for white smoke frequently check the cylinder exhaust temperature isolate each cylinder and inspect the injector C Which of the following problems problems could cause misalignment between the needle valve and nozzle in a fuel injection injection nozzle?
needle. A. A bent fuel needle. tip seat. B. A defective nozzle tip C. A distorted valve body. above. D. All of the above. Ans: D In the common rail system, excessive pressure in the header may 442 be caused by _____________. A. improper adjustment of the bypass valve B. a dribble in the fuel injection nozzle C. insufficient leakoff through injection nozzle packing D. a malfunctioning injection nozzle Ans: A If the diesel engine fuel injection timing is c hanged to delay the start 444 of injection until the pistons are at top dead center, the engine will _____________. backfire through the air intake develop less power under load have high firing pressures lift its cylinder relief valves B If the jacket water temperature rises rapidly above normal in a diesel engine, you should FIRST __________. A. place standby cooler in operation B. reduce engine load C. check thermostatic valve D. clean sea water strainer Ans: B In an operating diesel engine, preignition can be caused by _____________. A. excessively late fuel injection B. oil in the air charge C. water in the fuel D. injection continuing after the fuel charge is ignited Ans: B When fuel is injected late into a diesel engine cylinder, _____________. A. the exhaust will be clear B. fuel consumption will be low C. all the fuel will be burned at top dead center D. fuel consumption will be high Ans: D If a single cylinder relief valve on a diesel engine lifts frequently while the engine is running, the cause may be an _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 441
448
450
452
excessively late injection timing for each c ylinder incorrectly adjusted intake valve timing incorrectly adjusted fuel injector incorrectly adjusted intake valve clearance C A distorted spray pattern pattern from a fuel fuel injector can cause a diesel diesel 454 engine to have _____________. A. higher firing pressure B. more power output C. lower fuel pressure D. less power output Ans: D A diesel engine fails to start because of water in the fuel. fuel. In order to 456 start the engine, you should ____________. A. turn engine with jacking gear strainers and bleed off water at each injection B. drain filters and strainers pump C. use ether to start the engine with blowdown valves open cylinders and fuel lines lines with a drying agent D. blow through the cylinders Ans: B A. B. C. D. Ans:
cold intake air excessive compression pressure excessive cylinder lubrication a light load C A diesel engine is operating under under a normal load load with low low firing pressures and high exhaust temperatures. The most probable cause of this condition is ________________.
a missing air intake filter a restricted exhaust m anifold the fuel rack being too far in the fuel rack being too far out B The highest loads applied to the diesel engine crankshaft main 443 bearings are ____________. A. axial loads B. firing loads C. inertia loads D. centripetal loads Ans: B Increasing the compression ratio of a diesel engine while 445 maintaining the designed rate of fuel flow will result in ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 446
A diesel engine emits blue exhaust exhaust smoke as a result of _____________.
439
447
449
451
453
A. increased horsepower B. reduced efficiency C. increased heat loss D. lower cylinder pressures Ans: A During which of the the listed listed piston strokes of a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, is the piston moving downward? A. Intake stroke B. Compression stroke C. Exhaust stroke D. Pumping stroke Ans: A Significant retardation of a diesel engine fuel injection timing will result in _____________. A. smoother engine operation B. advanced fuel ignition C. increased fuel economy D. reduced engine power Ans: D Late fuel injection in a diesel engine is indicated by low firing pressure with _____________. A. high exhaust temperature B. low exhaust temperature C. fuel knock in each cylinder D. mechanical knock in each cylinder Ans: A When one cylinder has a lower compression pressure and higher exhaust gas temperature than any of the other engine cylinders, which of the conditions listed will be indicated?
A. Advanced ignition B. Clogged air intake C. Leaky exhaust valve D. High exhaust pressure Ans: C If a few injector spray holes become plugged, the result could be 455 _____________. A. excessive surging at governed speed B. combustion knock under load C. poor fuel combustion D. all of the above Ans: D A diesel engine piston crown can crack from ____________. 457 A. excessive piston to liner clearance B. excessive dirt beneath the piston c rown that reduces heat transfer. C. faulty nozzle spray D. all of the above Ans: D
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Permitting a diesel engine fuel oil day tank to run dry can cause _____________. A. overheated injection pumps B. water condensation in the cylinders C. fuel dilution of the lube oil D. air in the fuel system Ans: D Which of the following problems problems will occur if the needle valve in a 460 fuel injection injection nozzle nozzle sticks in in the open position? A. Fuel injection timing will change B. Nozzle operation will be unaffected C. Fuel will leak into the drain line D. Fuel will not be delivered Ans: A Diesel engine cylinder head test cocks are used to ________. 462 458
A. B. C. D. Ans: 464 A. B. C. D. Ans: 466 A. B. C. D. Ans: 468 A. B. C.
check cylinder lubrication connect the pressure indicator pressure test cylinder heads connect the exhaust gas pyrometers B Which of the terms listed below represents the operational speed at which excessive engine vibration is c reated? Non-harmonic speed. Critical speed. Maximum speed. Design maximum speed. B Which of the conditions listed would cause simultaneous high cylinder firing pressure and low exhaust temperature? Improper fuel rack positioning. Lengthy opening of the exhaust valve. Excessively early injection timing. Extended light load operation. C If fuel injection occurs too early, a diesel engine will lose power because the _____________. fuel will not be properly atomized in the cylinder ignition will be delayed due to low compression pressure maximum fuel expansion will occur on the c ompression stroke
D. fuel will ignite after top dead center Ans: B A diesel engine fails to start due to excessive water in the fuel. fuel. 470 Before the engine can be started, the water should be removed from the _____________. A. fuel lines B. lube oil filter C. crank case pump D. rocker arm reservoir Ans: A An increase in the load on a turbocharged turbocharged diesel engine engine operating 472 at constant speed will result in an increase in _____________. exhaust temperature air box pressure brake mean effective pressure all of the above D Air in the fuel fuel can cause _____________. _____________. 474 A. high lube oil temperature B. blue smoke C. the engine to stop D. piston seizure Ans: C Which of the following operating operating procedures should be carried out 476 immediately after any diesel engine is started?
Air in the fuel fuel lines to the fuel injection injection nozzles of a diesel engine will cause the engine to _____________. A. burn excessive amounts of lube oil B. overheat without smoking C. operate with reduced power or stop D. run away without load Ans: C A dry-type exhaust exhaust muffler clogged with soot, will cause 461 _____________. A. low exhaust temperature B. loss of engine power C. burned intake valves D. engine racing Ans: B Air may be bled bled from the fuel system by _____________. _____________. 463 459
blowing down the air tanks loosening the compression nuts at the injectors changing fuel filters pumping down the day tanks B If the needle valve in a fuel injection nozzle sticks open, 465 _____________. A. fuel will leak into the nozzle drain line B. no fuel will be delivered through the nozzle C. the nozzle will overheat D. injection lag will be increased Ans: C Early fuel injection timing is indicated by the cylinder pressure being 467 _____________. A. above normal with a below normal exhaust temperature B. above normal with a normal exhaust temperature C. below normal with a normal exhaust temperature D. below normal with an above normal exhaust temperature Ans: A Diesel engine air start valve timing is controlled by 469 _____________. A. engine operating speed B. an air manifold C. a hydraulic distributor A. B. C. D. Ans:
D. individual cams and valve gear Ans: D If you suspect a diesel engine is is misfiring due to air leakage into 471 the fuel system, you should begin looking for the leak at the _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
air quantity aspirated fuel injection pressure combustion pressure on the power stroke compression pressure on the compression stroke C Early injection timing is indicated by ____________. high exhaust temperature and low firing pressure high exhaust temperature and high firing pressure low exhaust temperature and low firing pressure low exhaust temperature and high firing pressure D The most common diesel engine fuel system problems are caused by _____________.
475 A. B. C. D. Ans: 477
A. B. C. D. Ans: 478
fuel line connections to the cylinder injection valves gasket surfaces of the fuel oil filters discharge fittings of the fuel injector pumps suction side of the fuel oil transfer pump D When a diesel engine is operated at partial partial load, as compared to full load, a decrease will occur in the average _____________.
473
A. B. C. D. Ans:
Take all exhaust temperature readings. Check the sump oil level. Verify proper lube oil pressure. Check the water level in expansion tank C If sludge accumulates on the underside of a diesel engine piston, it will ______________. A. cause blow-by B. chemically attack the piston skirt
A. B. C. D. Ans:
incorrect adjustments dirty fuel broken fuel lines excessive vibration B Faulty operation of diesel engine fuel injection nozzles can be a direct cause of ______________. A. excessive fuel nozzle holder cooling B. sediment in the fuel supply
A. B. C. D. Ans: 479
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C. form an emulsion of lube oil and water D. raise the piston temperature Ans: D Low cylinder compression pressure and a high exhaust 480 temperature may indicate ______________. A. early fuel injection timing B. leaking valves C. a continuously open scavenge air port D. low cooling water temperature Ans: B The loss of the diesel engine cylinder air charge through leaky 482 valves, piston rings, worn or scored liners, would be indicated by which of the following sets of conditions?
C. distortion of the fuel spray pattern D. improper atomization of the fuel Ans: B Fuel oil injected into the cylinder of a diesel engine just after the 481 piston passes top dead center, will _____________. A. increase engine power B. increase engine load C. decrease engine power D. improve fuel economy Ans: C During diesel engine warm-up, which type of tappet clearance 483 adjuster listed allows allows for the change in length of the the exhaust valves?
A. Low compression pressure and high exhaust temperature B. Low firing pressure and high exhaust temperature C. Low compression pressure and low exhaust temperature D. Low firing pressure and low exhaust temperature Ans: A Worn cylinder head valve seats in a diesel engine will cause 484 ____________. A. less cold tappet clearance B. more cold tappet clearance C. excessive pressure in hydraulic tappet clearance adjusters D. broken valve springs Ans: A If the jacket water temperature rises rapidly above normal in a 486 diesel engine, you should FIRST __________.
Mechanical Hydraulic Pneumatic Electrical B Which operating condition of a diesel engine is indicated by 485 excessive firing pressures? A. Overspeeding B. Overload C. Low exhaust temperature D. High crankcase pressure Ans: B A substantial increase increase in crankcase pressure could be an indication indication 487 of a/an _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 488
call the chief engineer reduce engine load check thermostatic valve clean sea water strainer B Which of the following procedures should be carried out when a large, low-speed, diesel engine engine is operated with one cylinder secured?
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. worn cylinder liner B. faulty cylinder relief valve C. excessive lube oil pressure D. excessive scavenge air pressure Ans: A The most practical way of of detecting an overload in one cylinder of 489 an operating large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine is to _____________.
A. Lubrication to the defective cylinder should be increased. B. Cooling water temperature to the engine should be increased. C. Only the turbocharger speed should be reduced. D. Engine speed should be reduced. Ans: D A diesel engine could fail to to start because of ____________. ____________. 490 A. incorrect injection timing B. low exhaust back pressure C. floating exhaust valves D. excessive cranking speed Ans: A If you notice smoke coming from the crankcase exhaust fan outlet 492 of an operating diesel engine, you would suspect ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 494 A. B. C. D. Ans: 496
A. B. C. D. Ans: 498
a cracked c ylinder liner clogged intake ports broken piston rings a faulty head gasket C A restricted diesel engine exhaust manifold manifold operating operating under a normal load is indicated by ______________. low firing pressures and low exhaust temperatures low firing pressures and high exhaust temperatures high firing pressures and low exhaust temperatures high firing pressures and high exhaust temperatures B What color exhaust will be exhibited exhibited when a slow speed twostroke/cycle main propulsion diesel engine, designed to operate on light and heavy fuel fuel oil, is is operated on insufficiently insufficiently preheated heavy fuel oil? White Black Blue Clear B Before starting a diesel engine that has an engine driven lube oil pump, the engineer should _____________.
A. open the bypass line
A. check the cylinder exhausts for black smoke B. engage the starter motor with the flywheel C. isolate each cylinder and inspect the injector D. check the cylinder exhaust temperature frequently Ans: D One cause of diesel engine piston ring blow-by is _________. 491 A. B. C. D. Ans:
reduced scavenging high exhaust temperatures excessive lubrication floating piston pins C Which of the following following conditions may need to be reduced when operating a large, low-speed, main propulsion, diesel engine at low loads?
A. B. C. D. Ans:
Injection pressures Control air supply pressure Cooling water flow through aftercoolers Lube oil temperature C Excessive exhaust temperatures in a two-stroke/cycle dieselengine dieselengine can be caused by a/an ____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
high injection pressure high firing pressure overheated air starting line carbon build up in the exhaust ports D Immediately after starting a diesel engine, normal raw waterand jacket water pressures are indicated. However, However, thejacket water temperature continues to rise. If there is nochange in the sea temperature, you should suspect _________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
overloading in all cylinders a jammed three-way thermostatic valve chromate pH too low a high level in the surge tank B Collapsed hydraulic valve lifters in a diesel engine will result in ____________.
493
495
497
499
A. excessive rocker arm movement
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B. C. D. Ans: 500
cut in the lube oil cooler pressurize the lube oil system top off the expansion tank C Prolonged operation of a diesel engine with a closed cooling water system, at lower than normal designed operating temperatures can _____________.
increase power output decrease lube oil viscosity eliminate fuel knock cause sulphuric acid formation D Immediately after any diesel engine is started, the engineer should 502 check the ____________. A. crankcase pressure B. lube oil pressure C. saltwater pressure D. exhaust temperature Ans: B Poor combustion in a diesel engine can be caused by 504 ______________. A. high compression pressure B. low intake air temperature C. low exhaust pressure D. high scavenge air pressure Ans: B Which of the following problems problems may oc cur if the opening pressure 506 of a fuel injection injection nozzle is is greater than specified by the the engine manufacturer? A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 508
The amount of fuel injected will be increased. The start of injection will be retarded. The nozzle will permit fuel to dribble. The spray pattern will be distorted. B Insufficient piston cooling for a large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine burning heavy fuels, can result in _____________.
B. C. D. Ans: 501
I only II only both I and II neither I nor II C In a diesel engine lube oil system, which of the following parts 503 should be lubricated first? A. Camshaft bearings B. Main bearings C. Piston crowns D. Cylinder walls Ans: B Diesel engine exhaust gas gas temperatures can be used to determine 505 individual cylinder _____________. A. performance B. horsepower output C. fuel consumption D. scavenge effect Ans: A All of the diesel engine cylinder cylinder firing firing pressures are normal, yet all all 507 of the exhaust temperatures are low. W hich of the following situations is responsible responsible for this condition? A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 509
A. excessive crosshead temperatures B. dangerous thermal expansion of the piston skirt C. high temperature corrosion and burning off of piston c rown metal D. change in fuel cetane number
510
512
514
516
518
Ans: C High exhaust back pressure will result in an increase in ______________. A. turbocharger efficiency B. engine power output C. carbon deposits on fuel injectors D. cylinder scavenging Ans: C In a diesel engine, blow-by _____________. A. increases exhaust back pressure B. causes excessive crankcase pressure C. can only be detected by a compression check D. decreases fuel consumption Ans: B A cracked cylinder head on a diesel engine engine may be indicated indicated by _____________. A. excessive lube oil consumption B. water draining from the fuel leak off valv es C. combustion gases venting at the expansion tank D. excessive fuel oil consumption Ans: C Crankcase explosions in propulsion diesel engines result from _____________. A. the spclearanceing of lubrication oil by the crankshaft B. the dilution of crankcase oil with particles of combustion C. broken fuel lines spraying oil on the crankcase D. the ignition of unburned fuel and air in the crankcase Ans: D Persistent knocking of one cylinder of a diesel engine ceases when the fuel supply to that cylinder is secured. This problem may be a result of ______________. A. low loading of that c ylinder B. faulty combustion in that cylinder
little or no valve clearance excessive valve clearance collapsed or stacked valve springs C A large low speed main propulsion propulsion diesel engine engine may becomeoverloaded by_______________. by_______________. I. a heavily fouled hull II. strong head winds and heavy seas
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Excessively early injection timing Combustion knock Leaking piston rings Light load D Which of the following following factors tends to increase scale formation on the saltwater side of a heat exchanger used in a diesel engine cooling water system?
A. Baffle plates that have been bent during prior removal. B. Leaks in the cooler tube nest. while maintaining a high sea water outlet C. Operating the engine while temperature. water strainer supplying supplying cooling water water to the heat heat D. A punctured sea water exchanger. Ans: C Any increase in the the exhaust back pressure of a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine will _____________. A. reduce engine power output B. aid in silencing the exhaust noise C. increase the mean effective pressure D. contribute to effective cylinder scavenging Ans: A A crack in a cylinder cylinder liner can be caused by _____________. A. worn piston rings installation of undersized sealing rings B. installation C. operating the engine at low loads D. restricted cooling water passages Ans: D The direct cause of a crankcase explosion can be attributed to ______________. A. extremely hot scavenge air B. excessive cooling water temperature C. an overheated bearing D. excessive lube oil in the crankcase Ans: C Combustion knock occurring in a diesel engine can be caused by ________________. A. low coolant temperature B. insufficient fuel C. high ambient temperature D. carbon buildup on the injector tips Ans: A Which of the conditions listed may occur in an operating diesel engine if air pockets form within the cylinder head c irculating water passages? A. Hydraulic stress and distortion will develop. B. Hot spots will develop.
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C. sluggish piston ring action D. excessive piston cooling Ans: B If a diesel engine's exhaust temperature is abnormally high, the cause could be ____________. A. too light of a load B. injection timing is too early C. overloading of the engine D. too low of a compress ion ratio Ans: C A main propulsion diesel engine is is normally shut down by _____________. A. shutting off the air supply B. overspeeding the engine C. securing the fuel supply D. securing the ignition system Ans: C White smoke exhausting from a diesel engine can result from ____________. A. high exhaust temperature B. high lube oil temperature C. low turbocharge speed D. low cooling water temperature Ans: D By comparing the exhaust gas output of each cylinder of a diesel engine, one method of determining if the engine load is balanced is by the use of a ______________.
tachometer calorimeter pedometer pyrometer D A diesel engine is warmed up and white vapour is is noted in the 528 exhaust, this could indicate _____________. A. excessive cylinder lubrication B. a lugging engine C. a leaking cylinder liner D. overloading of one cylinder Ans: C Oil accumulating in the the exhaust piping or manifold manifold of a diesel 530 engine can be caused by ________________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 532 A. B. C. D. Ans: 534 A. B. C. D. Ans: 536
A. B. C. D. Ans: 538
A. B. C. D.
C. Fuel oil viscosity will increased. trapped deposits of scale and dirt. D. An increase in trapped Ans: B Heat damage to fuel injection nozzles can be prevented by avoiding 521 _____________. A. excessive fuel oil temperature B. long periods of engine overload C. metallic contact between nozzles and cylinder heads D. hard carbon deposit and varnish on the nozzles Ans: B Excessive diesel engine back pressure may be an indication of 523 __________. A. carbon buildup in the exhaust manifold B. overcooling of the exhaust manifold C. eroded muffler baffle plates D. high injection pressure Ans: A What is the best way of stopping an overspeeding diesel diesel engine? 525 A. B. C. D. Ans: 527
Disconnect the battery cables from the starting motor. Drain the hydraulic fluid from the governor sump. Block the flow of cooling air to the radiator. Secure the fuel supply and block the air intake D One cylinder of a diesel engine is persistently knocking and does not cease when the fuel supply supply to that cylinder is secured. Which of the following problems may be the cause?
A. Low loading of the cylinder B. Excessive cooling of that piston C. Sluggish ring action on the piston in a working part D. A mechanical defect in Ans: D A smoking exhaust from an an operating diesel diesel engine could be 529 caused by ______________. A. low sulphur content in the fuel B. a loose injector inlet connection C. late fuel injection D. high injection pressure Ans: C Diesel engine operating operating conditions are indicated indicated by the color of the 531 exhaust smoke. Blue smoke can indicate indicate _____________.
collapsed hydraulic valve lifters worn valve guides excessive crankcase vacuum excessive lube oil pressure B If a diesel engine is smoking excessively under load, the cause could be _____________. low exhaust back pressure early fuel injection in one of the cylinders compression pressure in one of the cylinders plugged injector holes D Which of the following conditions can cause excessive lube oil consumption in a diesel engine? Low lube oil temperature Dirty lube oil strainer Low lube oil pressure High lube oil temperature D Which of the following conditions conditions is likely to dev elop if the thermocouple element of a pyrometer becomes coated with excessive amounts of combustion by-products?
low compression pressure and high exhaust temperature an overloaded engine clogged drain holes in the oil control rings complete combustion C Sticking of diesel engine piston compression rings may be caused 533 by _____________. A. high compression pressure B. excessive ring action C. excessive cylinder lubrication D. improper ring rotation Ans: C Late fuel oil injection in a diesel engine c an result in 535 _____________. A. fuel knock B. increased power C. low compression pressure D. high exhaust temperature Ans: D When the opening pressure of a diesel engine fuel injector is 537 greater than that specified by the engine manufacturer, which of the following following problems can be expected?
Indicated exhaust pressure readings will increase. Pyrometer responses will be retarded. Indicated cylinder temperature readings will increase. Indicated firing pressure readings will increase. B Late fuel injection occurring at, or after TDC in a diesel engine is indicated by excessive exhaust smoke and _____________.
A. Quantity of fuel injected tends to be decreased. B. Quantity of fuel injected will always be increased. C. Start of injection tends to be advanced. D. Duration of injection will always be greater. Ans: A In a diesel engine, late late fuel injection is indicated indicated by black or gray 539 exhaust smoke with ______________.
low exhaust temperature low firing pressure fuel knock in each cylinder mechanical knock in each cylinder
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D.
low firing pressure low exhaust temperature mechanical knock in each cylinder fuel knock in each cylinder
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Ans: B If a crankcase explosion occurs in a diesel engine, engine, you should stop the engine and _____________. A. immediately open all crankcase relief ports B. allow the engine to cool naturally C. increase crankcase exhauster speed to draw cool air into the engine D. increase crank case scavenge air to remove unburned gases Ans: B Which of the following conditions conditions is most likely to occur when unburned fuel contaminates the crankcase of a diesel engine?
A. Lube oil is diluted and its viscosity is reduced. B. sulphuric acid is formed. C. Bearings become pitted and immediately fail. D. Valve stems develop sludge deposits. Ans: A The ignition quality of diesel fuel becomes less critical as 544 ______________. A. the amount of lube oil additives increase B. piston speeds increase C. injection pressures decrease D. engine speeds decrease Ans: D When a fuel injection nozzle overheats, which which of the problems 546 listed can be expected? A. The fuel metering will vary. B. The fuel will explode. C. The cylinder head will crack. D. The engine will stop. Ans: A If fuel injection in a diesel engine begins earlier than the design start 548 of injection, ignition may be delayed because the _____________. fuel oil injection pressure may not be high enough cylinder compression pressure may not be high enough cylinder compression temperature may be too high scavenge and purge process is incomplete B A fuel injection valve opening opening at a pressure lower lower than normal will will result in _____________. A. late fuel injection B. early fuel injection C. high exhaust temperature from that cylinder D. decreased effective stroke from that injector Ans: B Water in the fuel can prevent the engine from from starting, prevent it from developing full power, or ____________. A. run at an irregular speed B. create high lube oil temperature C. cause the engine to overspeed D. cause blue smoke in the exhaust Ans: A Before starting a diesel engine, you should always _____________. A. check the pyrometer readings B. check the crankcase oil level C. change the fuel oil strainers D. clean the air filter Ans: B If cooling water water flow through the aftercooler aftercooler is interrupted, the power output of a turbocharged turbocharged diesel engine will drop because the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 550
552
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556
A. B. C. D. Ans: 558
A. B. C. D.
turbocharger will stall density of the air charge will decrease scavenge effect will increase exhaust pressure will increase B Diesel engine fuel oil contamination often results in _____________. governor malfunctions fuel injection system malfunctions high cylinder lube oil temperatures low intake temperatures
541
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Ans: A A diesel engine will lose lose power if fuel injection occurs too late in the cycle, because the ______________. A. fuel droplets will burn as they leave the fuel injector B. fuel will not be properly atomized in the cylinder C. maximum expansion of the burned fuel cannot take place in the cylinder D. compression pressure will be too low to c ause fuel ignition Ans: C Late fuel injection in a diesel engine is indicated byblack or gray exhaust smoke with a _____________.
A. low firing pressure B. low exhaust temperature C. mechanical knock in each cylinder D. fuel knock in each cylinder Ans: A Higher than normal temperature temperature air passing through the the intake of a 545 diesel engine will result in _____________. A. greater overall efficiency B. greater fuel economy C. lower horsepower D. lower compression ratio Ans: C An increase in the fuel injection pump discharge pressure can be 547 caused by a/an _____________. A. leaking delivery valve B. increase in engine load C. plugged injector spray hole D. increased plunger stroke Ans: C Prior to starting, the the purpose of turning over a main propulsion 549 diesel engine with the cylinder test cocks open, is to _____________. test the starting system remove condensation from the c ylinders check the compression check for proper lube oil pressure B Faulty operation of diesel engine fuel injection nozzles can be 551 directly caused by _____________. A. water in the fuel oil supply B. excessive fuel nozzle holder cooling C. a distorted fuel spray pattern D. leakage past the plunger into the oil drain Ans: A Air in the fuel fuel lines of a diesel engine engine can cause _____________. 553 A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. ignition failure B. oxygen corrosion of the fuel lines C. the pistons to seize D. blue smoke Ans: A Dirt in a fuel oil system of a diesel engine can cause 555 _____________. A. damage to strainers B. overspeeding of the engine C. excessive cooling of the engine D. injector damage Ans: D Operating a propulsion diesel engine at less than 30% of designed 557 normal load for prolonged periods will result in ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 559
A. B. C. D.
decreased fuel consumption per brake horsepower more complete cylinder scavenging extended valve life carbon formation on combustion chamber surfaces D Operating a diesel engine under light loads and at low temperatures for an extended period can result in _________. formation of carbon on the intake and exhaust ports high water jacket temperatures overheated pistons and cylinders an increase in lube oil v iscosity due to fuel dilution
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Ans: B Which of the conditions listed occurring in a diesel engine would cause carbon deposits to develop in the piston ring belt? A. Faulty combustion B. Excessive ring temperatures C. Over lubrication D. All of the above. Ans: D The burning of fuel oil in a diesel engine having a high s odium content, will cause ____________. A. corrosion and grooving of exhaust valves B. corrosion and gumming of the fuel injection pump C. salt deposits in the exhaust manifold D. slag deposits in the fuel injection equipment Ans: A If the relief valve on a diesel engine cylinder lifts, the cause could be due to _____________. A. liquid in the cylinder B. low compression in the cylinder C. high exhaust temperature D. poor fuel penetration Ans: A An indication of an overloaded main propulsion diesel engine is _____________. A. white smoke in the exhaust B. high exhaust gas pyrometer readings C. sparks in the exhaust D. blue smoke in the exhaust Ans: B A dark exhaust from a running diesel engine can be caused by _____________. A. late ignition B. water in the fuel C. high compression temperature D. starting valve stuck open Ans: A The color of the exhaust from a diesel engine should be___________.
A. clear B. hazy light brown C. hazy light blue D. hazy light grey Ans: A A restricted air intake to a diesel engine may result in the engine 572 _____________. A. failing to reach rated speed B. knocking under maximum load C. hunting or surging under light load D. overspeeding and running away Ans: A With regards to a diesel engine crankcase explosion, the most 574 violent is the _____________. I. primary explosion II. secondary explosion A. B. C. D. Ans:
I only II only both I and II neither I nor II B Some diesel engines are fitted with a thermometer in the cooling water outlet from each cylinder. If the cooling water temperature from all cylinders begins to rise above normal, you should suspect _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
increased blow-by in all cylinders incomplete combustion in all cylinders overloading in all cylinders insufficient fuel delivery to all c ylinders C A diesel engine using lube oil with too high a viscosity will exhibit _____________.
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578
A. B. C. D.
increased starting difficulty in cold weather increased oil consumption thickening at higher operating temperatures minimal friction losses
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Ans: A If a crankcase explosion occurs in a diesel engine, which of the listed actions should be taken? A. Open the crankcase immediately to check for damage. B. Apply fire fighting water through the crankcase breather. C. Allow the engine to cool before opening the crankcase. D. Assume that there is no damage to the crankshaft. Ans: C The longer the ignition delay period resulting from improper use of low cetane fuel, the ____________. A. less fuel will enter the cylinder B. higher the cylinder combustion temperature C. more complete the fuel combustion D. more rapid the rise in combustion pressure Ans: D A substantial increase in crankcase pressure could be an indication of _____________. A. excessive lube oil pressure B. the proper seating of new rings C. a worn cylinder liner D. a malfunctioning cylinder relief valve Ans: C A dry-type exhaust silencer clogged with soot, will cause _____________. A. low exhaust temperature B. loss of engine power C. burned intake valves D. engine racing Ans: B Partially obstructed exhaust ports on a diesel engine can cause _____________. A. overheating of the engine B. high exhaust temperatures C. sluggish engine operation D. all of the above Ans: D Engine operating conditions may be indicated by the color of the exhaust smoke. Black smoke could indicate ____________.
an insufficient speed droop setting an overloaded engine clogged drain holes in the oil control rings complete combustion B The color of the engine exhaust from a diesel propelled ship should 573 be ______________. A. clear B. hazy light brown C. hazy light blue D. hazy light grey Ans: A You are operating a main propulsion diesel engine at a constant 575 load when the jacket water temperature begins to rise. This could be caused by ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. a piston about to seize B. dirty fuel oil filters C. fuel oil being too heavy (viscous) D. high water level in the expansion tank Ans: A Some diesel engines are fitted with a thermometer in the cooling 577 water outlet from each cylinder. If the cooling water temperature from an individual cylinder begins to rise, you should suspect _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 579
A. B. C. D.
overloading of adjacent cylinders overloading of that cylinder increased blow-by in that cylinder incomplete combustion in that cylinder B One result of operating a diesel engine at light load with excessively low cooling water temperatures is a/an _______. decrease in ignition lag increase in fuel economy reduction in lube oil viscosity increase in cylinder misfiring
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Ans: A Which of the following conditions will tend to increase the ignition delay period of combustion in a compression ignition engine? Using a fuel oil with a higher c etane number. Decreasing the air charge temperature. Reducing the injected fuel oil droplet size. increasing the compression ratio B A change in the degree of fuel atomization in a diesel engine would most greatly affect _____________. A. air turbulence B. fuel penetration C. fuel spray angle D. fuel injection rate Ans: B Diesel engine exhaust temperatures may be used to indicate _____________. A. leaking exhaust valves B. an overloaded cylinder C. a clogged injector nozzle D. all of the above Ans: D Combustion knock can occur in the cylinders of a diesel engine under any condition permitting _____________. A. a shortened ignition delay period B. a lean fuel/air mixture C. excess fuel in the combustion chamber D. rapid vaporization of injected fuel droplets Ans: C A cracked cylinder head in an operating engine may be indicated by _____________. A. a steady flow of water from the expansion tank vent B. combustion gases venting at the expansion tank C. lower temperature at the cylinder head water discharge D. water draining from the fuel leakoff lines Ans: B When oil vapor, oxygen and hot spots are present at the sametime within a crankcase, which of the following hazards could develop?
581
A. B. C. D. Ans: 582
584
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Ans: D In a diesel engine, excessive cylinder liner wear willcause ___________.I. increased blowby II. wear between the piston ring and groove I only is correct II only is correct both I and II are correct neither I or II are correct C The longer the ignition delay period occurs in a diesel engine, the _____________. A. less fuel will enter the cylinder B. lower will be cylinder compression temperatures C. more complete will be fuel combustion D. more rapid will be the rise in c ombustion pressure Ans: D Maintaining the proper fuel oil temperature will result in _____________. A. the elimination of valve wear B. improved atomization C. a decrease in cylinder blow-by D. an increase in cylinder blowby Ans: B Persistent knocking in one cylinder of an eight cylinder diesel engine would MOST likely be caused by _____________. A. using fuel oil with low cetane number B. a badly worn piston pin C. a loose flywheel key D. a loose bedplate bolt Ans: B Coolant can be lost from a diesel engine jacket cooling water system by leakage from _____________. A. cylinder head cracks B. piping joints C. pump seals leaking D. all of the above Ans: D A possible cause for an individual piston to knock when at TDC on a slow-speed, two-stroke/cycle main propulsion diesel engine could be due to ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
583
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A. Explosion B. Implosion C. Misfire D. Dieseling Ans: A An automated diesel engine should normally shut down due to 592 _____________. A. low lube oil temperature B. high ambient air temperature C. low lube oil pressure D. high exhaust system back pressure Ans: C One remedy for a high firing pressure, in addition to a high exhaust 594 temperature in one cylinder of a diesel engine, is to ____________.
early fuel injection excessive bearing play within the running gear overloading of the cylinder all of the above D Routine monitoring of a diesel engine should include 593 _____________. A. checking for leaks B. checking temperatures and pressures C. listening for abnormal noises D. all of the above Ans: D If a diesel engine is difficult to start and operates with the engine 595 temperatures lower than normal, you should suspect that the _____________.
increase scavenge air pressure reduce fuel booster pump pressure adjust the fuel rack retard fuel injector timing C A distorted spray pattern from a fuel injector can cause 596 _____________. A. high firing pressure B. corrosion of the nozzle tip C. low fuel pressure D. loss of power Ans: D White smoke exhausting from a diesel engine can be caused by 598 _____________. A. low combustion temperature B. a leaking fuel nozzle check valve C. late fuel injection D. plugged oil scraper ring holes Ans: A
A. compression pressures are below normal B. lube oil is diluted with fuel oil C. cranking speed is too low D. exhaust system is partially restricted Ans: A White smoke issuing from the exhaust of an auxiliary diesel engine 597 could mean _____________. A. the engine is overloaded B. the engine is cold C. there is too much lube oil in the cylinders D. the turbocharger is fouled Ans: B Bluish smoke in the exhaust of an operating diesel engine can be 599 caused by ______________. A. an overheated engine B. a scored cylinder liner C. water leaking into a cylinder D. low combustion temperature Ans: B
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
Page 38
One of the factors limiting the amount of load which can beput on a modern marine diesel engine is the ____________.
600
governor sensitivity exhaust temperature fuel injection pressure speed of the cam shaft B If a diesel engine runs roughly, which of the systems listed is most 602 likely to be at fault? A. Fuel B. Lubricating C. Cooling D. Ignition Ans: A Which of the listed pre-start procedures should be carried out prior 604 to starting a crosshead type diesel engine after an overhaul? A. B. C. D. Ans:
Prelube cylinders with hand cranks. Open all air space drain cocks. Open all indicator valves. all of the above D Late fuel injection in a diesel engine is indicated by low firing pressure with _____________. A. low exhaust temperature B. low exhaust pressure C. mechanical knock in each cylinder D. black or gray exhaust smoke Ans: D An incorrect spray pattern produced by a diesel engine fuel injection nozzle can be directly caused by _____________. A. overheating of the nozzle B. overcooling of the nozzle C. carbon blockage of the spray holes D. excessive lube oil tempertures Ans: B A leaking diesel engine fuel injector will cause __________. A. prolonged maintenance intervals B. improved atomization C. greater fuel economy D. incomplete combustion Ans: D When fuel is injected too early in the injection cycle, it may cause the engine to have _____________.
high combustion temperature high compression pressure cracked cylinder liner fuel with a high vanadium content C One cause of diesel engine surging can be a result of 603 _______________. A. injection pump plungers stuck or worn B. low compression C. solenoid stuck open D. fuel tank too full Ans: A Plugged spray holes in a diesel engine fuel injector will cause 605 excessive smoking at idling speed, in addition to _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 606
608
610
612
A. B. C. D. Ans: 618
decreased piston-to-cylinder head clearance increased exhaust back pressure early timing of fuel injection low scavenge air temperature C Which of the following statements represents the reason for rolling over a diesel engine with the cylinder indicator cocks open prior to starting?
To test the starting system. To remove air bubbles from the jacket water. To ensure that the lube oil system delivers pressure. To ensure foreign material ( water, etc ) is not present in the cylinders Ans: D A. B. C. D.
damage to pistons or cylinder heads detonation throughout the load range preignition throughout the load range excessive smoking when the engine is under load D Distortion of the spray pattern of a nozzle or injector may be indicated by a/an _____________. A. high firing pressure B. overload of that particular cylinder C. smoky exhaust D. cooling water temperature rise Ans: C High cylinder firing pressure, accompanied by low exhaust temperature, can result from _____________. A. improper fuel rack positioning B. lengthy exhaust valve duration C. extended operation at light load D. excessively early injection timing Ans: D Diesel engine piston seizure can be caused by _________. A. poor cooling of cylinder walls B. improper cooling of the piston C. insufficient piston lubrication D. all of the above Ans: D A diesel engine will lose power if fuel injection occurs too early because the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
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609
611
613
A. high fuel economy B. smoky exhaust C. early detonation and a loss of power D. high exhaust temperatures Ans: C When fuel is injected in a diesel engine cylinder too early, 614 _____________. A. ignition may be delayed B. fuel economy is not affected C. exhaust gas temperature will be unchanged D. the exhaust will be clear Ans: A When high firing pressures and low exhaust temperatures occur 616 simultaneously in a diesel engine, this may be a result of ____________.
White smoke exhausting from a diesel engine can be caused by a ___________.
601
A. fuel will not be properly atomized in the cylinder B. ignition will be delayed due to low ignition temperature C. maximum fuel expansion will occur on the compression stroke D. fuel will ignite before top dead centre Ans: B Which of the following should always be checked prior to starting a 615 diesel engine? A. Air filters B. Fuel oil strainers C. Crank case oil level D. Pyrometer readings Ans: C If the firing pressures in a diesel engine are high, although the 617 exhaust temperatures are normal, the cause may be _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
early injection timing worn orifices in the injection nozzles worn or scored cylinder liners using a fuel with too low of a cetane number B In order to start a large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine on high viscosity fuel after an extended shutdown, the ____________.
A. B. C. D.
fuel must be preheated intake air should be preheated none of the above lube oil outlet temperature should be increased 20‚ abov e normal
619
Ans: A
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After starting a diesel engine, which of the listed operating conditions should be checked FIRST? A. Air box pressure B. Lube oil pressure C. Exhaust temperatures D. Raw water pressure Ans: B A diesel engine should not be operated at low loads for long 622 periods of time because _____________. A. heavy carbon deposits will buildup on the valves and in the exhaust 620
What harmful condition can result if a diesel engine is operated at very light loads for long periods of time? A. Increased carbon buildup. B. Burning of intake valves. C. Excessive firing pressures. D. Increased fuel consumption. Ans: A The possibility of a diesel engine crankcase explosion will be 623 increased by operating an engine ____________. A. equipped with a crankcase exhaust blower which vents to fresh air 621
B. fuel dilution is increased at low load C. exhaust valves may be damaged D. all of the above Ans: D The main propulsion diesel continues running after you try to shut 624 down. You should now attempt to _____________. A. stop the air supply B. engage the jacking gear C. secure the lube oil pump D. shut off the fuel at the day tank Ans: A If a diesel engine has been stopped because of piston seizure due 626 to severe overheating, the crankcase _____________.
B. with a leaking crankcase inspection cover gasket C. with a crankcase vacuum between 38mm and 50mm of water D. equipped with a turbocharger which utilizes a gear drive Ans: B Low compression pressure in a diesel engine can be caused by 625 ______________. A. carbon deposits in the combustion space B. carbon deposits on the piston crown C. leaking cylinder liner seal rings D. carbon deposits on the piston Ans: D Which of the following conditions indicates the dilution of diesel 627 engine lube oil by fuel oil?
A. inspection covers should not be opened until the engine has cooled B. ventilation system should be continued in operation for one hour for cooling C. scavenge pump should be immediately secured to prevent loss of lube oil D. explosion covers should be opened slightly to provide extra ventilation Ans: A Following an overhaul of a crosshead type diesel engine, the 628 engine is jacked over with the turning gear as part of the pre-start procedure. Which of the listed pre-start procedures should be carried out? A. B. C. D.
630
a leaking fuel injection nozzle a clogged air filter early fuel injection burned valves D An increase in crankcase pressure generally indicates 632 _____________. A. worn connecting rod bearings B. worn engine cylinder liners C. high cylinder firing pressure D. stuck spring loaded manhole covers Ans: B If a diesel engine were running at 20% overload with a smoky 634 exhaust, you should _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
636
A. B. C. D.
B. Fuel oil discharging from the waste water outlet of the lube oil purifier. C. Lube oil discharging from the waste water outlet of the lube oil purifier. D. A change in the lube oil viscosity.
629
Ensure proper cylinder lube oil flow. Open all air space drain cocks. Open all indicator valves. all of the above
Ans: D A drop in compression pressure in one cylinder of a diesel engine can be caused by _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. Water discharging from the waste water outlet of the lube oil purifier.
stop the engine immediately to prevent damage increase lube oil pressure slow the engine allowing it to gradually cool decrease the cooling water temperature to the water jack et C If a diesel engine turned over at normal cranking speed but failed to start, the cause could be late fuel injection or _____________. excessive fuel pressure high lube oil viscosity inadequate fuel injection excessive starting air pressure
Ans: D A large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine is operating at rated load and speed while the vessel is in calm seas. As the intensity of the seas increase, the engine speed governor maintains the same RPM, although the load indicator indicates an in A. B. C. D.
631
Increase the load limit setting. Decrease the load limit setting. Increase engine RPM. Ignore this situation as the engine can handle the load increase.
Ans: B Which of the conditions listed could cause the cylinder relief valves on a large, low-speed, propulsion diesel engine to lift?
Plugged injector nozzles Excessive fuel injection Very late injection timing Incorrect crankshaft clearances B An increase in diesel engine crankcase pressure generally indicates 633 excessive _____________. A. compression pressure B. lube oil header pressure C. scavenge air pressure D. piston ring blow-by Ans: D The starting air rotates a diesel engine at the proper speed, but the 635 engine fails to start. You should check _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 637
the overspeed trip for an obstructed air filter for air-bound fuel lines all of the above D An increase in power output of a turbocharged diesel engine operating at a constant engine speed results in _____________.
A. higher exhaust temperature B. increased turbocharger speed C. higher air box pressure D. All of the above are correct.
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Ans: C An accumulation of carbon on one of its thermocouples of an exhaust gas pyrometer will ______________. A. read low for that location due to the insulation effect of the deposits
B. read high for that location due to the hot spots formed by the deposits C. fluctuate due to the conductance of carbon D. respond quickly to temperature changes Ans: A Black smoke exhausting from a diesel engine indicates 640 _____________. A. proper fuel injection B. water in the fuel C. incomplete combustion D. burning of lube oil Ans: C Combustion knock will most likely occur as a result of using a fuel 642 with _____________. A. low ignition quality B. a high v olatility C. low ignition delay D. a high cetane number Ans: A If a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine is overspeeding due to leakage 644 of lube oil into the cylinders, what should you do to stop the engine?
A. B. C. D. Ans: 646
Move the fuel control mechanism to the no fuel position. Block the fuel supply by closing the master fuel valve. Shut off the fuel supply and block the flow of intake air. Relieve all pressure in the fuel system. C When running a large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine on heavy fuel, which of the following precautions should be observed when switching back over to diesel oil?
639
Ans: D Which of the listed set of conditions indicates early fuel injection timing? A. Lower than normal compression pressure and high exhaust temperature B. Higher than normal firing pressure and low exhaust temperature
C. High fuel consumption and high exhaust temperatures D. Loss of engine power and high exhaust temperatures Ans: B Clogged or partially obstructed exhaust ports on a diesel engine can 641 cause _____________. A. overspeeding of the engine B. failure of the engine to shut down C. no effect of engine performance D. high exhaust temperatures Ans: D Black smoke exhausting from a diesel engine may be caused by 643 _____________. A. excessive scavenging air pressure B. high coolant temperature C. insufficient fuel D. a clogged air cleaner Ans: D A two-stroke/cycle diesel engine operates erratically, overspeeds, 645 and fails to restart when cranked at normalspeed. Which of the following problems is the most likelycause for the engine failing to restart? A. B. C. D. Ans: 647
Improper governor operation due to excess oil pressure Damage to the governor due to excessive s peed Failure to reset the overspeed trip Failure to reposition the fuel rack C If it becomes necessary to cutout an individual cylinder of a large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine, the fuel to that cylinder should be secured and its ____________.
A. The diesel oil must never be allowed to mix with the heavy fuel.
A. fuel pump should be removed and all connections blanked off
B. The temperature of the fuel from the preheater should be gradually reduced after switching over the three-way valve. C. The heating steam to the preheater should be secured as soon as the diesel fuel passes through the three-way valve.
B. cylinder oil feed rate should be increased slightly above that used at normal sea speed C. cylinder oil feed rate should be reduced
D. The heating steam must be secured before the diesel oil passes through the three-way valve. Ans: B Late fuel injection timing is indicated by ____________. 648 A. lower than normal cylinder pressure and low exhaust temperature
D. cylinder oil feed rate should be increased to the maximum flow capable of the metering pump Ans: C
B. lower than normal cylinder pressure and high exhaust temperature C. higher than normal cylinder pressure and low exhaust temperature D. higher than normal cylinder pressure and high exhaust temperature Ans: B MOTOR - MAINTENANCE Bearing wear on a split sleeve type bearing is measured with a Wear occurring at the tips of the reduction gear teeth is usually the 650 ____________. result of _____________. A. ball anvil micrometer A. surface fatigue B. pair of outside calipers and a dial indicator B. fretting corrosion C. pair of inside calipers C. heavy overloading D. depth micrometer D. gear misalignment Ans: A Ans: D While inspecting the main bearings on a diesel engine you find When a nozzle tester is being used to test a "c losed" type fuel 651 652 impregnated dirt and scratches in the bearing surface. You would, injection nozzle, a clogged nozzle orifice will be indicated by a therefore, suspect that ___________. ____________. 649
the bearing had been overheated water was present in the oil the lube oil was not being properly filtered the maximum allowable bearing pressure had been exceeded C The spray holes in diesel engine fuel valves should be cleaned using carbon solvent and _____________. A. diesel fuel B. a special cleaning wire C. a copper wire brush
A. B. C. D. Ans: 653
A. distorted spray pattern B. chattering sound when the nozzle closes C. squealing sound midway in the pump stroke D. popping sound when the nozzle opens Ans: A When disassembling or assembling an injection pump plunger and 654 barrel you should _____________. A. keep the parts immersed in diesel fuel B. always keep the plunger and barrel together C. work over a linoleum-type surface
Page 41
D. a shaved wooden dowel Ans: B Visual inspection of a fuel injector valve, removed during overhaul, 655 shows heat discoloration of the lower end of the valve. This is indicative of ____________. A. valve leakage B. insufficient valve lift C. choking of nozzle holes D. return check valve leakage Ans: A Uneven bolt tightening during the installation of a fuel injection 657 pump can result in _____________. A. binding of pump moving parts B. ignition delay C. high torsional shock to fuel lines D. improper pump-to-engine timing Ans: A If the plunger or barrel of a fuel injection jerk pump becomes 659 damaged, _____________. A. the entire pump must be replaced B. the injection pump and injection nozzle must be replaced C. either the barrel or plunger must be replaced D. the barrel and plunger must be lapped and blued. Ans: A Cracking of a diesel piston c rown can result from ____________. 661 excessive piston to liner clearance all of the above faulty nozzle spray the underside of the piston c rown being excessively dirty, lowering the rate of heat transfer Ans: D To facilitate early ring seating of newly installed piston rings, while 663 still providing extended ring wear, __________. A. inlaid rings can be utilized in which the chrome center of the ring face slightly protrudes beyond the cast iron edges B. the cylinder surface is honed to the smoothest surface attainable
D. all of the above Ans: D A visual inspection of the chrome plated piston compression rings 656 at the liner ports reveals vertical brown streaks on the face of the rings. This condition indicates __________.
658
660
662
A. B. C. D.
C. a taper faced ring can be used D. rings with increased back clearance are provided Ans: C Heavy fuel oils generally have an upper average ash content of 665 0.1% by weight. Which of the following conditions could be expected if the ash content increases above this amount?
664
B. break in the most worn part of the cylinder when the rings expand C. wear eccentrically on the side opposite the end gap D. overheat and jam at the top center on the combustion stroke Ans: A The face surface appearance of a shallow groove, stainless steel, 666 chrome plated compression ring should exhibit through its operating life a ____________.
A. Glazing of the c ylinder liners B. Increased valve wear C. Excessive oil pumping D. Increased fuel consumption Ans: B To determine the main bearing clearance of a propulsion diesel 667 engine, you should measure the m ain bearing shell using a ball anvil outside micrometer and measure the crankshaft journal using a/an _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 669 A. B. C. D.
671
telescoping gauge ring "snap" gauge inside vernier caliper outside micrometer D The consistent burning of fuel oil with a high sulphur content in a diesel engine will result in _____________. clogged fuel injection pumps increased cylinder liner wear intake valve stem corrosion varnish deposit on pistons
Ans: B Which of the following statements concerning cylinder liner wear is true?
a broken ring normal conditions ring blow-by a leaky fuel injector C In a diesel engine, a cylinder liner should be replaced if it is ______________.I. scuffed II. scored A. I only is correct B. II only is correct C. both I and II are correct D. neither I or II are correct Ans: B Which of the listed devices could be used as a substitute for a ring grooving tool? A. Steel brush B. Fine emery cloth or steel wool C. A section of the removed compression ring D. A case hardened scraper Ans: C It is easier to replace a dry cylinder liner than a wet one because ____________. A. of the thin wall thickness B. honing makes it easier to maintain the desired oil film C. water seals are not required D. it fits more loosely due to a decrease in heat transfer through the composite wall Ans: C Insufficient end clearance on newly fitted piston rings in a diesel engine will cause the rings to ______________. A. jam in the least worn part of the cylinder when the rings expand A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. smooth, shallow groved, chrome surface B. smooth surface of stainless steel C. smooth surface displaying areas of stainless steel and chrome D. surface of gradually deepening grooves Ans: A Visual inspection of chrome-plated piston compression rings 668 reveals a black ring face at the position of the cylinder liner ports. This condition indicates a ring which ________________.
670
has a crown-face exceeds wear limits through normal wear has excessive blow-by is in good condition C Burning fuel with a high sulphur content in a diesel engine will _____________. A. increase thermal efficiency B. cause clogging of the fuel system C. increase the ability of the engine to start in cold weather D. produce corrosion in the cylinder and exhaust system at low loads
672
Ans: D Generally, where should you expect to find the greatest amount of wear on a cylinder liner?
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. Liner wear is normally greatest in the middle of the cylinder. B. Excessive liner wear causes wear between piston ring and groove.
A. Adjacent to the piston skirt when the crank is on TDC. B. Along the lower part of the liner wall opposite the oil control ring.
C. Excessive, but uniform liner wear will not cause wear between piston ring and groove. D. Liner wear is distributed equally between the upper and lower portions of the cylinder.
C. Opposite the top ring shortly after piston travel has ended the compression stroke. D. Opposite the oil control ring when the crank is on bottom dead center.
Page 42
673
Ans: B Worn main bearings will cause the compression ratio of an auxiliary diesel engine to _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
increase decrease remain the same increase on compression; decrease on expansion B Diesel engine crankshaft deflection readings are generally taken at four crank positions. Good engineering practice requires the deflection gauge or indicator to be ___________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
placed as near the crankpin axis as possible removed each time the crankshaft is repositioned left in place for all four readings reset to zero for all four readings C Small cracks in the crankshaft bearing surface of a diesel engine are an indication of _____________. corrosion fretting insufficient lubrication abnormal wear fatigue failure D Diesel engine piston ring blow-by is usually caused by excessive ring clearance at the ring ____________. back side gap bottom C Wear is usually greatest at the top of the cylinder bore of a diesel engine due to the ____________. side thrust skirt making the greatest amount of contact highest pressures being exerted tremendous acceleration rate C Failure to remove the carbon ridge from the top of the cylinder when replacing the piston rings, will result in ____________.
675
677 A. B. C. D. Ans: 679 A. B. C. D. Ans: 681 A. B. C. D. Ans: 683
A. damaged upper piston rings and/or ring lands B. scored piston walls C. damaged cylinder liners D. deformed piston skirts Ans: A Water accumulation in the cylinder of a secured engine is an 685 indication that the _____________. A. fresh water pump was not s ecured along with the engine B. jacket water thermostat has failed C. cylinder liner may be cracked D. sea water pump is overspeeding just prior to engine shutdown
687
Ans: C The amount of wear on a split precision main bearing can be accurately determined by comparing the data from a previous reading to the present readings taken with a ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
689 A. B. C. D. Ans: 691 A. B. C.
dial indicating outside caliper telescoping gauge ball anvil outside micrometer screw thread outside micrometer C The amount of wear on a split, fixed sleeve-type, main diesel bearing can be accurately determined with a ________. dial indicating outside caliper spider gauge ball anvil outside micrometer screw thread outside micrometer C Improper cooling of a diesel engine cylinder liner due to the accumulation of scale deposits, may c ause _____________. low compression pressure increased piston wear increased cylinder lube oil c onsumption
674
Ans: C The insertion of shims between the foot of a marine type connecting rod and a bearing box would result in __________.
A. increased compression ratio B. decreased compression ratio C. increased bearing clearance D. decreased bearing clearance Ans: A An acceptable method of measuring for the correct rotational force 676 applied to the connecting rod and main bearing bolts, is to use a _____________.
678
680
682
684
A. torque wrench B. monkey wrench C. pipe wrench D. slugging wrench Ans: A If water is found in the crankcase of a diesel engine, the cause may be due to _____________. A. a cracked cylinder head B. a leaky cylinder head gasket C. a cracked cylinder liner D. all of the above Ans: D Diesel engine "blow-by" into the crankcase is caused by excessive ring ____________. A. back clearance B. side clearance C. gap clearance D. taper clearance Ans: C Which of the following operations will have a direct impact on the rate of wear in a cylinder liner ____________. A. amount of scavenge air to the cylinder B. quality of fuel injected C. viscosity of the lube oil D. compression ratio of the piston Ans: B Scuffed cylinder liner wearing surfaces in a diesel engine can result from _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
686 A. B. C. D.
688
starting the engine while hot knurling the piston skirt operating the engine overheated scuff resistant piston rings C The formation of carbon monoxide in diesel exhaust gases is reduced by ____________. spraying water into the exhaust pipe keeping the exhaust system free of carbon deposits maintaining proper combustion and scavenging avoiding light load operation
Ans: C On a diesel engine equipped with individual jerk type fuel pumps, adjustments should be made to the tappets (push rods) of the pumps to ____________.
A. equalize effective delivery strokes B. regulate combustion pressures C. regulate exhaust temperatures D. change from light to heavy fuel Ans: A Friction, engine wear, and oil consumption in a diesel engine are 690 directly related to the ____________. A. acidity of the oil B. pour point of the oil C. fclearance point of the oil D. viscosity of the oil Ans: D The nuts of main bearings, connecting rod bolts and all other 692 moving parts are to be secured by ________. A. hardened steel nut locks B. cotter pins made of spring steel C. split pins or other effective means
Page 43
D. poor contact between compression rings and liner Ans: B The easiest way to locate a defective diesel engine exhaust valves is by _____________. A. taking compression readings B. inspecting the valves visually C. comparing exhaust pyrometer readings D. listening to the engine Ans: C If it becomes necessary to clean the spray holes in a diesel engine 695 fuel injector, you should use a suitable size piano wire and ______________. 693
A. B. C. D. Ans: 697
gasoline carbon solvent degreasing compound strong detergent B An acceptable means of tightening connecting rod and mainbearing cap bolts is to measure the ___________. I. torque applied to each nut and bolt assembly II. stretch of each nut before and after tightening
A. I only B. II only C. both I and II D. neither I nor II Ans: A Problems with the diesel engine fuel injection pump are usually 699 caused by _____________. A. improper adjustment B. contaminated fuel C. kinked fuel lines D. excessive engine vibration Ans: B When a diesel engine is operated with a piston ring having a cold 701 gap clearance less than that recommended by the manufacturer, the ring will ____________.
D. hydraulic nuts as commonly found on large low speed engines Ans: C Engine coolant accumulating in the diesel engine lubricating oil can result from a _____________. A. low oil pressure B. high coolant pressure C. leaking fuel injector D. cracked cylinder head or liner Ans: D While overhauling a jerk-type fuel pump it is necessary to replace 696 the pump plunger. Which of the parts listed below must also be replaced? 694
A. B. C. D. Ans:
Delivery check valve Pump barrel Tubing to the injector Cam follower B In a diesel engine, when refitting piston rings youshould__________. I. check the ring gap at the smallest diameter of the cylinder II. remove carbon from the ring groove
A. B. C. D. Ans:
I only II only both I and II neither I nor II C Dirt lodged on the nozzle valve seat of a fuel injection nozzle will cause _____________. erosion and cratering of the nozzle orifices fuel leakage into the nozzle drain line fuel leakage before and after injection insufficient fuel delivery through that nozzle C Due to excessive water in the fuel, a diesel engine fails to s tart. Before the engine can be started, the water must be removed from the ____________.
698
700 A. B. C. D. Ans: 702
A. seize and buckle B. seat in more slowly C. slap in the groove D. stick in the groove Ans: A Failure to remove the carbon ridge at the top of the cylinder when 703 removing a piston may result in ___________. A. damaged upper piston rings and/or ring lands B. scored piston walls C. damaged cylinder liners D. deformed piston skirts Ans: A When inspecting piston rings through the ports of a two705 stroke/cycle diesel engine, black areas on the sealing surfaces are the result of ______________.
fuel pumps cylinders fuel strainers all of the above D If the piston ring gap remains insufficient when installing new rings, 704 you should ___________. A. install oversized rings B. hone the cylinder liner to allow ring installation C. compress the rings tighter with a c ompressing tool D. file the ends of the rings Ans: D An examination of the piston compression rings of an efficiently 706 operating diesel engine, should appear with a ___________.
insufficient lubrication improper piston cooling blow-by overload operation C Excessive side clearance between a piston ring and its groove will 707 cause the ring to ______________. A. expand excessively under operating temperatures B. scuff the cylinder liner excessively C. hammer the piston land above the ring D. hammer the piston land below the ring Ans: D One method of determining crankshaft misalignment is by 709 ______________. A. laying a straight edge across the crank webs at the crankpin and measuring the distance to the crankpin in two places B. measuring the crank drop on either side of each crank throw while the crankshaft is slowly rotated through one revolution
A. shiny face and bottom, black back and top B. shiny face, black top, back and bottom C. shiny face, bottom, back and top D. black face, bottom, back and top Ans: A In certain cases, a cylinder liner can be refinished rather than 708 replaced. When properly honed, the _____________. A. cylinder should be cleaned with kerosene B. cylinder liner should have a glazed appearance C. liner surface should have a crosshatch pattern D. counterbore is slick and smooth Ans: C Which of the following statements concerning cylinder liner wear in 710 a single acting diesel engine is correct? A. Uniformly excessive liner wear will not cause wear on the piston rings and grooves. B. Liner wear is distributed equally between upper and lower portions of the cylinder.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
C. rotating the crankshaft through one revolution, pausing each 90° of rotation to measure bearing clearances, top and bottom
C. Excessive liner wear causes wear between piston rings and grooves.
D. taking micrometer readings between the crank webs opposite the crankpin every 90° of crank angle rotation
D. Liner wear is normally greatest in the middle of the cylinder.
Page 44
711
Ans: D On a large low-speed main propulsion diesel engine, lower main bearing wear is usually measured by using a/an ______.
712
Ans: C The rate of wear on a cylinder liner depends on the _____________.
dial indicator outside caliper bridge gauge tram rod C Abnormal crankpin bearing and piston skirt surface wear indicate 713 _____________. A. a restricted air intake B. a clogged connecting rod oil passage C. incorrect connecting rod alignment D. high cylinder firing temperatures Ans: C The ring lands on a large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine 715 piston may crack due to _____________. A. insufficient cylinder liner wear B. contaminated lubricating oil C. high main lubricating oil system temperature D. insufficient ring groove clearance Ans: D If the compression rings on a diesel engine piston become stuck in 717 the ring groove, the cause may be due to ______________.
quality of air filtration effectiveness of lubrication type of fuel used all of the above D To determine the main bearing clearances in a dieselengine, you 714 should use _____________. A. a depth micrometer B. an anvil faced micrometer C. plasti-gauge D. a vernier caliper Ans: C Incomplete combustion in a running diesel engine can cause piston 716 rings to become stuck as a result of _____________. A. residual carbon deposits B. lube oil viscosity breakdown C. uneven heat expansion of the rings D. uneven heat expansion of the piston Ans: A A condition contributing to diesel engine piston rings sticking in the 718 ring grooves, is insufficient ring clearance at the ring ____________.
excessive ring action excessive ring temperature improper ring rotation excessive ring face wear B Low compression in a diesel engine could be caused by 719 ________________. A. worn or broken cylinder liner sealing rings B. high cooling water temperature C. worn or broken piston rings D. low fuel oil pressure Ans: C Low compression pressure in a diesel engine can be caused by 721 _____________.
gap side back radial B Low compression pressure in a diesel engine is caused by 720 ___________. A. low water in the expansion tank B. improperly seated valves C. low fuel oil pressure D. worn or broken cylinder liner sealing rings Ans: B Which of the listed problems can be a cause of low compression 722 pressure in a diesel engine?
A. improperly seating intake valves B. leaking cylinder liner seal rings C. late fuel injection timing D. carbon deposits on the piston Ans: A Low compression pressure in a diesel engine may be the result of 723 ______________. A. insufficient fuel supply due to fuel pump v alves sticking or leaking
A. Clogged air filter B. Leaky valve cage C. Burned exhaust valves D. All of the above Ans: D When a nozzle tester is used to check the spray pattern of an 724 injection nozzle, _____________. A. the nozzle should operate within plus or minus 500 pounds of the specified opening pressure B. the nozzle should not make any noise when pressure is applied
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
B. excessive mechanical clearance between the piston c rown and cylinder head C. excessively worn fuel pump plunger D. excessive exhaust back pressure
725
Ans: B When a piston is removed from a diesel engine for maintenance, the piston should be examined for ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
727
scoring cracks and burned spots gummy deposits and sticking rings all of the above D After removing an old set of rings, which of the following conditions is indicated if a bright spot is found on each end of a broken piston ring?
Improper lubrication Excessive diametrical tension Insufficient ring pressure Insufficient gap clearance D Bearing "crush" as applied to diesel engine main bearings, will result in _____________. A. positive seating of the bearings in their housings B. above normal operating temperatures C. damage to the journals
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
C. the valve should pop at 1/2 the actual set pressure D. the oil spray could cause blood poisoning if the spray penetrates the skin of the operator Ans: D To reduce load during jacking operations, which of the listed 726 devices should be opened? A. B. C. D. Ans: 728
A. B. C. D. Ans: 729
the action of a spring rotation of the starting cam the higher rotating speed of the flywheel Clean the interior to remove oil and foreign matter. C Crank web deflection readings will give a positive indication of ____________. A. worn main bearing journals B. torsional stress deformation C. slack thrust bearings
A. B. C. D. Ans: 730
Fuel line Expansion tank Cylinder test valves Sea valve C After an engine has been started using a Bendix drive unit, the drive gear, or pinion disengages from the flywheel due to ______________.
Page 45
D. damage to the bearings Ans: A When accumulated carbon at the air inlet ports of a two731 stroke/cycle diesel engine is being removed, you should take care to avoid carbon _____________.
D. bearing shells shim dimensions Ans: A The replacement piping for diesel engine high pressure fuel 732 systems must be the same length and diameter as the original piping to _____________.
A. entering the cylinder B. particles becoming lodged under the intake valves C. entering the water jacket D. particles entering lube oil Ans: A A burned exhaust valve may be detected by a higher than normal 733 ____________. A. firing pressure B. exhaust temperature from a particular cylinder C. cooling water temperature D. compression pressure Ans: B The most severe cavitation erosion occurring on the waterside of 735 diesel engine wet cylinder liners normally occurs ____________.
avoid unnecessary parts inventory keep torsional vibration constant use existing supports and braces lube oil system D In a diesel engine, a leaking exhaust valve can cause 734 _____________. A. misfiring B. preignition C. interrupted scavenging D. reduced scavenging Ans: A Exhaust valve grooving and corrosion is caused by certain 736 components of residual fuel oil. These components are sodium, sulphur, and _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
throughout the lower one-half of the liner throughout the upper one-half of the liner at TDC opposite the thrust side of the liner near the middle of the thrust side of the liner D Which of the listed cylinder liner surface conditions indicates proper lubrication?
A. B. C. D. Ans:
Dull black appearance. Bright appearance. Thin layer of lacquer. thick oil film B To minimize the formation of carbon deposits on fuel injection nozzles, you should _____________. avoid using liquid-cooled nozzles whenever possible avoid low cooling water temperatures avoid prolonged overloading of the engine make certain the gasket seal between the nozzle and cylinder head is tight C You are inspecting the lower main precision bearings on a diesel engine. You observe that about half the thin babbitt linings are of a milky white color. This condition is caused by _____________.
737
739 A. B. C. D. Ans: 741
A. B. C. D. Ans: 743 A. B. C. D. Ans: 745
A. B. C. D. Ans: 747
large dirt particles in the oil supply insufficient lubricating oil and ov erheating normal wear water contamination of the lube oil D Because of the close tolerances used in diesel engine fuel oil pumps, a worn plunger requires _____________. grinding the spare plunger to the barrel replacing the plunger and the barrel highly polishing both the plunger and barrel replacing plunger only B When inspecting pistons, liners, and rings of a large twostroke/cycle diesel engine through the cylinder ports, a wet piston crown would indicate a ____________. faulty piston lubricator leaky fuel injector broken compression ring faulty oil ring B If the plunger or barrel of a fuel injection jerk pump becomes damaged, _____________.
only the replacement of the entire pump would be acceptable the injection pump and injection nozzle must be replaced either the barrel or plunger must be replaced the barrel and plunger must be replaced as a unit D The side clearance of the compression rings on diesel engine pistons is necessary to _____________. A. permit gas pressure behind and on top of the rings B. prevent carbon accumulation behind the rings
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. vanadium B. carbon C. copper D. ash Ans: A A well-lubricated bearing surface always appears __________. 738 A. B. C. D. Ans: 740 A. B. C. D.
742
Ans: D You are testing a non-popping closed fuel injection nozzle using a nozzle tester. A pressure slightly less than design valve opening pressure is applied. If no fuel appears at the spray tip, the _______________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
744
nozzle orifices are too small nozzle orifices are eroded needle valve is defective needle valve is seating properly D Which of the fuel nozzles listed requires the LEAST maintenance?
A. Pintle B. Single hole C. Multi-hole D. open Ans: A Which of the listed devices could be used as a substitute for a ring 746 grooving tool used to remove hard carbon deposits from piston ring grooves in preparation for installing new rings? A. Steel brush B. Fine emery cloth or steel wool C. A section of the removed compression ring D. A case hardened scraper Ans: C Surface irregularities, such as erosion and pitting on injection pump 748 plungers, will _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 749
well knurled slightly streaked lightly glazed highly polished D The principal hazard to personnel when a diesel nozzle tester is in use is _____________. electrical shock toxic fumes explosion blood poisoning
increase ignition delay affect fuel oil metering affect engine performance at low speed only disappear due to fuel oil abrasion B If lost motion is present in an individual fuel injection pump, which of the following problems will occur? A. Fuel injection will be increased. B. Fuel injection will remain unchanged.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 750
Page 46
C. allow for lube oil drainage behind the rings D. prevent combustion gases burning the ring grooves Ans: A In a large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine, if the injectors 751 have formed carbon around the nozzle holes, which of the following would help avoid further buildup? A. B. C. D. Ans: 753
A. B. C. D. Ans: 755
Increase fuel injection pressure. Increase fuel preheat temperature. Decrease load limit on the gov ernor. Increase injector cooling water temperature. D In a diesel engine, when installing new piston rings it isimportant to check _____________. I. ring gap clearance II. side clearance I only II only both I and II neither I nor II C When accumulated carbon at the air inlet ports of a twostroke/cycle diesel engine is being removed, you should take care to avoid carbon particles _____________.
entering the lube oil entering the cylinder entering the water jacket become lodged under the intake valves B A defective injector nozzle in a propulsion diesel engine can cause 757 _____________. A. engine power losses B. smoking due to unburned fuel C. high exhaust temperature readings D. all of the above Ans: D When turning a new cylinder head stud on a lathe, the minimum 759 effective thread length of the stud is determined primarily by the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 761
stud length stud diameter head nut diameter stud material B In a large low-speed diesel engine excessive piston clearance can be restored by ____________.
C. Fuel injection will occur earlier. D. Fuel injection will occur later. Ans: D A condition contributing to diesel engine piston rings sticking in the 752 ring grooves, is insufficient ring clearance at the ring ____________. I. gap II. side A. B. C. D. Ans:
I only II only both I and II neither I nor II B The purpose of an interference angle in a diesel engine exhaust valve is to ________. I. work in conjunction with valve rotators to rotate the valve II. break up seat deposits
A. B. C. D. Ans:
I only II only both I and II neither I nor II B You are installing new piston rings on a single acting diesel engine piston. To check the ring gap clearance, the rings should be placed at the ____________.
754
756
A. point of minimum cylinder wear B. center of the cylinder C. point of maximum cylinder wear D. point of maximum ring wear Ans: A Which of the following problems is the main source of fuel pump 758 and injection system malfunctions? A. Air in the fuel system B. Improper adjustments C. Coated fuel lines D. Excessive vibration Ans: B If you determine that entrained air in the fuel oil system is causing a 760 diesel engine to stall, you should first check for _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 762
fuel leakage in the injector pump's discharge lines worn gaskets in the transfer pump discharge lines partially clogged fuel oil discharge strainers loose fittings in the booster fuel pump s uction piping D Which of the following procedures should be carried out to permit the use of a crosshead engine with an inoperable aftercooler?
A. decreasing the thickness of the cylinder head gasket B. inserting shims between the crankpin bearing box and the connecting rod foot C. replacing the complete bearing set D. rotating the crankpin bearing until the proper end clearance is obtained Ans: B A faulty injector in one cylinder of an operating diesel engine can be 763 located by ____________. A. cutting out individual injectors and noting engine performance
A. Bypass the aftercooler to operate at sea speed. B. Run at reduced speed until the cooler can be repaired or renewed. C. Switch to diesel fuel and run at reduced speed. D. Nothing needs to be done due to the low heating value of heavy fuel Ans: B Which of the following conditions would cause carbon deposits to 764 form in the piston ring belt of a diesel engine? A. Faulty combustion
B. checking lube oil temperature C. checking cam position D. using a timing light Ans: A A change in the quality of fuel atomization by a diesel engine fuel 765 injector would be caused by a/an ______________. A. increase in engine speed B. increase in cylinder turbulence C. leaking needle valve D. reduction in cylinder turbulance Ans: C A change in the degree of fuel atomization in a diesel engine 767 greatly affects the _______________. A. air turbulence B. fuel penetration C. fuel spray tip angle D. fuel injection rate Ans: B Black areas on the sealing surfaces of piston rings indicate 769 _____________.
B. Excessive ring temperature C. Over lubrication D. All of the above Ans: D When installing rings on a diesel engine piston, you should check 766 the ring _____________. A. diametrical tension B. gap clearance C. radial thickness D. face thickness Ans: B Which of the following problems may occ ur if the clearance 768 between a piston and cylinder liner is insufficient? A. Excessive wear B. Scuffing of the liner C. Piston seizure D. All of the above Ans: D A bright shiny appearance of the sealing surfaces on diesel engine 770 compression rings indicates _____________.
Page 47
A. B. C. D. Ans: 771
lube oil pumping rotating rings gas pressure behind the ring passage of hot gases D The best tool to use for removing the carbon ridge at the top of an engine cylinder, prior to removing the piston, is to use ____________.
an electric grinder a metal scraper a reamer a three wing hone B Which of the following conditions can result in the cracking of the piston lands? A. High lubricating oil temperature B. Dirty lubricating oil C. Minimal cylinder liner wear D. Insufficient ring groove clearance Ans: D If the back clearance of a piston ring is excessive, _____________. A. compression pressure in the cylinder will be higher B. carbon will accumulate behind the ring C. combustion gases will penetrate beneath the ring land D. piston side thrust will be increased Ans: B A properly honed diesel engine cylinder liner will ________. A. prevent piston ring wear B. shorten the ring break-in period C. prevent cylinder liner glazing D. appear slick and glazed Ans: B Which of the following operating conditions can occur when shims are removed from the joint between the foot of a marine type diesel engine connecting rod and the bearing box?
A. B. C. D. Ans: 772
A. B. C. D. Ans: 773
775
777
779
A. B. C. D. Ans: 781
Decreased connecting rod bearing clearance Increased connecting rod bearing clearance Decreased compression ratio Increased compression ratio C Crank lead can be adjusted to change which of the listed operating conditions?
A. Longer combustion events. B. Exhaust events starting before scavenging events. C. Exhaust events lasting longer than scavenging events. D. Higher combustion temperatures Ans: A In a diesel engine, blow-by is generally the result of worn 783 _____________. A. valve guides B. oil control rings C. valve seats D. compression rings Ans: D Scuffed cylinder liner wearing surfaces in a diesel engine can result 785 from _____________. A. chromium plating piston rings B. knurling the piston skirt C. extended maximum power operation D. applying load to a cold diesel engine Ans: D When a diesel engine compression pressure is checked, the 787 indicator is connected to the _____________. A. cylinder exhaust ports B. injection line C. cylinder indicator cock D. banjo oiler line
789
Ans: C Which of the following statements is true regarding the installation of piston rings on two-stroke/cycle, diesel engines as compared to four-stroke/cycle, diesel engines?
774
776
778
780
A. Plasti-gauge B. Depth gauge C. Copper shims D. wooden gaging pegs Ans: A Which of the following problems may occur when using fuel oil with a high sulphur content? A. Injection lag B. Lube oil dilution C. Preignition D. Corrosion Ans: D Which of the following conditions could contribute to the cracking of a diesel engine cylinder head? A. Leaking seal ring B. Insufficient heat transfer from the exhaust valves C. Blocked cooling water passages to the head D. Excessive scavenging air provided to the engine Ans: C A scored diesel engine cylinder liner will cause __________. A. high firing pressure B. abnormally high cooling water temperature C. rapid wearing of piston rings D. combustion gases in the cooling water Ans: C After a long period of operation, a wear ridge, caused by piston ring action, will develop near the top of the cylinder liner. This ridge must be removed when piston rings are renewed in order to prevent ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
excessive wear during the seating period excessive lubrication of the top ring improper spreading of lubrication on the cylinder wall breaking of the top ring, ring land, or both D When a hydraulic valve lifter is on the base c ircle of the cam, "zero" tappet clearance is maintained by the ______________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
valve spring plunger spring oil pressure rocker arm B Which of the listed conditions can cause lacquer to be deposited on a piston skirt? High sulphur content fuel High lube oil temperatures High vanadium content fuel Excessive piston slap B If a diesel engine driving a generator turns over freely but fails to fire properly, the cause could be ____________. excessive compression pressure air in the fuel lines high fuel pressure excessive load B In a diesel engine exhaust system, the cooling of the exhaust gases below their dew point, will result in ____________. increased engine back pressure sulphuric acid corrosion surface pitting of the turbocharger compressor blades moisture impingement on the turbocharger compressor blades
782
784 A. B. C. D. Ans: 786 A. B. C. D. Ans: 788 A. B. C. D.
790
combustion gas blow-by excessive lubrication properly functioning rings insufficient cylinder cooling C Which of the devices is commonly used in measuring the clearances between the main engine bearings and the crankshaft?
Ans: B In a large, low-speed diesel engine the clearance between the piston crown and cylinder head is found to be excessive. In order to correct for this, you should ______________.
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A. In a two-stroke/cycle engine, the rings run hotter, requiring the end gap to be greater. B. Some provision must be made in a two-stroke/cycle engine to keep the rings from binding in the ports. C. No gap is required to exist between the ends of the ring when cold in a two-stroke/cycle engine, but a small gap is required in a fourstroke/cycle engine.
A. build up the piston crown by m etal spraying
D. The end gaps should be staggered on either side of a piston in a two-stroke/cycle engine, while staggering is not necessary in a fourstroke/cycle engine.
D. install a thinner head gasket
B. build up the cylinder head by metal spraying C. insert shims between the crankpin bearing box and the connecting rod foot
Ans: B Ans: C Bouncing of the valve gear in a diesel engine can be caused by _____________. A. prolonged high speed operation B. spring surge C. worn valve seats D. excessively tightened spring retainers Ans: B MOTOR - ST ARTING AND REVERSING SYSTEMS Where engine bores exceed 230 mm, a bursting disc or flame What may be used to protect starting air mains against explosions 792 793 arrester is to be fitted ___________. arising from improperly functioning starting valves? 791
A. at the supply inlet to the control air manifold for non- reversing engines B. on the exhaust manifold prior to the inlet of the turbochargers C. on all devices subject to the by-products of c ombustion or lubrication system vapors D. in way of the starting valve of each cylinder for direct reversing engines having a main starting manifold Ans: D The total air capacity for non-reversible main engines is to be 794 sufficient for _______. A. six consecutive starts B. eight consecutive starts C. ten consecutive starts D. twelve consecutive starts Ans: A A diesel engine is turned at normal cranking speed, but fails to fire. 796 This can occur from _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 798
A. B. C. D. Ans: 800
low lube oil temperature low starting air temperature air in the fuel injection system water in the starting air system C In the starting process of a diesel engine, the main object is to attain the compression conditions sufficient to ______________. turn the flywheel reduce friction overcome inertia ignite the fuel D A six-cylinder, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is fitted with a rotary distributor type air starting system. The speed of the rotating distributor disc is _____________.
A. one-half engine speed B. the same as engine speed C. twice engine speed D. four times engine speed Ans: A The reversing mechanism on a direct reversing large low-speed 802 main propulsion diesel engine, operated by means of oil pressure, can serve to _____________. bring the respective cam under the fuel pump roller rotate or displace the camshaft ac cording to engine design bring the respective cam under the air distributor pilot valves all of the above D Which of the listed diesel engine starting systems is most susceptible to difficulties in cold weather? A. Direct cylinder admission air start B. Hydraulic C. Electric
A. The starting air main shall be protected by the use of a rupture disc. B. No protection is necessary because all starting air valves are designed similar to check valves. C. An isolation non-return valve is to be installed at the starting air supply connection to each engine. D. The materials used in the construction of the starting air mains will contain any explosion. Ans: C Starting a large propulsion diesel engine using diesel fuel during 795 cold weather conditions can be made easier by ______. increasing the quantity of s tarting air increasing the lube oil pressure heating the engine fuel supply heating the engine jacket water D Which of the following methods is used to prevent throttling of compressed air through the diesel engine air starting valves?
A. B. C. D. Ans:
Holding the valve open for a long period Increasing the starting air pressure used Opening the starting air valve quickly Reducing the starting air valve size C Fluid type starting motors used for starting auxiliary diesel engines may either be of the piston type or the _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
gear type vane type impeller type accumulator type B In addition to a main engine driven starting air compressor, another air compressor, driven by a separate power source, is installed to _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
provide air for engine scavenging provide air for engine supercharging supply a backup source of starting air supply the independent source of reversing air C When the quick acting valve to admit starting air to an air start motor is activated, the valve should be opened rapidly to ____________.
797
799
801
803
A. B. C. D. Ans: 804
A. B. C. D. Ans:
prevent damage to the air line lubricator ensure proper operation of the Bendix pinion prevent damage to the valve seat increase the air charge density to the motor B Before any diesel engine hydraulic starting system is opened for servicing or repair, you must _____________. A. place all control levers in the "HOLD" position B. ensure that the hydraulic fluid reservoir is full C. block all hydraulic hoses using high pressure covers
A. B. C. D. Ans: 805
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D. Air motor starting Ans: C The minimum speed an engine must attain before ignition can 806 occur depends upon __________. A. the type and size of the engine B. the condition of the engine C. ambient temperature D. all of the above Ans: D If an auxiliary diesel engine equipped with an electric starting 808 system cranks very s lowly after repeated attempts to start, the cause could be a/an ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 810 A. B. C. D. Ans: 812
low lube oil viscosity low compression pressure ring gear with broken teeth overheated motor winding D Improper seating of an air starting check valve in an operating diesel engine is indicated by _____________. noise coming from the air starting valve an overheated air supply pipe to the cylinder head continuous operation of the starting air compressor zero air pressure in the air starting system B If control air systems are supplied from starting air receivers, the capacity of the receivers should be sufficient _________.
A. to provide for intermittent starting procedures B. for continued operation of these systems after capacity for the required number of consecutive starts has been used C. to provide a nonreversible engine a minimum of twelve consecutive starts D. to enable six consecutive starts of a reversible engine Ans: B Starting aids such as glow plugs, are installed on _____. 814 A. large, direct drive diesel engines B. diesel engines designed to burn residual fuels C. medium-speed, four-stroke/cycle diesel engines D. small diesel engines utilizing electric starting equipment Ans: D An eight cylinder, air started, two-stroke/cycle direct reversing, 816 marine diesel engine can be started from any crankshaft position only if it has ____________.
D. bleed off all hydraulic pressure from the system Ans: D A diesel engine fails to start, even though it can be barred over, but 807 not cranked over. The probable cause is _______. A. a seized piston B. an improperly fitted bearing C. a closed or obstructed air starting line valve D. insufficient compression Ans: C During extremely cold weather, while starting an engine, it turns too 809 slowly and fails to start. This problem is most likely the result of ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 811 A. B. C. D. Ans: 813
A. use of low viscosity oil in cold weather B. higher compression pressures reached due to smaller clearances existing in the engine during cold weather C. increased drag of pistons and bearings due to increased oil viscosity D. increased moisture content of inlet air in cold weather Ans: C A diesel engine may fail to start due to _____________. 815 A. low air charge temperature B. high cranking speed C. excessive fuel dilution of lube oil D. high compression pressure Ans: A On a diesel engine, using a distributer type air startingsystem, that 817 is not running, which of the following methods may be used to detect leaking air starting valves?
A. at least three cylinders equipped with air start valves B. a minimum of five cylinders equipped with air start valves C. each upper cylinder head equipped with reversible air start valves
A. Open the cylinder test cocks and check for blowing air. B. Check the position of the air start valve cams. C. Stop the air compressor and check for pressure drop throughout the system. D. Feel each air supply line to see which is warm from leaking air.
D. the cylinders on opposite ends equipped with air start valves
818
Ans: A If a diesel engine starts firing, but is unable to come up to normal speed, either without load or even under a small load, the cause may be ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
820
insufficient fuel supply faulty governor high exhaust back pressure all of the above may cause this problem D While underway, which of the following would be the FIRST step in reversing a direct rev ersing large, low-speed, main propulsion, diesel engine?
Manually trip the overspeed device. Interrupt the fuel flow to the engine. Disengage the safety interlock. Slide the camshaft to the neutral position. B When starting a diesel engine at temperatures below 20°C, the 822 frictional resistance to turning will be _____________. A. reduced by increasing lube oil pressure B. controlled by reducing the compression ratio C. proportional to the lube oil viscosity D. eliminated by heating the intake air Ans: C Air motors used for starting some auxiliary diesel engines are 824 generally the type known as a/an ____________. A. vane motors
high fuel oil viscosity low fuel oil temperature high lube oil viscosity energized glow plugs C Vessels having main engines arranged for air starting are to be provided with at least _________. one automatic drain serving both c ontainers two air starting containers of approximately equal size one control air container and one starting air container one additional means of starting the main engine B Cold weather starting of a diesel engine is more difficult than warm weather starting due to _____________.
819
Ans: A After changing out the fuel filters the diesel engine fails to restart. The most probable cause for this condition is a/an ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
low compression air-bound fuel system improper spark change in viscosity B A ship is propelled by a direct reversing large, slow-speed, diesel engine. One step in reversing the direction of propeller rotation for this vessel is by ______________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
properly inflating the air operated clutch reversing the reduction gears changing the gear ratio reversing the servomotor D The starting air supply for a diesel engine is generally produced by a/an _____________. exhaust powered turbocharger Roots-type blower air pump centrifugal air compressor multistage reciprocating air compressor D Intercoolers installed on starting air compressors, reduce the possibility of ________________. dust entering the high pressure stage
821
A. B. C. D. Ans:
823 A. B. C. D. Ans: 825 A.
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B. plunger motors C. gear motors D. accumulator motors Ans: A Starting air valves are held firmly on their seats by ____________. 826 A. B. C. D. Ans:
cam rollers on the camshaft spring force air pressure on top of the valve differential piston air pressure on the bottom of the valve differential piston B Diesel engine air start system check valves are opened by _____________.
lube oil carbonization discharge pulsations interstage vapor lock B Starting systems for large, low-speed, direct reversing, main 827 propulsion diesel engines are usually _____________. A. hydraulic starting motor B. electric starting motor C. direct air admission D. vane type air motors Ans: C In a hydraulic starting system, oil to the starting motor flows from the 829 _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
an air start cam cylinder compression pressure starting air pressure valve springs C When an air started, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is being cranked, the starting air is admitted to each cylinder during what would normally be the _____________.
A. accumulator B. reservoir C. hand pump D. electric pump Ans: A If a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is started by injecting air into the 831 cylinders, the pistons receiving the charge of starting air must be _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
intake stroke compression stroke power stroke exhaust stroke C An auxiliary diesel engine may fail to start due to _____________.
A. on the power stroke B. on the exhaust stroke C. at the end of the power stroke D. at the start of the intake stroke Ans: A If a diesel engine rotates slowly when cranked, but does not fire, the 833 ___________________. A. fuel control rack had admitted excessive fuel B. engine speed does not match the fuel rack setting C. engine has failed to reach its firing speed D. starter pinion and ring gear contact is not correct Ans: C Which of the following problems can oc cur if you continually fail to 835 drain off condensate from a starting air receiver? A. Corrosion and eventual failure of the tank. B. Gumming of the tank relief valves. C. Immediate failure of components downstream of the compressed air system. D. Boiling of the water oil mixture as pressure is reduced. Ans: A A four-stroke/cycle, 1000 horsepower diesel engine fails to start at 837 normal cranking speed with normal fuel pressure and ambient temperature. The reason for the failure could be _______________.
828
830
832
low exhaust back pressure high lube oil temperature insufficient cranking speed excessive fuel atomization C Which of the routine maintenance procedures listed is required for starting air receivers? A. Frequent draining of accumulated m oisture. B. Frequent testing of relief valves. C. A close watch on temperature to prevent fluctuations in pressure.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 834
D. Frequent cleaning to remove oil and foreign matter. Ans: A When attempting to start a main propulsion diesel engine, the 836 engine turns at the proper s peed but will not start. You should check the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 838
starting air pressure scavenge air pressure overspeed trip banjo oiler line C Which of the listed items should be secured before performing any maintenance on a solenoid operated air start valve?
A. Electric power B. Lube oil standby pump C. Hydraulic switch D. Motor drain Ans: A A pilot-operated, main air starting valve begins leaking in one 840 cylinder while the engine is operating. This malfunction is indicated by ____________. A. an increase in the exhaust temperature reading for that cylinder B. an increase in the starting air manifold pressure C. high exhaust pressure D. an overheated air supply line to that cylinder Ans: D If a diesel engine fails to s tart, one of the likely causes is 842 _____________. A. low compression temperature B. low ambient air pressure C. high lube oil pump pressure D. high fuel oil booster pump pressure Ans: A
B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
glazed liners or pistons high lube oil pressure excessive compression ratio worn valve seats and valves D When starting air is admitted, a diesel engine turns over very slowly without firing. The cause may be ______________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
an obstruction in an engine cylinder water accumulation in some engine cylinders low starting air pressure low scavenge air pressure C Hydraulic starters are installed on many lifeboat diesel engines instead of comparable air start systems, because ____________.
839
841
A. hydraulic starters are the least expensive of all starting systems B. the system does not require high pressure piping C. hydraulic systems turn diesel engines at higher rates of speed than air starters D. the system can be manually recharged Ans: D A diesel engine may fail to start when being cranked, due to 843 _____________. A. high cetane number B. insufficient compression C. low lube oil viscosity D. high lube oil pressure Ans: B
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If a hydraulic starting motor turns, but the diesel engine does not, the most likely cause is ____________. A. excessive viscosity in the hydraulic fluid B. a malfunctioning overrunning clutch C. loss of accumulator precharge D. air in the hydraulic system Ans: B A diesel engine electric starting motor is operated under a no-load 846 condition. Continuing to operate the motor unloaded will _______________. 844
A. B. C. D. Ans: 848
disengage the throw out bearing overspeed and cause serious damage fail to develop normal speed cause the pinion to fail B During maneuvering operations for a direct reversing large, lowspeed, main propulsion diesel engine, which of the following actions is used to stop the shaft from turning prior to reversing the engine rotation?
A. Flywheel inertia B. Admission of starting air C. The way of the vessel D. securing of fuel to the cylinders Ans: B A two-stroke/cycle diesel engine requires less starting air than a 850 four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, of equal displacement, because the two-stroke/cycle diesel engine _____________. A. B. C. D.
Ans: D The timing of diesel engine air starting valves is controlled by _____________. A. the air start valve timing gears and rods B. a cylinder check valve C. individual cams and valve gear D. an air manifold poppet valve Ans: C An accumulator used in a hydraulic starting system is generally 854 located between the _____________. A. pump and the compressor B. storage tank and the pump C. starting motor and the reserve tank D. pump and the starting motor Ans: D The pinion of an electric starting motor used with a diesel engine 856 engages the flywheel ring gear by a/an ____________.
858
A. B. C. D. Ans: 860
automatic follow-up muff coupling and release friction-type clutch bendrix drive or similar mechanism D In a starting motor equipped with a Bendix drive, the pinion moves and meshes with the flywheel ring gear due to __________. the mechanical linkage the threaded sleeve's rotation centrifugal force electromotive force B In a medium-speed marine propulsion engine equipped with direct air starting valves, the cylinders without air starting valves fire first because the ____________.
A. operation is under higher compression B. fuel is admitted only to these c ylinders during cranking C. compression is released during starting by opening the exhaust valve D. cylinders are not chilled by the expansion of the starting air Ans: D If cranking a diesel engine is too slow while attempting to start, it will 862 result in _____________. A. insufficient heat of compression
A. B. C. D. Ans:
The engine will stall. The starter motor will have reverse current. The engine flywheel will be burred. the starter motor will overspeed D The pilot valves in an air pilot starting system for a two-stroke/cycle, direct-reversing, main propulsion diesel engine are operated by either a ported distributor disc or a/an _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
regulator valve quick opening main air valve pilot air start check valve individual cam for each pilot valve D Which of the listed types of starting systems is often used on large, low-speed, direct reversing, main propulsion diesel engines?
849
851
has little or no internal friction has a lower effective compression ratio operates with scavenge air under a positive pressure operates without energy absorbing intake and exhaust strokes
852
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A bendix drive starting motor disengages the drive gear from the flywheel by ______________. A. spring force B. rotating of the starting cam C. the high rotating speed of the flywheel D. applying accumulator pressure Ans: C If the diesel engine starter-drive mechanism fails to disengage after 847 the engine starts, which of the following situations will occur? 845
A. Electric B. Hydraulic C. Air D. all of the above
853
Ans: C Which of the types of motors listed is used in a hydraulic starter?
A. Piston B. Gear C. Turbine D. centrifugal Ans: A The device used to store a charged pressure for an hydraulic 855 starting system is called the _____________. A. reservoir B. hand pump C. accelerator D. accumulator Ans: D Auxiliary diesel engine electric starting motors use ____________. 857
A. B. C. D. Ans:
alternating current 400 cycle per second motor-generators low amp, high voltage AC direct current D A large two-stroke/cycle direct reversing diesel engine is to be reversed. Prior to the admission of starting air you must ____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
line up the engine for restarting with light diesel oil reposition the fuel injection cam change the intake and exhaust valve cam positions place the starting cam in the intermediate position B Two air compressors are provided for the starting air system and should be capable of ______.
859
861
A. charging the starting air containers within one hour B. providing the minimum quantity of starting air at all times C. supplying all the air necessary to start both the main engine and an auxiliary at the same time D. topping of all receivers at the required design pressures Ans: A In an operating diesel engine, which of the following conditions is 863 an indication of a leaking air starting valv e? A. Noise coming from that air starting valve.
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B. fouling of the air intakes C. improper injection timing D. high exhaust temperatures Ans: A Each receiver in a starting air system which can be isolated from a 864 relief valve _______________. A. is to be provided with a suitable fusible plug to relieve the pressure in case of fire B. will incorporate the use of an automatic unloading device
B. C. D. Ans: 865
A. cylindrical in shape with service connections located at the top and bottom B. opened and made av ailable for inspection during biannual inspections C. provided with automatic drain traps for the removal of moisture
C. will not be approved for classification purposes D. and satisfy classification regulations shall be approved
866
Ans: A A diesel engine may be hard to start if the _____________.
Continuous operation of the starting air compressor. Zero air pressure in the air starting system. Overheated starting air pipe to the cylinder head. D Air receivers installed in starting air systems are to be ________.
D. so installed as to make the drain connections effective under extreme conditions of trim Ans: D The total starting air capacity required for reversible main engines is 867 to be sufficient for a least __________. A. six consecutive starts B. eight consecutive starts C. ten consecutive starts D. twelve consecutive starts Ans: D
A. air intake is restricted B. engine is cranked too fast C. vibration dampener is faulty D. exhaust back pressure is low Ans: A What preventative maintenance should be done frequently to diesel 868 engine starting air receivers? A. Drain the accumulated moisture. B. Test the relief valves. C. Watch the temperature to prevent fluctuations in pressure. D. Clean the interior to remove oil and foreign matter. Ans: A LUBRICATING SYSTEMS Heat exchangers are most commonly found in a sm all auxiliary One advantage of vacuum feed type cylinder lubricators over the 869 870 diesel engine ____________. liquid sight glass type is ______________. A. fuel oil system A. there are fewer moving parts B. governing system B. adjustment is not required C. air starting system C. better metering accuracy D. lube oil system D. a lower grade of oil may be used Ans: D Ans: C Which of the following devices controls the discharge flow rate of an Mechanical lubricators for diesel engine cylinders are usually small 871 872 attached, positive displacement, rotary gear, diesel engine, lube oil reciprocating pumps which are _____________. pump? A. A pressure regulating valve B. A pressure relief valve C. The engine speed D. An orifice Ans: C Which of the following statements is true concerning an oil cooler? 873
875
A. The oil temperature is less than the cooling water temperature.
operated manually once each hour operated until the engine has started placed into operation only at maximum load adjustable to meet lubrication requirements D Lubrication for the main reduction gears used with diesel engines is usually supplied by _____________. A. oil from the main engine sump
B. The oil pressure is less than the cooling water pressure. C. The oil pressure is greater than the cooling water pressure. D. The oil flow control valve is always installed in the oil input line
B. an independent lube oil system C. the stern bearing head tank D. the stern bearing sump tank
Ans: C Which of the following devices is normally provided to prevent oil starvation in a diesel engine lubrication system utilizing the "full flow" principle? A. B. C. D. Ans:
877
Duplex strainer Three-way valve Pressure relief bypass line around the filter Mechanical straining filter C Many lube oil filters have pressure gauges installed on both the inlet and outlet in order to indicate the pressure drop across the filter. In normal operation, the pressure drop will _____________.
A. slowly increase B. slowly decrease C. remain the same D. have no effect on filter operation Ans: A Lube oil cannot be efficiently filtered if its ____________. 879 A. viscosity is too low B. temperature is too low C. pump discharge pressure is higher than the system's pressure
A. B. C. D. Ans: 874
876
Ans: B A large, low-speed, crosshead, main propulsion diesel engine using residual fuel oils must have a cylinder oil having a ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
878
the same, whether at sea, or during maneuvering adjusted during each hour of operation while at constant RPM higher at sea than while maneuvering lower at sea than while maneuvering C A dirty lube oil strainer can result in _____________. A. crankcase dilution B. low lube oil temperature C. excessive oil consumption
A. B. C. D. Ans: 880
low TBN value high alkaline reserve low fclearance point high pour point B The rate of cylinder lubricating oil metered to each cylinder of a large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine is ______________.
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881
883
885
887
889
D. pump capacity is greater than the system's needs Ans: B Lube oil filters remove contaminants more efficiently if the oil being filtered is _____________. A. under high pressure B. under low pressure C. heated to reduce viscosity D. cooled to increase viscosity Ans: C Lube oil in the fresh water cooling system of a diesel engine may result from a _____________. A. camshaft seizure B. lube oil pump failure C. lube oil cooler failure D. lube oil sump overflow Ans: C Which harmful consequence may be the result of lube oil sludge accumulation? A. Clogged oil pump suction screens. B. Increased oil operating temperatures. C. Sticking piston rings. D. All of the above Ans: D A dirty fuel oil filter is can be detected by ________. I. fuel oil analysis II. observing the pressure drop across the filter A. I only B. II only C. either I or II D. neither I nor II Ans: B Two important considerations for the proper lubrication ofa diesel engine include, the delivery of the oil insufficient amount, and the ____________. cetane number pour point viscosity temperature quality of the oil D Lubricating systems for diesel engines are usually designed to initially provide lube oil to the engine _____________. A. camshaft bearings B. main bearings C. piston crowns D. cylinder walls Ans: B A spring-loaded relief valve is located on some lube oil filters in full flow systems to _____________. A. prevent overpressurization of the filter cartridge B. prevent overpressurization of the filter casing C. bypass the filter should it become clogged D. limit the lube oil outlet pressure Ans: C Lubricating oil used in a diesel engine serv es to _________. A. reduce the wear of bearing surfaces B. cool the bearing surfaces C. assist in sealing bearing surfaces D. all of the above Ans: D In a diesel engine, the function of lubrication oil is to provide _____________. A. a film between the shafts and bearings B. cooling of the pistons and bearings C. for removal of dirt or metal particles resulting from wear D. all of the above Ans: D When fuel enters the crankcase of a diesel engine, it _____________. A. dilutes the lube oil and reduces its viscosity B. forms sulphuric acid in the lube oil C. causes pitting and failure of the bearings D. causes sludge deposits on valve stems Ans: A Maximum lube system operating pressure for a diesel engine is normally regulated by a/an _____________. A. orifice in the pump suction B. special filter design
882
884
886
888
890
A. B. C. D. Ans: 891
893
895
897
899
901
D. low bearing oil pressure Ans: D The pressure differential across a diesel engine lube oil system duplex filter should be checked to _________. A. determine the need for filter changing B. measure any change in oil viscosity C. prevent damage to the filter D. determine the need for batch filtration Ans: A Most large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engines use duplex lube oil strainer to _____________. A. decrease the time required between cleanings B. remove water contamination C. ensure a positive flow of oil at all times D. ensure that all lube oil has been treated twice Ans: C The TBN value of diesel engine lube oil refers to its ability to _____________. A. resist changes in v iscosity with changes in temperature B. resist emulsification C. neutralize acids D. resist oxidation at high temperatures Ans: C Sludge formation in a diesel engine lube oil system is caused by ____________. A. carbonization of oils from the combustion chambers B. emulsions of lube oil and water C. coagulation of unburned fuel below the piston rings D. All of the above. Ans: D The adverse effects of burning high sulphur fuel can be compensated for by using a cylinder oil having sufficient ________________. dispersant additives floc point depressive additives alkalinity ignition quality C The lube oil cooler is located after the lube oil filter in order for _____________. A. the filter to operate m ore efficiently B. the lube oil cooler to be bypassed C. positive lube oil pump suction to be assured D. galvanic action in the cooler to be minimized Ans: A Lube oil filters remove contaminants from oil more efficiently if the oil being filtered is _____________. A. heated to reduce viscosity B. cooled to increase viscosity C. pumped rapidly through the filter D. pumped through the filter under high pressure Ans: A A diesel engine should use which type of lubricating oil? A. Nondetergent oil B. Cutting oil C. High grade vegetable oil D. Detergent oil Ans: D A diesel engine exposed to widely varying ambient temperatures should use a lubricating oil with ____________. A. a high viscosity index B. a low viscosity index C. extreme pressure additives D. no additives Ans: A The thickness of the oil film to be developed in a diesel engine main bearing, depends upon the _____________. A. bearing pressure B. viscosity of the oil C. rpm of the shaft D. all of the above Ans: D For a continuous operation diesel engine, a duplex filter unit would be the best arrangement because _____________. A. changing filter elements would not interrupt engine operation B. filtering occurs twice in each pass of oil through the system A. B. C. D. Ans:
892
894
896
898
900
902
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C. pressure drop through the filter D. relief valve Ans: D The highest indicated lube oil pressure in a diesel engine should be expected when the engine oil is ________. A. cold at idle B. warm at idle C. warm at full speed D. warm at full speed and no fuel dilution exists Ans: A With respect to the flow of lubricating oil through a diesel engine, 905 the lube oil coolers are located after filters in order to _____________. 903
A. allow filtration of less v iscous oil B. decrease the pressure drop across the filter C. improve ov erall filtration D. All of the above Ans: D Which of the following characteristics of lube oil helps to reduce the 907 amount of deposits in the piston ring belt during the combustion process in a diesel engine? A. B. C. D. Ans: 909
Low viscosity index Low carbon forming tendencies High film strength High noncorrosive qualities B Motor vessels usually have independent lube oil systems for main engine and main reduction gears because ______________.
C. clogging will not occur D. dropping in pressure is half of that through a single stage filter unit Ans: A In a diesel engine, maximum lube oil system pressure isnormally controlled by _____________. A. the capacity of the lube oil pump B. the speed of the lube oil pump C. the outlet pressure of the lube oil pump D. a relief valve Ans: D Lubricating oil systems for diesel engine journal bearings are 906 usually lubricated by which of the following types of lubricating oil systems? 904
A. B. C. D. Ans:
splash Gravity Pressure bypass C Which lubricating oil additive is used in diesel engines to reduce the tendency for sludge and varnish to form on the engine parts?
A. B. C. D. Ans:
Fclearance point improvers Pour point improvers Inhibitors Foam suppressors C Where may a strainer be located in a diesel engine lubricating oil system?
908
910
A. coolers are not needed for the gear system A. Suction line B. contaminants produced by the engine could harm the reduction B. Discharge line gears C. non-additive oils are used in the main engine system C. Supply line D. different type centrifuges are required for the main engine and D. In any combination of the above reduction gear lube systems Ans: B Ans: D LUBRICATION - MAINTENANCE To routinely clean a metal-edge type lube oil strainer, you should When excessive fuel dilution is noted in the lube oil, the oil s hould 911 912 _____________. be _____________. A. remove the disc element and immerse it in gasoline A. centrifuged B. remove the disc element and immerse it in kerosene B. filtered C. rotate the disc element and drain off the sediment C. strained D. rotate the knife-edge cleaner blades and drain off the sediment D. changed Ans: C If a used lube oil analysis indicates excessive fuel dilution, the lube oil should be _____________. A. changed B. centrifuged C. filtered D. settled Ans: A Which of the contaminants listed would remain in the lube oil after 915 filtering? A. Acid sludge B. Fuel oil C. Sediment D. Water Ans: B Which of the following test points should be considered a 917 determining factor as to whether or not a diesel generator's lube oil should be drained and renewed?
Ans: D A "detergent-type" lube oil, used in a diesel engine, should be replaced when _____________. A. fuel oil dilution is 5% B. it begins to turn black C. the exhaust shows traces of blue smoke D. all of the above Ans: A Most large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engines use duplex 916 lube oil strainer to _____________. A. decrease the time required between cleanings B. remove all large and sm all foreign objects C. ensure a positive flow of oil at all times D. ensure that all lube oil has been treated twice Ans: C In a normally operating diesel engine, the main source of lubricating 918 oil contamination in the crankcase is a result of the ______________.
913
914
A. An extremely low neutralization number. B. An extremely high precipitation number. C. The oil appears black in color. D. A minor increase in fclearance point. Ans: B A magnetic strainer is used in the diesel engine reduction gear oil 919 system to remove small particles of _____________. A. water B. babbitt C. iron or steel D. acids Ans: C
metal particles loosened by wear air when no air cleaners are used condensation of water vapors breakdown of the lubricating oil itself D A dirty diesel engine oil filter element can best be detected by 920 _____________. A. visual inspection of the elements B. the pressure drop across the filter C. high lube oil sump temperature D. decrease in oil viscosity from the filter Ans: B A. B. C. D. Ans:
Page 55
921
923
925
927
929
What could cause the bypass valve in a full-flow lubrication system to open? A. Clogged filter element B. Bypass valve setting is too high C. Check valve stuck open D. Fuel dilution of the lubricant Ans: A To properly clean the disks of a metal-edge type strainer in a diesel engine lube oil system, you should _____________. A. remove the disks and soak them in kerosene B. rotate the T-handle spindle one turn C. wire brush the disks to remove sludge D. blow compressed air through the disks Ans: B When fuel oil has seriously contaminated a diesel engine lubricating oil, you should ____________. A. filter to remove the fuel oil B. use the settler to remove the fuel oil C. remove the fuel oil by centrifuging D. drain and then renew the lube oil s upply Ans: D If the detergent type lubricating oil being used in a diesel engine is black, the oil _____________. A. must be centrifuged B. must be filtered C. must be changed D. is holding finely dispersed carbon in suspension Ans: D Oil oxidation, as a result of excessively high lube oil temperature, is harmful to a diesel engine because _____________. oil foaming will occur large quantities of oil are consumed lube oil viscosity is always decreased corrosive by-products are usually formed D If the analysis of used lube oil indicates a high content of iron particles, this could indicate _____________. A. corrosive deterioration of a bearing B. inadequate air filtration C. excessive ring and liner wear D. excessive cooling of lubricating oil Ans: C One simple laboratory analysis of used lube oil that can be carried out aboard ship is called the _____________. A. paraffin test B. blotter test C. stability test D. spectrographic test Ans: B Which of the listed conditions can be used to determine if lube oil has been diluted by fuel? A. Viscosity is lowered. B. Octane number is altered. C. Pump speed is decreased. D. Blowers' speed is decreased. Ans: A Which of the following faults would allow lube oil to enter the cooling system of a diesel engine?
The pressure differential across a diesel engine lube oil system duplex filter should be checked to _________. A. determine the need for filter cleaning B. measure any change in oil viscosity C. prevent damage to the filter D. determine the need for batch filtration Ans: A A "Blotter test" is performed on the lube oil of a diesel engine to 924 determine the _________. A. percent of fuel dilution of lube oil B. fclearance point C. relative detergency remaining D. TBN number Ans: C How often should the lubricating oil of a diesel engine be changed? 926 922
A. After every trip B. Every 4000 hours C. According to manufacturer's instructions D. Every time they are shutdown Ans: C Which of the following operational conditions will occur to the diesel 928 engine lube oil at extremely high temperatures? A. The oil oxidizes and forms carbon deposits. B. The viscosity increases. C. Engine oil consumption decreases. D. Lubricating qualities of the oil are enhanced. Ans: A Metal particles accumulated from the wearing of components in a 930 diesel engine can result from lube oil that has been contaminated with _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 931
933
935
937
A. B. C. D. Ans: 939
Excessive valve train lubrication Leaking standby oil cooler core Excessive lube oil pressure Excessive lube oil in the system B If the chemical analysis of a lube oil sample taken from adiesel engine indicates an increased neutralization number the _________.
A. acidity has increased B. viscosity has decreased C. demulsibility has improved D. foaming is guaranteed to occur Ans: A Unusually low oil pressure in the lube oil header of a diesel engine 941 is the result of a/an ____________. A. pressure regulating valve being stuck in the closed position
abrasive particles metallic oxides corrosive acids any or all of the above D If a used lube oil analysis indicates an excessive chromate content, this means _____________. A. air filtration is inadequate B. engine coolant is leaking into the lube oil C. fuel oil is leaking into the lube oil D. the piston rings are excessively worn Ans: B A decrease in the fclearance point of the diesel engine lube oil indicates the lube oil is _____________. A. diluted with fuel oil B. diluted with water C. contaminated with carbon D. contaminated with sludge Ans: A A sudden decrease in the diesel engine lube oil viscosity could be an indication of ____________. A. loss of additives from the lube oil B. carbon deposits in the lube oil C. excessive centrifuging D. excessive fuel dilution Ans: D The color of the diesel engine detergent type lube oil in an operating diesel engine is black, this indicates _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
932
934
936
938
A. B. C. D. Ans: 940
oil foaming will always occur large quantities of oil are consumed lube oil viscosity is always decreased corrosive by-products are usually formed D To manually bypass a strainer or filter in a shunt type lube oil filtering system, _____________. A. first, parallel the drain lines
A. B. C. D. Ans: 942
"worn out" oil fuel dilution water dilution normal oil condition D Oil oxidation as a result of excessively high lube oil temperature, is harmful to a diesel engine because _____________.
Page 56
restricted lube oil passage in the engine air leak in the lube oil cooler air leak in the oil pump suction line D In a full flow type lube oil system, the bypass relief valve will lift due 943 to _____________. A. a clogged filter element B. excessive lube oil pump discharge pressure C. excessive lube oil flow D. excessively hot lube oil Ans: A A decrease in flash point of diesel engine lube oil indicates lube oil 945 has become __________ . A. contaminated with sludge B. contaminated with carbon C. diluted with fuel oil D. diluted with water Ans: C Which of the following conditions is indicated when the lubricating 947 oil of a diesel engine turns dark after a few hours of use? B. C. D. Ans:
turn the three-way valve open the bypass valve and then c lose the isolation valves close the isolation valves and then open the bypass v alve B To determine if the lube oil filter elements need changing, 944 ________________. A. open the filter and inspect the elements B. check the lube oil pump discharge pressure C. check the lube oil header pressure D. check the pressure and drop across the filter Ans: D Which of the listed conditions can cause a diesel engine to use too 946 much lube oil? A. Dirty lube oil filter B. Too much piston ring wear C. High lube oil viscosity D. low lube oil temperature Ans: B When a leak has developed in the lube oil cooler of an operating 948 diesel engine, which of the listed operating conditions can be expected to occur? B. C. D. Ans:
A. The oil should be purified. B. The lubricating quality of the oil has dangerously deteriorated.
949
951
953
955
957
A. Lube oil contaminated with saltwater B. Lube oil level decreases
C. The oil is functioning normally. C. Lube oil contaminated with fresh water coolant D. Normal engine operating temperatures have been reached D. lube oil level increases Ans: C Ans: B The oxidation by-products forming in diesel engine lube oil can Under normal conditions, the main source of crankcase oil 950 cause _____________. contamination is attributed to ______________. A. pitting A. metal particles loosened by wear B. sludge B. air when air cleaners are not us ed C. hard varnish C. condensation of water vapors D. All of the above. D. breakdown of the lubricating oil Ans: D Ans: D A condition that can increase the foaming tendency of lube oil is One device used to determine the amount of fuel dilution of diesel 952 ________. engine lube oil is a/an ____________. A. excessively high oil temperatures A. autogenous ignition indicator B. water or moisture contamination B. viscosity-dilution chart C. fuel dilution C. precipitation number indicator D. carbon suspension D. modified neutrality chart Ans: B Ans: B Fuel oil contamination of an auxiliary diesel engine lube oil can Diesel engine lube oil can become c ontaminated as a result of 954 result in _____________. _____________. A. an increased fclearance point A. the water produced during combustion B. higher lube oil pressures B. the sulphur in the fuel C. an increased viscosity C. unburned fuel oil D. lower lube oil pressures D. all of the above Ans: D Ans: D Lubricating oil viscosity in an operating diesel engine can be The Total Base Number(TBN) value of diesel engine lube oil refers 956 reduced by _____________. to its ability to _____________. A. increasing cooling water flow A. resist changes in v iscosity with changes in temperature B. increasing lube oil flow B. resist emulsification C. dilution by fuel oil C. neutralize acids D. Adding SAE 70 oil D. resist oxidation at high temperatures Ans: C Ans: C FUEL SYSTEMS To prevent vibration damage to the fuel supply line of a diesel The light and medium fuels utilized in internal combustion engines 958 engine, you may use ____________. provide a source of ________. a short length of heavy duty clear plastic tubing a length of approved flexible nonmetallic hose welded flange connections for all joints aluminum piping with expansion loops B Microbiological growths in marine fuel are a common occurrence that can be ________. A. extremely detrimental to equipment and operating processes B. prevented by m aintaining proper storage temperatures
A. B. C. D. Ans: 959
C. removed from emulsified fuel oil during the centrifuging processes D. All of the above are correct. Ans: A Fuels as produced in a refinery are generally sterile, however, 961 contamination can occur as fuels are ________. A. stored at the refinery B. stored on the vessel
lubrication for pistons and rings food for microbiological organisms gases most detrimental to the ozone layer of the atmosphere all of the above B The growth rate of microbiological organisms as found in some fuel supplies will __________. A. increase in direct proportion to an increase in temperature B. decrease if bleaches are added to the fuel on a regular basis
A. B. C. D. Ans: 960
C. remain unchanged provided complete consumption of the fuel occurs monthly D. All of the above Ans: A In order for microbiological growths to thrive in a fuel tank it is 962 necessary for ________. A. high temperatures to exist B. low temperatures to exist
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963
965
967
969
C. transported to the distribution sites D. All of the above are correct. Ans: D Which of the following conditions is NOT an indication of microbial contamination? A. Objectionable odors B. Increased air filter changes C. Occurrences of flow restrictions D. Increased corrosion of tank plating Ans: B A dirty fuel oil filter element can be detected by ________. A. visual inspection of the element B. the pressure drop across the filter C. high fuel oil tank temperature D. increase flow rate from the filter Ans: B In diesel engineering practice, the term used to express the ignition quality of a particular fuel is _____________. A. cetane number B. octane number C. ignition index number D. volatility point Ans: A Which of the following statements is true concerning the cetane number rating of diesel fuel? A. The cetane number is obtained by comparing the fuel with cetane, a colorless liquid hydrocarbon. B. The higher the cetane number, the shorter the ignition lag.
964
966
968
970
C. The highest cetane number of fuel is 100.
D. All of the above.
971
Ans: D Most type(s) of m icrobiological growths in fuel are __________.
A. bacteria B. fungi C. yeasts D. All of the above Ans: D Which of the following statements describes the unchecked growth 973 of microbiological organisms within a fuel system? A. The dying bacteria will cause a coating to be formed on the sides of the tank thereby decreasing corrosion. B. The fuel in the tank will loose its fluidity, solidify, and be the cause of an expensive removal process. C. Corrosion of various metal components will occur due to the formation of hydrogen sulfide gas. D. All of the above are correct. Ans: C An indication of microbial contamination is ______. 975 A. stripping of paint in tanks B. reduced corrosion in fuel tanks C. usually discovered during normally scheduled strainer cleaning D. yellow slime or fibrous sludge Ans: A The desirable properties of a marine fuel oil should include 977 _____________. A. high flash point and high v iscosity B. low flash point and high viscosity C. low heating value and high sulphur content D. high heating value and low sulphur content Ans: D Which of the listed factors will indicate the most about the ability of 979 a fuel to ignite in a diesel engine? A. Viscosity B. sulphur content C. Pour point D. Cetane number Ans: D
C. small amounts of water to be present D. large amounts of water to be present Ans: C Which of the substances listed is satisfactorily removed from the fuel by a centrifugal oil purifier? A. Carbon particles B. Lube oil C. Gasoline D. Diesel fuel Ans: A Fuel oil having a low cetane rating could result in _______. A. improved cold weather starting B. excessive fuel oil consumption C. reduced ignition lag D. smoother engine operation Ans: B With respect to diesel fuel, the ease with which a cold engine will start is dependent upon the _____________. A. ignition quality of the fuel B. high heating value of the fuel C. amount of carbon residue after combustion D. internal flow resistance in the injec tors Ans: A Why are heavy fuels not usually prone to the problems of microbiological infection? A. Heavy fuels are subjected to better refining processes which prevent the formation of these growths. B. Most heavy fuels contain chemicals which prevent the growth of fungi and other bacteria. C. Microbiological infection does not affect marine fuel but rather the personnel who are involved with the handling, storage and purification of the fuel. D. The necessary nutrients that the organisms feed on are in a more complex form and not available for microbial degradation.
Ans: D Fuel oil strainers should be made of ____________. I. copper II. brass A. I only B. II only C. either I or II D. neither I nor II Ans: D When fuel oil heaters are required for main engine operation, 974 ____________. A. each heater shall have the capacity to supply the main engine at full power B. at least two heaters of approximately equal size are to be installed 972
C. the system shall be designed to permit series or parallel operation D. none of the above Ans: B One cause of diesel engine fuel ignition delay is _______. 976 A. mechanical flexibility in the pump mechanism B. late fuel injection C. early fuel injection D. ignition quality of the fuel oil Ans: D A substance found in residual fuels which tends to cause exhaust 978 valve corrosion and grooving, is ____________. A. carbon B. vanadium C. calcium D. hydrogen Ans: B To minimize corrosion, fuel oil strainer disks, spacers and scraper 980 blades are made of _____________. A. brass B. copper C. iron D. monel metal or stainless steel Ans: D
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A mixture of 45% cetane and 55% alpha-methyl-naphthalene is found to have the same ignition delay as a sample of diesel oil. The sample can be described as having a/an __________.
981
cetane number of 55 cetane number of 45 octane number of 55 octane number of 45 B Injection lag in a diesel engine may be caused by _________. 983 A. a higher cetane number of fuel oil B. the diesel fuel used having a high viscosity C. mechanical rigidity in the lube pump mechanism D. a decrease in the fuel pump delivery pressure Ans: B Automatically fired auxiliary boilers use fuel oil strainer 985 arrangements of either the simplex type or _____________. A. filter bag type B. metal disc type C. absorbent type D. duplex type Ans: D The fuel oil strainers located in the fuel oil service system of an 987 automatic auxiliary heating boiler are either the duplex type or the _______________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
989
The sludge tank installed in the diesel engine room is used to collect _____________. I. sludge from the fuel oil settling tanks and centrifuge II. water that has been collected in the settling tank.
982
I only II only both I and II neither I or II C Diesel engine injection lag is caused by _____________. 984 A. compressibility of the fuel B. high fuel oil supply flow C. scored plunger and barrel packing D. excessive air turbulence Ans: A Piping from booster pumps to injection systems are to be at least 986 ________. A. schedule 60 B. schedule 80 C. standard seamless steel D. none of the above Ans: C Which of the following represents the significance the fuel oil cetane 988 number? A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. filter bag type B. Perry filter type C. simplex type
A. The cetane number has no affect on injection lag. B. The cetane number is an indication of the fuel's viscosity. C. Ignition lag is reduced with fuels having a high cetane number.
D. absorbent type
D. The cetane number is of little significance in the combustion process.
Ans: C Proper filtering and straining of diesel fuel is important because the _____________. A. fuel oil pump will overspeed if dirt is not removed B. fuel oil transfer pumps cannot tolerate small amounts of grit in the oil C. fuel injectors may be damaged by foreign particles in the fuel oil
990
Ans: C Which of the following statements is true concerning the cetane number of diesel fuel? A. The cetane number affects the amount of injection lag. B. The cetane number is of little significance in the combustion process. C. Ignition lag is reduced with fuels having a high cetane number.
D. dirty fuel will clog the intake air filter D. The cetane number is an indication of the fuel's viscosity. Ans: C Ans: C If a diesel engine runs out of fuel, you can expect trouble from The cetane number rates fuels for diesel engines according to its 991 992 _____________. _____________. A. overheated injector pumps A. antiknock characteristics B. water condensed in the cylinders B. ignition qualities C. fuel dilution of the lube oil C. rates of vaporization D. air in the fuel system D. viscosity Ans: D Ans: B The cetane rating of diesel fuel is an indication of the The ignition quality of a fuel oil is an important operational 993 994 ______________. consideration because it _____________. A. ignition quality of the fuel A. indicates the amount of abrasive material in the fuel B. calorific value of the fuel B. affects the starting ability of a cold engine C. fclearance point of the fuel C. determines the amount of fuel penetration D. rate of fuel consumption D. affects the compression ratio of an operating engine Ans: A Ans: B FUEL SYSTEMS - MAINTENANCE When cleaning a duplex strainer, it is important for Which chemical listed is utilized to prevent and correct most 995 996 _____________. microbial infections occurring within fuel storage systems? A. the pressure to be bled prior to opening the compartment cover A. Bleaches B. the lube oil to be allowed to cool before removing the basket C. the cleaning fluid used to be more viscous than the lube oil D. a new cover gasket to be installed when reassembling the unit
997
Ans: A The metal edge type filters used in diesel engine fuel oil and lube oil systems are normally cleaned in place by _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
999
back flushing the system and draining the filter opening the drain plug and blowing through the filter manually operating a built-in scraper and draining the filter flushing with any approved solvent then draining the s ystem C Which of the following conditions is NOT an indication of microbial contamination of the fuel supply?
B. Banalities C. Biocides D. Benzene additives
998
Ans: C Proper housekeeping to prevent the formation of microbiological growths within a fuel system includes the prevention of water accumulations and the use of _______. A. B. C. D. Ans:
1000
steam coils fuel oil centrifuges fuel oil discharge filters chemical additives called biocides D An increased pressure differential between the inlet and outlet of a strainer usually indicates the strainer is _____________.
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A. B. C. D. Ans: 1001
1003
Evidence of corrosion Pitting of metal surfaces Presence of green slime Brightening of copper bering metals D Small amounts of moisture are necessary to trigger the growth of microbiological organisms found in some marine fuels. Some sources of water contamination are _________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1002
holed fouled clean dry B Which of the following statements describes the results of excessive microbiological growths within a fuel s ystem?
A. tank surface leakage
A. All excessive amounts of growth will cause the main engines of the vessel to stall due to the inability to supply the proper quantities of fuel to satisfy the existing load.
B. humidity and condensation
B. The deposits produced by these growths form blockages and flow restrictions ultimately leading to improper atomization of the fuel into the cylinders.
C. improper tank washing procedures
C. Eventually the growth of these organisms will deplete the supply of food available to them, which in turn will cause their demise.
D. All of the above
D. If continual growth is permitted, a sweet odor similar to that associated with baking will be noticed when system components are opened for inspection.
Ans: D The major cause of problems occurring with fuel injection equipment is _____________.
1004
Ans: B The microbiological growths that affect fuel supplies can easily be transported from one location to another by _________.
incorrect replacement of barrels and plungers of jerk pumps A. roaches and other insects overheating of the nozzle orifices B. air, solids, or liquids cracked pump housings C. other non-hydrocarbon fuels dirt in the fuel D. all of the above D Ans: B Air in the fuel lines to the fuel injection nozzles of a diesel engine will 1006 The major cause of fuel pump and injection system problems is result in _____________. _____________. A. lower compression pressures A. improper adjustments B. overheating without smoking B. contaminated fuel C. failure to start C. kinked fuel lines D. a runaway without load D. excessive engine vibration Ans: C Ans: B Fuel oil day tanks for diesel engines must be checked and cleaned Fuel oil is regularly transferred to the day tank in order to 1008 at regular intervals in order to remove ___________. _____________. A. sludge A. allow impurities to settle out of the fuel B. water B. allow air to escape from the fuel C. micro-organism growth C. make fuel available for immediate use D. all of the above D. all of the above Ans: D Ans: D Clogged diesel engine fuel oil filters can cause __________, A. loss of power B. misfiring C. low fuel oil pressure D. all of the above Ans: D AUXILIARY BOILER Generating tubes in waste heat boilers are finned to It is desirable for an auxiliary boiler safety valve to pop open and 1011 ____________. reseat quickly to __________. A. reduce gas flow turbulence A. give warning that excessive boiler pressure has been reached A. B. C. D. Ans:
1005
1007
1009
1010
B. C. D. Ans: 1012
prevent exhaust gas corrosion increase the rate of combustion increase the rate of heat transfer D A failure to any component of a flame safeguard control for an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, will result in ______________.
A. the prevention of automatic restart B. an immediate furnace explosion C. uncontrolled firing D. automatic restart Ans: A The flame safeguard control system of a large automatic auxiliary 1014 boiler will provide fuel shut off in the case of high ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1016
water voltage fuel pressure steam pressure D Prior to lighting off a cold automatically fired auxiliary boiler, you should _____________.
B. C. D. Ans:
prevent wire drawing of the disc and seat prevent valve pounding provide sufficient blowdown B The amount of oil consumed by a return flow-type fuel atomization system, fitted with both supply and return meters, can be determined by the ____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
supply meter reading only return meter reading only sum of the s upply and return meter readings difference between the supply and return meter readings D If the fire goes out in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler and the burner continues to supply fuel, there is a potential danger of ______________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
overpressure and dry firing a severe furnace explosion spalling damage to the brickwork heat damage to the atomizer B When an automatically fired boiler has a flameout, which of the following actions s hould occur FIRST?
1013
1015
1017
Page 60
A. check and regulate the water level B. close the air cock once fires are lit C. blowdown the gauge glass D. crack the steam stop to ass ure protective steam flow Ans: A Which of the following actions takes place in the control circuit of an 1018 automatically fired auxiliary boiler when the desired steam pressure is obtained?
A. The fuel valve s hould be de-energized. B. The purge cycle should begin. C. An alarm should ring. D. The fuel oil pump should stop. Ans: A Which of the listed sequence of events occurs when an automatic 1019 auxiliary boiler is prepurged?
A. A temperature sensing device opens the circuit breaker in the burner motor.
A. The damper on the inlet side of the furnace is moved to the open position for a given number of seconds and then mov ed to the closed position.
B. The high limit control secures power to the entire oil firing system.
B. The damper on the inlet side of the furnace is moved to the open position for a given number of seconds and then mov ed to the low fire position.
C. The stack relay actuates the low limit control which breaks the ignition circuit. D. The stack relay secures power to the high voltage side of the ignition transformer.
C. The damper is moved to the closed position for a given number of seconds and then moved to the low fire position. D. The damper in the uptakes is moved to the wide open position for a given number of seconds and then moved to the low firing rate position.
Ans: B Which of the following conditions could cause the feed pump for an auxiliary boiler to lose suction? A. Increased suction head pressure B. Decreased feedwater temperature C. Pump recirculating line being open too much D. Excessive feedwater temperature Ans: D The purpose of a temperature sensing device installed in the stack 1022 of a small automatically fired auxiliary steam boiler is to secure the oil burner _______________. 1020
in the event of a flame failure in the event of a stack fire when the water level reaches the crown sheet when the feed pump discharge pressure drops to a preset minimum Ans: A Variations in the amount of fuel oil burned in a return flow type 1024 burner, are controlled by the ____________. A. atomizing steam pressure B. size of the whirling chamber C. back pressure in the fuel oil return line D. area of the tangential slots Ans: C A burner responsible for producing black smoke in an automatic 1026 auxiliary boiler, would be caused by a __________.
Ans: B Fins are installed on the generating tube surfaces in waste heat boilers to ____________. A. prevent soot fires in the exhaust system B. prevent exhaust gas erosion of the tubes C. increase the velocity of exhaust gas flow D. increase the rate of heat transfer Ans: D Subtracting the return flow meter reading from the supply flow meter 1023 reading on a boiler equipped with a return flow fuel oil system, determines the amount of oil ____________. 1021
A. B. C. D.
A. B. C. D.
Ans: B When there is a flame failure in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, the ____________. A. air supply is shut off B. fuel supply is shut off C. water supply is shut off D. safety valve lifts Ans: B Bottom blow valves are installed on auxiliary water-tube boilers to 1027 _____________. 1025
A. defective solenoid valve B. C. D. Ans: 1028
dirty fuel nozzle grounded high tension lead faulty ignition cable connector B A pulsating flame, accompanied by a burner developing black smoke in an auxiliary boiler, is an indication that the _____________.
electrode setting is incorrect ignition current is too low fuel oil pressure is too low fuel nozzle is c orrectly positioned C Failure of the feed pump to deliver feedwater to an auxiliary boiler 1030 could be caused by _______________. A. a low pump suction lift B. abnormally low water temperature C. grounded probes in the water level control D. a high pump suction head Ans: C The diesel engine exhaust gas bypass, as fitted with some waste 1032 heat boilers, is installed to ____________. A. prevent engine back pressure at heavy loads B. increase total engine efficiency at low loads C. prevent boiler corrosion at low engine loads D. improve engine fuel consumption at any load Ans: C A waste heat boiler is installed on some diesel propelled vessels to 1034 _____________.
circulated by the system burner throughput returned to the settler discharged from the pump
A. remove suspended and precipitated solids from the boiler water B. completely drain the boiler in an emergency situation C. prevent hardened scale deposits in the water drum D. remove floating impurities from the oiler water surface Ans: A The solenoid valves in the fuel oil supply line to an automatically 1029 fired auxiliary boiler, are automatically closed by ______________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1031 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1033 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1035
a decrease in feed temperature high furnace air pressure high steam pressure low steam pressure C If the fuel/air ratio in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler is insufficient, the result could lead to __________. inefficient combustion dark smoke automatic shutdown all of the above D High stack temperature occurring in an auxiliary boiler could be a result of ____________. insufficient air for combustion complete combustion in the furnace secondary combustion in the uptake high fuel oil temperature C The maximum pressure developed by a waste heat boiler is determined by the main engine exhaust ____________.
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provide steam for emergency propulsion provide steam for the turbogenerator heat the waste water tanks steam for warming engines B Bottom blow valves are installed on auxiliary water-tube boilers to 1036 _____________. A. completely drain the boiler in an emergency B. prevent sludge from forming in the steam drum C. remove floating impurities from the boiler water surface D. remove settled solids from the water drum Ans: D With which of the following types of diesel engine arrangements is 1038 a waste heat boiler most likely to produce the maximum steam pressure, temperature, and flow conditions? A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. Supercharged, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine B. Supercharged, loop scavenged diesel engine C. Turbocharged, crossflow scavenged diesel engine D. Turbocharged, return flow diesel engine Ans: A Which of the following methods is typically employed in the design 1040 of waste heat boilers to obtain maximum heat transfer, while maintaining low overall weight? A. Feedwater is preheated in a separately fired economizer. B. An external superheater unit is located above the boiler in the gas passages. C. An unfired exhaust gas preheater is added to increase the heat transfer rate. D. Steel fins are installed on the generating tube surfaces to increase the effective surface area. Ans: D A variable capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel oil burner functions to 1042 ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1044
maintain a constant fuel temperature provide a wide range of combustion provide a constant fuel return pressure maintain smokeless fuel oil atomization B In an auxiliary boiler steam and water system, the highest pressure will be in the ____________.
steam stop valve dry pipe feedwater system generating tubes C Large steam drums are not required in the design of a coil-type auxiliary water-tube boiler because _____________. A. steam and water are separated in the accumulator (fclearance chamber) B. the heat of combustion is sufficient to remove all moisture from the steam C. the volume of steam is small at low pressures
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1037 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1039
A. dry steam from the steam and water mixture B. condensate from feedwater C. superheated steam from saturated steam D. sludge accumulations from feedwater Ans: A Within the cycle of a forced ciculation auxiliary water-tube boiler, 1041 part of the water flashes into steam, and the remaining hot water is ____________ A. collected in the lower portion of the steam accumulator for recirculation back to the heating coil or water tank B. returned to the lower drum via downcomers due to density difference for reheating C. passes through the domestic heating system return line steam traps to the auxiliary feed supply tank D. automatically dumped into auxiliary feed heater and reheated by auxiliary exhaust back pressure Ans: A The firing range of a v ariable capacity, return flow-type fuel atomizer 1043 is regulated to meet steam demand by varying the ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1045
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1046
gas composition gas temperature pressure timing B When an auxiliary boiler is panting and emitting black smoke, you should _____________. increase the fuel oil temperature decrease the fuel oil temperature decrease the fuel oil supply pressure increase the air supply D The purpose of the separating nozzle in the accumulator of a watertube, coil-type, steam generator is to separate _____________.
fuel oil damper setting fuel oil return pressure burner register opening atomizer orifice setting B Fins are installed on the fireside of the water-tubes used in waste heat boilers to ____________.
decrease the velocity of gases flowing past the tubes increase the rate of heat transfer reduce accumulations of carbon deposits direct the flow of gases B A horizontal fire-tube package boiler, incorporating a two-pass design, is basically constructed with ____________. A. the rear of the boiler being used as a combustion chamber
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1047
B. extensive fireside baffling used to its fullest, enabling increased heat transfer rates C. removable spiral metal gas retarders being inserted in the tubes to decrease the gas velocity to a minimum, thus extracting the maximum caloric heat value
D. automatic burner cycling controls steam volume and quality Ans: A Downcomers installed on auxiliary package boilers are protected 1048 from direct contact with hot gases by ___________.
D. all of the above Ans: C Waste heat boilers may be equipped with vents on the feed water 1049 heater heads to ____________.
A. refractory and insulation B. several rows of screen tubes C. steel baffles D. water wall tubes Ans: A Why should the main steam stop v alve of an auxiliary boiler be 1050 eased off its seat and then gently closed before lighting off?
A. prevent air binding B. release excess pressure C. allow for feedwater treatment D. remove sediment Ans: A A distorted furnace in a fire-tube auxiliary boiler may be the result of 1051 ____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
To examine the valve stem for scars or nicks. To check for a tight bonnet seal. To ensure that the valve will not be seized shut when hot. To check the valve packing. C
A. B. C. D. Ans:
firing for extended periods in the low fire mode overheating, due to waterside deposits varying the water level above the crown sheet carrying excessive alkalinity in the boiler water B
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Fusible plugs are installed in fire-tube boilers to _____________.
1052
provide a means of draining the boiler warn the engineer of low water level cool the crown sheet at high firing rates open the burners' electrical firing circuits B A feed pump for an auxiliary boiler might lose suction if the ____________. A. boiler water level is low B. feedwater is too hot C. boiler steam demand is low D. feedwater is too cold
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1054
1056
Ans: B After undergoing extensive repairs, an auxiliary boiler, with a maximum allowable working pressure of 10 kg/cm2, should be hydrostatically tested at a pressure of ______________.
10 kg/cm2 12.5 kg/cm2 15 kg/cm2 20 kg/cm2 C The principal purpose of refractory and insulation installed in the 1058 firebox of an auxiliary boiler is to ____________. A. prevent slag accumulation on the corbels B. direct the force draft into the s pace between the inner and outer casings, to maintain a pressure seal C. protect the inner casing and reduce heat loss D. prevent flame impingement on the generating tube bank Ans: C Excessive vibration of an automatically fired auxiliary boiler can be 1060 caused by _____________. A. air or water in the furnace B. combustion pulses C. fuel oil pump failure D. flame failure Ans: B An exhaust gas bypass is installed on a waste heat boiler in order 1062 to ____________. A. recycle exhaust gas to the turbocharger
A. Expansion of the steam in the furnace. B. Expansion of the steam in the whirling chamber. C. Expansion of the steam in the orifice plate. D. All of the above. Ans: A The purpose of the programmed purge cycle on an automatically 1055 fired auxiliary boiler is to _______________. A. cool the furnace to prev ent preignition B. remove explosive vapours from the furnace C. evaporate accumulated unburned fuel oil D. provide sufficient air in the furnace to allow ignition of the fuel
1057
A. B. C. D. Ans:
B. bypass a portion of the exhaust gas at peak loads for better efficiency C. bypass exhaust gas at high loads to prevent excessive back pressure D. minimize moisture condensation in the boiler gas passages at low loads Ans: D A properly adjusted safety valve for an auxiliary boiler will 1064 ____________. A. attain maximum lift when it pops below its set press ure B. open with a sharp, clear pop at its set pressure C. close sharply when the pressure drops to its set pressure D. operate most effectively when it has zero blowdown Ans: B Constant capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel burners designed to 1066 meet a wide variation in steaming loads on an auxiliary boiler, are _____________. automatically supplied with warmer air on demand automatically supplied with more fuel on demand equipped with standard variable capacity atomizers cycled on and off in response to steam demand D The gauge glass on a coil-type auxiliary boiler is connected to the 1068 ______________. A. heating coil inlet and outlet B. surge chamber C. accumulator D. water softener Ans: C In comparison to straight flow mechanical atomizers, return flow 1070 atomizers provide relatively uniform atomization over a wide firing range due to the ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
Which of the following conditions is responsible for the fuel oil to atomize when using a steam atomizer in an auxiliary boiler?
1053
Ans: B When preparing to light off a cold boiler equipped with a return flow fuel oil system, the recirculating valve directs the flow of oil ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
1059 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1061 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1063 A.
directly to the fuel oil heater inlet for further warm-up back to the fuel oil settler for further filtration back to the suction side of the service pump directly to the deep tanks C The purpose of designing some waste heat boilers with sinuous fire tubes, is to ____________. increase exhaust gas v elocity through the boiler reduce accumulations of carbon deposits on the heat transfer surfaces eliminate exhaust gas pulsations and noise increase the rate of heat transfer to the waterside D The amount of fuel oil atomized by a return flow oil burner is directly controlled by the ____________. header supply valve burner root valve oil micrometer valve fuel oil back pressure D In the event of a flame failure in an auxiliary water-tube boiler, you must ______________. relight the boiler immediately to prevent loss of steam pressure
B. relight the fire off the brickwork as long as the bricks are cherry red C. purge the furnace of any combustible gases before attempting to relight the fire D. speed up the feed pump to prevent dry firing when the burner flame is reestablished Ans: C An auxiliary boiler is equipped with a return flow fuel atomization 1065 system, which uses a/an _____________. A. constant fuel supply pressure B. constant fuel return pressure C. variable fuel supply pressure D. all of the above Ans: A The constant capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel oil burners 1067 designed to meet a wide variation in the steaming loads of an auxiliary boiler, are ________________. A. automatically cycled on and off in response to demand B. automatically supplied with more fuel on demand C. equipped with standard variable capacity atomizers D. equipped with fuel nozzles having variable orifices Ans: A Excessive vibration from an auxiliary boiler could be caused by 1069 ____________. A. combustion pulses B. insufficient air to the burner C. loose hold-down bolts D. all of the above Ans: D Which of the following statements concerning the operation of a coil1071 type forced circulation auxiliary water-tube boiler is correct?
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A. back pressure regulation resulting in more complete combustion at high firing rates B. oil supply pressure not having to be reduced at low loads to the point where poor atomization occurs C. return flow atomizer being designed for best combustion at low firing rates D. rotational motion imparted by the tangential slots being greater in the return flow atomizer Ans: B Which of the following statements concerning fire-tube boilers is 1072 correct? A. Combustion gases flow through the tubes. B. Flames impinge on the tubes. C. Combustion occurs in the tubes. D. Water flows through the tubes. Ans: A Which of the listed problems will happen when the water level of a 1074 fire-tube type auxiliary boiler approaches the crown sheet?
A. Water is continuously circulated through a preheater before it enters the fclearance chamber. B. Steam is generated in the heating coils and is force fed to an accumulator. C. Unevaporated boiler water collects in the bottom of the accumulator. D. Moisture is removed from generated steam in a radiant superheater. Ans: C Which of the following statements about a coil-type forced 1073 circulation auxiliary water-tube boiler is correct? A. Steam is generated in the fclearance chamber. B. Steam is recirculated to the heating coils. C. Response to steam demand is comparatively rapid. D. Unevaporated feedwater drains to the bilge. Ans: C Excessive return oil pressure from a variable capacity return flow 1075 fuel oil burner system on an automatic auxiliary boiler, will cause ____________.
A. The fusible plugs will melt. B. The furnace will explode. C. Excess steam will be generated. D. The furnace will overheat. Ans: A Fins are installed on the fireside of the water-tubes, used in waste 1076 heat boilers, to ____________. A. decrease the velocity of gases flowing past the tubes B. reduce the accumulation of soot deposits on the tubes C. create turbulence D. increase the heat transfer surface area Ans: D When a waste heat boiler is installed in the exhaust of a main 1078 propulsion diesel engine, the exhaust gas bypass would be used ____________.
flame failure burner smoking ignition failure burner failure B An auxiliary boiler equipped with a return flow fuel atomization 1077 system, has a _____________. A. constant fuel combustion rate B. constant fuel return pressure C. variable fuel supply temperature D. variable fuel return pressure Ans: D The amount of oil atomized by the return flow variable capacity 1079 atomizer, used with some automatically fired boilers, is controlled by the _______________.
at high loads to prevent overheating at low loads to prevent corrosion in the boiler during periods of high steam demand when the turbochargerisinoperation B Which of the following items is necessary for all waste heat boiler 1080 installations, regardless of design or manufacturer? A. Control of evaporation B. A separate means to prevent feedwater contamination C. Power circulating pump D. exhaust gas bypass Ans: A When lighting off an auxiliary boiler, which of the problems listed 1082 could cause the burners to sputter? A. Cold fuel oil B. Low fuel oil pressure C. Low atomizing steam pressure D. Water in the fuel oil Ans: D Which of the following statements describes how the fueloil enters 1084 the whirling chambers of the sprayer plates usedin a auxiliary boiler return flow fuel oil system?
amount of air admitted to the atomizer oil pressure in the oil return line quantity of oil delivered by the service pump proportioning device in the atomizer fuel valve B Throttling a burner air register on an auxiliary boiler could result in 1081 ____________. A. smoky boiler operation B. decreased fuel consumption C. improved fuel combustion D. fewer soot deposits Ans: A Diesel engine waste heat boiler construction is usually of the fire1083 tube or _____________. A. cyclone furnace boiler type B. dry back boiler type C. water-tube type D. critical circulation boiler type Ans: C The variation in the amount of fuel oil burned in the operation of an 1085 auxiliary boiler, utilizing a return flow type atomization system, is a function of the _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1086 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1088 A. B. C. D.
Through the outer barrel tube. Through the sprayer plate drilled passages. Through tangential slots in the sprayer plate. Through baffles in the orifice plate. C The PRIMARY function of a waste heat boiler is to _________. reduce engine exhaust noise reduce engine back pressure recover heat which otherwise would be lost increase turbocharger efficiency C A SECONDARY function of a waste heat boiler is to _________. reduce engine exhaust noise reduce engine back pressure increase engine cycle efficiency increase turbocharger efficiency
Ans: A
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1087
fuel oil recirculating valve fuel oil back pressure fuel supply pressure regulating valve automatic steam atomizer assembly B Auxiliary boilers can be classified as ________________.
water-tube natural circulation boilers fire-tube boilers water-tube forced circulation boilers all of the above D In a coil-type forced circulation auxiliary water-tube boiler _____________. A. steam is recirculated through heating coils in the boiler B. hot water fclearancees to steam in the fclearance chamber C. unevaporated feedwater is lost through the atmospheric vent D. response to steam demand is slower than in a fire-tube boiler
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1089
Ans: B
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1090
1092
1094
1096
1098
The purpose of the safety relief valves installed on an auxiliary boiler is to ____________. A. relieve excess fuel oil pressure during the "off" fire cycle B. admit water to the dry pipe C. throttle the forced draft fan output for proper combustion D. reduce excess steam pressure in the boiler Ans: D The safety valve installed on a coil-type auxiliary boiler is located on the ____________. A. thermostat tube B. topmost coil C. water tank D. fclearance chamber Ans: D Auxiliary boilers are divided into several classifications, one of which is ______________. A. water-tube supercritical circulation B. water-tube forced c irculation C. fire-tube controlled circulation D. fire-tube express circulation Ans: B In a coil-type forced circulation auxiliary water-tube boiler, ____________. A. steam demand response is comparatively rapid B. steam is recirculated through heating coils in the boiler C. unevaporated feedwater is discharged through the skim tube D. steam demand response is slow Ans: A The principal purpose of refractory and insulation installed in the firebox of an auxiliary boiler is to ____________. A. prevent flame impingement on the generating tube bank
1091
1093
1095
1097
1099
In a forced circulation auxiliary boiler, steam is formed in the ____________. A. heating coils B. steam accumulator (fclearance chamber) C. hotwell D. thermostat tube Ans: B Auxiliary boilers are divided into several classifications, one of which is _____________. A. fire-tube controlled circulation B. fire-tube supercritical circulation C. water-tube natural circulation D. water tube express circulation Ans: C The tube sheets installed in a fire-tube auxiliary boiler are normally connected by ____________. A. girder stays B. fire-tubes and stay-tubes C. external boiler plating D. separate crown sheets Ans: B Which type of pump is typically used to supply fuel to a unit type auxiliary boiler? A. Centrifugal B. Propeller C. Reciprocating D. Rotary Ans: D In a coil-type auxiliary water-tube circulation boiler _____________. A. unevaporated feedwater collects in the bottom of the fclearance chamber B. all generated steam is recirculated through heating coils in the boiler
B. direct the force draft into the s pace between the inner and outer casings, to maintain a pressure seal C. protect the inner casing and reduce heat loss D. prevent slag accumulation on the corbels
C. heated water fclearancees to steam in the boiler heating coils D. response to steam demand is slower than in a fire-tube boiler
Ans: C
Ans: A AUXILIARY BOILER - MAINTENANCE Before any work is to be carried out on a burner in an automatically 1101 Which of the following procedures decreases the total dissolved fired auxiliary boiler, you should always _____________. solids concentration in the water of an auxiliary boiler?
1100
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1102
block all control system relays closed allow the boiler to cool completely close all manually operated fuel valves lock all safety interlock switches closed C How is the concentration of dissolved oxygen in the feedwater of an auxiliary boiler maintained at acceptable limits?
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1103
A. Feedwater is cycled through a DC heater.
A. passes through the whirling chamber before passing through the tangential slots B. passes through the tangential slots before passing through the whirling chamber C. leaves the burner as a straight stream until mixed with the primary flow of combustion air D. leaves the burner as a straight stream until mixed with the swirling atomizing steam
B. Feedwater is treated with phosphates. C. Oxygen is liberated in the three-stages of feedwater preheating. D. Oxygen is liberated by maintaining the highest practical feedwater temperature. Ans: D A burner producing black smoke in an automatic auxiliary boiler, would be caused by a/an ______________. A. incorrect electrode setting B. defective solenoid valve C. grounded high tension lead D. incorrect primary air setting Ans: D The water in an auxiliary boiler should be tested for chloride 1106 content to determine ______________. A. total dissolved solids B. salt contamination C. water hardness D. chlorine contamination Ans: B The procedures recommended for auxiliary boilers having high 1108 salinity include ____________. 1104
Hydrazine treatment of condensate Frequent compounding Chemical cleaning Bottom blowing D A sprayer plate used in a return flow fuel oil atomizer is correctly installed if the oil __________.
Ans: B The water in an auxiliary boiler should be chemically tested daily for alkalinity and _________________. A. soap hardness B. nitrogen content C. chloride content D. dissolved CO2 Ans: C For proper operation, auxiliary boiler feedwater must have which of 1107 the following characteristics? A. High oxygen concentration B. Low pH C. Proper alkalinity D. All of the above Ans: C The concentration of dissolved solids in the boiler water of an 1109 auxiliary boiler could increase as a result of ___________. 1105
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A. B. C. D. Ans: 1110
treating with oxygen scavengers securing the boiler and giving it a bottom blow increasing the pH reducing the phosphate level B If a tube ruptures in a water-tube auxiliary boiler due to low water, you should ____________.
A. secure the fires and maintain feedwater to boiler to keep up the water level B. not secure the fires until water level falls out of sight in the gauge glass C. secure both the fires and the feed inlet valve D. secure the fires when the pressure drops to 50% of the maximum allowable working pressure Ans: C A coil-type automatically fired auxiliary boiler is to be laid up wet for 1112 an indefinite period. The boiler water should be treated to ensure that ____________.
1114
1116
1118
1120
1122
1124
A. the manufacturer's recommended pH is maintained B. there is no excess of oxygen scav enging chemicals C. sludge formation cannot occur in the steam separator D. waterside blowdown will not be required Ans: A If an operating auxiliary boiler has a water pH reading of 7, you should ______________. A. bottom blow the boiler B. treat the water with caustic soda C. treat the water with chemical scavengers D. reduce the water alkalinity to recommended readings Ans: B Heavy soot accumulations in an auxiliary boiler could be caused by _____________. A. water in the fuel oil B. excessive cycling C. high fuel oil pressure D. improper burner maintenance Ans: D Failure of the burner flame in an automatic auxiliary boiler would probably be a result of ______________. A. water in the fuel oil B. broken high tension leads C. incorrect electrode setting D. full fuel pressure at the nozzle Ans: A The water in an operating auxiliary boiler should be tested for alkalinity and chloride content each __________. A. hour B. day C. week D. month Ans: B The most common cause of scale formation in an auxiliary boiler is ______________. A. concentrations of calcium sulfate in the boiler water B. fuel oil in the feedwater C. improper treatment of the feedwater with calcium sulfate D. excessive feedwater alkalinity Ans: A Why should the main steam stop v alve of an auxiliary boiler be eased off its seat and then gently closed before lighting off? A. B. C. D. Ans:
1126 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1128
To check the valve packing. To examine the valve stem for scars or nicks. To check for a tight bonnet seal. To ensure that the valve will not be seized shut when hot. D Which of the following actions should normally be taken during each watch when the auxiliary boiler is in operation? Clean all duplex oil strainers Observe general boiler performance Lift the safety valves by hand Inspect and clean burner oil solenoid valves B Flame failure in an operating automatically fired auxiliary boiler can result from a _____________.
A. phosphate treatment B. zero water hardness C. dissolved oxygen deaeration D. frequent bottom blows Ans: A When checking for the presence of sulphite in the feedwater of an 1111 auxiliary boiler, you are in essence checking ____________. A. to ensure the compound additions are adequate for controlling dissolved oxygen B. to ensure the compound additions are adequate for control of pH C. the hardness of the makeup feed water D. to ensure the automatic or manual blowdown rate and frequency is adequate for control of total dissolved solids Ans: A A safety valve on an auxiliary boiler simmers constantly and can not 1113 be stopped by sev eral quick blow-offs using the hand relieving gear. The problem may be __________. loose dirt on the seat exposed valve springs a clogged drain line a damaged seat D The water in a steaming auxiliary boiler should be tested daily for ______________. A. dissolved oxygen B. chlorides C. sludge D. dissolved nitrogen Ans: B Which of the following actions should be taken when an auxiliary boiler is operation? A. Clean all electrical connections. B. Lift the relief valves by hand. C. Inspect and clean all solenoid valves. D. Inspect for oil and water leaks. Ans: D Improper maintenance of an automatic auxiliary boiler oil burner could result in ______________. A. fuel pump failure B. fan motor failure C. increased feedwater consumption D. decreased boiler efficiency Ans: D In a fire-tube auxiliary boiler, you should expect to find the thickest scale on the waterside of the ____________. A. crown sheet B. through stays C. hydrokineter D. belly plug Ans: A If the feed pump for an auxiliary boiler fails to deliver the feed water to the boiler, the cause m ay be ____________. A. high steam pressure in the boiler B. abnormally high feedwater temperature C. abnormally high boiler water temperature D. steam demand exceeding feed pump capacity Ans: B Which of the following actions should normally be taken during each watch when the auxiliary boiler is operation? A. B. C. D. Ans: 1115
1117
1119
1121
1123
1125
Test boiler water alkalinity Inspect and clean burner fuel oil solenoid valves Lift the safety valves by hand Blowdown the water gauge glass D An automatically fired auxiliary boiler with carbon deposits formed 1127 on its burner electrodes, will experience _________. A. flame failure B. ignition failure C. panting of the furnace D. sputtering of the burner flame Ans: B Oxygen corrosion in auxiliary boilers is prevented by treating the 1129 boiler feed tank with either sodium ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
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broken electrode insulator A. sulfite or hydrazine faulty steam pressure signal to the trial for ignition circuit B. sulfite or hygroscopic sulfite broken 2000 volt supply lead C. bromide or hydrazine clogged fuel nozzle D. bromide or hygroscopic sulfite D Ans: A A firebox explosion in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler may be 1131 Why should handhole gaskets not be allowed to leak on an auxiliary 1130 the result of ______________. boiler? A. excessive purging before lighting off A. Water circulation in the boiler will be disrupted. B. insufficient trail for ignition period B. The gasket and its seating surface may become wire drawn. C. a faulty transformer in the ignition circuit C. The gasket material will become hardened. D. insufficient purging before lighting off D. Scale and sediment will form on the gasket. Ans: D Ans: B After lighting off a cold, automatically fired, auxiliary boiler, as steam 1133 During maintenance inspections of a fire tube auxiliary boiler, you 1132 begins to form, you should ___________. should check for _____________. A. close the air cock A. weaking of the tubes at the tube sheet B. give the boiler a bottom blow B. burning of tube ends C. test the safety valve C. fireside corrosion D. completely open the steam stop D. all of the above Ans: A Ans: D If poor combustion occurs in an auxiliary boiler due to an air damper 1135 Before any work is to be carried out on a burner in an automatically 1134 linkage being out of adjustment, you would adjust the linkage and fired auxiliary boiler, you should always _____________. then _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1136
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1138
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1140 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1142
reset the pressure limit controls test the high and low fire s olenoids check the photocell window for carbon deposits check the burner ignition electrode gap C The pH value of water in a diesel engine closed cooling water system should be m aintained between _____________. 6.0 to 7.5 8.0 to 9.5 10.0 to 11.5 12.0 to 13.5 B The boiler water alkalinity in a coil-type auxiliary boiler should be maintained at the pH recommended by the boiler manufacturer to _________________. precipitate silica from solution reduce corrosion in the heating coil prevent clogging and erosion in the coil maintain zero water hardness B The amount of chloride content in the water of an auxiliary boiler can be reduced by ____________. adding hydrazine blowing down the boiler adding phenolphthalein adding a sulfite chloride scavenger B In readying an auxiliary water-tube boiler for a routine hydrostatic test, which of the following procedures should be undertaken prior to filling the boiler with fresh water?
A. The safety valve escape piping should be disconnected from the valve body and a blank inserted. B. The boiler vent valves should be opened. C. All handhole/manhole covers should be tightened up as much as possible to preclude any leaks. D. All of the above. Ans: B The concentration of total dissolved solids in the water of an 1144 auxiliary boiler can increase as a result of __________. A. seawater contamination B. frequent surface blows C. dissolved oxygen deaeration D. frequent bottom blows Ans: A Before an auxiliary boiler is shutdown for an extended period of 1146 time, the water in the boiler should have a pH value of ____________. A. 10 B. 7 C. 4 D. 1 Ans: A
A. B. C. D. Ans:
allow the boiler to cool completely close all manually operated fuel valves lock all safety interlock switches closed block all control system relays closed B A dirty atomizer sprayer plate in the burner of an auxiliary boiler, would be indicated by ____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
carbon on the register doors a dazzling white atomizer flame fluctuating pressure in the windbox an unevenly shaped burner flame D A bypass line provided around a waste heat auxiliary boiler in a diesel engine exhaust system, may be used to avoid boiler ____________.
1137
1139
A. corrosion at low engine loads B. erosion at high engine loads C. overload at high engine loads D. scaling at all exhaust temperatures Ans: A Which of the following actions should normally be taken during 1141 each watch when the auxiliary boiler is in operation? A. Clean the flame sc anner photocell window. B. Inspect and clean all solenoid valves. C. Lift the safety valves by hand. D. Inspect for oil or water leaks Ans: D The correct procedure for giving an auxiliary boiler a bottom blow, 1143 is to begin _____________. A. when the boiler has been secured long enough for most solids to settle B. when the boiler has been cooled to ambient temperature C. only after raising the water level to within 1/2 inch of the high water cutout D. only after bypassing the low pressure pressostat Ans: A When an auxiliary boiler is secured and you expect to relight the 1145 unit within six hours, you should _____________. A. maintain a head of steam not less than 1kg/cm2 B. completely fill the boiler with feedwater C. flush the boiler and close the waterside airtight D. maintain steam pressure 1kg/cm2 below normal boiler load Ans: A Improper maintenance of the fuel oil burners in an automatically 1147 fired auxiliary boiler, could result in ____________. A. increased fuel consumption B. increased feedwater consumption C. fuel pump failure D. combustion control system failure Ans: A
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Excessive alkalinity of the water in an auxiliary boiler can cause ____________. A. caustic embrittlement of the boiler metal B. acidic corrosion of the boiler metal C. hard scale deposits on the boiler tubes D. etching of the heat exchange surfaces Ans: A The concentration of total dissolved solids in the water of an 1150 auxiliary boiler can increase as a result of ___________. A. seawater contamination B. frequent surface blows C. dissolved oxygen deaeration D. frequent bottom blows Ans: A Which of the following conditions could cause black smoke to be 1152 discharged from the stack of an auxiliary boiler equipped with turbine-driven rotary cup atomizers? 1148
Flame failure in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler can result from a/an ______________. A. incorrect electrode setting B. incorrect nozzle position C. clogged fuel nozzle D. broken high tension lead Ans: C The daily inspection of an operating auxiliary boiler should include 1151 ____________. A. lifting of all safety valves B. an examination of the boiler firesides C. checking for external fuel and water leaks D. measuring steam quality Ans: C Waterside scale in a fire-tube boiler may cause ___________. 1153 1149
A. Insufficient steam supply to the fuel oil heater. B. Excessive opening of the dampers in the combustion air inlet.
A. increased heat transfer B. fireside erosion
C. Improper turbine shaft speed in the atomizer assembly. C. high steam demand D. high drum water level D. overheated tubes Ans: C Ans: D A smoking burner with a pulsating flame in an auxiliary boiler, is an 1155 Which of the following conditions would cause "panting" in a 1154 indication that the ______________. steaming auxiliary boiler? A. fuel oil supply temperature is normal A. Insufficient combustion air B. burner electrode is incorrectly positioned B. Low water level C. fuel/air ratio is incorrect C. Flame failure D. ignition current is too low D. Faulty flame scanner Ans: C Ans: A If oil is dripping from the burner of a coil-type auxiliary steam Before any work is done on a burner in an automatically fired 1156 1157 generator, the cause may be _____________. auxiliary boiler, you should always ___________. A. the oil valve not seating properly A. block all control valves B. a loose burner nozzle B. allow the boiler to cool completely C. carbon on the burner nozzle causing deflection of oil spray C. lock all safety interlock switches closed D. all of the above D. close all manually operated fuel valves Ans: D Ans: D SCAVENGING,TURBOCHARGING AND AIRCOOLING Which of the two events listed occurs s imultaneously in a twoScavenging in a turbocharged, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is 1158 1159 stroke/cycle diesel engine? accomplished ___________. A. Exhaust and scavenging B. Scavenging and compression C. Ignition and expansion D. Exhaust and compression Ans: A Air scavenging of a diesel engine cylinder _____________. 1160 A. blows out the exhaust gases B. supplies oxygen for combustion C. cools the valves and cylinder walls D. all of the above Ans: D One characteristic of a pulse type turbocharging system is 1162 _____________. A. high average exhaust manifold pressure B. greatly fluctuating inlet manifold pressure C. constant exhaust manifold pressure D. multiple exhaust pipes to the turbocharger Ans: D Which of the following turbocharging systems channels the exhaust 1164 gases of each individual cylinder directly into the turbine rotor blades? Reaction Pulse Constant Pressure Variable pressure B Which of the following statements is correct regarding a turbocharged four-stroke/cycle diesel generator? A. At zero load the intake manifold pressure is greater than the exhaust manifold pressure. B. At full load the intake manifold pressure and exhaust manifold pressure are equal. C. At full load the intake manifold pressure is less than the exhaust manifold pressure. D. At full load the intake manifold pressure is greater than the exhaust manifold pressure.
A. during the valve overlap period B. with only the exhaust valve open C. at a pressure below atmospheric D. without cooling the cylinders or pistons Ans: A A diesel engine is supercharged in order to _____________. 1161 A. lower the no-load RPMs B. provide more air for c ombining with the fuel C. increase the no-load RPMs D. provide more fuel for combining with the air Ans: B Which of the listed types of superchargers will NOT have a 1163 volumetric capacity proportional to engine speed? A. Exhaust gas turbocharger B. Roots blower C. Piston type blower D. Vane type blower Ans: A A turbocharged, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine has a larger valve 1165 overlap than a naturally aspirated four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, in order to increase the ______________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1166
temperature of the exhaust gases energy supplied to the turbocharger air pressure to the intake manifold purge of exhausted gases from the cylinders D Why will a turbocharged diesel engine produce black smoke if excessive additional load is applied too quickly? A. Exhaust energy would draw excess air.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1167
B. The inertia of the turbocharger rotor causes a time lag which delays the turbocharger speed increase. C. Exhaust gas pumping losses are increased due to turbine windage. D. Exhaust gas back pressure falls slightly due to increased nozzle action.
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1168
1170
1172
1174
1176
Ans: D A turbocharged diesel engine will have an intake manifold pressure _____________. A. constantly decreasing as engine load increases B. constantly increasing as the amount of supercharging increases C. approximately equal to exhaust manifold pressure at all times D. approximately equal to atmospheric pressure at all times Ans: B Which of the diesel engine components listed increases air density and helps to improve engine operating efficiency? A. Impeller B. Compressor C. Aftercooler D. Exhaust diffuser Ans: C What is the function of the aftercoolers installed in the diesel engine air intake system? A. Decrease the air density B. Increase the exhaust temperature C. Decrease the lube oil temperature D. Increase the air density Ans: D In a turbocharger, inlet air velocity is increased in the _____________. A. inlet nozzle ring B. stationary diffuser passages C. compressor outlet volute D. rotating impeller vanes Ans: D A Roots-type blower installed on some diesel engines, serves to _____________.
A. heat the cylinder for hotter compression B. push out exhaust gases and replace them with fresh air C. force cool air across the radiator, lowering the jacket water temperature D. maintain a positive charge of fresh air in the crankcase thus eliminating the chances of a crankc ase explosion Ans: B The small clearances existing between each of the blower lobes, 1178 and between the lobes and casing of a Roots-type blower, must be maintained to ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1180
provide for normal timing prevent blower oil leakage provide adequate blower lubrication prevent abnormal air leakage D Which of the following conditions can cause below normal air pressure in the intake manifold of a turbocharged diesel engine?
A. Excessive piston blow-by to the manifold. B. Insufficient cooling water flow. C. Accumulated water in the air boxes. D. Clogged air intake filters. Ans: D A sudden power loss from a turbocharged and aftercooled diesel 1182 engine is an indication of a/an ______________. A. turbocharger malfunction or failure B. crankcase exhauster overload C. overload on the intercooler D. obstruction in the engine cylinders Ans: A Which of the following terms best describes the Roots-type blower 1184 used to supercharge a diesel engine? A. Rotary vane B. Positive displacement C. Axial flow D. centrifugal Ans: B The speed of the turbocharger for a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine 1186 driving a generator at constant speed depends on the _____________. A. engine speed B. kilowatt load
1169
1171
1173
1175
1177
Ans: B A Roots-type blower installed on a direct reversible engine _____________. A. is engaged only when turning ahead B. is geared so that air flow through the blower is always in the same direction C. reverses rotation along with the engine D. exhausts to atmosphere when turning astern Ans: C Which of the engine components listed increases air charge density and helps to improve engine operating efficiency? A. Intake manifold B. Water-cooled exhaust system C. Aftercooler D. Exhaust diffuser Ans: C Which of the designs listed will keep the lobes from making contact in a Roots-type blower? A. Drive chain B. Blower timing gears C. Air trapped between blower lobes D. Oil filter between blower lobes Ans: B In a Roots-type rotary blower, the volume of air delivered is directly proportional to _____________. A. engine speed B. engine load C. brake horsepower D. brake specific fuel consumption Ans: A In a turbocharged four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, the exhaust valve remains open until after top dead center and the intake valve opens before top dead center to __________. A. produce a scavenging effect in the combustion space B. equalize cylinder and exhaust manifold pressures C. alleviate the difference in valve size between the intake and exhaust D. flush out condensate that collects after each compression stroke
1179
Ans: A Which of the following conditions may contribute to the formation of deposits on the blades of the turbocharger turbine?
A. Poor combustion B. High cylinder oil consumption C. Leaking exhaust valves D. All of the above. Ans: D If the turbocharger of a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine fails to 1181 operate, which of the following statements best describes the probable effect? Intake manifold pressure will be high. Intake manifold pressure will be unaffected. Exhaust temperatures will be high. Exhaust temperatures will be low. C Leaking oil seals on a diesel engine turbocharger can cause 1183 _____________. A. the engine to run after the fuel has been secured B. the engine to overspeed C. a fire D. all of the above Ans: D Exhaust gases are generally removed from the cylinders of a two1185 stroke/cycle diesel engine by ______________. A. natural aspiration B. masked intake valves C. air cells D. scavenging air Ans: D The principal difference between loop scavenging and crossflow 1187 scavenging, as used in single acting diesel engines, is the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. direction of air flow within the c ylinder B. sequence of port opening
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C. fuel injection pressure D. air intake manifold temperature Ans: B Scavenging in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine occurs during the 1188 _____________. A. last part of the exhaust stroke, and the first part of the intake stroke B. last part of the intake stroke only C. early part of the injection stroke only D. early part of the power stroke Ans: A Cooling the intake air supplied to a diesel engine will 1190 _____________. A. reduce mean effective pressure B. decrease average compression pressure C. decrease air charge density D. increase power output Ans: D Forcing the exhaust gases from the cylinder of an operating diesel 1192 engine with the aid of a blower is known as ________.
C. method of opening exhaust ports D. volume of air admitted to the cylinder Ans: A The term "diesel engine scavenging" means ____________. 1189 A. delivering more air into the cylinder than it would normally receive during an ordinary charging process B. forcing the products of combustion out of the cylinder with the fresh air charge C. collecting the air charge at the air cleaner D. combustion and expansion of hot gas Ans: B Which of the following conditions is indicated by the presence of 1191 water in the scavenging air receiver? A. Leaking cylinder head gaskets B. Leaking aftercooler C. Excessively low scavenge air temperature D. Auxiliary blower failure Ans: B "Loop," "uniflow," "crossflow," and "return-flow" are terms used to 1193 describe various types of _____________.
A. scavenging A. control air circuits B. forced draft B. supercharging C. turbocharging C. turbochargers D. aspiration D. scavenging Ans: A Ans: D The exhaust system for a turbocharged diesel engine functions to Which of the following beneficial results can be expected from 1194 1195 _____________. supercharging a previously naturally aspirated engine? A. power the aftercoolers A. Increased turbulence B. power the turbocharger B. Increased mechanical efficiency C. reduce the cylinder scavenge effect C. Increased brake mean effective pressure D. cool the turbocharger D. All of the above. Ans: B Ans: D Which of the following conditions is realized by the turbocharging of 1197 Which of the turbocharging systems listed operates with the least 1196 a previously naturally aspirated diesel engine? average back pressure in the exhaust manifold? A. B. C. D. Ans: 1198
Ignition lag increases. Lube oil system pressure increases. Brake specific fuel consumption increases. Mechanical efficiency increases. D The process of scavenging a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine serves to _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1199
Constant volume Constant pressure Pulse pressure Radial flow C Which of the turbocharging methods listed directs the exhaust gases to the turbine at fairly uniform velocity and pressure?
improve fuel flow volume A. Constant pressure cool the exhaust valves B. Pulse pressure reduce the intake air charge density C. Constant velocity increase the temperature of exhaust gases D. Axial flow B Ans: A When used in conjunction with a turbocharger, the main function of 1201 Intake air flow from a diesel engine turbocharger is directly 1200 an aftercooler is to ___________. proportional to engine __________. A. increase the density of the c ylinder air charge A. exhaust gas pressure B. prevent turbocharger overheating B. exhaust gas temperature C. eliminate the need for a precooler C. speed D. remove moisture from air compressed by the turbocharger D. load Ans: A Ans: D Some diesel engines are s upercharged with a _____________. The purpose of an aftercooler is to _____________. 1202 1203 A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
slam charger turbocharger fuel atomizer fuel injector B Most Roots-type blowers have two rotors which _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
are extremely quiet at high speed rotate in the same direction rotate in opposite directions decrease objectionable turbulence in the cylinders C In a diesel engine, a positive displacement type blower isusually ____________.
1204
1206
A. gear driven by the engine B. driven by an exhaust gas turbine
reduce the turbocharger operating temperature increase the pressure of the inlet air increase the density of the inlet air reduce the blower operating temperature C As engine RPM is increased from idle speed to full load speed, 1205 which of the c onditions listed will decrease? A. Compression ratio B. Fuel/Air ratio C. Compression pressure D. Lube oil pressure Ans: B The high air velocity leaving the compressor of an exhaust gas 1207 turbocharger is converted to pressure in the __________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. inlet nozzle ring B. turbine wheel blading
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1208
1210
1212
1214
C. driven by a camshaft D. driven by separate motor Ans: A Turbocharged four-stroke/cycle diesel engines utilize valve overlap for _____________. A. improving cylinder scavenging B. preheating the combustion chamber C. reducing air charge density D. preventing valve wear Ans: A If the turbocharger failed on an auxiliary diesel engine, which of the following conditions would probably occur? A. Full power cannot be developed. B. The exhaust will contain black smoke. C. Complete combustion will be impossible. D. All of the above. Ans: D A thin film of oil on the lobes of a Roots-type blower indicates _____________. A. proper lubrication B. timing out of adjustment C. excessive cylinder lubrication D. leaking rotor bearing oil seals Ans: D During the valve overlap period, the exhaust pressure of a turbocharged, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine must be less than the intake manifold pressure to ensure ___________.
A. effective cylinder scavenging and cooling B. constant pressure from the turbochargers C. cooler operation of the exhaust system D. effective constant pressure for turbocharger operation Ans: A In a multi-cylinder, constant pressure, turbocharged diesel engine, 1216 the combined exhaust temperature at the turbocharger inlet reads higher than the individual cylinder exhausts. This means the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1218 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1220
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1222 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1224
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1226
1209
1211
1213
1215
C. diffuser passages D. inlet volute Ans: C The compression of air in a positive displacement rotary supercharging blower, occurs only _____________. A. between the rotating blower lobes B. between the casing and blower lobes C. after the engine reaches operating speed D. as air moves into the discharge passage Ans: D The power consumed during the scavenging process of a diesel engine is known as the _____________. A. scavenging loss B. valve loss C. back pressure loss D. pumping loss Ans: D In a main propulsion turbocharged diesel engine, the speed of the turbocharger varies according to the _____________. A. governor droop B. speeder spring tension C. fuel rack lag D. load on the engine Ans: D Large, two-stroke/cycle, main propulsion, diesel engine cylinders can be succes sfully pressure charged during normal operation, by using the ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
1217
exhaust gas temperature system exhaust load system constant or pulse pressure system constant volume system C When would the available energy of the exhaust gases of a twostroke/cycle diesel engine be insufficient to drive an exhaust gas turbocharger, resulting in the incorrect amount of air for combustion?
combined exhaust pyrometer is defective combined exhaust pyrometer is reading normally turbine blades are coated with carbon turbine is overheating B In a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine, the process of scavenging begins as the ________. piston nears and passes TDC early part of the upstroke piston passes BDC early part of the downstroke B The power output of a turbocharged diesel engine will drop if the cooling water flow through the aftercooler is interrupted because the _____________.
A. During operation at low speed B. During operation at rated speed, but low power output C. During acceleration D. All of the above Ans: D The process of s upplying a diesel engine cylinder with air at a 1219 pressure greater than atmospheric is called _________. A. engine displacement B. super-aspirating C. air injection D. supercharging Ans: D A supercharged diesel engine, when compared to a similar naturally 1221 aspirated diesel engine, will develop an increase in _____________.
turbocharger stalls exhaust pressure increases air charge density decreases scavenge effect increases C If the speed of a turbocharged diesel engine is maintained constant the turbocharger speed will _____________. decrease until the engine speed increases increase as the load increases decrease as the load increases remeins unchanged as the load decreases B Which of the following devices will increase the power output of a diesel engine without increasing its frictional load?
ignition lag engine horsepower lube oil system pressure specific fuel consumption B Compared to a naturally aspirated diesel engine, a supercharged 1223 diesel engine has _____________. A. a cylinder air charge of higher pressure B. increased pumping losses C. less valve overlap D. educed blowby Ans: A The relative air pressure in the inlet manifold of a turbocharged 1225 diesel engine is usually _____________.
Positive displacement blower Roots-type rotary blower Gear-driven centrifugal blower turbine-driven centrifugal blower D Which of the Roots blower rotors listed below, will supply air to a two-stroke/cycle, medium-speed, diesel engine with the least amount of turbulence and pulsation?
A. greater than the average exhaust m anifold pressure B. less than the average exhaust manifold pressure C. greater at the turbine wheel than at the impeller D. greater at reduced engine speed Ans: A The function of the aftercooler installed between the turbocharger 1227 and intake manifold on some diesel engines, is to _____________.
A. Three-helical lobes B. Two-helical lobes
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. increase the density of the intake air B. decrease turbocharger power usage
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1228
1230
1232
1234
C. Three-cylindrical lobes D. Two-cylindrical lobes Ans: A Performance of a turbocharged engine can be improved by _____________. A. decreasing the amount of valve overlap B. preheating the air intake C. aftercooling the intake air D. preheating light fuels Ans: C The air supplied to the cylinders by a turbocharger is often reduced in volume by a/an ______________. A. air compressor B. diffuser C. aftercooler D. venturi Ans: C Some diesel engines are equipped with a Roots-type blower to provide ______________. A. more air to combine with the fuel B. more amps per kilowatt hour C. higher no-load RPMs D. higher voltage output Ans: A When the load is increased on a turbocharged diesel engine, the amount of increased air supplied by the turbocharger will _____________.
1229
1231
1233
1235
A. lag behind the increased fuel supplied to the engine
C. reduce exhaust gas temperature D. compensate for turbocharger RPM fluctuations Ans: A Aftercooling of a turbocharged diesel engine will result in _____________. A. higher torque but lower brake horsepower B. lower torque but higher brake horsepower C. higher torque and higher brake horsepower D. lower torque and lower brake horsepower Ans: C The lobes of a Roots-type blower are sometimes twisted into a spiral formed around the axes of rotation to ____________. A. decrease air losses around the lobes B. decrease maintenance C. allow for higher blower operating speeds D. produce a more c onstant airflow Ans: D An aftercooler installed between the turbocharger and the cylinder air inlet _____________. A. increases the density of the air B. decreases the density of the air C. increases the specific heat of the air D. decreases the specific heat of the exhaust Ans: A The large number of mechanical and pulsating vibrations developed in a diesel engine may damage an attached _____________. A. scavenged air pump because it is designed for steady state operation rather than pulsating gas load B. reciprocating scavenge pump because of its direct linkage to the crankshaft C. rotary blower because it operates at close tolerances over a small range of speeds and delivers its air charge at a certain resonant frequency
B. enter the engine along with the increase in fuel C. enter the engine before the increased fuel s upply
D. leave the turbocharger as a negative pulse
D. gas driven turbocharger because it has a wide speed range and high temperature materials that are subject to resonant vibration
Ans: A
Ans: D TURBOCHARGER AND AIRCOOLER - MAINTENANCE When the timing gear backclearance for a Roots-type blower has If over a period of weeks the air-box pressure of a turbocharged, 1237 become excessive, the problem is properly repaired by diesel engine, operating at full load, appears to be dropping off, the _____________. cause can be _____________.
1236
renewing the drive gear renewing the driven gear renewing both driving and driven gears as a set shimming and pinning the gears with proper backc learance C Which of the following conditions would require the removal of a 1238 turbocharger for repair? A. Nicked blades B. Broken blades C. Stretched blades D. All of the above Ans: D Following the failure of one turbocharger on a large, crosshead, 1240 main propulsion diesel engine, fitted with multiple turbochargers, which of the following actions should be taken prior to further operation of the engine? A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. Blank off the exhaust gas inlet to the damaged turbocharger. B. Secure cooling and lubrication to the damaged turbocharger. C. Lock the rotor of the damaged turbocharger. D. All of the above. Ans: D An operating turbocharged diesel engine that suddenly loses 1242 power, is due to a/an _____________. A. restricted turbocharger air intake B. oil leak into the turbocharger C. dribbling injector D. low fuel viscosity Ans: A Which of the following precautions should be taken when cleaning 1244 the air filter on a diesel engine equipped with a turbocharger? A. Reduce engine speed to idle before removing the filter. B. Soak the dirty filter in kerosene only. C. Blow out the air inlet with compressed air.
open air-box drains loss of cooling water to the diffuser gradual fouling of the air filters improperly timed exhaust valves C If you observe smoke coming from the turbocharger of an auxiliary 1239 diesel engine, you should ______________. A. check the air filter for obstruction B. check for an exhaust leak C. check the exhaust temperature D. secure the engine Ans: D Corrosion and grooving on the blading of an exhaust driven 1241 turbocharger is caused by c ertain components of residual fuel oils. These components are vanadium, sodium, and ________________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1243 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1245
copper carbon hydrogen sulphur D While maneuvering, you discover heavy smoke coming from the turbocharger casing, you should ____________. check the air filter for dirt check for an exhaust leak check the cooling water temperature notify the bridge that you are going to shut the engine down D Which of the listed adjustments must be made to a naturally aspirated four-stroke/cycle diesel engine if a turbocharger is to be installed?
A. Increase the compression ratio. B. Increase the exhaust and intake valve overlap. C. Increase the ignition lag.
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D. cover the air inlet after removing the filter Ans: D Which of the following problems can cause an above normal air 1246 temperature to develop in the intake manifold of a turbocharged and aftercooled diesel engine?
D. Decrease the amount of exhaust and intake valve overlap Ans: B Which condition indicates the air side fouling of an aftercooler on a 1247 turbocharged diesel engine?
A. Faulty turbocharger turbine diffuser ring
A. An increased air temperature differential between the cooler inlet and outlet. B. Faulty turbocharger compressor ring B. A decrease in the air pressure differential across the cooler. C. Insufficient cooling water flow C. Excessive condensate forming in the air box. D. Clogged air intake filters D. A decrease in the temperature differential between the cooler inlet and outlet Ans: C Ans: D A turbocharged and aftercooled diesel engine can overspeed due Which of the following conditions may be attributed to a fouled 1248 1249 to _____________. turbocharger compressor inlet screen or filter? A. air in the hydraulic governor A. Decreasing scavenge air pressure. B. high ambient air temperature B. Increasing exhaust temperatures before the turbine. C. oil leaking into the turbocharger compressor end C. Reduction in engine speed. D. insufficient piston ring blow-by D. All of the above Ans: C Ans: D GOVERNOR AND OVERSPEED CONTROL Diesel engines driving alternators operating in parallel must Increasing the load on an engine equipped with a constant speed 1250 1251 maintain a set frequency regardless of load changes. The governor mechanical governor, will cause the engine speed to initially characteristic used to accomplish this is known as ____________. ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1252
actuation sensitivity compensation promptness C How is the diesel engine operating RPM affected when a "ZERO DROOP" setting is selected on the governor?
1253
increase decrease fluctuate remain constant B If the main propulsion diesel engine governor works irregularly with a jerking motion, a possible cause can be _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
The RPM will drop to low idle when load is applied. The RPM must be manually controlled by the load limit knob. The governor has no control over RPM in this mode. The RPM will remain the same with or without load. D On a diesel engine equipped with an isochronous governor, if the "speed droop" control is reduced to the "zero" setting, the engine _____________.
A. a sticking fuel control linkage B. a malfunctioning overload cam C. an unlocked overspeed trip D. floating valves Ans: A The required amount in the change of speed necessary before a 1255 governor will make a corrective movement is known as _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
speed will drop drastically with any increase in load will stop due to zero fuel supply will stall upon application of load speed will remain fairly constant despite load changes D Air bubbles in a hydraulic governor can cause _____________.
speed droop sensitivity stability promptness B Which of the listed governor operating characteristics is considered 1257 to be isochronous? A. Zero speed droop B. Positive speed droop C. Negative speed droop D. Varying speed droop Ans: A A continuous fluctuation of the speed, due to overcontrol by the 1259 governor, is known as _____________. A. hunting B. sensitivity C. promptness D. speed droop Ans: A After each speed change, the compression of the diesel engine 1261 governor speeder spring is returned to a constant value, regardless of the amount of movement of the fuel control mechanism and engine load. Hence, this results in ____________.
1254
1256
A. sluggish response B. speed droop variations C. isochronous governing D. sensitivity increase Ans: A Governor hunting is caused by _____________. 1258 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1260
A. B. C. D. Ans:
governor undercontrol excessive speed droop insufficient speed droop governor overcontrol D A direct acting, pneumatically controlled governor for a diesel engine operates in a range of 0.7 to 3.5 bar. The fuel rack position is at 20 mm when the governor air pressure is 2.1bar. If the governor air pressure changes to 1.4 bar, the fuel rack is at
A. 13 millimeters B. 17 millimeters C. 22 millimeters D. 24 millimeters Ans: A An overspeed trip stops a diesel engine when the engine 1262 _____________. A. runs out of fuel B. has low lubricating oil pressure C. exceeds a set maximum speed D. has high cooling water temperature Ans: C
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1263 A. B. C. D. Ans:
speed droop governing isochronous governing high sensitivity governing relay-type governing B In a simple hydraulic governor with speed droop, oil under pressure is maintained ready for use in the _____________. power piston governor sump spring-loaded piston accumulator pressure pilot valve assembly C
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Internal combustion engines are to be fitted with governors to prevent the engines from exceeding the rated speed by more than ______.
1264
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1266
10 percent A. Sensitivity 15 percent B. Power 20 percent C. Speed droop 25 percent D. Compensation B Ans: C When the prime movers of two paralleled generators are equipped 1267 A change in engine speed is required before a governor is able to with mechanical-hydraulic governors, and are operating within their make a corrective movement of fuel rack. This aspect of governing designed range, the unit with the least amount of speed droop will is commonly expressed as a percent and is k nown as ____________. _______________.
A. pick up more of any increase in load B. pick up less of any increase in load C. share an equal amount of any increase in load D. drop an equal amount of any decrease in load Ans: A The direct acting mechanical governor used with some small diesel 1268 engines, controls fuel flow to the engine by _____________. A. governor flyweight action on a pilot valve which controls fuel injection B. governor flyweight motion acting on fuel controls through suitable linkage C. positioning a butterfly valve in the fuel delivery s ystem D. positioning a servomotor piston attached to the fuel controls Ans: B The ability of the governor to prevent fluctuations in engine speed 1270 is termed _____________. A. sensitivity B. stability C. promptness D. speed droop Ans: B For most diesel propulsion and generator engines, the overspeed 1272 trip device will stop the engine by ____________. A. moving the governor control to stop B. shutting off the lubricating oil supply C. tripping the governor emergency stop lever D. shutting off the fuel supply Ans: D An AC diesel generator incapable of being paralleled with the main 1274 bus normally employs an isochronous governor in order to _____________. increase speed droop in proportion to load maintain a frequency of 60 cycles per second increase or decrease engine speed upon load demand prevent attempts to parallel B In a simple mechanical gov ernor, the _____________. A. centrifugal force rotates the ball-head B. flyweight centrifugal force is balanced by spring force C. flyweight centrifugal force is balanced by hydraulic pressure
A. governor sensitivity B. governor promptness C. speed droop D. isochronous governing Ans: A Sensitivity for a diesel engine governor is described as the 1269 _____________. A. percent of speed change necessary for corrective action by the fuel control B. ability to maintain desired engine speed without speed fluctuation C. governor's speed of response to variations in engine load D. ability to maintain constant speed regardless of engine load Ans: A An overcorrecting and unstable engine governor operation is known 1271 as ____________. A. droop B. dead banding C. dash potting D. hunting Ans: D A directly connected or geared main propulsion diesel engine 1273 should be fitted with a/an ____________. A. constant speed governor B. variable speed governor C. isochronous hunting governor D. nutating disk governor Ans: B Which of the speeder springs listed is more suitable for a governor 1275 installed on an engine operating over a wide speed range?
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1276
D. speeder spring alone actuates the fuel control rod Ans: B If the speeder spring of a main propulsion diesel engine governor 1278 breaks while operating at full load, the engineRPM will __________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1280 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1282
Which of the listed governor characteristics will greatly affect the load sharing relationship between paralleled diesel generators?
1265
increase until the overspeed trip actuated hunt until stabilized by the droop rod decrease to a slightly lower value remain the same until manually changed C The hunting of a diesel engine may be caused by ___________. excessive speed droop insufficient speed droop excessive sensitivity low governor power D Which of the following statements best describes the operational characteristics of an isochronous governors?
Spiral Conical Cylindrical Helical B An overspeed trip serves to _____________. A. stop the engine by cutting off the cooling water supply B. stop the engine by closing the air intake C. slow the engine but not stop it
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1277
D. slow the engine to half of normal load Ans: B A diesel engine is equipped with an isochronous hydraulic governor. 1279 A decrease in load will cause the engine speed to ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
decrease only increase only decrease slightly then returned to original speed remein constant D If an engine operates at 900 RPM at no load, and at 870 RPMat full load, the speed droop is _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
0.031 0.034 0.037 0.04 B A diesel engine is fitted with a pneumatically actuated governor, having an operating range of 0.7 to4.2 bar. The current fuel rack setting is 15 mm at 2.1bar. If the air pressure to the governor is increased to 2.8 bar, the fuel rack position is
1281
1283
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A. They are suitable for use on main propulsion units. B. They strive to maintain a constant prime mover speed for all values of steady load. C. They cause a proportional drop in prime mover speed as the load is increased. D. They have poor sensitivity at low RPM Ans: B Governors used on diesel engines to limit the load must be 1284 equipped with _____________. A. a fixed maximum fuel stop B. a variable maximum fuel stop C. pivotless centrifugal flyballs D. a proportional action compensation mechanism Ans: B Which of the following devices is common to both mechanical and 1286 hydraulic governors?
D. 20 mm Ans: D The principal characteristic of an isochronous governor is it will 1285 _____________. A. slow the machine down as the load is increased B. shut down the engine if it ov erspeeds C. display excessive speed droop D. maintains a constant speed with variation of loads Ans: D Which of the following devices is a common basic element with 1287 nearly all mechanical governors?
A. Direct linkage between the ball-head and fuel rack B. A servomotor C. A compensating device D. Flyweights Ans: D On most diesel engines, the governor controls the output speed by 1288 _____________. A. controlling the amount of fuel injected into the cylinders B. varying the speed of the turbocharger C. adjusting the compression ratio D. changing the timing of the fuel injection cams haft Ans: A Which of the items listed causes a direct acting mechanical 1290 governor to operate the engine fuel control linkage?
Power piston Control rack Weights acted on by centrifugal force Isochronous droop spring C The governor controlling a diesel engine modulates crankshaft 1289 RPM by adjusting the _____________. A. intake air supply B. turbocharger speed C. fuel injection pumps D. engine speed droop Ans: C A spring-loaded centrifugal flyweight governor responds to reduced 1291 engine load with an immediate increase in _________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1292
Hydraulic oil pressure Servomotor action Flyweight centrifugal force Relay motion C A diesel generator has just been paralleled with an AC turbogenerator, but the load can not be properly divided. This could be caused by _____________.
A. an incorrect diesel generator governor speed droop adjustment B. a faulty reverse power relay within the main circuit breaker assembly C. unsynchronized isochronous load distribution adjustments
D. a different speed setting on each unit
A. 10 mm B. 14 mm C. 15 mm
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1293
pilot valve oil pressure speeder spring force compensation needle valve clearance centrifugal force on the fly weights D In addition to the normal governor, each main engine havinga maximum continuous output of 300 hp and over, which canbe declutched or which drives a controllable pitchpropeller, ______________.
A. is not required to have any additional overspeed protection provided a hydraulic governor is used B. and is a direct reversible engine, is required to have an overspeed trip set to secure the fuel to the engine when its rated speed is exceeded by more than 15 percent C. is to be fitted with a separate overspeed device so adjusted that the speed cannot exceed the maximum rated speed by more than 20 percent D. will not require any additional overspeed protection provided a mechanical type governor is used Ans: C
Ans: A The overspeed trip device installed in some diesel engines is automatically actuated by _____________. A. spring force B. hydraulic pressure C. centrifugal force D. mechanical linkage Ans: C GOVERNOR - MAINTENANCE The most common contaminate of governor hydraulic fluid is The purpose of the compensating adjustment used in a diesel 1295 1296 ____________. engine hydraulic governor is to _____________. A. moisture A. compensate for low oil level B. dirt B. increase governor promptness C. acid C. prevent governor hunting D. air D. limit engine load Ans: B Ans: C During a routine round of a diesel engine generator, you observe a A large change in ambient temperature, or using an oil of a viscosity 1297 1298 low oil level in the governor sump. If there is no visible sign of different than the one recommended by the manufacturer in a external leakage, you should suspect the cause to be a/an mechanical hydraulic governor, will result in the need to adjust the ________. ____________. 1294
A. leakage through the governor drive shaft oil seal B. leakage through the power piston oil seal C. uncovered sight glass ventilation orifice D. defect in the sight glass gasket Ans: A
A. B. C. D. Ans:
pilot valve opening compensating needle valve compensating spring tension accumulator spring tension B
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Where one or more diesel driven AC generators are operating in parallel, reducing the value of the speed droop to "zero" on one unit will allow that unit to ____________.
1299
A. B. C. D.
1301
gradually reduce its speed as load is applied change load without changing speed automatically divide and balance the loads effectively anticipate the amount of fuel necessary to bring the engine up to the proper output to accept the increased load
Ans: B If the compensating needle valve of a hydraulic governor is opened more than necessary the governor will _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1303
have a larger than normal dead band produce excessive speed response to a load change respond slowly to any change in engine load stabilize engine speed at the new governor setting B Trapped air was bled from the hydraulic system of a diesel engine governor while it had been operating at idle s peed. Oil was added to restore the correct level and the air vent plug tightened. The compensating needle valve should then be gradually ______
A. opened until hunting is eliminated B. closed until it is approximately 1/16 of a turn open C. closed to cause the engine to hunt in order to purge trapped air from the new oil D. closed until engine hunting is eliminated Ans: D Friction developing between the moving parts of a governor, 1305 governor linkage and control valve will cause the governor to _________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1307
react with insufficient speed droop fail to react to small speed changes have excessive sensitivity to small speed changes remain in the neutral position B The major cause of trouble in a mechanical-hydraulic governor is contamination of the hydraulic fluid by _____________.
A. dirt B. fuel oil C. governor cooling water D. fuel oil tars Ans: A On a diesel engine equipped with a hydraulic speed control 1309 governor, hunting in many cases can be corrected by adjusting the _____________.
Which of the following adjustments is always required whenever the diesel engine governor oil has been drained and renewed?
1300
A. B. C. D.
1302
Speed droop Compensation Idle speed setting Load limit control
Ans: B If the load on a diesel engine equipped with an isochronous hydraulic governor is increased, after compensation is performed by the governor, the engine speed will __________.
A. remain the same B. increase C. decrease D. fluctuate Ans: A If a hydraulic governor has been refilled with oil, the engine should 1304 be operated until it reaches normal temperature, then the air should be purged, and the _______.
A. rack position should be adjusted B. compensating needle valve should be opened fully C. compensating needle valve should be adjusted to stabilize operation D. speed limiting device should be adjusted Ans: C If the operating speed of a diesel engine increases without an 1306 apparent change in the engine control settings, you may suspect a ________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
clogged intake air intercooler control air leak leaking air starting valve malfunctioning governor D Adjustments to the compensating needle valve in a hydraulic governor should be made with the engine at _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
maximum power at a normal load maximum power and load under normal conditions half speed and normal temperature normal operating temperature without a load D A diesel generator governor is hunting. After changing the oil the governor is flushed and the compensation needle valve is adjusted; but the hunting persists. You should NOW _____________.
1308
1310
accumulator spring compression A. check air intake manifold pressure balance piston B. calibrate the fuel pump rack s ettings compensating needle valve C. set the speed droop adjustment to zero proportional piston D. carefully check for binding in the gov ernor linkage C Ans: D Compensating needle valve adjustments to a hydraulic governor If a main propulsion diesel engine hunts excess ively at idle speed, 1311 1312 should be made with the engine _____________. you should ____________. A. running at normal operating temperature without load A. adjust the idle speed control B. running at half speed and at normal temperature B. drain and flush the governor and replace the oil C. running at maximum power and load under normal conditions C. adjust the compensating needle valve D. developing maximum power at normal load D. adjust the load limit Ans: A Ans: C FOUR STROKE ENGINES - DESIGN,COMPONENTS AND OPERATION Which of the following methods is normally used to lubricate Clearance volume scavenging in a turbocharged, four1313 1314 bearings in a small high-speed diesel engine? stroke/cycle diesel engine is accomplished ___________. A. Spclearance lubrication A. during the valve overlap period B. Pressure lubrication B. with only the exhaust valve open C. Sight feed lubricators C. at a pressure below atmospheric D. Mechanical lubricators D. without cooling the cylinders or pistons Ans: B Ans: A Trunk-type diesel engine pistons are most effectively cooled by The reversing cams of some four-stroke/cycle diesel engines are 1315 1316 heat _____________. brought into position by ____________. A. conducted through the engine block A. sliding the camshaft along its axis B. conducted to water cooled cylinder walls B. rotating the cam 180° C. conducted through the piston crown C. rotating the cam followers 180° D. losses to escaping exhaust gases D. moving the idler sprockets in the drive chain A. B. C. D. Ans:
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1317
Ans: B Which of the following conditions can cause above normal air temperature to develop in the intake manifold of a fourstroke/cycle, turbocharged, diesel engine?
A. Clogged air intake filters B. Piston blow-by C. A defective aftercooler D. Faulty exhaust valves Ans: C Trunk type diesel engine pistons are effectively cooled when heat is 1319 ____________. A. radiated through the engine block B. transferred to water cooled c ylinder walls C. conducted through the piston crown D. transferred to escaping exhaust gases Ans: B Broken intake valve springs on one cylinder of a diesel engine can 1321 cause the engine to _____________. A. overspeed B. fire improperly C. lose oil pressure D. overheat rapidly Ans: B When the cold tappet clearance is less than that specified by the 1323 engine manufacturer, the diesel engine valves will _____________.
1325
1327
1329
1331
1333
1335
A. open earlier than normal B. close earlier than normal C. remain open for a shorter duration D. fail to open when the valves are warm Ans: A Excessive lube oil consumption can result from worn or broken _____________. A. piston rings B. valve guides C. valve seals D. all of the above Ans: D Excessive lubricating oil consumption in a running diesel engine can be caused by _____________. A. clogged lube oil piping B. excessive valve-guide clearance C. high lube oil viscosity D. low lube oil temperature Ans: B The camshaft on a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is used to operate the _____________. A. fuel injectors B. exhaust valves C. intake valves D. all of the above Ans: D The force exerted by a valve spring to close the diesel engine valves, is proportional to _____________. A. spring compression B. engine speed C. the natural frequency of vibration D. spring surge Ans: A Spring surge in diesel engine valve springs can result in _____________. A. increasing effective spring force B. bouncing of the valve gear C. splitting of the valve keeper collars D. failure of the valve to open Ans: B The angular distance a flywheel rotates between the firing of the cylinders of a V-16, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
22.50‚ 33.75‚ 45.00‚ 90.00‚ C
1318
Ans: A How much will the jacket water temperature normallyincrease between the inlet and outlet of medium orhigh-speed diesel engines?
1° to 3°C 3° to 5°C 5° to 10°C 15° to 25°C C Ring groove inserts are occ asionally used on aluminum alloy 1320 pistons to ____________. A. reduce the ring groove wear rate B. seal against crankcase vapors C. lessen the wear on aluminum parts of the cylinder D. allow for the greater expansion rate of aluminum Ans: A Excessive lube oil consumption in a diesel engine can be caused by 1322 _____________. A. late combustion B. plugged oil wiper rings C. low lube oil temperature D. low lube oil pressure Ans: B During the power stroke of a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, most 1324 of the side thrust of a trunk-type piston is absorbed by the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
1326
1328
1330
1332
1334
1336
A. piston skirt B. pinion C. crosshead D. compression rings Ans: A Excessive piston ring wear in a diesel engine will cause _____________. A. high lube oil viscosity B. increased lube oil consumption C. low lube oil temperatures D. high firing pressures Ans: B In a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, badly worn intake valve guides can cause excessive ____________. A. exhaust pressure B. exhaust temperatures C. cooling water temperatures D. lube oil consumption Ans: D A diesel engine valve spring is under compression when thevalve is _________. I. open II. closed A. I only B. II only C. both I and II D. neither I nor II Ans: C Exhaust pipes for separate diesel engines can be combined only when _____________. A. space limitations prevent separately run pipes B. the engines are small auxiliary units C. they are arranged to prevent gas backflow to each engine D. a waste heat boiler is installed Ans: C The satisfactory operation of diesel engine exhaust valves usually depends on ______________. A. the proper back pressure B. the cooling water temperature C. correct timing and proper seating D. accurate metering and the exhaust temperature Ans: C On a medium-speed main propulsion diesel engine, the crankpin or crank journal bearings receive lubricating oil from _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
a spindle lubricator an oil jet internal spclearanceing drilled passages in the crankshaft D
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In comparison to exhaust valves, intake valves of diesel engines may be fabricated from low-alloy steels because _____________.
1337
A. the beveled edges of the intake valves provide for self-centering during seating B. intake valves utilize stellite-coated valve seat inserts which reduce wear C. the volume of air passing through intake valves is less than the volume of air passing through exhaust valves D. intake valves are less affected to the corrosive action of exhaust gases Ans: D Before shutting off the fuel supply to stop a medium or high-speed 1339 diesel engine, why is it necessary to allow the engine to idle for a few minutes? A. To let the waste heat boiler reduce it's rate of steam generation. To ensure the fuel nozzles are flushed clean. To clear the smoke stack. To prevent internal damage from local ov erheating. D In a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, the camshaft rotates at 1341 _____________. A. twice the crankshaft speed B. half the crankshaft speed C. the same speed as the crankshaft D. a speed independent of the crankshaft Ans: B A piston in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine makes four strokes 1343 during each __________. A. crankshaft revolution B. mechanical cycle of operation C. period of two combustion cycles D. cycle of two events Ans: B Regarding jerk-type fuel pumps as used on some auxiliary diesel 1345 engines, the delivery cutoff point is controlled with a _____________. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1347
delivery valve spring spill port for leakoff check valve in the guide helical groove on the plunger D The firing order of an in-line, four-stroke/cycle, six cylinder, auxiliary diesel engine is 1-5-3-6-2-4. When the #1 cylinder is firing at top dead center, the #3 piston is ____________.
A. on the intake stroke B. on top dead center C. on the power stroke D. at bottom dead center Ans: A Which of the following statements represents the advantage of a 1349 precombustion chamber used in an auxiliary diesel engine? A. Timing of injection does not need to be exact. B. Turbulence is eliminated. C. Lower mean effective pressures are developed. D. Excellent control of combustion can be attained. Ans: A The exhaust valve opens before bottom dead center in a four 1351 stroke engine to___________. I. allow for blow down II. reduce pumping losses
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1353 A. B. C. D.
I only II only both I and II neither I nor II C In order to keep excess oil from the intake ports in two-stroke/cycle diesel engines, ______________. wide compression rings are used oil rings are located above the piston pin dense chromium plating is used on all piston rings oil rings are located near the bottom of the piston skirt
Multiple concentric valve springs are often used with diesel engine valves to ____________.
1338
A. enable research and development of cam contour to be simplified B. operate the valve gear where a larger force is normally required, but space limitations restrict the use of a single large spring C. allow for easier valve replacement D. enable a total smaller valve spring force to keep the valve tight on its seat Ans: B Cooling water pumps driven by direct reversing diesel engines are 1340 usually of the straight impeller vane type pump with a concentric housing to ____________. A. provide cooling water flow when the engine is running either ahead or astern B. provide the greatest pump efficiency C. prevent pump clogging from marine growth D. prevent cavitation at the pump outlet Ans: A Fuel oil begins injection into the cylinder of a four-stroke/cycle diesel 1342 engine during the _____________. A. intake stroke B. exhaust stroke C. power stroke D. compression stroke Ans: D What is the speed of the crankshaft in a four-stroke/cycle engine 1344 when the camshaft is turning at 750 rpm? A. 375 RPM B. 500 RPM C. 750 RPM D. 1500 RPM Ans: D What is the crank angle between any two crank throws in the firing 1346 order of a four-stroke/cycle, in line, eight cylinder diesel engine? A. B. C. D. Ans:
45° 60° 90° 100° C Precombustion chambers, air cells, and energy c ells in high- speed, small bore diesel engines all serve to increase _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
firing pressure ignition quality of fuel fuel/air ratio during compression turbulence D In a full floating gudgeonpin, the pin is prevented from sliding against the cylinder walls by _____________.
1348
1350
A. snap rings B. seal welding C. a press fitting D. a tongue-and-groove Ans: A A V-12 four-stroke/cycle 500 horsepower diesel engine is operating 1352 under a normal load, the firing pressures are low and the exhaust temperatures are high. Which of the following problems is the most probable cause of this condition? A. B. C. D. Ans: 1354 A. B. C. D.
Fuel pump rack setting is too far out. The air intake filter is missing. The exhaust back pressure is too high. The fuel pump rack setting is too far in. C One advantage obtained from the use of a precombustion chamber in a diesel engine is _____________. increased engine thermal efficiency higher peak cylinder pressures higher developed BMEP smoother combustion
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1355
Ans: D The use of push rods are necess ary in a diesel engine when _____________. A. the camshaft is located some distance below the rocker arms
1356
B. the rocker arms are pivoted near their centers C. two or more valves must be opened and closed at the same time D. hydraulic tappet clearance adjusters are used Ans: A Proper lubrication of the main bearings is more easily obtained in a 1357 single acting four-stroke/cycle diesel engine than in a single acting two-stroke/cycle diesel engine because ____________.
B. Higher than normal temperatures for start up C. Longer starting periods D. Higher than normal lube oil pressure Ans: B Cams used to activate mechanically operated air starting valves on 1358 four-stroke/cycle diesel engines should have which of the valve lift profiles listed?
A. bearing pressure in a four-stroke/cycle single acting diesel engine is continually reversed B. bearing pressure in a two-stroke/cycle single acting diesel engine is continually reversed C. the maximum bearing pressure is higher in a single acting twostroke/cycle diesel engine D. two-stroke/cycle diesel enginesrequire more complicated lubrication piping Ans: A In a diesel engine, with the valves set to specification, the shape of 1359 the cam determines the valve _____________. A. point of opening B. speed of opening C. lift from its seat D. all of the above Ans: D A turbocharged, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine has a larger valve 1361 overlap than a naturally aspirated, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine in order to increase the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1363
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1365
temperature of the exhaust gases energy supplied to the turbocharger air pressure to the intake manifold cooling effect on the exhaust valves D Valves in the cylinder head of a diesel engine are opened by the direct action of the _____________. exhaust pressure valve spring pressure rocker arm movement gudgeon pin movement C A four-stroke/cycle six cylinder in-line diesel engine has a firing order of 153624. When cylinder #6 is firing at top dead center, piston #4 is ____________.
at top dead center on the compression stroke at bottom dead center on the intake stroke D In an auxiliary diesel engine bypass type lubricating oil system, the 1367 main lube oil pump forces _____________. A. all of the oil used by the engine through a filter B. some of the oil used by the engine through a filter C. some of the oil used by the engine through a centrifuge D. cylinder clearance volume Ans: B An inline engine having a 225mm bore and more than eight 1369 cylinders will _________. A. incorporate the use of two explosion relief valves B. have three explosion relief valves C. have at least eight explosion relief valves D. not be required to have explosion relief valves Ans: B An electric heater built into some smaller diesel engines is used to 1371 _____________. A. raise lube oil viscosity for easier starting in cold weather B. increase air inlet temperature C. increase compression ratio D. increase jacket water temperature for easier s tarting in cold weather Ans: D A. B. C. D. Ans:
Ans: D When attempting to restart a warm high-speed engine, which of the following reactions can you expect? A. Excessive fuel use
A. Abrupt lift with a short open period, and abrupt valve seating. B. Gradual lift with a short fully open period, and accelerated valve closing. C. Abrupt lift giving full valve opening for a long period, with gradual valve seating. D. Gradual lift giving full valve opening for a long period, with gradual valve seating. Ans: C Which type of gudgeon pin uses bearings in the piston bosses, but 1360 is fixed to the small end of the connecting rod? A. Semi-floating B. Full floating C. Solid D. Fixed Ans: A To reduce the weight of the reciprocating parts, pistons of high1362 speed engines are made considerably shorter. This results in _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
less piston slap and quieter running increased crankshaft bearing wear slightly greater piston wear decreased side pressures C High-speed, multi-cylinder, diesel engines c ommonly use counterweights placed opposite to the crankpins to ________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
prevent bearing loads provide dynamic balance by equalizing centrifugal force counteract inertia forces provide a balance of rocking couples around the crankshaft B In a diesel engine closed freshwater cooling system employing a radiator, proper water temperature can be obtained by _____________.
1364
1366
A. adjusting the radiator louvers B. passing cooling water through a space heater C. passing cooling water through the lube oil cooler D. piping exhaust gases across the radiator front Ans: A If a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is running at 1550 RPM, the 1368 speed of the cams haft will be _____________. A. 525 RPM B. 775 RPM C. 1550 RPM D. 1800 RPM Ans: B An advantage of aluminum pistons, when compared to cast iron 1370 pistons is _____________. A. greater high temperature strength B. better heat conductivity C. greater weight per cubic cm D. increased resistance to wear Ans: B In a bypass type filtering system for a medium or high speed diesel 1372 engine, the lube oil bypassing the filter __________. A. returns directly to the suction side of the pump B. returns directly to the sump C. flows to the engine bearings D. flows through a second-stage strainer, reheater, and returns to the sump Ans: C
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The camshaft on a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine provides a means to operate the _____________. A. fuel injectors B. exhaust valves C. intake valves D. all of the above Ans: D If fuel injection to a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine begins earlier 1375 than designed, ignition may be delayed because the ____________. 1373
A. cylinder compression pressure may not be high enough B. cylinder compression temperature may be too high C. fuel oil injection pressure may not be high enough D. scavenge and purge process is incomplete Ans: A One of the most common methods in prev enting a diesel engine 1377 piston pin from contacting the cylinder wall is by the use of ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1379
non-floating pin tape rod bosses snap rings offset drilling C Exhaust pipes of multiple engine installations are not to be interconnected, but are to be run separately to the atmosphere _______.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
supercharging scavenging turbulence swept volume charging C In the operating cycle of a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, blowdown to exhaust manifold pressure must occur before the piston begins the exhaust stroke to avoid _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
pressure losses exhaust pulsations excessive scavenging pumping losses D Proper lubrication of the main bearings is more easily obtained in a single acting, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine than in a twostroke/cycle diesel engine because __________.
1378
1380
A. unless arranged to prevent the return of gases to an idle engine
A. the direction of pressure on the journals in four-stroke engines is continuously reversing, whereas in two-stroke engines it is constant
B. to a point not lower than the highest load line
B. positive feed lubricators are installed on all bearings of four-stroke engines, whereas as a spclearance feed system is used on twostroke engines
C. at a location segregated from other ventilation systems D. and shall be protected by a rain guard or similar device Ans: A During the power stroke, the side thrust of a trunk type piston is a result of the angle ____________. A. formed by the connecting rod and the cylinder center line B. formed by the piston in relation to the piston pin C. between the crankarm and crankpin D. between the master and link connecting rods Ans: A An emergency diesel generator should automatically shut down in 1383 the event of __________. A. dangerous overspeeding B. a loss of lube oil pressure C. the activation of the fixed CO2 system for the emergency generator space D. All of the above. 1381
Ans: D During warm-up the expansion of valve stems due to engine heat, is allowed for by the _____________. A. valve springs B. hydraulic governor C. tappet clearance D. cooling system Ans: C In a medium speed diesel engine, a trunk type piston may becooled 1387 by ____________.I. oil circulation though passages in the piston crown II. heat transfer through piston rings and liner wall 1385
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1389
In a single acting, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, the power impulse in an individual cylinder occurs ____________. A. once every crankshaft revolution B. once every two crankshaft revolutions C. once every piston stroke D. twice every piston stroke Ans: B Air motion is induced in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine cylinder to 1376 improve air fuel mixing, and is known as _____________. 1374
I only II only either I or II neither I nor II C One end of a cylinder for a medium or high-speed diesel engine is sealed by the piston and rings, the other end is sealed by the ____________.
A. crankcase B. cylinder head
C. four-stroke engines usually utilize a heavier grade of fuel oil than two-stroke engines D. two-stroke engines usually consume less lube oil than four-stroke engines Ans: A Auxiliary diesel engines can be automatically shut down as a result 1382 of __________. A. low lube oil temperature B. low lube oil pressure C. high exhaust temperature D. high cooling water pressure Ans: B Prior to starting most medium-speed propulsion diesel engines, 1384 which of the procedures listed should be observed? A. The expansion tank should be topped off. B. The fuel filters should be changed. C. The thermostatic water regulating valves should be manually opened. D. The engine should be turned ov er slowly with the indicator cocks open. Ans: D High lube oil temperatures developing in a diesel engine can result from _____________. A. high oil pressure B. excessive bearing end play C. plugged oil control rings D. engine overload Ans: D The shape of a cam on a diesel engine determines the valve's 1388 __________. 1386
A. point of opening B. speed of opening C. lift from its seat D. All of the above are correct. Ans: D The side pressure per unit of area, resulting from the angularity of 1390 the motion of the connecting rod, depends primarily on the ____________. A. weight of the piston B. length of the piston
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1391
1393
1395
1397
C. valve cover C. length of the cylinder liner D. engine frame D. speed of the engine Ans: B Ans: B In a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, after the completion of the During the diesel engine power stroke, the side thrust of a trunk 1392 power stroke, the piston will move _________________. type piston is a result of the angle _____________. A. up and draw in a fresh air charge A. formed by the connecting rod and cylinder center line B. down to burn off fuel B. of the bevel on the piston oil control rings C. down to compress the fuel air charge C. formed by the crank arm and crank pin D. up and force out the exhaust gases D. formed bythe master and link c onnecting rods Ans: D Ans: A Which of the listed design features is found in an exhaust valve and 1394 A connecting rod in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is subject to NOT in an intake valve? ____________. A. Hard alloy steel construction A. tension load twice each crankshaft revolution B. Beveled edges on the valve head B. compression load during power and compression s trokes C. Low alloy steel construction C. inertia load once every four crankshaft revolutions D. Poppet type design D. bending loads at bottom and top dead center Ans: A Ans: B A disadvantage of a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is In a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine the intake valves open 1396 _____________. _______. A. higher working temperature of piston and cylinder A. before TDC and close after BDC B. the use of scavenge ports B. after TDC and close after BDC C. fewer power strokes per revolution of the crankshaft C. before TDC and close before BDC D. part of the fuel is burned as the piston is moving away from top D. after TDC and close before BDC dead centre Ans: C Ans: A FOUR STROKE ENGINE - MAINTENANCE Increasing the valve clearance between a valve stem and rocker If the oil control rings were installed upside down on a diesel engine 1398 arm, will result in the valve _____________. piston, which of the following conditions would result? closing later opening sooner staying open for a s horter period of time staying open for a longer period of time C Which of the listed problems would be indicated by an accumulation of water in one cylinder, in addition to the crankcas e of an idle diesel engine?
A. Excessive oil pumping would occur. B. The rings would tend to overheat. C. The ring grooves would be blocked. D. Tendency for ring breakage is increased. Ans: A If a clicking sound is being produced from within the valve 1400 compartment of a diesel engine, the cause may be __________.
Excessive condensation in that cylinder. Water in the fuel system. Cracked cylinder liner. Leaking lube oil cooler. C If there is a "clicking" sound in the valve c ompartment of adiesel 1401 engine, the cause may be _____________. A. a worn gudgeon pin B. excessive tappet clearance C. worn connecting rod bearings D. all of the above Ans: B A sudden drop in compression pressure in one cylinder of a diesel 1403 engine can be caused by _____________. A. a leaking fuel injector nozzle B. bourdon gauge C. excessively early fuel injection D. malfunctioning valves Ans: D If you increase the clearance between a valve stem and rocker 1405 arm, which of the listed conditions will occur?
a loose valve stem and guide excessive tappet clearances a stuck valve all of the above D Water accumulating in the crankcase of a diesel engine could 1402 indicate _____________. A. a cracked cylinder liner B. excessive water in the fuel C. a leaking intercooler D. excessive moisture in the scavenge air Ans: A If the piston groove drain holes for the oil control rings become 1404 clogged, which of the following is likely to occur? A. The oil control rings will seat improperly and wear rapidly. B. The piston will overheat due to insufficient lubrication. C. Excessive oil will remain on the c ylinder wall. D. Light brown smoke will emanate from the engine exhaust. Ans: C Bearing clearances in small high-speed diesel engines should be 1406 measured using _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1399
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. Valve will open later. B. Valve will close later. C. Amount of fuel injected will be increased. D. Amount of fuel injected will be decreased. Ans: A A loud clicking noise occurring from within the valve compartment 1407 of an operating diesel engine would indicate _____________. worn valve seats tight rocker arm springs excessive tappet clearance weak rocker arm springs C To check the setting of the overspeed trip on a diesel powered generator, you would use a _____________. A. tachometer B. torsion meter C. dynamometer
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1409
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1408
gauge blocks plasti-gauge feeler gauges round solder wire B On small diesel engines, a noticeable decrease in the time interval between the replacement of the lube filter cartridge indicates ____________.
A. piston ring blow-by B. dirty air filter C. excessive oil pressure D. excessive oil temperature Ans: A Immediately after starting a small high-speed diesel engine, you 1410 should check the _____________. A. cooling water temperature B. lube oil temperature C. fuel pressure
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D. pony brake Ans: A Increasing the exhaust valve tappet clearance of a diesel engine 1411 will result in the exhaust valve opening __________. A. later and closing earlier B. later and closing later C. earlier and closing earlier D. earlier and closing later Ans: A When using a fuel with a higher than normal sulphur content in an 1413 auxiliary diesel engine, you should _____________. A. maintain higher than normal jacket water temperature B. change the lube oil more frequently than normal C. maintain a higher air-box temperature than normal D. maintain a higher air-box pressure than normal Ans: B If the intake, or exhaust valve stem clearance is found to be 1415 excessive, in addition to too little movement of the rocker arms, you should check for _____________.
D. lube oil pressure Ans: D A faulty thermostatic bypass valve, in a diesel engine cooling 1412 system, can result in _____________. A. excessive time required for warming-up B. excessive freshwater corrosion C. scale formation on the saltwater side D. saltwater mixing with the freshwater Ans: A Which of the following problems can cause excessive 1414 consumption of the lubricating oil in a diesel engine? A. Dirty lube oil filters B. Excessive piston ring wear C. Excessively high lube oil viscosity D. Excessively low lube oil temperatures Ans: B Which of the following problems represents one possible cause of 1416 high lube oil consumption in a four stroke diesel engine?
A. collapsed hydraulic valve lifters A. Worn intake valve guides B. loose valve spring locks B. Pitted precombustion chambers C. worn valve seats C. Loose valve tappets D. broken valve springs D. High exhaust back pressure Ans: A Ans: A The service life of a worn aluminum piston for an auxiliary diesel, for 1418 Which of the changes in the v alve timing listed should be carried 1417 which no spares are readily available, can be extended by out when a naturally aspirated four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is ____________. converted to a supercharged engine? A. turning down the piston skirt to concentric v alues
1419
1421
1423
1425
B. knurling the piston skirt surface C. building up the piston skirt with a liquid epoxy material and then remachining D. increasing the dimensions of the ring land grooves Ans: B A loud clicking noise from the valve compartment of an operating diesel engine would indicate _____________. A. worn valve seats B. worn main bearings C. excessive valve clearance D. weak rocker arm springs Ans: C Excessive valve clearance will cause a valve to open _____________. A. early and close early B. early and close late C. late and close early D. late and close late Ans: C Reducing the clearance between a valve stem and rocker arm will result in the valve _____________. A. having a shorter duration of opening B. having a longer duration of opening C. closing sooner D. opening later Ans: B If you were inspecting the valv e springs on an auxiliary diesel engine, your best indication of impending spring failure would be _____________.
a glazed surface on the spring nicks in the protective coating a buildup of sludge deposits cracks in the surface of the spring D The overspeeding of the diesel engine driving an electric generator 1427 could cause ______________. A. low voltage trip to trip B. reverse power trip to trip C. damage to windings D. excessive exhaust temperatures Ans: C Worn diesel engine intake valve guides can result in 1429 _____________. A. increased engine breathing efficiency B. excessive tappet clearance C. excessive lube oil consumption D. lower than normal fuel consumption A. B. C. D. Ans:
1420
1422
1424
1426
A. Retard the intake valve opening and advance the exhaust valve closing period. B. Advance the intake and exhaust valve opening period. C. Advance the intake valve opening and retard the exhaust valve closing periods. D. Retard the intake and exhaust valve closing period. Ans: C Excessively worn, or polished ends on a diesel engine valve spring, indicate ________________. A. burned exhaust valves B. excessive spring compression C. spring surge D. worn valve seats Ans: C In a diesel engine, blow-by is a result of combustion gases leaking into the crankcase past the _____________. A. gudgeon pin bushings B. compression rings C. cylinder liner seals D. cylinder liner sealing ring Ans: B Excessive vibration in an operating diesel generator may be caused by _____________. A. electrical overload B. surging at governed RPM C. loose engine mounting bolts D. coolant leaking into the cylinder Ans: C If the valve tappets in a diesel engine are set at greater clearances than those specified by the engine m anufacturer, those valves will _____________.
A. open late and close early B. open late and close late C. fail to open when the engine is cold D. fail to open at normal operating temperature Ans: A Excessive piston ring wear in a diesel engine will cause 1428 _____________. A. high lube oil viscosity B. abnormal lube oil consumption C. low lube oil temperatures D. high firing pressures Ans: B In a diesel engine, the spring force required for proper valve 1430 operation is determined by _____________. A. maximum firing pressure B. minimum firing pressure C. cam contour D. length of the spring
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1431
Ans: C If an auxiliary diesel engine coolant temperature is higher than normal, but the thermostat is determined not to be defective, you would suspect a/an ___________. cavitation erosion in the water jackets excess corrosion inhibitor in the coolant dirty jacket water cooler defective turbocharger C Heat damage to fuel injection nozzles on small high-speed diesel engines, can be prevented by _____________. A. employing fuel oil as a cooling medium B. preventing hard carbon deposit on nozzle tips C. avoiding fuel oil temperature exceeding builder's specification
1432
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1433
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1434
Ans: D Which of the following precautions must be taken if an electric immersion heater is used to keep the coolant in a diesel engine warm during the time the engine is secured?
I only II only both I and II neither I nor II C tappet clearance, or clearance refers to the _____________.
A. clearance between valve spindle and guide B. compression of the valve springs C. clearance between the valve seat inserts and the head
D. ensuring good metallic contact between nozzles and cylinder heads
1435
Ans: C In a trunk type diesel engine piston, the thickness of the head or crown is determined by the ___________. I. strength requirement II. heat dissipation requirement
D. clearance between the top of the valve stem and the rocker arm
1436
Ans: D If the tappet clearance on a diesel engine is set improperly, which of the following statements represents the most serious problem that can develop?
A. The coolant temperature must be maintained at 180°F.
A. Too little clearance will cause noisy operation and excessive wear.
B. The thermostatic bypass valves must be manually opened before the engine is started. C. The pressure cap must be removed while the engine is secured.
B. Too much clearance will cause the valve to open early and close late. C. Too little clearance may prevent the valves from seating properly.
D. Electrical power to the heater must be secured before the cooling system is drained Ans: D Bearing clearances in small high-speed diesel engines should be 1437 measured with _____________. A. gauge blocks B. plasti-gauge C. feeler gauge D. round solder wire Ans: B When the cold tappet clearance is less than that specified by the 1439 manufacturer, diesel engine valves, operating at normal temperatures, will ______________.
D. Too much clearance may prevent combustion through loss of compression. Ans: C In an auxiliary diesel engine, the reason for knurling the piston skirt 1438 is to __________. A. improve skirt lubrication B. allow for expansion C. transmit forces evenly D. improve the piston seal Ans: A If clearance between a piston and the cylinder wall is excessive, 1440 piston slap will occur. The slap itself is caused by ______________.
open later than normal close later than normal have less total lift fail to open when the valves are warm B Excessive tappet clearance in an auxiliary diesel engine will cause 1441 the valves to open _____________. A. later and close sooner B. sooner and close later C. sooner and close sooner D. later and close later Ans: A Cold clearances between the skirt of an aluminum piston and the 1443 cylinder liner is about ______________.
A. alternation of side thrust B. a breakdown of the lube oil film on the cylinder wall C. worn piston boss piston pin bearings D. fluctuating gas pressure in the combustion space Ans: A Poor quality fuel being used in a turbocharged medium-speed, 1442 diesel engine could result in ________________. A. hard starting B. excessive fuel consumption C. loss of power D. all of the above Ans: D Improperly fitted piston rings in a diesel engine can c ause 1444 _____________.
A. twice as large as with a cast iron piston B. the same size as with a cast iron piston C. half as large as with a cast iron piston D. the same size as the crown of an aluminum piston Ans: A A four-stroke, cycle, turbocharged, 1000 horsepower diesel engine 1445 has been operating under load. The load suddenly increases, causing excessive black exhaust smoke, and a rapid rise in the lube oil temperature. In response to this condition, you should _
A. excessive lube oil consumption B. lower than normal lube oil temperature C. higher than normal exhaust back pressure D. excessive crankshaft endplay Ans: A A 16 cylinder main propulsion diesel engine is operating at 90% of 1446 full load. All cylinder exhaust temperatures are indicated at 450°C, except the No. 7 cylinder which is indicated at 550°C. All fuel racks are at 21-22 mm except No. 7 which is at 16mm.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D.
1447
reduce load check your exhaust adjust cooling water temperature increase the lube oil flow
Ans: A Irregular engine speed in a diesel generator can be caused by _____________. A. high generator load B. low fuel viscosity C. high injection pressure D. binding in the fuel control linkage
Replace and retime No. 7 c ylinder fuel pump. Pull No. 7 cylinder piston and examine the rings. Examine the governor linkage for binding. Check the intake manifold pressure for evidence of burned intake valves. Ans: A Decreasing the exhaust valve clearance of a diesel engine will 1448 cause the exhaust valve to open ______________. A. earlier and have less lift B. earlier and remain open longer C. later and have greater lift D. later and have less duration A. B. C. D.
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1449
Ans: D A 16-cylinder diesel engine is operating at 75% load. All exhaust temperatures are between 400° and 450°C, except the #3 cylinder reading of 300°C. All fuel rack settings are between 21 and 22 millimeters, with the #3 rack at 17 mm. What will you do?
Ans: B
A. Reduce engine load. B. Stop the engine and change out the #3 fuel nozzle. C. Increase the #3 rack setting and watch the exhaust temperature. D. Stop the engine and adjust the #3 cylinder pump timing. Ans: C AUTOMATION - INSTRUMENTATION Why do most temperature control valves in diesel engine closed Which of the following statements is true concerning pressure limit 1450 1451 freshwater cooling systems vary the flow of jacket water through the switches and pressostats installed on auxiliary boilers? cooler instead of through the engine?
1452
A. Changing the rate of flow in the jackets could cause localized hot spots. B. Emergency hand control would not be possible if water flow through the jackets were c ontrolled.
A. They are bimetallic elements sensing temperature differentials corresponding to pressure changes. B. They consist of a bellows assembly, linked with a snap action switch, through a pressure adjusting mechanism.
C. Excessive cooling would take place in the heat exchangers at high loads. D. Excessive cavitation erosion would take place in the coolers.
C. They automatically relieve excessive steam pressure by acting as a pilot to the safety valve. D. They automatically restart the burner sequence via the high water level signal
Ans: A If the combustion control system of an automatically fired auxiliary boiler fails to relight the burner after a normal shutdown, you should check for a/an ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
1454
low steam pressure high voltage on the ignition electrode open air damper faulty photocell detector D In an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, restarting from the normal shutdown cycle in response to steam demand, is initiated by a/an ______________.
A. modulating pressostat, sensing both steam pressure and temperature B. pyrostat measuring decreased steam temperature C. pressostat measuring only the steam pressure D. electrode sensing water level Ans: C Ignition failure in an automatically controlled auxiliary boiler can be 1456 caused by ______________. A. carbon deposits on the electrode B. excessive fuel oil temperature C. excessive return oil pressure D. brickwork failure Ans: A Ignition failure in an automatically controlled auxiliary boiler could be 1458 caused by _____________. A. carbon deposits on the flame scanner B. high fuel oil temperature C. low fuel oil viscosity D. high steam pressure Ans: A Which of the listed failures, occurring in an automated diesel 1460 generator system, should cause an audible alarm at the engine room control station? A. B. C. D. Ans: 1462
A. B. C. D.
Low cooling water outlet temperature High lube oil pressure Low lube oil temperature Low starting air pressure D When an auxiliary boiler is on the line, the output of the flame scanner can be checked by placing a microammeter in series with the photoelectric cell circuit. The readings on high fire should be ____________. higher than those at low fire equal to those at low fire lower than those at low fire lower than those at low fire, but the generated v oltage will be higher
Ans: A
1453
Ans: B A sudden flame failure in an operating auxiliary boiler, equipped with an automatic combustion control system and burning light fuel, could be attributed to a______________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
1455
dead or malfunctioning step up transformer faulty ignition cable connector loose connection on the photocell rapid fuel viscosity increase C In a diesel engine cooling system, the high temperature alarm contact maker will be activated on excessively highwater discharge temperature from the ____________.
A. raw water pump discharge expansion tank outlet cooling water heat exchanger outlet engine jacket water outlet D The flame safeguard controls of a large automatically fired auxiliary 1457 boiler, may consist of a ____________. A. stack switch B. pyrostat C. photoelectric cell D. thermistor Ans: C Ignition failure in an auxiliary boiler can be caused by 1459 _____________. A. carbon deposits on electrodes B. a jammed open oil solenoid C. excess fuel pressure at the nozzle D. an excessively long purge cycle Ans: A An emergency diesel generator cooling system is equipped with an 1461 automotive type thermostat. If the thermostat bellows loses its charge, the thermostat will _____________. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1463
A. B. C. D.
open, and the coolant temperature will increase open, and the coolant temperature will decrease close, and the engine coolant temperature will increase close, and the coolant temperature will decrease C Diesel engine automated control systems may utilize sensing devices of dual function, with sensing ranges providing both alarm and engine shut down capability. Which of the key points listed would only require an alarm sensor? Lube oil pressure and temperature Jacket water pressure and temperature Engine overspeed Lube oil sump level
Ans: D
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1464
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1466
The burner assembly on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler fitted with variable capacity, pressure atomizing burners, maintains steam pressure by ______________.
1465
cycling on and off changing fuel oil return pressure changing the speed of a rotary cup varying air pressure supplied to the nozzle B A three-way thermostatic control valve regulates the diesel engine cooling water temperature by passing a portion of the water _____________.
A. faulty photocell detector B. low steam pressure C. high voltage on the ignition electrode D. open air damper Ans: A The primary function of a flame safeguard system, as used on an 1467 automatically fired auxiliary boiler, is to prevent ____________.
around the engine around the cooler to the expansion tank overboard B All automatically fired low pressure heating boilers must have an 1468 automatic ____________. A. fuel cutoff as a result of low water B. pressure-control regulator C. feedwater control valve D. superheat control system Ans: A Automatic burner shutdown in an auxiliary boiler, as a result of a 1470 component failure in the flame safeguard controls, will _______________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. prevent the boiler from automatically relighting B. eliminate the need for furnace purging C. cause automatic restart after a purge period D. cause an explosion in the boiler furnace Ans: A Under which of the following conditions must the combustion 1472 control system for a small automatic auxiliary boiler secure the burner? A. B. C. D. Ans: 1474
High water level Low steam pressure Flame failure High fuel oil temperature C At the beginning of the prepurge period on an automatic auxiliary boiler equipped with a programmed control system, the unit will not restart if airflow is not sensed and ______________.
A. the damper is not sufficiently opened B. the damper is not fully closed C. oil pressure is not sensed D. water pressure is not sensed Ans: A Which of the following types of feedwater regulators is commonly 1476 used with a water-tube, natural circulation, auxiliary boiler? A. Thermomechanical B. Bimetallic element C. Ring thermostat D. Modulating pressostat Ans: A If the operating element of a thermostatic v alve installed in a diesel 1478 engine cooling system malfunctions, it may result in ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1480
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1482
a low level in the engine expansion tank excessively high coolant pressure improper temperatures malfunctioning of the jacket water heater C Engine protection by means of an alarm or shutdown control can be obtained with devices that are sensitive to _____________. temperature pressure engine speed all of the above D To test the operation of the flame failure switch of an operating automatically fired auxiliary boiler, you should _____________.
A. de-energize the high voltage ignition system
If the combustion control system of an automatically fired auxiliary boiler fails to sustain burner ignition after a normal shutdown, you should check for a/an __________.
accidental dry firing and overpressure uncontrolled fires in the furnace explosions in the boiler furnace overheating of the pressure parts C The fuel supply system to an automatic auxiliary boiler, will be 1469 automatically shutdown if the boiler ______________. A. salinity is abnormally high B. steam demand is too high C. water level is abnormally low D. feedwater flow is low Ans: C In a diesel engine closed freshwater cooling system, the amount of 1471 coolant flowing through the heat exchanger is controlled by the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
suction pressure regulator thermostatic bypass valve sea water temperature water level in the expansion tank B Temperature control valves installed in the jack et cooling water system of a diesel engine, modulates the rate of water flow through the __________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
cooling water pump nozzle cooling passages cylinder jackets heat exchanger D After a normal, or safety shutdown, automatic combustion control systems for an auxiliary boiler are designed to prevent the immediate refiring of a burner in order for the ________________.
1473
1475
A. furnace to be repurged B. electric charge to buildup in the igniter C. fuel pump to restart D. drum level to stabilize Ans: A Automatic combustion control systems for auxiliary boilers are 1477 designed to cycle burners on and off in response to the _______________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
excess air pressure steam moisture content furnace temperature steam pressure D Automatic combustion control systems for some auxiliary boilers are designed to cycle burners on and off in response to ____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
fuel supply pressure fuel return pressure steam pressure furnace air pressure C Control of the main propulsion diesel engines can be shifted from the engine room to the wheelhouse from the ___________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
wheelhouse control station engine room control station captain's office chief engineer's office B Electrically operated safety devices on auxiliary diesel engines function to stop the engine by _____________.
1479
1481
1483
A. increasing the volume of intake air
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B. C. D. Ans: 1484
move the igniter away from the normal firing position B. shutting off the fuel supply close the manual fuel v alve with the burner firing C. increasing the engine back pressure shift the controls to low fire D. overspeeding the engine C Ans: B The programmed control system of an automatic auxiliary boiler will 1485 On auxiliary boilers using individual flame scanners to monitor the terminate the light off process during the prepurge period if air flow main and pilot flames, the main flame s canner should be sighted to is not sensed and _________. ______________.
A. the damper is not sufficiently open B. the damper is not fully closed C. oil pressure is not sensed D. water pressure is not sensed Ans: A Automatic combustion control systems for some auxiliary boilers 1486 are designed to cycle burners on in response to ____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1487
A. low fuel pressure B. fuel return pressure C. low steam pressure D. furnace air pressure Ans: C Which of the following conditions will cause only one of the burner 1488 solenoid valves to close on an automatically fired, two burner unit, auxiliary boiler? A. Loss of the forced draft fan B. Low boiler water level C. High boiler water level D. A faulty coil in one the solenoid valves Ans: D The main propulsion diesel engine jacket water temperature rises 1490 above normal, with the raw water sea suction and the expansion tank water level being normal. Which of the following problems is most likely the cause? A. Faulty thermostatic bypass valve. B. Eroded zinc pencils in the heat exchanger. C. Steam formation in the expansion tank.
detect pilot flames that are incorrectly positioned view the refractory directly opposite the main burner avoid detecting the pilot flame view the main flame in its outer periphery C If the flame of an automatically fired auxiliary boiler tends to move away from the burner tip when the firing rate is changed from low to high, you should ____________.
A. decrease the fuel pressure B. adjust damper linkage to slow the opening rate of the dampers C. adjust damper linkage to lengthen the purge period D. adjust the photocell to observe the new flame position Ans: B While an auxiliary boiler is operating at design load, which of the 1489 following actions will occur if the automatic combustion control system detects a steam pressure drop? A. B. C. D. Ans: 1491
More burners will be lighted off. The registers will open fully. The fuel oil valve and air damper will open wider. The steam flow will be automatically regulated C Constant capacity pressure atomizing fuel oil burners installed on automatically fired auxiliary boilers, respond to variations in load demand by ____________.
A. automatically increasing the fuel/air ratio B. automatically cycling the burner on and off C. responding to the boiler high and low water level limit switches
D. Excessive leakage from jacket water pump seals. Ans: A Burner ignition failure in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler would 1492 be caused by ____________. A. a burned out solenoid in the oil supply valve B. high temperature excess air C. incorrectly setting the hotwell dump valve D. an incorrectly positioned burner snubber assembly Ans: A If the combustion control system of an automatically fired auxiliary 1494 boiler fails to restart from the normal shutdown mode, you should check for ______________.
D. regulating the fuel oil service pump discharge press ure Ans: B An automatically fired auxiliary boiler is required by Regulations to 1493 be shutdown as a result of ____________. A. low boiler pressure B. low water level C. wide flame cone angle D. high fuel oil pressure Ans: B When the steam pressure drops below a set value on an 1495 automatically fired auxiliary boiler, fitted with rotary cup atomizers, the combustion control system will _________.
broken or grounded high tension leads a faulty ignition cable connector an incorrect electrode setting all of the above D The jacket water temperature in a diesel engine closed freshwater cooling system is normally controlled by _____________.
A. increase the fuel oil control valve opening B. increase the rotary cup speed C. decrease the back pressure regulating valve opening D. decrease the supply steam control valve opening Ans: A On an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, the steam pressure limit 1497 switch is wired into the burner electric circuit to ______________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1496
A. regulating the level of corrosion inhibitor in the primary cooling system B. the level of the freshwater expansion tank C. varying the engine load to m eet temperature requirements D. the operation of thermostatic valve Ans: D A failure of any component of a flame safeguard control for an 1498 auxiliary boiler will result in ____________. A. a furnace explosion B. automatic burner shutdown C. uncontrolled firing D. automatic restart Ans: B Control of the fuel oil metering valve in an automatically fired 1500 auxiliary boiler is accomplished by a ___________. A. pressure magnifying device in the s team coil outlet B. signal from feed water electrode C. metering device in the air supply line
A. energized the flame scannercircuit when high boiler pressure is reached B. sound an alarm when the burner is shut off C. shut off the burner when the cutoff pressure is reached D. maintain smokeless fuel oil atomization Ans: C The fuel oil supply system to an automatic auxiliary boiler, will 1499 automatically shutdown if the boiler _____________. A. steam demand is high B. salinity is high C. safety valve simmers D. burner flame is extinguished Ans: D The pressostat is installed on an auxiliary boiler to sense steam 1501 pressure changes, it _______________. A. controls the flow of feedwater to the boiler B. monitors the boiler high water level C. secures the fires when a fusible plug burns out
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D. steam pressure sensing device with linkage to the damper air vanes Ans: D Which of the automatic boiler controls controls listed should be tested prior 1502 to lighting off an auxiliary boiler? blow valve A. Automatic bottom blow B. Low water level cutoff switch C. Voltage output of the ignition transformer D. Insulation resistance readings in the ignition system high tension leads Ans: B If the jacket water temperature in an auxiliary diesel engine cooling 1504 system is lower than normal, the probable cause is _________.
regulates the quantity of oil and air flow to the burner D. automatically regulates Ans: D A photoelectric cell cell installed in an automatically automatically fired auxiliary boiler burner management system ________________. A. opens the burner circuit upon s ensing a flame failure B. must be bypassed at low firing rates C. requires mechanical linkage to secure the burner fuel supply radiant heat from glowing D. detects a flame failure by monitoring radiant refractory Ans: A Diesel engine control can be obtained by the bridge 1505 _____________. 1503
A. air binding of the engine cooling system B. a cracked water cooled exhaust manifold
A. at any time B. only after the engine room control station is switched to "bridge control" is switched to "bridge control" C. whenever the secondary station is
C. blockage in the heat exchanger
D. faulty operation of the thermostat D. with the approval of the chief engineer only Ans: D Ans: B The temperature at which which an adjustable bellows type type thermostat 1506 1507 valve is set by ______. A. changing the position of the actuating bulb B. replacing the bellows with a heavier spring C. varying air loading pressure to the bellows D. changing spring compression to oppose bellows Ans: D POWER TRANSMISSION,GEARS AND CLUTCHES Where diesel engine speed and clutch controls are combined into The control system for a controllable pitch propeller can be 1508 1509 one operation by a single control lever, movement of the lever from programmed ___________.I. to produce a maximum combined the "stop" position to the "ahead" position will FIRST propeller and engine efficiency between pitch and a given engine ____________. speed II. for continuous operation of the engine at pre-setconditions decrease the engine speed increase the engine speed engage the ahead clutch disengage the astern clutch C A diesel engine is operating at 1800 RPM and driving a propeller propeller at 1510 600 RPM. What is the speed reduction ratio? A. 0.30 to 1 B. 3.00 to 1 C. 3.33 to 1 D. 33.0 to 1 Ans: B Which of the couplings listed will prevent shock loads from being 1512 transmitted to an engine? A. Grid B. Dog type C. Friction D. Hydraulic Ans: D Hydraulic couplings will transmit torque equal to the input torque by 1514 means of energy changes in a rotating vortex of liquid. For the vortices to form, there must be __________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D.
1516
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1511 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1513 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1515
slip between the impeller and runner less than 2 per cent slip between the impeller and runner axial thrust generated by the runner pinion shaft momentary torsional vibration transmitted by the driving impeller
Ans: A Which of the following characteristics characteristics is true relative to meshing spur gears? A. The gear of larger diameter will rotate at a s lower RPM. B. Both gears will operate in the same direction. C. The teeth on the larger gear are larger than the teeth on the smaller gear.
D. Power can be transmitted at a 90° angle. Ans: A When used with reversing reduction gears, medium-speed diesel 1518 engines should be bolted to their foundations with fitted bolts at the drive end and clearance (loosely fitted) bolts in other locations. This is done to _____________. A. maintain alignment when the ship's hull is working in heavy seas
A. B. C. D.
1517
I only is correct II only is correct both I and II are correct neither I or II are correct C The torque transmitted by an electromagnetic slip coupling is dependent upon excitation and the _____________. engine speed harmonic frequency amount of slip resonance C In most marine single reduction gear units, the spur gear is driven by the _____________. quill shaft helical gear pinion gear spur gear C Helical reduction gears, as used with main propulsion drive trains, are constructed so that several teeth are meshed at the same time to ____________. eliminate propeller shaft end thrust translate heavy load into high speed output provide smooth continuous power transmission allow construction with fewer gear teeth
Ans: C Gear-type flexible couplings couplings are often used in diesel engine drive trains because they _____________. A. require no lubrication under normal operating conditions B. compensate for gross misalignment in the drive train torque, even where slight misalignment C. are able to transmit high torque, exists
D. will rapidly disconnect the engine from the line shaft Ans: C The best method for determining the amount of eccentricity or offset 1519 misalignment between the disconnected propeller shaft coupling flange and the reduction gear output flange is by using a _____________. A. straight edge laid across the flange edges
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B. ensure engine vibrations correspond to the natural frequency of the hull C. permit the engine to expand away from the driven equipment as the engine heats up and expands D. maintain engine thrust bearing clearances
1520
Ans: C A flexible coupling coupling is located located between the _____________.
A. engine and the pinion B. line shaft and tailshaft C. pinion and the bull gear D. thrust bearing and the worm gear Ans: A Which of the types of reduction gearing gearing listed is best suited for 1522 medium speed main propulsion units? A. Hypoid B. Helical C. Cyclical D. Spur Ans: B Which of the bearing types listed is most commonly used in smaller 1524 vessel main propulsion reduction gears as thrust bearings? Ball bearings Poured bearings Sleeved bearings Tapered roller bearings D Which of the following statements is correct concerning a hydraulic coupling? A. Rapid declutching is impossible. between the rotating rotating members is extremely extremely B. Accurate alignment between important. C. Torque is controlled by the volume of oil in the coupling. vibrations from the engine are transmitted transmitted directly to the D. Torsional vibrations hull by the coupling.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1526
Ans: C The magnetic lock between the armature and field in an electromagnetic coupling is established by _____________. A. controlled engine speed B. energizing the field coils C. brush contact with the armature D. rotating the primary rotor Ans: B When changing the direction of propeller shaft rotation in a diesel 1530 plant equipped with with a pneumatic clutch, you must pause at neutral to allow the _____________. 1528
fuel rack to readjust engine to slow down propeller to stop clutch to deflate D The power loss associated with with slip in a fluid fluid coupling appears as 1532 __________. A. chattering in the driving member B. heat in the hydraulic fluid C. vibration in the driving member D. leakage around the ring valve Ans: B Pitting in the area close to the pitch line and on the same end of 1534 each gear tooth of a reduction gear unit would be caused by _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1536
A. B. C. D. Ans:
corrosion on the gears excessive gear speed dirt in the oil misalignment of the gears D Pitted reduction gear teeth having a deep blue color with evidence of overheating have been operated with __________. excessive speed improper warm-up extreme misalignment inadequate lubrication D
B. thickness gauge between the separated flange faces position of each flange in relation to the C. bridge gauge to check the position other indicator mounted on one flange flange indicating indicating any misalignment D. dial indicator of the other flange Ans: D Reduction gear casings are v ented in order to _____________. 1521 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1523 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1525
allow windage to exist for cooling the gears avoid a buildup of pressure within the gear case avoid lube oil foaming within the case allow for proper lubrication of the friction clutch shoes B Misalignment Misalignment of the drive shaft and propeller shaft flanges can be detected by using a dial indicator or _____________. inside micrometer feeler gauge and straight edge adjustable trammel sighting device B When more than one propulsion diesel engine is connected to a single propeller propeller shaft through reduction gears, gears, the gears are usually _____________.
A. single reduction B. double reduction C. triple reduction D. quadruple reduction Ans: A One advantage of hydraulic clutches over mechanical clutches in 1527 diesel engine installations is ____________. A. the power is transmitted at a v ery high efficiency of 60% B. the torsional vibrations are transmitted directly to the reduction gears C. each clutch has a separate oil gland for reverse operation between the driving and driven D. no mechanical connection exists between elements Ans: D In reducing engine speed to an efficient propeller speed by the use of reduction gears, ____________. A. speed and torque are both reduced B. speed is reduced and torque remains unchanged C. speed is reduced and torque is increased D. speed is sometimes unchanged while torque is increased Ans: C Airflex clutches clutches are used to transmit power from a diesel diesel engine to to 1531 the propeller shaft. A restricted orifice is used in the control air system of this unit to _____________. 1529
delay deflation of the clutch being disengaged delay inflation of the clutch being engaged reduce the deflation time of both clutches reduce the inflation time of both clutches B Slippage of an air operated friction clutch can result from 1533 _____________. A. an overloaded engine B. prolonged slow speed operation C. weak disc springs D. newly installed friction blocks Ans: A When an additional load is applied to a diesel engine which is using 1535 an inadequately inflated air bladder clutch unit, you can expect _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
pneumatic seizure overheating because of slipping shoes chipped reduction gear teeth excessive wear on the thrust bearings B Misalignment Misalignment of the drive shaft and propeller shaft flanges can be detected by using a dial indicator or _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
inside micrometer feeler gauge adjustable trammel sighting device B
1537
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A gear type flexible flexible coupling coupling is precision built built for _____________.
1538 A. B. C. D.
1540
reduced torsional vibration and resonance increased slip and maneuvering capability high torque transmittal under under limited limited misalignment conditions low axial thrust transmission under minimal minimal alignment irregularities irregularities
Ans: C When an additional load is applied to a diesel engine +which is using an air bladder clutch unit that is inadequately inflated, you can expect _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
1542 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1544 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1546 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1548
1539
chipped reduction gear teeth overheating because of slipping shoes pneumatic seizure excessive wear on the thrust bearings B In an electromagnetic coupling, torque to the driven shaft is limited by the _____________. overload trip coupling pullout value staybolt strength shear-off coupling B When air is delivered under pressure to one of the glands of an airbladder clutch, the ____________. inside diameter of the clutch gland increases inside diameter of the clutch gland decreases gland rotates out of contact with the drums clutch begins to rotate with the engine B When transmitted by a reduction gear, diesel engine speed is reduced and the torque av ailable for work ______________. remains the same is reduced is increased is eliminated C When passing through mesh contact, the teeth of a reduction gear first go through a series of actions best described as __________.
galling squeezing sliding slipping C The air bladder clutch used with some reversing reduction drive 1550 gears, consists of _____________. A. twin-disk clutch plates plates B. jaw-type clutch plates C. multi-plate friction plates with sliding collars D. two independent clutches Ans: D Some medium and high-speed diesel engines require reduction 1552 gear units to provide a useful propeller speed. In most reduction gears, the spur gear ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
must churn the oil in the sump is connected to the propeller shaft is driven at the highest RPM compensates for alignment variations between the engine and pinion gear Ans: B The volume of available air supply required by an air clutch varies 1554 with the _____________.
A. B. C. D.
1541
1543
1545
1547
1549
C. frequency of engagement D. all of the above Ans: D In an electromagnetic slip coupling, the slip _____________. 1556 A. reduces magnetic pull caused by non-concentric
electromagnets
Ans: A When two diesel engines engines are electrically electrically coupled in in parallel to a common propeller shaft, which of the operating conditions listed will apply? A. Full horsepower is available ahead and astern. B. One engine must be running ahead and the other astern. C. Full reversing torque is not av ailable. D. Mechanical gearing is not required Ans: A Proper operation of the main main engine reduction gear set requires the operator to monitor _____________. A. the sump oil level B. oil flow sight glasses C. bearing temperatures D. all of the above Ans: D To guarantee that a reduction gear bearing is receiving proper oil supply, you should check the ___________. A. lube oil temperature at the cooler outlet B. lube oil strainer magnets C. bearing lube oil temperature D. lube oil pressure to the bearing Ans: C Which of the couplings listed is normally not repairable, and is usually replaced if completely damaged? A. Flexible disk-ring coupling B. Gear-type coupling C. Grid spring coupling D. Block and jam coupling Ans: B What type of reduction gear would most commonly be used with twin medium-speed propulsion diesel engines driving a single shaft?
Single reduction, planetary Single reduction, single input Single reduction, double input Double reduction, double input, articulated C In using reduction gears to obtain obtain efficient propeller propeller speeds, 1551 ____________. A. they must be located at the after end of the engine B. they can only be used with one engine at a time C. they eliminate the need for controllable pitch propellers D. they are connected to the engine with a flexible coupling Ans: D Although slip in pneumatic clutches clutches is normally undesirable undesirable in 1553 modern pneumatic clutch arrangements, some reduction gear units are provided with an optional slip clutch which is used to an advantage in _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D.
A. size of the clutch B. volume of the supply line between the control valve and the clutch
Effective hydraulic coupling coupling operation depends upon a certain amount of _____________. slip mechanical friction fluid overheating torsional vibration
A. B. C. D.
1555
reducing high speed torque vibrations controlling the warm up of clutch friction surfaces obtaining maneuvering speeds below engine idle speed limiting shock loads transmitted to the engine in heav y weather
Ans: C One of the most common causes of reduction gear failure is gear wear caused by scoring as a result of ______________. A. surface fatigue of the gears B. an inadequate lube oil film
C. plastic flow of the gears D. fretting corrosion from water contamination Ans: B Which of the following statements represents an advantage of an 1557 electromagnetic clutch? A. It aids in maintaining power factor.
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B. reduces resonance and accentuates the turning moment irregularities C. transmits electromagnetic flux through the primary circuit frequency current which excites excites the secondary D. generates the low frequency electromagnet Ans: D One advantage of electromagnetic slip couplings is 1558 _____________. A. torsional vibrations are reduced B. torque increases with a decrease in excitation current C. the coupling rapidly responds to sudden changes of load D. excitation and induction power losses appear as a change in torque instead of rotational speed between the primary and secondary elements
B. Slip is held to a minimum when reversing shaft rotation. torsional vibrations to the driven driven shaft are eliminated. C. Engine torsional D. Large misalignments can be tolerated between the shaft and engine coupling. Ans: C
Ans: A COOLING SYSTEMS Diesel engine jacket water is is used in the distillation distillation process as the In any diesel engine closed freshwater cooling system, the lowest 1560 ____________. pressure exists at the _____________. outlet A. coolant for the distillate A. jacket water outlet B. coolant for the brine cooler B. cooling water pump outlet C. means of heating the feedwater C. heat exchanger outlet D. primary means of producing a vacuum within the distiller D. expansion tank atmospheric vent Ans: C Ans: D The expansion tank for a diesel engine closed cooling system is A closed freshwater cooling system is commonly used with marine 1561 1562 designed to maintain a constant head on the system and diesel engines because the _____________. ___________. 1559
A. B. C. D.
reduce water temperature reduce water turbulence provide an air cushion allow for an increase in water volume as the engine warms up
Ans: D Which of the following statements describes the function of an expansion tank in a diesel engine cooling system? A. Maintains a constant head on the system. B. Reduces the likelihood of air or s team pockets formation. C. Provides a low pressure point for the addition of makeup c ooling water. above. D. All of the above. Ans: D High diesel engine cooling water temperatures can be caused by 1565 _____________. A. a worn water pump B. not enough coolant C. air in the cooling system D. all of the above Ans: D Higher than normal jacket water temperatures occurring in all 1567 cylinders of a diesel engine engine can result from a/an __________. 1563
oil suction line restriction correct amount of coolant cavitation erosion in the water jackets clogged sea suction strainer D Which of the following statements statements is correct concerning diesel engine cooling water systems? A. Each engine must have its own engine driven cooling water pump capable of providing providing cooling for all ranges of operation.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1569
1571
A. need for water treatment is eliminated B. cooling water temperature differential is greater C. cooling water pumps are directly reversible temperature is more easily easily controlled D. jacket water temperature
1564
Ans: D The outlet from an expansion tank of a closed freshwater cooling system should be piped to the ____________. A. cylinder head water outlet header B. cylinder jacket inlet main C. heat exchanger inlet connection
suction line D. jacket water pump suction Ans: D High diesel engine cooling water temperatures can be caused by 1566 _____________. A. air in the cooling system B. an overhauled water pump C. correct amount of coolant D. no air in the cooling system Ans: A The highest pressure in any c losed diesel engine freshwater cooling 1568 system is at the _____________. outlet A. jacket water outlet B. expansion tank inlet C. heat exchanger inlet D. cooling water pump outlet Ans: D Which of the following following statements is correct for the design and 1570 installation installation of diesel engine cooling water systems? with audible and visible signals is is required for all all A. An alarm device with cooling water systems.
B. Propulsion engines with bores exceeding 200 mm are to be fitted with a means to display the cooling water temperature of each cylinder.
B. Propulsion engines with bores over 200 mm are to be fitted with cooling water thermometers at each cylinder.
suctions are to be provided for C. At least two independent sea suctions supplying water to to the engine jackets or to the heat exchangers.
C. Each totally enclosed cooling system shall be provided with a suitable head tank.
D. Suitable strainers are to be fitted between the circulating pumps and heat exchangers when sea water is used for direct cooling.
D. Drain cocks are to be provided at the lowest points of all cylinder water jackets.
Ans: C In a diesel engine jacket water cooler, cooler, with seawater seawater cooling the fresh water, the ___________. A. sea water temperature must never be warmer than 40°F should always be greater greater than the sea water B. jacket water pressure should pressure temperature must always be less than 60°F C. jacket water temperature
1572
Ans: D Jacket water heaters are used on diesel engines to ________. A. help the engine start easier in cold weather B. maintain the proper jacket water pH C. maintain the proper expansion tank water level
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always be less than than the sea water water D. jacket water pressure must always pressure Ans: B The device allowing for the change in volume of the c ooling water in 1573 a propulsion diesel engine closed cooling system is the _____________.
1575
1577
1579
1581
D. keep the engine room warm
1574
Ans: A In a closed cooling cooling system for a turbocharged, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, fluctuating water pressure can be caused by ________________.
A. fresh water expansion tank A. improper venting of the cooling system B. sea water expansion tank B. carrying the expansion tank water level too high C. thermostatic expansion valve C. a totally clogged impeller in the cooling water pump accumulator D. jacket water cooler accumulator D. an incorrectly set cooling system temperature control Ans: A Ans: A The expansion tank in a diesel engine closed freshwater cooling In a closed c ooling water system, which of the following problems 1576 system is located at _____________. can cause the water pressure to fluctuate? A. the highest point in the system A. An open vent in the cooling system. B. the lowest point in the system B. A fouled sea chest. water passage in the engine. C. or near the floor plate level C. A restricted water cooling water. D. or near the tank top level D. Air entrained in the cooling Ans: A Ans: D COOLING SYSTEMS - MAINTENANCE The interior of some diesel engine saltwater heat exchangers are Corrosion inhibitors and/or soluble oils are added to diesel engine 1578 protected from corrosion by the use of __________. cooling systems to _____________. A. aluminum plates A. maintain low pH in the cooling water B. lead cathodes B. reduce the cooling water temperature C. copper baffle plates C. increase cooling water hardness D. sacrificial zincs D. form a protective film on metal surfaces Ans: D Ans: D When checking zincs in a saltwater cooled heat exchanger, you A diesel engine cooling water water system with a pH factor of 3.0 3.0 1580 should _____________. indicates a condition of ____________. A. paint the zincs to stop corrosion A. slight acidity B. insulate the zincs to alter the temperature B. slight alkalinity C. replace the zincs if they are 50% consumed C. excessive alkalinity D. file the zincs to change the shape D. excessive acidity Ans: C Ans: D Which of the listed effects would would the film of alkaline alkaline chromate have 1582 Antifreeze solutions solutions containing ethylene glycol, glycol, should not be be mixed on the metal surfaces of the cooling systemof a diesel engine? with corrosion protection oils, as the resultant mixture _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
1583
Increases the rate of heat transfer Retards the flow of cooling water Protects metallic surfaces from corrosion Tends to increase corrosion C If the coolant temperature of a closed cooling water system for a diesel engine gradually increases, the trouble usually is _____________.
a broken shaft on the freshwater pump an excessive accumulation of scale in the heat exchanger an incorrect thermostatic element operating range lube oil in the cooling water B In a diesel engine cooling cooling water system, a pH of 6.0 indicates a/an 1585 ______________. A. slightly acidic condition B. slightly alkaline condition C. overtreatment of water D. neutral condition of water Ans: A If the jacket water temperature of an operating diesel engine 1587 suddenly rises above normal, normal, the cause can be attributed to to _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
is dangerously flammable promotes scale buildup may cause frothing has a higher chloride chloride content C Ethylene glycol, when used as a coolant in a closed c ooling system for a diesel engine, is is more advantageous than untreated raw water because it _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
provides a constant pH below 7 provides better vapor-phase cooling has a higher freezing point and a lower boiling point has a lower freezing point and higher boiling point D Failure to ensure proper venting of the cooling system of a diesel engine can result in ____________. excessive air charge density priming in the expansion tank failure of raw water pump shaft seals local overheating and/or internal corrosion D If the raw water supply pressure for a diesel engine cooling system is below normal, you should check for a ____________.
1584
A. B. C. D. Ans:
1586 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1588
A. broken thermostat B. clogged sea strainer C. blown head gasket D. cracked head Ans: B MISCELLANEOUS MISCELLANEOUS QUESTIONS When reassembling the bowl of a disk-type centrifuge, the bowl or Which of the listed contaminants will will be satisfactorily satisfactorily removed from 1589 1590 locking ring is rotated ____________. fuel oil by centrifuging? clockwise, due to the bowl rotating clockwise Sludge A. A. clockwise, due to the bowl rotating counterclockwise Diesel fuel B. B. counterclockwise, due to the bowl rotating clockwise Lube oil C. C. counterclockwise, due to the bowl rotating counterclockwise Gasoline D. D. Ans: C Ans: A Which of the following conditions conditions is most likely to occur if oil If fuel oil were being discharged from the waste water water outlet of a 1591 1592 containing moisture is continuously fed to a purifier operating as a fuel oil disk type centrifuge, operated as a separator, you should clarifier? ________________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A.
an overfilled expansion tank excess chromate treatment of the jacket water a clogged raw water sea s uction cavitation erosion of the heat exchanger tubes C
The purifier must be operated at a higher temperature.
A.
remove the discharge ring
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The purifier must be operated at a higher speed. The purifier will gradually change operation to separation. The bowl will eventually fill with water. D. Ans: D A centrifuge will will satisfactorily satisfactorily remove which of the following 1593 contaminants from fuel oil? Gasoline A. Water B. Lubricating oil C. Sulphur compounds D. Ans: B Which factor determines the ring dam size for a fuel oil, tubular bowl 1595 type, centrifugal purifier?
reprime the purifier slow the centrifuge to its proper speed install an additional discharge ring D. Ans: B If the bowl of a disk disk type centrifugal purifier purifier when operated as a 1594 separator is not primed, the _____________. oil has a tendency to emulsify in the bowl A. purifier will act as a clarifier at the discharge ring B. oil will be lost through the water discharge ports C. oil solids will be deposited only at the intermediate top disk D. Ans: C The output pressure of a diesel engine lube oil pump is is regulated 1596 by a/an _____________.
The viscosity of the fuel. The quantity of water to be removed from the fuel. The specific gravity of the fuel. C. The quantity of dirt to be remov ed from the fuel. D. Ans: C The lube oil pump used in a diesel engine is a ____________. 1597 volute pump A. centrifugal pump B. diaphragm pump C. gear pump D. Ans: D Sacrificial zinc anodes are used on the saltwater side of diesel 1599 engine heat exchangers to _____________. reduce electrolytic action on heat exchanger metals A. keep heat transfer surfaces shiny and clean B. prevent rapid accumulation of marine growth C. provide a protective coating on heat exchanger surfaces D. Ans: A Which of the following problems problems will cause above normal cooling 1601 water temperatures in a diesel engine using a closed freshwater cooling system?
relief valve metering valve variable speed pump drive C. orifice in the lube oil header D. Ans: A How does water enter the crankcase of a diesel engine? 1598 Through the crankcase exhauster. A. As water vapor contained contained in blow-by. blow-by. B. Demulsifying lube oil passing through the main bearings. C. Condensation from vapor formed in the expansion tank. D. Ans: B Cooling water water pumps driven by direct-reversing diesel engines are 1600 usually ____________. curved impeller vane with tangential outlet A. curved impeller vane with concentric outlet B. straight impeller vane with concentric housing C. straight impeller vane with tangential housing D. Ans: C Scale and dirt accumulation in the waterside of a lube oil cooler will 1602 be indicated by a gradual increase in the lube oil ____________.
An air leak in the header tank cover Benzotriazole found in the primary water Eroded baffle in the cooler C. Low level in expansion tank D. Ans: C Cooling water pumps pumps driven by direct reversing diesel engines are 1603 usually of the straight impeller vane type pump with a concentric housing to ____________.
TBN number viscosity temperature C. foaming D. Ans: C In a bypass type lubrication system for a diesel engine, the dirty oil 1604 line to the centrifuge should be taken from the _____________.
facilltiate bi-directional operation provide the greatest pump efficiency prevent pump clogging from marine growth C. prevent cavitation at the pump outlet D. Ans: A The depth of fuel oil in a tank is normally measured through the 1605 _____________. vent line A. overflow line B. feed line C. sounding tube D. Ans: D When centrifuging heavy fuel oil, an important factor to consider is 1607 the _________.I. flow rate II. viscosity of the fuel oil
lube oil pump suction line lube oil pump discharge line bottom of the lube oil sump C. outlet from the lube oil header D. Ans: C Standby, or emergency diesel generator generator day tanks should always 1606 be kept full to reduce the possibility of __________. sediment contamination A. fuel filter clogging B. moisture formation C. inadequate transfer pump suction head D. Ans: C Valves used in diesel engine fuel oil pressure piping are to be 1608 _______________.
B.
C.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B. C. D.
C.
A.
B.
A.
B.
A.
B.
I only is correct II only is correct both I and II are correct neither I nor II
C Heavy residual fuel oils are heated prior to centrifuging to _____________. reduce fuel weight A. increase specific gravity B. separate fuel from lube oil C. reduce fuel viscosity D. Ans: D Which of the listed types of gasket material should be used on high 1611 pressure fuel oil lines on a diesel engine? Fiberglass A. Sheet asbestos B. Neoprene C. Ans:
1609
B.
A. B. C. D.
so constructed as to permit packing under pressure solenoid released upon the failure of engine lubrication either of the gate or globe valve type forge constructed under the approval of the the Marine Marine Inspector
A Lube oil pumps taking suction from the sump of most small marine engines are usually _____________. of the diaphragm type A. of the centrifugal type B. of the positive displacement type C. independently driven by electric motors D. Ans: C A centrifuge is normally used to purify _____________. _____________. 1612 Ans:
1610
A. B. C.
cooling water fuel oil sea water
Page 92
different type centrifuges are required for the main engine and reduction gear lube systems Ans: D If the cooling cooling water temperature temperature and the lube oil temperature in a 1613 diesel engine are too high, the cause can be _____________. D.
D.
diesel intake air
Ans:
B Which of the listed substances can be satisfactorily removed from diesel fuel by c entrifuging?
1614
a dirty lube oil strainer internal water leaks an oil suction line restriction C. excessive wear of the cooling water pump D. Ans: D When fuel oil is accidentally mixed with lube oil which ofthe following 1615 processes can be used to separate them? I. filtering filtering II. settling settling
Sludge Gasoline Fuel oil C. lube oil D. Ans: A Whether using a centrifuge or a simple filter, oil cleaning and 1616 filtration will will be the most effective when the oil is at a _____________.
I only II only either I or II C. neither I nor II D. Ans: D A centrifugal fuel oil purifier purifier should be shut down if if 1617 _____________. more sealing water is needed A. the cover clamp needs tightening B. the purifier has a bad v ibration when started C. water is discharged from the overflow line D. Ans: C For optimum results, centrifugal purification purification of heavy fuel oil should 1619 be accomplished with the the fuel at the lowest practicable practicable ______________.
high temperature and a high v iscosity high temperature and a low viscosity low temperature and a high viscosity C. low temperature and low viscosity D. Ans: B The most effective method in removing water from diesel fuel oil is 1618 by _____________. centrifuging the fuel A. using it in the engine B. heating the fuel tanks C. straining the fuel D. Ans: A Valves and fittings used with diesel diesel engine fuel oil oil pressure piping 1620 may be threaded in sizes up to and including 60 mm O.D., but screwed unions ________.
A. B.
A. B.
A.
B.
A.
B.
A.
throughput
A.
are to be used on pressure lines in sizes 33 mm O.D. and over
B.
additive percent
B.
over 33 mm O.D. will be permitted permitted in lieu of flanged flanged connections
C.
cetane number
C.
D.
TBN number
D.
shall not be used in any instance instance where the fitting fitting is subjected to excessive vibration are not to be used on pressure lines in sizes 33 mm O.D. and over
Ans:
D
Ans:
A
Page 93
ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE - GENERAL WORKSHOP PRACTICE, SOLDERING, BRAZING, WELDING AND GAS CUTTING Which of the following conditions will indicate a need for a finishing In machine shop practice, a center gage is used for checking the 1621 1622 cut to be taken on the pump shaft? angle of ______________. A. Roughness A. drill points B. Deep ridges B. screw threads C. Corrugations C. screw thread pitch D. All of the above D. 60° thread cutting tools Ans: A Ans: D Very small irregularities on the seat and disk of a globe v alve may If a drill press is used to completely bore through a metal plate, feed 1623 1624 be manually repaired with the valve in place by the process known pressure on the drill bit should be eased as the bit breaks through as _____________. the bottom of the hole to prevent ________________. honing lapping in refacing spotting in B Before the longitudinal carriage feed of a lathe is engaged, you must be certain the _____________. A. spindle clutch is disengaged B. carriage clamp screw is loosened C. carriage stop clamp is tightened D. thread dial indicator is zeroed Ans: B The taper produced by a lathe taper attachment is determined by setting the _________. A. guide (swivel) bar B. automatic cross feed C. tailstock off center D. compound rest angle Ans: A To properly remove packing from a v alve stuffing box, you should use a _____________. A. sharpened rod of silver solder B. packing puller C. chisel and hammer D. screw driver Ans: B Which of the following definitions accurately describes "tool feed" when referring to lathe work? A. The distance the tool advances with each revolution of the work. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1625
1627
1629
1631
B. The distance from the bottom of the cut to the uncut surface of the workpiece. C. The distance the workpiece circumference moves past the cutting tool point in one minute. D. The chip length that will be removed from the work in one minute. Ans: A The diameter of a hole drilled for tapping threads into a piece of stock should be _____________. A. larger than the tap diameter B. smaller than the tap diameter C. the same size as the tap diameter D. the same size as the bolt diameter Ans: B Machine bolts are identified by their _____________. 1635 1633
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1637
type of head major diameter and length threads per inch all of the above D When a lathe is used for thread cutting, the number of threads per inch produced is determined by the speed relationship between the _____________.
A. drive motor and spindle B. spindle and feed rod C. lead screw and head stock spindle D. lead screw and feed rod Ans: C
1626
1628
1630
1632
A. drill bit breakage B. undersized holes C. straining the spindle D. dulling the drill Ans: A Which of the devices listed should be used to reshape a grinding wheel? A. A round nose tool B. An oil stone C. A wheel dressing tool D. A sharp nose tool Ans: C A thread die will be easier to start if the end of the piece of material to be threaded is slightly ____________. A. peened B. reamed C. center drilled D. chamfered Ans: D Tapping threads into a blind hole should be finished by using a ____________. A. short tap B. taper tap C. plug tap D. bottoming tap Ans: D The "pitch" of a screw is the _____________. A. angle formed by adjacent flanks of a thread B. number of threads divided by the length of the threaded portion of the screw C. distance between corresponding points on adjacent threads
D. angle of taper formed by the centerline of the screw and the crests of the thread Ans: C A tapered shank drill is removed from the drill press spindle with a 1634 _____________. A. taper punch B. drill drift C. vice grip D. leather mallet Ans: B Diamond point chisels are best used for cutting ___________. 1636 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1638
oil grooves in bearings V-grooves and inside sharp angles holes through metal plate keyways having square corners B To remove a hand held right-handed straight cut reamer after it has gone all the way through a hole, you should __________________.
A. turn the tap wrench clockwise, simultaneously raising the reamer B. tap the reamer out with a softfaced hammer C. turn the tap wrench counterclockwise, simultaneously raising the reamer D. work the reamer side to side to dislodge it Ans: A
Page 94
The proper file for a finishing cut on soft metal, such as brass, is the ____________. A. smooth cut file B. warding file C. mill file D. second cut file Ans: C The names plug, bottom, and taper refer to _________. 1641 1639
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1643 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1645
pipe fittings measuring instruments machinist's hand taps drill press parts C For cutting thin tubing or sheet m etal, the proper hacksaw blade should have ______________. the teeth pointing towards the handle the blade and teeth of "all-hard" quality 14 teeth per inch 32 teeth per inch D Taps and dies used for threading pipe are ____________.
not hardened not fluted tapered straight C If you are cutting external threads by hand and you start the die at an angle, the threads will _____________. A. be out of round on the work B. be cut crooked on the work C. be rough, weak, and easily broken D. straighten out after the third revolution Ans: B Before boring a blind tapered hole, a good shop practice to follow is to ______________. A. use a tapered reamer B. drill to the large diameter of the taper C. drill to the small diameter of the taper D. bore a straight hole Ans: C The complete tool used for manually cutting threads on pipe is called a pipe ________________. A. tool and die B. stock and die C. tap D. chaser Ans: B To properly make and fit a new gasket to a flange, you should _________________. A. place the gasket over the flange and knock off the excess material with a lead mallet B. remove excess gasket material by trimming with scissors or tin snips
To properly install a new blade in a hand hacksaw frame, the _______________. A. teeth should point toward the handle B. teeth should point away from the handle C. blade should be kept loose in the frame D. blade should be 10 inches in length Ans: B Round split dies are usually adjustable to ________________. 1642 1640
allow threading on oversized stock control the diameter of threads cut to help start the die squarely on the round stock allow threading up to a shoulder B A metal file has become clogged with filings and should be cleaned 1644 with a file ______________. A. scraper B. card C. oilstone D. dressing tool Ans: B Copper tubing is best cut with a ________________________. 1646 A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1647
1649
1651
1653
C. make up the flanged joint to make an impression of the flange surfaces to insure a pattern for proper alignment D. cut grooves into the flange with a chisel to ensure good gasket contact Ans: B The terms rough, coarse, bastard, second cut, smooth, and dead 1655 smooth refer to the ________. shape of the file coarseness of the file teeth size of the file cuts of the file B A follower rest should be used with a lathe to machine 1657 __________________. A. large diameter stock between centers B. threads on long slender shafts C. work mounted on the lathe c arriage D. round stock to a finished dimension Ans: B
1648
1650
1652
1654
A. tubing cutter B. hand hacksaw C. pipe cutter D. flare cutter Ans: A The tool used to expand and "bell" the ends of small diameter copper tubing is a/an _____________. A. adjustable tube roller B. adjustable belling tool C. flaring tool D. tubing expander Ans: C When coming to the end of a cut using a hand hacksaw, you should _____________. A. stop applying the cutting fluid B. reduce cutting speed and pressure C. change to a finer cut blade D. increase cutting speed and pressure Ans: B Which of the listed punches can be properly used to free a tapered pin "frozen" in its hole? A. Drift punch B. Aligning punch C. Center punch D. Prick punch Ans: A Which of the following statements best defines "depth of cut" in lathe work? A. The distance to tool point advances with each revolution of the work. B. The distance from the bottom of the cut to the uncut surface of the workpiece. C. The distance the workpiece circumference moves past the cutting tool point in 1 minute. D. The chip length that will be removed from the work in 1 minute.
1656
A. B. C. D. Ans:
Ans: B For greater accuracy, some micrometers have a v ernier scale making it possible to read in increments of _______________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
1658 A. B. C. D. Ans:
one hundreth of a millimetre one thousandth of a millimetre one tenth of a m illimetre one thosandth of a metre B Many micrometers are equipped with a ratchet stop at the end of the thimble to _____________. click at each increment of measure prevent the user from closing the tool with too much force stop the spindle from sliding out of the barrel eliminate ratchet movement B
Page 95
1659
1661
1663
1665
1667
To commence cutting threads with a metal lathe, you should engage the ___________. A. feed-change lever B. split or half-nut C. back gear lever D. thread-chasing dial Ans: B What basic dimensions are used in describing machine bolts? A. Diameter and length only B. Diameter and cross section only C. Diameter, length, and number of threads per inch D. Diameter, head size, and shoulder length Ans: C To safely change spindle speeds on a lathe, you must first _____________. A. disengage the spindle clutch B. engage the feed change lever C. disengage the feed reverse lever D. stop the lathe rotation Ans: D A twist drill gage can be used to measure the drill's ________________. A. length B. diameter C. clearance angle D. web thickness Ans: B If all of the metals listed below are two inches in diameter, which of those listed can be cut with the highest operating lathe speed?
A. Cast iron B. Machine steel C. Aluminum D. Soft brass Ans: C After cutting a piece of tubing to be flared, you should 1669 ___________. A. remove inside burrs with a reamer B. rough up the outside surface of the tube end with a file C. flare the tube before removing the burrs D. crimp the tube end in order to slip on the fitting Ans: A The best method of determining the number of threads per inch of 1671 a bolt or screw would be through the use of a __________.
1660
1662
1664
1666
1668
The correct torque value for a micrometer torque wrench is reached when _____________. A. the scale is read on the handle B. the dial is read on the handle C. an audible click is heard and the handle releases D. a dial lights on the handle Ans: C A micrometer would be used to measure ____________. A. microseconds B. round stock diameter C. electrical resistance D. low voltages Ans: B The rotating part of a micrometer is the known as the _________________. A. anvil B. barrel C. frame D. thimble Ans: D When knurling a piece of work on a lathe, it is important to ________________. A. operate the lathe at the slowest speed B. use plenty of oil C. mount the knurling tool securely in the tool post D. all of the above Ans: D For proper support when turning a long thin piece of work between lathe centers, you should use a ___________________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
faceplate steady rest draw-in collet chuck compound rest B Shim stock thickness is measured by a/an __________________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
shim gage feeler gage outside micrometer inside micrometer C The temper is likely to be drawn out of a chisel edge when you _____________.
1670
1672
thread tool gage machinist's scale screw pitch gage screw thread micrometer C To get an accurate inside measurement of the diameter of a 1/2 1673 inch hole, you should use a/an ____________. A. depth micrometer B. inside micrometer C. small hole gauge D. inside spring caliper Ans: C The proper use of a flat chisel is for cutting ____________. 1675 A. inside corners B. slots or keyways C. half-round grooves D. flat stock Ans: D The best type of chisel to use for cutting a keyway is the 1677 ____________. A. round nose chisel B. flat cold chisel
hold it next to a wet grinding wheel soak it in hot oil for lengthy periods grind the cutting angle too small grind it for long periods of time with too much pressure D Solder used for joining metal surfaces should have a 1674 ______________. A. fusing point much higher than that of the metals being joined B. melting point lower than that of the metals being joined C. coating of Borax flux to raise the melting point D. composition of lead and tin if the solder is the "hard" type Ans: B Soldering flux aids the soldering process by _____________. 1676 A. softening the metals B. fusing the metals C. removing oxides D. hardening the metals Ans: C In an oxygen acetylene welding outfit, the torch tip orifice size 1678 ____________. A. depends on the hose length B. determines the amount of acetylene and oxygen fed to the flames
C. diamond point chisel D. cape chisel Ans: D When welding or burning with a oxygen-acetylene, the acetylene 1679 working pressure must not exceed ____________.
C. can be varied by rotating the tip D. depends on the regulator flow rate Ans: B A coolant is usually used when cutting metal in a power hacksaw to 1680 prevent the _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. 0.1bar B. 0.3bar
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. heat of friction B. blade from overheating
Page 96
C. 1bar D. 1.6bar Ans: C A weld with triangular cross sections is used to join two surfaces at 1681 right angles to each other, and is called a ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1683 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1685
seam weld plug weld tack weld fillet weld D Which of the following procedures is used to bring a hole to finished size with high accuracy? Coring Boring Broaching Reaming D When welding mild steel with a shielded metal-arc electrode, and getting only shallow penetration, you should __________.
use a lower current speed up your electrode travel use larger electrodes increase the amperage D Which of the factors listed governs the intensity of heat required for any given welding job? A. The strength of the bond only. B. The strength of the bond and the welding process being used.
C. blade from bending D. cut from clogging Ans: B If you have to completely grind a new point on a high speed drill, 1682 which of the following could happen if it is cooled in cold water immediately after grinding? A. B. C. D. Ans: 1684 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1686
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1687
marked with chalk prick punched scribed blued B Which of the following statements is correct concerning welding sequences? A. First, weld the joints that will tend to contract the most. B. First, weld attachments which will restrain points of maximum contraction. C. Make a weld across an unwelded plate joint in adjoining members.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1688
C. The type of metal being joined only. D. The type of metal being joined and the welding process being used.
The edges will be dulled. The 59° angle will be lost due to metal contraction. Cracks may appear in the metal. The cutting surface will become annealed by the cold water. C Which of the devices listed can be used to measure any angle on a blueprint or drawing? Vernier Protractor Planimeter Compass B Before drilling a hole in a piece of metal, the location of the hole center should be ______________.
Ans: D A taper tap is correctly used for _________. A. starting threads in a hole B. producing tapered threads in a hole C. deepening the extent of existing threads in a hole D. finishing the threading operation in a blind hole Ans: A Ball peen hammers are sized according to their ____________. 1691
D. Each successive welded part should be restrained to lock in stresses and avoid cracking. Ans: A A screwdriver should never be used as a ________. 1690 A. pry bar B. chisel C. punch D. all of the above Ans: D A tap marked "1/4-20" will cut a thread _____________. 1692
overall length head weight face diameter peen head size B The Phillips screwdriver has a blunt end and flukes with an angle of 1693 ________. A. 10° B. 45° C. 30° D. 60° Ans: C The main difference between a common lathe dog and a safety 1695 lathe dog is that the latter _____________. A. is more easily centered B. has a headless set screw C. has a spring loaded catch D. allows for misaligned center holes Ans: B Which of the files listed is produced with two safe edges? 1697
A. 1/4 inch in diameter with a pitch of 20 threads per inch B. 1/2 inch long having a total of 20 threads C. a total of 20 threads with a pitch of 1/4 inch D. 1/20 of an inch long and 1/4 inch in diameter Ans: A When using a handheld hacksaw, you should apply pressure only 1694 on the forward stroke ____________. A. only when cutting thin wall tubing B. only when cutting carbon steel C. only when cutting conduit D. at all times Ans: D For cutting cast iron or soft steel, the proper hacksaw blade should 1696 have ________. A. 14 teeth per inch B. 18 teeth per inch C. 24 teeth per inch D. 32 teeth per inch Ans: A Screwdrivers designed for electrical use should have ______. 1698
1689
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1699 A. B. C. D.
Mill Pillar Half round Knife B The length of a file is always measured exclusive of the ______________. edge tang point heel
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1700 A. B. C. D.
longer than normal shanks larger than normal shanks shorter than normal shanks insulated handles D Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed for the precision assembly of small parts? Ratchet Jeweler's cabinet-tip Square-shanked
Page 97
1701
Ans: B When cutting sheet metal too thin to be held in your hand while using a hand held hacksaw, the sheet metal should be placed between two ____________.
blocks of steel blocks of wood pieces of sand paper pieces of cloth B A fine wire bristled brush used for cleaning files is called a 1703 ______________. A. file brush B. file card C. pulling brush D. cleaning card Ans: B Protective equipment to be used while carrying out oxyacetylene 1705 welding should always include ____________. A. goggles B. ear plugs C. non-sparking tools D. steel toe safety shoes Ans: A Why is a covering applied to a welding electrode, rather than using 1707 a bare electrode? A. Protect the welder from electric shock. B. Prevent arc blow. C. Shield the arc during the welding process to prevent oxidation. A. B. C. D. Ans:
D. Stabilize the electron emission rate and produce uniform temperatures in the heat affected zone. Ans: C Some of the hazards of working with electric power tools may be 1709 avoided if the operator insures that _____________. A. they are properly grounded B. eye shields and gloves are worn C. loose clothing and jewelry are not worn D. all of the above Ans: D To ensure the stock is running true in a lathe, you should use a 1711 ____________. A. center gage B. gage block C. dial indicator D. micrometer Ans: C A manual process used to remove small irregularities by grinding 1713 the contact surfaces together of a valve, is c alled _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1715
spotting-in honing lapping-in refacing C An eroded globe valve disk can be repaired by _____________.
A. taking a light cut in a lathe B. sandblasting with light weight grit C. dressing the seat with crocus cloth D. scraping with a bastard file Ans: A After a piece of pipe has been cut, a good shop practice to ream 1717 out the burr left in the pipe. This is done to _______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1719
A. B. C. D.
make a taper for starting the threading die make the taper required for pipe threads remove tool marks which could interfere with flow prevent the burr from restricting flow in the pipe D When using a hand die to cut threads on brass stock, the threads can be dry cut or may be lubricated with __________. graphite and oil white lead lard oil kerosene
1702
Ans: B The type of tooth set on a hacksaw blade where the teeth are continuously staggered with one to the left and one to the right is known as ___________.
A. alternate B. double alternate C. raker D. wave Ans: A Which of the following problems will cause a twist drill to cut 1704 improperly? A. Improper lip clearance B. Improper cutting angle C. Improper clearance angle D. All of the above Ans: D Before welding is permitted on a fuel tank, it must be certified or 1706 declared _____________. A. safe for personnel B. safe for hot work C. not safe for personnel D. not safe for hot work Ans: B You should never watch the arc generated during electricarc welder 1708 with the naked eye because _____________. A. serious flash burns will result B. arc blow will burn your face C. the fumes are highly toxic D. slag and metal splatter will get in your eyes Ans: A If a bolt or stud were to break off flush at the surface, which of the listed actions must be done to begin its removal? A. Tap the bolt with a starting punch extractor. B. Heat the bolt with an oxyacetylene torch. C. Drill a hole in the center of the broken stud. D. Use a screw extractor only. Ans: C When using a wheel dressing tool to true up a grinding wheel, you 1712 should always _____________. A. lubricate the dressing tool B. operate the grinder in neutral C. remove the tool rest from the grinder D. wear goggles to protect your eyes Ans: D While reaming a hole, the reamer should not be turned backwards 1714 if the hole has not been fully reamed because _______________. 1710
A. the cutting edges may be damaged B. turning in the wrong direction will cause chatter C. the shank will loosen in the tap wrench D. reverse rotation will make the hole oversize Ans: A After a piece of pipe is cut, the opening in the end should be 1716 cleaned out with a _____________. A. pipe reamer B. pipe cleaner C. taper tool D. hole cleaner Ans: A An acetylene pressure regulator should never be adjusted to 1718 maintain pressures exceeding 1bar (103.4 kPa) because ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1720
A. B. C. D.
the relief valve will lift the fusible plug will blowout rapid depletion of acetylene is hazardous this gas become extremely unstable under this condition D The term referring to the number of teeth per inch on a hacksaw blade is known as the _____________. set rake pitch thread gauge
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1721
1723
1725
1727
1729
1731
1733
1735
1737
1739
Ans: C Some of the hazards associated with air-operated power tools may be avoided if the operator would _____________. A. inspect the hoses for cracks and other defects B. remove jewelry and loose clothing C. bleed air pressure from the lines before breaking the connections D. all of the above Ans: D A wrench that completely surrounds a nut, or bolt head is a/an ____________. A. adjustable wrench B. open end wrench C. tappet wrench D. box wrench Ans: D A lathe dog, fitted with a headless set screw, is known as a ____________. A. clamp lathe dog B. standard lathe dog C. safety lathe dog D. common lathe dog Ans: C Which of the wrenches listed practically eliminates the possibility of its slipping off while tightening a nut or bolt? A. Open end wrench B. Box end wrench C. Crescent wrench D. Monkey wrench Ans: B If you are hand tapping holes in cast iron, you should _____________. A. tap the holes without cutting oil B. flood the tap with mineral oil C. chamfer the edges of the holes D. start tapping with a plug tap Ans: A To accurately cut the proper s ize gasket for installation in a pipeline, you should use _____________. A. tin snips B. a jack knife C. a gasket cutter D. a pair of nail clippers Ans: C Oxygen and acetylene cylinders should always be stored _____________. A. upright with the cylinder caps screwed on B. horizontal with the cylinder caps screwed on C. upright with the cylinder caps off D. horizontal with the cylinder caps off Ans: A When using a portable droplight, you should always insure that the _____________. A. bulb is protected by a shield or guard B. extension cord is always yellow and clearly marked "FOR DROP LIGHT USE ONLY" C. bulb capacity does not exceed 75 watts D. all of the above Ans: A Safety glasses should be worn when _____________. A. using a hand portable grinder B. scraping paint with a hand scraper C. using a hammer and chisel D. all of the above Ans: D Which of the following practices is considered to be safe for the handling and use of compressed gas cylinders? A. Using oxygen as a substitute for compressed air for pneumatic tools. B. Routinely greasing or lubricating the valves on oxygen cylinders.
1722
1724
1726
1728
1730
1732
1734
1736
Ans: C All portable electric tools should have a ground connection to prevent _____________. A. electric shock if the tool is shorted B. burning out the motor from an overload C. overloading the motor from a short D. grounding the plastic case through a short Ans: A Which of the wrenches listed is least likely to slip off a bolthead or nut? A. Open end wrench B. Box end wrench C. Crescent wrench D. Spanner wrench Ans: B A thread chaser is a hand tool that should only be used for ______________. A. restoring damaged threads B. enlarging existing threads C. cutting original threads D. straightening tapered threads Ans: A To drill a hole in round stock, perpendicular to the axis of the piece, the stock should be mounted in a _____________. A. collet B. V-block C. clamp D. morse sleeve Ans: B A hacksaw blade is normally placed in the saw frame with the ______________. A. maximum possible tension on the blade B. teeth pointing away from the handle C. blade tooth set adjusted for maximum cutting width D. teeth angled toward the saw handle Ans: B When listed by pitch, which of the hacksaw blades listed would be the most suitable for cutting thin tubing? A. 14 teeth per inch B. 18 teeth per inch C. 24 teeth per inch D. 32 teeth per inch Ans: D Protective equipment while carrying out oxyacetylene welding should include the use of ____________. A. goggles B. cotton gloves C. trousers with deep pockets D. wool jackets Ans: A Cracks may be prevented from developing at the corners of welded plating inserts by ____________. A. squaring the corners B. rounding the corners
C. plug welding the corners D. slot welding the corners Ans: B Internal pipe threads are cut with _____________. 1738 A. dies B. reamers C. taps D. tap drills Ans: C When machining a long piece of work between centers, you must 1740 ________________. A. make sure that the lathe dog is securely jammed in the s lot of the face plate B. correct for expansion of the work by readjusting the tailstock center
C. The storage of the cylinders in a well ventilated compartment.
C. make sure that the work is only supported by the headstock center
D. Cracking the valve on a hydrogen cylinder to clear dust and dirt.
D. make sure the tailstock is tight against the work
Ans: C
Ans: B
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If the point angle of a drill is less than 59°, the _______________.
1741
hole will be drilled too large hole will take longer to drill drill will not center properly drill will cut undersized B While carrying out electric arc welding, there is alwaysthe danger of 1743 _____________. A. developing burns to the retina of the eye B. fire C. electric shock D. all of the above Ans: D What is the distinguishing difference between the Phillips and the 1745 Reed and Prince type screwdrivers? A. The diameter of the shanks. A. B. C. D. Ans:
B. The angle of the tip flukes. C. The overall length of the sc rewdriver. D. None of the above. Ans: B Safe welding practice requires _____________. 1747 A. checking the area for items that may catch fire B. that a fire watch be posted C. checking for explosive gases D. all of the above Ans: D Which statement describes the function of the filler material used in 1749 acetylene cylinders? A. It reduces the danger of explosion. B. It chemically reacts with acetone to produce ac etylene. C. It neutralizes the gas to render it harmless. D. It is fire resistant and reduces fire hazards. Ans: A Which term applies to a hacksaw blade having short sec tions of 1751 teeth bent in opposite directions? A. Alternate B. C. D. Ans: 1753
Double alternate Rake Wave D When gas welding or burning, the acetylene working pressure must be kept below 15 psi to prevent a possible ___________.
A. explosion B. torch backfire C. torch flameout D. acetone fire Ans: A Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed to protect small 1755 screws from being over tightened? A. Magnetic screwdriver B. Torque limiting screwdriver C. Variable speed screwdriver with a jacobs chuck D. Constant rpm screwdriver with a jacobs chuck Ans: B Which of the files listed will have coarsely spaced teeth? 1757 A. Second cut B. Dead smooth cut C. Bastard cut D. Smooth cut Ans: C For drilling or machining cast iron, which of the cutting lubricants is it 1759 necessary to use? A. Lard oil B. Soluble oil C. Kerosene D. None of the above Ans: D When using a chisel, you should ___________. 1761
As the drill bit is being fed into a metal work piece, a squeaking sound from the tip of the bit indicates _____________.
1742
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1744
the bit is too large for the hole the bit tip has not been properly ground insufficient force has been applied on the drill bit a continuous chip is being taken by the drill bit B A hazard associated with electric arc welding is _____________.
the effects of radiation from the arc flying sparks electric shock all of the above D In order to minimize distortion in a weldment due to shrinkage, you 1746 should ____________. A. use intermittent welds rather than c ontinuous welds wherever possible B. make fewer passes with larger electrodes as opposed to a great number of passes with small electrodes C. use restraining forces such as clamps, jigs, and fixtures D. all of the above Ans: D A hacksaw blade will break if ________. 1748 A. the rate of cutting is too great B. the blade becomes loose in the frame C. too much pressure is applied to the blade D. all the above Ans: D Sawing faster than a rate of 40 to 50 strokes per minute while using 1750 a hand held hacksaw will generally ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
sharpen the blade cause the blade to cut faster dull the blade not change how the blade cuts C Acetylene should never be used at pressures in excess of 1barg(15 psig) because the ____________. A. acetylene cylinders have a maximum allowable pressure of 15 psig
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1752
B. C. D. Ans: 1754
fusible plug will blow out relief valve will lift slightest shock could cause an explosion D The terms rough, coarse, bastard, second cut, smooth, and dead smooth refer to the ________.
distance between the parallel cuts of a file size of the file coarseness of file teeth both A and C are correct D When arc welding, you can reduce the chance of a dangerous electric shock by _____________. A. using insulated electrode holders B. wearing dry welding gloves C. avoiding wet or damp areas while using arc welding equipment
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1756
D. all of the above Ans: D Which of the files listed is provided with only one safe edge? 1758 A. Mill B. Pillar C. Half round D. Bastard Ans: D Which of the screwdrivers listed is fastest and most convienent 1760 when tightening many screws? A. Square shank B. Offset C. Ratchet D. Standard Ans: C A file coated with oil and stowed away will ________. 1762
Page 100
A. wear gloves B. hold the tool lightly C. be certain it is a nonsparking type D. wear safety glasses Ans: D The tool used to remove a ball bearing from the shaft of a motor is 1763 called a _____________. A. slugging wrench B. gear puller C. drift pin D. come along Ans: B Rapid wear on the extreme outer corners to the cutting edges of a 1765 drill bit is the result of the drill having ______________. too much cutting speed not enough cutting speed too much clearance angle not enough margin width C When drilling holes in metal, which of the materials listed does not have to be lubricated? A. Tool steel
A. cause the file to overheat B. cause the file to slide across the work and prevent fast, clean cutting C. cause dust and metal particles to collect in the teeth D. both B and C are correct Ans: D Pushing the file endways (or with the axis), under pressure, against 1764 the work, is called ___________. A. stroke filing B. cross filing C. draw filing D. standard form filing Ans: B All straight shanked twist drills must be mounted or held in a 1766 _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1767
B. Cast iron C. Mild steel D. Cast steel Ans: B When internal threading for piping where the work permits the tap 1769 to be run entirely through you can begin and end the tapping of the hole by using a ____________. A. taper tap B. plug tap C. bottoming tap D. finishing tap Ans: A Needle nosed pliers are best used to __________. 1771 A. strip insulation from electric wire or cable B. perform work in tight places ordinary pliers cannot C. cut recessed cotter pins D. tighten electrical wire clamps Ans: B A pipe, or Stillson wrench functions best when _____________. 1773 A. the bite is taken midway up the jaw teeth B. the wrench jaws are at the widest open setting C. a maximum pull is exerted with one hand D. an extension is placed on the wrench handle Ans: A Large size pipe can be easily rotated with a _____________. 1775
1768
B. pointing away from the motor end of the machine C. pointing toward the motor if using a 4 or 6 tooth blade and away from the motor if using a 10 or 14 tooth blade D. pointing toward the motor end of the machine Ans: D Setting up a welding job, where the work is the positive pole and the 1770 electrode is the negative pole for the arc, is known as a/an ____________.
1772
1774
1776
A. chain pipe wrench B. monkey wrench C. basin wrench D. strong back
1777
Ans: A Which of the chisels listed should be used for cutting oil grooves?
Diamond point Flat cold Round nose Square nose C Which of the following procedures should be used with a chisel 1779 having a mushroomed head? A. Remove the ragged edges by grinding. B. Do not strike the m ushroomed portion. C. Use only light hammer blows with the chisel. D. Knock off the ragged edges with a hammer. Ans: A A. B. C. D. Ans:
drill socket tapered sleeve drill chuck morse sleeve C The blade for a power hacks aw should be installed with the teeth ___________________. A. pointing either toward or away from the motor end of the machine
A. B. C. D. Ans:
1778
A. straight polarity welding circuit B. inert-arc welding circuit C. shielded-arc welding circuit D. reverse polarity welding circuit Ans: A Which material can be drilled at the highest speed? A. Aluminum B. Medium cast iron C. Copper D. High carbon steel Ans: A A tool used for measuring, or laying out angles is called a ____________. A. trammel B. protractor C. micrometer D. caliper rule Ans: B When securing an oxyacetylene cutting outfit for an extended period, you should close the ____________. A. hand valves on the torch only B. cylinder valves only C. cylinder valves and close torch valves with 4 to 5 pounds of pressure in the hoses D. cylinder valves and close torch valves when pressure in hoses and regulators is zero Ans: D To determine the diameter of a small hole, which of the listed tools must be used with a small hole gage to get an accurate reading?
A. A Center gage B. Wire gage C. Micrometer D. None of the above Ans: C To measure the diameter of a piece of round stock, you should use 1780 a ___________. A. dial indicator B. wire gauge C. micrometer D. circular slide rule Ans: C
Page 101
To set the dividers to the proper radius, you should use a _______________. A. micrometer B. scribing circle C. steel rule D. calipers Ans: C When drilling a hole in a piece of work chucked in a lathe, you 1783 should mount the drill chuck in the ____________. A. compound rest B. cross feed C. tailstock D. headstock Ans: C The lathe steady rest is normally used for supporting one end of a 1785 _____________. 1781
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1787
short heavy casting held in a three jaw chuck long workpiece for facing, drilling, and boring short workpiece being machined to an internal taper tubular workpiece being parted between centers B When steel, cast iron, or other metals with surface scale are being turned, the first roughing cut should be taken ___________________.
slowly to prevent tool chatter deep enough to get under the scale lightly to avoid dulling the tool rapidly in a continuous chip B The terms rough, coarse, bastard, second cut, smooth, and dead smooth refer to the ________. A. parts of the file B. shape of the file C. distance between the parallel cuts on the file D. size of the file Ans: C Which of the lathe operations listed is best done with the carriage locked in position? A. Facing work held in a chuck. B. Turning work held between centers. C. Threading internal threads. D. Boring an angled hole. Ans: A The most accurate method of setting an inside caliper is to use a/an _____________. A. thread micrometer B. outside micrometer C. engineer's scale D. dial indicator Ans: B A taper may be turned on a lathe by _____________. A. setting over the tailstock B. using the compound rest C. using the taper attachment D. all of the above Ans: D The best tool to use when attempting to widen the opening of a flanged joint, in preparation for renewing the gasket, is a _____________.
Which of the instruments listed is used to measure the gauge of a piece of sheet metal? A. Gauge calibrator B. Wire gauge C. Inside micrometer D. Circular mil Ans: B A tailstock "dead center" has been given that name because it 1784 ____________. A. is dead centered on the tailstock spindle B. does not revolve C. must be removed by clamping in the chuck D. fits into the dead center of the workpiece Ans: B For boring holes in mild steel and general work, the correct included 1786 angle of a drill point is _____________. 1782
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1788
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1789
1791
1793
1795
1797
gasket cutter spud wrench scraper flange spreader D A metal scribe should only be used to _____________. 1799 A. remove packing B. mark on metal C. punch gasket holes D. clean file teeth Ans: B A roughened checkered surface is machined by a lathe on round 1801 stock using a ______________. A. knurling tool B. checkering tool C. chamfering tool D. threading tool A. B. C. D. Ans:
29° 45° 90° 118° D If you are machining work held between lathe centers, and the lathe centers begin to squeal, you should first _____________.
lubricate the centers stop the lathe change the cutting bit run the lathe at a slower speed B If the drill point lips are of unequal length, the drill will wobble and ______________. A. cut a continuous chip B. jam in the hole and break C. cut an oversized hole D. overheat rapidly from rubbing Ans: C Which of the screwdrivers listed is produced with a tip to fit screws with a fourway or cross slot? A. Standard B. Phillips C. Allen D. Torx Ans: B The dead center of a lathe can be properly used only after the end of the work piece has been ____________. A. counter bored B. tapered C. center drilled D. convexed Ans: C The tang of a file is the part that ___________. A. does the cutting B. fits into the handle C. has crosscut teeth D. is opposite the handle Ans: B A hand hacksaw blade is normally installed in the saw frame with the teeth pointing away from the saw handle, because ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
1790
1792
1794
1796
1798
the blade will always break if installed otherwise cutting fluid must flow down the teeth the blade will overheat if installed otherwise cutting pressure is most easily put on the forward stroke D Open end wrenches are _____________. 1800 A. nonadjustable solid wrenches B. intended for gripping round objects C. not suitable for tubing fittings D. used with a speeder handle Ans: A Hand taps are provided in sets of three, with each being known as 1802 _____________. A. taper, plug, and finish B. short, medium, and long C. taper, plug, and bottom D. starting, through, and finishing A. B. C. D. Ans:
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Ans: A Double cut files are most effective when used for _______________. A. sharpening tools B. draw filing C. finish work D. rough work Ans: D If the drill point lips are ground at different angles, the drill will 1805 _____________. A. overheat rapidly from rubbing B. cut an oversized hole C. cut a continuous chip D. jam in the hole and break Ans: B Which of the following types of files will produce a fine finish when 1807 draw filing? A. Mill cut B. Bastard C. Double cut D. Second cut Ans: A When drilling holes larger than 12.5mm, a smaller pilot hole should 1809 be drilled first to ___________. A. ensure the maximum cut by the large drill 1803
B. provide a path for the dead center of the drill C. allow the use of a drill with a lesser lip clearance angle
Ans: C Which of the listed types of files is the best for producing a fine finish on metal? A. Mill B. Float C. Warding D. Second cut Ans: A Proper hacksaw cutting is accomplished when pressure is applied 1806 only on the __________. A. backward stroke B. forward stroke C. front of the hacksaw frame D. top of the hacksaw frame Ans: B A hacksaw blade will start a cut more easily if you 1808 _____________. A. apply maximum pressure at the start of the cut B. coat the saw blade with soap before starting the cut C. turn the saw blade at right angles to the saw frame D. file a nick where the cut is to be started Ans: D When cutting external threads on a steel pipe with a die, you should 1810 _____________. A. start the die at a slight angle with the work to create tapered threads B. tap the die with a hammer to break up the chips C. continue turning until the end of the pipe has gone through the die and is flush with the die face 1804
D. increase the cutting speed of the drill bit Ans: B To cut angle iron and heavy pipe with a hand hacksaw, you should 1811 use a blade with what number of teeth per inch?
D. never use a lubricant Ans: C When using the draw file method, which of the listed types of files 1812 will produce a fine finish?
14 18 24 32 C The tool best suited for cutting pipeline flange gaskets to the correct 1813 size is ____________. A. a pair of tin snips B. a jack knife C. a gasket cutter D. a ball peen hammer Ans: C If you are taking a roughing cut on a steel workpiece in a lathe and 1815 see blue chips coming off that workpiece, you should _______________.
A. A double cut file B. A bastard file C. A single cut file D. A second cut file Ans: C The tool used for cutting external pipe threads is called a pipe 1814 _____________. A. cutter B. stock and die C. threader D. ratchet cutter Ans: B Increasing the feed pressure on a drill as its point begins to break 1816 through the bottom of the workpiece will cause the drill to ___________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1817 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1819
1821
decrease the flow of lubricating oil to the tool reduce the cutting tool height above center reduce the tool feed or depth of cut decrease the cross compound speed C To finish tapping a blind hole, it is best to use a _____________. taper tap finishing tap bottoming tap plug tap C Which of the following statements represents the difference between a four-jaw independent chuck and a three-jaw universal chuck?
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1818 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1820
break cleanly through the bottom of the workpiece cut an elongated hole in the bottom of the workpiece form a tapered hole in the bottom of the workpiece dig into the workpiece and tend to whirl it around D Enlarging one tube end so the end of another tube of the same size will fit inside is termed ____________. belling stretching flaring swaging D When drilling holes larger than 1/2 inch, drilling a smaller hole first is a good practice. This is called a pilot hole, and the pilot drill should have a diameter ________________.
A. The jaws on the three-jaw chuck can be individually adjusted.
A. slightly larger than the web thickness of the larger drill
B. The jaws on the four-jaw chuck can be individually adjusted. C. The three-jaw chuck will hold square, round, and irregular shapes in either a concentric or an eccentric position. D. Since the three-jaw universal chuck is automatically self-centering, it is always more accurate than the four-jaw independent chuck.
B. equal to at least 1/2 the diameter of the larger drill C. smaller than the dead center of chisel edge of the larger drill
Ans: B Which of the following conditions is true concerning a radiograph taken on a large welded piping repair? A. A discontinuity in the form of a crack would appear as a thin light line against the dark background of the film.
D. small enough to ensure the maximum cut by the larger drill
1822
Ans: A Which of the precautions listed should to be observed when working with oxy-acetylene welding equipment? A. Bottles should be labeled air and gas.
Page 103
B. Porosity, a discontinuity caused by entrapped gas, would occur as various sized round dark spots. C. As long as the plane of a crack is not in direct alignment with the direction of radiation, detection is certain. D. All of the above. Ans: B When using a portable droplight, you should always insure that 1823 _____________. A. the bulb is protected by a shield or guard B. the extension cord is yellow and clearly marked C. the bulb capacity does not exceed 75 watts D. all of the above Ans: A The proper tool used for c utting new external threads is called a 1825 thread _____________. A. chaser B. die C. broach D. tap Ans: B Hidden edges in objects are represented in blueprints by 1827 ___________________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1829
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1831 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1833 A. B.
a thin solid line a thick solid line dashed lines having alternating long and short dashes dashed lines having approximately equal length dashes D The welding process using an electric arc developed between a flux covered electrode and the metal being welded is known as ____________. flux cored arc welding resistance spot welding shielded metal arc welding submerged arc welding C Which of the screwdriver tips listed will fit screws with afourway or cross type slot? Standard screwdriver Phillips screwdriver Reed and Prince screwdriver Both B and C are correct D When the insulation breaks down within a metal encased, portable, electric tool, _____________. added safety features are built into the receptacle to allow continued use of the tool care should be taken to insert the plug correctly when energizing the tool
C. you should stand on a grounded deck plate before energizing the tool D. line voltage may be placed on the tool casing making it dangerous to operate Ans: D Which of the following listed pressures is the maximum acetylene 1835 gas pressure that can be safely used in gas welding?
A. B. C. D. Ans:
10 psi 15 psi 25 psi 35 psi B A drilled hole is accurately finished to size with a _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
center drill finish drill broach reamer D Double cut files are used for ________. quick removal of metal finish work rough work both A and C D
1837
1839 A. B. C. D. Ans:
B. Keep cylinders away from exposure to cold temperatures. C. Keep oxygen regulators and valves coated with a light film of oil. D. Keep gas cylinders supported so that they can not tip over. Ans: D Which practices should be followed at all times when using an 1824 electric grinding machine? A. Wear goggles or face shield. B. Be certain that the frame is properly grounded. C. Be properly trained in the use of this tool. D. Each of the above practices. Ans: D Careful handling of compressed gas bottles should include 1826 _____________. A. stowing, to avoid them from crashing into one another B. keeping them away from flame, high heat, and direct sunlight C. keeping the valve protection caps in place D. all of the above Ans: D The operation of machining a uniformly roughened or checked 1828 surface on round stock in a lathe is called _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
checkering crosshatching knurling swaging C To properly use a lathe crotch center to drill an oil hole in a bushing, you would mount the crotch center in the ________________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
compound rest headstock tailstock chuck C The tool used to prepare copper tubing for the installation of fittings is called a _____________. swaging tool stretcher flaring tool spreader C Edges on objects not visible in the view shown are represented in blueprints by ___________________. a thick solid line
1830
1832 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1834 A.
B. dashed line having alternating long and short dashes C. dashed lines having approxiamately equal length dashes D. Hidden edges are not represented because they are "hidden".
1836
Ans: C The type of tooth set on a hacksaw blade where two adjoining teeth are staggered to the right, then two to the left, and continue to alternate in this manner is known as ________.
A. Alternate B. Double alternate C. Racker D. Wave Ans: B When using a hand held hacksaw the correct maximum rate of 1838 speed for cutting should be ________. A. 10 to 20 strokes per minute B. 80 to 100 strokes per minute C. 40 to 50 strokes per minute D. 70 to 80 strokes per minute Ans: C Using a file without a handle may result in ________. 1840 A. your work becoming rounded B. injury to your hand C. overheating of the file D. pinning Ans: B
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Which of the files listed will have closely spaced teeth for finishing to a smooth surface? A. Smooth cut B. Bastard cut C. Second cut D. Rough cut Ans: A A new file should be broken in carefully by filing a piece of 1843 ________. A. monel stock using heavy pressure B. brass stock using heavy pressure C. bronze stock using light pressure D. stainless steel stock using light pressure Ans: C Which of the files listed can be used for sharpening a tool? 1845 A. A double cut file. B. A single cut file. C. Any bastard cut file. D. Only a double bastard cut file. Ans: B Which of the listed metals can usually be drilled without lubrication? 1847
1842
Steel Brass Monel Tungsten B If the cutting edges of a drill are ground at different angles, the 1849 ___________. A. drill will not cut B. hole will be oversized C. hole will be undersized D. drill will seize immediately Ans: B When welding, a flux is used to __________. 1851
cut faster cut slower rapidly dull not cut C Some heavy duty screwdrivers are made with a square shank to 1850 _____________. A. allow it to be used as a pry bar B. prevent the shank from bending C. permit striking with a hammer D. allow turning with a wrench Ans: D A pipe or Stillson wrench should only be used on __________. 1852
1841
A. B. C. D. Ans:
control penetration reduce metal fatigue and warpage reduce oxidation increase heat transfer C A plug tap is correctly used for ___________. A. starting threads in a hole B. reversing the threads in a hole C. the second cut when threading a blind hole
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1844 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1846 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1848 A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1853
D. finishing the threads in a blind hole Ans: C The center head of a combination square set is used to 1855 ______________. A. check degrees of angle B. find right angles C. locate the center on round stock D. check the angle of thread cutting tools Ans: C To ensure a good weld, post heating is required whenever an arc 1857 weld repair is made _______________. A. with a straight polarity rod B. with a reverse polarity rod C. to a cast component (casting) D. to a part of the ship's main structure Ans: C A welding electrode is marked E-6010, this designation means that 1859 _________. A. the electrode may be used in the flat position only B. the minimum tensile strength of the weld metal will be 70,000 psi C. either insulated or uninsulated electrode holders may be used D. the electrode is to be used for shielded metal arc welding Ans: D To check the thickness of a piece of thin shim stock before using it 1861 to make a bearing shim, you should use a ____________. A. feeler gage B. micrometer
When mounted in a hand held hacksaw frame, which of the blades listed could cut smoothly through a metal file? Wave set Hardened Rod Flexible C Which of the files listed is tapered on three sides and is used to file acute internal angles? Mill Round Square Triangular D File lengths are determined by the _____________. overall length of the file distance between the face and the edge of the file distance between the point and the heel of the file length of the tang only C If the speed of a drill is too great, the drill will _______________.
hexagonal objects round objects square objects flat objects B Prussian blue is used to _____________. A. check heat exchangers for leaks in the waterside B. check the fit of a seat and disc of a valve C. check for leaks in a R-12 system if a Halide torch is not available
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1854
D. trace condensate flow in an impulse steam trap Ans: B A drill that wobbles while the drill press is in operation may 1856 ______________. A. be bent B. have a severely worn shank C. have been placed in the chuck off center D. all the above Ans: D To get an accurate measurement using a 12 inch machinist's steel 1858 rule, you should measure _____________. A. from the one inch graduation mark B. from the zero end on the scale C. on the narrow edge of the rule D. on the unmarked edge of the rule Ans: A Before power to a lathe is turned on, it is a good shop practice to 1860 first hand feed the carriage to ensure _________________. A. the carriage is lubricated B. the lathe is level C. all locking devices have been released D. the workpiece is secure in the lathe Ans: C In order to tighten the bolts of a crankpin bearing to the exact 1862 tension specified by the engine manufacturer, you should use a/an ____________. A. hook spanner B. dial wrench
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C. machinist's rule D. depth gage Ans: B When using a deflecting beam torque wrench, the torque is 1863 _____________. A. read on a scale mounted on the handle of the wrench B. read on a dial mounted on the handle of the wrench
C. offset box end D. torque wrench Ans: D Which of the following statements concerning braze welding is/are 1864 correct? A. Braze welding is an exceptionally good method of repairing malleable (special heat-treated) iron. B. A braze welded joint should be cooled immediately with cold water or forced air draft to reduce the intensity of the heat path.
C. indicated by an audible click
1865
1867
1869
1871
1873
D. indicated by a release or break of the handle Ans: A When welding with an oxyacetylene outfit, _____________. A. open the acetylene valve until the hose pressure is 26 PSIG B. open the acetylene cylinder valve only 1/4 to 1/2 turn and leave the wrench on the valve stem C. a leaking hose must be repaired by binding with tape D. a flashback of flame into the hose is normal Ans: B Tinning a soldering iron will __________. A. prevent the tip from ov erheating B. protect the tip from scratches C. add extra weight to the tip D. prevent tip oxidation when heated Ans: D When stock is being turned in a lathe the outside diameter is reduced by an amount equal to _____________. A. the depth of cut B. one half the depth of cut C. twice the depth of cut D. twice the rate of feed Ans: C Soft solders have relatively low melting points and consist mainly of ______________. A. silver base alloys B. lead base alloys C. copper base alloys D. nickel base alloys Ans: B If you are cutting off a piece of stock in a lathe and the workpiece tends to climb over the top of the cutoff tool, you should _____________. increase the lathe spindle speed increase the height of the tool c utting edge stop the lathe and tighten the chuck stop the lathe and lubricate the dead center B A dial indicator is used to measure ______________. A. shaft eccentricity B. positive readings only C. scribed layout lines on vertical surfaces D. torque of a shaft Ans: A When using a micrometer to measure a drill for size, you should measure across the drill ______________. A. margins B. flutes C. shank D. web Ans: A A micrometer screw has a pitch of _____________. A. 40 threads per cm B. 50 threads per metre C. 75 threads per mm D. 100 threads per mm Ans: A Which of the following files will produce the finest surface on a workpiece being finished filed in a lathe? A. A mill file B. A double cut file C. Any bastard cut file D. All warding files Ans: A
C. Repairs to working parts or containers used in chemical processes, especially strong alkaline solutions, are effectively accomplished with braze welding. D. All of the above. Ans: A Solder is an alloy of _____________. 1866 A. tin and lead B. beryllium and antimony
1868
1870
1872
1874
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1875
1877
1879
1881
C. copper and lead D. silicon and selenium Ans: A Flux is used when s oldering, in order to __________. A. decrease the melting point of the solder B. make the solder "flow" C. ensure proper tinning D. clean the joint area Ans: D A chisel with a mushroom head should not be used because ____________. A. the chisel cannot be struck squarely B. pieces may fly off the chisel and injure your eyes C. the hammer head may be chipped D. it must be held firmly by the head to strike it Ans: B To measure the circumference of a piece of pipe, you should use a ___________. A. machinist's steel rule B. flexible steel rule C. hook rule D. folding rule Ans: B Generally speaking, when using a twist drill to bore a hole in metal, the harder the metal, the greater should be the drill's ______________. diameter lip clearance included point angle cutting speed C The drill size is marked on the _____________. A. point B. shank C. margin D. flute Ans: B A small hole gauge is used in conjunction with a/an _________________. A. feeler gauge B. micrometer C. surface gauge D. angle gauge Ans: B Pipe thread taps are _____________. A. not hardened B. not fluted C. tapered D. straight Ans: C The 60° taper angle machined on work supported by lathe centers is most easily machined by the ___________. A. taper attachment B. compound rest C. tailstock setover method D. headstock setover method Ans: B A. B. C. D. Ans:
1876
1878
1880
1882
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Which of the following types of files is generally used for finishing?
1883
A. A double cut file B. A single cut file C. Any bastard cut file D. Only a double bastard cut file Ans: B A mill file is used to _____________. 1885 A. produce a very fine finish by draw filing B. produce a coarse finish by push filing C. file lead D. file plastic Ans: A A file handle is fitted to the file's ____________. 1887 A. tang B. point C. taper D. heel Ans: A When drilling blind holes with a standard drill press, the proper 1889 method of stopping the progress of the drill boring through the work is by __________.
The tool used in precision work to smooth or enlarge a slightly undersized hole, is called a ____________. A. round out B. round file C. reamer D. hole driller Ans: C Prussian blue is used for ________________________. 1886 A. grinding in valves B. spotting in valves C. lapping valves D. refacing valves Ans: B The best hacksaw blade to use for cutting brass is the 1888 _____________. A. flexible blade B. all-hard blade C. all-soft blade D. hollow core blade Ans: B Two separate workpieces are to have a taper cut with the same 1890 taper per inch, using the offset tailstock method. After the first piece is completed, the tailstock offset must be changed if there is a change in the _______________. 1884
A. B. C. D. Ans:
moving the working table using a depth stop adjusting the spindle return spring gaging chuck motion B With reference to the oxyacetylene welding of high carbon s teels, hard-facing, and the welding of nonferrous alloys, such as monel, the best flame to use is termed a/an ________________.
A. length of the workpiece B. diameter of the workpiece C. angle of the cutting tool D. none of the above Ans: A The designation E7028-A1 is typically located on an arc welding 1892 electrode. Which of the listed letters and/or digits correctly identifies the welding position for which the electrode is recommended?
A. B. C. D. Ans:
oxidizing flame neutral flame nitriding fusion carburizing flame D In an oxyacetylene welding outfit, each cylinder has a regulator and two pressure gages. One pressure gage indicates cylinder pressure and the other gage is used to indicate ___________________________.
A. E B. 70 C. 2 D. A1 Ans: C A workpiece has been mounted between centers and a test cut 1894 machined at each end to check alignment of the lathe centers. If the test cut on the tailstock end is deeper than the test cut on the headstock end, the tailstock must be moved __________.
1891
1893
tip pressure upstream pressure hose pressure arc pressure C An offset screwdriver is best used for _____________. A. tightening Allen head screws only B. tightening or loosening "offset type" machine screws C. driving self-tapping screws only D. screws you cannot reach with a straight shaft screwdriver Ans: D A grinding wheel is trued with a _____________. A. lathe tool B. dressing tool C. garnet stone D. round file Ans: B One of the steps required to increase the drilling speed of a drill press is to _____________. A. move the drive belt to a s maller diameter motor pulley B. move the drive belt to a smaller diameter spindle pulley C. change the terminal connections of the drive motor D. change to a larger diameter spindle Ans: B An aligning punch is used to ___________. A. line up corresponding holes in adjacent parts B. completely loosen a jammed bolt C. mark centers and lines in layout work D. make a starting mark for a drill Ans: A Heavy pressure on the ends of a file will cause the work surface to become _______________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
1895
1897
1899
1901
1903
A. tapered
1896
1898
1900
1902
A. away from you to correct alignment B. toward you to correct alignment C. closer to the headstock to reduce the amount of offset D. away from the headstock to decrease the misalignment Ans: A Oiling a file as a rust preventative will cause ___________. A. overheating B. pinning C. fast cutting D. binding Ans: B The edge of a file not having any teeth is known as a _____. A. smooth edge B. safe edge C. flat edge D. dead edge Ans: B Pressure-relief devices on gas welding cylinders are located in ___________. A. the cylinder valve B. the shoulder of the cylinder C. the bottom of the cylinder D. all of the above Ans: D Pipe threads are cut with a taper to ____________. A. prevent overtightening the joint B. provide a leakproof fit C. permit easy joint disassembly D. produce a fine even thread Ans: B
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B. C. D. Ans:
smooth rough rounded D
REFRIGERATION AND AIR CONDITIONING Short cycling of a refrigeration compressor refers to The heat gained per pound of refrigerant in the evaporator is known 1905 _____________. as the _____________. A. frequently grounding out A. latent heat of v aporization B. frequently starting and stopping B. sensible heat C. running too fast C. refrigerating effect D. running too slow D. specific heat of vaporization Ans: B Ans: C When liquid reaches the compressor of a refrigeration system Which of the refrigerants listed is considered safe and ideal for 1906 1907 through the suction line, the condition is called _____________. most marine applications? 1904
A. flooding back B. superheating C. overflowing D. recycling Ans: A The heat removed from the refrigerant in the condenser of a 1908 refrigeration plant is the _____________. A. latent heat of expansion B. sensible heat of condensation C. heat of compression D. all of the above Ans: C In a refrigeration system, the refrigerant absorbs the latent heat of 1910 vaporization in the _____________. A. compressor B. condenser C. receiver D. evaporator Ans: D The heat required to change a substance from a solid to a liquid 1912 while at its freezing temperature, is known as the latent heat of _____________. A. fusion B. vaporization C. condensation D. sublimation Ans: A The amount of moisture in a given sample of air, when compared 1914 with the amount of moisture the air c ould hold if totally saturated at the existing temperature of the sample, is called ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1916
absolute humidity specific humidity effective humidity relative humidity D People familiar with ammonia refrigeration systems become accustomed to its odor and may forget that the vapors _____________.
in a low concentration can cause death will dissolve in perspiration and cause caustic burns will burn or explode all of the above D A refrigeration system contaminated with moisture can be affected 1918 by _____________. A. acid formation B. sludge formation C. ice in the expansion valve D. all of the above Ans: D In a direct expansion type cargo refrigeration system, a box is 1920 normally changed from chill to freeze by adjus ting the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
hand expansion valve compressor suction valve solenoid bypass back pressure regulating valve D
A. R-21 B. Ammonia C. R-12 D. Sulfur dioxide Ans: C The FIRST thing to do to ensure that a refrigeration unit will not start 1909 while undergoing repairs, is to ____________. A. secure and tag the electrical circuit B. place a crow bar in the flywheel of the unit C. inform all persons in the area not to start the unit D. make a log book entry Ans: A Personnel working with refrigeration systems, and subj ect to the 1911 exposure of refgerants should wear ________________. A. face shield B. a respirator C. rubber gloves D. an all purpose gas mask Ans: A The only means of removing the latent heat of condensation from a 1913 refrigerant in the normal refrigeration cycle is by _________. A. passing it through the expansion valve B. condensing refrigerant in the system condenser C. passing the gaseous refrigerant through the heat interchanger on the suction side of the compressor D. maintaining a high pressure on the system's receiver Ans: B When it is necessary to open a refrigeration system for repairs and 1915 the system will be open for more than a few minutes, the open ends of the system should be ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 1917
dehydrated purged plugged evacuated C When subjected to high heat from a open flame, or an electric heating element, which of the listed refrigerants will break down and produce phosgene gas?
CO2 Methyl chloride R-22 Sulphur dioxide C Some chloronated flourocarbon refrigerants may decompose into a 1919 toxic irritating gas if it is ____________. A. stored at temperatures below 60 degrees Fahrenheit B. charged into a system hav ing copper fittings C. allowed to mix with compressor oil D. exposed to an open flame or hot surface Ans: D If the suction line between the evaporator and compressor is 1921 frosting up, the cause may be due to the thermal expansion valve _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. thermal bulb coming loose from the s uction line B. needle valve is stuck closed C. thermal bulb is in a c old air stream D. all of the above Ans: A
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1922 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1924 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1926 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1928
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1930
Which of the listed reasons could cause frost to form on the suction line of a refrigeration compressor? Shortage of refrigerant in the system. Expansion valve is stuck open. Liquid line service valve is closed. Condenser cooling water temperature is too high. B If the refrigeration compressor crankcase is sweating, the cause may be due to _____________. a shortage of refrigerant the compressor running continuously liquid refrigerant returning to the compressor the compressor short cycling on the high pressure cutout C Liquid line gas may cause erosion of the expansion valve's internal components and could cause the valve to ________. overheat hunt freeze shut freeze open B The compressor in the ship service refrigeration system is short cycling on the high pressure cutout switch. The probable reason for this is the ____________. discharge valves are leaking excessively discharge valves are leaking slightly condenser is getting insufficient cooling water flow system is low on refrigerant C The refrigeration system compressor is short c ycling on high head pressure when the sea water cooling temperature is 22°C. In this situation, you should ____________.
If a refrigeration compressor crankcase is sweating, the trouble could be caused by _____________. A. excessive superheat B. a minor amount of air in the system C. normal oil circulation with the refrigerant D. the expansion valve being stuck in the open position Ans: D Crankcase sweating in a refrigeration system is caused by 1925 _____________. A. a stuck solenoid valve B. a shortage of refrigerant C. too much oil in circulation D. too much superheat Ans: C If a refrigeration system compressor crankcase is sweating, you 1927 should _____________. A. add refrigerant to the system B. adjust the thermal expansion valve to the proper setting C. adjust the float valve to the proper holding pressure D. open the hand expansion valve Ans: B If a refrigeration compressor were short cycling on the low pressure 1929 cutout switch, the probable cause for this might be the ____________. 1923
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1931
A. check for sufficient cooling water flow through the condenser B. purge noncondensable gases from the receiver C. reset the thermostatic expansion valve D. completely purge the high pressure side of the system Ans: A When a refrigeration compressor motor fails to start, the FIRST 1932 thing that should be checked for is a ____________. A. loose expansion valve control bulb B. low differential setting on the H.P. cutout C. blown fuse in the motor circuit D. faulty suction pressure regulator Ans: C If a large difference exists between the compressor discharge 1934 pressure and the pressure corresponding to the existing condensing temperature in a refrigeration system, you should ____________.
system was overcharged with refrigerant high pressure switch was improperly adjusted expansion valve strainers were fouled suction valves were leaking s lightly C When handling contaminated oil from a hermetically sealed refrigeration compressor unit that has burned out its m otor, you should _____________.
A. store the oil in a clean refrigerant drum B. C. D. Ans: 1933 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1935
use rubber gloves circulate the oil through a filter drier remove the oil with a portable charging cylinder B The accumulation of air and other noncondensable gases in a refrigeration system will ____________. cause a loss of the liquid seal create a vapor lock in the liquid receiver collect in the condenser cause foaming of the oil in the crankcase C While troubleshooting a refrigeration system for low head pressure, liquid refrigerant flooding back from the evaporator is determined to be the cause. It may be necessary to ___________.
A. increase the flow of the cooling water through the c ondenser
A. change the expansion valve adjustment
B. adjust the high pressure cutout to maintain the desired pressure
B. readjust the water regulating valve to increase the flow of water
C. open the hot gas bypass temporarily to reduce capacity D. purge noncondensable gases to reduce the excess pressure
C. purge air from the condenser D. clean the waterside of the condenser
Ans: D Air entering an air-cooled refrigeration system is indicated by ____________. A. frosting of the liquid line B. higher than normal head pressure C. a clear sight glass D. abnormally cold reefer boxes Ans: B Subcooling is a method of reducing the temperature of the liquid 1938 refrigerant below its _____________. A. freezing point B. floc point C. condensing temperature D. compression temperature Ans: C The component of a refrigerating system in which the refrigerant 1940 vaporizes and absorbs heat is known as the _____________. 1936
A. condenser B. vapor generator
Ans: A Refrigerant is normally subcooled in a refrigeration or air conditioning system condenser to _____________. A. maintain adequate coil back pressure B. prohibit flashing in the liquid line C. reduce refrigerant volume in the system D. reduce compressor discharge line loading Ans: B Flash gas formed in the liquid line of a refrigeration system may 1939 cause ____________. A. pressure at expansion valve inlet to increase B. expansion valve pins and seats to erode C. expansion valve capacity to increase D. pressure difference across the expansion valve to increase Ans: B In a refrigeration system, the heat normally producing the flash gas 1941 at the thermostatic expansion valve, is obtained from _____________. 1937
A. the hot gas bypass connection at the threeway valve B. the portion of liquid refrigerant which does not flash
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C. accumulator D. evaporator
1942
Ans: D Which of the listed statements is correct concerning refrigeration systems? A. Dehydrators must be used continuously in a refrigeration system.
C. exposure to the high ambient temperature within the coil D. exposure to the high ambient temperature of the cooled space
1943
Ans: B The term "oil foaming" in refrigeration practice, is used to describe the _____________. A. release of dissolved lubricant from the refrigerant in the c rankcase
B. A 25 ton refrigeration system has the same cooling effect as melting 25 tons of ice in 24 hours. C. A thermostatic expansion valve is used to control refrigerated space temperature. D. The liquid receiver functions to collect and remov e noncondensable gases. Ans: B The refrigerant leaves the evaporator of a refrigeration system as a 1944 low pressure _____________. A. subcooled liquid B. high temperature liquid C. oil saturated liquid D. superheated vapor Ans: D When refrigerant leaves the receiver, it flows next on to the 1946 _____________. A. evaporator coils B. liquid strainer C. compressor D. condenser Ans: B If a refrigeration system, equipped with a reciprocating compressor, 1948 has a solenoid valve that is leaking during the "off" cycle, this could cause __________.
D. sudden evaporation of entrapped moisture from the crankcase lubricant Ans: B Which of the listed refrigeration system components keeps the 1945 refrigerant circulating through the system? A. Expansion valve B. Condenser C. Evaporator D. Compressor Ans: D Excessive oil foaming in the crankcase of a refrigeration 1947 compressor at start up can cause _____________. A. compressor damage from improper lubrication B. refrigerant absorption by the lubricant C. increased viscosity in the lubricant D. carbon deposit on the compressor suction valves Ans: A If a refrigeration compressor is running continuously without 1949 lowering the temperature in the refrigerated space, the trouble may be _____________.
low suction pressure high superheat in the outlet coil noisy compressor operation upon starting refrigerant slugs in the receiver C The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit 1950 mass of a substance 1° is known as __________. A. latent heat B. sensible heat C. specific heat D. variable heat Ans: C Leaking suction valves in a refrigeration compressor are indicated 1952 by _____________. A. higher than normal suction pressure B. lower than normal suction pressure C. lower than normal evaporator temperature D. noticeable increase in compressor noise Ans: A If the suction pressure at the refrigeration compressor is below 1954 normal, the cause can be _____________. A. refrigerant overcharge
a shortage of compressor oil warm food in the refrigerator excessive condenser cooling water a shortage of refrigerant D "Flooding back" is a c ondition where the liquid refrigerant 1951 _____________. A. vaporizes in the condenser B. reaches the compressor through the suction line C. flashes in the liquid line D. condenses in the receiver Ans: B Badly leaking refrigeration compressor discharge valves will cause 1953 _____________. A. overfeeding of the expansion valve B. damage to the condenser C. constant running of the compressor D. flooding of the receiver Ans: C If a refrigeration compressor had a higher than normal suction 1955 pressure, the problem could be a result of ________. A. a minor accumulation of air or noncondensable gases in the system
A. B. C. D. Ans:
B. C. D. Ans: 1956
overfeeding by the expansion valve a restricted suction strainer due to short cycling of the compressor C Which of the conditions listed may be an indication of an excessive amount of refrigerant circulating through the system?
A. Sweating of the compressor crankcase B. Colder than normal solenoid valve C. Frosting of the evaporator D. Weeping of the purge valve Ans: A When the refrigeration system compressor suction pressure 1958 corresponds to an elevation in coil temperature, a low pressure cutout switch is set to automatically start the compressor. The normal stopping point of the compressor is set by adjusting the ____ A. B. C. D.
cut-in point of the low pressure cutout switch low pressure cutout s witch differential cutout point of the high pressure cutout switch high pressure cutout switch differential
B. release of miscible refrigerant from the lubricant in the crankcase C. sudden evaporation of entrapped air from the refrigerant liquid
A. B. C. D. Ans:
B. C. D. Ans: 1957
a constant loss of refrigerant leaking compressor suction valves a slightly higher than normal liquid level in the receiver C If the refrigeration compressor was developing higher than normal discharge pressure, this could be a result of _____________.
A. air or noncondensable gases in the system B. leaking discharge valves C. leaking suction valves D. liquid refrigerant flooding back from the cooling coil Ans: A If the water failure switch should fail to shut down the refrigeration 1959 compressor, the refrigerant pressure will build up in the high pressure side of the system to the point where the _____________. A. B. C. D.
compressor discharge valves would be damaged condenser tubes would rupture system relief valve would open high pressure cutout switch would function
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1960
Ans: B The surging that occurs in a centrifugal air conditioning compressor is a result of _____________. A. low pressure in the condenser B. the existing load on the evaporator producing a thermodynamic head exceeding the normal maximum of the compressor
C. low pressure in the condenser at low load D. high pressure in the evaporator at high load Ans: B If the superheat value of a thermostatic expansion valve is set too 1962 low, the ________. A. the suction line will be abnormally cold and liquid may slug back to the compressor B. the suction line will be hot due to a reduced amount of refrigerant returning to the compressor C. the temperature of the refrigerant within the c ondenser will remain the same D. the temperature of the refrigerant passing through the subcooler will decrease Ans: A Rather than design an infinite variety of valve sizes for use as 1964 thermostatic expansion valves, some manufacturers use _____________. an adjusting cap to meet the v arious size differences a flexible diaphragm internal restrictors of different sizes a feeler bulb with an adjustable pressure line C What maintenance may be carried out on a thermostatic expansion valve? A. The thermal bulb may be recharged. B. The rate action may be increased. C. The proportional action may be varied.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1966
1961
Ans: D The dew point is reached when the wet bulb temperature is ____________. A. equal to the dry bulb temperature B. twice the dry bulb temperature
C. 38.8°C less than the dry bulb temperature D. 10°C above the dry bulb temperature Ans: A The function of a heat interchanger used in a refrigeration system is 1963 to _____________. A. lower the temperature of liquid refrigerant before entering the expansion valve B. reduce the possibility of liquid refrigerant from flooding back to the compressor C. minimize sweating of the suction line D. All of the above.
1965
Ans: D If a liquid drying agent is used in a refrigeration system already equipped with a solid drying agent, the liquid drying agent will _____________.
A. release the moisture already trapped in the solid drying agent B. react violently with the solid drying agent C. cause toxic gases to from in the refrigerated space D. solidify the refrigerant oil in the compressor crankcase Ans: A Overcharging an air-cooled refrigeration system will cause the 1967 ____________. A. relief valve to lift B. compressor to run c ontinuously C. system to automatically change over to the hot gas defrost cycle
D. The inlet screen may be cleaned. Ans: D Which statement about calibrating a newly installed thermostatic 1968 expansion valve is correct? A. The procedure requires a refrigeration wrench and a digital thermometer to measure box temperature. B. No special tools are required as long as the solid state circuit control panels are functioning properly. C. This procedure is done at the factory with tools not available to a mariner. D. An accurate thermometer and suction pressure gage are essential to this process. Ans: D Constant superheat is maintained at the evaporator outlet of a 1970 refrigeration coil by a _______________. A. solenoid valve B. low pressure cutout switch C. king valve D. thermal expansion valve Ans: D If the temperature of the ammonia gas in the discharge piping and 1972 the condenser of a refrigeration system remains above 130°C, the _________.
D. compressor to short cycle Ans: D The presence of gas in the liquid line is undesirable and can be 1969 eliminated by _____________. A. increasing the distance between the evaporator and condenser
refrigeration effect increases unit will begin to subcool vapor will cease to condense process of sublimation will begin C At ambient temperature and atmospheric pressure, R-12 is a/an 1974 _____________. A. corrosive liquid B. flammable gas C. odorless gas D. superheated liquid Ans: C If your skin comes in contact with liquid ammonia refrigerant, you 1976 should immediately _________. A. contact physicians health care B. apply an antibacterial ointment C. flush the affected area with water D. remove all necessary clothing
A. Steel B. Monel C. Bronze D. Copper Ans: A Ammonia is lighter than air and if a leak should occur its 1975 concentration will be _____. A. lower near the top of an enclosed space B. dependent upon available free hydrogen ions C. of minimum importance during venting procedures D. lower near the deck of an enclosed space Ans: D A lower thermostatic temperature setting will provide a desired 1977 degree of comfort in a room where _____________. A. low relative humidity is maintained B. triple banded squirrel cage fans are used C. air circulation is a maximum D. high relative humidity is maintained
A. B. C. D. Ans:
B. using a larger expansion valve C. subcooling the liquid D. installing the evaporator at a higher level than the condenser Ans: C As the electric current flow to a modulating suction valve increases, the _________. A. compressive forces against the spring will increase B. suction pressure of the c ompressor will rise C. evaporator coil pressure will decrease D. amount of superheat formed will increase Ans: A Which piping material is recommended to be used in extra heavy 1973 duty sizes in ammonia refrigeration system construction? 1971
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1978
1980
1982
1984
1986
Ans: C The pressure in a high pressure refrigeration system about to be opened for repair should be _____________. A. 1 to 2 bar g B. 4 to 7 bar g C. 11 to 12 bar g D. 0 bar g Ans: D The flame of a sulphur candle in the presence of an ammonia leak will turn ________. A. pink B. white C. yellow D. blue Ans: B To service a 60 ton air conditioning package, the easiest way to determine the type of refrigerant used is to_________. A. use your service gage set and refrigeration card B. look at the unit name plate C. ask the Chief Engineer D. look on the top of the TXV Ans: B Inhalation of high concentrations of CFCs may hav e which of the following effects? A. drowsiness B. loss of concentration C. cardiac arrhythmia's D. all of the above Ans: D The four most commonly used refrigerants listed in order, from the most damaging to the least damaging to the ozone layer are________.
A. R-11, R-12, R-502 and R-22 B. R-22, R-12, R-11 and R-502 C. R-502, R-12, R-22 and R-11 D. R-11, R-12, R-22 and R-502 Ans: A Which of the following is not part of the high side of a refrigeration 1988 system? A. condenser B. receiver C. accumulator D. liquid line Ans: C Which can be considered as a drop-in replacement refrigerant? 1990 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1992
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1994
A. B. C. D. Ans: 1996 A. B. C. D. Ans:
R-500 R-123 R-134a none of the above D To protect a recovery or recycling machine when removing refrigerant from a burned out system, a filter drier should be installed in ________. the system liquid line the machine inlet the system suction line the container inlet B HCFC-22 has been recovered from a refrigeration system during replacement of the condenser. The refrigerant can be _____. recycled into a system that had used HCFC-11 reclaimed as a low pressure system refrigerant returned to the system must be destroyed, as it can no longer be used C Which of the following represents a low-pressure refrigerant as defined by EPA regulation? R-12 R-22 R-502 R-123 D
1979
1981
1983
1985
1987
Ans: D Which of the following refrigerants will normally require water cooled compressor components? A. R-134 B. Ammonia C. R-22 D. All of the above are correct. Ans: B Under normal conditions ammonia refrigerants should be added at the ___________. A. high side of the system B. suction service connection C. discharge service connection D. expansion valve sideport connection Ans: A Refrigerant entering the compressor of a refrigeration system should be in which of the following conditions? A. Sub-cooled liquid B. Sub-cooled vapor C. Superheated vapor D. Liquid Ans: C Refrigerant leaving the metering device in a refrigeraton system is a _________. A. sub-cooled liquid B. sub-cooled vapor C. saturated liquid/vapor mixture D. saturated liquid Ans: C Large quantities of halogenated floro-carbons when released from refrigeration systems, will contribute to ozone depletion in the _________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
1989 A. B. C. D. Ans: 1991
bathosphere ionosphere stratosphere troposphere C Which of the listed chemicals will eventually reach the stratosphere and react unfavorably with ozone? fluorine chlorine halogen carbon B Pressure in the control tubing of a thermostatic expansion valve depends directly upon the _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
temperature in the box superheat in the tail coil compressor suction pressure heat transferred from the saturated liquid in the ev aporator B In preparing to remove the air from a refrigeration condenser for a large multibox water cooled system, all of the refrigerant in the system should be ____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
at a superheated temperature pumped to the receiver pumped to the evaporator at a saturated temperature B The process of removing refrigerant from a system and storing it without testing or processing is known as ___________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
reclaiming recouping recycling recovering D When using nitrogen to pressure leak test a system, the nitrogen tank should always have a __________. cut off valve blue top level indicator regulator D
1993
1995
1997 A. B. C. D. Ans:
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In addition to the recovery of refrigerant, recovery machines not necessarily able to pull a vacuum can also evacuate a system of __________.
1998
A. non-condensable gases B. oil C. moisture D. acids Ans: A Which of the refrigerants listed is considered to be clorine free? 2000 R-12 R-221 R-142 R-152a D Small appliances with less than 1.5kgs of refrigerant should be 2002 __________. A. liquid charged B. vapor charged C. either vapor or liquid charged D. initially liquid charged and then topped with a vapor charge Ans: B The carbon ring of a refrigeration compressor crankshaft 2004 mechanical seal is held in position against the stationary ring by using a/an _______________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. spring B. elliptical retaining assembly C. belleville spring D. thrust washer Ans: A Why should the refrigerant stored in a recovery cylinder be allowed 2006 to equalize with room temperature? A. to prevent the rupture disk from blowing B. this is a way to check refrigerant level in the cylinder C. this is the only way to read refrigerant pressure accurately D. the recovery cylinder could explode if the temperature rose too quickly Ans: C Which of the listed statements describes the reason why oil 2008 foaming occurs when starting a refrigeration compressor? A. If the oil level is not initially high, this condition is the result of agitation created by the movement of the mechanical components. B. This condition is the result of the sudden low pressure created in the crankcase at start up causing the release of refrigerant accumulated within the oil.
As the amount of moisture in the air increases, the difference between the dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures will ____________.
1999
increase decrease remain unchanged be greatest at dew point B Solenoid valves used in refrigeration systems may be classified as 2001 ______________. A. normally open, de-energized B. normally closed, energized C. normally open or normally closed D. normally energized or normally de-energized Ans: C The expansion valve used in a refrigeration system regulates the 2003 _____________. A. superheat of the gas leaving the compressor B. back pressure in the evaporator C. temperature in the refrigerated space D. degree of superheat of the gas leaving the evaporator Ans: D The oil observed in the sight glass of an operating refrigeration 2005 compressor appears to be brownish in color. This is indicative of ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
carbonization caused by air in the system bearing wear or piston scoring head gasket breakdown copper plating caused by moisture in the system D Which of the listed refrigerants has been more suitable than the others for use in a centrifugal refrigeration compressor? A. R-12 B. R-11 C. Ammonia D. Carbon dioxide
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2007
2009
Ans: B Which of the precautions listed should be taken before opening any part of a refrigeration system? A. Make certain that a positive pressure exists in the system to prevent entrance of moisture. B. Find the leaks in the system with a Halide torch.
C. This will occur only if crankcase heaters are used. D. This phenomenon is inherent only in hermetically sealed units and is always provisional. Ans: B In refrigeration systems, which type of contamination will the 2010 reclamation process be unable to separate? A. mixed refrigerants B. acid C. moisture D. air Ans: A In a v apor compression refrigeration system with a freeze, dairy, 2012 and thaw box, a solenoid v alve should be installed ___________.
C. Use the hot gas defrost line to remove frost on coils. D. Set the high pressure cutout on manual to prevent automatic starting. Ans: A A quick method used to test a water cooled condenser for 2011 refrigerant leaks is to test the _____________. A. cooling water for proper pH B. receiver for water content C. air vents on the condenser heads with a halide torch D. condenser tubes hydrostatically Ans: C A properly adjusted thermostatic expansion valve will have a 2013 constant valve opening under a condition of constant _____________.
A. immediately before each expansion valve B. on the inlet side of the receiver C. in the liquid line bypassing the expansion valve D. in the vapor line bypassing the oil separator Ans: A Concerning the operation of refrigeration systems, frosting or 2014 sweating of a liquid line is usually indicative of _____. A. high surrounding relative humidity B. a refrigerant line restriction
supply pressure suction pressure refrigerant superheat compressor speed C An economizer, or heat interchanger, is installed in a refrigeration 2015 system to _____________. A. reduce the possibility of sweating of the suction line B. reduce the temperature of liquid refrigerant prior to entering the expansion valve C. reduce the possibility of liquid refrigerant flooding back to the compressor D. all of the above Ans: D The amount of HCFC-123 in a storage cylinder is measured by 2017 __________.
C. water in the system D. proper cooling taking place Ans: B Before charging a refrigeration unit, the refrigerant charging lines 2016 should be _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
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A. B. C. D. Ans: 2018
flushed with clean refrigerant oil purged with the refrigerant washed with an ammonia and alcohol solution grounded to the compressor B Which of the processes listed would be the most satisfactory method to use to lower the humidity of the air being circulated by an air conditioning system?
A. Cooling the air to a temperature just above dew point. B. Heating the air to a point at which moisture will boil off, then recooling it. C. Cooling the air to a point below dew point, then reheating it. D. Heating the air and then cooling it to a point below dew point. Ans: C In a two stage centrifugal air conditioning system, the liquid 2020 refrigerant passes through the condenser directly to the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2022
evaporator chiller economizer expansion valve C The primary purpose of the thermostatic expansion valve in a typical multi-box shipboard refrigeration system is to _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2019
A. compressor speed B. compressor discharge temperature C. compressor discharge pressure D. condenser discharge temperature Ans: C Immediately before the actual charging process is started, 2021 refrigerant oil charging lines should be loosely connected and _____________. A. flushed with clean refrigerant oil B. purged with refrigerant gas C. washed with an ammonia and alcohol solution D. grounded to the compressor Ans: A Which of the fluids listed is normally used to condense the primary 2023 refrigerant in a shipboard central air conditioning system?
A. control the refrigerated space temperature B. regulate the compressor suction pressure C. regulate the amount of refrigerant superheat leaving the evaporator D. control the refrigerant temperature entering the ev aporator Ans: C The amount of refrigerant in a storage cylinder is measured by 2024 _____________. pressure volume weight temperature C The lubrication oil in the sump of a secured refrigeration compressor is heated to _____________. A. reduce absorption of refrigerant by the oil B. prevent refrigerant v aporization C. remove entrained water
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2026
D. remove wax and gum
2028
Ans: A A typical shipboard domestic multi-box refrigeration system operates with one compressor and condenser. What is the purpose of the sensing line connected to the thermal bulb at the evaporator coil outlet?
A. Air or Nitrogen. B. Seawater or Fresh water. C. Sodium Nitrate brine. D. Calcium Sulfate brine. Ans: B The device which normally stops the refrigeration compressor 2025 before the relief valve starts to open is the _____________. low pressure cutout switch back pressure cutout switch high pressure cutout switch relief valve bypass C Vapor seals used in the insulation on refrigerated spaces serve to 2027 _____________. A. prevent Freon vapor from saturating the insulation B. hold water vapor on the cold side of the insulation C. reduce the possibility of moisture laden warm air entering the insulation D. reduce the possibility of moisture laden cold air from entering the insulation Ans: C Which of the following methods is normally used to control the 2029 temperature of air distributed from individual cooling coils in an air conditioning system using a chilled water circulation system? A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. To open or close the solenoid valve when the box temperature increases or decreases. B. To open the back-pressure regulating valve when evaporator coil pressure increases. C. To direct evaporator outlet pressure to the lower part of the solenoid bellows. D. To transmit the pressure (proportional to the coil superheat) to the thermal expansion valve. Ans: D For the proper control of the air temperature in an air conditioning 2030 system using chilled water circulation, which of the listed c onditions should remain constant regardless of load c hanges? A. Chilled water system supply temperature. B. Chilled water system return temperature. C. Compressor discharge temperature. D. Compressor suction pressure. Ans: A In a large refrigeration system having more than one evaporator, a 2032 king solenoid valve s hould be installed and located ____________. A. just after the receiver B. before the condenser C. between the condenser and receiver
saturation pressure volume weight saturation temperture C Water regulating valves are installed to vary the water flow through the water cooled refrigeration condensers in response to ____________.
A. A room thermostat activates an electric heater at each individual chilled air outlet when necessary. B. Varying the number of passes the air makes across the coils. C. Varying the temperature of the water through the coils. D. Varying the quantity of water flowing through the coils.
2031
Ans: D In order to achieve greater dehumidification, you wouldadjust the air conditioning system by __________. I. reducing the chill water flow through the cooling coil II. increasing the preheater temperature A. B. C. D. Ans:
2033
I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II D A partially fouled liquid line strainer in therefrigeration system will cause ___________. I. a loss of refrigeration effect II. the strainer outlet piping to be cooler than the inlet
A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II
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D. before the back pressure regulating valve Ans: A When a refrigeration compressor is in the "off" cycle, the thermal 2034 expansion valve will_________. A. always be wide open when the compressor restarts B. continue to operate as if the system were in operation C. remain open until evaporator pressure equalizes, then close until the compressor restarts D. always be completely closed until the compressor restarts Ans: B The output capacity of a centrifugal refrigeration compressor may be controlled manually by _____________. A. controlling the compressor speed B. throttling the compressor suction C. reducing condenser water flow D. all of the above methods Ans: D Which of the listed components for a refrigeration system is 2038 required for a two box system, but not for a one box system? 2036
A. Hand expansion valve B. Automatic expansion valve C. High pressure cutout switch D. Liquid line solenoid valve Ans: D If atmospheric pressure decreases while the air temperature 2040 remains constant, the air will ______________. A. give up moisture as condensation B. have greater capacity to absorb moisture C. become supersaturated at high relative humidity D. absorb less free atmospheric moisture Ans: B Which of the listed materials can be used as a desiccant in a 2042 refrigeration system? A. Silica gel B. Activated alumina C. Anhydrous calcium sulfate D. All of the above Ans: D To add refrigerant to the high side of an air conditioning system, 2044 you should introduce the refrigerant through the _____________. discharge service valve as a vapor suction service valve as a liquid charging valve as a liquid condenser purge valve as a vapor C When adding oil to a refrigeration system, you must be certain that 2046 _____________. A. all air is removed from the pump and fittings B. the suction strainer is not blocked C. the discharge pressure is not too high D. the condenser is secured Ans: A The back pressure regulating valve used in a refrigeration system 2048 serves to _____________. A. maintain a constant pressure in the suction line heat exchanger A. B. C. D. Ans:
B. limit the minimum pressure in the ev aporator C. limit the maximum pressure in the suction line heat exchanger D. maintain a minimum discharge head on the compressor Ans: B A purge connection installed on the refrigerant side of a water 2050 cooled condenser is used to _____________. A. free tubes of accumulated scale B. charge the system with refrigerant C. remove noncondensable gases D. ensure positive air circulation Ans: C When the temperature in a refrigerated space rises above its 2052 normal set point, which of the listed actions should occur FIRST?
D. Neither I nor II Ans: C The discharge valves used in a refrigeration compressor are 2035 leaking badly and _____________. A. the reeds should be reground B. the reeds should be replaced C. should continue to operate at minimum efficiency D. the high pressure cut-out should be readjusted to operate efficiently Ans: B The purpose of the water failure switch in a refrigeration system is to react to a loss of cooling water by __________. A. stopping the compressor B. bypassing refrigerant to the receiver C. closing the high pressure cutout switch D. opening the high pressure cutout switch Ans: A The dehydrating agent normally used in a refrigeration system is 2039 ______________. 2037
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2041 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2043 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2045
slaked lime sodium chloride activated alumina calcium chloride C Which of the fluids listed is suitable for use as a secondary refrigerant? Methyl alcohol Brine Carbon dioxide Cuprous chloride B Capacity control of a centrifugal refrigeration compressor can be accomplished by _____________. varying the speed of the compressor varying the suction pressure varying condenser water flow rate all of the above D When multiple refrigeration evaporators are served by the same compressor and operate at different temperatures, the pressure in the coldest evaporator is ___________.
higher than the pressure in warmest ev aporator the same as any evaporator in the system lower than the pressure in the warmest ev aporator controlled by adjusting the thermal expansion valve C The pressure in a low pressure refrigeration system about to be 2047 opened for repair should be _____________. A. 10 to 12 psig B. 4 to 7 psig C. 0 to 1 psig D. 25 inches of hg vacuum Ans: D After a refrigeration plant has been open for repairs, it is advisable 2049 to purge air from the system by _____________. A. slightly opening the purge valve on the condenser A. B. C. D. Ans:
B. cracking the valve bonnet assembly on the thermostatic expansion valve C. turning over the compressor flywheel with the suction line v alve open D. loosening the purge connection attached to the receiver head Ans: A The charging of a refrigerating system should be carried out by 2051 adding _____________. A. refrigerant vapor to the receiver only B. liquid refrigerant to the low side only C. liquid refrigerant to the high side only D. liquid refrigerant to the high or low side Ans: C Unless designed for such operation, two compressors should not 2053 be operated in parallel in a refrigeration system because the ____________.
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A. The thermal expansion valve will close.
A. operation of two compressors will overload the expansion valve
B. The compressor will start.
B. condenser pressure will be too high causing condenser failure
C. The solenoid valve will open.
C. lubricating oil may be transferred from one compressor to the other
D. The automatic defrost timer will activate. Ans: C The thermal bulbs for expansion valves used in air conditioning 2054 systems are charged with _____________. A. fluids other than the system c harge B. the same refrigerant as the system C. a mixed charge of fluids D. mercuric sulfate Ans: B In addition to pressure, most refrigerant compound gages are also 2056 calibrated in _____________. A. saturated gas temperature B. superheated gas temperature C. absolute temperature D. absolute pressure Ans: A In refrigeration systems with multiple evaporators, the metering of 2058 refrigerant to each refrigerated space is accomplished by _____________. A. B. C. D.
the king expansion valve individual coil expansion valves a solenoid valve in the liquid line individual back pressure regulating valves on all but the coldest box
Ans: B Excessively tight drive belts installed between a motor and a refrigeration compressor pulley may cause ____________. A. overheated bearings B. unnecessary motor loading C. noisy operation D. all of the above Ans: D If the people in an air conditioned room complain of being too cool, 2062 the trouble might be that the _____________. A. preheater has failed to cutout B. air velocity is too low C. relative humidity is high D. relative humidity is too low Ans: D In reference to air conditioning, when air attains the maximum 2064 amount of moisture it can hold at a specific temperature, it is said to be _____________. 2060
superheated saturated condensed convected B When the relief valve opens it discharges high pressure refrigerant 2066 vapor to the _____________. A. liquid strainer B. refrigerant inlet of the condenser C. inlet side of the evaporator D. suction side of the compressor Ans: D A pressure drop in the liquid line of a refrigeration system may 2068 cause _____________. A. the solenoid valve to seize B. the compressor to hunt C. flash gas to form in the liquid line D. the expansion valve to freeze open Ans: C In an operating refrigeration system low on refrigerant, a liquid line 2070 sight glass will _____________. A. be clear B. be blue C. be light green D. show bubbles Ans: D A. B. C. D. Ans:
D. evaporator would fail due to low suction pressure Ans: C A purge recovery system is used in a centrifugal air conditioning or 2055 refrigeration system to _____________. A. purge lube oil from the liquid refrigerant B. recover water purged from the system C. separate foul gases from the receiver D. purge noncondensable gases without losing refrigerant Ans: D Which of the listed conditions would cause the thermal expansion 2057 valve to open? A. Rise in the gas temperature within the cooling coils B. Compressor cutting out C. Compressor cutting in D. A drop in the temperature of the cooling coils Ans: A The primary purpose of the liquid line strainer used in a refrigeration 2059 system is to prevent dirt and scale from entering the ____________. A. B. C. D.
solenoid and expansion valves compressor and receiver condenser and liquid line evaporator coil piping
Ans: A Air conditioning duct-work begins at the large mixing chamber called the _____________. A. exhaust chamber B. plenum chamber C. intake chamber D. vapor chamber Ans: B The dew point of air is reached when the wet bulb temperature is 2063 _____________. A. twice the dry bulb temperature B. 5°C above the dry bulb temperature C. 3°C above the dry bulb temperature D. equal to the dry bulb temperature Ans: D If air at 35°C dry bulb temperature and 50% relative humidity is 2065 conditioned to 24°C dry bulb temperature and 50% relative humidity, it is an example of _____________. 2061
cooling only cooling and humidifying cooling and dehumidifying adiabatic cooling C Dichlorodifluoromethane when vaporized in the presence of an 2067 open flame, will form ____________. A. carbon dioxide gas B. phosgene gas C. trichlorodifluoromethane D. sulphur dioxide Ans: B Moisture is removed from a refrigeration system by 2069 _____________. A. bleeding refrigerant from the condenser B. opening a drain petcock on the oil separator C. condensing the water in the heat exchanger D. using a dehydrator cartridge Ans: D Moisture entering a typical refrigeration system will most likely 2071 _____________. A. boil in the condenser B. be removed by the liquid line strainers C. cause sweating and frost on the evaporator coils D. freeze in the expansion valve Ans: D A. B. C. D. Ans:
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Some refrigeration systems have c hemical moisture indicators installed in conjunction with the sight glass in the liquid line. If excess moisture is present in the system, the indicator will _____________.
2072
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2074
activate the driers change color secure the compressor add a predetermined amount of liquid drier B A liquid indicator sight glass is useful in determining whether or not a refrigeration system is sufficiently charged. It is generally located in the ____________.
A. high pressure liquid line B. low pressure liquid line C. high pressure vapor line D. low pressure vapor line Ans: A Frost appearing on the evaporator coils of a multi-box direct 2076 expansion refrigeration system _____________. A. is best removed by means of an ice pick B. will increase the refrigeration effect C. can be removed by pass ing hot vapors through the coils D. can be quickly removed by simply shutting down the coils Ans: C When a refrigerated space reaches the desired temperature in a 2078 multi-box refrigeration system, which of the listed actions will occur FIRST? A. The solenoid valve will close. B. The expansion valve will open. C. The low pressure cutout switch will stop the compressor. D. The high pressure cutout switch will stop the c ompressor. Ans: A All refrigerant recovered from small appliances must be 2080 __________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2082 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2084 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2086
sent to a designated reclaim facility for processing contained in a refillable recovery cylinder destroyed as unusable used to clean out burn-outs B When pumping down an air conditioning system to test the low pressure cutout switch, you should _____________. stop the compressor secure the condenser close the "king" valve stop the circulating pump C Purging is the process used to _____________. eliminate moisture from the refrigeration system separate refrigerant from oil remove noncondensable gases from the refrigeration system decrease the total amount of refrigerant in the system C Which of the devices listed is used to limit frosting of evaporator coils on multiple box installations served by one compressor?
A. Back pressure control valve B. Automatic expansion valve C. Capillary tube D. Solenoid valve Ans: A When you find a small refrigerant leak with a halide torch, the color 2088 of the torch flame will be _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2090
A. B. C. D.
orange blue white green D When a refrigerated compartment of a multi-box system served by one compressor reaches the correct temperature, the temperature control in that one compartment is achieved by a/an _____________. expansion valve back pressure regulating valve solenoid valve low pressure cutout switch
In a refrigeration system, where multiple evaporators are operating at different temperatures, and serviced by a single compressor and condenser, the control of individual coil temperatures should be carried out by adjustment of the ____________.
2073
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2075
thermostatic expansion valve back pressure regulating valve king valve box temperature solenoid valve B A liquid sight flow indicator in a refrigeration system is examined and gas bubbles are noted in motion with the fluid flow. This means _____________.
the system is fully charged there is air leaking in from the condenser ice crystals are forming in the refrigerant the system contains less than a full charge of refrigerant D In a water-cooled refrigeration system, the condenser cooling water 2077 regulating valve is controlled by ___________. A. temperature of the cooling water B. refrigerant pressure C. amount of refrigerant in the system D. temperature of the refrigerant after compression Ans: B A totally white or yellow colored flame produced by a Halide torch 2079 being used to test for refrigerant leaks indicates _________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
no R-12 leakage a partially clogged torch exploring tube a defective torch reaction plate a minute quantity of R-12 leakage B When air contains some moisture, but is not saturated, the dew point temperature is _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
between the wet and dry bulb temperatures equal to the total heat of air higher than the wet bulb temperature lower than the dry bulb temperature D The thermal bulb of an expansion valve that is attached to the evaporator tail coil should be _____________. installed on the bottom of the suction line installed between the suction strainer and compressor insulated before setting the superheat adjusting screw insulated after installation D In a direct expansion evaporator, the coils are ___________. covered with insulation half covered with insulation surrounded by air surrounded by water C In addition to removing water from a refrigerant, most dehydrators also effectively remove entrapped _____________.
2081
2083 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2085 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2087
A. acid B. air C. dichlorodifluoromethane D. desiccant Ans: A The thermostatic expansion valve in a refrigeration system opens 2089 when the pressure _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2091
A. B. C. D.
decreases in the evaporator decreases in the expansion valve control bulb increases above the expansion valve diaphragm increases in the solenoid valve C During the initial pull down of the box temperatures in a refrigeration system, which of the devices listed is used to prevent excessive gas pressure at the compressor suction? Suction pressure hold back valve High pressure cutout Solenoid valve Low pressure cutout
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2092
Ans: C The device used to limit the passage of moisture through a refrigeration system is the _____________. A. humidifier B. aerator C. dehydrator D. trap
Ans: C When a refrigeration system is being charged through the low side, the _____________. A. refrigerant should be added as a vapor B. suction service valve must be back seated C. discharge service valve must be front seated D. refrigerant drum should be turned upside down Ans: A Loss of refrigerant during the purging process can be kept to a 2096 minimum by ____________. A. operating the dehydrator continuously B. purging through the discharge service valve C. cracking the purge valve briefly D. closing the liquid line king valve Ans: C In a small appliance using HFC-134a you would expect to see the 2098 greatest temperature drop across the __________. A. evaporator B. capillary tube C. compressor D. receiver Ans: B Which of the methods listed is most frequently used to control 2100 evaporator refrigerant flow rate in a shipboard refrigeration system? 2094
A. Direct expansion with constant superheat B. Indirect expansion with constant superheat C. Low side float control D. High side float control Ans: A The primary purpose of a thermostatic controlled solenoid valve 2102 used in a multi-box refrigeration system is to _____________. control the refrigerated compartment temperature bypass refrigerant flow to the evaporator maintain the proper refrigerant superheat stop the compressor when the evaporator reaches the proper temperature Ans: A In a refrigeration system, the thermal expansion valve sensing bulb 2104 is located _____________.
2093
2095
2097
2099
2101
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2103
A. B. C. D.
A. near the evaporator coil outlet B. near the evaporator coil inlet C. on the liquid line strainer D. at the solenoid valve outlet Ans: A An evaporator pressure regulating valve (back pressure regulator) 2106 is installed in the evaporator coils of some refrigeration systems to _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2108
prevent compressor overload maintain a minimum evaporator pressure control liquid refrigerant pressure regulate refrigerant outlet superheat B If the air temperature increases while atmospheric pressure remains constant, the air will _____________.
A. have a greater capacity to absorb moisture B. absorb less free atmospheric moisture C. become supersaturated at high relative humidity D. give up moisture as condensation Ans: A In order to achieve greater dehumidification with an airconditioning 2110 system, you should _________. I. reduce the cooling coil temperature II. increase the reheater temperature A. I only B. II only
Ans: A In an atmosphere of 100% relative humidity, the wet bulb thermometer would register a temperature _____________. A. above the dry bulb temperature B. below the dry bulb temperature C. the same as the dry bulb temperature D. above the dry bulb temperature, but below the saturation temperature Ans: C Copper piping has been used in refrigeration systems because _____________. A. it is creep resistant at low temperatures B. it offers less internal friction C. iron is corroded by R-12 D. leaks are more easily detected in copper Ans: B In a refrigeration system, if the cooling water to thecondenser fails, the __________. A. box temperature solenoid valve will close B. expansion valve will close C. compressor will shutdown D. king valve will open Ans: C Which of the listed types of refrigeration compressors can be designed with short large diameter suction lines? A. Reciprocating B. Rotary C. Screw D. Centrifugal Ans: D The safest and quickest m ethod of adding refrigerant to a refrigeration system is to add the refrigerant through the _____________.
A. B. C. D.
2105
allow refrigerant vapor cycling time insure proper operation of the compressor let the refrigerated compartment cool gradually determine actual compressor oil level
Ans: B Prior to making repairs on an evaporator located in a large, multibox refrigeration system, you should remove the refrigerant by _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
pumping it from the system to a clean empty drum draining the system through the purge valve connection pumping all refrigerant to the receiver exhausting it to the atmosphere C When the solenoid valves in a refrigeration system have closed, the compressor will be stopped by the _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
low water cutout low pressure cutout high pressure cutout spring-loaded relief valve B Refrigeration isolation valves are of the double seated type in order to ______________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
allow for operation as a suction or discharge v alve permit repacking under pressure conserve space allow for removal or replacement without shutting down B Subcooling of the refrigerant to reduce the percent offlash gas is accomplished ___________. I. as the refrigerant passes through the expansion valve II. in most water cooled condensers
2107
2109
2111
discharge service valve as a vapor suction service valves as a liquid charging valve as a liquid condenser relief valve as a vapor C The purpose of running a refrigeration compressor motor in short intermittent spurts when starting the system after a prolonged shutdown is to _____________.
A. I only B. II only
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C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II Ans: C The effective temperature of air is dependent upon _______. I. 2112 relative humidity II. air velocity A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II Ans: C Which recovery phase will reduce the loss of oil during the recovery 2114 of refrigerants from small appliances such as a water cooler?
2116
2118
2120
2122
2124
A. vapor recovery B. liquid recovery C. inital recovery D. vapor-liquid recovery Ans: A One benefit of proper air circulation in a refrigerated cargo space is _____________. A. more temperature differential B. increased moisture content C. reduced slime and mold D. increased density of the air Ans: C Dehydrators are usually located in the liquid line of refrigeration systems in order to _____________. A. remove oil from the refrigerant B. prevent icing of the expansion valve C. reduce compressor discharge line sweating D. prevent liquid slugging in the suction line Ans: B Low side passive charging of a refrigeration system may be speeded up by _____________. A. warming the service cylinder with a torch B. warming the service cylinder with hot water C. inverting the service cylinder D. inclining the service cylinder Ans: B The thermostat controlling the operation of the solenoid valve to a refrigerated box senses _____________. A. evaporator coil inlet temperature B. evaporator coil outlet temperature C. compressor discharge temperature D. the refrigerated box temperature Ans: D Which materials should be used for ammonia refrigeration system evaporator cooling coil construction? A. Copper tubing with copper fins B. Copper tubing with aluminum fins C. Aluminum tubing with copper fins D. All of the above may be used.
Ans: C The temperature in a refrigerated space is controlled by adjusting the thermostat connected to the _____________. A. suction line solenoid B. thermostatic expansion valve C. liquid line box solenoid D. low pressure cutout switch Ans: C The water regulating valve installed in a refrigeration system is 2128 operated by the _______________. A. compressor discharge temperature B. compressor discharge pressure C. solenoid D. sensing line from the tail coil Ans: B When used as a refrigerant, ammonia containing moisture will act 2130 as a corrosive mixture to __________. A. steel components B. brass and bronze metals C. stainless steel components D. All of the above are correct. Ans: B 2126
C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II Ans: B One of the primary steps in assisting someone who has been 2113 overcome by ammonia vapors is to _____________. A. loosen all clothing B. provide the victim with smelling salts C. rinse the affected area with water D. give the patient plenty of fresh air Ans: D To test for a suspected large refrigerant leak from a refrigeration 2115 system in an enclosed area, you should ____________. apply liquid ammonia to the suspected leak apply a soap solution to the area of the suspected leak a halide leak detector to all piping joints apply a hydrostatic test with water B The high pressure cutout switch will stop the refrigeration centrifugal compressor when there is _____________. A. a stoppage of condenser cooling water flow B. fouled condenser tubes C. excessive air in the system D. all of the above Ans: D A liquid line solenoid valve controls refrigerant flow to the evaporator by _____________. A. throttling the refrigerant B. fully opening or closing C. sensing the superheat in the tail coil D. sensing the temperature in the liquid line Ans: B The individual box temperatures of a multibox refrigerationsystem are controlled by _____________. A. expansion valves B. solenoid valves C. back-pressure valves D. regulation of the cooling water Ans: B Charging liquid CFC-11 into a system under a heavy vacuum could cause __________. A. the purge unit to operate B. system secondary refrigerant to freeze C. air and moisture to enter the reciever D. rupture disk to rupture Ans: B When checking the oil level in a refrigeration compressor, the most accurate reading is obtained ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2117
2119
2121
2123
2125
A. immediately after purging B. immediately after charging C. after being secured for 3 hours with the sump heater secured D. immediately after shutdown following a prolonged period of operation Ans: D Standard driers used in many container type refrigeration systems 2127 may contain ________________. A. activated charcoal or silica gel B. special chemicals to increase adsorbtion rates C. activated alumina or silica gel D. all of the above may be used Ans: C The maximum level of moisture permitted in an operating 2129 refrigeration system is ______________. A. 5 parts per million B. 8 parts per million C. 10 parts per million D. 15 parts per million Ans: D The thermal expansion valve reacts directly to the 2131 _____________. A. temperature in the space being cooled B. liquid refrigerant pressure at the solenoid valve C. pressure drop across the evaporator coils D. refrigerant gas superheat at the coil outlet Ans: D
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In an operating, water-cooled, multi-box refrigeration system, both low discharge and high suction pressures are being simultaneously experienced. The probable cause for this condition is a/an ____________.
2132
overcharge of refrigerant in the system fouled shell-and-tube condenser improper superheat adjustment on the low side discharge relief valve leaking back to the suction side D Refrigerant recovery equipment that is considered as being system dependent __________. A. must have its own power source B. recovers refrigerant with the aid of components in the system
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2134
C. are portable units D. can only recover liquid refrigerant Ans: B If you find the pressure of a R-12 refrigeration system to be worked 2136 on is 0 bar g, ___________. A. only recover the vapor refrigerant B. only recover the liquid refrigerant C. recover liquid and vapor refrigerant and have it reclaimed D. do not recover the refrigerant
2138
Ans: D The low pressure cutout switch will cause the c ompressor in a refrigeration system to short cycle if the ________. A. expansion valve thermal bulb loses its charge B. differential pressure between the cut-in pressure and cutout pressure is too small C. expansion valve freezes in the closed position D. refrigerant has too much oil in circulation
Ans: B The liquid line, thermostatically controlled, solenoid valve is operated in response to the ____________. A. superheat in the tail coil B. temperature of the box C. compressor suction pressure D. compressor discharge pressure Ans: B Refrigerant recovery cylinders are color coded__________. 2142 A. gray top and yellow lower body B. gray top and light blue lower body C. light blue top and yellow lower body D. yellow top and gray body Ans: D All refrigerant recovered from burned out small appliances must be 2144 __________. A. sent to a designated reclaimation facility for processing B. contained in a refillable cylinder C. destroyed although it can be reused D. used to clean out burn-outs Ans: A When a thermostatic expansion valve is installed in a container 2146 refrigeration system, the sensing bulb may not require insulation if the bulb is installed _______________. 2140
A. outside of the cooled air s tream B. in the cooled air stream C. on the tail end of the condenser outlet pipe D. at the mid-horizontal level of a v ertically run tail coil Ans: A Which of the following instruments can be used to measure the rate 2148 of air flow? A. Thermometer B. Anemometer C. Psychrometer D. Areometer Ans: B Which of the refrigerants listed is considered as a suitable 2150 replacement for R-11?
When hot gas defrosting a refrigeration system, one way to overcome the possibility of a large slug of liquid refrigerant entering the compressor suction is to use the installed _____________.
2133
subcooler liquid extractors re-evaporator drain lines C The suction pressure switch controlling the refrigeration compressor operation is actuated by _____________. A. pressure acting on a bellows B. temperature acting on a bellows
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2135
C. temperature acting on a thermal element D. pressure acting on compressor suction valves Ans: A When taking readings at the suction service valve of an operating 2137 refrigeration compressor __________. A. the pressure, or temperature reading is only required, as the refrigerant is saturated B. the pressure and temperature reading is required as the refrigerant is probably subcooled C. the pressure and temperature reading is required as the refrigerant is superheated D. is unimportant as accurate readings at this location can not be obtained Ans: C If the electric coil to a refrigeration system modulation valve 2139 develops an open, the valve will _______________. A. move to the open position due to the flow of refrigerant across the valve orifice B. move to the open position due to the spring pressure acting upon the armature C. tend to move to a centered position, thereby maintaining box temperature D. remain in whatever position it was in prior to developing the open Ans: B Most refrigerants are originated primarily from which of the following base molecules? A. ammonia and carbon dioxide B. ammonia and ethane C. methane and sulfur dioxide D. ethane and methane Ans: D One function of the thermal expansion valve is to _________. 2143 A. act as a pilot from the solenoid valve B. regulate the amount of refrigerant flow to the coil C. regulate the water flow D. turn the compressor off and on Ans: B Which of the following refrigerants is an interim retrofit replacement 2145 for R-11? A. R-500 B. R-134a C. R-12 D. R-123 Ans: D If passive recovery is used on a refrigeration unit with a non2147 operating compressor, the recovery should be made through____________. 2141
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2149 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2151
high side only low side only high and low side venting to atmosphere, cannot be recovered C When current to a refrigeration system modulating valve is increased, the _________. valve is moving to a more open position temperature of the box is increasing suction pressure of the c ompressor will decrease amount of air flowing through the condenser is decreased C Which of the refrigerants listed is considered as a suitable and limited ozone producing alternative for R-11?
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R-22 R-123 R-134a R-227 B Moisture is removed from CFC-12 using a recycler by 2152 __________. A. bleeding noncondensables off B. opening a drain petcock on the oil separator C. condensing the water in the condenser D. using a dehydrator cartridge Ans: D When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a refrigeration 2154 compressor, extreme care must be taken to prevent _________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2155
A. secure the compressor at once and close the suction and discharge valves B. pump the system down and isolate the leak
D. shaft scoring due to improper use of the installation tools provided with the seal kits
D. tighten the shaft seal packing to reduce leakage, slow the compressor, and operate the expansion valves by hand until repairs can be made
Ans: B Routine maintenance on a Central Control Room hermetically sealed air conditioning unit should include _____________. A. changing the air filter B. recharging the system C. changing compressor lubricant D. renewing container vacuum Ans: A The most cost-effective method of recovering refrigerant from a 2158 chiller with more than 2.5 kgs of refrigerant, to meet EPA requirements is to use a __________. liquid pump vapor recovery machine liquid followed by vapor recovery vapor followed by liquid recovery C An obstructed expansion valve may be indicated by an incompletely cooled evaporator and ______________. A. a higher than normal discharge pressure B. frosting at the evaporator inlet C. a decrease in the amount of frosting across the drier D. frosting at the suction side of the compressor
A. B. C. D. Ans:
Ans: B If an expansion valve is adjusted for too low a superheat value _________. A. the efficiency of the unit will be increased B. too much liquid will be passed back to the evaporator C. the box temperature will increase causing an expansion of the volume of air D. the refrigeration effect will increase contributing to uncontrolled box temperatures Ans: B A reheater in an air conditioning system functions to 2164 _____________. 2162
control inlet air temperature control inlet air volume maintain relative humidity at 15% restore conditioned air temperature to a comfortable level D In a refrigeration plant, one purpose of the receiver is to ____________. A. cool the refrigerant gas B. superheat the refrigerant liquid C. store the refrigerant
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2166
2153
R-22 R-123 R-134a R-227 B Of the four refrigerants CFC-11, CFC-12, HFC-134a, and HCFC22; HCFC-22 operates at the __________. lowest system pressure with the lowest boiling point highest system pressure with the lowest boiling point lowest system pressure with the highest boiling point highest system pressure with the highest boiling point B The watch engineer finds the cargo refrigeration compressor has blown the shaft seal. In this situation, he should __________.
A. any lubricant from contacting the carbon surface that would cause the expulsion of the saturated teflon film B. dirt and foreign particles from coming in contact with the highly polished sealing surfaces C. the teflon film from being damaged by the corrosive effects of excessive handling
2156
2160
A. B. C. D. Ans:
D. condense the refrigerant Ans: C Properties of a good refrigeration oil include ____________. 2168 A. low wax content B. high pour point
C. close the suction valve, secure the compressor, and then replace the shaft seal
Ans: A HCFC-123 presents health threats to service technicians, which may include its ___________. A. flammability as a liquid B. freezing in the compressor C. toxic threat D. being caustic and strong offensive odor Ans: C In an air conditioning system, low head pressure associated with a 2159 reciprocating compressor can be the result of __________. 2157
A. broken valve springs B. tight drive belts C. high line voltage D. air in the system Ans: A If a thermostatic expansion valve is adjusted for too high a 2161 superheat value _________________. A. all of the system liquid will flow to the evaporator coil B. an insufficient amount of liquid will be fed to the evaporator C. an excessive amount of liquid will be fed to the evaporator D. only the required amount of refrigerant will enter the evaporator regardless of the required superheat value Ans: B Any air mixture whose dew point remains constant will also have an 2163 unchanging _____________. A. dry bulb temperature B. wet bulb temperature C. specific humidity D. specific volume
2165
Ans: C A water regulating valve controls the refrigeration condenser cooling water flow in response to condenser _____________.
cooling water outlet temperature liquid refrigerant outlet temperature liquid refrigerant outlet pressure refrigerant vapor inlet pressure D Oil separators installed in refrigeration systems serve to 2167 _____________. A. remove excess oil from the system B. remove oil entrained in high pressure liquid lines C. return oil entrained in refrigerant vapor back to the compressor crankcase D. all of the above Ans: C The receiver used in a refrigeration system _____________. 2169 A. stores liquid refrigerant B. collects noncondensable gases A. B. C. D. Ans:
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2170
2172
2174
2176
2178
2180
C. high viscosity D. all of the above Ans: A The purpose of the low pressure cutout switch is to _____________. A. maintain liquid refrigerant at the suction of the compressor B. maintain a preset suction pressure to the compressor C. start and stop the compressor at preset operating pressures D. operate at minimum efficiency Ans: C The purpose of the refrigeration system low pressure c utout switch is to _____________. A. protect the compressor from liquid flood back B. protect the compressor from low discharge pressure C. start and stop the compressor upon system demand D. start the compressor after a drop in the evaporator pressure Ans: C One cause of high head pressure occurring in a refrigeration system can be _____________. A. insufficient cooling water flow to the condenser B. a low refrigerant charge in the system C. the liquid valve is open too much D. high evaporator superheat Ans: A An oil separator is a device used to remove oil from the _____________. A. liquid refrigerant B. receiver C. gaseous refrigerant D. expansion valve Ans: C If the head pressure of a reciprocating refrigeration compressor is excessive, ____________. A. the relief valve should open before the high pressure cutout B. the relief valve should open and allow the excess refrigerant to flow to the receiver C. the high pressure cutout switch should operate before the relief valve opens D. you should close in on the suction valve Ans: C High suction pressure to a refrigeration system compressor is caused by _____________. A. the expansion valve is insufficiently opened B. C. D. Ans:
2182
the expansion valve being open too wide the king valve is insufficiently open a dirty dehydrator B When a refrigeration compressor has developed a high head pressure as a result of a refrigerant overcharge, you should ______________.
increase the amount of c ooling water to the condenser decrease the amount of cooling water to the condenser add more refrigerant to the system remove some refrigerant from the system D Which of the conditions listed could cause excessively low refrigerant pressure at the compressor suc tion? A. Insufficient flow of condenser cooling water. B. The system is low on refrigerant.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2184
C. The solenoid valve to the chill box is "frozen" in the open position. D. The high pressure cutout switch is inoperative. Ans: B Noise in a refrigeration compressor can be caused by 2186 ____________. A. worn bearings and piston pins B. slugging due to flooding back C. too much oil in c irculation D. all of the above Ans: D Which of the conditions listed will cause a refrigeration compressor 2188 to run constantly without simultaneously decreasing the temperature in the refrigerated space?
2171
2173
2175
2177
2179
C. allows refrigerant subcooling D. prevents compressor surging Ans: A The sensing line for the low pressure cutout switch to a refrigeration system is located _____________. A. in the chill box B. before the receiver C. on the suction side of the compressor D. on the discharge side of the compressor Ans: C The temperature of the refrigerant in the evaporator coil depends mostly upon the _____________. A. refrigerant pressure in the evaporator B. cooling water temperature to the condenser C. heat load in the refrigerator compartment D. solenoid valve in the liquid line Ans: A The oil separator (trap) used in a shipboard refrigeration system is located between the ____________. A. compressor discharge valve and the condenser B. condenser and the receiver C. receiver and the king valve D. receiver and the expansion valve Ans: A Low compressor head pressure in a refrigeration system can be caused by _____________. A. insufficient condenser cooling water B. excessive condenser cooling water C. air in the refrigeration system D. excessive refrigerant in the system Ans: B A low refrigeration compressor discharge pressure can be caused by _____________. A. warm food in the refrigerator B. wasted zinc plates in the condenser C. leaky compressor discharge valves
D. faulty door gaskets on the refrigerator Ans: C If a refrigeration compressor had developed a high suction 2181 pressure, the problem could be a result of ________. A. a minor accumulation of air or noncondensable gases in the system B. C. D. Ans: 2183
a leaking king valve a clogged subcooler liquid refrigerant flooding back from the cooling coil D Which of the following problems could cause the high pressure cutout switch to shut down the compressor in a refrigeration system?
A. A shortage of liquid refrigerant. B. Excessive frost on the evaporator. C. Excessive condenser cooling water. D. Insufficient condenser cooling water flow. Ans: D An excessive charge of refrigerant in an air-cooled refrigeration 2185 system can cause _____________. A. oil foaming in the compressor B. higher than normal suction and discharge pressures with a higher box temperature C. higher than normal discharge pressure with a normal box temperature D. the compressor to run continuously Ans: C A warmer than normal compressor suction line might be caused by 2187 _____________. A. insufficient lubrication B. insufficient refrigerant C. excess refrigerant D. excessive opening of the expansion valve Ans: B If a substantial difference is maintained between the refrigerant 2189 temperature and the box air temperature within the refrigerated compartment, this may result in _____________.
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Shortage of refrigerant oil. Slight shortage of refrigerant. Excessive condenser c ooling water flow. Faulty expansion valve. B The low pressure side of a refrigeration system is considered to 2190 exist from the _____________. A. expansion valve to the compressor B. receiver to the expansion coil C. expansion valve to the evaporator D. condenser to the expansion valve Ans: A If the evaporator coil of a single box, air cooled refrigerator 2192 accumlates frost, the compressor will most likely _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
run continuously short cycle on low pressure cutout short cycle on high pressure cutout fail to start B A refrigerant with oil in solution has a _____________. 2194 A. higher boiling temperature for a given pressure than does a pure refrigerant B. lower boiling temperature for a given pressure than does a pure refrigerant C. boiling pressure equal to that of a pure refrigerant at a given pressure D. boiling point will not be affected by entrained oil Ans: A Refrigerant is circulated through a refrigeration system by the 2196 _____________. A. compressor B. condenser C. expansion valve D. evaporator Ans: A Thermostatic expansion valves can be adjusted for _________. 2198
slugging in the condenser the evaporator coil to frost the compressor to short cycle the thermal expansion valve to malfunction B If the discharge valves on a refrigeration compressor are leaking 2191 badly, the compressor should __________. A. run continuously B. not start C. have high discharge pressure D. short cycle on the high pressure switch Ans: A In a compression refrigeration cycle, the temperature of the liquid 2193 refrigerant experiences its greatest decrease in the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2200
suction pressure only head pressure only superheat only suction pressure and box temperature C Which of the listed components is considered to separate the high pressure side of a refrigeration cycle from the low pressure side of the cycle?
The condenser and the expansion valve The king valve and the solenoid valve The compressor and the expansion valve The condenser and the solenoid valve C Which of the following statements is c orrect concerning a typical shipboard multi-coil refrigeration system? A. The liquid receiver functions to collect and remov e noncondensable gases. B. A thermostatic expansion valve is used to control refrigerated space temperature. C. Refrigerant temperature in an evaporator is directly related to refrigerant pressure.
2195
B. at the compressor suction C. in the expansion valve D. in the receiver Ans: A If condensation collects and drips off an evaporator coil, the 2197 temperature of the coil is _____________. A. a maximum of 21°F B. above 0°C, but below the dew point C. 21°F but, above the dew point D. below 32°F and below the dew point Ans: B Refrigerant enters the condenser as a _____________. 2199 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2201
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2202
Ans: C A cracked diaphragm in a thermostatic expansion valve will cause the valve to _____________. A. return to a neutral position B. flood the evaporator C. open D. close Ans: D Sludge may be formed in the oil in the crankcase of a reciprocating 2206 air conditioning compressor as a result of _____________. A. B. C. D.
refrigerant bubbles in the lube oil refrigerant reducing the lube oil viscosity oxidation of the lube oil from overheating reducing the floc or cloud point of the oil
high pressure liquid low pressure vapor high pressure vapor low pressure liquid C The sudden reduction of pressure occurring within the crankcase of a refrigeration compressor during starting causes the ___________.
sudden evaporation of wax crystals in the lubricant sudden evaporation of entrapped air in the lubricant release of refrigerant from the oil/refrigerant mixture release of dissolved lubricant from the refrigerant C Foaming of the oil in a refrigeration compressor crankcase is caused by _____________. A. refrigerant boiling out of solution from the lube oil
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2203
B. liquid refrigerant flooding the compressor and system C. lube oil viscosity being reduced by refrigerant dilution
D. Dehydrators must be used continuously in a refrigeration system.
2204
evaporator compressor expansion valve condenser C The temperature of a refrigerant gas is the highest _______. A. at the compressor discharge
A. B. C. D. Ans:
D. compressor suction pressure suddenly increasing Ans: A If a refrigeration compressor will not start, the reason may be _____________. A. the pressure regulating valve is not closing B. an excessive lack of refrigerant in the system C. badly leaking discharge valves D. worn piston rings Ans: B The refrigeration compressor in a water cooled refrigeration system 2207 is short cycling on the high pressure cutout switch. One reason for this could be the ____________. 2205
A. B. C. D.
system is low on refrigerant high pressure cutout switch is improperly adjusted discharge valves are leaking slightly discharge valves are leaking excessively
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Ans: C Air trapped in a refrigeration system using a water-cooled condenser is usually indicated by ____________. A. unusually high head pressure when compared to the existing temperature of the liquid refrigerant B. higher than normal liquid level in the receiver C. unusually lower than normal discharge pressure when compared to the existing temperature of the liquid refrigerant D. higher than normal liquid refrigerant temperature Ans: A Sludge may form in the crankcase of an air conditioning 2210 compressor as a result of _____________. A. bubbling refrigerant B. overheating and oxidation C. lowered operating temperatures D. reducing the cloud or floc point Ans: B If a refrigeration crankcase compressor were s hort cycling on the 2212 low pressure cutout switch, the cause might be that the ____________. 2208
system was overcharged with refrigerant system was low on refrigerant suction valves were leaking slightly relief valve was leaking slightly B The temperature at which water vapor in the atmosphere begins to 2214 condense is called the ____________. A. dew point temperature B. condensation temperature C. psychometric temperature D. absolute humidity temperature Ans: A Which of the listed operations will cause an automatically controlled 2216 refrigeration compressor to restart? A. Closing of the solenoid valve B. Closing of the expansion valve C. An increase in the suction pressure D. Decreasing the suction pressure Ans: C R-12 is generally considered to be a safe, nontoxic, nonflammable, 2218 and nonexplosive refrigerant. It can, however, become highly toxic when _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2220
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2222
superheated outside the system in contact with an open flame heated to the boiling point all of the above B Ammonia when used as a refrigerant is valuable because of its high efficiency, it is however _____________. toxic flammable explosive all of the above D Which of the following terms represents the form of heat removed from the refrigerant in the condenser of a refrigeration system?
A. Latent heat of vaporization B. Heat of compression C. Superheat D. All of the above Ans: D Which of the following factors will have the greatest effect on the 2224 heating load within a conditioned space? A. B. C. D. Ans: 2226
Solar gain Infiltration and ventilation air Occupants inside the space Entertainment equipment within the space B When using a sling psychrometer to determine relative humidity, the indicated difference between the dry bulb and the wet bulb reading is the _____________.
A. relative humidity B. dew point
2209
Ans: B A refrigeration unit will tend to short cycle when operating ____________. A. under heavy loads B. during hot gas defrost C. under light loads
D. during starting conditions Ans: C Excessive circulation of the lubricating oil with the refrigerant in a 2211 refrigeration system will cause _____________. A. carbon deposits on the compressor suction valves B. the evaporator temperature to increase C. rapid corrosion of the thermal expansion valve D. no operating problems Ans: B If a liquid sight flow indicator in a refrigeration system shows gas 2213 bubbles in motion passing inside of the glass, there is _____________. too much refrigerant in the system oil entrained in the refrigerant less than a full charge of refrigerant in the system ice crystals forming in the refrigerant C Which of the problems listed could be indicated if a sight glass in 2215 the refrigerant liquid line is full of bubbles? A. Proper refrigerant charge B. Faulty expansion valve C. Insufficient refrigerant D. Solenoid valve stuck open Ans: C Saltwater is typically provided to a refrigeration system to 2217 _____________. A. cool the expansion valve B. prevent refrigerant superheating C. condense the refrigerant gas D. prevent motor overheating Ans: C In the presence of an open flame or hot surfaces, chlorinated 2219 flourocarbon refrigerants decomposes and form _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
petroleum crystals phosgene gas water vapor carbon monoxide B For safe storage, the maximum allowable temperature to which refrigerant bottles should be exposed is _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
37.8°C 52°C 66°C 79°C B When air at a given temperature, contains the maximum amount of moisture for that temperature, the air is said to be ______________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
superheated saturated condensing evaporating B The pressure range between the system cut in and cut out pressures in a refrigeration unit is known as _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
opposing operational drag pressure distribution differential system purge C Cold storage compartments used for frozen or chilled foods, may be equipped with medium velocity air coolers to establish rapid convection and to __________.
2221
2223
2225
2227
A. prevent shrinkage and drying of s tored foods B. deliver cooled air to all areas of the compartment
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C. wet bulb "depression" D. partial saturation temperature Ans: C Which of the following statements is c orrect concerning a halide 2228 torch leak detector?
C. prevent air from being cooled below the dew point D. eliminate all noxious odors in the compartment Ans: B Which of the locations listed would be considered as the most 2229 common place to install a dryer in a refrigeration system?
A. The probe should be moved rapidly over the area of a suspected leak. B. The torch is effective in locating large leaks only. C. The flame will turn green in the presence of R-12. D. A refrigerant gas mask must be worn while using the torch. Ans: C Cylindrical driers installed in halocarbon refrigerant systems should 2230 be arranged _____________. A. so that the liquid enters at the top and leaves at the bottom when located in the liquid line B. so that the liquid enters at the bottom and leaves at the top when located in the liquid line C. so that the gas enters at the bottom and leaves at the top when located in the suction line
2232
2234
2236
2238
2240
D. horizontally if the drying agent is calcium oxide Ans: B Tubing connections for refrigeration systems may be made by _____________. A. flaring B. soldering C. silver brazing D. all of the above Ans: D When air is at its dew point and there is no change in either the temperature or pressure, the air ______________. A. has a low absolute humidity B. has the lowest relative humidity C. cannot give up its moisture D. will gain no additional moisture Ans: D Which of the following statements is true concerning the use of dehydrators in refrigeration systems? A. Dehydrators must be used continuously. B. Dehydrators are usually installed in the liquid line. C. Dehydrators are used when pumping down the s ystem. D. Dehydrators are used when purging the system. Ans: B The thermostat controlling a refrigerated cargo box two-way solenoid valve senses _______________. A. evaporator coil inlet temperature B. the refrigerated box temperature C. evaporator coil outlet temperature D. degree of refrigerant superheat Ans: B A solenoid valve used in a refrigeration system should be installed ______________. A. with the axis of the solenoid horizontal, sensing temperature of the box, and upstream of the thermal expansion valve
A. Between the compressor and the condenser.
2231
B. A refrigeration leak C. A faulty reactor plate
2233
2235
2237
2239
2241
B. upright, sensing temperature of the box, and upstream of the thermal expansion valve C. upright, sensing temperature of the box, and downstream of the thermal expansion valve D. upright, sensing superheat of the tail coil, and upstream of the thermal expansion valve Ans: B If two compressors must be operated in parallel in order to maintain 2242 the box temperatures, a careful watch should be kept on the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2244 A. B. C. D.
discharge pressure gauges of both compressors suction pressure gauges of both compressors expansion valves of both evaporator coils oil levels in both compressor crankcases D Leaking discharge reed valves in a refrigeration compressor should be _____________. reground relapped replaced rewound
Between the thermal expansion valve and the evaporator. In the suction line. In the liquid line. D If the flame of a Halide leak detecting torch burns yellow, which of the problems listed is indicated? A. A restricted exploring tube
B. C. D. Ans:
D. Normal operation Ans: A In a small appliance using HFC-134a you would expect to see the greatest temperature drop across the __________. A. evaporator B. receiver C. compressor D. condenser Ans: D In a refrigeration system, the amount of s uperheat absorbed by the refrigerant is adjusted at the ____________. A. compressor B. condenser C. evaporator coil D. expansion valve Ans: D A thermal expansion valve installed in a refrigeration system is controlled by _____________. A. the solenoid valve energizing coil B. regulating the king valve C. a thermal bulb on the evaporator coil D. an electrically operated controller Ans: C A dehydrator installed in a refrigeration system is used to remove _____________. A. noncondensable gases and vapors B. oil from the refrigerant C. refrigerant from the oil D. moisture from the system Ans: D The normal operation of a refrigeration compressor should be to cycle on _____________. A. in response to the low pressure cutout switch and off in response to the high pressure cutout switch B. in response to the high pressure cutout switch and off in response to the low pressure cutout switch C. and off in response to the low pressure cutout switch D. and off in response to the high pressure cutout switch
2243
Ans: C When starting a reciprocating refrigeration compressor that has been shutdown for a period of time, you should manually throttle the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
2245 A. B. C. D.
sea water valve king valve suction valve expansion valve C What is the color of the flame produced by a halide torch when there is no refrigerant present? Orange Blue Red Green
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Ans: C When a refrigeration compressor is in the "off" cycle, the thermal expansion valve _____________. A. is always wide open B. is always completely closed C. is open only until evaporator pressure is equalized D. operates as if the system were in operation Ans: D When adding oil to a refrigeration system, precautions must be 2248 taken to ensure that _____________. A. the compressor suction pressure is not too high B. all air is purged from the pump and charging fittings C. the high pressure cutout switch is held open to prevent accidental starting D. the condenser is completely shutdown first Ans: B If only the chill box solenoid valv e remains open, therefrigeration 2250 compressor will eventually be stopped by______________. 2246
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2252
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2254 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2256
chill box thermostatic temperature switch low water cutout switch low pressure cutout switch high pressure cutout switch C Which of the valves listed is normally closed when charging the refrigeration system through the high side? Dehydrator inlet valve Liquid line king valve Suction line valve Thermal expansion valve B In a refrigeration system, silica gel is used in the __________________. condenser dehydrator liquid strainer hygrometer B A device used to hold open the refrigeration compressor suction valve that normally draws gas from the suction manifold, but returns it to the suction line without compressing it is called a _____________.
Ans: B Some "hot gas" defrost systems reheat the refrigerant just prior to its returning to the compressor to _____________. A. increase the circulation of liquid refrigerant B. prevent chill shocking the compressor suction valves C. improve the efficiency of the expansion valve D. reduce the damaging effects of liquid slugging Ans: D If a refrigeration system were short of refrigerant, the condition 2249 would result in ____________. A. continuous running of the compressor B. high suction pressure C. high discharge pressure 2247
D. short cycling of the compressor on the water failure switch Ans: A When the sensing bulb of a thermostatic expansion valve is 2251 charged with a fluid different from the charge used in the system, it is said to be _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
blended charged straight charged mixed charged cross charged D In a vapor compression type refrigeration cycle, the refrigerant temperature decreases the most in the _________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
evaporator condenser compressor expansion valve D If the compressor is heard to knock while pumping down the low side for repairs, this is an indication of ____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
worn piston rings faulty bearings air being introduced to the system foaming of the crankcase oil D When two refrigerated spaces in a refrigeration system are served by a single compressor and condenser, yet are maintained at different temperatures, a back pressure regulating valve serves to provide ____________.
2253
2255
2257
discharge line bypass cylinder unloader suction line bypass relief valve B A common secondary refrigerant used in air conditioning systems 2258 aboard ship is _____________. A. R-123 B. water C. nitrogen D. Carrene Ans: B In a refrigeration system, air is purged at the __________. 2260
a higher pressure in the evaporator coil in the colder box a higher pressure in the evaporator coil in the warmer box a lower pressure in the ev aporator coil in the warmer box equal pressures in the evaporator coils of both boxes B Refrigerant flow through a thermostatic expansion valve is greatest 2259 when the _____________. A. evaporator is warm and empty of refrigerant B. evaporator is cold and empty of refrigerant C. low side and high side pressures are equal D. low side pressure and thermal element pressure equalize Ans: A Thermostatic expansion valves are opened ______________. 2261
expansion valve filter/drier evaporator condenser D Which of the listed substances is used as an absorbing agent in the 2262 shipboard dehydration of refrigeration systems? A. Ethylene glycol B. Sodium bromide C. Silica gel D. Methyl glycol Ans: C A partially fouled liquid line strainer in therefrigeration system will 2264 cause ___________. I. an increase in the percent of flash gas II. desireable subcooling of the liquid
by spring pressure and c losed by refrigerant pressure by refrigerant pressure and closed by spring pressure and closed by spring pressure and closed by refrigerant pressure B The purpose of heating the oil in the sump of a secured 2263 refrigeration compressor is to _____________. A. reduce the absorption of refrigerant by the lubricating oil B. prevent acidic pitting C. remove entrained water D. remove wax and gum Ans: A Which of the design features listed for a refrigeration valve are 2265 used to reduce the possibility of loss of refrigerant from the system?
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D.
I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. Back seating B. Valve caps C. Packless diaphragms D. All of the above.
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Ans: D A thermostatic expansion valve is designed to respond to _____________. A. refrigerated space temperature B. compressor suction pressure C. vapor discharge pressure in the cooling coils D. superheat in the tail coil Ans: D Three of the refrigerants covered under the low pressure system 2268 regulations are_________. A. CFC-11, CFC-113 and CFC-114 B. CFC-11, CFC-113 and HCFC-123 C. CFC-11, CFC-114 and HCFC-123 2266
D. CFC-11, CFC-114 and CFC-502 Ans: B A reheater, as used in an air conditioning system, is designed to 2270 control the _____________. A. chilled water temperature B. dew point temperature C. primary air temperature D. dry bulb temperature Ans: D A room humidistat initiates the lowering of the humidity of the 2272 conditioned supply air to a space, while the actual process is accomplished by ____________.
Ans: D The thermostatic expansion valve is designed to maintain constant _____________. A. refrigerant flow B. box temperature C. outlet superheat D. coil pressure Ans: C When adding oil to a refrigeration system, precautions must be 2269 taken to ensure that _____________. A. the compressor suction pressure is not too high B. all air is purged from the pump and charging fittings C. the high pressure cutout switch is held open to prevent accidental starting D. the condenser is completely shutdown first Ans: B A secondary refrigerant commonly used in shipboard air 2271 conditioning systems is _____________. A. methyl chloride B. water C. carbon dioxide D. trichloroethylene Ans: B Newly developed refrigerants, used to reduce stratospheric ozone 2273 depletion, are sometimes refered to as azeotropic. This means that the resulting liquid_________. 2267
A. raising the cooling coil temperature and lowering the reheater temperature B. raising both the cooling coil temperature and the reheater temperature C. lowering both the cooling coil temperature and the reheater temperature D. lowering the cooling coil temperature and raising the reheater temperature Ans: D If a refrigeration compressor were short cycling on the low pressure 2274 cutout switch, the cause might be that the ____________. system was overcharged with refrigerant system was low on oil suction valves were leaking slightly system was low on refrigerant D If the discharge valves on a refrigeration compressor are leaking slightly, the compressor will ___________. A. run continuously B. not start C. short cycle on the water low pressure switch D. short cycle on the high pressure switch Ans: A What is the maximum volume to which refillable refrigeration cylinders should be filled? A. 60% full B. 70% full C. 80% full D. 90% full Ans: C Which refrigerant listed has the highest latent heat per kg? A. R-22 B. Ammonia C. R-134 D. Sulfur Dioxide Ans: B Average condensing pressures of an ammonia refrigeration system range between __________. A. 8 and 11bar g B. 9 and 11.5bar g C. 9.5 and 12 bar g D. 10 and 13 bar g Ans: D Pure anhydrous ammonia is considered noncorrosive to ______.
A. will condense at a temperature lower than the boiling point of the componant withthe lowest boiling point B. boils at a temperature equal to the boiling point of the component with the lowest boiling point C. will condense at a temperature equal to the highest condensation point of the component with a condensation point equal to any one of the components D. boils at a temperature independent of any individual components in the mixture Ans: D The prohibition against the venting of halogenated floro-carbon 2275 refrigerants to the atmosphere requires that, at a minimum, the refrigerant must be __________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2276
2278
2280
2282
2284
A. iron only B. steel only C. copper-bearing metals
2277
2279
2281
2283
2285
A. recovered B. reclaimed C. recycled D. destroyed Ans: A Considering equal capacities, which refrigeration system can employ the smallest compressor? A. Ammonia B. Carbon Dioxide C. Dichlorodifluoromethane D. Monochlorodifluoromethane Ans: A In addition to moisture, a refrigerant dehydrator charged with silica gel is designed to absorb _____________. A. refrigerant B. acids C. noncondensable gases D. refrigerant oil Ans: B The chemical formula for ozone is represented as ________. A. O B. O2 C. O3 D. Oz Ans: C Which of the following devices is the safest to use when locating ammonia leaks? A. Litmus paper B. Sulphur candle C. Halide torch D. All of the above are recommended. Ans: A For most refrigeration split systems that use one sight glass, a good location for the sight glass is just ________. A. before the compressor suction line B. after the compressor discharge C. upstream of the condenser
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D. None of the above are correct. Ans: C Overfilling a refrigerant container is extremely dangerous because 2286 of the high pressures generated. The generation of pressure is the_________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2288 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2290 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2292 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2294
vapor pressure of the refrigerant discharge pressure of the recovery compressor hydrostatic pressure of the expanding liquid discharge pressure from the recovery cylinder C What is the equivalent tonnage of a refrigeration system rated at 48,000 BTU per hour? 2.5 3 4 5 C If you know that a refrigeration system is leaking refrigerant, you would first___________. recover the refrigerant charge the system look for traces of oil evacuate the system C In a multi-evaporator refrigeration system, a solenoid valve is installed in the liquid line before _____________. the receiver each expansion valve the condenser the oil separator B In a refrigeration system, the condenser cooling water regulating valve is directly controlled by the ____________.
temperature of the cooling water compressor discharge pressure amount of refrigerant in the system temperature of the refrigerant after expansion B How does a refrigeration solenoid valve differ from a modulating valve? A. A solenoid valve can only be installed in liquid lines.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2296
B. A liquid line solenoid valve is either completely opened or closed, whereas a modulation valve is positioned according to the strength of the applied electrical signal.
D. upstream of the liquid metering device Ans: D A flapper valve, also known as a beam valve, is frequently used in 2287 refrigeration compressor discharge v alves, and is designed to _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2289 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2291 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2293 A.
B. Refrigerant is the working fluid and is required for cooling. C. The main purpose of the oil is to lubricate the compressor. D. All of the above Ans: D In a refrigeration system with a Thermostatic expansion valve, the 2295 component installed after the metering device is the ___________. A. evaporator B. receiver C. compressor D. solenoid valve Ans: A What differentiates "system-dependent" and "self-contained" 2297 recovery devices in refrigeration systems? A. self-contained recovery devices can only be used on large CGC and HCFC units B. self-contained recovery devices usually contain a compressor, system-dependent recovery devices do not
C. Solenoid valves are only used in low voltage refrigeration control systems, while modulation valves are used in high voltage applications. D. Both valves operate in exactly the same manner, only the manufacturer's terminology is the differentiating factor. Ans: B When air is at its dew point it is at its ______________. 2298 A. lowest absolute humidity B. lowest relative humidity C. highest absolute humidity D. highest relative humidity Ans: D If you find an extremely large refrigerant leak while using a halide 2300 torch, your flame will _______________. A. change from blue to orange B. "flare up" and remain lighted C. probably go out D. stay blue Ans: C In a chilled water air conditioning unit using a reciprocating 2302 compressor, the refrigerating effect of the primary refrigerant can be increased by _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
increasing refrigerant pressure in the coil increasing chilled water flow through the c ooler subcooling the refrigerant in the condenser superheating the refrigerant in the compressor C
feed discharge pressure to the suction line aid in hot gas defrosting pass liquid slugs equalize system pressure for compressor c ycling C R-12 has been a suitable refrigerant for use in high temperature applications with _____________. reciprocating compressors rotary compressors centrifugal compressors all of the above D Which of the devices listed will indicate the proper operation of a refrigeration system dryer? Dryer sensing bulb Mcleod gage Particulate test Moisture indicator D Which of the following statements regarding refrigeration systems is/are true? In any refrigeration system, oil and refrigerant are always present.
C. the system compressor must be working to use system dependent devices, the system compressor may or m ay not be operational when self-contained devices are used D. there is no difference between the devices Ans: B The refrigerants referred to as CFC's are __________. A. fully halogenated B. partially halogenated C. not halogenated at all D. completely filled with hydrogen atoms Ans: A CFC refrigerants exposed to high temperture or direct flame, will 2301 decompose and may produce ___________. A. methyl chloride B. ammonia C. hydrofluoric acid D. ozone Ans: C The movement of the armature within a modulating valve as used 2303 on some refrigeration systems is opposed by the ________. 2299
A. B. C. D. Ans:
pressure of the flash gas developed vacuum formed as the refrigerant flows through the valve weight of the armature spring force D
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Alkylbenzene ISO 32 cST refrigerant oil is miscible and suitable to use with___________.
2304
A. R-22 B. R-32 C. R-134a D. R-143a Ans: A An untagged refrigerant cylinder is found in your storage area. It is 2306 light (sky) blue, and the refrigerant it contains is __________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2308
CFC-12 CFC-11 HCFC-22 HFC-134a D Refrigeration systems using forced air circulation evaporators have a tendency to cause rapid dehydration of foods unless _______________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
smaller diameter fan smaller diameter drive pulley larger diameter fan larger diameter drive pulley D In a refrigeration system, the bulb for the thermalexpansion valve is always located _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
in the middle of the ev aporator coils near the evaporator coil outlet near the evaporator coil inlet at the begining of the bottom row of the evaporator coils B The color of the refrigeration oil can indicate various operating conditions of the compressor/ refrigeration system in which it is used. Black oil can be an indication of _____________________.
2307
2309
A. a complete change of air takes place within each 30 second interval
A. copper plating caused by moisture in the system
B. foods are packaged in corrugated storage boxes C. the air is circulated slowly with a minimum temperature change
B. bearing wear or piston scoring C. carbonization resulting from air in the system
D. a humidifier is installed within the refrigeration system Ans: C To add refrigerant to the low side of an air conditioning system, the 2310 refrigerant should be introduced through the _____________. A. suction service valve as a vapor B. suction service valve as a liquid C. discharge service valve as a vapor D. charging valve as a liquid Ans: A When replacing a thermostatic expansion valve sensing bulb, it is 2312 necessary to ________. A. apply a light film of oil to increase heat transfer B. apply a light film of oil to prev ent oxidation C. apply a heavy coating of grease to function as a heat sink D. carefully coat the device with silicone sealant to reduce the effects of convective cooling Ans: B Which chemical symbol represents ammonia? 2314 A. AM3 B. AMn3 C. NM3 D. NH3 Ans: D Which of the refrigerants listed has a boiling point of -33°C at 2316 atmospheric pressure? A. Methyl Chloride B. Sulfur Dioxide C. Ammonia D. Brine Ans: C If the superheat value of the thermostatic expansion valve is 2318 adjusted too high the _________. A. box temperature will continually rise B. rate at which condensation occurs on the evaporator coils will increase C. suction line of the compressor will be abnormally warm D. rate at which condensation occurs within the coils will increase
2320
The speed of a belt driven ventilation fan can be increased without changing the motor speed by using a _____________.
2305
Ans: C Relative humidity can be determined by using a psychrometric chart and a/an ______________. A. hydrometer B. sling psychrometer C. aneroid barometer D. compound barometer
D. gasket breakdown Ans: C The color of the oil observed in the sight glass of an operating 2311 refrigeration compressor experiencing bearing wear or piston scoring would appear _______________. A. gray or metallic B. black C. clear, because the heavier particles would gravitate to the bottom of the sump D. as a light blue-green Ans: A Expansion valve maintenance should include which of the following 2313 procedures? A. Cleaning of in-line filters. B. Ensuring that the thermal bulb is in good contact with the suction line. C. Checking that the thermal bulb is in the proper location. D. All of the above. Ans: D When opening or closing compressor service and line v alves on a typical refrigeration system, you _____________. A. should turn valves slowly to avoid thermal stresses due to low temperatures B. must first remove the seal cap C. should examine the gasket frequently to ensure that it is flat D. should never tighten the packing gland Ans: B If a refrigeration system is overcharged with refrigerant, one result 2317 will be ____________. A. low suction pressure B. higher than normal compressor head pressure C. increased system operating efficiency D. short cycling on the low pressure cutout Ans: B A small obstruction at the thermostatic expansion valve inlet will 2319 result in which of the following conditions? A. Suction pressure fluctuation. B. Hunting as indicated by fluctuations of the discharge pressure. 2315
C. Expansion valves are designed to pass small foreign particles so no adverse condition will occur. D. Ice is the sole cause of this and will soon melt due to superheat; no adverse condition will occur. Ans: A If a refrigeration compressor in a multi-box system runs 2321 continuously, the cause might be a _____________. A. high pressure switch stuck in the closed position B. clogged mechanical scale trap C. shortage of refrigerant D. defective thermal bulb
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2322
Ans: B "Respiratory heat" is a term applied primarily to which of the following cargoes?
A. Fresh vegetables B. Meat C. Frozen vegetables D. All of the above Ans: A The refrigeration system low pressure cutout switch is actuated by 2324 _____________. A. an electric system manager
2323
Ans: C If the thermal bulb of an expansion valve is incorrectly placed at the center of the coil instead of the end, it will _____________. increase the capacity of the c oil increase the superheat at the bulb deliver more refrigerant to the coil decrease the capacity of the coil D A one ton air conditioning system has which of the listed operating characteristics? A. It forces 1,000 kgs. of refrigerant through the evaporator per day.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2325
B. a sensing bulb at the tail coil of the evaporator
B. It forces 1,000 kgs. of air per hour across the ev aporator coils.
C. pressure changes in the suction line
C. Its cooling power equals that of melting 1,000 kgs. of ice per day.
D. failure of the king solenoid valve Ans: C An increasing head pressure in a refrigeration system, without any 2326 corresponding change in the cooling water inlet temperature, would probably be caused by _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2328
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2330
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2332
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2334
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2336
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2338 A. B. C. D.
restriction in refrigerant piping air and noncondensable gases in the condenser water in the refrigerant flooding back of liquid refrigerant from the evaporator B An important consideration in selecting a lubricating oil for use in a refrigeration compressor is for the oil to ____________. have a high viscosity index mix readily with refrigerant have a high freezing point have a low pour point D Which of the problems listed would cause the discharge temperature of an R-12 refrigeration compressor to increase? Thermal expansion valve frozen open. Suction gas heat exchanger bypassed. Condenser clogged or fouled. High pressure cutout switch inoperative. C If the suction pressure for an operating refrigeration compressor is below normal, the cause may be _____________. an excess of liquid refrigerant the expansion valve overfeeding a fouled compressor suction strainer the compressor short cycling C In a refrigeration system equipped with a reciprocating compressor and a water cooled condensing unit, leaking compressor discharge valves will result in ________. refrigerant flooding of the compressor low suction pressure noisy compressor operation low head pressure D If you change from a low pour point lubricant to a highpour point lubricant in a refrigeration system, __________. compressor lubrication will be improved oil will not leave the crankcase compressor valves will be damaged oil may congeal in the ev aporator D If a refrigeration system were short of refrigerant, the condition would result in ____________. continuous running of the compressor high suction pressure high discharge pressure short cycling of the compressor on the water failure switch
Ans: A
D. It contains 1,000 kgs. of refrigerant. Ans: C A thermostatic expansion valve is properly controlling evaporator 2327 superheat. Adjusting this valve to lower the superheat will result in a/an ________________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
evaporator pressure decrease evaporator coil over-feed evaporator capacity increase expansion valve diaphragm rupture B A pressure drop through the refrigerant liquid line may cause _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
solenoid valve to seize compressor to hunt formation of flash gas in the liquid line expansion valve to freeze open C Which of the conditions listed is one indication of an excessive amount of refrigerant in the system?
A. B. C. D. Ans:
Safety valve lifting Prolonged running Short cycling Oil absorbed in the crankcase C If one box in a multiple box, direct expansion type refrigeration system was experiencing an excessively low temperature, this could be a result of ____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
liquid refrigerant returning to the compressor excessive frost on the cooling coils a leaking hand expansion valve an oversized expansion valve C If R-12 is maintained at approximately 8kg/cm2 when discharged by the compressor, which of the listed v alues would represent its saturation temperature?
A. B. C. D. Ans:
-18C -6°C 10°C 37.8°C D To correct the condition of slugging and flooding back in a refrigeration system, it may be necessary to ______________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
re-adjust the discharge pressure clean the expansion valve screen add refrigerant adjust the expansion valve D Frost appearing on one set of evaporator coils of a multi-box, direct expansion type refrigeration system _____________. increase the value of superheat to the fluid leaving the coils will assist in increasing the refrigeration effect can be removed by passing hot v apors through the coils can be quickly removed by simply shutting off fluid flow to the coils
2329
2331
2333
2335
2337
2339 A. B. C. D.
Ans: C
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2340
Which of the conditions listed represents the greatest effect of excess frost accumulation on the evaporator coils? A. Keeps the refrigerated space cooler. B. C. D. Ans:
2342
Reduces the efficiency of the plant. Takes the load off the compressor. Has no affect on the system. B In a refrigeration system, the amount of refrigerant admitted to the evaporator is directly related to _________.
the compressor discharge pressure condenser cooling water temperature the solenoid valve differential pressure the superheat of the refrigerant in the tail coil D The refrigerant gas returning to the compressor s hould be 2344 _____________. A. superheated B. saturated C. dense D. flooded Ans: A Under normal conditions, the refrigerant enters the compressor in 2346 an operating refrigeration system as a _____________.
2341
2348 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2350
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2352
liquid dry saturated gas wet saturated gas superheated vapor D In a refrigeration system, foaming of the crankcase oil may cause the _____________. expansion valve to overfeed compressor to knock water regulating valve to fail crankcase drains to plug B Sludge may form in the lubricating oil crankcase of a reciprocating air conditioning compressor as a result of _____________. wax precipitation in the lube oil contamination by dust, scale, or moisture refrigerant bubbles in the lube oil refrigerant reducing the lube oil viscosity B The compressor in an air-cooled condensing refrigeration system is short cycling on the high pressure cutout switch. A probable reason for this is the ____________.
C. discharge valves are leaking excessively D. discharge valves are leaking slightly
2354
Ans: A If a refrigeration compressor is short cycling on high head pressure, you should ____________. A. purge the condenser if the waterside is dirty B. check for proper water flow through the c ondenser C. increase the high pressure cutout setting D. reduce the cooling water flow
Ans: B Which of the problems listed could cause erosion of the expansion valve disks and seats? A. Overcharging the system with refrigerant B. Faulty compressor suction valve C. Failure of the high pressure cutout D. Flash gas formed in the liquid line Ans: D A refrigeration system compressor crankcase is sweating or 2358 unusually cold. This is an indication of _________________. A. a shortage of refrigerant in the system 2356
high suction pressure high head pressure bubbles in the sight glass D Excessive oil foaming in the crankcase of a refrigeration compressor is most likely to occur when the compressor _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
has run continuously for a long period suction pressure is below normal oil level is below normal starts after a long idle period D In which of the listed refrigeration system components does superheating of the refrigerant take place? Expansion valve Evaporator Drier Receiver B Excessive oil foaming in the crankcase of a refrigeration compressor can result in _____________.
2345 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2347
A. overheated compressor bearings B. excess lube oil viscosity C. carbon deposits on the compressor piston rings D. wax crystals forming in the lubricant Ans: A Which of the listed characteristics can be applied to R-12 vapor? 2349 A. B. C. D. Ans:
It is corrosive. It is odorless. It is visible as a blue fog. It has a distinctive taste. B The presence of bubbles in a refrigeration system liquid line may ____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
promote refrigerant dehydration be absorbed in the receiver cause low condensing pressure carry moisture and lead to c orrosion D Which of the listed statements is a characteristic of the liquid charged power element used with thermostatic expansion valves?
2351
2353
A. system is ov ercharged with refrigerant B. system is low on refrigerant
B. C. D. Ans: 2343
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
In the refrigeration system, a shortage of refrigerant is indicated by _____________. A. the compressor short cycling on high pressure cut out switch
A. At the designed operating temperature, the liquid refrigerant charge has changed to a vapor. B. The liquid refrigerant tends to collect at the bellows or diaphragm and reduces the valve sensitivity. C. The sensing bulb is empty of liquid refrigerant charge at the designed operating temperature. D. The sensing bulb is never emptied of liquid refrigerant under normal operating conditions. Ans: D A constant hissing sound at the thermal expansion valve will always 2355 indicates _____________. A. proper refrigerant control B. a faulty refrigerant control valve C. a lack of refrigerant D. the flow of 100% liquid refrigerant passing to the evaporator Ans: C Refrigeration system compressor crankcase sweating is an indication of _________. A. insufficient lube oil circulating through the system B. excessive circulation of lube oil through the system C. insufficient refrigerant in the system D. an overworked compressor Ans: B Sweating of the refrigeration system compressor crankcase is 2359 caused by _____________. A. too much superheat 2357
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air in the system an accumulation of liquid refrigerant in the crankcase. a shortage of oil in the crankcase C The effect of high vapor superheat in a refrigeration system, is a/an ____________. A. increased capacity of the compressor
B. C. D. Ans: 2360
2361
B. more efficient operation of the thermal expansion valve
B. it is the sole responsibility of the chief engineer to ascertain that all members of the engineering department are familiar with the use of gas masks or breathing apparatus
C. decreased capacity of the compressor
C. spare charges shall be carried for at least 50% of each size and variety of gas masks and/or self contained breathing apparatus
D. loss of receiver capacity Ans: C Frosting or sweating of the suction line of a reciprocating 2362 refrigeration compressor indicates a condition which could result in severe damage due to _____________.
D. all of the above Ans: A Which of the following statements is correct concerning the testing 2363 of an R-12 refrigeration system for leaks in an enclosed compartment?
A. minor amounts of oil in the refrigerant
A. To gain sensitivity, the largest possible flame should be used with the halide torch. B. The flame of a halide torch will turn blue in the presence of R-12.
B. liquid slugging C. insufficient refrigerant D. a failed heat interchanger
2364
Ans: B Which of the following statements regarding low pressure, reciprocating, air compressor valves is correct? A. A relatively large clearance space is required for the valves.
C. Halide torches are useful in locating very small R-12 leaks. D. Rapid leak testing is possible with the halide torch since there is no time lag between the time air enters the exploring tube until it hits the reactor plate. 2365
B. Mechanical operating valve gear is required to open and close the valves. C. Only the suction valve requires a push rod and rocker arm mechanism for valve operation. D. Due to the physical construction of the valves, a relatively small cylinder clearance space is required. 2366
Ans: D When you adjust a thermostatic expansion valve ____________.
2367
A. refrigerant must be bled off the sensing line before adjustments are made B. all refrigerant must be pumped into the receiv er before adjustments are made
2368
Ans: C The principal purpose of subcooling liquid refrigerant prior to its entering the expansion valve is to _____________. A. increase the refrigerating effect by decreasing the amount of flash gas B. allow the refrigerant to enter the throttling device in a saturated condition C. increase the refrigerating effect by increasing the amount of flash gas D. minimize the temperature drop of the liquid as it pass es through the solenoid valve to the outlet side Ans: A Each pressure v essel containing refrigerants, which may be isolated, shall be ___________. A. subject to annual hyrdrostatic tests to be performed in the presence of a marine inspector B. protected by a relief valve set to relieve at a pressure not exceeding 110 percent of the maximum allowable working pressure of the vessel
C. time must be allowed for conditions to stabilize in the evaporator before further adjustments are made
C. stored in an upright position in addition to being secured so as to prevent accidental release of the refrigerant within a confined space
D. all refrigerant must be routed through the dehydrator while changing the superheat setting
D. protected by a relief valve set to relieve at a pressure not exceeding the maximum allowable working pressure of the vessel
Ans: C When removing the primary refrigerant from a system using water as a s econdary refrigerant, it is important to follow which procedure(s) to safeguard the equipment?
2369
A. Insure that the water doesn't become contaminated with oil in the direct contact heat exchanger. B. Insure that the water and refrigerant separator is functioning properly. C. Insure that the water is drained or continually circulating to avoid freeze-up. D. Leave some refrigerant in the system to prevent the water from contaminating the referigerant if there is a leak. Ans: C The receiver used in a refrigeration system _________. A. stores liquid refrigerant B. collects noncondensable gases C. allows refrigerant to be subcooled D. prevents liquid refrigerant from slugging to the compressor Ans: A Which of the following refrigerants is considered to be the oldest in 2372 use? A. Methyl Chloride B. Sulphur Dioxide 2370
insufficient superheat suction pressure too low excessive refrigerant returning to the compressor D On all vessels equipped with refrigeration units of over 0.566 cubic metres (20 cubic foot) c apacity, _____________. A. a gas mask suitable for protection against each refrigerant used, or a self contained breathing apparatus must be provided
B. C. D. Ans:
Ans: D If the combination moisture indicator and sight glass indicates an accumulation of moisture within the system, which of the listed procedures would be the most practical to follow? A. Secure the system, disassemble and de-ice the thermostatic expansion valve. B. Close the king valve, pump down the system, isolate the drier, remove and replace with new drier element. C. Purge the entire system to the atmosphere, replace the drier, and add freon. D. none of the above
Ans: B Which refrigeration system will require the use of an oil trap? A. Brine B. Ammonia C. Methyl Chloride D. All of the above. Ans: B A refrigerant used in a mechanical refrigeration system should 2373 have which of the following characteristics? A. High boiling point B. High freezing point 2371
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C. Ammonia D. Carbon Dioxide Ans: C All refrigeration systems must be protected with a ________. 2374 A. pressure relief device refrigerant receiver high pressure cut-out low pressure cut-out C Moisture in the refrigerant may _____________. 2376 A. freeze on the expansion valve seat and reduce the flow of liquid refrigerant B. emulsify the oil in the condenser C. freeze in the king valve D. clog the oil trap Ans: A To prevent motor ov erload during start-up of a hermetically sealed 2378 centrifugal refrigeration system, the compressor suction gas variable inlet guide vanes remain _____________. B. C. D. Ans:
A. closed until the motor is connected across the line at full voltage and current drawn is up to full load current B. opened until the motor is connected across the line at full voltage and current drawn is below full load current C. closed until the motor is connected across the line at full voltage and current drawn is below full load current D. opened until the motor is connected across the line at full voltage and current drawn is up to full load current Ans: C The primary purpose of the thermostatic expansion valve as used 2380 in most refrigeration plants is to _____________. A. regulate refrigerant passage through the solenoid valve
C. Low specific heat D. Low boiling point Ans: D A purge cycle is required on all low pressure chillers because 2375 __________. A. such a chiller can operate at a pressure below atmospheric pressure B. evacuation of all air from a chiller is not possible C. chillers are often opened for mainatenance D. because of the refrigerant's low boiling point Ans: A An ammonia leak will turn moistened pink litmus paper _____. 2377 A. orange B. C. D. Ans: 2379
A. condition of the expansion valve B. moisture in the system C. condition of the compressor suction valves D. condenser temperature
2381
B. ensure that liquid refrigerant returning to the compressor has the proper superheat C. maintain a constant degree of superheat at the evaporator coil outlet D. maintain constant evaporator coil pressure independent of suction pressure variations Ans: C A large evaporator coil has been determined to have a pressure 2382 drop of 0.3bar g and can be compensated for by__________. I. adjusting the Thermostatic expansion valve spring compression and raising the super heat value II. installing an externally equal A. B. C. D. Ans: 2384
I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II B In a refigeration system, once the compound gage manifold lines are attached to the service connections, you should ascertain that the valves on the gage manifold are closed, and then __________.
red purple blue D A sight glass is installed in the liquid line to indicate the condition of the refrigerant charge and may also indicate the _____________.
Ans: B The primary function of a back pressure regulator installed in a refrigeration system is to _____________. A. limit the minimum evaporator pressure to ensure excessively low box temperatures are not reached B. maintain a constant compressor suction press ure regardless of load C. maintain an evaporator coil pressure that assures excessively cold coil temperatures D. adjust compressor suction pressure to load demands
2383
Ans: A The compressor used in an air-cooled air conditioning system is short cycling. A service check determines the suction pressure is above the normal cut-in point with an exceptionally high head pressure and high superheat at the evaporator. This is probab A. B. C. D. Ans:
2385
loosely fitted compressor drive belt partially opened liquid service valve reduction in condenser air flow (dirty condenser) fully closed discharge service valve C In addition to the main outermost scale on the low side compound gage fitted to the portable service m anifold, there are often one or more other scales on the face of the gage. These are _____________.
A. open the discharge valve service port by closing the service valve
A. pressure scales for different refrigerants
B. continue to backseat the discharge service valve by turning it clockwise
B. pressure scales for v arying ambient temperatures
C. open the discharge valve service port by closing the service valve approximately 1/4 to 1/2 of a turn D. open only the valve connected to the discharge service fitting on the outlet of the king valve Ans: C When repairing a refrigeration system, a swedge would be used to 2386 carry out which of the following operations? A. Swedges are used to remove any sweated edges formed on the tubing while soldering. B. Swedges are used during the breaking-in of refrigeration compressors and drive motors. C. A swedge is no longer used with repairing refrigeration systems due to progressive changes in the tool industry. D. Swedges can be used to expand an end of one tube to fit onto a tube of the same external diameter. Ans: D
C. temperature scales for varying ambient pressures D. temperature scales for different refrigerants
2387
Ans: D Which of the installation steps listed is necessary for the proper operation of the thermostatic expansion valve? A. Clean outlet pipe and secure bulb tangential to the flow of refrigerant. B. Clean off oxidation from the surface of the suction line and sensing bulb with fine abrasive cloth. C. Remove excess lengths of the sensing bulb capillary tube from the device to increase sens itivity. D. Heat shrink insulating material around the device once the bulb has been properly secured. Ans: B
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An economizer or heat exchanger in a refrigeration system, using a reciprocating compressor, functions to ____________.
2388
2390
A. reduce the possibility of liquid refrigerant slugging the compressor
A. filters
B. raise the temperature of liquid refrigerant C. cool the suction vapor returning to the compressor D. raise the refrigerant saturation temperature in the evaporator
B. separators C. ducted traps D. dehumidifiers
Ans: A A large evaporator coil has been determined to have apressure drop of 5 psig and can be compensated for by__________. I. doing nothing as this is typical of refrigeration systems II. throttling the suction of the compressor to prevent the occurance of A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II
2392
Ans: D Double trunk pistons are used in some refrigeration compressors to reduce refrigerant boil off by _____________.
2391
D. eliminating the need for a shaft seal Ans: C When multiple refrigerated boxes are maintaining individual 2394 temperatures and supplied by a single refrigeration compressor, the individual box temperatures are controlled by the _____________. A. B. C. D.
suction valves solenoid valves expansion valves compressor speed
Ans: B The presence of flash gas in the high pressure lines of arefrigeration system is undesireable because ___________. I. erosion of the TXV valve seat can be increased II. refrigeration system capacity will be reduced A. B. C. D. Ans:
2398
I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II C A multiple evaporator coil unit is equipped with a suction-pressure regulating valve. This valve must be bypassed when pumping down the system for repairs because reduction of suction pressure would cause the valve to _____________.
A. rupture B. C. D. Ans: 2400
open close chatter C When purging a gage manifold, which of the fittings listed is normally tightened last?
Ans: D A particular space is air conditioned by a 25 ton water cooled system. While troubleshooting, the space is found to be too warm, and the compressor is not operating. A service check determines the compressor suction pressure to be above the normal cut-in
A. A liquid line service valve is partially closed. B. The expansion valve feeler bulb is loosely clamped to the suction line. C. The suction pressure control contacts are stuck open. D. A suction line is kinked or partially obstructed and blocking refrigerant circulation. Ans: C Hot gas bypass is one of the methods used to _____________. 2393
A. increasing compressor volumetric efficiency B. producing higher compression pressures C. minimizing free contact between refrigerant and oil in the crankcase
2396
In an air conditioning system, moisture is removed from the air by _____________.
2389
A. relieve excessive compressor head pressure B. produce flash gas at the expansion valve C. reduce flooding of the receiver at low loads D. defrost the evaporator coils Ans: D The best time to check the oil level in the compressor in a typical 2395 refrigeration system is when the compressor is stopped after a long period of running. This is because the ____________. oil has had time to mix properly with the refrigerant refrigerant has had time to separate from the oil oil trap has been able to return sufficient oil to the sump oil heaters are secured; thereby, ensuring that a false level is not read Ans: B Inspection of the water-sides of chillers and condensersfor leaking 2397 tubes should be conducted on a regular basis. How frequently on a minimum basis should these inspectionsbe conducted? A. B. C. D.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2399
once a month once every six months once a year once every other year B To prevent the unnecessary loading of an air conditioning system while maintaining the designed dry bulb temperature and relative humidity in an air conditioning system, you should __________.
A. admit only enough fresh outside air to provide proper ventilation B. reduce the air reheating system load C. lower the compressor head pressure D. operate the purge recovery unit continuously Ans: A In a refrigeration system, which of the following statements 2401 describes the actions occurring when a solenoid valve, used in conjunction with an unloader head, is energized?
A. The hose fitting at the discharge v alve is tightened last after purging the low pressure line.
A. The solenoid valve directs high pressure gas to the valv e lifting device raising the suction valve off its seat and c ausing one specific cylinder to become unloaded.
B. The fittings at the discharge and suction valves of the compressor are both closed simultaneously to prevent objective cross flows.
B. The solenoid valve directs high pressure gas to the underside of the unloading piston, causing it to rise and allowing the recirculating ports to be opened.
C. The hose fitting at the suction service valve is tightened last after purging the center connection.
C. When the solenoid valve becomes energized, the valve ports become closed, allowing discharge pressure to build up abov e the piston, shifting it and causing it to unload.
D. The low pressure hose fitting at the gage manifold is the only fitting that is connected first and tightened last.
D. The solenoid valve allows the refrigerant to pass from the suction chamber to the top of the unloader piston, causing the piston to lift and unload the cylinder.
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2402
2404
Ans: C Which of the following statements describes the accepted method for testing a thermostatic expansion valve?
2403
Ans: D During tests to discover why a refrigeration compressor is running excessively, it is determined that the refrigerated space temperature is nearly normal, the suction pressure is slightly above normal, and the head pressure is low. In this situation, you
A. Heat the bulb by using a halide torch or similar device and observe the valve stem movement. B. Remove the power head from the unit, heat the bulb with a torch while using a scale to measure the distance the diaphragm has moved.
A. leaking door gaskets
C. Chill the bulb in ice water while observing the compressor for an increase in suction pressure. D. Place the sensing bulb in ice water and then warm by hand. Observe flood-through and temperature change at the suction line.
C. air in the system
Ans: D A refrigeration system is equipped with a reciprocating compressor and a water cooled condensing unit. If the system is overcharged, the resulting high head pressure will be caused by _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
the expansion valve overfeeding the evaporator a leaking compressor suction valve an incorrectly adjusted high pressure c utout refrigerant flooding the condenser D One refrigeration ton is equal to _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
45kcal/hr 500kcal/hr 3,024kcal/hr 750,000kcal/hr C The ratio of the weight of moisture contained in a given volume of air, to the weight of moisture that the same sample would hold if saturated, is called the _____________.
2406
2408
B. high cooling water temperature
D. a shortage of refrigerant
2405
Ans: A A reciprocating refrigeration compressor may be tested for leaking discharge valves by stopping the compressor, turning the discharge service valve all the way in, and then turning the compressor over by hand. If the discharge valves are leaking, the comp
A. rising and falling with each stroke B. increasing with each stroke C. decreasing with each stroke D. decreasing to a vacuum Ans: A Moisture in a refrigeration system can cause _____________. 2407 A. B. C. D. Ans:
freezing the expansion valve closed corrosion of system piping improper temperature regulation all of the above D
A. absolute humidity B. relative humidity C. specific humidity D. total humidity Ans: B PUMPS AND EDUCTORS How is water traveling along the shaft of a centrifugal pump Which of the listed types of pumps is NOT likely to be installed in a 2410 prevented from entering the shaft bearing? main drainage or evacuation system? A. Shaft seal A. Reciprocating pump B. Water flinger B. Centrifugal pump C. Drain hole C. High pitch rotary vane pump D. Lantern ring D. Eductor pump Ans: B Ans: C Why are removable sleeves installed on centrifugal pump shafts? A boiler forced draft pressure gage indicates 15 cms of water. This 2411 2412 corresponds to a pressure of ____________. A. They make it easier to replace the pump shaft packing. A. 150 mm WG B. They can be economically replaced as they wear out. B. 200mm WG C. They can be removed when it is necessary to lighten the weight of C. 300mm WG the pump. D. They increase the strength of the shaft. D. 500mm WG Ans: B Ans: A An inadequate reciprocating bilge pump discharge is most often Increasing the speed of a rotary pump above its rated speed will 2413 2414 caused by ___________. result in which of the following conditions to occur? A. defective intake valves A. Loss of suction B. clogged suction strainers B. Increased clearances C. scarred cylinder walls C. Decreased clearances D. clogged drain valves D. Decreased slippage Ans: B Ans: B Propeller pumps are used primarily where there is a need to move If a centrifugal pump is driven by a constant speed electric motor 2415 2416 a large volume of liquid. However, their use is limited by a and produces a discharge pressure less than designed, the cause maximum total head of ____________. is probably _______________. 2409
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2417
6 to 12 metres 10 to 17 metres 12 to 20 metres 17 to 24 metres C Which features of a centrifugal pump reduce the need for renewing worn impellers and pump casings?
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2418
excessive pump speed excessive suction head worn wearing rings gross pump misalignment C A centrifugal pump may fail to deliver water when first started if the _________.
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A. B. C. D. Ans: 2419
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2421
Close radial clearance between impeller hub and casing Low rotational speed of impeller Removable end plate Replaceable impeller and casing wearing rings D When piston rod packing persists in leaking on a reciprocating steam pump, the cause may be _____________. a loose tappet collar clogged suction strainers an open snifter valve misalignment of the crosshead guide D The pump packing gland has been repeatedly tightened by small increments until the gland has bottomed. W hich of the actions listed should be carried out next if the leakage continues to be excessive?
A. B. C. D. Ans:
water seal pipe is plugged pump is not primed seal ring is improperly located impeller is flooded B If you were operating a centrifugal water service pump with worn wearing rings, the _______________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
pump would be very noisy pump would vibrate excessively pump would develop insufficient flow stuffing box would leak excessively C A centrifugal pump vibrates excessively during operation. Upon disassembling the pump it is found that the impeller is out of balance. Without an available spare, you should ____________.
2420
2422
A. Replace all of the packing.
A. drill holes through the heavy side of the impeller until it balances
B. Replace with larger cross-sectional turns of packing. C. Replace the soft packing with packing turns that are covered with lead wrap.
B. weld counterweights to the light side of the impeller C. remove metal from the heavy side by machining in a lathe
D. Continue to add more turns of packing. Ans: D If the discharge valve is closed before the drive motor is stopped, 2423 which of the following types of pumps will most likely be damaged?
D. acid wash and scrape the heavy side until it balances Ans: C In order to properly remove air from the casing of a centrifugal 2424 pump when starting, the pump should have a ___________________.
Centrifugal Gear Propeller Turbine B Air leakage between the shaft and stuffing box packing in a 2425 centrifugal pump is prevented by ______________. A. a compressed packing gland B. lantern rings between the packing rings C. a liquid seal D. the stuffing box gland Ans: C Assume identical impeller diameter, width and speed. Which of the 2427 following impellers will produce the greatest liquid velocity?
positive head negative suction head mechanical seal vent valve attached to the cas ing at the top of the volute D The suction-force principle of operation is a typical characteristic of 2426 _______________. A. centrifugal pumps B. jet pumps C. propeller pumps D. reciprocating pumps Ans: D Most pump manufacturers recommend that the suction piping 2428 dimension for centrifugal pumps be ____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. A single stage straight vane impeller B. A single stage curved vane impeller C. A dual integeral impeller unit operating at 10% lower speed D. A dual impeller with multiple stepped curved vanes Ans: B A lantern ring is _____________. 2429 A. the bottom ring in a set of piston rings B. the oil slinger on a spring bearing C. used to distribute seal water throughout the pump s tuffing box D. the lifting ring on each running light Ans: C In which of the following descriptions would centrifugal pump 2431 impeller cavitation most likely occur if the impeller diameters, rotating speed, and liquid temperature are the same? A. In the second stage of a two-stage pump. B. A single-stage impeller with straight vanes. C. A single-stage impeller with curved vanes. D. A two-stage pump with an operating speed 100 RPM less than specified. Ans: C The purpose of the wearing rings used in a centrifugal pump is to 2433 ___________________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
2430
D. is to develop a pressure differential Ans: B Most pump manufacturers recommend that the discharge piping for 2432 centrifugal pumps be one size larger than the pump discharge nozzle to __________. A. B. C. D.
2434
A. prevent an internal explosion in the pump when it is overheated enable a visual inspection of the pump while it is running insure a proper alignment of the pump coupling to the driver accomodate for friction between the impeller and the casing D The first step when beginning to set the slide valves on a duplex reciprocating pump is to ____________. A. open the relief valve to prevent accidental starting
reduce the pump discharge pressure reduce the frictional losses due to fluid flow increase the pump discharge pressure allow rapid venting of entrained air
Ans: B Clearances between the impeller hub and casing of a centrifugal pump are checked with the use of _____________. A. wooden wedges
B. C. D. Ans: 2435
one size smaller than the pump suction nozzle the same size as the pump suction nozzle one size larger than the pump suction nozzle installed with a short radius elbow at the pump C A pump is defined as "a device that _____________." A. produces pressure B. imparts energy to a fluid to move it from level "A" to level "B" C. creates a vacuum to mov e a liquid in all installations
A. B. C. D. Ans:
an accurate set of feeler gages a machinist's rule a depth micrometer B The basic function of the centrifugal pump impeller is to ____________. A. directly increase the pressure of the liquid being pumped
B. C. D. Ans: 2436
Page 136
B. ensure the balance piston is on the downstroke C. center the steam pistons in the cylinders D. measure the present port openings to ensure reassembly will be the same Ans: C Which of the following methods applies to how a vacuum is created 2437 by a jet pump or an eductor? A. Centrifugal force converted into potential energy. B. A reciprocating plunger directly applying force to a fluid. C. A rapidly moving stream of fluid passing through a nozzle. D. A propeller drawing a fluid through a venturi nozzle.
2439
Ans: C Which of the following centrifugal pump components conv erts the liquid kinetic energy of velocity to the potential energy of pressure? A. B. C. D. Ans:
2441
Impeller Electric motor Volute Eye C One of the consequences in continuing to operate a centrifugal bilge pump with the discharge valve closed, is that the _______________.
motor overload will open relief valve will open pump will overheat motor will overheat C In a centrifugal pump, the seal piping directs liquid from the 2443 discharge side of the pump to the _____________________. A. packing gland B. wearing ring C. stuffing D. lantern ring Ans: D Which of the following statements is true concerning centrifugal 2445 pumps? A. They are particularly suited for pumping high viscosity fluids. B. They are started with the discharge valv e opened. C. The flow of liquid is developed by imparting energy due to the rotation of an impeller. D. They are always mounted in a horizontal position. Ans: C The capacity of a rotary pump, delivering a constant viscosity fluid, 2447 will decrease when the discharge pressure is increased, due to ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
Ans: B The total length of stroke in a reciprocating steam pump can be adjusted by ____________. A. increasing or decreasing the number of packing rings around the piston rod B. variations in the throttle adjustment C. twisting the stayrod in a clockwise direction D. changing the setting of the tappet collars on the pilot valve operating rod Ans: D If a bilge pump is able to develop vacuum, but is unable to 2440 sufficiently pump out the bilges, you would check for all of the following EXCEPT ________. 2438
A. the circuit breaker B. for leaks in the s uction piping C. relief valve is not properly seated D. the suction strainer Ans: A If an operating bilge pump is developing good vacuum, but is 2442 unable to discharge any water, which of the following problems is the most probable cause? The wearing rings are excessively worn. The suction strainer is clogged. The discharge valve is clogged. The shaft is worn. B In a reciprocating pump, the position of the pilot valve is controlled 2444 by the position of the ______________. A. main steam piston valve B. piston in the steam cylinder C. cushioning valve D. governor valve spindle Ans: B A centrifugal pump attempting to develop flow against a closed 2446 discharge valve has a/an ______________. A. capacity of 0% B. efficiency of 100% C. internal slippage of 0% A. B. C. D. Ans:
D. shut off horsepower rating of 100% Ans: A If a centrifugal pump operating with a positive suction head 2448 becomes air bound, your FIRST response should be to ______________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
decreased suction pressure increased suction pressure reduced slippage increased slippage D If you have a simplex single acting reciprocating pump making 100 strokes/minute with a 6" diameter cylinder, a 7" s troke, operating with a 90% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump?
A. vent the casing B. close the discharge C. tighten the packing D. reprime the pump Ans: A Generally, centrifugal pumps operating without a positive suc tion 2450 head must be primed before they will move liquid on their own. The priming is usually accomplished with a _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
105 gpm 39 gpm 77 gpm 107 gpm B A recirculating, or bleed off line is installed on a centrifugal pump in order to _____________.
A. regenerative pump B. rotating liquid piston pump C. jet pump D. turbine pump Ans: B To thoroughly pump out the bilges using a horizontally mounted 2452 centrifugal pump, the ___________.
2449
2451
B. directly increase the velocity of the liquid being pumped C. convert the potential energy of the liquid to k inetic energy D. separate air from the liquid being pumped
A. establish a back pressure at the labyrinth seal to eliminate leakage
A. pump must always be primed
B. equalize pressure on both sides of the suction valve disc C. prevent the pump from overheating when operating at shutoff head
B. volute must impart a radial and rotary motion of the water C. suction side connection must guide the liquid to the lantern rings
D. decrease the net positive suction head Ans: C A crackling noise coming from a centrifugal pump casing is an 2453 indication of _______________. A. insufficient packing B. an oversized lantern ring C. excessive suction lift
D. stuffing box should not be allowed any water leakage Ans: A Excessive wear on a centrifugal pump shaft sleeve will 2454 ____________. A. cause severe vibration when the pump is operating B. cause excessive leakage past the packing gland C. cause damage in the stuffing box
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D. reversed pump rotation Ans: C Excessive wear on the packing rings nearest the pump packing 2455 gland, while the rings nearest the impeller remain in good condition, is caused by ____________.
D. allow interstage leakage in the pump casing glands Ans: B It is possible to mount a double suction centrifugal pump impeller 2456 with the vanes facing in the wrong direction. This would cause the pump ___________.
A. failure to insert and individually seat the rings, one ring at a time B. insufficient tightening of the packing gland C. failure to tighten the packing gland in a single adjustment D. cutting the rings nearest the gland too short Ans: A Radial thrust developed in high pressure centrifugal pumps c an be 2457 eliminated by the use of _____________. A. single volutes B. a single diffusion nozzle C. a diffusion ring D. a modified Kingsbury thrust bearing Ans: C If misalignment between a pump and its driving source exceeds 2459 that specified by the pump m anufacturer, the shaft _________________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2461
flexible coupling will absorb all such misalignment total end float travel will be excessive lateral float will be greatly increased bearings will be overloaded and will fail D When shifting suction from one fresh water tank to another, if the fresh water pump loses suc tion you should___________.
loosen the mechanical seal vent the pump casing check the discharge strainers all of the above B Which of the following conditions will prevent a shipboard pump 2463 from achieving its maximum s uction lift? A. Leaks developed in the suction piping. B. Friction losses as a result of improperly sized pipe. C. Gases or vapors released in the liquid as a result of greater than normal pressure drops. D. All of the above. Ans: D Which of the listed types of seals is used effectively for pumps 2465 handling toxic or highly flammable liquids that cannot be permitted to escape into the atmosphere?
A. head capacity to improve discharge to be reversed efficiency to decrease slippage to decrease C The usual symptoms of c avitation in a centrifugal pump is 2458 _______________. A. noise and vibration B. an increase in discharge pressure C. an increase in suction pressure D. lifting of the relief valve Ans: A If the shaft packing for a centrifugal pump requires replacement 2460 more frequently than normal, a possible cause may be __________. B. C. D. Ans:
A. worn bearings B. worn mechanical seals C. a flooded pump suction D. wrong direction of pump rotation Ans: A Which of the listed types of steam end piston rod packing should be 2462 used in a steam reciprocating pump?
A. B. C. D. Ans:
Conventional stuffing box External mechanical seal Double mechanical seal Rubber bellows mechanical seal C Closed impellers differ from open impellers in that closed impellers __________. A. allow liquid to enter the eye from one direction only B. have side walls which extend from the eye to the outer edge of the vane tips
2464
D. the use of shaft end caps Ans: C If you heard a "crackling" sound occuring within a centrifugal 2466 pump, the most probable source of the noise would be the ______________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2467
C. have small impeller eyes D. are not vented above the impeller eye Ans: B Foot valves are primarily designed to ______. 2469 A. give a pump motor or driver positive protection when operating in a shutoff condition B. provide a means of supplying sealing fluid for the impeller shaft stuffing box C. enable a pump and its suction line to remain primed prior to starting the pump D. afford the pumping system protection against water hammer and surging Ans: C To maintain design discharge pressure from a centrifugal pump, the 2471 design clearance must be maintained between the ______________. A. B. C. D.
shaft and impeller motor and pump shaft casing and impeller wearing rings lantern ring and impeller
Reinforced rubber packing Wire impregnated high temperature packing Low pressure braided asbestos packing High pressure graphite packing D Liquid is kept from leaking out at the shaft ends of a helical gear pump by _____________. A. overlapping spaces between gear teeth B. a roller bearing C. a stuffing box
A. B. C. D. Ans:
shaft sleeves discharge volutes wearing rings pump suction D The factors that determine the service life of packing in a pump will include which of the following conditions? A. type of pump B. condition of the shaft
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2468
C. length of time in use D. all of the above Ans: D A centrifugal bilge pump requires priming ________________. 2470 A. primarily to lubricate the shaft s eals B. due to the inability of this type of pump to lift water to cover the suction (eye) of the impeller C. to initially unload the pump by having its head pressure equal to discharge pressure D. in order to overcome the potential energy of water in the discharge line Ans: B In a direct expansion type multi-box refrigeration system, the 2472 compressor is set up to cycle on and off by the _____________. A. B. C. D.
pressurestat high pressure cutout solenoid valve low pressure cutout switch
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2473
Ans: C The static suction lift of a pump is the difference in elevation between the _____________. A. centerline of the pump and the level of the liquid in the suc tion well when the source of liquid is below the pump B. centerline of the pump and the suction liquid level when the source of liquid is above the pump C. centerline of the pump and the level of the discharge liquid
2474
Ans: D Which of the following statements represents the adv antage of rotary pumps as compared to reciprocating pumps? A. The high discharge pressure of the rotary pumps permits a larger volume of fluid per unit time than the reciprocating pump.
2475
Ans: A Which of the listed devices is used to control the admission of steam to the steam cylinder of a reciprocating pump? A. Valve operating differential B. Crosshead arm C. Pump rod D. Pilot valve and operating rod Ans: D Which of the devices listed is c ommon to all types of pumps? 2477
B. Rotary pumps are capable of pumping more fluid than reciprocating pumps of the same weight. C. Rotary pumps occupy only one-half the space of reciprocating pumps. D. Rotary pumps eliminate discharge slippage of the pumped liquid, while this does not hold true for a reciprocating pump. Ans: B A distinguishing feature of an eductor, when compared to other 2476 pumps, is the ______________. A. discharge end being smaller than the s uction end B. small size of impeller C. lack of moving parts D. ease at which the wearing rings may be changed Ans: C Lantern rings are provided on centrifugal pumps to ________. 2478
A. A power end and fluid end B. A propeller and educator C. A volute and impeller D. A turbine and piston Ans: A If a centrifugal pump vibrates and is noisy when operating, the 2479 cause could be _____________. A. worn gland sealing shaft B. worn wearing rings C. a bent shaft D. reversed pump coupling Ans: C Excessive lost motion in the valve mechanism of a duplex 2481 reciprocating pump will cause the _____________.
allow illuminated inspection of shaft and packing provide a passage for the stuffing box sealing liquid adjust leakage at the shaft gland allow for distortion of the wearing rings B Which of the following terms is used to identify the pressure of the 2480 liquid entering a pump? A. Suction head B. Pump head C. Discharge head D. Total head Ans: A One of the main functions of wearing rings, as used in a centrifugal 2482 pumps, is to _____________.
D. liquid levels of the suction and discharge
A. pump to short stroke continuously at both ends of the stroke for both cylinders B. pistons to stop in mid-stroke C. pump to operate sluggishly D. cushioning valves to wear Ans: C The seal piping obtains liquid from the discharge side of the pump 2483 and directs the liquid to the _____________. A. packing gland B. wearing ring C. stuffing D. lantern ring Ans: D When securing a steam reciprocating pump, which of the valves 2485 listed should remain open? A. Steam supply valve B. Steam exhaust valve C. Steam cylinder drain valve D. Water cylinder drain valve Ans: C At which of the following intervals must the cargo pump relief 2487 valves on tank vessels be tested? A. Prior to each fuel discharge operation. B. At least once each voyage. C. At least once a year. D. At each biennial inspection. Ans: C You suspect a problem with the centrifugal fire pump on your ship, 2489 and begin to slowly close the discharge valve. Your suspicion is confirmed when the ______________. A. discharge valve is closed off and there is no change in the discharge pressure B. discharge valve is 80% closed and the relief valve lifts C. suction valve is closed off, and the discharge pressure begins to decrease D. suction valve is closed off, yet the relief valve does not lift Ans: A
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. maintain radial alignment between the pump impeller and casing B. C. D. Ans: 2484 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2486 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2488
absorb all impeller shaft end thrust prevent water leakage to the atmosphere prevent wear of the pump casing and/or impeller D Which of the pumping systems listed for use aboard ship will most likely use a propeller type pump? Fluid power transmission system Main circulating system Steering gear system Fuel oil service booster system B On many modern tankers, which of the following devices is used to reduce cargo pump leakage to the pump room bilge? Flinger rings Mechanical seals Shaft sleeves Clipper seals B Which of the following intervals do Regulations require the remote cutout for the fuel oil service pumps to be tested?
A. Prior to each sailing B. Once each month C. At each fire and boat drill D. At each inspection for certification Ans: D If a centrifugal pump is driven by a constant speed prime mover 2490 and produces a flow rate less than the designed specifications, the cause could be _____________. A. suction absolute pressure greatly exceeds corresponding vapor pressure of liquid being pumped B. excessive suction head C. pump packing gland misalignment D. worn wearing rings Ans: D
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When repacking a reciprocating pump with more than four rings of packing, the packing is cut square, installed with the ends abutted, and each succeeding ring staggered with the butted ends _____________.
2491
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2493
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2495
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2497
45° apart 90° apart 120° apart 180° apart B What would be the result of throttling the suction valve tothe point where the flow was less than that recommended by a centrifugal pump manufacture? I. The discharge head would be reduced. II. The pump would begin to cav itate. I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II B Mechanical shaft seals used on water service pumps require lubrication of the seal faces to minimize deposits of foreign matter on those surfaces. W hich of the following pressures and lubricants are required? Water under negative pressure. Water under positive pressure. Oil under positive pressure. Oil under negative pressure. B A liquid is being transferred by a centrifugal pump. As the liquid passes through the volute, its velocity decreases and ______________.
A. its pressure increases B. its pressure decreases C. the potential energy decreases D. the kinetic energy increases Ans: A Which of the following statements is true regarding a positive 2499 displacement rotary pump? A. Theoretically, there is no limit to shut off head pressure. B. Theoretically it is self priming. C. The discharge side should be protected against excessive pressure build up via a relief valve. D. All of the above. Ans: D If a centrifugal pump develops insufficient discharge pressure as a 2501 result of worn wearing rings, which of the following corrective actions is required?
What would be the probable cause if a pump were unable tomaintain necessary discharge pressure to a system? I. failure of the coupling used on a close-coupled pump II. fracture of one packing gland bolt
2492
A. B. C. D. Ans:
I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II D What would be the probable cause if a pump were unable tomaintain necessary discharge pressure to a system? I. failure of the internal parts of the pump II. failure of the system relief valve
A. B. C. D. Ans:
I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II C Reduced capacity, accompanied by vibration and noise at the suction of a centrifugal pump, results from cavitation in the fluid being pumped. Cavitation describes the formation of _____________.
2494
2496
A. vapor pockets B. water hammer action C. fluid friction D. steam knock Ans: A After renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, the 2498 packing should be seated, then the packing gland nuts _____________. left in that position loosened until the gland clears the stuffing box tightened to compress the packing loosened, and then retightened until they are only finger tight D A centrifugal pump gradually develops insufficient discharge pressure. What corrective action is required? A. Replace the wearing rings. B. Throttle in on the discharge valve. C. Replace the wearing rings, shaft, and impeller.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2500
D. Throttle in on the suction valve. Ans: A If a centrifugal pump sealing line becomes restricted while operating 2502 under a negative suction head (suction lift), the inner end of the stuffing box will be ___________.
A. Replace the rings. B. Throttle in on the discharge valve. C. Always replace the wearing rings and the impeller as a set. D. Throttle in on the suction valve. Ans: A When adding packing to a seal involving motion, you must be 2503 careful to prevent ____________. A. excessive friction in the joint B. wear of the moving part C. deterioration of the packing due to excessive tightening D. all of the above Ans: D What would be the result of throttling the suction valve tothe point 2505 where the flow was less than that recommended by a centrifugal pump manufacturer? I. The designed discharge head would be reduced. II. The packing life would be greatly reduced.
A. under a vacuum and air will tend to leak into the pump B. sealed by the fluid being pumped and no leakage will occur C. under pressure and fluid will tend to leak into the pump D. sealed by the seal cage or pump lantern ring Ans: A Heavy wear in a particular area of the inner circumference of a 2504 packing ring may be caused by ____________. A. a high suction head B. rotating rings C. badly worn bearings D. a loose stuffing box gland Ans: C The shaft sleeves have recently been replaced on a centrifugal 2506 salt water service pump. The pack ing gland is now drawn tightly up against the casing. Despite the use of standard procedures to tighten the packing gland, water continues to pour out along
I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II B A double suction centrifugal pump impeller has been installed in 2507 the reverse direction, and will ______________. A. have a greater head capacity B. operate with increased impeller efficiency C. discharge through the suction side of the pump casing D. require more power to turn the s haft Ans: D
A. the sleeves "O" ring seals were not installed B. suction head pressure has become excessive C. the sealing water flow to the stuffing box is blocked D. only two sections of the lantern ring were installed Ans: A If a c entrifugal pump were continually operated with the discharge 2508 valve closed, the _____________. A. motor controller overload would open B. pump would eventually overheat C. relief valve would continuously cycle open D. motor would overheat Ans: B
A. B. C. D. Ans:
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If the viscosity of the liquid being transferred remains constant as the discharge pressure increases, the rotary pump ______________.
2509
capacity will increase capacity will decrease suction pressure will increase suction pressure will decrease B Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is 2511 usually caused by ____________. A. cavitation B. electrolysis C. abrasion D. corrosion Ans: A One of the many problems occurring with centrifugal pump shaft 2513 packing is the excessive wear on the rings nearest the packing gland. If the rings nearest the impeller remain in good condition during the same operating period, the wear is most likely cause A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. misalignment B. a plugged water seal line C. salt water contamination of the condensate D. worn wearing rings Ans: A Charring or glazing of the inner circumference of the packing rings 2512 in a centrifugal pump, is caused by _________. A. undertightening the packing B. failure to seat the packing rings C. insufficient lubrication of the packing D. packing ring rotation Ans: C When new, a rotary pump is designed to have 0.005 mm clearance 2514 between the rotors and the pump casing in order to develop a 180 LPM flow rate at 21bar. After one year of operation, the clearance has increased to 0.020mm, with the discharge pressure
insufficient lubrication of the lantern ring packing rings rotating in the stuffing box overtightening the packing in one adjustment some rings being cut too short C If it were necessary for you to frequently replace the packing on the main condensate pump, the trouble could be the result of ______________.
A. less than 180 LPM because of increased clearance B. 180 LPM because the pressure is unchanged C. greater than 180 LPM because of reduced slippage D. greater than 180 LPM because of increased efficiency Ans: A When the danger of freezing exists, all steam driven reciprocating 2516 pumps and deck equipment should be __________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
running at low speed for a long time excessive condensate recirculation defective casing gasket worn bearings D A twin-screw, rotary, positive displacement pump is provided with timing gears. If it were possible to change the lead (pitch) of the screws, which of the following statements would represent the true effect on the pump characteristics?
A. cycled at least once a day B. cycled once every 4 days C. cycled once every week D. watched carefully while idled Ans: A Which of the following valve arrangements permits the 2518 reciprocating pump liquid piston to take suction from the suction chamber, and simultaneously discharge through the discharge chamber during the up and down strokes?
A. The longer the lead, the lower the flow rate.
A. Two sets of suction and discharge valves in the liquid cylinder.
B. The shorter the lead, the higher the pressure potential.
B. Two sets of valves, one set each for suction and discharge located in the water chest. C. One set of valves in the water chest and another set in the liquid cylinder.
C. The longer the lead, the lower the axial velocity. D. The shorter the lead, the higher the inlet pressure requirements.
2519
2521
If it were necessary for you to frequently replace the bearings of the condensate pump, the trouble could be the result of ___________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2515
2517
2510
Ans: B The discharge rate or capacity of a centrifugal pump will vary directly as the ____________. A. change in the impeller diameter B. square of the impeller radius C. cube of the impeller diameter D. impeller efficiency for large changes in its size Ans: A Theoretically, a double suction impeller is in hydraulic axial balance. In actuality this balance is rarely achieved due to _________________.
D. Two relief valves, one on each of the liquid cylinder.
2520
2522
A. an unbalanced force exerted from the direction of the impeller nearest the driving motor B. unequal or nonuniform flow to the suction eyes of the impeller housing C. excessive sealing water flow to the stuffing box D. flexible shaft design which causes rapid wear of the outboard shaft bearing Ans: B To operate a centrifugal fire pump at reduced capacity, you should 2523 ___________________. A. readjust the relief valve B. throttle the suction line C. throttle the discharge valve D. open the priming line Ans: C The centrifugal pump component responsible for converting the 2525 mechanical energy of the liquid being pumped, to that of kinetic energy is the ____________.
Ans: B The discharge head of a centrifugal pump will vary directly with the ______________. A. change in impeller diameter B. square of the impeller diameter C. cube of the impeller diameter D. impeller efficiency for large changes in the size of the impeller Ans: B Centrifugal pumps, used to handle hot liquids, must hav e a minimum flow through them under all operating conditions. This flow serves to ____________. A. prevent overheating and damage to pump rotating parts due to rubbing B. maintain the net positive suction head of the pump C. maintain hydraulic differential in the pump impeller passages D. purge the pump of noncondensable vapors and gases
Ans: A Sealing lines provide sealing liquid flow to the stuffing box of a centrifugal pump ____________. A. to help lubricate the shaft packing B. to limit the outflow of seawater from the stuffing box of a pump provided with a high suction head C. in place of sealing gages D. in place of mechanical seals Ans: A The total static head of a system resisting the operation of a 2526 centrifugal pump is the difference in elevation between the __________________. 2524
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electric motor volute impeller diffusion nozzle C When repacking a stuffing box fitted with a lantern ring, which of the following precautions should be observ ed? A. Replace all of the packing rings. B. Block off the sealing water connection. C. Be certain that all packing is fitted loosely to the shaft.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2527
D. For good lubrication, apply a fine grade lapping compound between the shaft and packing. Ans: A Most pump manufacturers recommended that the discharge piping 2529 for centrifugal pumps be ____________. A. one size larger than the pump discharge nozzle B. the same size as the pump discharge nozzle C. one size smaller than the pump discharge nozzle D. installed with a short radius elbow at the pump Ans: A When installing a new rotary pump, the suction piping should 2531 ___________________. A. be of the same diameter as the pump suc tion connection B. be at least one size larger than the pump suction connection C. be the next size smaller than the pump suction connection D. be sloped to the pump Ans: B Why should the use of metallic or semi-metallic packing hooks or 2533 pullers be avoided on bronze or brass shafts, rods, plungers, or sleeves? Heat transfer is restricted. Scoring may result. Valve seat will be damaged. Bonnet corrosion may result. B Operating a rotary pump at speeds in excess of design requirements could cause ____________. A. decreased clearances between rotating parts B. decreased slippage to the suction side of the pump C. air binding in the discharge ports
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2535
D. erosion and excessive wear Ans: D Permanent centrifugal pump shaft damage due to erosion, 2537 corrosion, and wear at the stuffing box is usually prevented by ________________. wearing rings renewable sleeves a hardened sprayed metal coating internally flooded lantern rings B Which of the following is NOT an identifiable characteristic of a 2539 steam reciprocating pump? A. Direct-acting B. Diffuser C. High-pressure D. Vertical Ans: B To absorb the wear resulting from impeller rotation and abrasives 2541 in the liquid, a centrifugal pump is usually fitted with _______________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2543
A. B. C. D.
lantern rings bearings casing volutes wearing rings D If the capacity of a centrifugal pump decreases gradually over a long period of time, you should replace the ____________. packing gland mechanical seals lantern rings wearing rings
A. discharge liquid level and the suction liquid level B. discharge liquid level and the pump c enterline C. suction liquid level and the pump centerline D. suction submergence level and the pump discharge Ans: A To safely remove the piston rod packing from the steam end of a 2528 reciprocating pump, you should __________. A. use a packing hook B. open the throttle valve and "blow" the old packing out C. do nothing, as this type of pump utilizes O-rings in lieu of packing D. open the steam chest and pry the packing loose with a scraper
2530
Ans: A An advantage of a helical gear pump over a simple gear pump is that the helical gear pump is capable of ___________.
maintaining a steadier speed delivering liquids over greater distances operating for longer periods of time producing a smoother discharge flow D The function of a centrifugal pump double v olute casing is to 2532 ____________. A. reduce radial thrust to the impeller B. double the liquid velocity through the pump when compared to a single volute C. reduce hydraulic end thrust D. provide the effect of multi-staging Ans: A During the inspection of a low pressure pump, the wearing ring is 2534 determined to have a clearance of 0.3mm - 0.4mm, you should ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
replace the worn wearing ring install a new oversized casing ring machine the worn wearing ring and refit leave the existing wearing rings in place D Which of the following conditions would prevent a steam 2536 reciprocating pump from delivering its rated capacity? A. Excessive suction lift B. Air trapped in the discharge expansion chamber C. A leaking snifter valve allowing air to enter the suction side of the pump D. All of the above Ans: A If a centrifugal pump operating with a positive suction head vibrates, 2538 or becomes noisy, the cause could be ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
excessive pump speed worn wearing rings air leakage into suction line insufficient venting D The pressure of a liquid leaving the pump can be referred to as the 2540 ___________. A. total head B. discharge head C. net positive suction head D. suction head Ans: B If the existing vapor pressure is subtracted from the indicated 2542 pressure at the pump suction, the remainder is the ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2544
A. B. C. D.
pump head total suction head discharge head apparent net positive suction head D Which of the listed conditions can lead to cavitation in a centrifugal pump? Vapor pockets formed in the suction flow stream. Rough casing volute surfaces. Worn wearing rings. Heavy fluid in the flow stream.
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Ans: D Water leaking from a pump packing gland is kept away from the bearing housing by the use of ______________. A. shaft sleeves B. lantern rings C. water flingers D. water seals Ans: C With respect to centrifugal pump impellers, which of the following 2547 descriptions represents the correct centrifugal pump classification?
Ans: A One of the main differences between the various types of screw pumps is in the __________. A. stuffing box diameter B. direction of rotation of the screws C. pitch of the screws D. type of driving gears Ans: C A centrifugal pump designed to handle a liquid with a temperature 2548 of 120°C or greater must be provided with ___________.
2545
2546
A. Single stage or multistage B. High pressure or low pressure C. Open or close coupled D. Horizontal or vertical Ans: A The function of seal cages, or lantern rings installed in the 2549 centrifugal pump stuffing boxes, is to ______________. A. cool the shaft B. lubricate the packing C. seal air from entering along the shaft D. distribute the sealing liquid within the stuffing box Ans: D The brake horsepower of a centrifugal pump will vary directly as 2551 the ___________. A. diameter of the impeller B. square of the diameter of the impeller C. cube of the diameter of the impeller D. impeller efficiency for large changes in the size of the impeller
a semi-mechanical seal helical grooved wearing rings self adjusting packing a liquid seal line D What is a function of the wearing rings used in most centrifugal 2550 pumps? A. Absorb erosion of high velocity discharge stream. B. Seal pump shaft against entry of air. C. Isolate the discharge side from the suction side. D. Dampen the turbulent discharge flow. Ans: C The primary function of a centrifugal pump volute is to 2552 _____________. A. develop a high v elocity liquid B. convert velocity to pressure C. limit hydraulic end thrust D. initiate flow
2553
Ans: C If the flow of water from a centrifugal pump is allowed to be stopped by closing the discharge valve while the pump continues to run for an indefinite period, the ____________.
relief valve will open water pressure will lower continually to shut off head water pressure will tend to rise continuously liquid may overheat and v aporize D The static suction head of a horizontal centrifugal pump, is the 2555 difference in elevation between the ____________. A. discharge liquid level and the suction liquid level B. discharge liquid level and the pump centerline C. suction liquid level and the pump centerline D. suction submergence level and the pump discharge Ans: C After the installation of new impeller wearing rings by pressing 2557 them onto the pump impeller hub, it is advisable to ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
2554
Copper. Copper and carbon. Carbon. Bronze. C When a reciprocating pump is operating at maximum speed, the 2556 cushioning valves should be ______________. A. wide opened B. half opened C. 3/4 opened D. almost completely closed Ans: D When renewing the shaft packing on a centrifugal pump equipped 2558 with an external liquid sealing supply, you should ________________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. dynamically balance the shaft and impeller B. check the shaft and impeller assembly on centers to see if the ring surfaces are true C. visually inspect the rings after about an hour of service D. all of the above
2559
Ans: B Which of the following statements concerning deep well cargo pumps is correct? A. A pumproom is not necessary. B. The impeller is located at the upper end of the shaft. C. Special priming provisions are necessary. D. The prime mover is connected at the lower portion of the shaft.
Ans: A The diffusion ring installed in many high pressure centrifugal pumps, such as feed pumps, ____________. A. eliminates axial thrust B. imparts kinetic energy to the water passing through the pump C. alleviates the need for a double suction impeller D. eliminates radial thrust to the impeller Ans: D To prevent air pockets from forming in a centrifugal pump suction 2563 line installed angled from normal, any gate valve should be installed with the ____________. 2561
A. bonnet above suction pipe centerline B. centerline above the suction pipe centerline
Ans: B Which of the materials listed is used as the dynamic seal material on mechanical seals installed on most centrifugal pumps used in water service?
A. always turn down the shaft in a lathe to ensure a snug fit B. ensure that the lantern ring is aligned with the sealing supply opening C. check the stuffing box for irregularities with a dial indicator D. make sure the seal cage is always positioned at the base of the stuffing box 2560
Ans: B Which of the listed pumps is NOT a positive displacement pump? A. B. C. D.
Centrifugal Reciprocating Gear Rotary
Ans: A The three basic parts of any eductor are the nozzle, the s uction chamber, and the _____________. A. injector B. compressor C. diffuser D. siphon Ans: C Devices which utilize the rapid flow of a fluid to entrain another fluid 2564 and thereby move it from one place to another are called _____________. 2562
A. mixed flow pumps B. jet pumps
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C. stem pointing upward at right angles to the pipe D. stem horizontal or pointing downward below the pipe Ans: D If you heard a "crackling" noise in a centrifugal pump, the most 2565 probable cause of the problem would be _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2567
insufficient speed cavitation excess discharge pressure excessive net positive suction head B Operating a rotary gear pump far below its rated speed when handling low viscosity liquids, will cause its volumetric efficiency to ____________.
C. volute pumps D. centrifugal pumps Ans: B Excessive wear on a centrifugal pump shaft sleeve will 2566 _______________. A. cause new packing to be torn and scored B. cause severe pump v ibration at operating speed C. damage the packing gland stuffing box D. damage the pump casing interstage seals Ans: A One of the many troubles occurring with centrifugal pump shaft 2568 packing is the excessive wear on the rings nearest the packing gland, while the rings nearest the impeller remain in good condition. This wear may be caused by ____________.
A. increase steadily as the moving gears develop less v ibration B. decrease to where the pump no longer develops flow C. remain unchanged due to its positive displacement characteristics D. fluctuate due to the amount of slip variation Ans: B The capacity of a rotary pump, when operated at a constant speed, 2569 will decrease with an increase in the pump _________. A. B. C. D.
2571
discharge volume suction pressure steeped speed rotor clearances
Ans: D The capacity of a centrifugal pump can be increased by the installation of a larger diameter impeller. Another means of increasing the pump capacity is to _________________.
A. air entrained in the fluid pumped B. packing rings rotating in the stuffing box C. some packing rings being cut too short D. improper adjustment of the gland nuts Ans: D Inspection of a low pressure gear pump for cavitation will usually be 2570 indicated by a wear pattern _____________. along the inlet side of the housing along the discharge side of the housing at the extreme upper and lower peripheries of the housing even throughout the entire periphery of the housing when matched machined gear sets are used Ans: A Which of the following conditions would be hazardous if you were 2572 using two centrifugal pumps to discharge a flammable liquid? A. B. C. D.
A. increase speed
A. Both pumps operating at the same speed and discharging into a common line. B. Each pump operating at a different speed and discharging into a common line. C. Both pumps operating at the same speed taking suction from a common line. D. Each pump operating at a different speed and taking suction from a common line.
B. increase the size of the cardent assembly C. reduce wearing ring clearances D. change the pump to a "close coupled" arrangement
2573
Ans: A Excessive air leakage into the suction side of a centrifugal pump would be indicated by which of the following operational problems? A. The pump delivers full capacity when started, but gradually slackens off to an abnormally low flow. B. The pump packing gland overheats after short operating periods.
C. The motor overcurrent protective device continually shuts the pump down. D. Pounding noises can be heard at the pump suction chest. Ans: A One of the disadvantages of screw-type positive displacement 2575 rotary pumps is that they have ___________.
Ans: B Increasing the speed of a centrifugal pump will result in an increase in its capacity. Another means of increasing the capacity of a centrifugal pump is to increase the _________. A. diameter of the discharge piping, with all other factors remaining the same B. diameter of the suction piping, with all other factors remaining the same C. width of the impeller only
D. diameter of the impeller Ans: D A centrifugal pump, normally operated under a positive suction 2576 head, has its impeller replaced by one with a larger suction eye. What effect will this change have on the pump?
A. high internal velocities B. performance characteristics sensitive to viscosity change
A. The pump motor will electrically trip off the line. B. The pump will deliver more gallons per minute at the same RPM.
C. low tolerance for entrained air and gases
C. The pump will deliver less gallons per minute at the same RPM.
D. low range of flows and pressures Ans: B If a horizontal centrifugal pump becomes air bound, the pump should be vented at the _____________. A. suction line B. discharge flange C. top of the volute D. bottom of the casing Ans: C Which of the listed statements is correct concerning the starting of 2579 centrifugal pumps? A. They should always be started with the discharge valve closed. 2577
2574
D. The capacity in gallons per minute will not be affected by the impeller suction eye size. Ans: B A centrifugal pump operating against a closed discharge valve has 2578 a/an ______________. A. capacity of 100% B. efficiency of 0% C. internal slippage of 0% D. shut off horsepower rating of 100% Ans: B If a centrifugal bilge pump were continually operated with the 2580 discharge valve closed the ____________. A. motor overload would open
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B. They should always be started with the discharge valve opened.
B. relief valve would open
C. A priming pump is always required to flood the impeller suction.
C. pump would eventually overheat
D. They should always be started with the sealing line valves closed.
D. motor would overheat
Ans: A Reduced capacity, accompanied by vibration and noise at the suction of a centrifugal pump is a result of ____________. A. cavitation B. water hammer C. fluid friction D. steam knock Ans: A The function of seal cages, or lantern rings installed in the 2583 centrifugal pump stuffing boxes, is to ______________. A. cool the shaft B. lubricate the packing C. seal air from entering along the shaft D. distribute the sealing liquid within the stuffing box Ans: D If a centrifugal pump is being driven by a steam turbine and the 2585 discharge valve is closed off, the pump will __________. A. slow down B. run cooler C. speed up by 5% until the discharge valve is reopened D. no longer continue to internally convert the resultant energy imparted to the pump Ans: D One of three av ailable centrifugal salt water service pumps is in 2587 operation with a sea water temperature of 10°C. The cooling temperature of all systems supplied by this pump appear to be high. Therefore, you should ___________. 2581
2588
Ans: B Two individual centrifugal pump impellers of the same diameter, width, and rotating speed are to be c ompared, one is cast with straight vanes, the other with curved vanes. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. only need to start a second pump and operate it in parallel
A. The straight vane impeller develops a higher level of kinetic energy.
B. start a second pump and place it on line, close the discharge v alve on the original pump and watch for a rise in the discharge pressure
B. The straight vane impeller has the potential for producing a greater discharge pressure.
C. after starting the second pump open the casing vent valv e of the first pump, then secure the first pump D. after starting the second pump secure the first pump and do nothing else with the salt water service system Ans: B A centrifugal pump produces flow with a resulting discharge head 2589 by energy conversion. It is typical for the energy conversion to follow the order of ______________.
C. The curved vane impeller is less likely to develop cavitation. D. The curved v ane impeller will develop a greater increase in the liquid velocity. Ans: D Which of the following statements about pump operations is NOT a 2590 correct statement?
A. mechanical energy to kinetic energy to potential energy
A. In order for a fluid to be pumped, a fluid must be made to flow.
B. mechanical energy to potential energy to kinetic energy C. potential energy to mechanical energy to kinetic energy
B. A substance must be cold in order for it to be pumped. C. The kinetic energy imparted by the pump can be used to force a liquid through a hydraulic system.
D. kinetic energy to mechanical energy to potential energy Ans: A The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is 2591 operating as designed, is to ____________. A. closely observe the pump discharge temperature B. close off the discharge valve, and watch for a rise in pressure C. momentarily close off the suction valve, and watch for a rise in pressure D. use a clamp on ammeter and c ompare the readings to past records Ans: B If two centrifugal pumps, driven by two independent electric motors, 2593 operating at unequal speeds are discharging an inflammable liquid through a common discharge line, the higher speed pump may cause the slower pump to ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2595
Ans: C When operating with a negative suction head, which of the following types of pumps will require priming? A. Reciprocating B. Centrifugal C. Rotary D. Gear Ans: B A centrifugal pump must have a stuffing box liquid sealing line and 2584 seal cages installed if the pump _____________. A. suction head is high, and is handling a cool, debris free liquid B. is handling a liquid with a temperature of less than 66oC C. suction lift exceeds 250mm Hg Vac D. discharge is less than 2kg/cm Ans: C The proper design of a centrifugal pump must include a seal cage 2586 and sealing line when the pump _______________. A. takes suction from a low temperature pressurized tank B. takes suction from a hot well C. is handling a liquid at less than 66°C D. has a high positive suction head 2582
stop turn backward overheat overspeed the driving end C What should be done if localized scoring is discovered on a pump shaft sleeve during routine maintenance inspection?
D. A pump must receive its energy from an external source. Ans: B Which pump installation would require an external source of sealing 2592 water? A. Main circulator pump jacket water cooling B. Salt water service pump C. Auxiliary condensate pump D. Bilge pump
2594
Ans: D When replacing packing rings in the stuffing boxes of reciprocating pump piston rods, the ends of the rings should be cut _________________.
A. square B. beveled C. step-designed D. diagonal Ans: A A multistage centrifugal pump can be BEST described as having 2596 _____________.
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A. Reassemble the pump and provide more water leak off for lubrication. B. Check for parallel alignment of the sleeve radial face to the sleeve bore. C. Reassemble the pump and set the governor to obtain a slower speed. D. Correct the cause of scoring and install a new shaft sleeve. Ans: D A pump shaft that is bent or distorted should normally be ____________. A. repaired by a suitable welding process B. straightened by applying heat and torsion C. reconditioned by metallizing and machining D. replaced with a satisfactory spare Ans: D Which of the units of measurement listed below are used to 2599 express positive and negative suction heads when calculating pump head or hydraulic horsepower? 2597
A. two or more impellers housed together in one casing and mounted on a single shaft B. a single stepped impeller mounted in a progressively staged casing C. a large radial clearance between the impeller and casing to prevent overheating due to friction D. an increase in the discharge velocity of the liquid with a corresponding decrease in pressure through the s tages Ans: A An increase in rotor clearances in a rotary pump will 2598 _________________. A. increase discharge pressure B. decrease pump capacity C. decrease pump cavitation D. decrease reaction ring clearance Ans: B Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for 2600 pumping oil because _____________.
A. Inches of mercury for positive head and feet of water for negative head B. Feet of water for positive head and inches of mercury for negative head C. Inches of mercury for both positive and negative heads D. Feet of water for both positive and negative heads Ans: D The static suction head of a pump is the _____________. 2601 A. distance of the suction liquid level above the center line of the pump B. distance the suction liquid level is below the center line of the pump
A. stuffing boxes eliminate the leakage problems usually associated with other gear pumps B. it is not necessary to closely maintain design clearances with this pump C. they are essentially self-priming and produce a high suction lift D. these pumps are designed with extreme tooth angles Ans: C How does the viscosity of a fluid being pumped affect the operation 2602 of a spur gear pump? A. The viscosity of the fluid is relatively unimportant in the pump operation. B. The pump can only be used for fluids of high viscosity.
C. force necessary to overcome frictional losses in the pump and piping D. amount in inches of mercury the total suction head is below atmospheric pressure Ans: A To maintain the design discharge pressure of a centrifugal pump, the clearance between the ____________. A. impeller and lantern ring is critical B. impeller and casing wearing rings is critical C. packing box and packing gland is critical D. gland seal and packing gland is critical Ans: B As sometimes utilized with centrifugal pumps operating with a high 2605 suction lift, foot valves are primarily designed to _______________. 2603
A. give the pump motor, or driver, positive protection when operating in a shutoff condition B. provide a means of supplying sealing fluid for the impeller shaft stuffing box C. enable the pump and its suction line to remain primed prior to starting the pump D. afford the pumping system protection against water hammer and surging Ans: C Which of the following problems will occur when the s uction valve is 2607 throttled on a centrifugal pump not designed to operate in this manner?
2609
C. The pump can only be used for light oils. D. The pump cannot handle fluids more viscous than lubricating oil. Ans: A A spur gear pump should be operated with the discharge valves _____________. A. slightly opened B. throttled C. fully opened D. halfway opened Ans: C Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for 2606 pumping oil because _____________. 2604
A. stuffing boxes eliminate the leakage problems usually associated with other gear pumps B. helical gear pumps are essentially self-priming and produce high suction lift C. closely maintained design clearances in this pump is not necessary D. helical gear pumps are designed with extreme tooth angles
2608
Ans: B A centrifugal pump with a double volute casing operated at greater than design capacity, will ________.
A. The pump will immediately overheat and seize.
A. be less susceptible to s haft deflection than a similar pump with a single volute casing operated under the same conditions
B. Pump efficiency is reduced and cavitation will be induced.
B. be more susceptible to shaft deflection than a similar pump with a single volute casing operated under the same conditions
C. The pump packing will fail causing irrepairable damage to the pump shaft. D. Pump capacity is reduced and overall efficiency will be increased.
C. develop excessive radial thrust and resultant shaft deflection
Ans: B Which of the following statements represents the main difference between a stuffing box gland and a mechanical seal for sealing the shaft of a c entrifugal pump? A. Packed stuffing box glands are subject to wear, but mechanical seals are not.
D. develop excessive radial thrust and resultant impeller deflection
2610
Ans: A In most horizontally split centrifugal pump casings, wearing rings are prevented from rotating by _____________. A. swelling the wearing rings into the casing
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2611
B. Packed stuffing box glands must be cooled by the liquid being pumped, but mechanical seals do not require cooling. C. If packing fails, the pump c an be kept running temporarily by tightening the gland, but if a mechanical seal fails it must be totally renewed to stop the leakage.
B. using wear rings with a larger than normal outside diameter and having the casing "crush" them in place C. using one dowel pin pressed into the side of the ring, then fitting the pin into a hole drilled into the side of the casing ring grove
D. The sealing surface of a mechanical seal is parallel to the shaft, but the sealing surface of a packed gland is perpendicular to the shaft.
D. using an extended lip formed on one half of the ring and using the upper casing half to trap the lip when the casing is reassembled
Ans: C When a centrifugal pump is operating with a positive suction head, the inner end of the stuffing box is _____________. A. under a vacuum and air tends to leak into the pump through the shaft stuffing box B. under a pressure and fluid tends to leak from the pump along the shaft and through the stuffing box C. sealed by a vacuum and no leakage will occur D. sealed by the seal cage or pump lantern ring
2613
Ans: B Pump efficiency may be lost as a result of _______________.
A. air entering the pump through a pin hole leak in the discharge manifold B. a leak in a gasket on the s uction side of the pump C. the suction valve in the wide open position D. the pump being installed too close to the suction tank Ans: B Which of the following actions should be taken if during a routine 2615 maintenance inspection of a centrifugal pump, localized scoring on a pump shaft sleeve is detected?
2612
Ans: D Which of the following statements is correct with regards to the operation of a centrifugal cargo pump? A. Oil is discharged from the c enter of the impeller through the outlet. B. Gravity causes the oil to flow toward the discharge.
C. The self-priming feature of the centrifugal pump enables it to draw its own suction as it starts. D. The discharge capacity varies directly with the speed of the impeller. Ans: D Centrifugal pumps are designed with s ealing lines _________. 2614 A. to prevent the fluid being pumped from pouring out of the stuffing box when a high suction head is available B. in place of mechanical seals C. in place of slinger rings D. to prevent air from entering the pump casing along the shaft Ans: D To prevent overheating and scoring of the shaft after repacking the 2616 stuffing box, which of the following procedures should be carried out?
A. Correct the cause of the scoring and repair the sleeve or replace A. Tighten the packing in small increments while the pump is with a new one. operating. B. Reassemble the unit and provide more water leak off for proper B. Lubricate the packing with cylinder oil before installing new turns of lubrication. packing. C. Check for parallel alignment of the sleeve radial faces to the sleeve C. Tightening the gland in all the way and then backing it off slightly. bores. D. Reassemble the unit and adjust the governor to obtain a slower D. Operating the pump slowly and applying oil freely to the shaft until speed. the packing is properly seated. Ans: A Ans: A Why is the discharge pressure of a herringbone gear pump steadier 2618 Which of the following statements is true regarding mechanical 2617 than the discharge pressure of a simple spur gear pump? seals?
2619
A. Clearance between the gear teeth and casing is smaller.
A. They may be used in lieu of conventional packing glands for any service other than saltwater.
B. The gear teeth are smaller than those of the simple spur gear pump. C. One discharge phase begins before the previous discharge phase has been completed. D. The herringbone gear pump has four spur gears instead of two.
B. They are not suitable for use on fuel oil transfer pumps.
Ans: C Lead wrapped flexible packing, rated for temperatures of up to 232°C and shaft speeds up to 1000 RPM, will not be suitable for use with _________________.
C. They are normally lubricated and cooled by the fluid being pumped. D. Once placed into service, leakage between the dynamic seal surfaces may be reduced by monthly adjustment of the spring compression. 2620
Ans: C Which of the listed parts is used in a lobe-type rotary pump to reduce the wear of the lobe edges?
A. Gibs B. Spur gears C. Casing gears D. Liner plates Ans: A COMPRESSED AIR SYSTEM The process of removing moisture from air is known as Increasing the moisture content of conditioned air is known as 2621 2622 _____________. _____________. A. humidification A. moisturizing B. dehumidification B. dehumidification C. vaporization C. dampening D. evaporation D. humidification Ans: B Ans: D A first stage unloader installed in a low pressure air compressor is A viscous film of oil collected between the valve face and seat of a 2623 2624 unable to completely retract. This will result in low pressure reciprocating air compressor will ______________. _________________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D.
monel metal shafts steel shafts bronze shafts cast iron shafts C
overheating of the discharge valve loss of moisture in the air charge in the receiver frequent lifting of the intercooler relief valve an abnormally low intercooler pressure
A. B. C. D.
prevent the valve from wire drawing retard the opening and closing of the valve have no effect on compressor operation provide quieter valve operation
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Ans: D The purpose of an air compressor unloading device is to _____________. A. drain water from the air receiver B. drain water from the cylinders C. delay the compression process until the motor is up to speed D. check pump alignment Ans: C Air blowing from the intake air filter of an operating air compressor 2627 indicates ___________. A. broken inlet valves B. broken discharge valves C. pulsations in the air distribution system D. overloading of the air distribution system Ans: A In a low pressure air compressor, the loss of volumetric efficiency 2629 normally results from _______________. A. adiabatic compression in the intercooler B. heating of the air leaving the cylinders C. inaccurate valve timing D. constant enlargement of the clearance expansion volume Ans: B In order to distribute the side pressures over a wide area of the 2631 cylinder walls and liners, which of the listed types of pistons are used in modern low pressure air compressors? 2625
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2633
Differential Trunk Barrel Valve-in-head B Which of the following problems would be the probable cause for the faulty operation of a reciprocating air compressor suc tion valve?
Carbon build up in the piston ring belt. Faulty operation of a cylinder unloader. Compressor operation in an area of high relative humidity. Lifting of intercooler relief valve. B If an electric motor driven air compressor fails to start, it may be due 2635 to a _______________. A. leaking discharge valve B. jammed suction valve C. tripped overload relay D. broken discharge unloader Ans: C If the drive belts on an air compressor were squealing, you should 2637 fix them by ____________. A. spraying oil on the belts B. tightening the belts C. loosening the belts D. installing wider belts
Ans: B Over pressurization of an air compressor intercooler is prevented by the _____________. A. aftercooler relief valve B. intercooler relief valve C. last-stage unloader D. first-stage unloader Ans: B One method of unloading a low pressure air compressor at start-up 2628 is accomplished by ____________. A. holding the L.P. discharge valve open B. the use of a precharged accumulator C. using a temporarily opened cylinder clearance pocket D. temporarily discharging to the air receiver Ans: C To obtain maximum efficiency, two stage air compressors are 2630 usually ____________. A. horizontally mounted B. never fitted with intake filters C. fitted with intercoolers D. operated in an unloaded condition at all times Ans: C Which of the listed operating conditions would have the greatest 2632 effect on the volumetric efficiency of an operating reciprocating air compressor? 2626
A. The density of the air entering the compressor. B. The temperature of the air entering the compressor C. The designed rotating speed of the compressor. D. A leaking head gasket. Ans: D Which of the following problems can result in below normal 2634 pressure in the intercooler of an operating low pressure air compressor?
A. B. C. D. Ans:
2639
Ans: B The piston displacement rate of a reciprocating air compressor can be modified by c hanging the _____________.
A. piston speed B. compressor capacity C. volumetric efficiency D. total pressure Ans: A Intake valves installed on most reciprocating low pressure air 2641 compressors are actuated by the pressure differential between the air in the cylinder and the pressure __________. A. of the air on the external side of the valve B. of the push rod and rocker arm as sembly C. sensed by the receiver low pressure limit switch D. sensed by the intercooler diaphragm valve Ans: A A knocking sound emitted from an unloaded air compressor is 2643 probably caused by _____________. A. damaged intake valves B. excessively tight mounting bolts C. insufficient cylinder lubrication D. a loose piston
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2636 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2638 A. B. C. D.
2640
Defective pressure pilot valve Defective receiver relief valve Leaking intake valves on the high pressure cylinder Leaking discharge valves on the low pressure cylinder D Excessive lube oil consumption in a reciprocating air compressor is an indication of _____________. leakage in the aftercooler leakage in the intercooler worn or broken piston rings defects in the high pressure unloader C On small, low pressure, air compressors, the cylinders are usually lubricated by the _____________. splash method mechanical force feed lubricators detached sump method internal cooling passages in the crankshafts and connecting rods
Ans: A Air compressor receivers should be "blown down" at least _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
yearly quarterly monthly daily D When the compressed air reservoir is placed in line with an air compressor and is used as an aftercooler, the reservoir must be ___________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
fitted with a manhole frequently drained of condensed water fitted with a moisture trap at the inlet fitted with a sight glass B The cylinders and intercoolers of most low pressure air compressors are cooled by _____________. water oil air CO2
2642
2644 A. B. C. D.
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2645
2647
2649
2651
2653
Ans: D An air compressor is equipped with an intercooler and an aftercooler to _____________. A. inject water vapor into the compressed air B. prevent overheating of first stage valves C. increase compressor efficiency and economy D. reduce the compressed air charge density Ans: C If the capacity of a reciprocating air compressor gradually drops off, the cause could be ____________. A. leaking compressor valves B. a clogged air filter C. worn cylinder liners D. all of the above Ans: D Reciprocating air compressor bearing failure may result from _________________. A. a misaligned crankshaft B. overtightened drive belts C. contaminated sump oil D. all of the above Ans: D Which of the following frequent maintenance procedures is required of compressed air receivers? A. A close watch on the temperature. B. Constant cleaning to remove oil and dirt. C. Constant testing of the relief valves. D. Frequent draining of water. Ans: D An air compressor is equipped with an intercooler to _____________. I. increase the efficiency of the compressor II. reduce the cylinder operating temperature
A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II Ans: A According to Regulations , all pressure vessels other than unfired 2655 steam boilers shall be protected by pressure-relieving devices that prevent the pressure from rising more than __________ above the maximum allowable working pressure. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2657 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2659 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2661
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2663 A. B. C. D. Ans:
2646
2648
2650
2652
2654
Ans: C A squealing sound occurring from within an operating reciprocating air compressor is an indication of __________. A. compressor overload B. motor overload C. tight compressor bearings D. badly leaking unloaders Ans: C If there is a sudden drop in the capacity of a reciprocating air compressor, you should check for ____________. A. broken compressor valves B. worn piston rings or cylinder liners C. excessive compressor speed D. a defective pressure switch or pilot valve Ans: A Operating a reciprocating air compressor without an air filter will cause ____________. A. carbon deposits on valves and pistons B. serious wear on valves and pistons C. a clogged air intake D. excessive compressor discharge pressure Ans: B The heat of compression is partially removed from compressed air by ____________. A. intercoolers B. aftercoolers C. compressor water jackets D. all of the above Ans: D If a reciprocating air compressor has a knock occurring in frequency with its operating RPM, the cause is probably ____________.
A. misalignment or worn main bearings B. insufficient cylinder lubrication C. defective or poorly fitted valves D. all of the above Ans: A A compressor operating with an accumulation of dust andgrease on 2656 the surfaces of an intercooler would result in_________. I. a decrease in volumetric efficiency of the compressor II. higher volume of air to be discharged to the receiver
5 percent 10 percent 15 percent 20 percent B One of the main differences between a propeller pump and a centrifugal pump is the absence of a ______________. volute in the centrifugal type pump volute in the propeller type pump velocity nozzle in the centrifugal type pump reciprocating piston in the centrifugal type pump B Why should a person performing maintenance on an air compressor wire and tag the system valves closed? To prevent the unexpected. To protect the equipment. To protect the operator performing the maintenance. Each of the above is correct. D Intercooling of a multistage air compressor provides the advantages of reducing the work of compression on the succeeding stages, and ____________.
I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II D If the intercooler of a low pressure air compressor becomes fouled 2658 either internally or externally, the _______________. A. total capacity will be reduced B. volumetric efficiency will be decreased C. discharge pressure will decrease D. normal running time will be decreased Ans: B If the foundation bolts of a reciprocating air compressor are loose, 2660 which of the c onditions below will occur? A. The drive belts will squeal B. The unloaders will jam shut C. The compressor will vibrate D. The intercooler will leak Ans: C When one belt of a multiple V-belt compressor drive requires 2662 replacement, all of the belts must be replaced, because _____________.
condensing part of the original water vapor content reducing the maximum piston loads increasing the volumetric efficiency all of the above D The safety heads of most large reciprocating compressors are held in place by _____________. discharge pressure in the s afety return line large teflon gaskets heavy coil springs tack welding on the sides C
the old belts would otherwise carry all the load new belts are shorter than old belts new belts have a tendency to slip all the above B A squealing sound generated by an operating reciprocating air 2664 compressor would indicate _________________. A. loose drive belts B. badly leaking valves C. compressor interstage leakage D. tight drive belts Ans: A
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
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Which of the following is the probable cause for a motor driven, low pressure, reciprocating air compressor to repeatedly trip the circuit breaker upon starting?
2665
A. Defective pressure switch B. Leaking suction unloader C. Compressor starting against full load D. Compressor starting without any load Ans: C If a ship service air compressor failed to unload, the 2667 ________________. A. compressor would dangerously overspeed B. air receiver pressure would be excessively low C. circuit breaker may open on starting D. compressor would pump lube oil Ans: C Leaking valves in a low pressure, reciprocating, air compressor 2669 can result from _______________. A. excessive compressor discharge pressure B. operating the compressor at excessive speed C. uneven piston stroke in the compressor D. abrasion by dust and dirt Ans: D Excessive lube oil consumption by a reciprocating air compressor can be caused by ____________. A. using a slightly dirty air filter B. using oil having an excessive viscosity C. intercooler or aftercooler leaks D. carrying the oil level higher than normal Ans: D After disassembly, the safest way to remove carbon deposits from 2673 air compressor inlet and discharge valves is to use _____________. 2671
ammonia diesel oil gasoline naphtha B A dirty intercooler on the ship service air compressor will result in 2675 ________________. A. decreased compression ratio B. higher than normal power consumption C. unloader malfunction D. water in the lubricating oil Ans: B A dirty intercooler on an air compressor will cause _______. 2677
When air compressors are arranged for automatic operation, the cylinders can be unloaded during starting and stopping by _____________. A. bypassing the discharge to suction B. fitting depressors which hold the suction valve plates on their seats
C. step unloading the cylinders in a multi-cylinder machine D. all of the above Ans: D Aftercoolers are used with air compressors to _____________. 2668 A. reduce the temperature of compressed air B. decrease the density of compressed air C. dampen pressure pulses in the discharge air D. ensure complete expansion of the compressed air Ans: A If a ship serv ice air compressor operating in intermittent service 2670 were failing to unload, the ____________. A. compressor would stop abruptly when power was secured B. compressor would run continuously C. air receiver indicated pressure would be excessively low D. compressor would require more than the normal amount of lubrication Ans: A Which of the following problems could cause air to blow out through 2672 the inlet air filter of a running compressor? A. Excessive compression in the cylinder B. A broken intake valve C. A dirty inlet filter element D. An improperly adjusted discharge valve Ans: B If an air compressor is used to supply air primarily to the 2674 combustion control system and other pneumatic c ontrollers, the entire system is known as the __________.
damage to the unloader operating diaphragm an increase in current flow to the motor high pressure in the receiver and refrig-a-filter an excessive consumption of crankcase oil B If an air compressor is used to supply compressed air to outlets throughout the engine room and on deck of a ves sel, the system is known as the _______________.
A. control air system B. forced draft air system C. supply air system D. ships service air system Ans: A Slipping drive belts on a ship service air compressor is a probable 2676 symptom of ___________________. A. low lube oil viscosity B. fouled intercoolers C. a failed unloader D. high air receiver pressure Ans: C Air line lubricators are used in compressed air systems to lubricate 2678 ______________. A. the suction and discharge valves B. tools and equipment served by compressed air C. air line reducing valves D. all of the above Ans: B Which of the following statements represents the path of air flow 2680 passing through a typical two stage, low pressure, reciprocating, air compressor?
combustion control air system supply air system ship's service air system low pressure deck air system C When one belt of a multiple V-belt drive requires replacing, it will be necessary to _____________. A. ensure the proper belt dressing is applied B. ensure the seasoned belts are reinstalled in their proper sequence
A. Intercooler, L.P. cylinder, H.P. cylinder, and air cleaner B. L.P. cylinder, air cleaner, intercooler, and H.P. cylinder C. Air cleaner, L.P. cylinder, H.P. cylinder, and intercooler D. Air cleaner, L.P. cylinder, intercooler, and H.P. cylinder Ans: D A knocking sound from one cylinder of an operating air compressor 2682 indicates ____________. A. a defective or broken high pressure unloader B. a loose valve plate
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2679
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2681
2666
C. season the new belt prior to installation D. replace the entire belt set Ans: D Which of the following statements describes the function of an air 2683 compressor intake filter? A. Protects against suction valve float. B. Provides a positive pressure on the air inlet valves.
C. excessive overload D. no compression Ans: B An important point of consideration when replacing a dry type intake 2684 filter on an air compressor is to ____________. A. use the same wetting oil on the element as is used in the compressor lubrication system B. install a smaller size filter to allow for expansion of the element
Page 150
C. Prevents lubricating oil contamination of the compressed air s upply.
C. install only a filter consisting of a treated paper element
D. Protects against the damaging effects of airborne solid particles.
D. select the proper size filter so that air flow is not restricted
Ans: D In addition to a pressure gage and a relief valve, an air receiver should be fitted with a _____________. A. sight glass and manhole B. thermometer and sight glass C. thermometer and manhole D. drain connection Ans: D If you have a duplex double acting reciprocating pump making 160 2687 strokes/minute, with a 6" diameter cylinder, a 9" stroke and operating with 85% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump? 2685
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2689
150 gpm 225 gpm 300 gpm 75 gpm C A compressor operating with an accumulation of dust andgrease on the surfaces of an intercooler would result in_________. I. a high consumption of lube oil II. higher than normal air pressure in the receiver
A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II Ans: A A V-belt that is too tight will cause excessive wear of both the belt 2691 and the _____________. A. shaft of the prime mover B. compressor slave pulley C. main bearing of the compressor D. prime mover drive pulley Ans: C For any given volume of compressed air produced by a multistage 2693 air compressor, interstage cooling will ________. A. increase the power required for compression B. decrease the power required for compression C. allow isothermal compression of the air charge D. allow the compressed air volume to remain constant Ans: B If the intercooler relief valve lifts while an air compressor is 2695 operating under load, you should check for ___________________.
Ans: D A reciprocating air compressor is running roughly and vibrating excessively, indicating that the ____________. A. compressor is overloaded B. motor is overloaded C. foundation bolts are loose D. belts are too tight Ans: C A compressor operating with an accumulation of dust andgrease on 2688 the surfaces of an intercooler would result in_________. I. the motor to run warmer than usual II. lower density air discharged to the receiver 2686
A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II Ans: A The unloading of an air compressor may be provided 2690 by_________. I. holding the intake valve off of its seat II. temporarily relieving the the intercooler to the atmosphere I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II C Operating a reciprocating air compressor without an air intake filter 2692 can result in a/an ___________. A. immediate piston damage B. immediate clogging of the intake C. possible explosion in the compressor D. deposit of carbon on the valves Ans: C If a ship service air compressor failed to unload the 2694 ___________________. A. compressor would run continuously B. air receiver pressure would be excessiv ely low C. belts could slip when starting D. compressor would pump lube oil Ans: C A leaking suction valve in the second stage of a two stage, high 2696 pressure, air compressor can cause excessively high ________________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. a defective pressure switch or pilot valve B. a leak in the intercooler piping C. leakage through the low pressure unloader control diaphragm D. leaking high pressure discharge valves Ans: D Leaking valves in an air compressor can be a result of 2697 _______________. A. excessive discharge pressure B. abrasion, dust, and dirt C. excessive compressor speed D. irregular compression strokes Ans: B The pressure developed in the high pressure cylinder of a 2699 reciprocating air compressor, in order to assure an output near the end of its compression stroke, is ____________.
A. second stage discharge pressure B. first stage discharge pressure C. pressure in the aftercooler D. compressor final discharge temperature Ans: B Condensate must be drained periodically from the air compressor 2698 receivers to prevent _____________. A. second stage cylinder lockup B. oil sump contamination C. faulty operation of pneumatic valves D. corrosion of air receiver baffles Ans: C The volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating air compressor, is the 2700 ratio of the _________________.
A. the same as the line discharge pressure B. below the line discharge pressure
A. adiabatic work of compression to the indicated horsepower B. work of isothermal compression to the brake horsepower of the motor C. air indicated horsepower from indicator cards to the brake horsepower input D. actual amount of air discharged by the compressor, to the theoretical volume swept by the movement of the compressor piston
C. constant throughout the discharge period D. above the line discharge pressure
2701
Ans: D The air charge leaving an intercooler, or aftercooler of an air compressor can be expected to be ___________. A. superheated B. supercooled
2702
Ans: D The unloading system on an air compressor will ____________. A. increase compressor discharge pressure on demand B. increase compressor operating speed as necessary
Page 151
C. at or below the dew point
C. allow the motor to turn the compresser opposed only by friction
D. all of the above Ans: C Air compressor cylinder unloaders enable the compressor to 2703 _____________. A. vary their speed according to temperature and load B. start and come up to speed before air compression begins C. change speed according to overload demands D. reduce compressed air charge density Ans: B If one drive belt on an air compressor is found to be worn you 2705 should _____________. A. replace that belt only B. replace all of the belts C. dress the worn belt D. adjust belt tension Ans: B Carbon deposits forming on the discharge valves of an air 2707 compressor are caused by oil deterioration under high pressure. The first step in reducing these deposits would be to _____________.
D. reduce the compressor frictional load when starting Ans: C Regulations specifically prohibit seats or disks in pressure vessel 2704 relief valves to be made of ________________. A. cast iron B. bronze C. brass D. stainless steel Ans: A If the electric motor driving an air compressor fails to start, the 2706 cause may be a _____________. A. leaking unloader B. tripped circuit breaker C. control line leak D. defective pop valve Ans: B Air compressors are equipped with unloading systems for the 2708 purpose of _____________.
A. reduce the discharge temperatures B. increase the compression ratio C. use a high viscosity oil D. increase the oil volatility Ans: A Unloading of a low pressure, reciprocating, air compressor at start2709 up can be accomplished by ______________.
A. removing all but the frictional load during starting B. relieving intercoolers of high temperature buildups C. providing high starting torque in the drive motor D. seating valve plates during compressor shutdown Ans: A Excessively low air pressure occurring in the intercooler of a 2710 reciprocating air compressor is caused by _______________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
holding the L.P. discharge valve open the use of a precharged accumulator using a permanently enlarged clearance expansion volume temporarily discharging back to the compressor intake D On a medium pressure, differential piston, reciprocating air compressor, lubrication of the pistons/cylinders is usually accomplished _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
by the splash method with metering type cylinder lubricators gravity fed lubricators lube oil flow from the bearing lube oil system B Which of the listed valve types is typically used as inlet and discharge valves on modern low pressure air compressors?
2711
2713
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2715
Poppet Rotary Reed Sliding C According to Regulations , a welded repair to be made to a ships service air receiver, other than an emergency repair at sea, must be ____________.
A. inspected and tested by the chief engineer before it may be returned to service B. completed and then tested at least twice prior to notifying the Administration to ask for a surveyor C. made with a backing strip to ensure full penetration D. made only with the prior approval of the Administration
2717
Ans: D One function of the air receiver in a compressed air system is to _____________. A. dry the air discharged from the intercooler B. minimize the system's line pulsations
C. receive exhaust air from pneumatic accessories D. remove all traces of oil from the air Ans: B An unloader is installed on an air compressor to __________. 2719
A. leaky discharge valves on the LP c ylinder B. leaky discharge valves on the HP c ylinder C. insufficient intercooler cooling D. low ambient air pressure Ans: A Broken valve strips in an operating low pressure, air compressor 2712 will cause ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
an immediate crankcase explosion oil contamination in the compressed air a decrease in compressor capacity no immediate loss of the compressed air capacity C The function of the springs used with channel or plate-type valves for reciprocating air compressors is to ____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
open the valves during downward strokes provide positive closing of the valves reduce compressor discharge pulsations reduce air intake and exhaust pulsations B The major difference between the discharge and suction valves installed in most low pressure, reciprocating air compressors is that ___________.
2714
2716
A. one valve s eats upwards, while the other seats downwards B. the reed valves used on the discharge are made substantially thicker and heavier than the suction valves C. the suction valve springs exert a greater tension than the discharge valve springs D. the discharge valve springs exert a greater tension than the suction valve springs Ans: A Cylinder inlet valve failure in a low pressure air compressor can be 2718 caused by _______________. A. carbon buildup on the pistons from excessive lubrication B. compressor overspeeding due to mechanical failure in the unloader C. valve pounding due to valve covers being excessively tight D. sticking valves due to carbon buildup on the seats Ans: D An air compressor can be unloaded at start-up by __________. 2720
A. bypass the high pressure stage to the low pressure stage on 100% of the air compressors in service
A. holding the discharge valve open
B. prevent excessive interstage pressure buildup
B. relieving the intercooler pressure to the atmosphere
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C. control compressor discharge pressure D. remove all but the frictional load during starting Ans: D Which of the following statements is true concerning the overall 2721 efficiency of air compressors? A. High pressure compressors are more efficient than low pressure compressors. B. Mechanical efficiency divided by compressor efficiency will equal the overall efficiency of the compressor unit. C. Two stage compressors are generally more efficient than single stage compressors. D. The volumetric efficiency is decreased in multistage compressors.
2723
Ans: C Which of the following statements is true concerning V-belt drives for reciprocating air compressors? A. Belts generally stretch slightly during the first few months of use.
B. An excessively tight belt will overload the bearings. C. A loose belt will slip on the motor pulley and wear rapidly. D. All of the above. Ans: D Condensate must be drained from the intercooler and aftercoolers 2725 of an air compressor because _____________. A. the cooling effect of the condensate reduces the compressor's efficiency B. a danger of explosion exists whenever water is present in a compressor
C. using an enlarged, permanently opened clearance expansion space D. a precharged accumulator Ans: B Differential pistons used in some reciprocating air compressors, 2722 serve to provide _____________. A. a means of distributing side pressures over a wider area of each cylinder B. a means of unloading during start-up C. more than one stage of compression by each piston D. a variable compression ratio enabling the output to be varied to suit any load condition Ans: C The function of an unloader on a two-cylinder, two-stage medium 2724 pressure, air compressor is to _____________. A. remove all but the friction load on the compressor motor when starting B. prevent water accumulation in air lines C. reduce motor starting voltage D. vary compressor speed Ans: A The clearance volume for a single stage compressor is defined as 2726 the space created between the _____________. A. top of the piston and bottom side of head, with the piston at BDC B. piston and head, including the space around the piston to the top of the upper ring and under the valves, with the piston at TDC
C. water causes erratic operation of pneumatic components
C. bottom of the piston and bottom side of the head at TDC, regardless of upper ring location and valve placement D. top of the piston and bottom side of the head at TDC as compared to that which exists between the top of the piston and bottom side of head at BDC
D. the volumetric capacity of the first stage is reduced if water remains
2727
Ans: C According to Regulations, if a pressure vessel, such as a ships service air tank, has defects which may impair its safety, the tank shall be ____________.
2728
Ans: B One cause of leaky valves in a low pressure air compressor may be attributed to _________________.
A. hydrostatically tested at a pressure equal to the design pressure of A. running with an air filter element different from that required by the the tank original manufacturer's specifications B. hydrostatically tested at a pressure equal to 1 1/2 times the B. excessive operating hours without carrying out preventive maximum allowable working pressure of the tank maintenance C. pneumatically tested at a pressure equal to the working pressure of C. the compressor running too fast the tank D. pneumatically tested at a pressure equal to 1 1/2 times the design D. excessive discharge pressure pressure of the tank Ans: B Ans: B Regulations require safety and relief valves for air service to be Compared to poppet and other mechanically operated valv es, 2729 2730 provided with a substantial lifting device, capable of lifting the disk which of the following advantages is gained by using a thin plate from its seat when the pressure in the vessel is (feather) low lift type valve in an low pressure air compressor? ________________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2731
50% of that at which the valve is set to blow 75% of that at which the valve is set to blow 110% of that at which the valve is set to blow 125% of that at which the valve is set to blow B Which of the following statements is correct when comparing the cylinder diameters of a two-stage reciprocating air compressor?
A. They improve compression efficiency. B. They operate with a minimum of noise. C. They are simple and easy to replace. D. All of the above. Ans: D If all of the air charge has been lost from a ship service air receiver, 2732 the compressor mechanical unloading system will ____________.
A. The low pressure cylinder will be smaller than the high pressure A. fail to work, and the drive motor will trip the circuit breaker as the cylinder. compressor will be overloaded B. The high pressure cylinder will be smaller than the low pressure B. fail to work, but the compressor having no load will start with little or cylinder. no difficulty C. The high and low pressure cylinders will be of equal size. C. still functional normally at start-up D. The low pressure cylinder will be smaller than the high pressure D. Still function normally, but the safety interlock will stop the drive cylinder but the piston stroke will be greater. motor Ans: B Ans: B PROPELLER, SHAFTING AND STERN TUBE BEARING Which combination of the m ain shaft segments listed below, that Which of the following statements describes the purpose of the split 2733 2734 are located furthest from the main engine, are connected by the inflatable seal installed aft of the primary seal assembly for the inboard stern tube shaft coupling? propeller shaft? A. Line shaft and thrust shaft B. Line shaft and stern-tube shaft
A. To serve as a s eal when adding packing to the stuffing box. B. To allow repair or replacement of the primary seal elements when the ship is waterborne.
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C. Thrust shaft and stern-tube shaft D. Stern-tube shaft and tail shaft Ans: B The exposed portion of the outboard propeller shaft is protected 2735 against seawater corrosion by ________________.
C. To eliminate leakage via the propeller shaft when the shaft is not rotating. D. To provide a ready m eans for the entry of cooling water. Ans: B Water leaking through the stern tube stuffing box is used to 2736 accomplish which of the following actions?
A. a heavy lubricant B. a covering of plastic, rubber, or shrunk-on composition sleeve C. a corrosion-resistant paint D. a layer of oxidation formed when the metal of the shaft is exposed to seawater Ans: B One of the determining factors regulating the time interval for 2737 drawing a vessel's tailshaft depends upon the design to reduce stress concentrations in accordance with Class standards. Which construction method meets this design criteria? A. Spooned keyway and slotted key B. Stress relief grooves at the aft end of the propeller and forward end of the liner C. Keyway cut as to give a sharp rise from the bottom of the keyway to the shaft surface D. All of the above Ans: A An excessive amount of water is prevented from entering a vessel 2739 using a water lubricated stern tube bearing by the use of the ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2741
propeller hub lignum vitae shaft packing labyrinth seal C If water were a semisolid, the linear distance a propeller would advance in one revolution is the _____________.
A. Cooling B. Lubrication C. Flushing D. All of the above
2738
Ans: D Some vessels are equipped with a water lubricated stern tube. When at sea, operating under normal conditions, the water service valve from the ship's saltwater system to the bearing should be ______________. A. closed, and no leakage permitted across the shaft packing B. closed, and only slight leakage permitted across the shaft packing C. open, and only slight leakage permitted across the shaft packing
D. open, and no leakage permitted across the shaft packing Ans: B The device used to retain the packing, that keeps water from 2740 entering the ship through the opening where the propeller shaft passes through the hull, is c alled a ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2742
packing nut hawsepipe stuffing box seal cage C Excessive propeller vibration may occur as a result of _________________.
blade thickness fraction mean width ratio pitch skew back factor C The lignum vitae in a stern tube bearing is normally lubricated with 2743 _____________. A. grease B. oil C. water D. tallow Ans: C Which of the statements listed accurately applies to controllable 2745 pitch propeller systems? A. A pitch indicator is to be fitted on the navigation bridge for vessels 400 gross tons and above.
operating at low speed high water pressure under the hull cavitation operating in deep river channels C Unusual hull, or propeller shaft vibrations can be caused by 2744 _____________. A. excessive engine speed in shallow water B. slop in a hydraulic clutch C. slight overheating of the line shaft spring bearings D. high engine speed in deep water Ans: A Which of the following statements is correct concerning 2746 requirements for propellers? A. A propeller may not be changed with one of a different pitch unless stress evaluations are supplied and permission is granted by a Marine Surveyor.
B. Independent remote control of pitch is to be provided at or near the oil distribution box. Tests of its operation are to be performed in the presence of the Surveyor.
B. When steel propellers are used, zinc anodes are to be fitted on the aftermost strut bearing housing and on the forward most section of the rudder assembly.
C. After installation in the vessel, the complete piping system is to be subjected to a hydrostatic test equal to 1.25 times the design pressure.
C. The exposed steel of the shaft is to be protected from the action of the water by filling all spaces between the cap, hub and shaft with a suitable material.
D. The arrangement of piping is to be such that a single failure in one part of the piping or pump unit will not impair the integrity of the remaining parts of the system.
D. Ultrasonic examinations of the propeller may be performed in lieu of required drydocking periods, provided certified copies are distributed to the proper regulatory bodies.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
2747
Ans: D Compared to a constant pitch propeller, a controllable pitch propeller _____________. A. more efficiently uses av ailable engine power B. operates at a lower efficiency at a fixed speed
C. produces the same torque at lower engine power D. develops its rated power at a lower speed Ans: A The conical steel or composition cone installed on a propeller, 2749 known as a fairwater cone, provides which of the following benefits? A. Reduces turbidness B. Helps with lubrication
A. B. C. D. Ans:
Ans: C Which of the components listed is used to connect s everal sections of line shafting? A. Inboard stern tube couplings B. Bolts fitted through flange type couplings forged integral with the shaft sections. C. Muff type outboard couplings D. All of the above types Ans: B When the rotating shaft frequency and the natural vibrating 2750 frequency become synchronized at a particular speed, that speed is known as the _____________. 2748
A. synchronous speed B. sympathetic speed
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C. Protects the nut D. All of the above Ans: C Keyless propeller hubs secured to tailshafts by "pilgrim nuts", are 2751 removed by _____________. A. spring-loaded jacks B. hydraulic pressure C. heating with a torch D. hydraulic lever arms Ans: B In order to prevent overheating of the packing in the stern tube 2753 stuffing box, _____________. A. the gland is properly adjusted to permit a slight leakage of sea water B. stave-type rubber seals are used C. cooling water is supplied from the fresh water cooling system D. the gland nuts must be tightly taken up to prevent any water leakage Ans: A Following the withdrawal of the tail shaft, whichnon-destructive test 2755 could be used to locate cracks? I. liquid penetrant dye II. magnetic flux I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II C A piece is missing from one blade of a four-bladed propeller and 2757 could result in ____________. A. accelerated stern bearing wear B. excessive shaft vibrations C. unusual noises D. all of the above Ans: D When the tailshaft is drawn from a vessel in drydock, which of the 2759 following inspections is required to be carried out? A. The propeller hub taper and shaft keyway should be inspected for cracks or corrosion. B. The stern bearing alignment with the stern frame should be checked. C. The interior of the stern tube should be inspected for leaks. D. The shaft liner should be removed and inspected for cracks. Ans: A When a vessel is underway, a small amount of water is allowed to 2761 leak through the water lubricated stern tube stuffing box in order to ___________________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. flush out silt and mud which can accumulate from shallow water prevent overheating of the packing ensure positive coolant flow through the strut bearings prevent seizing of the rubber s trips in the bearing bushing B Propeller pitch speed minus ship speed divided by the propeller 2763 pitch speed is termed ______________________. A. apparent slip B. true slip C. pitch D. propulsive efficiency Ans: A Vessel propellers are classified as being right hand or left hand. A 2765 right hand propeller turns clockwise when viewed from _______________. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2767
the bow the stern the port side the starboard side B Which of the following statements best describes an oil lubricated stern tube bearing installation?
A. It receives its oil supply from a branch line of the main lube oil system. B. No shaft liner is needed in the area of the babbitted bearing surface.
C. critical speed D. breakaway speed Ans: C When the propeller blades are integral with the hub, the propeller is 2752 called a _____________. A. built up propeller B. solid propeller C. controllable pitch propeller D. suction back propeller Ans: B Any unusual, or new vibration in the hull or propeller shafting can 2754 be an indication of _____________. A. clutch slippage B. overheated bearings C. high engine speeds D. propeller unbalance
2756
Ans: D By which of the following means is force efficiently provided to vary the pitch of the blades on a modern controllable pitch propeller?
A. Hydraulic B. Mechanical C. Pneumatic D. Electrical Ans: A Inspection of a vessel's propeller during drydocking should include 2758 ____________. A. noting the condition of the fairwater B. inspecting the locking device C. logging inspection results in the official deck log D. all of the above Ans: B In a water cooled stern tube, a slight leakage of water across the 2760 packing gland is provided to ____________. A. flush all dirt and grit from the gland B. flush all dirt and grit from the bearing stav es C. keep the gland packing cool D. keep the stern tube fair water cool Ans: C The conical steel or composition cone installed on a propeller, 2762 known as a fairwater cone, provides which of the following benefits? A. Reduce turbulence B. Help with lubrication C. Protect against electrolytic corrosion D. All of the above Ans: A Which of the devices listed prevents water from entering a ship's 2764 hull via the propulsion shaft? A. Stern tube packing or mechanical shaft seal B. Deflector ring and drain C. Spring bearings D. Oiler rings Ans: A Which of the following nondestructive testing methods can be used 2766 to detect a suspected subsurface defect in a tailshaft liner? A. Dye penetrant B. Magnetic particle C. Ultrasonic D. All of the above Ans: C It is necessary to test the hydraulic system of a controllable pitch 2768 propeller. According to regulation what should be done? A. The vessel must be drydocked and the propeller removed when performing this test. B. The system pressure should be prevented from exceeding the maximum allowable operating pressure set forth by the manufacturer.
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C. The system pressure must be lowered when maneuvering in port to prevent blowing the outer oil seal. D. For precise regulation of the bearing temperature, the system is required to have its own oil cooler. Ans: B Which of the following actions, pertaining to saltwater lubricated 2769 stern tube stuffing boxes, is usually observed when the ship is expected to be in port for an extended period? A. The stuffing box is continually flushed. B. The drain connection is left opened. C. The stuffing box gland is tightened. D. The packing is adjusted for greater cooling or replaced.
2771
2773
Ans: C A bronzed sleeve is secured to the propeller tailshaft by _______________. A. keying B. shrinking C. threading D. pressing Ans: B When the rotating shaft frequency and the natural vibrating frequency become synchronized at a particular speed, that speed is known as the _____________. A. brekaway speed B. critical speed C. synchronous speed
D. sympathetic speed Ans: B Stern tube and strut bearings lined with hardwood or rubber 2775 composition materials are lubricated with _____________. A. saltwater B. graphite
A. Listen for a smooth, regular sound. B. Measure the distance between the gland and the s tuffing box with a rule. C. Judge by feeling the gland for an increase in heat as it is being tightened up. D. Open the drain connection to allow seawater to flow in and make the distance even. Ans: B Which of the following statements represents an operating 2772 characteristic of neoprene or rubber stern tube bearings? A. No stern tube packing is required. B. The bearing is lubricated by seawater. C. Propeller shaft vibration will not damage these bearings. D. Neoprene bearings are less abrasion resistant than bronze bearings. Ans: B Which of the following statements describes the adv antage of the 2774 mechanical shaft sealing system over the stuffing box and packing method of shaft sealing for propulsion shafting? A. It eliminates the repairing or renewing of the shaft sleeve. B. It is fully automatic in operation. C. It allows for the removal and reinstallation of all parts without dismantling the shafts. D. Each of the above is correct. Ans: D The stern tube flushing connection can be used to _________, 2776 A. assist in flushing out all packing strips when renewing packing underway B. provide a positive flow of water through the stern tube for lubricating, cooling, and flushing when required C. flush out brackish water resulting from extended in port operation
C. light lubricating oil D. heavy lubricating oil
2777
C. The system should be tested at a pressure of 1 1/2 times the maximum allowable pressure. D. All necessary repairs must approved by the Chief Engineer of the vessel. Ans: C After packing is added to the stern tube stuffing box,which of the 2770 following procedures should be observed toinsure even tightening of the gland?
Ans: A A vessel has been equipped with an oil lubricated stern bearing and is undergoing a routine drydocking. W hich of the following inspections should be made when the tailshaft has been drawn?
D. serve as the only source of s upply of water for the stern tube bearing Ans: B One of the determining factors regulating the time interval for 2778 drawing a vessel's tailshaft depends upon the design to reduce stress concentrations. Which of the following factors, in part, would be considered to meet this design criteria?
A. The overall condition of the bearing surface should be examined.
A. Sprocketed keyway and slotted key.
B. The shaft liner should be inspected for cracks and tested to insure a tight fit. C. The stern tube should be tested for cracks with dye penetrant.
B. Stress relief grooves at the forward end of the propeller and aft end of the liner. C. Keyway is to be cut so as to give a sharp rise from the bottom of the keyway to the shaft surface.
D. All of the above. Ans: A The purpose of the propeller fairwater cone is to ________. 2779 A. lock the propeller nut in position B. minimize water turbulence C. eliminate axial thrust D. eliminate cavitation Ans: B Regulations require a single tailshaft with water lubricated tailshaft 2781 bearings, stress-relieved keyway, and fabricated from materials resistant to corrosion by sea water, to be drawn and examined once in every ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
2 years 3 years 5 years 8 years C
D. All of the above. Ans: B The tailshaft is usually supported by the ____________. 2780 A. spring bearings B. tail bearings C. stern tube bearings D. propeller bearings Ans: C On a ves sel using a water lubricated tailshaft bearing, a single 2782 tailshaft without a special keyway, and not constructed of materials resistant to corrosion by seawater, the tailshaft must be drawn and examined twice within any ____________.
A. 4 year period B. 5 year period C. 6 year period D. 8 year period Ans: B METALLURGY AND NON-DESTRUCTIVE TESTING
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The purpose of annealing any metal is to make the metal _______________. A. softer B. smoother C. harder D. tougher Ans: A To anneal a copper gasket, you should heat the gasket 2785 ______________. A. and quench it in oil B. cherry red and quench in water C. and let it cool slowly in the air D. and carbonize it Ans: C Which of the following propeller materials will not require stress 2787 relief treatment after minor repairs, straightening of the tips or the thinning of the blade edges? 2783
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2789 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2791
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2793
Manganese bronze Nickel manganese bronze Manganese nickel aluminum bronze Nickel aluminum bronze D The probability of sulfide stress cracking in the presence of hydrogen sulfide is greatest for ____________. low strength steel high strength steel rubber sealing elements aluminum B When using the circular magnetic particle method to nondestructively test a weldment, the best results are obtained when the ____________. current is flowing at right angles to the discontinuity magnetic field is parallel to the discontinuity magnetic field is at right angles to the discontinuity defect is located outside the parallel flux path of the prods C In radiographic inspections, the standard test piece included in every radiograph provides an effective check on the ov erall quality and bears a numerical relation to the thickness of the part being tested. This piece is called a/an ____________.
A. penetrometer B. intensimeter C. lead filter gauge D. exposure screen Ans: A The internal force of a material, which tends to resist deformation 2795 when subjected to external forces, is known as ___________________. A. stress B. strain C. shear strength D. ultimate tensile strength Ans: A Copper sheet metal that is to be used as a gasket, is usually 2797 annealed by heating it to a cherry red color, and then _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2799 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2801 A. B. C. D.
The ability of a metal to be hammered, or rolled out is called its ___________. A. ductibility B. elasticity C. malleability D. fusibility Ans: C Copper is sometimes used for fluid power lines because it 2786 ______________. A. has good resistance to high temperatures B. has high resistance to corrosion C. withstands heavy vibration under heavy system loads D. resists hardening under stress Ans: B In certain circumstances, weldments are preheated before each 2788 pass to _____________. 2784
A. reduce internal stresses B. increase the temperature gradient in the weld area C. allow the use of smaller welding rods D. eliminate the need for post heating Ans: A Which of the listed effects represents the purpose of heat treating 2790 steel? A. Develop ductility B. Improve machining qualities C. Relieve stresses D. All of the above Ans: D Which of the listed methods used for testing a metal, measures the 2792 ability of a metal to absorb the energy of a load rapidly applied to the member? A. B. C. D. Ans:
Brinell only Charpy only Charpy and Brinell Rockwell and Brinell B Which of the nondestructive testing methods can be easily used yet with good accuracy to detect, locate, identify, and measure defects in welds and base metals; regardless of material type and structure?
A. B. C. D. Ans:
Radiography Ultrasonics Visible dye penetrant Magnetic particle B Which nondestructive testing method is suitable for use in detecting and identifying a diameter subsurface void in a six inch diameter stainless steel shaft?
A. B. C. D. Ans:
Magnetic particle Radiography Ultrasonic Dye penetrant B Reheating a hardened component to a temperature lower than the hardening temperature and then cooling it is known as _____________.
2794
2796
2798
dousing it in cold water A. low temperature hardening cooling it slowly in air B. case hardening quenching it slowly in oil C. annealing drawing its temper quickly D. tempering B Ans: D When metal is tempered, it becomes _____________. Ferrous metals are metals containing ___________. 2800 harder A. no iron softer B. a large percentage of copper less brittle C. a large percentage of iron more brittle D. a large percentage of aluminum C Ans: C STEAM, HEAT AND THERMODYNAMICS The energy associated with molecules is known as __________. A bourdon tube-type steam pressure gage is fitted with a siphon 2802 loop to prevent damage from ____________. kinetic energy A. extreme thermal stress potential energy B. the admission of condensate mechanical energy C. pressure shock thermal energy D. differential expansion rates
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2803
Ans: D Which of the following guidelines is considered to reflect good design practices of shipboard steam heating systems? A. Provide constant steam service for equipment operating throughout the year. B. Provide either a common or individual reducing station for each group of units requiring the same operating pressure. C. Run all piping so it may be drained by gravity.
D. All of the above. Ans: D Regarding the low pressure evaporator steam control orifice in the 2805 live steam supply line, the s team at the outlet of the orifice if not properly conditioned will be developed as _______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2807 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2809 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2811 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2813
desuperheated steam superheated steam saturated steam poor quality steam B Which of the following statements concerning the operation of steam pressure reducing valves is c orrect? Reducing station relief valves must be lifted by hand at least once a watch. The cut out valve at the outlet of the reducing valv e should be throttled when in operation. Reducing valves should be warmed-up and drained before they are adjusted. Reducing valves are absolutely reliable and require no routine maintenance. C Mechanical energy in transition is referred to as _________. horsepower work heat velocity B The rate of heat transfer from a hot region to a cold region is affected most by the ____________. size of the heat sink temperature difference between the regions size of the heat source total heat of the system B The difference between the pressure at a point being measured and that of a perfect vacuum is known as _________.
2804
Ans: A If the fixed orifice in the evaporator steam supply line were to be removed, the steam pressure reducing valvelocated upstream would _____________.
A. be unable to maintain steam flow unless the proper range spring were to be installed B. be suitable for maintaining the required steam flow under all load conditions C. handle the operation satisfactorily as the control orifice develops an impedance to the steam flow D. all of the above Ans: A A vapor under pressure stays in contact with, and at the same 2806 temperature as the liquid from which it was generated. The v apor and liquid in this situation are, therefore, said to be in a/an ____________. A. equilibrium contact B. latent contact C. critical state D. superheated state Ans: A The basic function of a steam trap is to ____________. 2808 A. regulate the flow of steam leaving a heater B. limit the flow of steam leaving a heater until it has given up its latent heat of condensation C. limit the flow of steam leaving a heater until it has given up its latent heat of fusion D. eliminate steam-pipe water hammer Ans: B Which of the following forms of energy is usually associated with relatively large bodies or objects? A. Chemical energy B. Mechanical energy C. Thermal energy D. Electrical energy Ans: B The steam supplied to operate a steam driven reciprocating pump 2812 is usually obtained from the _____________. A. desuperheated steam line via a reducing station B. auxiliary exhaust line C. main steam line via a reducing station D. contaminated steam generator Ans: A Medium temperature hot water systems have been used in place of 2814 small auxiliary boilers producing 7bar steam with ____________. 2810
internal pressure gauge pressure absolute pressure external pressure C Steam supply piping to deck machinery is insulated in order to 2815 _____________. A. maintain good turbulent free steam flow through the pipe B. prevent superheating of the steam C. reduce heat loss from the system D. contain small steam leaks Ans: C The definition of superheat refers to the amount of heatnecessary 2817 to raise the temperature of a fluid and appliesto _________. I. vapors II. liquids
138oC water systems 149oC water systems 160oC water systems 171oC water systems C By which of the listed methods may heat be transferred from one 2816 body to another? A. Radiation B. Convection C. Conduction D. All of the above Ans: D Some auxiliaries are not designed to handle auxiliary steam at 2818 boiler pressure. Which of the devices listed is usually fitted in the branch line to deliver steam at the correct pressure?
A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II Ans: A The action of water being circulated within a natural circulation 2819 boiler, is an example of what form of heat transfer?
A. An orifice B. A steam pressure reducing valve C. A nozzle valve D. A constant quantity regulating valve Ans: B The movement of steam piping, as a result of changes in 2820 temperature, is best compensated for by the use of _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D.
Radiation Conduction Forced convection Natural convection
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D.
union joints expansion joints flexitallic gaskets rigid brackets
Page 158
2821
2823
Ans: D The sum of the sensible heat and the latent heat of any substance is known as ____________. A. total heat B. residual heat C. specific heat D. superheat Ans: A A suitable location for the installation of an impulse type steam trap would be in the ____________. A. horizontal run of drain line from the lowest point at the outlet of the heat exchanger B. steam supply line to a feedwater heater C. drain line from a high point in the main steam line expansion loop
D. vacuum drag line from the atmospheric drain tank to the main condenser Ans: A Heat which brings about a change in the physical state of a 2825 substance without a change in temperature, is c alled _____________. specific heat sensible heat latent heat ambient heat C How many BTUs must be added to one pound of water at 32°Fto raise the temperature to 212°F? A. 16 BTU's B. 144 BTU's C. 180 BTU's D. 970 BTU's Ans: C Heat may be transferred by _____________. A. conduction B. convection C. radiation D. all of the above Ans: D Insulation on deck steam piping must be installed securely as _____________. A. loose insulation contributes to steam leaks B. deck steam lines are subject to vibration C. steam driven machinery cannot run with loose insulation D. loose insulation prevents normal pipe expansion Ans: B Which of the following forms of energy concerns the forces which bind atoms together in a molecule? A. Thermal energy B. Mechanical energy C. Chemical energy D. Electrical energy Ans: C Which unit of measurement is used to measure m echanical potential energy?
2822
2824
2829
2831
2833
2835
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2837
British thermal units Horsepower Kg-mtr Calories C Steam traps should be installed at the lowest outlet point of the heat exchanger in a horizontal run of pipe. W hich of the following installation considerations should also be maintained?
A. They should be installed with their main axis horizontal. B. They should be installed unpainted and wrapped in an insulation blanket. C. A bypass around the trap is unnecessary if the steam input pressure never exceeds 0.7kg/cm2 D. They should remain uninsulated and unpainted. Ans: D A Bourdon tube pressure gage is protected from the effects of the 2839 steam entering the pressure element by a/an _______. A. exposed, uninsulated coil in the line leading to the gage
Ans: C The operation of a thermostatic steam trap depends upon the ______________. A. action of a float within a chamber
B. difference in movement of two dissimilar bimetallic strips not fastened together C. fact that hot water under pressure tends to flash into steam when its vapor pressure is rapidly reduced D. change in the amount of vapor produced within an enclosed chamber Ans: D The heat required to change a substance from a liquid to a gas 2826 without experiencing a temperature change, is defined as the latent heat of _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2827
Ans: B A portion of the cargo of an LNG carrier boils off during each voyage. How is the cargo boil off normally handled? A. Compressed, condensed, and return to the cargo tanks. B. Vented to the atmosphere. C. Burned in the boilers. D. Mixed with nitrogen and recirculated through the primary barrier.
fusion vaporization sublimation condensation B Thermostatic steam pressure reducing valves are used in the fuel oil service system to control the ______________. A. double bottom fuel oil tank temperature B. heater supply steam flow C. pressure of the fuel supplied to the burners D. attemperator steam flow in the heater discharge circuit Ans: B Power is defined as the ____________. A. rate of doing work B. amount of force needed to overcome friction C. amount of work accomplished D. distance through which an object is moved Ans: A Which of the following statements represents the definition of energy? A. Energy is work that has been accomplished. B. Energy is the capacity for producing an effect. C. Energy is work being done. D. Energy is power. Ans: B Which of the following terms could be applied to the simple definition "the energy of motion"? A. Electrical energy B. Thermal energy C. Potential energy D. Kinetic energy Ans: D Thermal energy in transition is also referred to as _______________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
2828
2830
2832
2834
2836
A. heat B. power C. horsepower D. foot-pound Ans: A Which of the following modes of heat transfer does NOT require 2838 any physical contact between a warmer and a cooler substance?
A. Radiation B. Conduction C. Natural convection D. All of the above Ans: A Which of the following statements concerning energy is c orrect? 2840 A. Energy can be created or destroyed.
Page 159
B. impulse-type steam trap in the gage line C. leather or neoprene diaphragm in the gage line D. spring loaded bellows in the gage line Ans: A The boiling point of water in an open container at sea level is 2841 100°C. If the pressure on the open container is decreased, the boiling point will _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2843
increase decrease increase and then decrease decrease and then increase B Which of the following best describes the thermodynamic effect on the pressure and v olume relationship with regards to saturated gases?
A. As pressure decreases, volume increases B. As volume increases, pressure increases C. As volume decreases, pressure decreases D. As pressure increases, volume increases Ans: A How can you determine the date that the pressure vessels on your 2845 ship will require a hydrostatic test or internal inspection?
B. Energy may not be transformed. C. The total quantity of energy in the universe is always the same. D. None of the above. Ans: C The difference between the pressure at a point being measured 2842 and that of a perfect vacuum is known as _________.
lower than normal supply steam temperature lower than normal supply steam pressure improper adjustment of steam cushion valves loss of air charge in the pump discharge plenum chamber C Latent heat can be defined as the heat which must be added to a 2851 substance in order to change it from a _____________. A. solid to liquid B. liquid to vapor C. solid to vapor D. all of the above Ans: D A major controlling factor in the location of the condensate return 2853 piping from a heating system is/are ____________. A. the requirement for a gravity return B. the requirement for short laterals run C. the requirement to minimize conflict with headroom and other services D. all of the above Ans: A Water hammer in a steam heating system can be caused by 2855 ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D.
2857
A. Ball float B. Thermostatic
A. B. C. D. Ans:
changing the direction of the steam flow rapidly reducing the steam velocity creating a condensate seal bleeding off a portion of the steam C A turbine exhaust pressure of 1.013 bar abs. is equal to _____________.
2846
A. 00.000 bar g. B. 00.5 bar g C. 01.470 bar g D. 2 bar g Ans: A Admitting steam to an improperly drained heating system could result in _____________. A. cutting valve seating surfaces B. high velocity slugs of water in motion in the system C. damage due to water hammer D. all of the above Ans: D A Bourdon tube-type steam pressure gage is fitted with a siphon 2850 loop to prevent damage from the direct effects of ____________. 2848
pressure shock uneven expansion entering condensate entering steam D Which of the listed reciprocating pump parts control the position of 2852 the pilot slide valve? A. Moving tappets B. Adjusting of the tappet collars C. Stay rods D. Movement of the main piston through the steam cylinder Ans: D The heat identified by only a change in temperature is known as 2854 ____________. A. sensible heat B. latent heat C. total heat A. B. C. D. Ans:
D. residual heat Ans: A The operation of a thermostatic steam trap depends upon the 2856 ____________.
filling the auxiliary boiler with cold water steam admitted to a cold pipe filling the auxiliary boiler with hot water draining a soot blower line before cracking the steam supply valve
Ans: B Which of the listed types steam traps operates on the principle that hot water flashes to steam when its vapor pressure is rapidly reduced?
internal pressure gauge pressure absolute pressure external pressure C Pigtails, or siphons, are used to protect Bourdon tube-type gages from the direct exposure to steam by ________________.
2844
A. Check the boiler equipment list. B. Check the pressure vessel block on the Certificate of Inspection. C. Check the class certificates. D. Check the pressure vessel addenda to the vessel's SOLAS certificate. Ans: B A leaking steam trap located in the return lines from a heating 2847 system is indicated by excessive _____________. A. drain tank steaming B. scale returning from the convectors C. steam pressure in the convectors D. water in the heating system Ans: A A pounding noise occurring in one cylinder of a steam 2849 reciprocating general service pump could be caused by ________________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D.
2858
thermal expansion of a fluid position of a float tendency of hot water to flash into steam flow characteristics of a liquid as it passes through an orifice
Ans: A Which of the statements listed concerning heat transfer is correct?
A. Heat is always transferred at a constant rate. B. Heat transfer rate increases as temperature difference increases.
Page 160
C. Bimetallic D. Impulse Ans: D Which of the following conditions must be carried outbefore the 2859 superheating of saturated vapor can occur? A. The evaporation rate must be increased. B. The flow of liquid to the unfired pressure v essel must be increased.
C. The rate of heat transfer is not affected by temperature difference. D. The high temperature region is known as a heat sink. Ans: B What is the cooling water source for most recovery unit condensing 2860 coils aboard ship? A. condenser water vapor at the outlet B. potable water supply
C. The vapor must be removed from contact with the liquid from which it was generated. D. The operating pressure must be raised. Ans: C The latent heat of water vapor in air is dependent upon the 2861 _____________. A. dry bulb temperature B. wet bulb temperature C. dew point D. dry point
2863
Ans: C Which of the listed statements describes specific heat?
A. The amount of heat required to change the temperature of one pound of a material, one degree C. B. The amount of heat required to change the temperature of one pound of ice, one degree C. C. The amount of heat required to change the temperature of one pound of butter, one degree C. D. All of the above.
2865
Ans: D Which of the following guidelines is considered to reflect good design practices for shipboard steam heating systems?
C. chiller water taken at inlet D. distilled water Ans: D According to regulations, a boiler combustion control system may 2862 be tested at __________. A. a pressure not less than 1.25 times the maximum allowable working pressure B. a pressure not less than 1.5 times the maximum allowable working pressure C. the maximum allowable working pressure of the system D. the normal operating pressure of the system provided full loading is accomplished Ans: C If the steam flow entering the evaporator steam supply orifice has a 2864 quality of 95%, which of the following statements would be true? A. The steam at the outlet would obtain a higher degree of desuperheat. B. The steam at the outlet would be at a higher superheat than when it is supplied at 100% quality. C. The steam would obtain a lower absolute pressure than when it is supplied at a quality of 100%. D. The entrained moisture will become a totally saturated vapor prior to any superheat being acquired by the s team. Ans: D If "wet" steam is supplied to the air ejectors of a low pressure 2866 evaporator, the passage of the mixture through the nozzles will ______________.
A. Provide orifice-type bypasses for all traps and automatic valves.
A. improve overall vacuum
B. Provide a dirt pocket and strainer ahead of the steam trap on a unit heater return. C. Provide all units with a dirt trap and gate valve in the supply and a check valve on the return.
B. cause the potential level of kinetic energy to be partially converted to thermal energy C. cause the existing level of thermal energy to be totally converted to kinetic energy
D. Wherever possible install vertical runs for condensate piping. Ans: B Which of the listed forms of heat transfer, if any, is illustrated by the flow of combustion gases through a boiler? A. Natural convection only B. Forced convection only C. Both natural convection and forced convection D. None Ans: C Which of the following forms of energy is demonstrated through the 2869 process of combustion? A. Chemical energy B. Mechanical energy C. Thermal energy D. Electrical energy Ans: A The basic function of a steam trap includes which of the following 2871 processes? A. Regulate the flow of condensate from a heater. B. Regulate the flow of steam from a heater. C. Regulate the flow of steam to a heater. D. Regulate the flow of condensate to a heater. Ans: A Which of the listed methods of heat transfer takes place when two 2873 substances of different temperatures are in physical contact with each other? 2867
A. B. C. D. Ans:
Radiation Conduction Convection Each of the above B
2868
2870
2872
2874
D. cause the level of thermal energy to be converted to potential energy Ans: B When replacing a steam pressure reducing valve, what information is required for the selection? A. Maximum and minimum inlet pressures B. Reduced pressure or pressure range C. Maximum and minimum continuous flow rates (kgs./hr.) D. All of the above Ans: D What is the potential energy of an object weighing 10 kgs at a height of 10 mtrs? A. 10 kg-mtr B. 20 kg-mtr C. 100 kg-mtr D. 1000 kg-mtr Ans: C Before starting a reciprocating, steam-driven pump that has been idle for a period of time, you should _____________. A. open the steam line root valve B. drain the steam cylinder C. close the steam cylinder drains D. open the liquid cylinder drains Ans: B Which of the listed temperatures represents the saturation temperature for water at a saturation pressure of 1bar abs. (101.34 kPa) A. B. C. D. Ans:
92°C 100°C 168°C 220°C B
Page 161
Which of the following terms is used to indicate that the flow of heat will result in a temperature change? A. Latent heat B. Sensible heat C. Convection D. Radiation Ans: B Which of the following terms would best desc ribe the temperature 2877 at which a liquid boils at a given pressure? A. Degree of saturation B. Saturation temperature C. Superheated temperature D. Degree of superheat Ans: B A stopper is inserted into the spout of a closed container in which 2879 water has been heated to a temperature of 100°C. If additional thermal energy is imparted, what changes will occur to the pressure and temperature inside the container? 2875
The equation "energy in = energy out" is a simple way of stating the principle of the ___________. A. conservation of energy B. conservation of matter C. conversion of matter to energy D. conversion of energy to matter Ans: A If the air temperature in a manifold were found to be 122°F, what 2878 will be the equivalent reading on the centigrade scale? A. 35°C B. 40°C C. 45°C D. 50°C Ans: D If you determine that a steam reciprocating pump is operating with 2880 too long of stroke, causing the piston nut to strike the cylinder head, you should _____________. 2876
A. both pressure and temperature will rise B. pressure alone will rise C. temperature alone will rise D. only a change of state will occur Ans: A Steam tables can be used to obtain the _______________. 2881
A. completely open the steam cushioning valves B. install a smaller nut on the piston rod C. adjust the valve gear to manufacturer's specified measurements D. install a shorter piston rod Ans: C The sensible heat of air is dependent upon the ____________. 2882
A. values for properties of water and vapor at various conditions B. specific fuel consumption under steady steaming conditions C. steam generating capacity of a vessel's boilers D. mechanical efficiency of the main unit Ans: A Energy existing in a system as a result of the relative velocities of 2883 two or more objects is termed_______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2885
A. dry bulb temperature B. wet bulb temperature C. saturation temperature D. water vapor superheat Ans: A The heat required to raise the temperature of 1 pound of a 2884 substance 1°F is called ________.
potential energy pressure energy kinetic energy relative energy C
A. its specific heat B. its latent heat C. a British thermal unit D. its adiabatic heat Ans: A
BILGE SYSTEM The aft, starboard bilge-well can not be pumped out, and back 2886 flushing has not been succ essful. The next practical solution will be to carry out which of the following actions? A. List the ship to port in order to pump out the bilges for the remainder of the voyage. B. Place 75 Ltrs of fuel oil tank-wash into the affected bilge well for one hour to dissolve the stoppage. C. Take all necessary steps to properly and safely pump out the affected bilge well, then manually "muck" it out.
D. Change over and use one of the two remaining bilge pumps to dewater the starboard bilge well. Ans: C Which of the following actions should be taken FIRST if one bilge 2887 well of a multiple suction bilge system is unable to be pumped out?
A. disks and seats should be checked and lapped if necessary B. bonnet, flange gaskets should be renewed if they were cut or torn C. stem packing should be renewed if the packing has hardened, the glands have bottomed out, or the glands cannot be tightened D. all of the above
2888
A. Open the bilge pump for inspection. B. Remove each of the suction manifold valves. C. Remove only the suc tion manifold valve to the affected bilge well. D. Attempt to pump out another bilge well to determine if the entire system is affected. Ans: D An independent bilge suction is required for ________. 2889 A. ballast tanks B. sludge tanks C. machinery space bilges D. cargo hold bilges
2891
Ans: C Which of the following statements indicates compliance with Regulations concerning a vessel's bilge system?
During routine maintenance the bilge manifold valves are remov ed. Prior to resecuring the valve bonnets, the valve ________.
Ans: D Accidental flooding of the engine room bilges by the bilge main is prevented by ____________. A. stop-check valves installed in the bilge suction manifolds B. using a positive displacement reciprocating bilge pump C. installing eductors in all bilge rose boxes D. installing a swing check before each bilge v alve
2890
Ans: A The emergency bilge suction valve is typically used _____________. A. to inject cleaning additives when the bilges are extremely dirty
B. when the main condenser becomes fouled, in order to provide additional cooling water c irculation C. to connect the rose box to the independent bilge suction D. if the bilges become flooded and they can not be emptied by any other means Ans: D What can happen to oil based mud when contaminated with salt 2892 water?
Page 162
A. All bilge manifold suctions shall be capable of being locally controlled from above the floor plates. B. The system must be capable of operation under all practicable conditions after a casualty, whether the vessel is upright or listed. C. Peak tanks, chain lockers, and decks over peak tanks may be drained by eductors, ejectors, or hand pumps. D. All of the above.
2893
Ans: D Regulations for bilge and ballast piping require that ________.
A. all oil and water tanks be connected to the bilge system B. the bilge pumping system be operable under all practicable conditions C. peak tanks and chain lockers hav e separate electric pumps D. all of the above Ans: B Referring to Regulations , the emergency bilge system ________. 2895 has no independent primary pump is independent of the main bilge system has a cross connection to the ballast system is part of the independent bilge system B If one of the bilge manifold valves is prevented from seating, the ________. A. bilge-well connected to that valve, plus the second bilge-well being pumped will be completely emptied B. bilge system will lose vacuum, preventing other bilges from being pumped out
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2897
C. aftermost bilge-wells connected to that valve will siphon their contents to the forward bilge-wells D. all of the above Ans: B The bilge system is unable to pump out the aft starboard engine 2899 room bilge-well due to the bilge-well suction being fouled. With two feet of water over the top of the bilge-well, which of the following actions should be carried out?
A. Nothing, as salt water is an ingredient of oil based mud. B. Small amounts can cause thickening of the oil based fluid as well as a reduction in density. C. Small amounts react with gel particles in the m ud causing them to flocculate. D. The water will collect at the bottom of the tank and can not be stripped overboard. Ans: B Regulations require the emergency bilge system to ________. 2894 A. be independent of the main bilge system B. be a part of the independent bilge system C. have an independent priming pump D. have a cross c onnection to the ballast system Ans: A A compound gage is typically installed on the _____________. 2896 A. suction side of a bilge pump B. exhaust manifold of an auxiliary diesel C. discharge line from an air compressor D. chemical feed tank of an evaporator Ans: A If one of the bilge system manifold valves does not properly seat, 2898 the ________. A. bilge well connected to that valve, plus the second bilge well being pumped will be completely emptied B. bilge system will lose vacuum and prevent the other bilges from being pumped out C. bilge well aft connected to that valve will siphon its contents to the forward bilge wells D. all of the above Ans: B When a horizontal type centrifugal pump is used for dewatering the 2900 engine room bilges, you would ________. I. use a rotary, liquid piston type pump to obtain a prime II. partially open the sea suction valve, then gradually switch over to the require
A. Send the wiper into the bilge-well with a scoop and pail. B. Remove the effected bilge manifold valve and attempt to back flush the line. C. Simultaneously operate all available bilge pumps. D. Transfer half the contents of a drum of degreaser into the bilge well and pump out the bilge well with the system. Ans: B Bilge lines led through tanks, without using a pipe tunnel must be 2901 ___________. A. of schedule 40 pipe B. fitted with return valves at the bilge manifolds C. coated with coal tar epoxy, or similar corrosion resistant substance D. fitted with nonreturn valves at the bilge suc tions Ans: D The bilge system has been performing well; however, the aft 2903 starboard engine room bilge-well suddenly fails to be pumped out. Which of the following should be done first to determine the cause? A. Open the bilge pump for inspection. B. Remove each of the manifold valves. C. Remove only the manifold v alve to the affected bilge-well. D. Attempt to pump out another bilge well to determine if the entire system is affected. Ans: D The aft starboard bilge well is clogged, and back flushing has not 2905 been successful. The next practical solution would be to __________________. A. change the trim of the ship to port in order to pump out the bilges for the remainder of the voyage B. place 75.7 Ltrs (20 gallons) of fuel oil tank wash into the affected bilge well to clear the blockage C. properly and safely empty the well with a portable pump then manually muck it out
A. I only B. II only C. Either I or II D. Neither I nor II
2902
Ans: C Which of the equipment listed is most effective in processing bilge slops for overboard discharge? A. A 100 PPM oily water separator. B. Assembling the lube oil purifier as a separator and aligning it to the bilge overboard. C. A 15 PPM oily water separator.
D. A magnetic duplex strainer. Ans: C You are unable to pump out the aft starboard engine room bilge well 2904 that is fouled, with one foot of water over the top of the bilge well, what action should be carried out? A. Send the wiper into the well with only a scoop and pail. B. Remove the bilge manifold valve and attempt to back flush the line. C. Simultaneously operate all available bilge pumps. D. It is only necessary to transfer half the contents of a drum of degreaser into the bilge well. Ans: B
Page 163
D. all of the above Ans: C SANITARY AND SEWAGE SYSTEM The process of grinding, shredding, or reducing the size of sewage In sewage treatment, the term "maceration" refers to the process of 2907 particles is known as ________. ________. A. detension A. breaking up solid matter into fine particles B. maceration B. precipitating nondecomposed waste in a collection tank C. bulking C. chemically adjusting the sewage pH to 7.0 D. chlorinating D. eliminating bacterium coli from the sewage Ans: B Ans: A A P-type trap and drain is used _________. The drains of lavatory sinks are fitted with P-type or S-type traps to 2908 2909 _______. A. for all lavatory sink installations, as no other drain type is useable A. reduce water velocity and minimize erosion 2906
B. whenever the "gray" water drain system connection is located in the deck C. whenever the "gray" water drain system connection is located in a bulkhead D. as a condensate drain for superheaters Ans: C A vessel is in compliance with federal regulations regarding the 2910 discharge of sewage by ________. A. holding all sewage onboard B. treating sewage in an approved system C. pumping the sewage ashore to an approved container
D. provide a seal against sewer gas rising into the compartment Ans: D A pneumatic pressure tank is installed in a sanitary system to 2911 ________. A. reduce excessive cycling of the sanitary pump B. prevent the sanitary pump from losing suction C. provide a higher pressure in the system then the pump can deliver
D. all of the above Ans: D The flame screens installed on sewage system tank vents prevent 2912 explosions by ________. A. allowing the escape of flammable vapors B. dissipating the heat of a fire C. absorbing any flammable vapors in the vicinity D. preventing flammable vapors from entering the tank Ans: B An S-type trap and drain is used _____________. 2914 A. for all lavatory sink installations, as no other drain type is useable
D. increase water flow through the system Ans: A The process of grinding or s hredding sewage into smaller particles 2913 is known as _________. A. detention B. comminution C. bulking D. skimming Ans: B Traps in plumbing drains are designed to help prevent _____. 2915 A. drain noises in the living quarters
B. whenever the "gray" water drain system connection is located in the deck C. whenever the "gray" water drain system connection is located in a bulkhead D. as a condensate drain for superheaters Ans: B Traps at plumbing drain connections prevent ________. 2916
B. create a strong siphon effect C. provide a cushion of water to reduce the effects of water hammer
B. drains clogging at the toilets C. air pockets in the s ewer lines D. escape of odors into the living quarters Ans: D
A. system clogging B. escape of odors C. air pockets D. drain noises Ans: B HEAT EXCHANGERS Machinery operating features are designed to help conserveenergy. 2918 Which of the following results will not contributeto energy conservation?
2917
A. B. C. D. Ans:
Reduction of friction. Insulation of hot surfaces. Lubrication of moving parts. Elevation of cooler outlet temperatures. D The general purpose of a heat exchanger is to _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
eliminate hot air from the condenser maintain steady pressure in a system heat, or cool one fluid by means of another fluid reduce the engine room temperature in tropical climates C When a heat exchanger is used as a cooler, excessive cooling water flow should be avoided to prevent _____________.
2919
2921
A. erosive tube failure B. waterside deposit buildup C. tube sheet bowing D. water hammer damage Ans: A
The temperature differential occurring between the inlet temperature of the fluid to be cooled and the outlet temperature of the cooling medium in a s hell-and-tube heat exchanger is greatest in which of the flow designs listed?
Cross Parallel Counter Circular C The presence of scale and dirt on the saltwater side of a lube oil 2920 cooler is usually indicated by ___________. A. clogged lube oil strainers B. seawater leaking into the lube oil system C. decreasing lube oil pressure D. gradually increasing lube oil temperature Ans: D Zinc anodes are installed in a marine raw-water cooling system to 2922 _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
inhibit oxidation control electrolysis prevent scaling eliminate corrosion B
Page 164
In a heat exchanger, excessive fluid velocity should be avoided to prevent ____________. A. erosive tube failure B. waterside deposit buildup C. tube sheet bowing D. water hammer damage Ans: A The floating end of a shell-and-tube type cooler utilizes a packing 2925 ring to ____________. 2923
A. B. C. D.
2927
prevent leakage past the floating end tube sheet dissipate heat baffle cooling water so it can be directed on a multiple pass modify to a mixer type c ooler
Ans: A Hot water heating system converters are selected for the heating load required plus about 50% excess capacity to allow for ____________.
A. start-up and scaling B. unusual high demand on the system C. increase capacity during times of peak demand D. increase steam and water contact for better efficiency Ans: A Erosive tube failure in a heat exchanger can result from 2929 _____________. A. high temperature B. waterside fouling C. excessive cooling water velocity D. poor heat transfer Ans: C Zinc rods are installed in the refrigeration system _____________. 2931
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2933
liquid strainer liquid receiver saltwater condenser evaporator C When performing a hydrostatic test on a low pressure evaporator to determine the source of suspected air leaks you should use ___________.
A. fresh water at or above the ambient temperature B. circulated cold fresh water, while maintaining all normal unit operating pressures C. air and a soap solution to test all joints D. phosphorescent hydrazine bisodium solution visible under a black light source Ans: A Which of the following statements is c orrect concerning heat 2935 transfer? A. Heat is given off from a high temperature region known as a heat sink. B. Heat transfer rate is affected most by the size of the heat sink involved. C. Heat transfer rate is affected most by the temperature difference between the heat source and the heat sink. D. Heat transfer by radiation will occur only by mass motion of a fluid substance. Ans: C Which of the following conditions must exist for heat to flow from 2937 one object to another? A. The two objects must be in physical contact. B. The two objects must be the same s ize. C. There must be an existing temperature differential. D. There must be an existing weight differential. Ans: C In a shell-and-tube type heat exchanger, the most common cause 2939 of decreased performance is _____________. A. loose tube bundle baffle plates B. failure of the baffle plate C. rupture of the tube bundle D. fouling on the seawater side Ans: D
2924 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2926
Sacrificial zinc anodes are used on the saltwater side of heat exchangers to _________________. keep heat transfer surfaces shiny and clean prevent rapid accumulation of marine growth provide a protective coating on heat exchanger surfaces reduce electrolytic action on heat exchanger metals D When conducting a hydrostatic test on the distillate cooler shell of a flash type evaporator, liquid appears well inside one of the tubes. In order to correct this, you should _____________.
reroll the tube seal weld the tube plug the tube all of the above would be considered satisfactory as a temporary repair until permanent repairs may be conducted Ans: C Which of the copper alloys listed is commonly used in heat 2928 exchangers and possesses a high resistance to corrosion? A. B. C. D.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2930
Red brass Manganese bronze Copper beryllium Cupro-nickel D The zinc plates are located in the _____________.
A. saltwater side of the condenser B. refrigerant side of the condenser C. evaporator coils D. suction strainer Ans: A In a shell-and-tube type hydraulic fluid cooler, the amount of heat 2932 transferred from the hydraulic fluid to the cooling water depends upon ________________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2934
the temperature of the hydraulic fluid the flow rate of both the cooling water and the hydraulic fluid the temperature of the cooling water all of the above D The rate of heat transfer between the hot and cold fluids passing through a shell-and-tube type heat exchanger will ____________.
A. remain constant along the tube's length B. be greatest in a s ingle pass counter flow heat exchanger C. remain constant throughout the heat exchanger D. vary from section to section through out the heat exchanger
2936
Ans: D An 8-inch, globe-type, stop-check valve has been installed in the lube-oil cooler water outlet, with the flow coming in from the top of the disk. This means that _____________. A. the valve will remain completely open B. the valve will prevent back flow C. the valve will never permit water flow from the lube oil cooler
D. the valve will allow the lube oil temperature to be 10‚F (5.5°C) cooler than if the valve were properly installed Ans: C Expansion of the tube bundle in a shell-and-tube type cooler may 2938 be provided for by the _______________. A. packing and lantern rings B. floating end tube sheet C. shell foundation bolts D. directional transverse baffles Ans: B Evaporators and condensers are two forms of _____________. 2940 A. heat exchangers B. liquid receivers C. storage receptacles D. flow inhibitors Ans: A
Page 165
When checking zinc plates, or pencils in the refrigerating system In heat exchangers, seawater pressure should be maintained lower 2942 condenser, you should _____________. than freshwater pressure to _____________. A. paint and insulate the plates to prevent corrosion A. eliminate scaling problems on the saltwater side B. renew the plates at each inspection B. reduce erosion of heat exchanger surfaces C. replace the zincs if deteriorated by 50% C. ease the load on the saltwater service pump D. file the plates to change the negative value D. prevent contamination should leaks develop Ans: C Ans: D Which of the following statements is true concerning a radiator type 2944 Heat exchanger tubes can be protected against erosion and 2943 heat exchanger? abrasion by the use of _________. A. Raw water is the cooling medium. A. metallic packing on the inlet end B. Water cooled exhaust elbows remove the heat. B. fiber bushings in the ferrules C. The surge tank must be located a minimum of 4 feet abov e the C. zinc pencils on the waterside highest finned tube. D. Air flow provided by a fan is used as the cooling medium. D. plastic tube end protectors Ans: D Ans: D FUEL OIL PROPERT IES AND PURIFIERS The tendency of a flammable liquid to v aporize is indicated by its Which of the following statements describes the relationship 2945 2946 ____________. between flash point and ignition temperature? A. ignition temperature A. Both are higher than normal burning temperatures. B. flash point B. The flash point is always higher. C. flammable range C. The ignition temperature is always higher. D. convection index D. They are not necessarily related. Ans: B Ans: C The lowest temperature required to cause self-sustained In order to maximize the performance of an operatingcentrifuge, 2947 2948 combustion of a substance independent of any outside source of you can adjust the fuel oil _______. I. viscosity II. through put ignition is called ____________. 2941
explosive range flash point ignition temperature combustion temperature C The flash point of bunker fuel is defined as the __________. A. lowest temperature at which the fuel oil will give off enough vapor to momentarily flash into flame when ignited B. lowest temperature at which the fuel oil will give off enough vapor to continue to burn once ignited C. temperature the fuel oil must be heated to for proper atomization
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2949
2950
B. temperature at which paraffin wax begins to crystallize out of the solution C. lowest temperature at which it vaporizes enough to form an explosive air/vapor mixture D. ability of a fuel to ignite upon injection into a diesel engine cylinder
D. temperature at which the fuel oil will burn in a boiler furnace
2951
Ans: A The lowest temperature at which fuel combustion becomes selfsustaining in the presence of a source of ignition, is defined as the ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
2953 A. B. C. D.
2955
autoignition point flash point burning temperature fire point D Which of the following statements describes the relationship between viscosity and specific gravity? Liquids with different viscosities will always have the same specific gravity. Liquids with different viscosities will never have the same specific gravity. Viscosity and specific gravity are directly proportional. Viscosity and specific gravity are not related in that one does not define or limit the other.
Ans: D The ash content of a fuel oil is significant to the operating engineer because it _____________. A. indicates the quanity of energy released by burning a unit amount of fuel B. is useful for determining proper atomization temperatures C. reflects the overall thermal efficiency of the fuel oil serv ice systems
D. is an indication of the amount of noncombustble material present in the oil Ans: D The lowest temperature at which fuel oil gives off sufficient vapor 2957 to momentarily flash into flame when ignited is defined as the ____________. A. burning temperature B. ignition temperature C. fire point
I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II C The flash point of a liquid is the _____________. A. temperature at which it burns freely
A. B. C. D. Ans:
2952
Ans: C The lowest temperature at which the vapors of a flammable liquid will ignite and cause self-sustained combustion in the presence of a spark or flame is the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
2954 A. B. C. D.
2956
autoignition temperature vaporization temperature flash point fire point D The ash content of a fuel oil is significant to the operating engineer because it _____________. is an indication of the amount of noncombustible material present in the oil indicates the quantity of energy released by burning a unit amount of the fuel is useful for determining proper atomization temperatures reflects the overall thermal efficiency of the fuel oil service system
Ans: A Which of the following statements is correct concerning the "flash point" of a liquid? A. It is lower than the ignition temperature. B. It is the temperature at which a substance will ignite.
spontaneously
C. It is the temperature at which a substance, when ignited, will continue to burn. D. It is the temperature at which the released vapors will fall within the explosive range. Ans: A The tendency of a liquid to v aporize is indicated by its 2958 ____________. A. fire point B. pour point C. flash point
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D. flash point Ans: D The lowest temperature at which fuel oil gives off sufficient vapor 2959 to burn continuously when ignited is defined as the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2961 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2963
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2965 A. B. C. D. Ans: 2967 A. B. C. D.
2969
burning temperature autoignition temperature flash point fire point D The percentage of impurities in a specific fuel oil sample is determined by _____________. settling in a fuel tank testing in a laboratory centrifuge burning in a calorimeter testing in a closed cup B In order to maximize the performance of a centrifuge, youcan adjust the _______. I. number of disks in the stack II. frequency shooting the bowl I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II D The substance primarily responsible for heat loss in the combustion process is _____________. sulphur carbon hydrogen nitrogen D What is the harmful effect of sulfur in a fuel? It causes excessive smoking and soot at low firing rates. It doesn't readily burn when combined with oxygen. It clogs fuel oil strainers more often. It forms a c orrosive acid when mixed with water or water vapor.
D. boiling point Ans: C The size of the discharge ring used for the efficient operation of a 2960 disk type purifier is dependent upon the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 2962
rated capacity of that purifier viscosity of the oil being purified maximum design speed of that purifier specific gravity of the oil being purified D The flash point of a liquid refers to the temperature ____________.
A. at which a liquid will give off inflammable vapors B. at which a liquid will burn steadily C. at which a liquid will explode D. that a liquid must reach before it will flow readily Ans: A The temperature, in degrees Celsius, at which a liquid gives off a 2964 flammable vapor when heated in an open cup tester is called the _____________. fire point flash point vaporization temperature ignition temperature B The flash point of a petroleum product is an indication of its 2966 _____________. A. viscosity B. pour point C. volatility D. lower explosive limit Ans: C The volatility of any oil may be indicated by _____________. 2968 A. the flash point B. the fire point C. the autogenous ignition point D. All of the above. A. B. C. D. Ans:
Ans: D It is the duty of the Chief Engineer to acquire and seal a sample of fuel oil received whenever fuel oil bunkers are taken. This sample must be preserved until ______________.
Ans: D
A. the voyage is completed B. that particular supply of oil is exhausted C. it can be sent ashore to the proper oil company personnel for testing and the results entered in the Oil Record Book, CG-480 D. return to the first port where upon it must be sent ashore for chemical analysis and the findings submitted to the nearest Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection Ans: B MARINE CONTROL SYSTEMS AND INSTRUMENTATION The controller set point of an automatic control s ystem is 65°C. The 2971 In a pneumatic automation system, a unit producing a signal to valve closes when the output temperature reaches 70°C, and govern the position of the controller of the measured variable, reopens when the temperature falls below 60°C. The type of relative to the value of the measured variable, is said to have positioning action in this controller is known as ________. _______________.
2970
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2972
one-position single-point two-position single-point one-position differential-gap two-position differential-gap D If the loading air pressure for a diaphragm controlled valve drops below the designed operating pressure, the valve will ________________.
fail to stroke open stroke slowly through its operating range stroke rapidly closed fail to stroke through its complete range D The effect of "reset", when added to a proportional controller is to _______________. A. make the controller correction proportional to the rate at which the input change takes place B. accelerate the corrective action so as to minimize the possibility of hunting
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2973
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2974
reset action proportional action two position action rate action B Every automated machinery plant must have an "engineer's assistance" alarm. Power for this alarm should be taken from the _________________.
main bus emergency bus standby generator general alarm power supply D Which of the following statements expresses the function of proportional-plus-reset action? A. The action measures the rate of time of the final control element.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2975
B. The action gives control without offset under all load conditions.
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C. make the corrective action of the controller proportional to the deviation of the controlled variable from the s et point D. repeat the proportional action until the controlled variable returns to the set point Ans: D One disadvantage of proportional-position action is that 2976 __________. A. corrective action is only proportional to offset B. exact correction can be made only when there is no change in load
D. The action is very unstable for anything but constant load conditions. Ans: B Filters are installed ahead of air line lubricators for the primary 2977 purpose of removing ___________. A. the heat of compression B. air supply pressure pulses
C. the controlled variable is stabilized D. the corrective action is only proportional to the deviation Ans: D The cylinder unloading mechanism used on low pressure air 2978 compressors is an example of which mode of control?
C. moisture in the air supply D. turbulence in the air supply Ans: C Which of the listed devices would be installed at a control system air 2979 pressure reducing station?
A. Two position B. Derivative C. Integral D. Single speed floating Ans: A Reset control is also referred to as ____________. 2980 A. proportional speed floating control B. derivative control C. rate control D. proportional control Ans: A The quantity or condition which is measured and controlled is 2982 known as the ____________. A. controlled variable B. manipulated variable C. set point D. control point Ans: A The reset process control mode is also considered to be the same 2984 as _________. I. proportional speed floating control II. derivative control
A. Moisture separator B. Vacuum breaker C. Lubricator D. Nonreturn valve Ans: A Reset control is also referred to as ____________. 2981 A. derivative control B. integral control C. rate control D. proportional control Ans: B A computing relay is used in a pneumatic control system to 2983 _______________. A. extract square roots B. square C. divide D. all of the above Ans: D A mode of control, whereby the speed of motion of the final control 2985 element is linearly proportional to the dev iation of the controlled variable from set point, is called _________.
A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II Ans: A Which of the following definitions can be used to define the term 2986 "offset" as a c haracteristic of controller action? A. The period of time in which the set point and the control point coincide. B. The periodic change between the set point and the control point.
C. The variable difference between the set point and the control point. D. The constant difference between the set point and the control point. Ans: D Why is it necessary to spin the piston of a dead weight gage tester 2988 while carrying out the calibrations of pressure gages? A. Prevent formation of a vacuum. B. Eliminate the formation of air bubbles. C. Prevent the piston rod from sticking. D. To assist in calibrating the dead weight tester. Ans: C The control mode in which the final control element is moved from 2990 one of two fixed positions to the other is known as _______________. dead band action neutral zone action range on-off action D A hydrometer measures specific gravity by comparing the ______________. A. density of a substance in water with the density of the same subject in air
C. The action combines proportional-position action and rate action.
2987
C. The variation of the manipulated variable produced by the mode of control. D. The time difference between the input change and the output change of the controller. Ans: A A mandatory characteristic of a pure amplifier is that 2989 _______________. A. the form of the input and output energies must be the same B. the ratio of the output to the input must always be greater than the numerical value of "one" C. the form of the input and output energies must be different D. the action must be either integral or derivative Ans: A A control action which produces a corrective signal relative to the 2991 speed at which the controlled variable is c hanging is known as _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2992
B. differences in weight between water and the liquid measured
rate control derivative control two position control integral control D Which of the following definitions best describes sensitivity as a characteristic of controller action? A. The ratio of the output in response to a specified change to the input which caused it. B. The steady state difference between the control point and the v alue of the controlled variable corresponding to the set point.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
reset action integral action derivative action proportional action C In an automated control system, which of the following statements would apply to any type of closed loop system? A. The manipulated variables are adjusted only from the input demand signals without monitoring the outlet conditions or variables.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 2993
B. Another term commonly used in conjunction with this type of system is "feed forward."
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C. mass of substance measured with the density of the same substance D. buoyancy of an object in water with the buoyancy of the same object in the liquid being measured
2994
Ans: D Information from a data-logger can be helpful in determining the long term probability of machinery failure if you _____________.
C. The controlled variable must always deviate from its s et point before any corrective action is initiated by the controller. D. In order for a system to fall under the category of closed loop control, there should be no adjustments required to be made manually by the operator. 2995
A. evaluate only the latest logged data as this is the best indication of plant status
A. any two pressures measured with respect to a common reference
B. evaluate a series of readings to obtain operating trends
B. atmospheric pressure and barometric pressure at a given point
C. monitor off limit conditions only when announced by an audible and visual signal D. secure the machine under relatively steady state conditions Ans: B If the flow rate to a linear actuator is reduced by half of the original 2996 amount, the _____________. A. pump discharge pressure will be reduced by a proportional amount B. C. D. Ans: 2998
speed of the actuator will be reduced speed of the actuator will be increased the actuator will move erratically B The mandatory operating characteristic of a pure amplifieris the _______. I. form of the input and output energy must be the sameII. ratio of the output change to input change must be a value greater than 1 (one)
A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II Ans: A Reset control is considered to be the same as _________. I. 3000 proportional speed floating control II. integral control I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II C What is the value of the controlled variable that the automatic 3002 controller operates to maintain. A. Set point B. Control point C. Deviation D. Offset Ans: B Differential pressures can be measured with the use of a 3004 _____________. A. diaphragm type gage B. pressure transducer C. manometer D. all of the above Ans: D A pneumercator is useful in measuring ____________________. 3006
C. gage pressure and ambient atmospheric pressure D. a perfect vacuum and the total pressure at a given point Ans: D The characteristic of "offset" is inherent with which modeof control? 2997 I. proportional control II. reset control A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II Ans: A To avoid corrosion and/or oxidation of the element, a thermometer 2999 bulb is often protected by a "well" or casing. In addition to protecting the element, the "well" will also ________________. A. cause consistently higher than actual readings B. cause consistently lower than ac tual readings C. require a longer time for the element to reach thermal equilibrium with the system being measured D. increase the sensitivity of the element Ans: C A mechanical and/or hydraulic action preventing the over3001 correction of the fuel supply, while producing transient speed droop is called _______________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3008
Ans: C In pressure measurement, absolute pressure is defined as the difference in pressure between _________________.
relative humidity air pressure liquid levels in tanks fluid pneumercations C Main engine room control console alarms are to be of the self monitoring type, meaning that an open circuit to a particular alarm circuit will _____________.
A. cause an alarm condition B. secure power to the indicator C. secure power to the monitored device D. automatically reclose within 10 seconds Ans: A A compound Bourdon tube type pressure gage is capable of 3010 measuring ______________. A. temperature and pressure B. wet bulb and dry bulb temperatures
stability hunting compensation sensitivity C At which of the following locations would a duplex pressure gage most likely be located? A. Fuel oil service pump discharge flange B. Fuel oil strainer C. Fuel oil heater D. Fuel oil flow meter Ans: B In order to accurately measure v ery low pressures, which of the instruments listed should be used? A. Compound gage B. Bourdon tube C. Manometer D. Deadweight gage Ans: C The instrument used to indicate the level of a fluid in a tank is called a _______________. A. fluid meter B. calorimeter C. viscosimeter D. pneumercator Ans: D Which of the following alarms and instrumentation is not required for a vessel incorporating a c ontrollable pitch propeller in its main propulsion system? A. B. C. D. Ans:
3003
3005
3007
3009
Pitch indicator Low oil temperature High oil pressure Low oil pressure B The instrument always used in conjunction with a s alinometer is a _____________. A. pyrometer B. thermometer
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3011
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C. humidity and temperature D. pressure and vacuum Ans: D The control mode that is generally not used by itself is 3012 _________________. A. reset control B. integral control C. derivative control D. two position differential gap control Ans: C While attempting to read a tank level indicator, the mercury column 3014 drops rapidly. This may indicate ____________. A. a leak in the gage line B. free surface effect in the tank C. an improperly calibrated gage D. excess air in the balance chamber Ans: A A fuel oil tank pneumercator will give an inaccurate reading if the 3016 ____________. A. pneumercator is recharged with the air supply open B. pneumercator balance chamber bleed orifice is blocked by the oil being measured C. pressure in the system is allowed to equalize D. operating cock is placed in the "vent" position when the system is not in use Ans: B Moisture and impurities can be removed from pneumatic systems 3018 by using ______________. air intake heaters desiccated suction strainers multi-orificed suction v alves blowdown valves and filters D The type of gage most commonly used to measure pressure is the 3020 _____________. A. bimetallic type B. diaphragm type C. bourdon tube type D. resistance-temperature type Ans: C In the operation of a proportional-plus-reset controller,the 3022 proportional action _________. I. opposes the reset action during decreasing error transients II. aids the reset action during increasing error transients
C. hygrometer D. hydrometer Ans: B A closed loop pneumatic control system always operates with 3013 _____________. A. a fixed final control element position B. simple on/off control C. no controller feedback D. feedback to the controller Ans: D A pressure gage pointer responding sluggishly to changes in 3015 pressure, should be repaired by ______________. A. tapping the gage housing lightly B. bending the needle to free the linkage C. cleaning the residue from gear teeth D. greasing the hair spring Ans: C In an automation system, increasing or decreasing the loading 3017 pressure by a set amount is known as _____________. A. positioning B. proportioning C. biasing D. controlling
3019
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3021
A. the driving voltage of the meter batteries can damage the circuit meter B. the pyrometer total resistance can damage the ohmmeter C. the reactance of the pyrometer will give a false meter reading
B. II only C. Both I and II
3024
Ans: C A proportional band or range adjustment to a bourdon tubepressure gage is accomplished by ___________. I. adjusting the effective moment arm length between the end of the bourdon tube and the quadrant gear fulcrum II. adjusting the pointer position
A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II Ans: A In checking the level of a tank, three pneumercator readings have 3026 been taken. If each reading is higher than the last, this indicates that _____________. A. excessive charging air was supplied B. insufficient charging air has been supplied C. the relief valve is sticking D. the tubing between the tank and the gauge has a leak Ans: B In an automation system, the effect of a control action sensed by a 3028 controller is known as _____________. A. command input B. set point signal
absolute pressure latent pressure flow pressure atmospheric pressure D Temperature measurement is an indication of the ___________.
A. level of heat intensity B. total heat of a substance C. rate of heat transfer from one substance to another D. total heat contained in any closed energy system Ans: A Prior to testing the pyrometer circuit wiring for continuitywith a 3023 multimeter, you should disconnect the pyrometerbecause ____________.
A. I only
D. Neither I nor II
Ans: C A compound gage is used for measuring pressures both above and below _______________.
D. meter current running through the pyrometer will permanently magnetize the pyrometer's pointer Ans: A A set point adjustment to a bourdon tube pressure gage 3025 isaccomplished by ___________. I. adjusting the effective moment arm length between the end of the bourdon tube and the quadrant gear fulcrum II. adjusting the pointer position relative to the A. B. C. D. Ans: 3027
I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II B Devices, such as a pressure gage, that are subject to continuous expansion and contraction are affected by hysteresis. This is a natural process that ___________.
A. allows a material to return to its exact original shape B. permits a resilient material to return to its almost original shape C. allows a resiliant material to resist permanent deformation D. is directly related to a material's elastic limit Ans: B A pneumercator is an instrument used to indicate __________. 3029 A. air pressure in the diesel engine starting circuit B. phosphates in boiler water
Page 170
C. output D. feedback Ans: D The value of the controlled variable, which under any fixed set of 3030 conditions the automatic controller operates to maintain, is known as ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 3032
set point control point deviation offset B A control action which produces a corrective signal relative to the length of time the controlled variable has been away from the set point, is known as ____________.
A. integral action B. proportional action C. rate action D. derivative action Ans: A "Offset" is an inherent characteristic of which of the following types 3034 of control modes? A. B. C. D. Ans: 3036
Two position Proportional Reset Rate B A mode of control, whereby the position of the final control element is linearly proportional to the rate of change of the controlled variable, is called _______________________.
reset control integral control two position control derivative control D The two most common gases used in pneumatic systems are _____________. A. compressed air and nitrogen B. helium and nitrogen C. oxygen and hydrogen D. oxygen and acetylene
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3038
3040
Ans: A Automatic control valves for steam service require periodic maintenance inspections because they ___________. A. are subjected to high compressive stress B. are subjected to a wide range of temperatures and pressures C. continuously throttle steam resulting in wire drawing and erosion of the valve D. receive high pressure air from the pilot valve
3042
Ans: C When a controller with proportional position action is used to control a process, a load change will cause the controlled variable to stabilize at some value other than the set point value. The new point at which the controlled variable stabilizes is ca A. B. C. D. Ans:
3044
offset deviation control point load point C A rotameter, when used to indicate the rate of fluid flow in distilling plants, is essentially an area meter consisting of a _____________.
A. movable float riding on a rod centered in a tapered tube B. piston uncovering a port whose opening is directly proportional to fluid flow C. movable orifice plate venturi tube and high pressure tap D. rotating vane transmitting nutating motion to a counter mechanism Ans: A
C. tank fluid level D. micro ohms in condensate Ans: C The steady state difference between the control point and the v alue 3031 of the controlled variable, corresponding with the set point, is known as _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
dead band control point deviation offset D While calibrating a bourdon tube pressure gage, all readings are found to be 0.7 kgs higher throughout its entire range. An adjustment should be made by ____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
increasing the sector to pivot point length resetting the pointer on its shaft decreasing the sector to pivot point length increase the set screw length B The meat box temperature control circuit, as used in the ship service refrigeration system, is an example of ____________.
3033
3035
A. two position control B. single speed floating control C. proportional control D. reset control Ans: A When a controller is provided with reset rate adjustment, a change 3037 in this adjustment results in a change of the _______________. desired value of the proportionally controlled variable floating rate of the proportional-speed floating component value representing the readjusted controlled variable desired prepositioned value of the controlled medium B When "reset" action is added to proportional action, the proportional 3039 action ______________. A. aids the reset action during decreasing error transients B. aids the reset action during increasing error transients C. opposes the reset action during increasing error transients D. and reset action are completely independent of one another in the controller operation Ans: B When "reset" action is added to proportional action 3041 _________________. A. the proportional action opposes the reset action during decreasing error transients B. the proportional action opposes the reset action during increasing error transients C. the proportional action assists the reset action during decreasing error transients D. the proportional action and the reset action are c ompletely independent of one another in the controller operation Ans: A Which of the following control actions, when combined with 3043 proportional-position action, will eliminate manual repositioning of the set point for each load change to produce an automatic reset action? A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3045
Neutral band Floating action Reciprocal action Rate action B Double seated, pneumatically controlled, regulating valves exhibit good balancing characteristics essential for low-sensitivity applications because __________.
A. high pressure enters between the seats and creates equal, but opposing forces B. they employ a specially fabricated diaphragm C. the feedback control signals balance the opposing forces acting on the diaphragm D. the special diaphragm motor spring resists pressure changes Ans: A
Page 171
The probable cause of erratic operation of a pneumatically controlled steam pressure reducing valve is ____________. A. the range spring has become weakened B. an incorrect loading pressure supplied to the power unit C. a partially restricted loading air pressure line D. a pinhole in the power diaphragm Ans: C If you turn the handwheel clockwise of a spring-loaded, internal 3048 pilot, reducing valve, you will ____________. A. compress the adjusting spring against the diaphragm B. release spring tension from the diaphragm C. increase steam pressure to the reducing valve D. decrease spring tension in the main valve Ans: A Why is it necessary to hav e the weight bearing piston of a 3050 deadweight gage tester spinning when testing a gage for proper calibration? 3046
A. Minimizes piston drag and reduces tester error. B. Prevents vibration errors in the gage tester. C. Minimizes piston speed and reduces tester error. D. Allows trapped air below the piston to escape. Ans: A Biasing, in a pneumatic automated combustion control system, 3052 refers to a set amount of increase or decrease in the_________. control pressure loading pressure supply pressure rate relay pressure B The moisture sensitive element of a humidistat can be made of 3054 _____________. A. hair B. copper C. plastic D. steel Ans: A A pyrometer is capable of producing a voltage by __________. 3056
A compound Bourdon tube gage is capable of measuring pressure and _______________. A. humidity B. vacuum C. temperature D. density Ans: B How may the response time for a thermometer using a protective 3049 well be reduced? A. Fill the well with nitrogen. B. Fill the well with water. C. Drill small holes in the well. D. Pack the space around the bulb with graphite. Ans: D The portion of a mechanism that utilizes manual positioning, or 3051 automatic indexing, is known as a detent. An example of a detent used aboard ship can be found in a/an ____________. 3047
3058
chemical reaction light striking a photo sensitive substance heating a junction of two dissimilar metals squeezing crystals of certain substances C In the operation of a proportional-plus-reset controller,the proportional action _________. I. and the reset action are completely independent of one another II. opposes reset action during decreasing error transients
I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II B To ensure an acc urate pneumercator reading, you should 3060 _____________. A. purge the balance chamber to remove any liquid B. read the bottom of the mercury meniscus C. take the reading with the operating cock in the vent position D. make certain the tank has been bled of air Ans: A When checking the level of a fuel oil tank using a pneumercator, 3062 the initial reading obtained can be quickly verified by _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
blow out the gage line with compressed air tap the gage body with a wrench remove the gage bezel and slightly move the needle replace the gage or hav e it calibrated D A pneumercator tank gage utilizes ______________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
a Bourdon tube indicator a balance chamber an electronic sensing line all of the above B A solenoid valve is operated by magnetic action through _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
suction pressure at the compressor an electrically energized coil superheat at the evaporator outlet coil a vacuum operated bellows B In the operation of a proportional-plus-reset controller,the proportional action _________. I. aids the reset action during increasing error transients II. and the reset action are completely independent of one another
3055
3057
3059
A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II Ans: A A pneumercator measures the liquid level in a tank bysensing 3061 ___________. I. head pressure II. liquid density A. I only B. II only C. both I and II D. neither I nor II Ans: A The control mode where the position of the final control element has 3063 a linear relationship with the position or value of the controlled variable, is known as _____________.
A. repeating the process and getting the s ame reading again B. sounding the tank with a tape coated with a fuel indicating paste C. a gauge reading of zero when the control handle is in the purge position D. a gauge reading equal to supply air pressure when the control handle is in the purge position Ans: A The range of values through which the input can be varied without 3064 initiating an output response is known as _________. A. deviation B. offset C. sensitivity
rheostat engine order telegraph valve handwheel fuel/air ratio control knob B If you suspect that a gage is sticking and giving an inaccurate reading, you should ___________.
3053
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. two position control B. proportion control C. reset control D. rate control
3065
Ans: B The ratio of output response to a specified change in the input is known as ____________. A. primary feedback B. deviation C. sensitivity
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D. dead band Ans: D A proportional band, or range adjustment of a bourdon tube 3066 pressure gage is acc omplished by ______________. A. adjusting the effective moment arm length between the bourdon tube and the quadrant gear fulcrum B. adjusting the pointer position relative to the shaft on which it is mounted C. changing out the pointer pinion
D. dead band Ans: C The set point adjustment of a bourdon tube pressure gage is 3067 accomplished by ___________. A. adjusting the effective moment arm length between the bourdon tube and the quadrant gear fulcrum B. adjusting the pointer position relative to the shaft on which it is mounted C. adjusting the pointer position by bending the free end of the pointer
D. flattening the cross-section of the bourdon tube Ans: A Which of the following control modes is generally not used by itself? 3068
D. flattening the cross section of the bourdon tube Ans: B A pure transducer utilizes _____________. 3069
Two position action Proportional action Integral action Derivative action D Which of the following elements is comm on to all indicating 3070 instruments? A. An electrical input B. A bourdon tube C. A reset button D. A calibrated scale Ans: D Which of the following proportional band values most closely 3072 approaches "ON-OFF" control?
integral action rate action proportional action derivative action C The mode of control employed by an alarm circuit is a 3071 _____________. A. two position control B. single speed floating control C. proportional speed floating control D. reset control Ans: A The response line installed in a pneumatic proportional action 3073 controller functions to __________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. -0.1 B. 0.02 C. 1 D. 5 Ans: B Increasing the "reset rate" of a proportional-plus-reset controller 3074 ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 3076
narrows the proportional band widens the proportional band repeats the proportional action more frequently increase the stability of the controller C The amount of change of a controlled variable that is necessary to cause a specific change in the position of the final control element depends upon the ____________.
differential gap adjustment range of valve opening proportional band adjustment of the controller form of the controlled medium C A pneumercator is used to indicate fuel oil _____________. 3078 A. pressure B. level C. temperature D. flow Ans: B When the vessel's steering wheel on the navigation bridge is 3080 turned, the difference existing between the position of the wheel and that of the rudder is known as ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
proportional band the error signal the reset signal feedback B A compound gage is used to measure _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
temperature and pressure humidity and temperature pressure and vacuum pressure and humidity C A primary element used with flow measurement devices highly suitable for liquids containing solids in suspension, is a ____________.
3082
3084
A. concentric orifice
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. monitor the accuracy of the measuring element B. provide a feedback signal for accurate final element positioning C. regulate the air supply in the line to the nozzle D. readjust the total spring force in the air control relay Ans: B A two-position single-point action controller has been adjusted to 3075 minimize cycling and would only be suitable for ____________. A. constant load conditions B. intermittent load conditions C. wide temperature fluctuations D. rate action only Ans: A A controller with floating action has a controlled variable where the 3077 range of values produces no motion of the final control element. This range of values is called the _______________. A. neutral zone B. set point C. control point D. offset Ans: A A pyrometer is generally used to measure _________. 3079 A. grains of moisture per cubic foot of air B. salinity concentration of condensate C. stack temperature D. level of a fluid in a tank Ans: C The gage most commonly used aboard ship to measure high 3081 pressures is the ___________. volatile liquid-type diaphragm actuated-type Bourdon tube-type resistance-temperature-type C Any restriction in the instrument air piping of a pneumatic control 3083 system will _______________. A. delay transmission of the air signal B. increase the transmitted air s ignal intensity C. reduce the transmitted air signal value D. accelerate transmission of the air signal Ans: A Restrictions occuring in the small orifices of pneumatic control 3085 system components can be caused by _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. moisture in the compressed air supply
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B. C. D. Ans: 3086
convergent nozzle venturi tube pilot tube C Which of the listed characteristics is typical of a strip chart graphic recorder?
A. The time graduations fan out from the center. B. The data charts are more easily stored than the circular charts.
A. Bourdon tube B. spring return arm
C. The variable being measured is drawn on rectangular coordinates.
C. compound diaphragm
D. Strip charts are more difficult to read than circular charts. Ans: C On tank vessels using an automatic tape wells, free movement of 3088 the tape is normally checked by _______________________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 3090
removing the side plate operating the hand clutch comparing with a hand tape using litmus paste B On tank vessels using an automatic tape well for gaging tanks, the hand clutch is used to _____________.
A. adjust the tape weight B. lower the thieving rod C. roll up the tape D. calibrate the tank Ans: C Most solenoid valves are actuated by _________. 3092 A. B. C. D. Ans:
a spring an electromagnet the force of gravity refrigerant pressure B The vessel's steering gear is a classic example of a positioner type automation system. The variable input is provided through the steering wheel, and the rudder position is fed back to the operating mechanism. The difference between the input signal an
A. B. C. D. Ans:
system differential proportional band error command input C When a bourdon tube pressure gage is tested and found to be inaccurate, adjustment must be made to obtain the correct readings. The distance between the pointer spindle and the link connection to the sector gear will be changed when the ____________.
3094
3096
B. excessive dryness in the compressed air supply C. pressure surging in the compressed air receiver D. insufficient lubrication of the system c omponents Ans: A When the pressure on a compound gage is released, the gage 3087 pointer is returned to zero psig by action of the _________.
A. pointer does not travel the correct distance as test weight is added B. proportional amount of pointer travel for each weight added is correct, but the total reading is wrong C. reading is correct only at the working pressure D. readings are correct only at the minimum and maximum ends of the scale Ans: A
D. compensating spring Ans: A With regards to fluid flow control, an advantage of pneumatic 3089 control systems over electrical control systems is ________________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 3091
practically no limit to the power available for a given system no transmission losses low energy input continued control through temporary electrical power losses D Which of the following statements is true concerning the instrumentation or alarms provided at the main control station for an automated main propulsion plant?
A. Nonvital alarms are separated from v ital alarms. B. Provisions are made through simulation or actual condition for testing all audible and visual alarms and indicating lights. C. All alarm circuits should be in operation when the system is on the line. D. All of the above. Ans: D The type of gage most commonly used to measure pressure is the 3093 _____________. A. bimetallic type B. diaphragm type C. bourdon tube type D. resistance-temperature type Ans: C When the pressure applied to a Bourdon tube-type pressure gage 3095 is reduced to atmospheric pressure, the tube will begin to "bend" towards the center of arc. Small variations develop preventing the tube from returning to its exact original shape due to th A. hysteresis B. compression C. homiostatious deformation D. gas eddys Ans: A
Page 174
SHIP CONSTRUCTION, REPAIRS AND REGULATIONS The gasket and the broken studs have been replaced on a tank Vertical transverse structures in the double bottom are known as 3098 manhole cover. Which of the following methods is satisfactory for _________. testing the repair?
3097
A. Pressurize the tank with 0.7kg/cm2 air, soap the repaired area, watch for visible signs of leakage or bubbles. B. Fill the tank with water via the ballast pump until the innage reading corresponds to the maximum depth of the tank. C. Hose test the repaired area with a minimum of 7 kg/cm2 water pressure. D. Fill the tank via the ballast pump until water flows from the vent line opening on deck. Ans: C The garboard strake is located ____________. 3099 A. at the very bottom center B. just under the sheer line C. at each side of the keel D. at the turn of the bilge Ans: C Structural members used to support and transmit the downward 3101 force of the load and distribute that force over a large area, are called ______________. pillars stanchions columns all of the above D Vertical support members used to strengthen bulkheads are called 3103 _____________. A. stiffeners B. panels C. stanchions D. brackets Ans: A The inner bottom of a ship is the _____________. 3105 A. plating forming the engine room tank top B. doubler plating installed over the flat keel plate C. watertight boundary formed by the skin of the ship D. compartment between the tank top and skin of the ship Ans: A The part of the anchor windlass that engages the anchor chain for 3107 lifting is called the _____________. A. warping head
A. pillars B. floors C. ceilings D. stanchions Ans: B The end joint formed by adjoining plates in a hull plating strake is properly identified as a ____________. A. bracket B. scarph C. butt D. seam Ans: C The welded joint located between two plates in the same strake of 3102 hull plating is called a _____________. 3100
A. B. C. D. Ans:
3104
3106
3108
B. fairlead C. wildcat D. capstan Ans: C The collision bulkhead is located _________. 3109
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3111
on the bridge deck between the passenger and cargo areas at the stern of the ship as the first watertight bulkhead aft of the bow in the ship D According to Regulations , how many means of escape must be provided in spaces where the crew may be quartered or employed?
A. Two, both of which must be through watertight doors. B. Two, both of which are located as close together as possible to centralize escape routes. C. Two, at least one of which shall be independent of watertight doors. D. Two, both of which must be vertical ladders terminating in locked watertight scuttles. Ans: C Who is responsible for ensuring that someone is assigned to close 3113 the watertight doors in an emergency? A. Crew member B. Master of the vessel C. Chief Engineer D. Chief Mate
bracket scarf lap butt D The double bottom in a vessel is a space comprised of ______________. A. plating forming the engine room tank top B. doubler plating installed over the flat keel plate C. a watertight boundary formed by the inner bottom D. compartments between the inner and outer bottoms Ans: D A shot of anchor chain has a length of ____________. A. 6 fathoms B. 12 fathoms C. 15 fathoms D. 45 fathoms Ans: C Which of the following precautions should always be carriedout in drydock? A. Liquids should never be transferred between tanks without consulting the dock master. B. If sea valves hav e been disassembled, all bonnets must be checked for leakage when the ship is refloated. C. Before refloating, all sea chest strainers should be verified as having been replaced. D. All of the above. Ans: D Regulations require tank sounding tubes terminating above the weather deck of a cargo vessel to be fitted with a _________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
3110
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3112
globe valve stop-check valve gate valve screw cap or plug D The purpose in constructing a pipe tunnel aboard a vessel is to ___________.
A. insulate piping from ambient temperatures B. provide convenient grouping of all piping leading fore and aft from the machinery space for easy access and control C. enclose all pipes leading to a s ingle forward compartment in their own enclosure D. segregate a pipe from the compartment through which it passes
3114
Ans: D When a new section of shell plating is being installed, the proper weld sequence must be followed to _____________. A. minimize shrinkage stresses and harmful distortion B. ensure that all weldments are downhand C. provide the greatest restraint in the weld D. ensure all horizontal weldments are completed first
Page 175
3115
Ans: B When renewing only a portion of an entire hull plate with an insert plate, which of the listed guidelines should be followed?
A. The insert plate should cover at least one full frame space. B. The lines of new welding should, where possible, lie in existing lines of welding. C. The corners of the insert plate should be square. D. The insert plate should be at least 9/16 thick. Ans: A When the ship's bulkheads are reinforced against bending and 3117 bulging, the bulkheads are provided with ____________. A. stanchions B. girders C. stiffeners D. rabbits Ans: C Which of the listed statements correctly reflects the requirements 3119 for steel used in low temperature applications aboard ships?
3116
A. aft collision bulkhead B. stern frame bulkhead C. after peak bulkhead D. aft machinery space watertight bulkhead Ans: C In modern ship construction, high tensile steel (HTS) may be 3118 permitted in _______________. A. the sheer strake B. the keel strake C. the margin strake D. all of the above Ans: D In ship construction, beams are transverse girders which provide 3120 support to ___________.
A. A steel acceptable for service at 19.5°C is not acceptable for service at 10°C. B. The words "low temperature" are to be marked legibly at each end of the finished plate. C. No special welding procedures are required. D. Any steel acceptable for a particular minimum service temperature is also acceptable for higher service temperatures.
3121
3123
Ans: D Which of the following statements is c orrect concerning the regulations regarding internal combustion engine exhausts, boiler and galley uptakes, and similar sources of ignition?
A. bulkheads B. deckhouse structures C. decks D. vertical frames
3122
Ans: C According to regulation , a "C" class division, bulkhead or deck shall be constructed ___________.
A. They shall be kept clear of and suitably insulated from any woodwork or other combustible matter. B. All exhausts and uptakes shall run as close as possible to the vertical and shall exit the machinery space at a point above the highest load line.
A. with approved incombustible materials and made intact from deck to deck and to shell or other boundaries B. of approved incombustible materials, but need meet no requirements relative to the passage of flame
C. The general construction of the vessel shall be such as to m inimize smoke hazards insofar as is reasonable and practicable.
C. that if subjected to the standard fire test, they would be capable of preventing the passage of flame for one half hour
D. This protection shall be such as to be capable of preventing an excessive temperature rise in the space containing the emergency source of electric power.
D. that if subjected to the standards fire test, they would be capable of preventing the passage of flame or smoke for one hour
Ans: A Which of the following clearance readings should be taken and recorded in drydock? A. The clearances between the propeller blade tips and the hull.
3124
B. The clearances between the propeller hub and the fair water cone. C. The rudder bearing clearances. D. The clearances between the stern tube pack ing gland and the retaining ring. Ans: C In ship construction, the shell plating is arranged in strakes and 3125 assigned letter designations. If the strakes were lettered "A" through "K", the "K" strake will be ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 3127
at the turn of the bilge the keel strake the drop strake the sheer strake D In ship construction, the shell plating is arranged in strakes, with four of the strakes being specifically identified by name. The strake next to the keel is identified as the ____________.
keel strake garboard strake bilge strake sheer strake B In ship construction, the hull frame members extending athwartship are called ____________. A. deck frames B. stringer frames C. longitudinal frames
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3129
Ans: A A vessel's immediate protection in the event of a broken stern tube is a/an ____________.
Ans: B Support of side plating is provided primarily by transverse ______________. A. beams B. girders C. frames D. bulkheads
3126
Ans: C In ship construction, the strakes are given letter designations beginning with the letter "A." The "A" strake is adjacent to the ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
3128
deck edge strake keel turn of the bilge strake sheer strake B In ship construction, which of the listed strengthening members act to support the decks?
A. Pillars B. Girders C. Bulkheads D. All of the above Ans: D The purpose of swash bulkheads is to ____________. 3130 A. minimize the effect of a listing condition B. restrict flooding within a tank C. separate cargoes in a common tank
Page 176
D. transverse frames Ans: D If high relative humidity is maintained in a cargo hold,there is a 3131 significant possibility possibility that ________. I. there will be an accumulation of static static electricity II. mold will will grow and contaminate the cargo A. B. C. D. Ans: 3133
I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II B Regulations require that any tankship making a voyage "of over a 48 hour duration" must have certain tests conducted not more than 12 hours prior to leaving port. Meeting this requirement includes thetesting of the ____________.
A. means of communication between the bridge and engineroom B. fire pump relief valve C. watertight door to the shaft alley D. emergency lighting system
3135
Ans: A In order to recognize the amount of anchor chain paid out, specific portions of the chain are color coded and wrapped with wire. The second shot of the chain is painted __________.
D. reduce liquid movement within a tank Ans: D The depth of fuel oil in a double bottom tank is measuredthrough 3132 the _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3134
A. not be critical until the vertical angle approaches 15‚ B. loose practically all of its strength as a support C. most likely experience shear stress failure if not reinforced immediately D. not pose any problem, provided there are no cracked welds connecting it to any adjoining strength members Ans: B In order to recognize the amount of anchor chain paid out, s pecific 3136 portions of the chain are c olor coded and wrapped with wire. The first shot of chain is painted __________.
A. white on the detachable link B. red for two links on either side of the detachable link C. white for two links on either side of the detachable line D. red on the detachable link
3137
Ans: C The bitter end is the __________. A. looped end of a mooring cable B. end of the chain shackled to the anchor C. fixed end of the mooring cable fastened to the mooring winch drum
D. end of the anchor chain fastened to the vessel Ans: D All of the links links in the next next to the last inboard shot of chain are 3139 painted __________. A. yellow B. white C. red D. orange Ans: A According to regulations regulations , a "B" class bulkhead bulkhead shall be constructed constructed 3141 _______. or equivalent metal construction, construction, suitably stiffened and and A. of steel or made intact from deck to deck and to shell or other boundaries
3143
vent line depth gage manhole cover sounding tube D Pillar cross-sections of "I", "H", or c ircular are used in ship construction in locations locations where there are large expanses, void of intermediate decks and bulkheads, such as in cargo holds and engine rooms. A supporting pillar which which becomes bent out of v er
A. white on the detachable link and red on each link to either side of the detachable link detachable link and white white on each link to either side of B. white on the detachable the detachable link C. red on the detachable link and red on each link to either side of the detachable link D. red on the detachable link and white on each link to either side of the detachable link Ans: D A shot of anchor chain chain is equal to __________. 3138 A. one chain link B. one - 90 foot segment C. 90 fathoms D. one - 15 foot segment Ans: B Stanchions prevent the the entire deck load from being carried by the 3140 ______________. A. bulkheads B. stringers C. frames and beam brackets longitudinals D. deck longitudinals Ans: C The material, design, construction and workmanship of main and 3142 auxiliary machinery shall _________. (46 CFR) A. determine the necessity of duplication and application of redundant systems
B. of approved incombustible materials, but need meet no requirements relative to the passage of flame C. that if subjected to a standard fire test, they would be capable of preventing the passage of flame for one half hour
B. be examined and approved by the Port State Control Officer of the port in which the the vessel is is being constructed C. be at least equivalent to the standards established by the American Bureau of Shipping Shipping or other other recognized recognized classification society
D. that if subjected to the standard fire test, they would be capable of preventing the passage of flame and smoke for one hour
possibility of operator injury due to inefficient D. prevent the possibility construction practices and inappropriate inappropriate material testing procedures
Ans: C According to regulation , an "A" class division, bulkhead bulkhead or deck shall be constructed _________. A. with approved incombustible materials and made intact from deck to deck and to shell or other boundaries B. of approved incombustible materials, but need meet no requirements relative to the passage of flame C. that if subjected to the standard fire test, they would be capable of preventing the passage of flame for one half hour D. that if subjected to the standard fire test, they would be capable of preventing the passage of flame and smoke for one hour Ans: D
3144
Ans: C The bleeder plug, or docking plug located on a motor vessel double bottom tank is used to ______________. A. indicate when the tank is pressed up B. provide a secondary means of tank sounding C. vent air from the tank when bunkering D. empty the tank when in drydock
Ans: D
Page 177
3145 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3147 A. B. C. D.
3149
Ans: C When a vessel is drydocked for inspection, which of the following valves are required to be opened during this this period? A. B. C. D. Ans:
3151
In ship construction, beam brackets are triangular plates joining the deck beam to a _________________. bulkhead frame stanchion deck longitudinal B The duties of a chief engineer upon taking charge of the department include _____________. preparing a list of engine engine department personnel for for the Master's signature taking a complete personal inventory inventory of all engine room spare parts determining if any vital vital engine room equipment is inoperative obtaining a valid Certification of Inspection from the Coast Guard
Ballast pump manifold valves High and low suction valves on fuel oil settling tanks Bottom blow skin valves to the main and auxiliary boilers boilers Cooling water control valves on refrigeration condensers C On small passenger vessels, separation of machinery and fuel tank spaces shall be __________.
A. provided between each of these spaces by watertight and/or vaportight bulkheads B. separated from accommodation spaces by watertight and/or vaportight bulkheads C. not considered as essential D. separated from accommodations spaces by non-continuous bulkheads Ans: B The location of a vessel's frame stations may be obtained from 3153 which of the listed drawings? A. Profile B. Base line C. Cross section D. Buttock Ans: A What color is used to indicate the last shot of anchor anchor chain? 3155 A. Red B. White C. Blue D. Yellow Ans: A According to Regulations , where where cargo pump shafts on on tankers 3157 pierce bulkheads ________________. A. readily accessible gastight glands shall be provided B. compressed air shall be used as the primary means to discharge cargo installed on the bulkhead C. a pressure gauge or manometer shall be installed to ensure the gastight seal is maintained continuous suction with power D. the glands are to be kept under continuous ventilation Ans: A The structural members of the hull extending in a fore and aft 3159 direction are called _________. A. frames B. joiners C. longitudinals D. knees Ans: C Which of the following following is operated from the main engine engine room 3161 console on an automated vessel? A. Fire pump and lube oil pump B. Lube oil pump and distilling plant Distilling plant and shaft alley door C. Distilling
Reinforcing frames attached to a bulkhead bulkhead are called ____________. longitudinals A. side longitudinals B. intercostals C. stiffeners D. brackets Ans: C If a lifeboat winch allows allows a lifeboat to descend to the water at an 3148 excessive speed, you s hould _____________. A. remove unnecessary weight from the boat 3146
B. adjust the centrifugal brake mechanism C. adjust the davit m ounted limit switches D. engage the motor friction clutch bands
3150
Ans: B Sounding tubes and access openings for fuel oil tanks on cargo vessels are permitted by Regulations to be located in which of the listed spaces? A. B. C. D. Ans:
3152
Washrooms Laundries Slop sinks Corridors D Regulations require remote controls for s topping machinery driving fuel oil service pumps. These controls shall be ___________.
A. located at the control platform B. provided with a locked cover C. accessible to authorized personnel only D. protected against accidental operation
3154
Ans: D Where should you expect to find striking plates? A. In the bow of the ship at the waterline. B. On the bottom of a fuel or ballast tank under the sounding tube.
C. Under the counter above the propeller blade tips. D. On the cofferdam manhole. Ans: B The principal purpose of an anchor windlass chain s topper is to 3156 _____________. A. tie off the warping head lines B. absorb the brake thrust of the anchor windlass C. hold the anchor chain while riding at anchor D. lock the intermediate clutch shaft to the wildcat Ans: C In merchant ship construction, the term "scantlings" refers to the 3158 ____________. with the hog and sag characteristics of A. factor of safety involved with the hull B. hull girder strength in terms of the s tandard model C. designed size of the beams, stiffeners, and shell plating D. ICE strength classification of the hull
3160
Ans: C The minimum number of crew members permitted by law to operate your vessel can be determined by checking the _______________.
A. Manning Certificate B. Class Certificate C. Master's crew list D. Master's logbook Ans: A Expansion tanks used in a hot water heating system may be of the 3162 open or closed type. In a closed type type system, what would be the normal temperature range of the water? A. 80°C to 100°C B. 104°C to 116°C C. 127°C to 138°C
Page 178
D. Shaft alley door and fixed CO2 release Ans: A Which of the following following statements describes the function of an 3163 alarm annunciator on an engine room alarm panel? condition causes a light and siren to come on which which A. An alarm condition remain on until the machinery is s ecured. light comes on, followed followed by an audible audible alarm. When an B. A flashing light alarm acknowledge button is depressed, the audible alarm is silenced and light stays on.
3165
D. 160°C to 182°C Ans: B According to regulations regulations , a standard standard fire test is is one ________. 3164 initial operating tests tests performed on newly commissioned A. of many initial boilers B. which is used to determine the flash point of various marine fuels
condition gives an audible and and visual alarm signal, signal, both of C. An alarm condition which are secured when the alarm acknowledge button is depressed.
relationships in a test C. which develops a series of temperature relationships furnace
condition causes a flashing light light to come on, followed by D. An alarm condition an audible alarm. When the alarm acknowledge button is depressed, the warning light is extinguished.
firefighting and related safety equipment are D. in which all emergency firefighting tested
Ans: B With reference to a vessel's structural integrity, the most significant characteristic of a cryogenic liquid liquid is its ______________.
A. capability of causing brittle fractures B. highly corrosive action on mild steel saltwater C. vapor cloud which reacts violently with saltwater D. toxicity at atmospheric pressure Ans: A The purpose of bilge keels is to _____________. 3167 A. lower the center of gravity of the ship B. reduce the amplitude of roll C. reduce pitching D. reduce yawing Ans: B In order to recognize the amount of anchor chain paid out, specific 3169 portions of the chain are color coded and wrapped with wire. The third shot of chain should have __________.
3166
A. The time required to close the appliances. B. The reason for opening or closing each appliance. C. The name of the person performing the opening and closing of such appliances. D. The fact that the hull indicators functioned or not. Ans: B Which of the following following describes the purpose of a striker or doubler 3168 plate? application of force, or the installation installation of A. Provides a surface for the application machinery. sounding bob of a tank sounding B. Provides landing surface for the sounding tape. vibration. C. Absorbs machinery vibration. D. Prevents valve stem over travel. Ans: B Aboard tankers, the term Category "A" Machinery Space, as 3170 defined by Regulations Regulations means any spaceincluding trunks and ducts to that space containing containing ____________.
A. three turns of wire wrapped around the detachable link B. three turns of wire wrapped around the stud of the third link on each side of the detachable link C. three turns of wire wrapped around the stud of the link on each side of the detachabale link D. one turn of wire wrapped around the s tud of the third link on each side of the detachable link Ans: B If high relative humidity is maintained in a cargo hold,there is a 3171 significant possibility possibility that ________. I. there will be an accumulation of static static electricity II. mold will will grow and contaminate the cargo A. B. C. D. Ans: 3173
I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II B Which of the following following machinery remote control shutdowns is required to be tested during each regular inspection for certification?
A. Forced draft fan B. Induced draft fan C. Fuel oil transfer pump above D. All of the above Ans: D If a vessel is not prov ided with duplicate duplicate service systems, which of 3175 the systems listed will satisfy the regulations if serviced by two pumps? A. Main condensate B. Fuel oil service C. Lube oil service above D. All of the above Ans: D When any vessel is drydocked, examination shall be made of the 3177 propeller, ___________.
Ans: C With regard to the opening and closing closing of watertight watertight appliances not fitted with a remote operating control or alarm system, which of the following following is the mas ter or person in c harge of a MODU required to enter in the logbook?
A. internal combustion machinery used for main propulsion B. one or more oil fired boilers or oil fuel units C. internal combustion machinery used for purposes other than main propulsion where the total collective power is at least 500 brake horsepower D. all of the above
3172
Ans: D If auxiliary machinery vital to the main propulsion system is not provided with independent duplicate systems, which of the systems listed would satisfy regulations regulations if serviced by two pumps?
A. Main condensate B. Lube oil service C. Fuel oil service D. All of the above Ans: D All of the links in the last last shot of anchor chain are painted 3174 __________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
yellow white red orange C The hulls of most modern towing vessels constructed today are fabricated from _______________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
wrought iron high alloy steel mild steel corrosion resisting steel C The penetration of of watertight bulkheads bulkheads and watertight watertight decks by rigid nonmetallic piping is prohibited except when ___________.
3176
3178
Page 179
3179
hull anodes by the Chief Engineer Engineer assigned to A. fairwater cone and hull the vessel B. propeller coupling and flange fasteners by the authorized inspector of the repair facility
A. using an acceptable metallic fitting, welded or otherwise is attached to the bulkhead or deck by an acceptable method B. the rigid nonmetallic plastic pipe is at least of s chedule 160 and a metallic shut off valve is provided adjacent to the through deck or bulkhead fitting
C. keel and stabilizing fins by a registered marine engineer
welded to nonmetallic hull hull materials C. metallic shut off valves are welded
connection and fastenings fastenings if deemed necessary D. stern bushing, sea connection by the class surveyor
metallic valves are installed on either D. two non-remotely operated metallic side of the deck or or bulkhead regardless of accessability
Ans: D In ship construction, a large number of watertight bulkheads results in ____________. A. increased capacity to set flooding boundaries B. decreased capacity to set flooding boundaries C. reduced compartmentation
D. greater deck load capacity Ans: A Regulations prohibit air compressors from being being located in 3181 ____________. A. a space within three meters of a cargo valve B. a space in which cargo hose is stowed C. an enclosed space containing cargo piping D. all of the above Ans: D When a ves sel is in drydock, the vessel's engineers should 3183 ____________. A. examine the condition of the propeller B. chip and paint all hull protection zincs C. install new docking plugs in all cofferdams D. inspect the hull for hogging or s agging Ans: A When installing a new independent independent fuel fuel tank for for the emergency 3185 lighting unit, which of the following statements must be strictly adhered to in accordance with Regulations?
A. vents are fitted with suitable mechanical closures B. tanks have no boundaries in common with the hull fitted with with ball float check valves or an equivalent C. vents are fitted automatic closure device D. tanks are fitted with suitable pressure-vacuum relief valves Ans: B Who is responsible for completing the station bill or muster list and 3182 posting it in a visible area aboard the vessel? A. Chief Engineer B. Master C. PSC inspector D. None of the above Ans: B According to Regulations Regulations , when when reach rods to tank valves pass 3184 through the deck, the stuffing box at this this joint must be ________________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 3186
grounded with bonding straps water tight gas tight made of nylon or other nonmetallic material C How often should cargo oil oil pump relief valves on tank vessels to be tested?
A. Prior to each cargo discharge operation.
B. Iron or steel tanks shall be galvanized on the interior to prevent the formation of rust if any condensation should occ ur.
B. At least once each voyage.
C. The fuel tank should be adequately supported and braced to prevent movement and insulated from the vessel's c ommon ground to insure against static electricity.
year. C. At least once a year.
A. B. C. D.
D. At each biennial inspection. Ans: C A cofferdam is a/an a/an _______________. 3188
within the space concerned outside the space concerned the throttle station within the fireroom
Ans: B The outer strake of the inner bottom on each side of the ship is called the ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
3191
Ans: A Regulations require fresh water tank vents terminating within within the machinery space to terminate well above the deep load line, unless the ________.
A. The tank must be located on an open deck or in an adequately ventilated metal compartment in which the ambient temperature never exceeds 150°F.
above. D. All of the above. Ans: A Machinery driving fuel oil transfer and fuel oil service pumps must 3187 be fitted with a remote means of stopping the machinery from ____________.
3189
3180
rider plate outer plate margin plate stealer plate C Which of the following following systems, according to Regulations must have an emergency stop, protected with a glass enclosure, and located outside of the machinery space?
A. Main fire pump B. Fuel oil service pump circulating/bilge injection valve C. Main circulating/bilge above D. All of the above Ans: B
A. B. C. D.
3190
empty space between tank tops and bilges cement baffle in a fresh water tank tank for storing chemicals empty space separating compartments to prevent the contents of one compartment from entering another in case of leakage
Ans: D In a longitudinally framed ship, the longitudinal longitudinal frames are held in place and supported by athwartship members called ________________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
stringers web frames pillars brackets B
Page 180
DISTILLING SYSTEM AND POTABLE WATER SYSTEM A high reading at at a salinity cell located in in the loop seal between two 3193 Fluctuations in the pressure and temperature of the steam supplied stages of a flash type evaporator would indicate __________. to the first-effect of a low pressure s ubmerged tube distilling plant will cause ___________.
3192
chill shocking is necessary to remove scale leakage at the second-stage condenser faulty operation of the brine overboard pump carryover in the first-stage D Which of the following descriptions descriptions best identifies identifies the operating principal of a flash-type evaporator? while under a v acuum. A. Sea water is heated to boiling temperature while
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3194
B. C. D. Ans: 3196
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3198
Sea water is passed over heated plates in a thin film. Heated sea water is injected into a vacuum chamber. Sea water is forced through a heated eductor. C One advantage of a triple-effect low pressure submerged tube distilling plant over a double-effect unit is _____________. better water purity less scale formation less internal corrosion greater evaporator efficiency D One distinct advantage of flash type evaporators, as compared to most other evaporators, is that in a flash flash evaporator ________.
A. high temperature distillate can be recirculated to induce additional flashing B. scale formation is not a severe problem C. cold shocking is more effective in removing scale D. water purity is greatly increased at high capacity Ans: B If the supplied steam pressure to the first first effect of a submerged 3200 tube distilling plant is allowed to fluctuate, the distiller _________________. A. solenoid dump valve will trip B. air ejector will operate erratically C. water levels will automatically lower D. brine density will increase Ans: A The temperature of the steam flow to the saltwater feed heater, in 3202 a flash type evaporator can be manipulated by a/an ____________. pressure regulator within the supply orifice thermally actuated bypass valve attemporator in the steam supply piping sensor wired in with the three-way salinity dump valve C Excessive scale formation in a distilling plant may result from 3204 ____________. A. poor distillate quality B. reduced evaporator capacity C. low brine concentration D. improper vacuum regulation Ans: D While at sea, the flash type evaporator is discharging the output to 3206 the distill tanks. If it becomes necessary to reduce the feed water temperature below 74°C, you should ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. continue the current evaporator operation B. dump the evaporator to the bilge C. secure the evaporator until the feedwater temperature can be raised to 74°C or more D. raise the tripping point at the salinity indicating panel for the threeway valve Ans: A Where auxiliary steam supply is not used in the process of 3208 maintaining vacuum in a distilling distilling unit, the the vacuum is usually attained by ________. A. air operated air ejectors B. vacuum pumps
increased heat levels throughout the entire unit decreased priming and lower salinity distillate distillate first effect scale formation to be loosened pressure and temperature fluctuations in the entire unit D Which of the listed problems could produce a high absolute pressure within a flash type evaporator? A. production of high salinity distillate
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3195
B. C. D. Ans:
seawater feed temperature below 75°C a leak in the first stage demister a cracked distillate pump vent line D A salinity indicating indicating system functions functions on the basic basic principle of measuring the _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
electrical inductance of water electrical conductivity of water specific gravity of water hydrogen ion concentration of water B Early models of the flash-type evaporators used a separate shelland-tube heat exchanger as the air ejector condenser. More recent models use a combined air ejector condenser with the ____________.
3197
3199
distilling condenser A. distilling B. C. D. Ans:
salt water feed heater distillate cooler flash chamber B Fluctuating pressures and temperatures in an ev aporator will _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
eliminate most of the scale formation in the first effect increase the heat level in all effects increase the probability of priming automatically cold shock the evaporator C In a two stage flash evaporator, heated feedwater is is vaporized in the _____________.
3201
3203
feed inlet box distiller feedwater heater first and second stage flash chambers first and second stage vapor separators C A vacuum is initially initially created in a flash type distilling distilling plant by 3205 _________. A. the flashing of the feed water B. the condensation of the saltwater feed C. air ejectors, eductors, or a separate vacuum pump D. condensation of the distillate Ans: C If a flash-type evaporator was was designed to operate in seawater at 3207 24°C, and the current seawater temperature is 10°C, without readjusting any valve associated with with this evaporator, ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. the capacity will be doubled B. the capacity will remain the same regardless of the seawater temperature will probably "trip "trip off the line" as a result result of an excessive and C. it will violent rate of flashing D. it will produce the purest and lowest salinity concentration of distillate that can be produced Ans: C In the event of a power failure to the salinity panel on a flash-type 3209 evaporator, the three-way solenoid valve will _____________. A. be frozen in its last position B. direct distillate to the fresh water tank
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condensation in the distiller distiller condensers C. increasing the rate of condensation D. a separate suction connection to the brine overboard pump Ans: B The absolute pressure maintained in the shell of the salt water feed 3210 heater on most flash evaporators used on steam propelled vessels is __________________. absolute pressure of the L.P. extraction A. slightly less than the absolute B. slightly less than the supplied live steam pressure at the reducing valve outlet C. slightly higher than the second stage vacuum D. slightly lower than the first stage vacuum Ans: A Steam supply for the operation of the low pressure evaporators 3212 may be obtained directly from the ________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 3214
main steam line turbine extraction line turbo-generator steam supply line air ejector exhaust line B Fluctuations in the pressure and temperature of the steam supplied to the first-effect of a low pressure distilling distilling plant will cause _____________.
A. increased heat levels throughout the entire unit B. C. D. Ans:
decreased priming and lower distillate salinity salinity first effect scale formation to be lessened pressure and temperature fluctuations in the entire unit D When securing a centrifugal distillate distillate pump, which of the listed steps should be carried out FIRST?
A. B. C. D. Ans:
Stop the pump. Close the pressure gage valves. Trip the three-way solenoid valve. Close the sealing line valves to the pump. C The vapor separators installed in some distilling distilling plants consist of several rows of vertical hooked vanes which remove entrained moisture from the vapor by _____________.
3216
3218
C. dump distillate to the bilge D. dump distillate to the makeup feed tank Ans: C Condensate formed within the first-effect tube nest of a double3211 effect, low pressure evaporator, is removed by a _______. A. series of baffles B. crossover pipe C. condensate separator D. drain pump Ans: D The brine level in the the second-stage of a flash-type flash-type evaporator is 3213 due in part to the feed rate, rate, the rate of evaporation in both stages, and the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 3215
A. reduce pressure fluctuations from occurring in the steam supply to the salt water feed heater B. produce more useful superheated supply steam C. guarantee that the steam supply will remain desuperheated D. produce a low salt water feed heater shell absolute pressure Ans: A A vacuum is initially initially established in the first and second stages of a 3217 low pressure evaporator by the use of _________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 3219
A. directing the vapor through a fine metallic mesh B. condensing water droplets on the metal vanes C. trapping water droplets in the metallic mesh D. abruptly changing the direction of vapor flow Ans: D When the steam leaving the control orifice of the live steam supply 3220 is not conditioned, the evaporator _____________. A. capacity will be increased B. capacity will be decreased will decrease significantly C. salt water feed heater absolute pressure will
Ans: B In order to prevent prevent salt water contamination contamination of the distillate in a flash-type evaporator, it is important to provide a positive seal around the _____________. A. spray caps B. demisters C. saltwater heater vents
D. steam supply orifice plate Ans: B Where would a salinity cell be installed in a double-effect distilling distilling 3224 plant? A. Distillate pump discharge B. Tube nest drain pump discharge drain C. Air ejector condensate drain above D. All of the above Ans: D
vacuum drag from the auxiliary condensate system individual vacuum pumps a single non-condensing air ejector a two stage air ejector D Where a two-stage air ejector set is used in a two-stage flash evaporator, the first-stage air ejector takes suction from the second stage of the evaporator, evaporator, and the second stage air ejector _____________.
A. takes suction from the first stage of the evaporator B. takes suction from the second stage of the ev aporator as well C. takes suction from the first stage ejector discharge D. is normally idle and used mainly as a standby unit Ans: C A flash type evaporator evaporator is designed to operate in 24°C sea water, if if 3221 operated in 10°C sea water, ________. A. the absolute pressures will be slightly below the predicted design absolute pressures evaporator stages will will be higher B. absolute pressure in the evaporator C. the unit will operate at reduced capacity
will increase significantly D. salt water feed heater absolute pressure will
3222
steam flow rate to the air ej ectors float controlled level of the feed heater capacity of the distillate pump throughput of the brine overboard pump D A fixed orifice orifice plate is generally installed installed in the the live steam supply to to an evaporator. One of the functions of this orifice is to c ontrol the quantity of the supplied steam. A sec ond function is to ____________.
D. thermal efficiency will decrease, but brine density will increase
3223
Ans: A Which of the following following statements describes the proper operation of a three-way solenoid trip valve on a flash-type evaporator?
A. The valve must be manually reset. B. The valve will trip if the sea water feed temperature drops below 79°C. C. The valve is interlocked to trip only on de-energization of the solenoid. D. The valve will trip if the distillate is too warm. Ans: A The purpose of chill shocking an evaporator is to _________. 3225 A. B. C. D. Ans:
prepare for a hydrostatic test stress relieve the tubes break loose scale deposits formed on the tubes test for leaks in the tubes C
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3226
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3228 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3230 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3232
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3234 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3236
Which of the listed problems is occurring if a coil type high pressure evaporator constantly requires an increase in the coil steam pressure in order to maintain capacity?
3227
The brine density is improper. Heat transfer surfaces are being layered with scale. Impure distillate is being produced. Shell vapor pressure is constantly decreasing. B In which of the following following types of evaporators evaporators is the control of brine density least important? Solo shell evaporators Flash evaporators Submerged tube evaporators Basket evaporators B When securing a centrifugal type distillate distillate pump, which of the listed steps should be carried out first?
scale formation with increased heat transfer priming with increased s alinity of distillate slight foaming at the distillate feed pump improved operating conditions at the brine pump B A multistage flash flash evaporator will will be unable to produce consistently 3229 pure distillate if the __________________. A. distillate cooler is dirty B. tubes of the saltwater feed heater are flooded internally C. distillate meter stops D. vacuum is fluctuating Ans: D Rapid fluctuation fluctuation of the last effect shell vacuum in a submerged 3231 tube evaporator can cause _____________.
Close the pressure gage isolation valves. Secure the casing vapor v ent line. Secure the stuffing box sealing water line. Trip the three way dump valve. D Improper waterside venting of the tube nests in a submerged tube evaporator will cause a/an _____________. fluctuating vacuum in the evaporator loss of evaporator capacity increased vacuum in the first effect increased brine overboard flow rate B Indicated high salinity of the distillate discharged from a flash-type distilling plant will be a result of ___________. maintaining the proper distilling plant heat balance carrying the brine level below normal leaks in the demister baffles venting of the saltwater heater drain pump C Irregular feeding or surging of the feedwater supply to a flash evaporator may be attributed to ______________.
A. erratic water flow through the air eductor B. a clogged vent line from the air eductor condenser C. excessive pressure in the seawater feed heater D. a dirty strainer in the saltwater feed pump s uction line Ans: D In a flash evaporator, heated water water under pressure is converted into vapor by s uddenly ____________. A. increasing its temperature B. increasing its velocity C. decreasing its density D. decreasing its pressure Ans: D In a double-effect submerged tube tube evaporator, the brine density 3240 should be prevented from falling below 1.5/32nds to minimize ____________. 3238
scale formation on the tube nests loss in capacity and maintain plant efficiency corrosion in the evaporator carryover in the evaporator B A fluctuating and and unsteady vacuum in an evaporator evaporator may be caused by _____________. A. wet steam entering the air ejector nozzle B. pinhole leaks in the evaporator tube nests C. rapid scaling on the evaporator tube nests
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3233
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3235 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3237
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3243 A. B. C.
D. high water levels in the last effect
3244
Ans: A Which of the listed chemicals can be routinely routinely used to maintain the hygienic quality of potable water? A. Hydrochloric acid
erratic air ejector operation air leaks in the tube nest rapid scaling in all effects priming in that effect D If a higher than normal water level is observed through the inspection port of a flash evaporator, you should suspect ______________. a leak in the feedwater heater improper vacuum a malfunctioning brine pump a clogged desuperheater water s trainer C In a flash evaporator, scale as a result of higher higher than normal temperatures is most likely to occur in the ________. second stage feed heater saltwater feed heater distillate cooler second stage vapor separator B If the orifice in the loop seal of a flash evaporator were to become significantly enlarged through erosion, erosion, the ________.
A. distillate produced in the second stage would flow towards the first stage B. evaporator absolute pressure would eventually equalize in both stages to that of the first stage C. evaporator absolute pressure could eventually equalize in both stages to that of the second stage D. salt water feed heater absolute pressure would increase to that of the evaporator second stage Ans: C Which of the following following statements represents the basic principle of 3239 operation of an electrical salinity indicator? A. Measures the hydrogen ion concentration. B. Measures the electrical resistance of the water. C. Determines the conductivity of the dissolved oxygen. D. Measures the voltage of the c hloride ions. Ans: B Vapor is produced in a flash evaporator by introducing 3241 _______________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3242
In the last effect of a multi-effect submerged tubedistilling tubedistilling plant rapid fluctuations of the absolutepressure tend to cause _____________.
D. Ans: 3245 A.
steam through heating coils steam through cooling coils heated water into a high pressure area heated water into a low pressure area D In the operation of a two-stage flash type distilling distilling plant, the rate of scale formation is greatly reduced by _________. operating the unit at its rated capacity maintaining a relatively high feedwater temperature the fact that the first-stage regulator keeps the heater shell at a constant pressure the fact that no boiling occurs on heat transfer surfaces anywhere in the unit D When any low pressure distilling distilling plant is operated at less than the designed vacuum, the _____________. heat level drops
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Chlorine Sulfuric acid Zinc chromate B Potable water piping systems installed aboard ships must be _______. A. disinfected monthly with a chlorine compound
B. C. D. Ans: 3246
3247
B. independent of all other piping systems C. cadmium lined to prevent internal corrosion
D. flushed each time potable water is taken onboard
3248
3250
Ans: B A recirculating line is provided in the potable hot water system to __________. A. maintain uniform inlet conditions for the constant speed supply pumps B. maintain flow rates which will eliminate fluid film formation in the piping C. return overflow from the pressure tanks back to the potable water tanks D. maintain the desired temperature range throughout the system Ans: D A solenoid operated distillate bypass valve is installed in the discharge line between a distilling plant and the potable water tanks to prevent ____________. excessively warm distillate from entering the potable tanks salty distillate from reaching the potable tanks overfilling and overflowing the potable tanks contaminated water from leaving the potable tanks B Brine density in a distilling plant is measured with a/an _____________. A. psychrometer B. salinometer C. anemometer D. sphygmomanometer Ans: B In a flash type ev aporator, all saltwater headers are vented through individual vent cocks to the _________. A. saltwater heater shell B. second-stage condenser C. atmosphere D. second-stage flash chamber Ans: C The condensers located in the various stages of a flash evaporator are cooled by _____________. A. distillate B. seawater C. brine D. air Ans: B Scale accumulation on evaporator heating surfaces will cause ___________.
B. hydro-pneumatic tank filled with water C. charge of air, at 1.4 kg/cm2 (137.9 kPa) above system pressure with the hydro-pneumatic tank one quarter full of water D. charge of air, at system pressure, when the hydro-pneumatic tank is half full of water Ans: D Which of the following components would be necessary for the 3249 proper operation of a potable hot water system? A. Circulating pump B. Drift pockets C. Sterilizer D. Hydro-pneumatic expansion tank
3251
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3252
3254
3256
3258
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3260
immediate loss of vacuum increased distillate quality immediate tube failure reduced evaporator capacity D The first stage feedwater temperature and shell absolute pressure in a multistage flash evaporator is _____________.
A. equal to the second stage feedwater temperature and shell absolute pressure B. higher than the second stage feedwater temperature and shell absolute pressure C. lower than the feedwater temperature and shell absolute pressure in the second stage D. higher than the second stage feedwater temperature but at a lower shell absolute pressure Ans: B
capacity increases scale formation increases distillate purity increases C Short cycling of the potable water pump is avoided by the proper use of a ________. A. hydro-pneumatic tank completely filled with compressed air at system operating pressure
B. C. D. Ans:
Ans: A Distilled water from an evaporator may be discharged into a potable water tank _____________. through a detachable hose connection after passing through an activated charcoal filter after chemical analysis shows it is fit for consumption through a solenoid operated three-way valve D Tube leaks in the distillate cooler of a two stage flash evaporator will result in _____________. A. loss of second stage vacuum B. contamination of the distillate C. lower feed inlet temperature D. contamination of the second stage condenser Ans: B Why would a flash type distilling unit be more efficient when operated in cooler seawater temperatures? A. Steam carryover between stages is reduced. B. Evaporator vacuum is increased. C. The amount of available flash steam is decreased. D. Feedwater flow from the feedwater heater is increased. Ans: B The steam coils in a high pressure evaporator used for saltwater service should be desc aled with _____________. A. a wire brush B. a needle gun C. a chipping hammer D. soap and water Ans: A If the rated distillate production of a submerged tube type evaporator cannot be maintained with the supplied maximum steam flow rate, the evaporator ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
3253
3255
3257
3259
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3261
chemical feed must be increased has a serious brine leak temperature switch is defective heating surfaces are scaled D In a two stage flash evaporator, operating conditions in the second stage, as compared to the first stage, are _________.
A. higher temperature and higher absolute pressure B. higher temperature and lower absolute pressure C. lower temperature and higher absolute pressure D. lower temperature and lower absolute pressure Ans: D
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A vacuum differential is maintained in the distillate circuit between any two stages of a multiple stage distilling plant by the use of a/an ____________.
3263
A. B. C. D. Ans:
steam trap butterfly valve loop seal adjustable controller C Salinity cells are strategically installed in distillingunits to indicate the ___________. I. purity of the distillate produced II. quality of the distillate produced
A. 1/32nd B. 1.5/32nds C. 2/32nds D. 3/32nds Ans: A Potable and nonpotable water systems aboard ship _________. 3265
A. B. C. D. Ans:
I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II B Salinity cells are strategically installed in flash type distilling units to indicate the ___________. I. presence of leaks in the flash chambers II. quantity of the distillate produced
3262
3264
3266
A. B. C. D. Ans:
I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II D In a flash-type evaporator, an electrical salinity cell would be installed in the _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
distillate outlet from the distillate cooler distillate inlet to the distillate cooler condensate drains from the distiller feedwater heater all of the above D The demisters installed in a flash-type evaporator serve to ____________.
3268
3270
deaerate the first effect distillate filter the condensed flash vapors deaerate the first and second effect distillate remove small water droplets entrained in the flashed v apor D The inability to maintain proper vacuum in a submerged tube 3272 evaporator can be caused by _____________. A. fluctuating steam pressure to the air ej ector nozzle B. improper venting of the evaporator tube nests C. air leaks in the evaporator tube nests D. high water level in the ev aporator shell Ans: A The size of the loop seal orifice for a flash-type evaporator is 3274 important for maintaining the control of ________. A. the vacuum differential developed between both stages A. B. C. D. Ans:
B. the absolute pressure differential developed between both stages C. the absolute pressure developed in the salt water feed heater shell D. maintaining distillate flow between the first and second stage in order to avoid dry seal operation of the loop Ans: D If the distillate temperature from a flash type evaporator falls below 3276 71°C _________. A. the distillate may be directed to the storage tanks B. the automatic three-way solenoid dump valve s hould direct distillate to the bilge C. the demisters will become scaled D. priming will occur in the first-effect Ans: A Which of the listed conditions will cause the feedwater, that has not 3278 flashed to vapor in the first-stage of a flash ev aporator, to flow into the second-stage? A. Gravity siphon effect B. Higher vacuum in the second-stage C. Difference in brine density between first and second stages D. Lower pressure in first-stage Ans: B
The average salinity of normal seawater, when expressed as brine density is equivalent to _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3267
may be temporarily connected with a removable s pool are permanently connected through a double stop valve may never be cross-connected by any means may be connected if they are used only for wash water C Partially clogged or scored nozzles in a two stage air ejector unit of a flash distilling plant could result in a ____________.
A. fluctuating vacuum in the flash chamber B. flooded seawater feed heater shell C. high water level in the air ejec tor after condenser D. malfunctioning check valve in the air ejector discharge Ans: A Small droplets of water entrained in the flashed vapor produced in 3269 a flash-type evaporator, are removed by the _________________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 3271
spray pipes demisters condensers splash baffles B In a double-effect distilling plant, the brine particles remaining entrained with the vapor produced in the evaporator first effect, are separated by ____________.
a flash chamber baffles and vanes the vapor feed heater a brine pump B One function of the v apor feed heater in a double-effect distilling 3273 unit is to _____________. A. condense part of the vapor given off in the first-effect B. preheat distillate circulating to the second-effect tube nest C. cool the incoming first-effect evaporator feed D. condense all the distillate in the second-effect tube nest Ans: A The heated feedwater entering any flash chamber of a flash- type 3275 evaporator will _____________. A. vaporize, with the unflashed water remaining at the temperature at which it entered the flash chamber B. vaporize, with the unflashed water equalizing to the saturation conditions existing in the flash chamber C. vaporize, with the remaining water at a temperature greater than it entered the flash chamber D. boil, allowing steam bubbles to rise through the brine at the bottom of the flash chamber Ans: B On a multistage flash-type evaporator, the flash chamber is 3277 ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. combined as part of the salt water feed heater B. the open area above the brine levels in the first and second stages C. combined as part of the distillate cooler D. another term used to describe the vapor feed heater Ans: B When a flash evaporator is being operated in extremely cold water, 3279 you may need to throttle the seawater supply to ________. A. prevent cold shocking the evaporator B. maintain the feedwater temperature above the required minimum input temperature C. avoid flooding the evaporator shell D. increase the evaporator distilling rate Ans: B
Page 185
The final heating of the feedwater in a flash type distilling plant is carried out by _______________________. A. low pressure steam admitted to the feedwater heater B. heat exchange in the first-stage feedbox C. vaporization in the first-stage flash chamber D. heat exchange in each stage distiller condenser Ans: A The efficiency of a flash type evaporator can be increased by 3282 _________. 3280
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3284
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3286 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3288 A. B.
lowering brine discharge density decreasing the absolute pressure of each stage increasing the saltwater feed heater temperature increasing the pressure at the spray pipe B In the operation of a flash type evaporator equipped with air ejectors, the air and noncondensable gases are evacuated directly from the _____________. first stage flash chamber second stage flash chamber first stage after condenser second stage distilling condenser D Less scale formation occurs in a flash evaporator than in a submerged tube evaporator because ____________. the distillate produced has greater purity no boiling occurs on heat transfer surfaces evaporation occurs at a higher rate the incoming feed is at a higher temperature B The thickest deposit of scale in a flash evaporator is mostlikely to occur in the tubes of the ____________. distillate cooler first stage condenser
C. saltwater feed heater D. flash chamber Ans: C In a two stage flash distilling plant, which of the pumps listed is 3290 vented to the shell of the second stage in order to remov e vapor from the pump suction? A. Condenser circulating water pump B. Feedwater heater drain pump C. Distillate pump D. Air ejector condenser drain pump Ans: C Why will a two stage flash type distilling plant tend to operate more 3292 efficiently when operating in cold seawater?
Scale accumulation on evaporator heat exchange surfaces ______________. A. increases brine density B. increases distillate salinity C. reduces metal corrosion D. reduces heat transfer Ans: D In a two-stage flash evaporator, the sea water feed temperature is 3283 increased as it passes through the _________. 3281
A. B. C. D. Ans:
first-stage distilling condenser second-stage distilling condenser salt water feed heater all of the above D The quantity and density of brine discharged from the last effect of the distilling plant should be as constant as possible to ________________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
prevent scale accumulation on heat exchange surfaces maintain a constant distillate outlet temperature ensure distillate quality and distilling plant efficiency prevent any salinity in the distillate produced C In a flash type evaporator, the brine overboard pump is vented directly to the ______________. saltwater heater shell first stage distilling condenser second stage flash chamber air ejector condenser C The advantages of flash type evaporators, as compared to submerged tube type evaporators, include _____________. less internal corrosion because of lower brine density higher temperature evaporation for lower salinity of the distillate produced less scale formation in a flash evaporator less feedwater required for a flash evaporator C Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause water hammer in the potable water system?
3285
3287 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3289 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3291
A. The hydro-pneumatic tank being properly c harged. B. The starting of the potable water pump. C. A low water level in the potable water storage tank. D. Rapid closing of a spring c losed basin faucet. Ans: D Which of the following statements represents an advantage of a 3293 triple-effect submerged tube evaporator compared to a singleeffect submerged tube evaporator?
A. The colder seawater passing through the condenser tube bundles A. Greater purity of distillate of the various stages increases evaporator vacuum. B. The amount of heated feedwater discharged from the feedwater B. Lower consumption of steam per pound of distillate produced heater aftercondenser is increased. C. Fewer noncondensable gases are created by the flow of colder C. Less scale formation seawater. D. More seawater is allowed to pass through the first s tage overflow D. Less complex to maintain and operate weir. Ans: A Ans: B One advantage of a flash distilling plant when compared to a Potable and non-potable water systems aboard vessel ______. 3294 3295 submerged tube distiller is _____________. A. greater distillate purity through high temperature evaporation A. may be temporarily interconnected with a removable spool B. cold shocking for scale removal is not required B. are permanently interconnected through a double stop valve C. less internal corrosion because of lower brine density C. may never be interconnected by any means D. less feedwater is required for equal plant capacity D. may be connected if they are used only for wash water Ans: B Ans: C Which of the following statements is correct relative to distillation Air leaking into a flash type distilling plant could occur through 3296 3297 plant operation? ___________. A. Distillation is the process of boiling seawater to produce vapor A. gasketed joints which is condensed into fresh water. B. Evaporation is the second part of the distillation process where B. valve stems brine is removed. C. Brine is the result of condensed sea water vapor. C. gage glass packing D. Distillate is the product resulting from the evaporation of fresh water D. all of the above vapor. Ans: A Ans: D
Page 186
3298 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3300
When securing a flash-type evaporator for an extended period of time, you should _____________. fill the unit with saltwater fill the unit with descaling compound completely drain the unit tightly seal the unit to exclude air C The rate of scale formation in a flash type distilling plant is greatly reduced by _____________.
A. operating the unit at its rated capacity B. maintaining a relatively high feedwater temperature C. water flashing into vapor rather than boiling on the heat transfer surfaces D. operating the first-stage regulator to maintain a constant shell pressure Ans: C An excessively high brine level in a flash evaporator can be caused 3302 by ___________. A. excessive brine pump motor speed B. an excessive brine blowdown rate C. failure of the brine pump D. excessive distillate pump speed Ans: C If the distilling plant first stage absolute pressure is higher than 3304 normal, while the second stage absolutepressure remains satisfactory, the probable fault is due to________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3301
The steam coils in a high pressure evaporator used for saltwater service should be des caled with _____________. a needle gun soap and water a wirebrush a chipping hammer C Feedwater supplied to a flash type distilling plant will flash to vapor in the first-stage due to the flash chamber _________________.
A. pressure being lower than the saturation pressure corresponding to the feedwater temperature B. temperature being higher than the evaporation temperature of the supplied feedwater C. heat exchange surfaces being directly in the path of the entering feedwater D. orifices finely atomizing the heated feedwater entering the flash chamber Ans: A A constant pressure range is maintained in the potable water 3303 system of many vessels by us ing ________. A. constant speed supply pumps B. variable speed supply pumps C. an air cushion in the hydro-pneumatic tank D. a pressure regulator in the pressure tank discharge piping Ans: C Salinity cells are strategically installed in distillingunits to indicate the 3305 ___________. I. location of a saltwater leak II. size of the leak
A. B. C. D. Ans:
loss of the distillate loop seal between the stages priming in the second stage failure of the brine pump an air leak through a vacuum gage line in the first stage D An automatic solenoid dump valve should be set to trip if the evaporator produces distillate with salt content exceeding ___________.
A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II Ans: A In the operation of a two-stage flash-type distilling plant, which of 3307 the pumps listed should be vented to the second stage shell in order to remove vapors from the pump suction?
A. B. C. D. Ans:
1ppm 5ppm 50ppm 1000ppm D If a hole were to form in the division plate between stages of a flash type evaporator _________. I. vaporization of the feed water would continue at second stage designed saturation conditions II. all of the distillate produced would be certain to b
A. Condenser circulating water pump B. Feedwater heater drain pump C. Distillate pump D. Air ejector condenser drain pump Ans: C If a hole were to form in the division plate between stages of a flash 3309 type evaporator _________. I. vaporization of the feed water would continue II. efficiency of the unit would only be moderately affected
3306
3308
3299
A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II Ans: A Priming in a submerged tube evaporator can be caused by high 3310 water level and _____________. A. low brine density B. low steam temperature C. high absolute pressure D. excessive brine density Ans: D Evaporator priming can be caused by high water level, fluctuating 3312 steam pressure, or ____________. A. fluctuating shell vacuum B. low brine density C. low feed temperature D. a brine overflow weir set too low Ans: A Which of the following statements is true concerning any 3314 evaporator? A. High conductivity of the distillate indicates distillate salinity is excessive. B. Increasing the absolute pressure of the shell will increase the distiller's capacity. C. Mesh separators are used in evaporators to filter the distillate.
A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II Ans: A Carryover in a flash type distilling plant can be a result of 3311 ___________. A. faulty operation of the brine overboard pump B. a pressure drop through the loop seal C. high distillate conductivity D. low distillate conductivity Ans: A When a flash-type evaporator is to be secured for an extended 3313 period of time, the entire unit should be drained, cleaned, and ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 3315
completely filled with saltwater filled with descaling compound tightly closed to exclude air vented to the atmosphere D A salinity indicator is used to determine the _____________.
A. cause of salt contamination B. location of salt water contamination C. chemical makeup of feedwater
Page 187
D. Reducing the brine density will reduce the heat lost overboard.
3316
Ans: A In the production of freshwater from seawater through a process of heating and cooling, the cooling phase of production is usually called _____________. A. evaporation B. distillation
C. dehydration D. condensation Ans: D The process of boiling seawater in order to separate it into 3318 freshwater vapor and brine is us ually defined as __________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 3320
dehydration condensation evaporation dissolution C In a two-stage flash-type distilling plant, the mesh-type vapor separators function to __________________.
A. improve distillate purity B. vent noncondensable gases C. recycle evaporator flash steam D. direct flash steam into the cooler Ans: A The quantity of heating steam supplied to the feedwater heater of a 3322 two-stage flash type distilling plant is held relatively constant by a/an __________. A. orifice plate B. attemporator C. back pressure regulator D. first-stage bypass valve Ans: A An unsteady vacuum in a submerged tube evaporator may be 3324 caused by _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 3326
air leaks in the tube nests improper venting of the tube nests inadequate steam quality to the air ejector nozzles high water level in the shell C Why is a self-sealing pump generally not satisfactory for service as a brine overboard pump?
A. Hot brine tends to form scale on the impeller peripheral edge. B. Brine density at 1.5/32 cannot be maintained. C. Hot concentrated brine tends to flash, leaving scale deposits to clog the sealing line and gland seal ring. D. Hot brine tends to clog the brine pump suction line strainer. Ans: C For optimum noncondensable gas removal from a low pressure 3328 evaporator, the air ejector suction is usually taken directly from _____________. A. the salt water feed heater shell B. anywhere on the second stage shell of the evaporator C. the shell of the first stage distilling condenser D. the shell of the second stage distilling condenser
3330
Ans: D The purpose of the flash chamber in a soloshell double effect distilling unit is to _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
raise the temperature of the ev aporator feedwater prevent flashing at the suction of the brine pump allow steam expansion within the first effect tube nest collect and combine distillate formed at different pressures D
D. level of alkalinity in condensate
3317
Ans: B A three-way solenoid operated dump valve installed on a flash-type evaporator unit, will divert impure distillate to the bilge _________.
A. only if the cell selector switch is positioned to m onitor the first stage distillate outlet B. only if the cell selector switch is positioned to m onitor the final stage distillate outlet C. regardless of the cell selector switch position D. only if power to the salinity panel is interrupted Ans: C The mesh type steam separators located in a two-stage flash 3319 distilling plant, function to _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 3321
vent noncondensable gases recycle evaporator flash steam reheat the flash steam improve distillate purity D In a double-effect distilling plant, the ev aporator feed remaining entrained in the first-effect vapor, is removed by __________________.
A. baffles and vanes B. a flash chamber C. the second effect separator D. the vapor feed heater Ans: A In a flash type distilling plant, a screen is fitted over the suction 3323 connection to the brine overboard pump in order to prevent ______________. A. the pump from cav itating B. excessively large salt crystals from damaging the pump C. scale from passing into the brine pump and clogging impeller passages D. electrolysis from occurring in the pump Ans: C On which of the following heated surfaces of a flash type evaporator 3325 would you be more likely to find soft scale formation? A. Feedwater heater internal tube surfaces. B. Internal distillate cooler tubes. C. Flash chamber vertical surfaces. D. Distilling condenser tubes. Ans: A Steam passing through the control orifice installed in the live steam 3327 supply to a low pressure ev aporator will develop significant superheat as a result of _____________. A. attemporating conditioning B. ebullient conditioning C. adiabatic conditioning D. effervescent conditioning Ans: C The purpose of a three-way, solenoid, dump valve on an 3329 evaporator is to ___________. A. prevent excessively saline distillate from entering the freshwater system B. drain the evaporator first-effect only C. drain the evaporator second-effect only D. allow the evaporator's first- and second-effects to be drained with one valve Ans: A A solenoid-operated distillate three-way valve is installedin the 3331 discharge line between the distilling plant and the potable water tanks. This valve will trip and dump the distillate discharge if the _____________. A. distillate salinity is excessive B. distillate temperature is excessive C. potable water tank has been filled with raw water D. potable water tank has become contaminated Ans: A
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Early models of the flash-type evaporators used a pump to drain condensate from the salt water feed heater. In more recent models this is commonly carried out by ___________.
3332
A. B. C. D.
3334
Scale formation in a flash-type evaporator is usually found on the ___________.
3333
the continued use of a drain pump gravitating the condensate to the atmospheric drain tank vacuum drag to the auxiliary or main condenser the use of a loop seal to the combined low pressure feed heater
A. B. C. D.
flash chamber walls tubes of the salt water feed heater tubes of the air ejector condenser tubes of the distiller condenser
Ans: C Ans: A The vacuum maintained in the salt water feed heater shell of a flash- 3335 Under normal operating conditions, the highest temperature and type evaporator is generally accomplished by ____________. pressure conditions existing in a flash-type evaporator will occur in the _______________.
A. a separate air ejector unit B. a direct unimpeded connection between second stage and salt water feed heater C. either by vacuum drag or an external line from the first stage via a fixed orifice D. the fixed orifice provided in the steam supply line Ans: C In a flash distilling unit, evaporator feed (seawater) first absorbs 3336 heat in the ___________. A. vapor feed heater B. air ejector condenser C. saltwater heater D. distillate cooler Ans: D The second stage feedwater temperature and shell absolute 3338 pressure in a multistage, flash type, distilling plant is _____________.
A. first stage B. second stage C. distillate cooler D. salt water feed heater Ans: D In a two-stage flash-type evaporator, excess brine in the first stage 3337 automatically passes _____________. A. directly to the second stage feed heater B. directly overboard through the brine cooler C. into the second stage flash chamber D. into the second stage vapor condenser Ans: C Rapid fluctuations in the shell pressure in a submerged tube 3339 distilling unit will cause ___________.
A. higher than the first stage feedwater temperature and absolute shell pressure B. lower than the first stage feedwater temperature and absolute shell pressure C. the same as the first stage feedwater temperature and absolute shell pressure D. not related to the feedwater temperature and absolute shell pressure Ans: B Short cycling of the potable water system's pump is prevented by 3340 using ________. A. constant speed supply pumps B. variable speed supply pumps C. variable delivery supply pumps D. a hydropneumatic pressure tank Ans: D A flash type distilling plant is more efficient than a high pressure 3342 evaporator as _________. I. vaporization of the feed water occurs in a vacuum II. boiling of feed water occurs only once on the tube surfaces A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II Ans: A If the brine level of a double effect soloshell evaporator is above the 3344 sight glass, which action should be taken? A. Do nothing as this is the normal operating level.
A. increased heat levels in the entire unit B. decreased priming and high salinity distillate C. first effect scale formation to be reduced D. priming in the last effect shell Ans: D When any low pressure distilling plant is operated with less than the designed vacuum, the _____________. A. heat level rises B. heat level drops C. capacity increases D. scale formation decreases Ans: A The primary reason low pressure evaporators produce distillate 3343 more efficiently, and with less scale formation, than high pressure evaporators is ____________. 3341
A. evaporation is accomplished in a vacuum B. due to the higher temperature of the incoming feed C. due to the latent heat of evaporation principle D. evaporation in a submerged medium produces more distillate Ans: A
B. The feed rate should be reduced and the brine discharge valve opened slightly. C. The brine overflow weir should be raised to allow greater outflow. D. The brine section should be drained down a minimum of 150mm below the seawater heater bundle. Ans: B 3345 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3347
PIPES AND VALVES The use of a needle valve in a piping system is recommended The designation "schedule 80 extra strong " refers to 3346 when requiring _____________. ____________. high pressure drops A. weight of steel plate close regulation of flow B. tensile strength of bolts no pressure drops C. piping wall thickness no back flow D. tubing bursting strength B Ans: C Piping cross-sections ranging from 3mm to 300mm in diameter, are 3348 On tankers using manually operated tank valves, the deck hand sized by ____________. wheel indicator registers the ____________.
A. wall strength
A. exact lift position of the tank valv e disk, through 100% of its operation
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nominal inside diameter outside diameter threaded diameter B Which of the following descriptions could be applied to short lengths of pipe called nipples? A. Fully threaded, half threaded, long, and short B. Close, short, long, and tank C. Standard, extra-strong, double extra-strong, and schedule 80
B. C. D. Ans: 3349
D. Cast, wrought, stainless, and brass Ans: B Which of the valves listed will be cycled from fully open to fully 3351 closed when the handle is turned 90°? A. A rising stem gate valve B. A globe stop valve C. A check valve D. A butterfly valve Ans: D As routine maintenance, the bilge manifold valves are periodically 3353 removed and examined. Prior to resecuring the valve bonnets, the valve _____________.
3361
3363
3365
3367
3350
D. closures Ans: A The valve best suited for throttling gas or liquid flow in a pipeline is 3352 the _____________. A. gate valve B. globe valve C. check valve D. plug cock Ans: B On tank vessels equipped with power operated cargo tank valves, 3354 the type of power operator most commonly used is ______________________.
A. disks and seats should be checked and lapped if necessary B. bonnet flange gaskets should be renewed if they were cut or torn
A. hydraulic B. electric
C. stem packing should be renewed if the packing has hardened
C. steam
D. all of the above Ans: D A gate valve installed in a piping system should be used 3355 _______________. A. in either fully closed or fully opened positions B. only with the stem facing down C. only for lube oil service D. to throttle the flow of liquid Ans: A Which of the listed materials have been used to manufacture piping 3357 available in standard weight, extra strong, and double extra strong wall thickness?
3359
oxygen content of the tank approximate number of turns the tank valve has been opened level of oil in the tank C Fittings used to close the ends of pipe are called "pipe _____________". A. caps B. ells C. tees
B. C. D. Ans:
A. Plastic B. Copper C. Iron D. All of the above Ans: C If used for regulating fluid flow through a piping system, which of the valves listed could be damaged? A. Plug valve B. Globe valve C. Gate valve D. Needle valve Ans: C When pipe is properly screwed into a tapped hole, it will give the correct fit when ______________. A. the pipe cannot be turned B. all the threads are covered C. half of the threads are covered D. all but two or three threads are covered Ans: D Excessive leakage and premature failure of valve packing is a result of ____________. A. opening a valve too quickly B. jamming a valve in the closed position C. low pressure fluid flow through the pipeline D. a scored valve stem Ans: D To connect two lengths of pipe previously set in place, you should use a pipe _____________. A. nipple B. union C. coupling D. tee Ans: B An arrow stamped on the valve body of a water regulating valve indicates the ______________. A. direction of the plunger slide B. closed position
D. diesel Ans: A Compared to globe and angle valves, gate valves ___________. 3356 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3358
Bending of the bonnet assembly Bending of the valve stem Damage to the pressure seal Distortion of the valve body B Which of the valves listed below is best suited for throttling service? A. Plug B. Globe C. Gate D. Butterfly Ans: B Piping cross-sections over 300mm in diameter are sized by the __________. A. inside diameter B. wall thickness C. outside diameter D. threaded diameter Ans: C Which of the pipe materials listed has the best resistance to internal and external corrosion? A. cast iron pipe B. cast steel pipe C. spiral welded pipe D. centrifugally cast pipe Ans: A When in the completely opened position, which of the listed types of valve will offer the least resistance to flow? A. gate valve B. globe valve C. double-seat poppet valve D. reed valve Ans: A Fabric type packing, such as flax or hemp, is best suited for _____________. A. low temperature use B. high temperature use A. B. C. D. Ans:
3360
3362
3364
3366
3368
are more suitable for throttling operate with little or no pressure drop when fully opened are more easily repaired cannot be used for service requiring infrequent operation B Which of the problems listed could happen if you attempted to force open a valve "frozen" in position by using a wrench on the handwheel?
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C. open position D. direction of the flow Ans: D When assembling a run of liquid service piping, which of the 3369 following factors should be considered? A. How the type of fittings used will affect the flow. B. What type of gasket material should be used. C. What radius should be used for each bend in the run. D. All of the above. Ans: D Small leaks in gaskets should be stopped immediately after 3371 installation because _____________. A. the leak will probably worsen in time B. the gasket may not seal itself for several hours C. the leak will result in severe flange distortion D. small leaks cause the pipeline to creep Ans: A An inverted gate valve (stem pointing downward) may be subject 3373 to wear sooner than a similar valve installed in the upright position because ______________. the gate's full weight is upon the stem the gland stud nuts are under more pressure sediment collects in the bonnet the packing will not properly adhere to the stem C The best gasket material to us e in cargo fuel oil lines is _____________________. A. sheet asbestos B. oil-resistant sheet packing C. cork sheet packing D. unvulcanized packing Ans: B Gate valves should not be used for throttling as __________. A. the pressure drop will be excessive B. air binding will develop C. the installation of an equalizing line will be necessary D. wire drawing of the disc will result Ans: D Which of the fittings listed should be used for the installation of piping to permit removal of the pump for servicing? A. Coupling B. Union C. Quick disconnect D. Nipple Ans: B Which of the following statements represents the proper relative direction of flow through a globe valve? A. Direction of flow through the valve is unimportant. B. Direction of flow through the valve depends upon the type of seat design used in the valve. C. Direction of flow should be from below the seat. D. Direction of flow should be from above the seat. Ans: C One revolution at the handwheel of a reach rod operated valve will cause the valve s tem to rotate ____________. A. one-fourth of a turn B. one-half of a turn C. three-fourths of a turn D. one turn Ans: D Which of the valves listed below permits flow in only one direction?
C. use where alignment is critical D. packing valves with badly grooved stems Ans: A Before disconnecting a joint in a pipeline, you should 3370 ________________. A. determine the size of the gasket B. hang a bucket under the joint C. have a first aid kit on hand D. be sure no pressure exists in the line Ans: D The seat of a butterfly valve will most likely be constructed of 3372 _____________. A. Monel B. stellite C. a resilient material D. admiralty metal Ans: C On vessels using reach rods to manually control the tank valves, 3374 one turn of the handwheel on deck will produce how many turns of the valve stem at the valve?
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3375
3377
3379
3381
3383
3385
A. B. C. D. Ans:
Gate valve Globe valve Check valve Plug cock C On tankers with manually operated tank valves, the type of valve most commonly used is the _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
butterfly valve globe valve gate valve check valve C
3387
One-fourth of a turn One-half of a turn Three-fourths of a turn One turn D The threaded pipe fitting called "street elbows" have _______________. A. male threads only B. female threads only C. male and female threads D. interrupted threads on each end Ans: C A pipe coupling is a fitting having ______________. A. outside threads on one end and inside threads on one end B. outside threads on both ends C. a left-hand twist D. inside threads on both ends Ans: D Which of the gasket materials and/or types listed is typically used on high pressure steam flange joints? A. Spiral wound composition asbestos B. Wire-impregnated sheet asbestos C. Rubber D. Wire-impregnated rubber Ans: A Which of the following statements is correct regarding grades of pipe? A. Stainless steel pipe is manufactured in four general grades. B. The term "extra strong" is normally associated with schedule 160 steel pipe. C. Copper pipe is manufactured in two common grades. D. Brass pipe is manufactured in three common grades. Ans: C Gate valves should not be used for throttling as __________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
3376
3378
3380
3382
3384
the pressure drop will be excessive air binding will develop the installation of an equalizing line will be necessary wire drawing of the disc will result D Allowances may be made for the expansion and contraction in 3386 piping by the use of expansion joints or _____________. A. unions B. retractable flanges C. union bulkhead fittings D. bends or loops in the line Ans: D Valves used in the machinery space piping systems, and 3388 constructed with threaded valve stems, must be ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
right-hand opening (clockwise) left-hand closing (counterclockwise) right-hand closing (clockwise) direction of opening and closing is unimportant C
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3389
The movement of steam piping, as a result of changes in temperature, is compensated for by the use of _____________.
A. expansion joints B. flexitallic gaskets C. rigid brackets D. union rings Ans: A Which of the valves listed should be used either in the fully opened 3391 or the fully closed position? A. a gate valve B. a globe valve C. any check valve D. any needle valve Ans: A Joints in pipelines must be properly aligned before they are 3393 connected because ______________. A. excessive strain on the joints will result if they are misaligned B. misalignment permits excessive expansion C. the pipe will be completely blocked by even the slightest amount of misalignment D. condensate accumulates rapidly when flanges are not properly aligned Ans: A Which of the following conditions can develop if a valve with a badly 3395 scored valve stem is repacked? A. The valve disk will crack. B. Leaking and premature failure of the packing. C. The valve disk will become eroded. D. The valve s eat will sustain damage due to fretting. Ans: B Tubing is sized by _______________________. A. allowed working pressure B. cross-section area C. nominal inside diameter D. nominal outside diameter Ans: D Gate valves should not be used for throttling as __________. 3399 A. the pressure drop will be excessive B. air binding will develop C. the installation of an equalizing line will be necessary 3397
D. cutting of the disc will result Ans: D A gate valve installed in a pipeline should be ____________. A. used in either the fully closed or fully opened position B. installed with the stem down C. used for steam service only D. used to throttle or regulate the flow of liquid Ans: A On tankers using hydraulic tank valve actuation, which of the listed 3403 valve types has the highest tendency to dev elop leaks relative to the valve, and results in more frequent maintenance? 3401
A. Gate valves B. Butterfly valves C. Globe valves D. Check valves
3405
Ans: B The handle of a butterfly valve must be ___________________. A. parallel to the axis of flow when the valve is closed B. forty-five degrees to the axis of flow when the valve is fully open C. either at 0° or 90° but never at any other angle regardless of flow rate D. parallel to the flow when in the fully open position Ans: D
Which of the problems listed could happen if you attempted to force open a valve "frozen" in position by using a wrench on the handwheel?
3390
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3392
Over compression of the packing Bending of the valve stem Rapid corrosion of the valve disc Cracking of gaskets upstream of the valve B Before making up a flanged joint, you should _____________.
A. be certain that the flanges line up squarely B. cut grooves in the flange face with a chisel C. heat the pipeline to expand the bolt holes D. have a second spare gasket on hand Ans: A The valve which is most suited for regulating the flow through a 3394 pipeline is a _____________. A. gate valve B. globe valve C. swing-check valve D. plug-cock valve
3396
Ans: B If you were uncertain as to what type of gasket material to install in a pipeline, you should ____________. A. turn the old gasket ov er and install it again B. check the ship's plans or manufacturer's instructions C. leave the old gasket in and cover it with Permatex® D. make up the joint without a gasket until you can check with the chief
Ans: B A swing check valve is used in a pipeline to _____________. A. maintain a preset pressure on the line B. closely regulate the amount of flow C. relieve excessive pressure on the line D. allow flow in one direction only Ans: D Piping is sized by its nominal _________________. 3400 A. inside diameter regardless of other parameters B. outside diameter regardless of other parameters C. inside diameter from 3mm to 300mm, and over 300mm by its outside diameter D. inside diameter from 3mm to 600mm, and over 600mm by its outside diameter Ans: C A "close nipple" is a piece of pipe that is _____________. 3402 A. less than 12mm long B. threaded along the entire length C. shorter than the nipple outside diameter D. thread only on one end Ans: B An electric motor driven (torque producing) remotely controlled, 3404 valve actuator is installed on the high sea suction with the "red" indicator light illuminated. When the "open" push button is depressed, the "green" indicator light comes on momentarily an 3398
A. Alternately depress the "close" and "open" buttons to get the valve open. B. Manually engage the actuator handwheel and "break" the valve disk from its seat, then push the "open" button. C. Secure power, tag out system and make repairs because the valv e stem has sheared. D. Secure the breaker to this device, then switch the motor leads and push the "open" button. Ans: B Which of the following statements concerning butterfly valves is 3406 correct? A. Special tools are required for lapping or grinding. B. The butterfly valve should never be used in a freshwater system. C. To close the valve, it is only necessary to turn the handle a quarter of a turn. D. It is impossible to throttle flow with a butterfly valve. Ans: C
Page 192
Which of the flange types listed identifies the construction of a pipe joint where a flange is slipped over a length of pipe, the pipe end is heated, then setup (flanged) in a special machine, and then the end of the pipe is machined to form the actual f
3407
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3409
Raised face flange Socket joint Walseal joint Lap joint (van stone) flange D On tank vessels, which of the listed valve types is most commonly used in conjunction with hydraulically actuated controls?
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3410
A. gate valve B. globe valve C. butterfly valve D. nonreturn valve Ans: C When replacing a gask et in a six-bolt flanged joint, in what order 3411 should the bolts be tightened? A. Each bolt should be installed and tightened in consecutive order in the clockwise direction. B. Each bolt should be installed and tightened in consecutive order in the counterclockwise direction.
C. Variable spring tension caused by the c hanging temperature. D. Frost on the liquid line. Ans: B A non-rising stem gate valve should _____________. 3412 A. be completely opened with the handwheel locked hard at the end of the last opening turn B. be opened to the end of the last opening turn, then rotate the handwheel in the closing direction by approximately 1/4 of a turn
D. Install and tighten bolts in pairs which are opposite each other in the flange (1-4, 2-5, and 3-6). Ans: D STEERING The action necessary to transfer the steering control from the 3413 3414 wheelhouse to local control in order to use the steering gear room trick wheel, is to _____________. A. align the trick wheel to the rudder angle position B. set the six-way control valve in the trick wheel position C. open the power transfer switch before engaging the trick wheel
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3417
A. B. C. D.
3419
trick wheel accumulator standby pump telemotor C When the helm demands a 20‚ right rudder movement from an electro-hydraulic steering gear, which of the listed actions will be the FIRST action to happen when this rudder position is attained?
A. The follow-up gear B. The rudder angle indicator C. The synchronous electric transmitter D. A rudder angle limit switch Ans: A The follow-up gear on an electro-hydraulic steering gear 3421 ____________. A. relieves excessive fluid pressure. B. takes the pump off stroke when the desired rudder angle is attained. C. allows for rudder movement faster than the movement of the ship's wheel.
C. be opened by 1/2 of the total number of turns available from full closed to full open D. be opened as much as needed, regardless of how little the gate has been moved from its seat Ans: B As the designated rudder angle is being achieved, as a result of the original command input, the steering gear follow-up mechanism is ____________. A. in motion, providing a null input B. not in motion, thus providing a null input C. in motion, providing an input to place the main pump on maximum stroke D. in motion, providing an input to place the main pump at null s troke
3416
Ans: D When there is no movement of the rams on an electro-hydraulic steering gear, the tilting box of the running pump is _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
3418
The six-way valve opens. The steering service pump motor is stopped. The follow-up gear takes the pump off stroke. The cylinder relief valves bypass oil to the suction side of the pump.
Ans: C Which of the devices listed, when used on an electro-hydraulic steering gear, keeps the movement of the rudder closely in step with the steering wheel?
cross connection to an alternate power supply cycling all connected valves once operating any valve independently closing the boiler quick-closing fuel valves B Which of the problems listed represents the major difficulty encountered with thermal expansion valve operation?
A. Lube oil passing through the system. B. Moisture or foreign matter collecting at the valve s eat and orifice.
C. Install and tighten bolts 1, 3, 4, 2, 5, and 6, in that order.
D. always place the rudder in the midship position to engage the trick wheel Ans: A If one hydraulic pump of an electro-hydraulic steering unit fails, the 3415 vessel's steering can be initially and best maintained by using the _____________.
Regulations require all power-operated valves, other than those opened against spring force, to have an energy storage system. That energy storage system shall be capable of ____________.
3408
A. B. C. D.
3420
set for maximum torque on the purge and vent stroke in the neutral position rotating backwards C In an electro-hydraulic steering system, rudder movement is maintained in close synchronization with the s teering wheel position by means of the _____________. trickwheel follow-up control six-way valve Rapson slide
Ans: B Your vessel is departing at 1800 hours on a voyage of m ore than 48 hours duration. Regulations require that the steering gear be examined and tested no earlier than ____________.
A. 0600 hours B. 0900 hours C. 1200 hours D. 1500 hours Ans: A Which of the following statements concerning the operation of a 3422 single-acting hydraulic ram is correct? A. Hydraulic force is applied simultaneously in two directions against the ram by directional ports. B. The single-acting ram is both extended and retracted by means of hydraulic force. C. The single-acting ram is not retracted by means of hydraulic force.
Page 193
D. returns the rudder to amidships when the wheel is released. Ans: B Which of the following types of hydraulic pumps would be used in a steering system? A. Lobe B. Screw C. Radial piston D. Volute Ans: C Air trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a steering system should be 3425 indicated by ____________. 3423
the pump overspeeding an improper rudder response bubbles in the sight glass ram relief valves lifting B When the s teering wheel is turned, oil is directed to the steering gear rams by _____________. A. modulating the oil flow with the six-way valve B. moving the automatic pressure differential valve
D. Hydraulic force applied to a single-acting ram results in a pulling motion. Ans: C When air becomes trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a steering 3424 system, the _____________. A. rudder will respond sluggishly B. hydraulic rams will overspeed C. sight glass will show bubbles D. ram relief valves will lift Ans: A While inspecting the steering system at sea, you should check for 3426 _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3427
3429
3428
C. moving the receiving telemotor which regulates the two-way valve
C. automatically purge all entrained air from the system
D. varying the eccentricity of a floating ring or angle of a tilting box
D. send hydraulic signals to the receiving unit
Ans: D A solenoid, direct-acting, three-position, spring-centered, directional control valve is used in a hydraulic system to control a linear actuator. With the actuator under load there is no movement. However, when the load is removed the actuator can be cycl
3430
A. One or both of the centering springs has broken and the spool has jammed in the valve body. B. One or both of the solenoid coils has sustained an open. C. The pump coupling is damaged and the pump is unable to attain its rated speed of rotation. D. The pump coupling has sheared and the motor is overspeeding.
3431
air bubbles in the sight glass any leaks in the system overtravel in the rudder angle indicator lost motion in the rams B The function of the hydraulic telemotor transmitter used in an electro-hydraulic steering gear system is to ___________. A. transmit the rudder angle to the bridge indicator B. prevent the control linkage from striking the stops when hard over
A. B. C. D. Ans:
Ans: C On an electro-hydraulic steering gear, which of the listed devices will keep the rudder from overtraveling the bridge signal?
Rudder angle indicator Follow-up gear Electric transmitter Rudder angle limit switch B Air trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a steering system may be 3433 indicated by ____________. A. the steering pumps overspeeding B. a jammed open relief valve C. a constantly occurring improper rudder response D. excessive ram pressure Ans: C In an electro-hydraulic steering system, rudder shock is limited by 3435 _____________. A. a differential gear B. return springs C. a hydraulic accumulator D. relief valves Ans: D When the s teering gear is in operation, you should ________. 3437 A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. check hydraulic oil levels every hour B. check the rams for ov erheating C. check for excessive oil leakage from rams D. drain water from telemotor cylinders each watch Ans: C If a severe leak develops in the electro-hydraulic steering gear, 3439 which of the listed conditions could result? A. Loss of vessel steering B. Overheating of the gyrocompass C. Jamming of the six-way valve
Ans: D When the helm angle position is changed, the series ofcorresponding events of the steering gear will include__________. I. length of time the steering gear pump remains on stroke is proportional to helm angle input II. system pressure being higher for A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II
3432
Ans: A When the helm is turned on the navigation bridge, which of the listed actions will be the FIRST response in the steering room on a ship equipped with an electro-hydraulic steering gear?
The pumps go to full stroke. The six-way valve aligns itself with the running pump. Both port and starboard cables are energized. The synchronous receiver turns, duplicating the helm motion. D Most hydraulic steering gears are fitted with relief valves which 3434 _____________. A. function when the rudder is amidships B. relieve excess whip pressure from the hydraulic oil system C. protect the piping assembly from external rudder shock D. relieve excessive telemotor pressure Ans: C Rudder motion is prevented from exceeding the movement of the 3436 steering wheel by the _____________. A. return springs B. six-way valve C. follow-up gear D. differential gear Ans: C When the desired rudder angle is attained by a typical double ram 3438 electro-hydraulic steering gear, the ___________. A. ram relief valves bypass oil to stop rudder movement B. six-way valve shifts to the neutral flow position C. steering pump electric motor is de-energized by the transfer s witch A. B. C. D. Ans:
D. follow-up gear takes the hydraulic pump off stroke Ans: D A power failure in the hydraulic system of a compact type steering 3440 gear would cause the rudder to _____________. A. swing 35° right or left B. remain locked in its last position C. move to the midship position automatically
Page 194
D. Jamming of the follow-up device Ans: A Regulations require that an indicatinglight, located at the propulsion 3441 control station, beilluminated if there is an overload that would causeoverheating of the _________. forced draft blower motor fuel pump motor steering gear motor condensate pump motor C Dual electro-hydraulic steering units usually operate 3443 _____________. A. with both pumps on line at the same time B. with one pump on standby C. with the follow-up gear disconnected D. only when the rudder is moved amidships Ans: B When the helm angle position is changed, the series 3445 ofcorresponding events of the steering gear will include__________. I. rate of steering gear ram movement will be proportional to amount of helm angle input II. degree of tilting plate (box) angle wi
D. jam against the rudder emergency stops Ans: B A vertical shaft having a rudder attached to its lower end and having 3442 a yoke, quadrant, or tiller fitted to its upper portion by which it may be turned, is the _________________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II B In an emergency, the electro-hydraulic steering units can be directly controlled by the _____________. A. trick wheel B. rapson slide C. follow-up gear D. receiver unit Ans: A In an electro-hydraulic steering system, damage due to rudder shock is prevented by _____________. A. buffer springs B. relief valves C. oil flowing through the pumps D. dashpots Ans: B The purging of air from an electro-hydraulic steering gear unit is necessary when _____________. A. changing over to hand pump operation B. engaging the trick wheel C. the system has been filled with new oil D. the rudder angle indicator does not match the helm position Ans: C Regulations require hydraulic steering gear systems to be equipped with a means of steadying the rudder in an emergency. This may be accomplished with ____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3444 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3446
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3447
3449
3451
3453
3455
rudder frame rudder post rudder stock stern post C Under normal operating conditions, the rudder is hydraulically locked unless _____________. the manual trick wheel is engaged for steering the variable stroke pump is off stroke a rudder order is given by the control system an electric power system failure occurs at the steering gear C Regulations require that prior to departure on a three-day voyage, the steering gear, whistle, and communications system between the bridge and engine room must be tested prior to departure no earlier than _____.
1 hour 4 hours 8 hours 12 hours D Hydraulic pumps most commonly used in steering systems are of the ____________. A. lobe type B. screw type C. axial piston type D. volute type Ans: C While inspecting the steering gear at sea, you should check for _____________. A. any leaks in the system B. accuracy of the rudder angle indicator C. movement of the trick wheel D. position of the six-way valve Ans: A Air trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a steering system would be indicated by _____________. A. an improper rudder response B. hammering noises in the equipment or transmission lines C. popping or sputtering noises D. all the above Ans: D According to Regulations ,which of the following statements is correct regarding the steering apparatus requirements for a vessel over 75 metres in length? A. B. C. D. Ans:
3448
3450
3452
3454
A. a suitable arrangement of stop valves in the main piping B. a positive arrangement for stopping the rudder before the rudder stops are reached
A. Hydraulic structural rudder stops are mandatory. B. On hydraulic type steering gears, a suitable arrangement of check valves in the main piping system may be cons idered as a means of steadying the rudder.
C. a suitable arrangement of block and tackle powered by winches
C. A separate auxiliary means of steering is not required where the main gear is of the dual power hydraulic type, having two independent pumps and connections.
D. buffer arrangements to relieve the gear from shocks to the rudder
D. All of the above.
Ans: A Regulations make certain requirementsregarding overcurrent protection. Steering gear feeder circuits shall be protected only by _____________.
A. a circuit breaker with instantaneous trip B. motor running overcurrent protection C. a nonrenewable link cartridge fuse D. a renewable link cartridge fuse Ans: A Of the equipment listed below, which equipment must be tested 3457 NOT more than 12 hours prior to getting underway from a port when the voyage is to be of 48 hours or greater duration? A. Steering gear
3456
Ans: C Electric and electro-hydraulic steering gear motors are required by Regulations to be _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
3458
protected by a circuit breaker and a thermal overload device provided with a running motor overcurrent protection device served by a single two conductor cable served by two feeder c ircuits D Hydraulically, servo-operated, automatic, change over valves, utilized in a two ram hydraulic steering gear, serve to ____________.
A. allow an alternate main pump to start in the fully loaded condition thus developing immediate full torque
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B. Emergency generator
B. prevent either main pump from being hydraulically motored when idle by cross pressure flow C. prevent both units from operating simultaneously which could result in doubling the flow of oil and pressure leading to over pressurization of the system
C. All internal vessel power control communications and alarms
D. All of the above Ans: A Which of the listed systems related to an engineer's signal alarm 3459 panel is required to be indicated by a continuously illuminated light while in operation?
D. all of the above Ans: B Rotation of the steering wheel on the navigation bridge initiates oil 3460 pressure being applied to the steering gear rams by _____________.
A. Deaerating tank low level B. Shaft alley bilge high level C. Port or starboard steering gear motor running
A. regulating the oil flow with the six-way valv e B. moving the automatic differential valve C. moving the receiving telemotor which regulates the two-way valve
D. No. 1 diesel generator low lube oil pressure
D. varying the angle of a tilting box or eccentricity of a floating ring
Ans: C An AC synchronous transmission type remote steering control system consists of a ______________. A. transmitter at the steering station and a receiver at the steering engine B. reversible motor at the steering station geared to the steering pumps C. small induction motor on the bridge which controls the rudder through pulleys D. variable displacement hydraulic pump driven by a reversible DC motor Ans: A According to Regulations , a power driven auxiliary steering gear 3463 for a vessel capable of a 12 knot service speed, must be able to meet the rudder movement requirements at which of the minimum vessel speeds listed below? 3461
6 knots 7 knots 9 knots 12 knots B Regulations require that electric andelectro-hydraulic steering gear 3465 motors shall be _____________. A. served by two electric power feeder c ircuits B. provided with a motor running overcurrent protection device C. protected by a circuit breaker and a thermal overload device D. served by a single two conductor cable Ans: A The follow-up gear on an electro-hydraulic steering gear 3467 _____________.
3462
electro-hydraulic
B. take the pump off stroke when desired rudder angle is attained C. redirect hydraulic fluid flow when changing over pumps D. ensure positive contact between the Rapson s lide and the rudder post Ans: C A power-driven auxiliary steering gear is required by Regulations to 3464 be capable of putting the rudder over from 15‚ on one side to 15‚ on the other side with the vessel running ahead. For a 20 knot vessel, this test must be carried out at a s peed of ____
A. B. C. D. Ans:
3469
Ans: D The purpose of the six-way valve used in an steering system is to _____________. A. parallel rudder motion to the steering wheel
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3466
7 knots 10 knots 15 knots 20 knots B Rudder position is shown on the bridge by the _____________.
A. rudder angle indicator B. follow-up gear C. telemotor position D. Rapson slide indicator Ans: A In an electro-hydraulic steering gear, any change in relative 3468 position between the synchronous receiver and the follow-up gear will result in _____________.
A. relieves excessive fluid pressure B. takes the pump off stroke when the desired rudder angle is attained
A. the pump going to full stroke B. closing of the six-way valve
C. synchronizes wheel position with the rudder position D. returns the rudder to midposition when the wheel is released
C. driving the rams up against the stops D. a corresponding slowing or increasing of the pumped flow rate
Ans: B In an electro-hydraulic steering gear system, when will the variable displacement pump be placed on stroke? A. When the helm is at any angle other than amidships.
Ans: D
B. When the six-way valve is opened. C. When the ram relief valves lift. D. When the rudder angle is different from the position of the helm. Ans: D 3470 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3472
HYDRAULICS AND DECK MACHINERY In a radial piston pump, rev ersal and control of fluid flow are The usual number of single-acting pistons used in a variable 3471 accomplished by moving the _____________. stroke axial-piston pump is _____________. central valve A. 3 or 5 radial plunger B. 5 or 7 floating ring C. 7 or 9 cylinder body D. 9 or 11 C Ans: C Dryseal threads, typically used for tubing to pipe connectors, and The size of flexible hose used in a hydraulic system is indicated by 3473 threaded piping in hydraulic systems are ___________. _____________.
A. the same as National Pipe threads
A. the inside diameter of the tube
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B. different than NPT as the crest of a matching thread is in contact with the trough of the opposing thread C. different than NPT as the flanks of the matching threads are in contact with the opposing threads D. the same as National Fine threads Ans: B To charge a bladder type hydraulic accumulator ____________. 3474 A. remove all hydraulic system pressure and bring the pneumatic pressure to the accumulator preload pressure B. remove all hydraulic system pressure and bring the pneumatic pressure to the system's design pressure C. increase the pneumatic pressure until the hydraulic system reaches its design pressure D. allow the accumulator to completely fill with gas charge at atmospheric pressure, shut off the air chamber, and add hydraulic fluid until proper pressure is reached Ans: A In application, which of the listed sealing devices is most similar to an O-ring? A. V-ring B. Cup seal C. U-ring D. Quad ring Ans: D The purpose of an accumulator in a hydraulic system is to 3478 ______________. A. collect any dirt in the system B. collect fluid from any small leak C. preheat the fluid during cold weather D. store potential energy in the form of hydraulic fluid under pressure in the system Ans: D In which of the listed hydraulic system c omponents could an O-ring 3480 seal be satisfactorily used in providing a seal? 3476
High pressure pump shaft casing Low pressure pump shaft casing Linear actuator without nylon insert Relief valve spool D When installing a hydraulic hose, which of the following precautions should be taken? A. The hose should not be twisted. B. The hose should be protected with a sleeve if it is subjected to rubbing. C. There should be some slack in the hose.
B. the numerical designation found on the "skin" of the hose C. a color code on the armor D. the thickness of the tube wall Ans: B Before doing any work on a hydraulic system equipped with 3475 accumulators, you should _____________. A. drain the accumulators and purge with oxygen B. bleed off all stored energy from the accumulators C. completely charge the accumulators to prevent system energy loss D. pump the hydraulic fluid into the accumulators to prev ent fluid loss
Ans: B As a rule of thumb, when pressure is applied to hydraulic oil, the oil will _____________. A. not be compressed, as liquids are not compressible B. reduce in volume by 1% for every 7bar increment C. increase in volume by 1% for every 70bar increment D. reduce in volume by 1/2% for every 70bar increment Ans: D Obstructed suction passages in the casing or pintle of a radial 3479 piston hydraulic pump will cause the _____________. A. pump back pressure to decrease B. pump return and discharge pressures to equalize C. pumped fluid volume to decrease D. pump discharge flow to drop to zero 3477
3481
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3482
D. All of the above. Ans: D A reservoir, as used in hydraulic systems aboard ship, is used to 3484 store hydraulic oil. Another function is to _____________. act as a shock absorber maintain the stored oil under pressure act as a base or foundation for the power unit eliminate pressure surges in the system C Strainers are commonly used in hydraulic systems to 3486 ___________. A. protect the pump from fine soluble contaminants B. prevent solid particles from entering the pump C. prevent solid particles from entering the filter D. protect the directional control valves Ans: B An O-ring seal in a hydraulic system will begin to leak when it has 3488 lost its interference fit due to ____________. A. compression set or wear B. low fluid pressure C. high fluid flow D. low fluid temperature Ans: A One function provided by a hydraulic accumulator is to_________. 3490 A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. provide an area where air can separate from the oil B. provide an area to separate solid contaminants from the oil
Ans: C Before performing any maintenance on a hydraulic system storing energy in an accumulator, you should _____________. pressurize the system to test for leaks bleed off all pressure within the system operate the machine until it reaches normal temperature disconnect the pump pressure control switch B To convert a vane type hydraulic pump to a hydraulic motor, which of the following would have to be done? A. Double the casing thickness. B. Install an enlarged control ring around the rotor.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3483
C. Provide small springs between the vanes and the base of the v ane slots. D. Provide one additional slot and vane. Ans: C The amount of the cushioning effect developed within a hydraulic 3485 cylinder is determined by the ____________. position of the directional port in the cushion cav ity adjustment of the cushion cavity check valve design shape of the c ylinder ends setting of the cushioning adjustment needle valve D A hydraulic system directional control valve fitted with "detent" will 3487 _____________. A. have an infinite number of valve positions B. usually be shifted into three specific positions C. be able to be varied through out the travel of the valv e spool D. have an offset, directional control only Ans: B Purging air from a hydraulic system is necessary when 3489 _______________. A. adding small amounts of oil to the system B. the system has been overheated C. the system has been drained and then filled with new oil D. the system has been idle for a long period of time Ans: C Energy losses occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately 3491 absorbed by the _____________. A. reservoir expansion chamber B. hydraulic piping flexibility A. B. C. D. Ans:
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C. act as an oil and water separator D. absorb shocks occurring in the system Ans: D The movement of heat within a fluid, caused by the application of 3492 thermal energy, is called ___________. A. radiation B. conduction C. convection D. condo-radiation Ans: C The delivery rate of an axial-piston hydraulic pump is controlled by 3494 varying the position of the ____________. A. sliding block B. C. D. Ans: 3496
pintle reaction ring tilting box or swash plate D If the pump in a hydraulic system produces a low rumbling noise while in operation, this is a probable indication of _______________.
internal system fluid leakage air passing through the pump strained hydraulic fluid excess internal slippage B If the relief valve on the discharge side of a hydraulic pump lifts, the 3498 cause could be _____________. A. a low load on the unit B. a clogged pump suction strainer C. a blockage in the line between the pump and hydraulic motor D. the hydraulic motor turning too fast Ans: C Return lines in a non-pressurized hydraulic system reservoir 3500 should enter the tank well below the fluid surface level to _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. prevent foaming B. prevent moisture accumulation C. prevent vacuum formation D. accommodate thermal expansion Ans: A Overheating of a hydraulic system may be a result of ______. 3502 A. changing pump discharge pressure in response to normal load variations B. a high oil level C. incorrect fluid viscosity D. continued slow recirculation of the oil Ans: C An orifice-check valve placed in a hydraulic system is used to 3504 ______________. A. regulate the fluid flow in either direction B. restrict movement of hydraulic fluid in one direction, but allow free movement in the other direction C. allow free movement of hydraulic fluid in both directions D. allow a restricted fluid flow in one direction only Ans: D In a typical hydraulic system, a baffle is installed in thereservoir to 3506 _______. I. insure proper lubrication of the hydraulic pump II. assist in the removal of Solid contaminants entrained in the returning oil A. B. C. D. Ans: 3508
I only II only Both I and II Neither I and II C As a general rule of thumb, the reservoir used in a hydraulic system should have a capacity, when at the normal level, approximately equal to ____________.
A. two to three times the normal flow rate through the system B. the flow rate through the system C. ten times the flow rate through the s ystem D. the pump gpm Ans: A
C. atmosphere as heat D. fluid as friction Ans: C How can the chance of contaminating hydraulic fluid be decreased 3493 when working on hydraulic systems? A. Clean the fittings before they are disconnected. B. Place drip pans under leaky fittings. C. Seal any cracks in lines with Permatex. D. Coat all threads with graphite oil. Ans: A If a hydraulic pump is producing a noisy whine when in operation, 3495 the cause may be ____________. A. an air leak in the pump suction line above the oil level in the reservoir B. low viscosity in the hydraulic fluid C. an oil leak across the pump shaft packing D. due to the wrong direction of rotation of the hydraulic motor Ans: A Which of the listed conditions will occur if the discharge pressure of 3497 a rotary pump is increased from the designed 3.50 kg/cm2 to 21.0 kg/cm2, while maintaining the same RPM? A. The pump capacity will be decreased. B. The pump capacity will be increased. C. Pump efficiency will be increased. D. Internal liquid slippage will be reduced. Ans: A Cavitation in a hydraulic pump is indicated by noisy pump operation 3499 and can be caused by a/an _____________. A. high fluid level in the reservoir B. hydraulic fluid low floc point C. excessive discharge pressure from the pump D. clogged suction strainer in the reservoir Ans: D An internal bypass is provided on some hydraulic system suction 3501 strainers to help reduce the possibility of _______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 3503
aeration of the oil contamination of the oil pump cavitation spongy actuator movements C A reservoir is used in a hydraulic system to _____________.
A. store fluid until required by the system provide a place for air to separate out of the fluid provide a place for contaminants to settle out all of the above D Hydraulic system reservoirs should be m aintained at recommended normal levels to reduce ___________. A. condensation on inside walls B. heat retention of working fluid
B. C. D. Ans: 3505
C. frequency of fluid changeover D. all of the above Ans: D In a typical hydraulic system, a baffle is installed in thereservoir to 3507 _______. I. provide a critical reduction in free surface effect hydraulic pump II. assist in retaining the hydraulic oil to provide heat removal A. B. C. D. Ans:
I only II only Both I and II Neither I and II B Which of the following problems occurring in a hydraulic system can be caused by the use of an oil having a viscosity lower than specified?
A. B. C. D. Ans:
Seal deterioration Fast response and hunting Increased power consumption Oil film breakdown C
3509
Page 198
3510
Which of the devices listed would be considered a hydraulic system directional control valve? A. Counterbalance valve B. Offset, two position valve C. Sequencing valve
D. Unloading valve Ans: B A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator 3512 speed, with the pump operating below maximum operating pressure is known as the ____________.
Why is a hydraulic linear actuator fitted with a cushioning device?
3511
A. To regulate actuator speed through the entire stroke length. B. To slow the action of the piston preventing shock and damage due to hammering effects. C. To allow the pump to temporarily operate at a pressure 10% above the relief valve setting without lifting the relief valve. D. All of the above. Ans: B A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator 3513 speed during extension, with the pump operating at system pressure, is known as a ____________.
metered-in circuit metered-out circuit bleed-in circuit bleed-off circuit D The determining factor for the strength of a flexible rubber hydraulic 3514 hose is the _____________. A. external cover B. synthetic rubber inner tube C. braided layer D. teflon sleeve Ans: C When normal operating pressure is applied to the hydraulic oil in a 3516 high-pressure system, the oil ____________. A. viscosity will increase B. viscosity will decrease C. volume will increase D. floc point will increase Ans: A Which of the listed pressure-control valves would be used in a 3518 hydraulic system to temporarily divert some, or all of the pump discharge until the additional flow was required?
A. metered-in circuit B. metered-out circuit C. bleed-off circuit D. bleed-in circuit Ans: A The by-products of oxidation, as a result of water contamination of 3515 hydraulic oil, are generally ____________. A. removed by cellulose type filters B. gums, varnishes, and acids C. always neutralized by oil additives D. harmless and have no effect on system c omponents Ans: B If a radial piston hydraulic pump fails to deliver rated fluid volume, 3517 the cause can be _______________. A. contaminated fluid B. pitted thrust rings C. worn pintle bearings D. obstructed suctions passage Ans: D An axial piston pump differs from a radial piston pump as the 3519 pistons of an axial piston pump are positioned _____________.
counterbalance valve unloading valve compound, pressure-relief valve sequence valve B Which of the devices listed would be considered a hydraulic system 3520 directional control valve? A. three-position valve B. sequencing valve C. unloading valve D. counterbalance valve Ans: A Winch gears must be maintained in proper alignment to prevent 3522 _____________. A. overheating of the lube oil B. overspeeding of the motor C. wear on the braking system D. damage to the teeth Ans: D A mooring winch should be equipped with mechanical brakes 3524 capable of holding ________________.
radially from the shaft parallel to each other and to the shaft parallel to each other but at a right angle to the shaft at an angle to each other and to the shaft B The speed of a radial piston hydraulic MOTOR is controlled by 3521 varying the _________. A. amount of cylinder block offset with respect to the rotor B. fluid flow rate discharged to the motor C. length of the motor piston stroke on the power cycle D. pintle discharge rate to the suction side of the pump Ans: B A check run on a hydraulic anchor windlass during long periods of 3523 inactivity should be carried out to ____________. A. prevent chemical breakdown of hydraulic fluid B. remove condensation from the fluid reservoir C. prevent the anchor from seizing in the hawsepipe D. renew the internal coating of lubrication Ans: D The torque rating of a fluid power motor is expressed in 3525 _______________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3526
half the breaking strength of the mooring line the full breaking strength of the mooring line the maximum expected tension of the mooring line 50% over the working tension of the mooring line B The delivery rate of a variable stroke axial piston hydraulic pump is controlled by varying the position of the ______________.
slide block tilting box pintle reaction ring B Directional control valves used in hydraulic systems may be positioned ____________. A. manually B. mechanically
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3527
C. electrically
seals metals and plating paint all of the above D The baffle plate used in the reservoir of a hydraulic system serves to _____________. A. reduce fluid turbulence at the pump suction B. minimize the amount of contamination deposited from return lines entering the system C. minimize the entrance of entrained air through the pump inlet line
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3528
RPMs under a given load condition Newton-metre at a given pressure Newton-metre per piston stroke Newton-metre per rate of input flow B When changing to a fire resistant hydraulic fluid in a system, it is important to check the compatibility of the new fluid with the system's _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3529
Page 199
Ans: D Which of the valves listed is not considered to be a hydraulic system directional control valve? A. Two-position v alve B. Three-position valve C. Detented-position v alve D. Counterbalance valve Ans: D In a typical hydraulic system, return lines to thereservoir are 3532 ___________. I. terminated at or just above the normal level II. placed as far from the pump suction as poss ible 3530
Ans: D Energy imparted to the hydraulic fluid in an operating hydraulic system is stored in the ____________. A. accumulator B. actuator C. ram D. reservoir Ans: A Proper internal lubrication of a hydraulic anchor windlass left idle for 3533 extended periods can be accomplished by _______________. 3531
I only II only Both I and II Neither I and II B Which of the following devices is not considered to be a pressure 3534 vessel? A. Low pressure evaporator B. Deaerating feed heater C. Hydraulic fluid power cylinder D. Fuel oil heater Ans: C If an anchor windlass has been idle for some time, you should 3536 _____________. A. repack all valve stems B. lubricate it prior to use C. replace the foundation bolts D. balance the warping heads Ans: B A device incorporating a variable orifice placed in series with a 3538 check valve in a hydraulic system, is used to ________________.
A. performing a check run on the unit at regular intervals B. testing the hydraulic fluid for proper pH C. checking the reservoir for proper level D. cleaning strainers at regular intervals Ans: A Which of the devices listed is considered to be a hydraulic system 3535 directional control valve? A. Unloading valve B. Counterbalance valve C. Detented position valve D. Sequencing valve Ans: C Which of the following is the most common type of valving element 3537 used in hydraulic system directional control valves? A. Nutating disk B. Sliding spool C. Elongated ball or cone D. Restricted orifice poppet Ans: B Water allowed to accumulate in the hydraulic system oil will cause 3539 an oxidation process producing by-products which are normally _______________.
allow free movement of hydraulic fluid in both directions allow fluid flow in one direction only allow throttled fluid flow in one direction only restrict hydraulic fluid flow in both directions C Hydraulic machinery failures are commonly caused by contamination of the hydraulic fluid and _________.
A. gums, acids, and varnishes B. removed by cellulose type filters C. neutralized by oil additives D. not removed by absorbent filters Ans: A The purpose of a restrictor valve, as it is used in a hydraulic hatch 3541 cover system, is to _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3540
fluid friction fluid turbulence component misalignment pressure surges C Prolonged operation of a hydraulic pump in a cavitating condition 3542 can cause _____________. A. the hydraulic fluid to become overheated B. the fluid motor to become overloaded C. the relief valve to hum D. a wide variation in fluid pressure surges Ans: A When renewing sections of pipe in a hydraulic system, the nominal 3544 pipe size of the piping always indicates the ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
3546
3548
3543 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3545
prevent oil backflow to the actuators prevent the hydraulic pump from ov erheating control the speed of the hatch cover mov ement while closing restrict the oil supply to the hatch covers not in use C The output volume of a positive fixed displacement pump can be changed only by _______________. changing the angle of the tilting plate changing the speed of the pump moving the slide block and rotor moving the shaft trunnion block B Which of the following problems will occur if the internal drain at either end of a hydraulic, two-way, spool-type directional control valve cylinder were to become plugged?
A. end the return line as far as practicable from the pump suction
The reservoir would become vapor bound. The valve would be placed in hydraulic lock. The spring loaded relief ports would open. The buffering chambers would be unable to function. B If dirt is allowed to contaminate the sump of a hydraulic deck c rane, which of the following problems will occur? A. All the seals in the hydraulic lines will immediately blow out.
B. end the return line as close to the pump suction as possible C. provide a "P" or "S" trap in the return line as close to the reservoir as possible to trap sediment from entering the tank D. connect the return lines directly to the cleanout and inspection plates to limit the number of openings on the reservoir
B. The sheathing on the hydraulic lines will fracture. C. The lifting capacity of the crane will be immediately reduced by 70%. D. The internal parts of the pump and hydraulic motor will wear excessively.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
actual inside diameter actual outside diameter wall thickness size for threaded connections D Return lines to hydraulic systems reservoirs should________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
Ans: A The delivery rate of an axial piston hydraulic pump is controlled by varying the position of the _____________. A. tilting box B. slide block C. pintle
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3547
3549
Ans: D A gradual decrease in the discharge pressure of an operating hydraulic pump can be caused by _____________. A. the four-way control valve failing to shift B. the bleeder valve sticking in the open position C. cold hydraulic fluid
Page 200
D. reaction ring Ans: A If you are given the job of adding hydraulic fluid to a mooring 3550 winch, and are not certain as to the type of fluid to use, you should _____________.
D. a clogged air vent filter on the oil reservoir Ans: D Hydraulic system reservoirs are often fitted with a combined 3551 filler/breather cap. If the breather element becomes fouled, the _______________.
add fluid that is the same color as the fluid in the reservoir add turbine oil because it is always a good substitute add any oil that has the same viscosity as the hydraulic fluid check the winch manufacturer's instruction book D The oil in a cargo winch gear box should be sampled periodically 3552 to _____________. A. prevent the gear box from leaking B. prevent the oil from becoming inflammable C. make sure it has not become c ontaminated D. make sure the motor bearings are lubricated Ans: C Which of the valves listed is NOT considered to be a hydraulic 3554 system directional control valve? A. Sequencing valve B. Two-position v alve C. Three-position valve D. Spring-centered valve Ans: A The pressure of an operating hydraulic system, as indicated by a 3556 pressure gauge, is a result of the fluid flow overcoming _________________.
reservoir will become pressurized reservoir will be subjected to a partial vacuum flow through the return lines will be stopped actuator response time will be halved B A filter used in a multi-operation hydraulic system would most likely 3553 be located ______________. A. at the pump suction B. between the pump and the directional control valves C. between the control valves and the actuators D. in the actuator return lines Ans: B Flexible hose under pressure in a hydraulic system will 3555 _________________. A. tend to twist about its long axis B. expand in length and in diameter C. contract in length and expand in diameter D. flex at right angles to the applied pressure Ans: C Which of the listed pressure control valves would be used to 3557 establish the maximum operating pressure of a hydraulic system?
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3558
internal resistance to flow resistance of the internal components the load applied to the system all of the above D Which of the listed pressure control valves would be used to permit the completion of one action of a hydraulic system before a second action would be permitted?
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3559
Pressure-reducing valve Unloading valve Counterbalance valve Pressure-relief valve D Which of the listed pressure-control valves is used in a hydraulic system to prevent the stray movements of a vertical load until required?
Counterbalance valve Unloading valve Sequence valve Pressure-reducing valve C Which of the following statements describes the functions of a 3560 reservoir used in a hydraulic system? A. Dissipate heat B. Trap foreign matter C. Separate air from the oil D. All of the above Ans: D When a linear actuator (cylinder) is being retracted without an 3562 applied load, the pressure on the oil leaving the "cap end" will be __________.
Pressure reducing valve Counterbalance valve Unloading valve Sequence valve B Hydraulic system tubing should be anchored ev ery three or four feet 3561 to prevent ____________. A. excessive pump cavitation B. expansion and contraction of the tubing C. tube fitting leaks from vibration and pressure s urges D. tube flexing at right angles to the applied fluid pressure Ans: C If you install a new hydraulic hose in a hydraulic system, the hose 3563 must be long enough to allow for contraction to prevent _______________.
zero inversely proportional to the speed of retraction inversely proportional to the flow rate at the rod end increased as the speed of retraction increases D Which characteristic or condition will have the greatest effect on 3564 increasing a hydraulic oil's viscosity? A. Pour point B. Cloud point C. Vacuum D. Pressure Ans: D The rubber bladder or separator bag installed in a hydraulic 3566 accumulator should only be filled with __________. A. pure water B. pure oxygen C. dry nitrogen D. dry hydrogen Ans: C The component which is used to thoroughly separate small, fine, 3568 dust-like particulate contamination from hydraulic fluid is a/an _____________.
A. failure of the hydraulic hose B. excessive flow through the line C. friction in other areas of the hydraulic system D. overheating of the hydraulic fluid Ans: A Sluggish response or action of the hydraulic actuators may be a 3565 result of _____________. A. insufficient load B. excessively high oil viscosity C. relief-valve pressure setting too high D. reservoir level being maintained two inches above normal Ans: B Flanged joints in hydraulic system piping are c ommonly made leak 3567 proof by _______________. A. seal welding the mating flange surfaces B. installing suitable gaskets or O-rings C. leather wipers installed with the flange seals D. enclosing the flanged connection in a container Ans: B The clutch band of a constant tensioning mooring winch must be 3569 set up tight enough to drive the winch drum and should slip only when _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D.
accumulator filter separator strainer
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D.
excessive loads are placed on the winch minimum pull is being exerted by the winch automatic operation of the winch is desired wire is being retrieved at the maximum rate
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Ans: B New piping and tubing to be installed in a hydraulic system can be safely degreased by using _________. A. alcohol B. a water-based detergent C. carbon tetrachloride D. a special petroleum solvent Ans: D For the various sizes of tubing and wall thickness used in a 3572 hydraulic system, the inside diameter can be determined if it is remembered that the inside diameter equals the outside diameter less _____________. 3570
Ans: A The portion of a hydraulic hose that determines its overall strength, is the _____________. A. inner tube B. braided inner layer(s) C. outer cover D. outer armor Ans: B An axial piston, variable stroke pump is used in a vessel's hydraulic 3573 steering gear. Under pressure, oil continually leaks out from between the valve plate/ cylinder barrel and will ___________. 3571
A. the wall thickness B. 1.5 times the wall thickness C. 2 times the wall thickness
A. cause loss of hydraulic oil from the system B. result in extreme damage to the pump C. cause damage to the pump if not continually drained from the pump casing D. result in the system high s ide pressure to substantially drop off
D. 2.5 times the wall thickness
3574
Ans: C When the tilting box of a variable stroke axial-piston pump is perpendicular to the pump shaft, which of the following conditions will exist? A. B. C. D. Ans:
3576
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3578
The pistons reciprocate. The "B" end c ylinder barrel rotates. There is no fluid flow. Power is transmitted hydraulically. C The component used in a hydraulic system to store potential energy in the form of hydraulic fluid under pressure, is the _______________. ram accumulator piping pump B A bent axis, variable stroke, axial piston pump produces a greater capacity than a comparable tilting box-type axial piston pump, because the ___________.
3575
Ans: C Which of the following problems may be encountered by using an oil having a viscos ity higher than that specified for an operating hydraulic system? A. B. C. D. Ans:
3577
External seal leakage. Hunting due to fast response. Hydraulic oil film breakdown. Increased power consumption. D The hydraulic oil most likely to thin out when hot and thick when cold would have a viscosity index of _________________.
A. 20 B. 40 C. 60 D. 80 Ans: A Both the direction of flow and fluid flow rate of a variable 3579 displacement radial piston pump are determined by the relative positions of the ____________.
piston diameters are smaller length of stroke is greater RPM is doubled discharge/return line diameter are arranged differently B A hydraulic accumulator, used in a hydraulic system , is designed to 3580 _________________. A. store fluid under pressure B. act as the main fluid reservoir C. provide the only means of overpressure relief D. act as the singular source of fluid replenishment to a system Ans: A A valve installed in a hydraulic system to manipulate the reversal of 3582 fluid flow, is called a _____________. A. relief valve B. reservoir valve C. directional control valve D. regenative valve Ans: C Compensated flow control, or constant flow valves are used in 3584 hydraulic systems to _____________. A. compensate for major leaks in the system B. maintain the original fluid viscosity C. allow for changes in pressure and temperature within the system
pump shaft and central valve pump shaft and horizontal ports floating ring and pump shaft floating ring and cylinder body D What is the minimum permissible flashpoint of hydraulic fluid used 3581 in a system which operates at 17.6 kg/cm2(250 psi)? A. 93oC B. 102oC C. 149oC D. 157oC Ans: D A valve installed in a hydraulic system to control the reversal of 3583 fluid flow is called a _____________. A. relief valve B. reservoir valve C. directional control valve D. power valve Ans: C Plug valves installed in hydraulic systems are most suitable for use 3585 as _____________. A. main supply line throttle valves B. variable flow control valves C. two position flow control valves
D. assure constant fluid temperature Ans: C Hydraulic machinery failures are commonly caused by 3586 misalignment of the system components and by _____________.
D. check and choke valves Ans: C In the design of hydraulic piping and equipment consideration is 3587 given to minimize turbulence in the hydraulic fluid, as this will cause ______________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. hydraulic fluid contamination B. excessive fluid friction C. turbulent fluid flow D. fluid pressure surges Ans: A One function of a replenishing pump installed in many pressure3588 closed hydraulic systems, is to supply fluid flow to ____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3589
molecular fluid vibration energy losses wide pressure variations mechanical damage to control valves B Setting the relief valve opening pressure in a hydraulic system lower than the required operating pressure will result in ________________.
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the reservoir a servo control circuit position a manually controlled valve the main system acc umulators under all operating conditions B Leakage of hydraulic fluid from around the shaft of a hydraulic motor may be caused by _____________. A. permanent loss of pump suction B. worn shaft seals C. high level in the oil sump D. low motor RPM Ans: B If the pump for a hydraulic anchor windlass is overheating, the cause may be _____________. A. excessive drive motor speed B. excessive pump discharge pressure C. too low of a tilting box angle D. insufficient drive motor speed Ans: B Which of the valves listed is NOT considered to be a hydraulic system directional control valve? A. Spring-centered valve B. Unloading valve C. Three-position valve D. Two-position v alve Ans: B As a general rule of thumb, the reservoir used in a hydraulic system should have a capacity, when at the normal level, approximately equal to ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
3590
3592
3594
3596
A. two to three times the normal flow rate through the system B. the flow rate through the system C. ten times the flow rate through the s ystem D. the number of gallons a pump can circulate in one minute. Ans: A Pressure in an operating hydraulic system is developed 3598 ________________. A. only by the pump as its primary function B. by resistance to the fluid flow through the system C. by the thermal input to the system's fluid D. solely by the charge applied by the accumulators Ans: B If you install a hydraulic hose on a unit and fail to leave sufficient 3600 room for expansion, which of the following problems will develop?
3591
3593
3595
3597
A. Constant tension mooring winch system B. Hatch cover systems C. Watertight door system D. Internal combustion engine hydraulic starter system Ans: A In which of the listed hydraulic systems will the installation of an oil 3599 cooler be necessary? A. Constant tension mooring winch system B. Hatch cover system C. Watertight door system D. Internal combustion engine hydraulic starter system Ans: A When new piping sections have been fabricated for installation in a 3601 hydraulic system, prior to installation the piping should be _____________.
A. The hose may pull loose from its fittings. B. The components connected by the hose will be damaged. C. The hydraulic unit will fail to ac quire any power. D. The hydraulic fluid will overheat and breakdown. Ans: A While riding at anchor, the anchor chain should be secured by the ____________. A. windlass brake only B. chain stopper or riding pawl C. riding spindle D. anchor shackle Ans: B If a hydraulic pump is overheating, the cause may be 3604 ____________. A. excessive internal slippage in the pump B. low discharge pressure and fluid flow C. excessive fluid level in the hydraulic reservoir D. operation of the pump at 100% efficiency Ans: A Increased internal leakage, in addition to poor hydraulic system 3606 response, and inadequate lubrication, is the result of ____________. 3602
A. B. C. D. Ans:
pump bearings in poor condition excessively worn actuator-piston packing broken directional control valve centering springs low hydraulic oil viscosity D
accelerated action of the system c omponents overheating of the system overspeeding of the hydraulic pump extended system life B Which problems can occur if the brake band lining of a wildcat brake becomes excessively worn? A. The driving engine will overspeed. B. The anchor will immediately drop. C. The clutch will overheat. D. The brake's effectiveness will be reduced. Ans: D An improperly maintained filter used in a hydraulic system can _____________. A. reduce or stop the output action of the actuator B. allow all metal particles to enter the power unit C. rupture the pump discharge piping D. all of the above Ans: A Overheating of the hydraulic fluid in an electro-hydraulic anchor windlass can result from a/an ____________. A. overload on the pump motor B. low fluid level in the reservoir C. low fluid viscosity around the shaft seal D. high oil level in the sump Ans: B Hydraulic systems typically operated for intermittent service do not require the use of oil coolers and would include all of the following except _________? A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D.
cleaned using a water-based detergent descaled by using a pickling solution hydrostatically tested to 100% of maximum working pressure all of the above
If the pump for a hydraulic anchor windlass is over heating, the cause may be ______________. A. increased pump speed B. excessive pump discharge pressure C. too low of a tilting box angle D. low pump speed Ans: B When normal operating pressure is applied to the hydraulic oil used 3605 in a high-pressure system, the oil _______________. A. viscosity will decrease B. volume will increase C. volume will decrease D. pour point will be reduced Ans: C At high pressures, an O-ring has a tendency to extrude into the 3607 clearance space between the mating parts of a hydraulic actuator. Which of the listed components is used to prevent extrusion? 3603
A. B. C. D. Ans:
Double seal ring Lathe cut ring Backup ring Static washer C
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3608
A solenoid direct-acting three-position spring-centered directional control valve is used in a hydraulic system to control a linear actuator. When the remote push button is depressed to extend the actuator it fails to move, even though the pump is in op A. A spring at one spool end has broken and jammed, preventing the spool from shifting. B. The "extend" solenoid coil has developed an open.
A. A centering spring has broken and jammed the spool movement preventing the spool from recentering. B. One of the two solenoids has sustained an open in its respective coil. C. The pump coupling has been damaged preventing the pump from developing its required operating speed.
C. The pump coupling is damaged and pump is unable to turn at its required speed. D. Any one of the above will cause the actuator to not move.
3610
Ans: D Air entrained in the hydraulic fluid, or trapped in an actuator will cause the actuators to move with a jerky motion. This action is a result of ________________.
D. The detent mechanism has failed, preventing the valve from operating. Ans: A In order for the hydraulic pump installed in a constant flow system to 3611 maintain adequate flow, the pump suction should ___________.
A. the trapped air being compressed to a pressure above the maximum pump discharge pressure, then re-expanding and lowering in pressure after the actuator moves B. the cyclic expansion and contraction of air due to the motion of the actuator C. air being capable of moving loads more effectively than a liquid D. air providing better lubrication of internal components, found in Hydraulic Systems, than hydraulic fluids Ans: B Which of the following precautions should be observed concerning 3612 the introduction of a fire resistant fluid into a hydraulic system?
A solenoid, direct-acting, three-position, spring-centered, directional control valve is used in a hydraulic system to control a linear actuator. Midway through extension, the push button is released, but the actuator continues to extend slowly. Which of
3609
A. be provided with three to five 1/2 inch holes in the vertical, suction line to prevent pump s tarvation should the strainer become fouled B. be arranged to develop a maximum vacuum of approximately 10" of mercury C. be arranged to develop the theoretically maximum attainable vacuum D. be taken directly off the reservoir bottom without regard to filters or strainers Ans: B Which of the following statements is/are true regarding hydraulic 3613 pumps in general?
A. Deterioration of paints, seals, metals, and electrical insulation may occur. B. Fluid viscosity always increases as a normal result of its use.
A. Variable volumes can be obtained with gear pumps only by variation of the pump drive speed. B. A radial piston pump houses sliding pistons in a stationary cylinder block through which passes a rotating pintle or ported shaft.
C. Decreased wear rates of components is an advantage of its use.
C. The amount of fluid displaced per revolution of an axial piston rotary pump is dependent on the angle formed between the cylinder block and valve plate.
D. Only chemically active filters may be used. Ans: A Which of the listed components of a hydraulic system would enable 3614 the pump to be temporarily shutdown, and yet still provide an instantaneous source of hydraulic force? A. Modulator B. Pressure compensator valve C. Accumulator D. Sump actuator Ans: C When the hydraulic control lever for a deck winch is placed in the 3616 neutral or off position, the spring set brake on the fluid motor drive shaft is _____________.
D. All of the above. Ans: A Overheating of the hydraulic fluid in an electro-hydraulic anchor 3615 windlass, may indicate pump cavitation caused by _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 3617
A. engaged by spring action and only released by hydraulic pressure B. released by spring action and hydraulically locks the winch when the drum ceases rotating C. engaged by spring action and is insured to be locked in place by hydraulic pressure D. opened hydraulically and held open by spring action whenever the electrical supply is secured Ans: A Some fluid filters used in hydraulic systems are designed to cope 3618 with increasing pressure differentials by ___________. A. diverting the flow automatically to the standby filter of the duplex unit B. automatically bypassing the fluid via an internal valve arrangement C. automatically securing the system D. diverting the pump discharge directly back to the suction Ans: B Lint from cleaning rags can be harmful to hydraulic systems 3620 because the lint ___________. A. can cause rusting of internal parts B. breaks down hydraulic fluid C. can clog filters and promote c omponent leakage D. solidifies and causes cracked lines Ans: C
overload of the pump motor low oil level in the reservoir low fluid viscosity existing only around the shaft seal high oil level in the sump B Hydraulic hose assemblies are permitted by regulation to be installed between two points of relative motion ______________.
A. provided proper releasing mechanisms are av ailable to enable quick disconnect capabilities B. but shall not be subj ected to torsional deflection under any conditions of operation C. provided the entire length of the device is visible to the operator at all times D. to prevent the formation of loading stresses
3619
Ans: B Hydraulic cranes must be properly warmed-up before being operated because _____________. A. warm-up allows the hydraulic system to become charged with oil B. warm-up allows the relief valves to be properly tested
C. hydraulic strainers operate only during the warm-up period D. hydraulic fluid must be at the proper viscosity Ans: D With an increase in temperature, the volume of hydraulic fluid 3621 ___________. A. contracts B. remains the same C. remains constant if pressure decreases D. increases Ans: D
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3622
If you attempt to tighten a leaking hydraulic fitting with pressure on the system, you will ______________. A. be successful every time B. find that the pressure will prevent the components from being tightened C. cause the system to v ibrate D. dislodge any scale in the tubing, and it will damage the system
3624
Ans: B A hydraulic cylinder is fitted with a cushioning device. The piston abruptly slows towards the end of its s troke, then continues to creep to the completion of its stroke. Which of the following represents the probable cause? A. B. C. D. Ans:
3626
The cushion adjustment needle valve is open too far. The cushion adjustment needle valve is not open s ufficiantly. The exhaust oil is flowing freely through the cushion nose. The rod wiper is jammed in the cushion spear. B A casing drain is provided for axial piston and bent axis variable stroke pumps to ___________.
3623
C. the guaranteed safe and efficient operation of the system at all times D. a slow and controlled release of the loading so as not to endanger personnel Ans: D When it is necessary to start an axial piston hydraulic motor under 3625 conditions where the hydraulic fluid is colder than the lowest temperature recommended for proper operation, you should operate the system at _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 3627
A. vent off any accumulated air from the system
3630
3632
Ans: D During the repair and overhaul of the pump relief valve, used in a hydraulic system, the set point was reduced by 7bar. Which of the following statements describes the result of the set point being lowered?
3629
Ans: A Which of the following statements represents a disadvantageassociated with a spool-type, solenoid direct operating, directional control valves?
A. The pump discharge pressure will remain at the same pressure prior to the relief valve being repaired. B. The solenoid controlled, three-position, spring centered control valve response will be quicker.
A. Back pressure on the outlet line must be steady to drain the lower spool chamber. B. The valve sealing surface is often damaged through excessive throttling action.
C. The fluid viscosity will increase during operation.
C. The spool does not have hydrocushion capabilities to handle shock.
D. The movement of any system actuator will now be slower.
D. Close fitting spools occasionally stick due to the accumulation of hydraulic oil residues.
Ans: D Which of the following statements describes the actions of an axial piston motor with a full deflection variable position tilting box?
3631
Ans: D Air entrained in the hydraulic fluid, or trapped in an actuator will cause the actuators to move with a jerky motion. This action is a result of ________________.
A. Control over speed, direction, and stopping would be better than having the pump equipped with the tilting box.
A. the trapped air being compressed to a pressure above the maximum pump discharge pressure, then re-expanding and lowering in pressure after the actuator moves
B. Maximum speed when rotated in the "hauling in" direction would be obtained with the tilting box just prior to neutral stroke, while "pay out" would be the opposite.
B. the trapped air being compressed to operating system pressure, then dropping in pressure as the actuator moves, allowing the air to re-expand, then repeating the process
C. Maximum torque, when rotated in the "pay out" direction would be obtained with the tilting box just prior to neutral stroke, while "hauling in" would be the opposite.
C. air being capable of moving loads more effectively than a liquid
D. Maximum speed in either direction of rotation would be achieved just beyond of neutral stroke, making reversal of direction difficult.
D. air providing better lubrication of internal components, found in Hydraulic Systems, than hydraulic fluids
Ans: D A flare-type tubing connector is used in the hydraulic hatch-cover system and has developed a s light leak. To stop the leak you should ____________.
3633
A. keep the system in operation and tighten the flare nut
D. shut down the power unit and use two wrenches to avoid damaging the tubing when tightening Ans: D A precharged bladder-type accumulator used in a hydraulic system, can be potentially dangerous if ___________________. A. the charging valve stem breaks while at normal working pressure
Ans: B If a hydraulic system is in continuous operation, and is equipped with an air cooled heat exchanger, the fan should _____________. A. be in continuous operation as long as the main pump prime mover is in operation B. come on only after the main pump prime mover is s ecured C. be controlled by a thermostat to maintain the oil temperature at less than 87.8°C (190°F) D. never be needed, except when the ambient temperature exceeds 32.2°C(90°F)
B. replace both the tubing sections and the fitting C. stop the system and use only one wrench to tighten the flare nut
3634
minimum speed until the normal operating pressure is reached neutral stroke until all of the air has been vented no load until the normal operating temperature is reached maximum torque to attain rapid warm-up C A fluid power system shall be so designed _________.
A. that proper functioning of any unit shall not be affected by the back pressure in the system B. to maintain a back pressure throughout the power cylinders operating range C. such that the operation of any unit in the system will provide for sufficient back pressure D. none of the above are correct
B. drain off any accumulated water from the pump casing prior to its being started C. assist the complete removal of hydraulic oil from the system prior to opening for major or minor repairs D. prevent damage due to agitation and overheating of oil accumulated in the casing as a result of minor internal leakage
3628
A fluid power system is considered to be fail-safe if a component failure will result in ____________. A. continuous operation of the system B. a safety interlock producing a regulated shutdown of the system
3635
Ans: A According to Regulations , nonmetallic flexible hoses used as supply and return lines to hydraulic system components, must have _________________. A. the working pressure of the system stamped on one of the end fittings
Page 205
B. the inert gas is exposed to hydraulic oil C. the bladder contacts the top of the poppet D. it is precharged with dry nitrogen
3636
Ans: A The hydraulic system of a deck winch has been drained, flushed, and refilled with hydraulic fluid. An erratic knocking noise from the hydraulic motor when the winch is started would indicate _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
3638 A. B. C. D.
3640
3642
Ans: C In a fixed displacement axial piston hydraulic motor, the speed is varied by _____________. A. regulating the ratio between torque and speed via the torque limiter at the motor B. directing the motor output flow through a bypass line C. maintaining a constant flow and pressure input D. controlling the input flow rate Ans: D A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, used to control linear actuator speed during retraction, with the pump operating at above maximum pressure, is known as a ________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
3644
the fluid level in the reservoir is too high air trapped in the system clogged suction line fluid filters abrasive matter circulating in the oil B When fire safe or fire resistant fluid is to be used in a hydraulic system, it is important that _____________. the resultant pressure, due to the increase in fluid viscosity, is not excessive the fluid does not dissipate too much heat the fluid be compatible with all seal materials used separate lube oil supply be furnished for the hydraulic pump
metered-in circuit metered-out circuit bleed-in circuit bleed-off circuit B According to Regulations an accumulator is a/an ____________.
A. device in which bilge water may be stored prior to being pumped ashore
B. the working pressure of the system stamped on both of the end fittings C. an inner tube constructed of seamless reinforced polyester braid D. a designed bursting pressure of at least four times the maximum working pressure of the system Ans: D When comparing a bent-axis, axial piston, variable stroke hydraulic 3637 pump, to a v ariable angle tilting box, axial piston pump where the number, diameters, and rotating speed of the pistons are the same, the significant difference is the ___________. A. maximum capacity B. maximum pressure C. minimum pressure D. minimum capacity Ans: A Overheating of the oil in a hydraulic system can be caused by 3639 _____________. A. continuous, unnecessary, and excessive pump discharge pressure B. an increase in the number of the hydraulic fluid film layers C. insufficient external pump slippage D. fluctuating pump discharge pressure in response to normal load variations Ans: A After installing a new hydraulic pump in a system, what special 3641 attention should be given to the hydraulic system? A. The relief valves in the system should be readjusted. B. The filters and strainers should be checked frequently. C. All system pressure should be readjusted. D. The system should be drained and renewed with a fluid of different operating characteristics. Ans: B In a typical hydraulic system, return lines to thereservoir are 3643 terminated below the normal oil level toprevent _______. I. foaming of the oil II. condensation of warm oil vapors upon return A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I and II Ans: A Archimedes' principle states that the resultant pressure acting on a 3645 body immersed in a fluid _________. A. acts vertically upward through the center of grav ity of the displaced fluid and is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced
B. unfired pressure vessel in which energy is stored under high pressure in the form of a gas or a gas and a hydraulic fluid.
B. will cause the body to have a reduction in mass equal in magnitude to the effective mass of the structure located above the line of floatation
C. industry accepted term for the equipment which is used to collect oily bilge liquids
C. is proportional in magnitude and direction, regardless of the direction originally developed when the object was submerged
D. test procedure in which the relieving capacity of the safety valves are verified Ans: B Air trapped in one end of a hydraulic actutator may be indicated by 3646 ____________. A. erratic or jerky motion of the actuator B. a pump discharge pressure that is consistent, but higher than normal C. consistently faster response or movement of the actuator D. over speeding of the pump Ans: A While starting a hydraulic anchor windlass, you observe that 3648 hydraulic pressure does not develop in spite of the proper operation of the electric drive motor. Which of the following actions should you take FIRST to restore pressure?
D. is applied equal and in all directions throughout the v essel in which it is contained Ans: A The major source of chemical contaminants in hydraulic fluid is 3647 _________________. A. microscopic steel shavings B. abrasive waste C. anti-oxidant compounds D. oxidation by-products Ans: D In order to recognize the amount of anchor chain paid out, s pecific 3649 portions of the chain are c olor coded and wrapped with wire. A red painted detachable line would be found between the __________.
A. Make certain that the hydraulic reservoir is filled to the proper level.
A. number 1 and 2 shots of chain
B. Inspect the disc brake on the electric motor for proper operation.
B. number 2 and 3 shots of chain
C. Check the electric motor for an open overload relay contact. D. Check for full voltage supply to the electric motor.
C. number 3 and 4 shots of chain D. all of the above
Page 206
Ans: A 3650
3652
3654
3656
3658
Ans: A
LUBRICATION AND ANTI-FRICTION BEARINGS The term "pour point" is defined as the lowest temperature at which Which of the following statements is used to describe the term 3651 lubricating oils will flow ____________. "base" in reference to greases? A. rapidly A. Texture of the grease under load. B. by gravity B. Temperature at which the grease softens or melts. C. through a standard orifice at a specified temperature C. Type of soap used in its production. D. at a rate of 60cc per second D. Temperature below which the grease will be ineffective as a lubricant. Ans: B Ans: C A grease lubricated ball bearing or roller bearing will run cooler if the 3653 In a compression type grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the grease _____________. bearing by ____________. A. fills only 10% of all void s paces within the bearing A. gravity flow B. has a high grease penetration number (is hard) B. spring force C. is thinned with a suitable lubricating oil C. a pressure gun D. is heated prior to packing the bearing D. a zerk fitting Ans: B Ans: B Which of the processes listed consumes the greatest amount of The packing installed in the pump stuffing box is lubricated by 3655 power while producing the greatest amount of heat? ____________. A. Overcoming sliding friction A. gravity and feed oil cups B. Overcoming rolling friction B. grease cups C. Overcoming fluid friction C. hand during installation D. Overcoming oil wedge friction D. leakage through the stuffing box Ans: A Ans: D An organic solid lubricant, such as graphite, is suitable as an oil The best method of fixing a winch motor bearing of the sealed type 3657 additive when used in _____________. that is running hot is to ____________. A. machinery bearings subjected to high temperatures A. add grease through the zerk fitting B. antifriction bearings on general serv ice pumps B. allow the winch to run at slower speeds only C. bearings subject to fluctuating loads C. replace the bearing with a new one D. line shaft bearings D. apply a light oil to the bearing housing Ans: A Ans: C Adsorption filters are not commonly used in steam turbine or diesel Although lube oils used in the main lubricating service systems 3659 engine lubricating systems because they ____________. should have a relatively high flash point to avoid ignition, they can create smoke and fire hazards when they __________. A. utilize exotic and expensive filtering media making them too costly for use. B. C. D. Ans:
3660 A. B. C. D.
3662
are only effective at temperatures below 37.8°C can adsorb no more than five times their weight in water remove additives from the lube oil D The construction of the main propulsion engine lube oil s ump should ________________. have no plating joints of 90° retain the lube oil as long as possible before it recirculates through the system provide drain/return lines that are no greater than 600mm from the pump suction be provided with only a perfectly horizontal bottom
Ans: B The ability of lubricating oils to resist viscosity changes during temperature changes is indicated by the ____________.
A. American Petroleum Institute number B. viscosity index number C. Seconds Saybolt Furol number D. Seconds Saybolt Universal number Ans: B The flash point of most lube oils used in a main lubricating system 3664 should be approximately ____________. A. 27°C to 38°C B. 60°C to 71°C C. 121°C to 149°C D. 177°C to 232°C Ans: D Which of the filter/strainer units listed permits you to c lean the 3666 element while leaving the system on the line? A. Simplex B. Duplex C. Canister D. Bypass Ans: B The function of lubricating oil is to ____________. 3668 A. reduce friction between moving surfaces B. provide even distribution of bearing wear
A. are exposed to a vacuum come in contact with extremely hot surfaces are reduced in temperature to just above the pour point become extremely agitated or aerated B Design characteristics of lubricating oil sump tanks will include _____________. A. installation of baffles to prev ent excessive sloshing of oil B. sufficient capacity to contain all the lube oil in the system except for the contents of the gravity tank C. cooling coils made of welded seamless s teel pipe
B. C. D. Ans: 3661
D. the bottom of the sump should be integral with the shell plating
3663
Ans: A Which of the additives listed is used to reduce the foaming tendency of lube oil?
Emulsifiers Suppressants Depressants Extreme pressure B Which of the lubricants listed is the best to use on a reciprocating 3665 pump rod? A. Engine oil. B. Oil mixed with kerosene. C. Graphite and oil. D. Vegetable oil. Ans: C Which of the additives listed will maintain the suspension of fine 3667 residue particles in lube oil? A. Floc point B. Suppressant C. Dispersant D. All of the above. Ans: C The function of lubricating oil is to ______________. 3669 A. maintain even distribution of bearing wear B. maintain a constant oil temperature A. B. C. D. Ans:
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C. reduce the accumulation of harmful detergents D. maintain a constant oil temperature output at each bearing Ans: A The neutralization number of lube oil used in the machinery has 3670 exceeded its permissible range, therefore, it will be necessary to ________________.
C. maintain a pressurized fluid film between moving surfaces D. remove entrained water Ans: C With regards to the viscosity of lube oil in an operating system 3671 under normal load, the highest viscosity should occur _____________.
centrifuge the oil add makeup oil renew the entire oil supply operate the machinery at reduced power C A grease gun is generally used to lubricate a ____________. 3672 A. condensate pump ball bearing B. main shaft bearing C. main turbine bearing D. diesel engine wrist pin bearing Ans: A A graphite additive type grease is best suited for ________. I. low 3674 temperature applications II. high temperature applications
A. just prior to entering the lube oil cooler B. at the lube oil cooler outlet C. at the main lube oil pump discharge D. at the narrowest point of the hydrodynamic wedge Ans: D An example of an antifriction bearing is a _____________. 3673 A. rubber cutlass strut bearing B. line shaft or spring bearing C. Kingsbury thrust bearing D. ball bearing Ans: D The lubrication of a precision high speed bearing depends upon a 3675 system that produces ________.
I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II B Dirt should not be allowed to contaminate a greaselubricant 3676 because the ______________. A. bearings will leak oil excessively B. dirt will cause corrosion of bearing C. grease will become inflammable D. dirt is very abrasive when mixed with grease Ans: D The tendency for lubricating oil to thin out at high temperatures and 3678 thicken at low temperatures will be characterized by a ________________.
A. adequate quantity at sufficient pressure B. high detergent oil with pressure additives C. constant viscosity lubrication D. a minimum of 15 psi to all parts of the system Ans: A The lubrication of a precision high speed bearing depends upon a 3677 system that produces ________. A. high detergent oil with pressure additives B. constant viscosity lubrication C. a minimum of 15 psi to all parts of the system D. adequate quanity at sufficient pressure Ans: D Which of the following conditions should be used to support the 3679 need to change the lube oil when there has been an increase in the neutralization number?
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
3680
3682
3684
3686
3688
A. low viscosity index B. high viscosity index C. high neutralization number D. low demulsibility quality Ans: A Oil emulsification in engine lubricating oils will tend to ________________. A. decrease sludge formation in lubricating oil B. cause water to separate from the oil C. improve the lubricating oil viscosity D. displace lubricating oil required in areas of friction Ans: D One characteristic of a lubricating oil adversely affecting the results of centrifuging is ____________. A. high TBN value B. low oil floc point C. low oil demulsibility D. low oil neutralization number Ans: C Main propulsion engine lube oil sumps should be c onstructed ____________. A. so as to never be integral with the main engine foundation B. with a sloped bottom C. only of nonferrous, noncorrosive metals D. with drain/return lines terminating just above or at the designed normal level Ans: B Antifriction bearings should not be excessively lubricated because ____________. A. the bearings will require immediate flushing B. dirt will accumulate inside the bearings C. excess lubrication will result in s lippage D. the bearing will overheat Ans: D Antifriction bearings can be removed undamaged from a shaft by using an arbor press, or wheel puller with a________. A. ring gage B. split die C. split washer or backup ring D. jack screw
3681
3683
3685
3687
3689
A. A decrease in the viscosity of the oil B. An increase in the viscosity of the oil C. A change in the cloud point D. A change in the floc point Ans: B Which bearing will carry the load on two small points diametrically opposite to each other? A. Needle B. Tapered roller C. Roller D. Ball Ans: D In most pumps and pump motors, ov erpacking the ball bearings full of grease will result in ____________. A. moisture emulsification of the bearing grease B. insufficient circulation and overheating of the bearing C. proper grease circulation to cool the bearing D. sliding friction between balls and races Ans: B The greatest difference between absorbent and adsorbent filters is that absorbent filters ____________. A. will remove additives from the lube oil B. soak up liquid contaminants directly into the filter media C. do not create pressure drops in the lube oil system D. attract or have liquid contaminants stick to the surface of the filter media Ans: B If a ball bearing for a centrifugal pump is completely packed with grease, _____________. A. the bearing may heat up B. grease may flow out of the seals C. early failure may result D. all of the above Ans: D An additive used to improve the ability of a lube oil to reduce friction is known as a/an ____________. A. B. C. D.
suppressant additive dispersant additive extreme pressure additive viscosity improver additive
Page 208
3690
3692
3694
3696
3698
Ans: C The graphite in a bearing lubricant compound of graphite grease, acts as a ___________. A. low temperature sealer B. moisture barrier C. filler to smooth surface irregularities D. coolant to carry away heat Ans: C Demulsibility of a lube oil is defined as _________________. A. the ability of oil to separate from water B. the temperature at which oil flows rapidly C. a measure of the water in a lube oil system D. an emulsion of different grades of oil Ans: A A lubricating oil with a high viscosity index number is most effectively used ____________. A. in only very high temperature installations B. as an additive to depress pour point C. as an additive to slow oxidation D. where a wide range of temperature variations exist Ans: D Which of the following statements is c orrect concerning the viscosity of lubricating oil? A. Viscosity will increase as temperature increases. B. Viscosity is a measure of a fluid's internal resistance to flow. C. Viscosity will decrease as temperature decreases. D. Viscosity is not dependent on temperature. Ans: B The amount of fluid friction or internal friction inherent in a mineral lubricating oil is reflected as a measure of its ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
3700
specific gravity viscosity S.E. number hydrolytic stability B Which indicator is used to determine the hardness of a grease?
Pour point Drop point Penetration number Stability-consistency number C If a ball bearing installed on a pump is completely packed full of 3702 grease, this can result in ____________. A. bearing failure B. smoother pump operation C. reduced corrosion in the bearing D. increased pump capacity Ans: A Overgreasing of ball bearings installed on pumps will result in 3704 ___________. A. smoother pump operation B. overheating of the bearing C. reduced corrosion in the bearing D. increased pump capacity Ans: B The viscosity of an oil is a measure of its _______________. 3706 A. B. C. D. Ans:
3691
3693
3695
3697
3699
Ans: C When removing roller bearings from a shaft, the force of the puller should be applied to the bearing _____________. A. outer race B. raceway C. inner race D. retainer plate Ans: C Demulsibility of lube oil is defined as _____________. A. the temperature at which oil flows rapidly B. a measure of the water in a lube oil system C. an emulsion of grades of oil D. the ability of oil to separate from an oil and water emulsion Ans: D Which of the additives listed is used to lower the pour point of a lubricating oil? A. Emulsifiers B. Suppressants C. Depressants D. Extreme pressure Ans: C Additives commonly found in turbine lubricating oil include _____________. A. antifoaming agents B. oxidation inhibitors C. extreme pressure additives D. all of the above Ans: D A lube oil filter can be used to remove most contaminants from lube oil. A contaminant which will remain in the lube oil after filtering is ____________.
acid fuel oil sediment water B A dented race in an antifriction bearing could be caused by 3701 _____________. A. water in the bearing B. abrasives in the lubricant C. dirt in the bearing D. vibration while the bearing is not in operation Ans: D Ball bearings may become ov erheated if they are ___________. 3703 A. B. C. D. Ans:
packed with too much grease mounted on a misaligned shaft not lubricated all of the above D Dirt should not be allowed to contaminate a greaselubricant 3705 because the ______________. A. dirt will cause corrosion of bearing B. bearings will leak oil excessively C. dirt is very abrasive when mixed with grease D. grease will become inflammable Ans: C An oil fog lubrication system is recommended for __________. 3707 A. B. C. D. Ans:
weight A. gear shaft bearings internal friction B. high speed continuous operation of roller bearings demulsibility C. low and moderate speed ball bearings S.A.E. number D. heavily loaded and high-speed ball bearings B Ans: B The pour point of lubricating oils is affected the m ost by which of the 3709 Which of the listed characteristics of lube oil are the most important 3708 following? to the engineer from an operational standpoint? A. Extensive centrifuging A. Ash content, carbon residue, and gravity B. Wax content B. Viscosity, acidity, and demulsibility C. Water content C. Pour point, flash point, and precipitation number D. Acid content D. Autoignition point, viscosity index, and film strength Ans: B Ans: B Design characteristics of lubricating oil sump tanks include Which of the following base oils cannot be refined without 3710 3711 _____________. developing a change in chemical composition? A. installation of baffles to prevent excessive sloshing of oil A. animal B. sufficient capacity to contain all the lube oil in the system except for B. vegetable the contents of the gravity tank A. B. C. D. Ans:
Page 209
C. cooling coils made of welded seamless steel pipe D. insuring the bottom of the sump is integral with the shell plating
3712
3714
3716
3718
3720
Ans: A The main lube oil sump of a main propulsion engine should be constructed of ___________. A. coated steel plating to reduce corrosion B. nonferrous metal plating to prevent corrosion C. clean steel plating D. pinchback plating Ans: C When replacing ball bearings on an electric motor shaft, you should _______________. A. tap the outer race with a mallet B. apply even pressure to the outer race C. apply even force to the inner race D. apply pressure evenly to both the inner and outer races Ans: C Which of the following statements concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps is true? A. The inner race should be free to turn on the shaft. B. The outer race should be free to turn its housing. C. Alignment is not a critical factor in their installation. D. They are usually pressed on to their shafts. Ans: D The degree to which the v iscosity of an oil will change with a change in temperature is indicated by the _______________. A. weight designation B. viscosity index C. pour point D. thermal change value Ans: B The pressure produced within the oil wedge of a rotating journal is ____________.
C. mineral D. both A and B
3713
3715
3717
3719
3721
A. B. C. D. Ans:
the same as the pressure in the lubricating system less than the pressure in the lubricating system greater than the pressure in the lubricating system highest at the oil groove location C Which of the listed types of soap grease offers the maximum chemical stability and resistance to separation at temperatures between 120°C and 150°C?
A. Extended area membrane filter B. Cloth bag extractor C. Absorbent filter D. Adsorbent filter Ans: D During operating temperature changes, the ability of a lubricating 3723 oil to resist viscosity changes is indicated by a/an ____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
Lime soap grease Calcium soap grease Sodium soap grease Lithium soap grease D Pipe friction during oil transfer will be the greatest during the transfer of a lubricating oil at 55°C with a viscosity index of ________.
A. API number B. viscosity index number C. seconds Saybolt Furol number D. seconds Saybolt Universal number Ans: B A graphite additive type grease would be effectively usedfor 3725 lubricating ________. I. a topping lift winch bearing II. a fuel oil service pump bearing
A. B. C. D. Ans:
65 80 90 100 D In a disk-type lubricating oil purifier, __________________.
3722
3724
3726
D. deterioration of the bowl ring gasket will cause the purifier to lose its water seal Ans: D The dimension of the thinnest hydrodynamic film developed within a 3728 full journal bearing, when all other factors remain constant, depends upon the ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
pour point of the lubricant fluidity of the lubricant dielectric strength of the lubricant interfacial tension of the lubricant B Which of the following statements is true concerning the hydrodynamic wedge developed by lubricating oil?
I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II D The neutralization number obtained from a test sample of lubricating oil will tell you precisely _____________. A. the amount of mineral and metallic solids that will not burn
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3727
A. the purifier driving gears are lubricated by the reclaimed oil as it leaves the bowl B. all dirt and sludge are automatically discharged with the cooling water C. sealing water must never be supplied until after oil is fed to the unit
3730
Ans: D The ability of an oil to separate cleanly from an oil and water mixture is referred to as its ____________. A. precipitation number B. neutralization number C. pour point D. demulsibility Ans: D Oils are usually graded by their service classification and _____________. A. fire point B. flash point C. neutralization number D. viscosity Ans: D A roller bearing should normally be filled to what fraction of its space cavity? A. Less than 1/4 B. 1/3 to 1/2 C. 1/2 to 3/4 D. More than 3/4 Ans: B A good quality oil used in main propulsion engine lubrication systems should be _____________. A. free from all chemical additives B. quickly chemically oxidized C. resistant to permanent emulsification D. readily saponified with water Ans: C Which of the filters listed will deplete the additives in lubricating oil?
B. the number of milligrams of potassium hydroxide used to neutralize a measured sample C. what type of acid contaminants are present in a measured sample D. how much sulfuric acid the oil has absorbed during operations
3729
Ans: B To ensure adequate lubrication and to prevent a high operating temperature, the recommended amount of grease in a ball or roller bearing is approximately _________________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
3731
10-15% of the void space in the bearing 35-40% of the void space in the bearing 65-70% of the void space in the bearing 90-95% of the void space in the bearing B Frequent bearing replacement in a centrifugal pump, due to rapid bearing wear, can be a result of ____________.
Page 210
A. The wedge-shaped oil film's load carrying capacity is determined by its length and thickness. B. The load carrying capacity is inversely proportional to the v elocity of the fluid. C. Pressures throughout the oil wedge are uniform. D. The load carrying capacity is directly proportional to the thickness of the oil film. 3732
Ans: A Greases are generally produced by ____________. A. reducing the temperature of an oil below its cloud point to create the gelatinous texture
B. saponifying a metal base, to which oil is then added and mixed under controlled temperature C. reducing tallow 50°F below its pour point then mixing a base metal, such as barium, into solution D. saponifying an aluminum base, to which tallow and oil are mixed into solution under a controlled temperature Ans: B With oil bath lubrication of ball bearings in a cargo pump, the oil 3734 level should ______________. A. never be higher than the center of the lowest ball in the bearing housing B. cover the bottom of the pump shaft C. cover the top ball in the bearing housing D. be kept at the top of the oil reservoir Ans: A The main bearings of a reciprocating air compressor are tapered 3736 roller bearings. When mounted, these bearings are given a "cold" end clearance to _____________. A. allow for crank web deflection B. allow for longitudinal expansion of the crankshaft as the unit warms up C. prevent longitudinal thrust in the crankshaft D. reduce torsional vibration in the crankshaft Ans: B A good quality lubricating oil used in any machinery, should be ___________. A. acid free B. capable of emulsifying C. a rapid oxidizer D. additive free Ans: A If a continuous and s teady flow of lube oil is provided, which of the 3740 listed pressures represents the lowest supply pressure at which a small high-speed bearing can be safely lubricated? 3738
A. 0.1kg/cm2 B. 0.3kg/cm2 C. 0.6kg/cm2 D. 1.kg/cm2 Ans: A Why do roller bearings have higher loading capacities than ball 3742 bearings? A. They are installed with tighter clearances. B. They are subject to less pitting and metal fatigue. C. They have a greater tolerance for high speed applications. D. They have a greater contact area. Ans: D The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the 3744 ___________. A. rolling member size B. inner race cone width C. manufacturer's numerical code D. outer ring width Ans: C Which of the following statements best describes the filtering ability 3746 of a fine mesh metal lube oil strainer? A. A 200 mesh screen will prevent passage of smaller particles than a 100 mesh wire cloth. B. A 200 mesh screen has finer wires than a 100 mesh wire cloth. C. A 100 mesh wire cloth will prevent passage of smaller particles than 200 mesh screen.
A. leakage through the pump stuffing box gland B. high net positive suction head C. long periods of cavitation D. misalignment
3733
Ans: D A ball bearing will overheat if ____________. A. completely packed full of grease B. filled with grease to 95% of the total open s paces within the bearing C. in use for a long time D. operated at designed high speed
3735
Ans: A Packing extremely soft grease into a roller bearing will cause _____________. A. excessive channeling of the grease B. C. D. Ans:
3737
high temperatures to develop as result of churning emulsification of the thickener additive gelling of the base oil B Which of the following surfaces will not develop a hydrodynamic film where motion is accompanied by any appreciable loading?
A. Curved surfaces B. Flat nonparallel surfaces C. Flat inflexible parallel surfaces D. All of the above surfaces will sustain a hydrodynamic film while in motion under a load Ans: C Which of the listed types of bearings is an example of a half 3739 bearing? A. Piston pin bushing B. Thrust bearing C. Spring bearing D. All of the above. Ans: C If the chemical analysis of a lube oil sample taken from the main 3741 propulsion machinery indicates an increased neutralization number the _______. A. acidity has increased B. viscosity has decreased C. demulsibility has improved D. foaming is guaranteed to occur Ans: A Which of the listed tools should be used to remove a tapered roller 3743 bearing from a shaft? A. An arbor press B. A steel drift pin and hammer C. An acetylene torch and hammer D. A tapered "come-a-long" Ans: A A filler commonly mixed with grease, such as graphite, acts 3745 ______________. A. as a mild abrasive B. to smooth surface irregularities C. to lower the friction coefficient D. all of the above Ans: D A grease drop point is ______________. 3747 A. how far a standard metal cone will penetrate into the sample in five seconds when dropped B. how uniform and thick the spread of an ounce of grease is when dropped from a height of five feet C. the temperature that a sample of grease begins to liquefy
Page 211
D. A 200 mesh screen and a 100 mesh wire cloth prevent passage of the same size particles, but each allows a different number of particles to pass through. 3748
Ans: A After adding grease to a ball bearing with a handheld grease gun, you should _____________. A. run the machine with the bearing housing drain plug open for a short while B. close the bearing housing drain and add a little extra grease to compensate for air pockets in the bearing C. remove the grease fitting and leave open to allow excess grease to escape D. save the used grease for c hemical analysis
D. the length of time a 50 gram sphere will be held in place from the underside of a surface c oated with 25 millimeters of the grease sample 3749
Ans: C When refering to greases, penetration number is____________.
A. how many seconds was required for a cone to penetrate the sample B. the temperature at which a cone would begin to penetrate the sample C. the temperature at which the grease would become sufficiently fluid to fill the voids of a standard ball bearing D. the depth to which a cone would penetrate a sample of grease in 5 seconds Ans: A Ans: D A journal rotating in its bearing relies on hydrodynamic principles for 3751 Machinery with ball bearings designed to be filled with grease 3750 lubrication. Under steady load conditions, the journal rotating in the should have the relief plug temporarily removed while grease is bearing will assume a position _____________. being added. This plug should remain out until the m achinery has been operated and sufficiently warmed up to ensure that ______ A. B. C. D. Ans: 3752
at bearing bottom center concentric in the bearing at bearing top center eccentric in the bearing D Solid contaminants are prevented from entering the m ain lube oil system by way of the main engine sump, through the use of ______________.
A. a path of expansion is provided for the grease B. all air pockets are vented from the grease C. dirt and grit are flushed from the bearing housing D. the grease is properly distributed within the bearing Ans: A As the speed of an oil lubricated ball bearing increases, fluid friction, 3753 due to churning, generates heat and should be avoided by ________________.
A. fine mesh screening placed around the pump suction line in the sump B. baffles installed without limber or lightening holes to trap the particles C. a suction inlet located approximately 10 inches (254 mm) above the sump bottom D. a 10 inch (254 mm) dome installed just below the suction inlet and provided with a pipe-opening within one inch of the dome
3754
Ans: C Which of the following statements is correct concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps? A. The inner race should be free to turn on the shaft.
A. adding more lubricant until the ball bearings are completely covered with a layer of oil B. reducing the quantity of lubricant until only a mist of oil is present on the ball bearings C. maintaining a continuous fluid film of oil on the bearings D. installing oil rings on the ball bearings
3755
A. allowing a suspended cone to drop into a sample of grease for five seconds and determining the depth of penetration B. dropping a one ounce grease sample from one meter, and observing the resulting spread pattern, uniformity of thickness, and consistency of texture
B. The outer race should be free to turn in its housing.
3756
C. Alignment is not a critical factor in their installation.
C. allowing a sample of grease to drop into a cup at ambient temperature and determining the time necessary for this to occur
D. They are usually pressed onto their shafts.
D. determining the temperature at which a grease sample liquefies when heated and drops from a cup through a bottom orifice
Ans: D Which of the following statements describes the characteristics of precision manufactured roller bearings? A. They are not capable of maintaining alignment over long periods of time. B. They have a relatively high power loss due to friction.
3757
C. They are well adapted to variable speed operation.
Ans: C Which of the following lube oil filters would be considered acceptable for use with today's high detergent additive type oils? A. Cotton waste packed in perforated metal containers or cylindrical cartridges. B. Cylindrical elements containing fullers earth combined with cellulose. C. Foamed polyurethane of the impingement type supported on perforated metal rings. D. Chemically treated paper and waste in cartridges. Ans: A
Ans: D Which of the following statements is correct regarding an oil with a high viscosity index? A. A large change of viscosity occurs with a minor change in temperature. B. No change in viscosity occurs with any change in temperature. C. Very little change in viscosity occurs with a significant change in temperature. D. The viscosity of the oil increases with an increase in temperature.
D. Their lubrication is complicated and requires constant attention.
3758
Ans: B A drop test is carried out on a sample of grease by _______.
3759
Ans: C Which of the following problems will occur if a disk-type centrifugal lube oil purifier is not properly primed prior to admitting oil flow to the bowl? A. Contamination of the lube oil by emulsification will result. B. The lube oil will not be subjected to the proper centrifugal force. C. The lube oil will overheat and flash. D. Oil will discharge from the heavy phase discharge port and be wasted. Ans: D
Page 212
In a refrigeration system, the amount of refrigerant admitted to the evaporator is directly related to _________.
3760
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3762
A. B. C. D.
the compressor discharge pressure condenser cooling water temperature the solenoid valve differential pressure the superheat o f the refrigerant in the tail coil D The value of the controlled variable, which under any fixed set of conditions the automatic controller operates to maintain, is known as ____________. set point control point deviation offset
In a flash distilling unit, evaporator feed (sea water) first absorbs heat in the ___________.
3761 A. B. C. D. Ans:
vapor feed heater air ejector condenser saltwater heater distillate cooler D
Ans: B
SAFETY, ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION, SHIP CONSTRUCTION AND NAVAL ARCHITECTURE A fuel tank on a barge has been certified by a marine chemist as being "Safe for Men" and "Safe for fire." This condition may change if___________.
3763
In the event of an exhaust duct fire, most dry chemical and carbon dioxide, galley range, fixed extinguishing systems areautomatically activated through the action of a stainless steel cable, spring and a ___________ _.
3764
the ambient temperature changes a product leaks into the certified tank muck, sludge, or scale in the tank give off additional vapors C. all of the above D. Ans: D Which of the listed fire extinguishing agents would be suitable for 3765 use on an oil fire, but dangerous on an electrical fire?
fusible link stack switch thermostat C. pyrostat D. Ans: A The horizontal fore and aft movement of a vessel is called 3766 ___________ ____.
CO2 Water fog Halon C. Dry chemical D. Ans: B Which of the following conditions will allow for a work vest to be 3767 substituted for a lifejacket in the total count of the required lifesaving gear?
yaw sway heave C. surge D. Ans: D What safety information can be found in the fire control plan that is 3768 posted or available in booklet form on your ship?
When it is approved by the Master When working near or over the water When stowed away from the ring buoys C. A work vest may never be counted as a lifejacket D. Ans: D When involved in fighting a fire aboard a ship with an aluminum 3769 superstructure, it is important to remember that aluminum structures exposed to the high heat _____________.
Location of fire doors Location of the remote means of stopping fans Particulars of the fire detecting system C. All of the above. D. Ans: D The fire protection provided for the propulsion motor and generator 3770 of a diesel electric drive vessel is usually a _____________.
generate poisonous fumes are more susceptible to collapse than steel structures are susceptible to spontaneous ignition C. all of the above D. Ans: B When administering artificial respiration to an a dult, the breathing 3771 cycle should be repeated about ____________.
fixed foam extinguisher fixed CO2 system steam smothering system C. carbon tetrachloride extinguishing system D. Ans: B The most common cooling agent used for fighting fires on tank 3772 vessels is _____________.
12 to 15 times per minute 18 to 20 times per minute 20 to 25 times per minute C. as fast as possible D. Ans: A A disadvantage of using CO2 for firefighting is that 3773 __________ ____.
carbon dioxide flue gas water C. steam smothering D. Ans: C Approved buoyant work vests may be carried aboard tank vessels 3774 and shall be worn by crew members ____________.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A.
the CO2 does not cool the fire
A.
when working near or over the water under unfavorable working conditions
B.
the cylinders are regulated pressure vessels
B.
under the supervision and control of designated ship's officers
C.
they are not effective on class "B" fires
C.
as substitutes for the approved life preservers during routine drills, weather permitting, when a vessel is moored pierside
D.
all of the above B When required to work where there may be explosive gases, you should use tools which are _____________.
D. Ans: 3775
they are not effective on class "C" fires A According to Regulations , all merchant vessels are required to have muster lists and are to be posted __________.
on the navigating bridge in the engine room in the crew accomodation spaces C. all of the above D. Ans: D The vertical motion of a floating vessel is known as 3777 __________ __. A. B.
Ans: 3776
approved by the Coast Guard high carbon steel fixed with a ferrous cover C. nonsparking D. Ans: D An acceptable method of dealing with accumulated oil found in the 3778 pump room bilges is to ______________. A. B.
Page 213
surge sway heave C. pitch D. Ans: C When applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, 3779 the sternum should be depressed about _____________. A. B.
A.
1/2 inch or less
B.
1/2 to 1 inch
C.
1 to 1 1/2 inches
transfer the oil to the sea chest pump the oil into the slop tanks discharge the oil over the side on an outgoing tide C. pump the oil into a c lean ballast tank D. Ans: B Personnel who are moving or handling material aboard ship should 3780 NOT follow which of the listed practices? A. B.
1 1/2 to 2 inches D Halon extinguishers used on a class "C" fire should be directed at 3781 the ______________. base of the equipment A. top of the equipment B. power source C. source of the fire D. Ans: D When completing the ballasting operation of a contaminated tank, 3783 which of the following problems must be guarded against?
Signaling that all personnel are c lear before lifting or lowering material. Examining material for sharp edges or protruding points before B. handling. Closing, tagging, or securing valves that permit entrance of steam, C. water, or air into a fitting or other equipment. Throwing materials from high places to the deck. D. Ans: D When taking tank soundings , coating the tape with chalk helps to 3782 ______________. better identify the correct reading A. show the depth of any water in an oil tank B. make the tape roll easier C. reduce possibility of sparks D. Ans: A To release the davit cable of a davit launched liferaft, you must 3784 _____________.
Back flow of contaminated water Loss of pump suction Excessive tank pressure due to closed vents C. Motor overload due to high discharge head D. Ans: A Pitching is angular motion of the v essel about which axis? 3785
pull the release lanyard pull the hydraulic release push the release button C. pull on the ratchet handle D. Ans: A A segregated ballast system is a system where _____________. 3786
D.
Ans:
A. B.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3787
Longitudinal Transverse Vertical Centerline B What information must be entered on the muster list?
Names of all crew members. Use and application of special equipment. Listing of approved emergency equipment. C. Duties and station of each person during emergencies. D. Ans: D You should deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft to 3789 ____________. A. B.
keep the liferaft from capsizing navigate against the current keep personnel from getting seasick C. stay in the general location D. Ans: D Angular motion about the longitudinal axis of a vessel is known as 3791 _____________. pitch A. surge B. A. B.
C.
sway
D.
roll D When administering artificial respiration, it is of the utmost importance to ____________. use the mouth-to-mouth method clear airways
Ans: 3793 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3795
A.
A. B.
all ballast is processed through the oily water separator ballast is taken on and discharged through a separate main deck riser ballast and cargo tanks are separated by cofferdams C. all ballast lines, tanks, and pumps are independent of those used D. for oil Ans: D The most essential element in the administration of CPR is 3788 ________________. to have the proper equipment for the process A. the speed of treatment B. the administration of oxygen C. the treatment for traumatic shock D. Ans: B In addition to weighing the c artridge, what other routine 3790 maintenance is required for a cartridge-operated dry chemical extinguisher? A. B.
Weigh the powder in the c anister. Discharge small amount to see that it works. Check the hose and nozzle for clogs. C. Check the external pressure gage. D. Ans: C Safety is dependent on orderliness and cleanliness. Order may be 3792 maintained by ___________. storing all items in an assigned place A. storing all items in a common storage container except those readyB. for-sea tagging all items according to their age and then storing them C. together disposing of worn-out items D. Ans: A When entering a compartment which is on fire, _____________. 3794 A. B.
A. B.
use rhythmic pressure method know all approved methods B There are two disadvantages to CO2 when used as a total flooding firefighting agent. One of these is the limited quantity available and the other is ____________.
C. D. Ans: 3796
you must wear rubber gloves the flames should be beaten back from the door with water fog a straight stream of water should be used to cool the door a straight stream of water should be used to cool the fire fighters B The maximum draft to which a vessel can legally be submerged is indicated by the _______________.
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A. B. C. D. Ans: 3797
the lack of c ooling effect on heated materials it cannot be used in a dead ship situation without electrical power available to the CO2 pump it breaks down under extreme heat to form poisonous gases there is no effect on a class "A" fire even in an enclosed space A After abandoning a vessel, water consumed within the first 24 hours _______________.
will pass through the body with very little being absorbed by the system will help to prevent fatigue B. will quench thirst for only two hours C. helps to prevent seasickness D. Ans: A Angular motion about the vertical axis of a vessel is known as 3799 ______________. yaw A. surge B. sway C. roll D.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3798
A.
A Load line regulations are designed to insure that a vessel has adequate structural strength and sufficient ______________. lifesaving equipment A. stability B. mooring tension C. riser tension D. Ans: B The piece of equipment shown in the illustration is used in 3803 conjunction with a fire hose to produce which of the listed fire extinguishing agents? Ans:
3801
A.
Load Line mark Certificate of Inspection Muster List Tonnage mark A A fire extinguishing product produced by first mixing a foam concentrate with water to produce a foam solution, then mixing the foam solution with air is termed ____________. light water
Halon 1301 chemical foam mechanical foam D. Ans: D If a leak in an oil hose coupling cannot be stopped by tightening the 3800 coupling bolts, you should _____________. notify the Coast Guard of a potential oil spill A. reduce pumping pressure to reduce the leakage rate B. spread absorbent material on deck beneath the leak C. notify the terminal operator, then shutdown and repair the leak D. B.
C.
D The necessity for administering artificial respiration may be recognized by the victim's ______________. vomiting A. blue color and lack of breathing B. irregular breathing C. unconscious condition D. Ans: B A safety outlet is provided on the CO2 discharge piping to prevent 3804 _______________. Ans:
3802
Chemical foam Low velocity fog Mechanical foam C. High velocity fog D. Ans: C An oceangoing ship of 350 gross tons, contracted for in January 3805 1976, and not equipped with an oily water separator, all bilge slops may be retained ________.
overpressurization of the space being flooded rupture of cylinder due to temperature increase overpressurization of the CO2 discharge piping C. flooding of a space where personnel are present D. Ans: C Drinking salt water will _____________. 3806
onboard in the ship's bilges in the forward peak tank in the oil purifier reservoir C. in a cofferdam D. Ans: A "GM" cannot be used as an indicator of stability at all angles of 3807 inclination because ______________. "M" is not fixed at large angles A. there is no "M" at large angles B.
be safe if mixed with fresh water prevent seasickness promote urine excretion C. protect against heat cramps D. Ans: C The most frequent incidents of tanker pollution occurring during 3808 tanker operations is ______________. due to collisions A. routine discharge of oil during ballasting and tank crude oil washing B.
"G" is not fixed at large angles there is no "G" at large angles Ans: A Each fire pump on a cargo ship mus t have a pressure gage located 3809 ______________.
loading and discharging due solely to groundings Ans: C If vomiting occurs during a resuscitation effort, the best immediate 3810 procedure to follow is ____________.
A. B.
A. B.
C.
D.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3811
at the pump discharge at the manifold connection at each fire station discharge at the pump station A When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed _____________.
straight overhead at the vessel whose attention you want to attract into the wind C. at about 60 degrees above the horizon D. Ans: D Which of the listed firefighting agents and associated applications 3813 provide the largest shielding effect for the fire fighter? A. B.
A.
Straight stream of water
A. B.
A. B.
C.
D.
ignore it and c ontinue mouth-to-mouth ventilation pause for a moment until the patient appears quiet again, then resume mouth-to-mouth v entilation switch to mouth-to-mouth ventilation C. turn the patient's body to the s ide, sweep out the mouth and D. resume CPR Ans: D Oil Pollution Regulations (MARPOL), require any transfer, or 3812 discharge of oil, or oily mixtures be recorded in the _____________. A. B.
Pollution Control Record Bridge log Oil Record book C. Masters log D. Ans: C A vessel should normally behave as if all of its weight is acting 3814 downward through the center of gravity and all of its support is acting upward through the _____________. A. B.
A.
keel
Page 215
Light water and foam mixture Low velocity water fog Carbon dioxide interface D. Ans: C One of the uses for low velocity fog is to _____________. 3815 B.
C.
help produce mechanical foam break apart class "A" combustibles sweep burning liquids overboard C. act as a heat shield to protect the fire fighter D. Ans: D Which of the following must be eliminated to prevent accidents? 3817 A. B.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3819 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3821 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3823 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3825
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3827 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3829 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3831 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3833 A. B. C.
Unsafe actions Orderliness Frequent inspections Good work habit/practices A Fire extinguishers designated by the Roman numerals I and II are ______________. portable units semi-portable units fixed systems compact systems A A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding only _____________. with puncture wounds when all other means have failed when the victim is unconscious to prevent bleeding from minor wounds B Which of the firefighting foams listed would require the mechanical mixing of air and foam c oncentrate? Protein foam Synthetic and alcohol foams Aqueous film forming foam (AFFF) All of the above D To avoid excessive electrostatic effect in the crude oil washing process, due to the presence of water in the crude oil washing fluid, the contents of any tank to be used as a source of crude oil for washing must first reduce a portion of the tank conten one-half meter one meter one and one-half meters two meters B Which of the listed conditions can be considered as the single greatest cause of accidents? Speed Excessive knowledge or skill Human error Excitement C The fire hydrant outlet may be positioned from the horizontal to any position pointing ______________. 45° upward vertically upward 90° upward vertically downward D Water fog is an effective fire extinguishing agent because it _____________. has a great c ooling ability will completely remove toxic fumes from the air will completely remove combustible vapors from the air does not leave a harmful residue on electrical machinery A Regulations require inflatable liferafts to be equipped with _____________. a first aid kit an instruction manual a sea anchor
center of buoyancy tipping center amidships section D. Ans: B The value of the m aximum righting arm is dependent upon the 3816 position of the center of buoyancy and the ______________. longitudinal center of gravity A. transverse center of gravity B. downflooding angle C. vertical location of the center of grav ity D. Ans: D Repair of vital machinery and services related to an emergency on 3818 a cargo ship should be accomplished (in sequence) ______________. B.
C.
after control of fire, flooding, and structural repairs immediately before emergency is under control after control of fire, but before control of flooding C. after stability is restored D. Ans: A Combustible gas indicators measure the presence of combustible 3820 gases as a percentage of the ______________. flash point A. upper explosive limit B. lower explosive limit C. fire point D. Ans: C Low velocity water fog is used in firefighting as a _______. 3822 A. B.
cooling agent smothering agent barrier against radiant heat C. all of the above D. Ans: D If a ship is supported on the crest of a wave amidships, the vessel 3824 is subjected to _______________. pitch poling A. hogging stresses B. sagging stresses C. yawing stresses D. Ans: B A fuel/air mixture below the lower explosive limit is too 3826 ______________. A. B.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3828 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3830 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3832 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3834 A. B. C.
rich to burn lean to burn cool to burn dense to burn B A continual change in the list, or trim of any floating vessel indicates ______________. negative "GM" progressive flooding structural failure an immediate need to counterflood B To prevent oily rags from spontaneously igniting they should be ______________. kept in nonmetal c ontainers discarded as soon as possible cleaned thoroughly for reuse kept in the paint locker B With regards to the metacentric height, which of the following statements is true? It is used to indicate the quality of initial stability. It is located below the center of buoyancy. It is measured vertically above the center of buoyancy. Its determination is the objective of the inclining experiment. A In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a wound should be controlled by ___________. applying direct pressure submerging the wound in lukewarm water cooling the wound with ice
Page 216
D. Ans: 3835
all of the above D Damage stability of a ship is the stability _____________.
which exists when the wind speed is less than 50 knots before collision after flooding C. at survival draft D. Ans: C A definite advantage in the use of water as a fire extinguishing 3837 agent is its ability to ___________. alternate expansion and contraction as water in liquid state A. becomes vapor absorb smoke and gases as water is converted from liquid to vapor B. A. B.
C. D. Ans: 3839
D. Ans: 3836
allowing better access in an emergency eliminating potential fuel sources eliminating trip hazards C. improving personnel qualifications D. Ans: B Which of the listed initials is used to represent the indicator of initial 3838 stability? GM A. A. B.
rapidly contract as water is converted from a liquid to a vapor vaporize and rapidly expand as water absorbs heat D Immediately after extinguishing a fire with CO2, it is advisable to _______________.
applying a tourniquet A Good housekeeping on a vessel prevents fires by ____________.
B.
KG
C.
KM
D. Ans: 3840
GZ A Which of the following must be carried out in order to manually launch an inflatable liferaft not designed for float-free operation?
use all CO2 av ailable to cool the surrounding area standby with water or other agents thoroughly ventilate the space of CO2 C. jettison all burning materials D. Ans: B Each fire hydrant is required to have at least one spanner wrench 3841 and at least one _____________.
It will be easily launched by simply breaking the weak link. Depress the hydrostatic release button. It is easily launched by cutting the container securing straps. C. It is only necessary to attach the weak link to the vessel. D. Ans: B Forces within a mobile offshore drilling unit have caused a 3842 difference between the starboard and port drafts. This difference is __________.
hose rack or reel all-purpose nozzle foam applicator C. pick axe D. Ans: A The size of the fire hydrant hose connections must be either 1 1/2 3843 inches or _________. 1 inch A.
list heel trim C. flotation D. Ans: A First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds should be to 3844 ___________. have the patient lie down and cover the wound when the bleeding A. stops stop the bleeding, clean, medicate, and cover the wound B. apply an ice pack to the wound and cover it when the bleeding C. stops apply a hot towel to purge the wound, then medicate and cover it D.
A. B.
A. B.
C.
2 1/2 inches 3 inches
D.
3 1/2 inches
Ans:
B Which of the following symptoms may be observed in a v ictim of cardiac arrest as a result of electric shock?
B.
3845
A.
weak pulse at wrist or neck
flushed face respiration is weak or has s topped All of the above symptoms D. Ans: C #REF! 3847 B.
C.
#REF! #REF! #REF! C. #REF! D. #REF! Ans: The important initial stability parameter "GM" is the 3849 ______________. metacentric height A. height of the metacenter above the keel B. height of the center of buoyancy above the keel C. height of the center of gravity above the keel D. Ans: A During a fire drill on a ship, which of the following actions is 3851 required to be carried out? Each fire pump is to be started. A. The lifeboat is to be launched and operated. B. An inventory of rescue and fire equipment is to be taken. C. An inspection and inventory of fire hoses is to be made. D. Ans: A A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
Ans: 3846
B Heavy smoke is observed to be issuing from the partially open door of the paint locker, the FIRST firefighting attack should be to ____________.
leave the door and vents open, but release the CO2 flooding system open the door to ev aluate the extent of the fire B. enter and use a portable extinguisher C. secure the door and vents, then manually release the CO2 D. Ans: D If the cause of a sudden sev ere list or trim is negative initial stability, 3848 counterflooding into empty tanks may _______________. A.
increase the righting moment cause an increase in the righting arm bring the unit to an upright equilibrium position C. cause the unit to flop to a greater angle D. Ans: D On a cargo ship, a fire drill shall be conducted once every 3850 ____________. week A. month B. crew change C. other week D. Ans: A As a last resort, a tourniquet can be used to _____________. 3852 A. B.
hold a victim in a stretcher stop uncontrolled bleeding hold a large bandage in place C. restrain a delirious victim D. Ans: B A. B.
Page 217
After using a CO2 fire extinguisher ,it should be ____________.
3853
C.
put back in service if some CO2 remains hydrostatically tested retagged
D.
recharged
A. B.
D A slow and easy motion of a ship in a seaway is an indication of __________. small "GM" A. low center of gravity B. a stiff vessel C. large "GZ" D. Ans: A The abbreviation "GM" is used to represent the ___________. 3857 Ans:
3855
You are preparing to administer closed chest cardiac massage on a victim of electric shock. Which of the following actions is NOT a recommended procedure?
3854
Placing the victim on his or her back and exposing the chest. Giving cardiac massage without artificial respiration. Rocking so that a controlled amount of body weight goes through C. your arms and hand to their breastbone. Placing one hand across victim's breastbone so that the heel of the D. hand covers the lower part. Ans: B If a cargo ship takes a sudden sev ere list or trim from an unknown 3856 cause, you should first ____________. determine the cause before taking countermeasures A. assume the shift is due to off center loading B. counterflood on the side opposite the list or trim C. assume the cause is environmental forces D. Ans: A Automatic mechanical ventilation shutdown is required for CO2 3858 systems protecting the _____________. A. B.
height of the metacenter righting arm righting moment C. metacentric height D. Ans: D If a person suffers a simple fracture of a limb, you should 3859 ____________. attempt to set the fracture A. prevent further movement of the bone B. apply a tourniquet without delay C. alternately apply hot and cold compresses D. Ans: B Stability is determined principally by the relationship of the center of 3861 gravity and the ______________.
machinery spaces cargo compartments living quarters C. galley D. Ans: A You can find the location of your abandon ship post by checking 3860 the _________________. Certificate of Inspection A. muster list B. vessel's logbook C. vessel's documentation D. Ans: B In the event of a fire, automatic activation of a fixed CO2 3862 extinguishing system can result in which of the following areas?
aft perpendicular center of buoyancy keel C. center of flotation D. Ans: B Stability is determined principally by the location of two points in a 3863 vessel: The center of buoyancy and the ____________.
Machinery space Paint locker Cargo hold C. All of the above D. Ans: B Where foam extinguishing systems are provided on a ship, each 3864 machinery flat in the protected space must have a/an ________________.
metacenter geometric center of the water plane area center of gravity C. center of flotation D. Ans: C The muster list shows each crew lifeboat station, their duties during 3865 abandonment, basic instructions, and _______________.
coaming alarm drain C. fire sensor D. Ans: A You are treating a shipmate with a compound fracture of the lower 3866 arm. Which of the listed actions should you take?
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A.
all emergency signals
B.
instructions for lowering the survival capsule
C.
the time each weekly drill will be held
D.
work schedule
Ans: 3867
A In any major personal injury, first aid is to include the treatment of the injury and what additional treatment?
Application of CPR Removal of any foreign objects Administration of oxygen C. Treatment for traumatic shock D. Ans: D Which of the following is NOT a treatment for traumatic shock? 3869 A. B.
Keep the patient warm, but not hot. Have the injured person lie down. Massage the arms and legs to restore circulation. C. Relieve the pain of the injury. D. Ans: C
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
Apply a tourniquet to control bleeding then align the bones and splint. Apply traction to the hand to keep the bones in line, splint and apply B. a pressure dressing. Force the ends of the bones back into line, treat the bleeding, and C. splint. Apply a bulky, sterile, pressure dressing to control bleeding, then D. apply a temporary splint and place the v ictim in bed. Ans: D The use of which fire extinguishing agent involves c overing the 3868 burning surface by deflecting the agent from a bulkhead to avoid undue agitation? A.
Foam Dry chemical Carbon dioxide C. Halon 1301 D. Ans: A A "class B" fire is extinguished using foam by ____________. 3870 A. B.
cooling the surface replacing the fuel smothering the fire C. all of the above D. Ans: C
A.
A.
B.
B.
Page 218
When entering the pumproom of a tank ves sel to rescue an unconscious person, which items of the equipment listed are you required to be using?
3871
Which of the following treatments is used for traumatic shock?
3872
Protective clothing and explosion-proof flashlight Flame safety lamp and resuscitation equipment Combustible gas indicator and canister gas mask C. Self-contained breathing apparatus and lifelines D. Ans: D Flooding of any ship's compartment, resulting in a serious loss of 3873 reserve buoyancy, will always _____________.
Administer CPR Administer fluids Open clothing to allow cooling of the body C. Keep the victim in a sitting position D. Ans: B A crew member has been overcome by toxic fumes in the 3874 pumproom. Which of the following actions should be taken before entering the pumproom to rescue the victim?
increase the trim change the free surface effect decrease ship s tability C. cause a serious list D. Ans: C What is the usual effect of moving weight from low in the vessel to 3875 above the main deck?
Put on an approv ed self-contained breathing apparatus. Have someone stand by the entrance. Wear a lifeline. C. All of the above. D. Ans: D Which of the following is considered as the correct action for the 3876 rescue of an unconscious person from a c ompartment containing an unsafe atmosphere?
The stability is increased. The draft is increased. The stability is decreased. C. The reserve buoyancy is decreased. D. Ans: C If the result of loading a ship is an increase in the height of the 3877 center of gravity, there will always be an increase in the __________.
Wear an approved self-contained breathing apparatus. Attach a lifeline to the rescuer. Have someone stand by outside the compartment. C. All of the above. D. Ans: D If a vessel looses its reserve buoyancy, it will _____________. 3878
metacentric height righting arm righting moment C. vertical moments D. Ans: D Since accumulations of hydrogen sulfide gas can be dangerous to 3879 personnel, it is important to know that this gas is ____________.
float upright with the main deck awash capsize and float on its s ide remain unaffected if the hull remains intact C. most likely sink D. Ans: D The purpose of the inclining experiment on a ship is to determine 3880 ____________.
lighter than air heavier than air a yellow gas that is easily recognized C. mildly toxic D. Ans: B The fundamental treatment for preventing traumatic shock following 3881 an accident is to ___________. have the victim exercise to increase circulation A. stay away from electrical equipment B. keep the victim warm and dry while lying down C. apply ice packs and avoid excitement D. Ans: C The reserve buoyancy of a ship consists of ____________. 3883
lightweight and lightweight center of gravity location the position of the center of buoyancy the position of the metacenter C. the maximum load line D. Ans: A Which of the following statements concerning Aqueous Film 3882 Forming Foam (AFFF) is correct? AFFF can be used effectively on live electrical equipment. A. AFFF can be used to extinguish combustible metal fires. B. AFFF may be used in a joint attack with dry chemical. C. AFFF is an effective chain breaking agent similar to Halon. D. Ans: C The worst atmospheric condition for dispersion of hydrogen sulfide 3884 is ________________. heavy rain A.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
the void portion of the ship below the waterline which is enclosed and watertight all cofferdams, double bottoms, and wing tanks that are slack
the part of the enclosed and watertight portion of a vessel above the waterline the percentage of the volume of a compartment which can be D. occupied by water if flooded Ans: C The airborne concentrations of substances (such as hydrogen 3885 sulfide) under which nearly all workers may be repeatedly exposed without adverse effects are called ______________.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
C.
exposure limits concentration limits threshold limit values C. substance limit values D. Ans: C If there is no head injury, extreme physical discomfort or difficulty 3887 breathing a patient in shock should be placed in which of the positions listed? A. B.
Head up and feet down Head down and feet up Flat on back with head and feet at the same level C. Arms above the head D. Ans: B
B.
gusty winds with rain
C.
nearly calm, clear nights or early morning
D.
full sun with high winds
Ans:
C The free surface effects of a partially filled liquid tank decrease with increased __________.
3886
density of the liquid placement of the tank above the keel displacement volume of the MODU C. size of the surface area in the tank D. Ans: C Which of the listed firefighting agents produces a buoyant blanket to 3888 separate the burning vapors from air? A. B.
CO2 Low-expansion foam Water fog C. Steam D. Ans: B
A.
A.
B.
B.
Page 219
The recommended equipment for a pumproom rescue aboard a tank vessel is a lifeline, harness, and breathing apparatus. The lifeline should be ______________.
3889
The major cause of shock in burn victims is _______________.
3890
new nylon line a minimum of two inch line longer than twice the depth of the pumproom C. led through a two sheave block D. Ans: C If a fixed foam firefighting system on a MODU is not of the premix 3891 type, a sample of the foam liquid must be tested by _____________.
high level of pain emotional stress increase in body temperature and pulse rate C. massive loss of fluid through the burned area D. Ans: D A crew member has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive 3892 damage to the skin with charring present. This is an example of what kind of burn?
a Coast Guard inspection officer the safety man aboard the unit the designated person-in-charge of the unit C. the manufacturer, or his authorized representative D. Ans: D When a fire occurs in a ruptured oil cargo tank, caused by an 3893 explosion or collision, the best firefighting agent to use is __________.
Dermal burn Third degree burn Second degree burn C. Lethal burn D. Ans: B The distance between the bottom of the hull and the waterline is 3894 called _______________.
water CO2 foam C. carbon tetrachloride D. Ans: C What is the percentage of oxygen in a typical sample of 3895 uncontaminated air?
tonnage reserve buoyancy draft C. freeboard D. Ans: C A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is a reddening of the 3896 skin but no other apparent damage. This is an example of what kind of burn?
A. B.
A.
B.
A.
A.
B.
B.
0.12 0.15 0.18 0.21
B. C. D.
B.
A.
B.
A.
A.
Minor burn Superficial burn Extremity burn C. First degree burn D. Ans: D Which of the following statements is true regarding the operational 3898 testing and inspecting of a cargo vessel's lifesaving equipment by the ship's force? A. B.
Ans:
D Fuel oil tank vents must be fitted with corrosion resistant screens to prevent _____________.
A.
escape of flammable vapors
A.
On all vessels, regardless of voyage duration, the entire steering gear, whistle, and bridge-engine room communication systems must be tested within 12 hours of departure.
B.
entry of sea water
B.
All emergency lighting and power systems, regardless of source, must be operated and tested at least once each week under load for at least 2 hours.
C.
flames entering the tank
C.
3897
damage to the ball check C The Upper Explosive Limit (UEL) of a mixture of flammable vapors 3899 and air, is defined as ____________. the concentration above which just enough flammable vapor exists A. to produce an explosion the concentration above which the mixture is too rich to burn B. the percentage of flammable vapor by volume in the air sufficient C. to create an explosion the percentage of oxygen present in the air sufficient to support D. combustion Ans: B A fire is considered "under control" when _____________. 3901 D.
D.
Ans:
Ans:
all hands are at their fire s tations all firefighting equipment is at the scene the fixed systems are activated C. the fire is contained and no longer spreading D. Ans: D Which of the following gases is the most dangerous to personnel 3903 safety in confined atmospheres, as it is absorbedby the blood 300 times more quickly than oxygen? A. B.
Hydrogen Carbon dioxide Carbon monoxide C. Ammonia D. Ans: C Reserve buoyancy is the _____________. 3905 A. B.
3900 A.
Where motor-propelled lifeboats are carried, regardless of length or person capacity, each lifeboat motor must be operated ahead and astern at least 3 minutes once a week. All of the above. C Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with corrosion resistant screens to prevent _____________. flames entering through the tank vent
C.
escape of flammable vapors corrosion in the tank vent
D.
damage to the ball check
B.
A Which of the devices listed is designed to prevent flames from entering through fuel tank vents? Ball check A. Flame screen B. Spark arrester C. Flame inhibitor D. Ans: B The vertical distance between "G" and "M" of a ship is used as a 3904 measure of __________. Ans:
3902
stability at all angles of inclination initial stability stability at angles less than the limit of positive stability C. stability at angle less than the downflooding angle D. Ans: B When making entries in the Oil Record Book, the date, operational 3906 code, and item number shall be inserted in the appropriate columns. Futhermore, the required particulars shall be ________________. A. B.
Page 220
A. B.
unoccupied space below the waterline volume of intact space above the waterline
excess of the buoyant force over gravitational force difference between buoyancy in salt and fresh waters Ans: B Surface burns should first be treated by ___________. 3907 C.
D.
washing the area with a warm soap and water solution flooding, bathing, or immersing the area in cold water covering the area with talcum power and bandaging tightly C. leaving them exposed to the atmosphere D. Ans: B Most fire and explosions occur in a fuel tank ____________. 3909 during fueling when the fuel first strikes the tank bottom A. during fueling when fuel strikes fuel already in the tank B. A. B.
C. D.
A. B.
signed by the oiler who enters them in the Oil Record Book recorded chronologically in the blank space Ans: D The difference between the average of the forward and aft drafts is 3908 _____________. list A. heel B. trim C. flotation D. Ans: C Spontaneous combustion is a result of ______________. 3910 an outside heat source heating a substance unit it ignites A. conduction of heat through a wall of material to the substance B. C.
D.
when underway as the fuel is moved by wave action shortly after fueling when fuel vapors are released and accumulated
A Flame screens must be maintained in good condition and fitted in the opening they protect in order to ____________. prevent flammable vapors from entering the tank A. allow the escape of flammable vapors B. contain flammable vapors within the tank C. allow dissipation of heat from any flame D. Ans: D According to the regulations, the capacity of a liferaft is required to 3913 be marked _____________. on the muster list A. on a sign next to the liferaft B. on the Certificate of Inspection C. in the Operations Manual D. Ans: B The light on a personal flotation device on a ship must be replaced 3915 ______________. Ans:
3911
when the power source is replaced each year after installation every six months C. when it is no longer serv iceable D. Ans: D Burning diesel oil should be treated as which class of fire? 3917 A. B.
Class "A" Class "B" Class "C" C. Class "D" D. Ans: B A fire in the paint locker would probably be __________. 3919 A. B.
recorded only for accidental oil discharges recorded only for operations involving discharge of oily waste
C. D.
chemical reactions within a substance All of the above.
C To prevent the spread of fire by conduction, you should ____________. cool the bulkheads around the fire A. remove combustibles from direct exposure B. close all openings to the area C. shut off all electric power D. Ans: A The difference between the starboard and port drafts caused by a 3914 transverse shift in weight is _______________. list A. heel B. trim C. flotation D. Ans: A In the event of a fire, the doors to a stairtower must be closed to 3916 prevent the spread of fire by ____________. Ans:
3912
ventilation radiation convection C. conduction D. Ans: C If your vessel has a starboard list after taking on fuel, you would 3918 transfer fuel _____________. to starboard A. to port B. forward C. aft D. Ans: B It shall be insured that the fuel tank of each motor-propelled lifeboat 3920 is emptied, and the fuel is changed at least once every ____________. A. B.
Class A Class B Class C C. Class D D. Ans: B If a boiler has been laid up dry for an extended period, it will be 3921 unsafe to enter the steam and water drum immediately after it has been opened, as there may be _____________.
three months six months twelve months C. twenty-four months D. Ans: C When treating a chemical burn, you should flood the burned area 3922 for at least ____________.
insufficient oxygen to support life a heavy concentration of sewer gas excessive carbon dioxide in the drum C. toxic gases from organic decomposition D. Ans: A In addition to the lifejackets stowed in places that are readily 3923 accessible, lifejackets must be stowed at______________.
five minutes ten minutes fifteen minutes C. twenty minutes D. Ans: A Before entering any space that has been sealed, its oxygen level 3924 should be tested. What level of oxygen in the space is equal to fresh air?
A. B.
A. B.
the mess room each lifeboat each manned watch station C. each fire station D. Ans: C The material or substance involved in a class "B" fire can be 3925 burning ____________. diesel oil A.
A. B.
A. B.
A.
A.
B.
B. C. D. Ans: 3926 A.
0.18 0.198 0.208 0.218 C Which of the following precautions should be taken when treating burns caused by c ontact with dry lime? Water should be applied in a fine spray.
Page 221
B. C. D. Ans: 3927 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3929 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3931 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3933
magnesium dunnage electrical insulation A The document certifying the correctness of the load line marks on a ship is called the _____________. Certificate of Inspection Load Line Certificate Certificate of Documentation SOLAS Certificate B Burning paint, turpentine, or grease would be an example of which of the following classes of fire? Class A Class B Class C Class D B Where would you find the FCC authorization for transmitting on your rig's EPIRB? On the Ship Station License. On the side of the EPIRB transmitter. In the radio log. On the Certificate of Inspection. A A class "B" fire would most likely occur in the __________.
B. C. D. Ans: 3928 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3930 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3932 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3934
A.
main switchboard
A.
B.
engine room bilge
B.
C.
breathing compartment
D.
electric fresh water transfer pump
Ans:
B Which of the following classes of fire would probably occur in the fireroom bilges?
3935
Class A Class B Class C C. Class D D. Ans: B On a tank vessel, which of the following substances would be 3937 burning in a class "B" fire? Oil A. Wood B. Rags C. Electrical wiring D. Ans: A Dry chemical extinguishing agents are effective when used 3939 _____________. with any foam extinguishing agents A. strictly in a cooling capacity B. with any other dry chemical extinguishing agents C. on materials that contain their own oxygen D. Ans: C Radiation can spread a fire by ____________. 3941
knees bent and held close to the body with both arms around legs
body straight and arms tightly at the s ides for feet first entry into the water both hand holding the lifejacket below the chin with knees bent and D. legs crossed Ans: A In a typical automatic fire alarm system, which of the listed actions 3936 will cause an indication of a fire to be given in the annunciator cabinet? C.
A.
A.
B.
B.
transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal burning liquids flowing into another space heated gases flowing through v entilation systems C. the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space D. Ans: D Fire hoses should always be stowed at the fire main in a manner 3943 which will allow ____________. all sections to be quickly connected A. the nozzle end to be run out to the fire B. all sections to be quickly drained C. the nozzle and fittings to be easily and quickly inspected D. Ans: B The "off-load" release system on a survival craft is designed to be 3945 activated _____________. when there is no load on the cable A.
The burned area should be immersed in water. The entire burn area should be covered with ointment. Before washing, the lime should be brushed away gently. D A load line is assigned to a ship to insure adequate stability and ______________. mooring tension riser tension lifesaving equipment structural strength D The International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate is valid for a period of _____________. one year from the date of issue two years from the date of issue three years from the date of issue four years from the date of issue D After having activated the emergency position indicating radio beacon, you should ______________. turn it off for five m inutes every half-hour turn it off and on at five minute intervals turn it off during daylight hours leave it on continuously D With no alternative but to jump from a ship, the correct posture should include _______________. holding down the lifejacket against the chest with one arm crossing the other, covering the mouth and nose with a hand, and feet together
C. D. Ans: 3938 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3940 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3942
A.
A.
B.
B. C. D. Ans: 3944 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3946 A.
A rise in temperature will activate the thermostat. The fire alarm test push-button is operated. A manual fire alarm box is activated. All of the above. D Fire detecting systems on merchant vessels may be arranged to sense _____________. smoke rate of temperature rise ionized particles all of the above D Steering a survival craft broadside to the sea could cause it to _____________. capsize run smoother run faster sink A Which of the following conditions is a symptom of heat stroke ____________. cold and moist skin, high body temperature cold and dry skin, low body temperature hot and moist skin, high body temperature hot and dry skin, high body temperature D When the survival craft is supplied with bottles of compressed air, they are used for _____________. personnel air supply additional flotation priming the sprinkler system filling the self-righting bags A A fire hose should be stowed in its rack with the _____________. hose sections disconnected
Page 222
when there is a load on the cable only the doors are closed when the engine is started D. Ans: A If the engine of a survival craft does not start, check to see 3947 _____________. if the fuel valve is open A. if the air supply system is open B. if the water sprinkler system is open C. if the limit switch is on D. Ans: A Using a sea anchor with the survival craft will ___________. 3949 B.
C.
reduce your drift rate keep the survival craft from turning over aid in recovering the survival craft C. increase your v isibility D. Ans: A To properly maintain fire hoses, you should _____________. 3951 A. B.
A.
keep them rolled tightly in the rack with female coupling protected
keep exterior linings damp by periodic washdowns thoroughly drain them after each use keep them partially filled with fresh water D. Ans: C A class "C" fire would most likely occur in the ___________. 3953 B.
C.
engine room bilges main switchboard paint locker C. rag bin D. Ans: B When fighting a fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher you 3955 should always _____________. direct the stream of chemical toward the base of the fire A. attack the fire from the leeward side B. bounce the chemical onto the fire from adjacent structural members C. A. B.
spray the chemical across the tops of the flames A If water is rising in the bilge of a survival c raft, you should first 3957 ____________. abandon the survival craft A. check for cracks in the hull B. shift all personnel to the stern C. check the bilge drain plug D. Ans: D Survival craft is manufactured with fire retardant ______________. 3959
foam nozzle attached all-purpose nozzle attached hose sections rolled separately D. Ans: C Small oil spills on deck may be prevented from entering the water 3948 by _____________. keeping the drip pans empty A. plugging all scuppers and drains B. placing floating booms alongside the ship C. closing ullage openings between soundings D. Ans: B To effectively treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion, you 3950 should ____________. administer artificial respiration A. put him in a tub of ice water B. give him sips of cool saline solution C. take his blood pressure D. Ans: C During the towing of a survival craft, a lookout should be on station 3952 to ______________. release the towline in an emergency A. B.
C.
help the helmsman steer look for food and water check water level in the bilge D. Ans: A When retrieving the survival craft, the winch operator should stop 3954 the winch and check ____________. that all personnel are seated in the craft A. that the cable has not jumped any grooves on the drum B. which way the wind is blowing C. the hydraulic fluid level before lifting D. Ans: B Releasing oil from the sea anchor of a survival craft may 3956 __________. keep the propeller from being fouled A. increase propeller speed B. help calm spray given off from the waves in the v icinity of the craft C. B.
C.
foam marine plywood steel C. fiberglass D. Ans: D Which of the listed sources of ignition may cause fuel vapors to 3961 ignite? Static electricity A. An open and running motor B. Loose wiring C. All of the above D. Ans: D A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of his right foot. 3963 Which of the following is NOT an acceptable first aid measure?
increase the holding power of the sea anchor C The air cylinder bottles in the survival craft should be refilled with 3958 ________________. oxygen A. nitrogen B. compressed air C. nitrogen and oxygen D. Ans: C Fire hose should always be stowed at the fire station in the hose 3960 rack _____________. after the hose has been completely drained A. with the nozzle in the solid stream position B. so the hose can be connected quickly if a fire occurs C. so the nozzle is protected by the hose D. Ans: A Which of the listed materials would be considered as a burning 3962 class "C" fire? Fuel oil A. Wood B. Celluloid C. Electrical insulation D. Ans: D For the best extinguishing effect, the discharge from a dry chemical 3964 type fire extinguisher should be directed at the _____________.
Rub the toes briskly. Elevate the foot slightly. Warm the frost bitten toes rapidly. C. Give aspirin or other medication for pain if necessary. D. Ans: A A tank or compartment is "gas free" when there is an absence of 3965 dangerous concentrations of _____________.
base of a fire top and sides of a fire middle of a fire C. highest flames in a fire D. Ans: A Which of the listed procedures should be followed when individuals 3966 are rescued in cold climates and suffer from hypothermia?
D.
Ans:
A. B.
A. B.
A. B. C.
all flammable liquids any combustible liquid flammable or toxic gases
D.
Ans:
A. B.
A. B. C.
Give them brandy Get them to a hot room Immerse them in a warm bath (104°F)
Page 223
D. Ans: 3967
residues from cargo oil C The explosive range of benzene is 1.4% to 8% by volume in air. If you sample an empty tank that had contained benzene and obtained a reading of 50% L.E.L. on a combustible gas indicator, then the _____________.
vapor/air mixture is too lean to burn vapor concentration at the sample point is 0.7% vapor/air mixture is not within the flammable range C. all of the above D. Ans: D A fire may be spread by which of the following means? 3969 A.
Conduction of heat to adjacent surfaces Direct radiation Convection C. All of the above D. Ans: D The designation "Not safe for men - Not safe for fire" means 3971 _____________. the gas or oxygen concentrations within a compartment is not within A. permissible limits dangerous gases are present B. the compartment was not tested due to the presence of ballast C. slops or bunkers all of the above D. Ans: D The flammable limits of kerosene are 0.7% to 6.0% by volume in 3973 air. The combustible gas indicator reading is 50% of the lower explosive level. The flammable vapor concentration at the sample point is _____________. B.
too rich to burn
in the flammable range B When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam will 3975 ____________. be drier A. be heavier B. be more heat resistant C. not cling to vertical surfaces D. Ans: A Heat exhaustion is caused by excessive _______________. 3977 loss of body temperature A. loss of water and salt from the body B. gain in body temperature C. intake of water when working or exercising D. Ans: B Hose spanner wrenches should be used to connect ___________. 3979 D.
Ans:
fire hoses to fire hydrants hose spreaders for attaching new fittings two female hose couplings C. two male hose couplings D. Ans: A Which of the following statements defines the purpose of the 3981 lifeboat gravity davit limit switch? To cut off power when the davits hit the track safety stops. A. To stop the davits from going too fast. B. A. B.
C. D.
To cut off power when the davits are about 30cms from the track safety stops. None of the above.
C Which of the following should NOT be done for a person who has fainted? Get the person in the open air. A. Loosen the clothing. B. Lay the person with the head higher than the feet. C. Splash cold water in the face. D. Ans: C Ans:
3983
Graphite Grease Soap C. Talc D. Ans: B When compared to a high-expansion foam, a low-expansion foam 3970 will ____________. be dryer A. be lighter B. be more heat resistant C. cling to vertical surfaces D. Ans: C A crew member suffering from generalized hypothermia should be 3972 given ____________. a small dose of alcohol A. B. C. D. Ans: 3974
treatment for shock a large meal a brisk rub down B Which of the conditions listed make it difficult to indefinitely maintain fire hoses?
Gasoline and oils act to dissolve the rubber or cement which holds the inner jacket and lining together. Heat causes the rubber lining to harden and crack. B. Moisture will cause mildew to form on the jacket which destroys the C. cotton fiber. All of the above. D. Ans: D Which of the listed classes of fire would apply to a main switchboard 3976 fire? Class "A" A. Class "B" B. Class "C" C. Class "D" D. Ans: C Lifejackets should be stowed in ____________. 3978 the forepeaks A. the pumproom B. readily accessible spaces C. locked watertight containers D. Ans: C You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a liferaft or lifeboat. 3980 How much water per day should you permit each person after the first 24 hours? A.
0.0035 0.0265
C.
3968
Cover with an electric blanket set for maximum temperature C A fire hose is subject to damage if the swivel on the female coupling is lubricated with ____________.
B.
A.
B.
Ans:
A.
B.
A.
D.
1 can 1 pint 1 quart C. 1 gallon D. Ans: B An inflatable life raft has inflated on top of you in an upside down 3982 position. What should you do next? Wait for others to lift the raft off of you. A. Dive down to prevent your lifejacket from fouling as you come out. B. A. B.
Pull yourself out from under the raft in a face up position to keep your lifejacket clear of the raft. You should remove your lifejacket before attempting to right an D. inflatable raft. Ans: C A galley grease fire would be classified as ___________. 3984 C.
Class A Class B Class C C. Class D D. Ans: B A. B.
Page 224
3985 A. B. C. D. Ans: 3987
A. B. C. D. Ans: 3989 A.
Which statement concerning the c ollection of fresh water is FALSE? Fresh water may be obtained from fish. Lifeboat covers or canopies should be washed with rain before drinking water is collected. Fresh water may be c ollected from condensation inside the liferaft. Freshwater cannot be produced from standing seawater. A Foam is effective in combating which of the listed classes of fire?
Class A Class B Classes A and B Classes B and C C When jumping into water upon which there is an oil fire, you should ____________. break the water surface with your hands when diving head first
use your hands to hold your knees to your chest cover your eyes with one hand while pinching your nose shut and covering your mouth with the other enter the water at the bow or stern, on the windward side of the D. vessel Ans: D Which one of the following statements is true concerning the gas 3991 free status of a compartment? The gas free status applies to the conditions of the compartment at A. the time of the inspection. The gas free status applies for the duration of the work inside the B. compartment. The gas free status applies for the 24 hour period following the C. inspection. The gas free status applies as long as the air temperature inside D. the compartment remains at or below 25 degrees Celsius.
3986 A. B.
The explosive range of petroleum vapors when mixed with airis ____________. 0% to 1% by volume 1% to 6% by volume
C.
6% to 12% by volume
D.
12% to 20% by volume B The flammable limits of Benzene are 1.4% to 8% by volume in air. If a combustible gas indicator is used to sample a tank that contains a Benzene vapor/air mixture of 0.7% Benzene vapor by volume in air, which of the listed indications will be observed
Ans: 3988
The meter will deflect to the 70% explosive position. The meter will deflect to the 50% explosive position. The meter will deflect full scale and return to zero. C. The meter will be unable to detect a concentration of 0.7% Benzene D. vapor in air. Ans: B Which of the listed classes of fire would most likely occur in the 3990 engine room of a vessel? Classes A and B A. A. B.
B.
B.
C.
C.
Classes B and C Classes C and D
D.
Classes A and D
Ans:
A.
B One of the methods NOT usually allowed in cleaning up oil spills in the water is ____________. skimmers
B.
straw
C.
dispersants
D.
sawdust
A For the safety of personnel working with fire hoses, fire pumps are fitted with a/an _____________. butterfly valve on the discharge side A. air priming valve on the impeller housing B. automatic suction valve shut off C. pressure gage and relief valve on the discharge side D. Ans: D Inflatable liferafts are provided with ____________. 3995 a Very pistol A. a towing connection B. a portable radio C. canned milk D. Ans: B One of the common hazards onboard a v essel is represented by 3997 the accumulation of harmful gases in tanks, holds, etc. Which of the following gases is the most dangerous to personnel safety in confined atmospheres, as it is absorbed by the blood 300 times Ans:
3993
Hydrogen Carbon dioxide Carbon monoxide C. Ammonia D. Ans: C Foam is a very effective smothering agent, in addition 3999 ____________. it provides cooling as a secondary effect A. works well on extinguishing electrical fires B. can be used to combat combustible metal fires C. all of the above D. Ans: A Which of the following conditions is an important consideration to 4001 remember when using a combustible gas indicator? A. B.
3992
C Handholds or straps on the underside of an inflatable liferaft are provided ____________. to right the raft if it capsizes A. to carry the raft around on deck B. for crewmen to hang on to C. to hang the raft for drying D. Ans: A Fires involving combustible metals are classified as ______. 3996 class "A" fires A. class "B" fires B. class "C" fires C. class "D" fires D. Ans: D Which of the following should not be used as a treatment for a 3998 person who has received a head injury and is groggy or unconscious? Ans:
3994
Give a stimulant Elevate his head Stop severe bleeding C. Treat for shock D. Ans: A A fire involving aluminum powder would be a class _________. 4000 A. B.
"A" fire "B" fire "C" fire C. "D" fire D. Ans: D If for any reason it is necessary to abandon ship while far at sea, it 4002 is important for the crew members to ___________. A. B.
Page 225
A.
They detect vapor at the sample point only.
A.
B.
They do not work properly in oxygen deficient atmospheres.
B.
C.
Any movement of the needle indicates an unsafe condition specifically related to the toxicity of petroleum vapors present.
D.
All of the above.
D What danger to personnel exists when a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is discharged in a small enclosed space? Second degree burns A. Electric shock B. Suffocation C. Burst eardrums D. Ans: C To keep injured survivors warm in the water, after abandoning 4005 ship, they should ____________. be placed in the middle of a small circle formed by the other A. survivors in the water float on their backs with their arms extended for maximum exposure B. to the air remove their lifejackets and hold on to the uninjured survivors C. Ans:
4003
D.
sip water at fifteen minute intervals
A A burning mattress is considered as which of the following classes of fire? Class "A" A. Class "B" B. Class "C" C. Class "D" D. Ans: A If a person gets something in his eye and you observe that it is not 4009 embedded, you can ____________. Ans:
4007
C.
separate from each other as this will increase the chances of being rescued get away from the area because sharks will be attracted to the vessel immediately head for the nearest land
remain together in the area because rescuers will start searching at the vessel's last known position Ans: D Inflatable liferafts are provided with a ____________. 4004 D.
jackknife towing connection lifeline C. all of the above D. Ans: D Shipboard oil pollution emergency plans must be reviewed 4006 ___________. annually by the owner and a letter sumitted six m onths prior to A. expiration only once every five years and a letter submitted six months prior to B. expiration and the entire plan resubmitted for approval once every five years, C. six months prior to expiration annually by the owner and submit a letter to the Administration D. within one month of the anniversary date of the plan approval A. B.
D The external flotation bladder of an immersion suit should be inflated ____________. only after two hours in the water A. only after four hours in the water B. before entry into the water C. upon entry into the water D. Ans: D You have just extinguished an oil fire on the floor plates of the 4010 engine room with a CO2 extinguisher. Which of the dangers listed should be prepared for next? Ans:
4008
get him to rub his eye until the object is gone remove it with a match or toothpick remove it with a piece of dry sterilized cotton rag C. remove it with a moist cotton-tipped applicator D. Ans: D Records of garbage disposal are required to be maintained 4011 _________.
Complete lack of oxygen in the engine room. Chemical reaction of the CO2 and oil forming carbonic acid. Sudden stoppage of the main engine. C. Rekindling of the fire. D. Ans: D When using the hand crank to retrieve and s tow a lifeboat on 4012 gravity davits, which of the listed precaution should always be observed?
until each quad-ennial inspection until the end of each voyage for a minimum of one year C. for a minimum of two years D. Ans: D According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations , which of the 4013 following statements is correct regarding the fuel oil containment around loading manifolds?
Make certain the hand brake is disengaged. Put the emergency disconnect switch in the "off" position. Make certain the crank is in the locked position. C. Disconnect the limit switch. D. Ans: B Fires occurring in combustible metals, such as sodium or 4014 magnesium, are classified as a _________.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A.
class A
B.
class B
C.
class C
D.
class D
Ans:
D In which of the circumstances listed would a carbon dioxide fire extinguishing agent be most effective?
A.
A.
B.
B.
Within a closed space On a magnesium fire
A. B.
C. D. Ans: 4015
They may be fixed or portable, depending upon the age of the vessel. The containment drains must have quick-closing valves to be closed in the event of leakage or failure of any part of the transfer connection. All containment drains must lead to a common fixed drain tank. Containment drains are prohibited from leading to a common tank. A You are in the mess room when a shipmate suddenly begins to choke, is unable to speak and starts to turn blue. W hich of the following actions should you take?
Administer abdominal thrust in an effort to clear the airway. Make the victim lie down with the feet elevated to get blood to the brain. Immediately administer CPR. C. Do nothing until the victim becomes unconscious. D. Ans: A If someone suffers a heart attack and has ceased breathing, you 4017 should ___________.
4016
At a range of 5 metres As a cooling agent Ans: A After a liferaft is launched, the operating cord __________. 4018 C.
D.
Page 226
immediately give a stimulant, by force if necessary make the victim comfortable in a bunk immediately start CPR C. administer oxygen D. Ans: C Which of the following following statements concerning immersion suits is 4019 correct? All models will will automatically automatically turn an unconscious person face-up in in A. the water. The immersion suit seals in all all body heat and provides protection B. against hypothermia for weeks. The suit is flameproof and provides protection to the wearer while C. swimming through burning oil. The suits provide for limited body movement such as walking, D. climbing a ladder, and picking picking up small objects like a pencil. Ans: D The temperature at which a liquid, as listed on a Material Safety 4021 Data Sheet (MSDS), will change to a gas is called its __________.
serves as a sea painter detaches automatically is used to rig the boarding ladder C. is cut immediately as it is of no further use D. Ans: A Pressure within a firemain system will vary from point to point due to 4020 ________. leaky pilot valves A.
flash point boiling point condensation point C. reactive point D. Ans: B Why is it necessary to warn engine room personnel before 4023 activating the fixed CO2 system?
boiling point flash point viscosity point C. toxic point D. Ans: B Hydrogen sulfide gives crude oil the sour odor of rotten eggs. A 4024 hazard to personnel regarding hydrogen sulfide is _____________.
To make them aware there is a fire. To let them know they should leave the engine room. To prevent possible injury from frostbite. C. To make them aware that v entilation will automatically automatically stop. D. Ans: B Which of the following following statements concerning immersion suits is 4025 correct? All models will will automatically automatically turn an unconscious person face-up in in A. the water. The immersion suit reduces the rate rate of body cooling and greatly B. increases the survival time in cold water. The suit is flameproof and provides protection to a wearer C. swimming in burning oil. The suit provides a full range of body movement and is suitable for D. routine wear on deck.
dizziness asphyziation death C. All of the above D. Ans: D To reduce mild fever the MOST useful drug is ____________. 4026
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
Ans: 4027 A. B. C. D.
B When taking samples of a tank atmosphere with with an explosimeter, you should _____________. only sample around the deck longitudinals longitudinals as gases are lighter than air sample only near the ullage ullage openings openings as all vapors accumulate there avoid sampling in the vicinity of deep webs to prevent false readings sample as much of the tank as possible, especially at the bottom
D In cleaning up an oil s pill, the use of straw or reclaimed paper fibers would be an example of which which type of oil removal? Chemical agent removal A. Mechanical removal B. Absorbent removal C. None of the above D. Ans: C What information can be obtained from a marine chemist's 4031 certificate on a tank barge? The number of fire extinguishers required onboard. A. The quality of the barge's cargo. B. The tanks which are safe to enter when the certificate was issued. C. Ans:
4029
D. Ans: 4033 A. B.
The barge's stability information. C Hydrocarbon vapors are usually detected by the use of the _____________. flame safety lamp combustible gas indicator
A.
B.
B.
leaky pump suction valve
C.
friction in the piping and valves
D.
wear in the hydrant
Ans:
C The lowest temperature at which which a liquid, listed on a Material Safety Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), gives off enough vapor to ingnite in the presence of an ignition source is called its _____________.
4022
A.
B.
A.
B.
A.
bicarbonate of soda
B.
paregoric
C.
aspirin
D.
aromatic spirits of ammonia
Ans:
A.
C When whistle signals are used as commands for launching the lifeboats, one short blast means ____________. use the float-free method only
B.
lower all boats
C.
raise all boats
D.
drill is over, secure all boats
4028
B The most important thing to remember when launching an inflatable inflatable liferaft by hand is to ____________. open the CO2 inflation valve A. open the raft container B. ensure that the operating cord is secured to the vessel C. inflate the raft on the vessel, then lower it over the side D. Ans: C Symptoms of sugar diabetes include ____________. 4032 Ans:
4030
A. B. C. D. Ans: 4034 A. B.
increased appetite and thirst decreased appetite and thirst gain in weight elevated temperature A What statement about immersion suits is FALSE? The suit should be worn only when abandoning ship. The suit is received from the manufacturer manufacturer in an outer storage bag that should be used aboard ship for storing the suit.
Page 227
C.
gasometer
D.
oxygen indicator
Ans: 4035
B An ullage reading reading is the distance distance from a given point at the _________________.
The front zipper should should be lubricated lubricated according to manufacturer's specifications. Immersion suits provide protection against hypothermia even if D. there is a small leak or tear. Ans: A An inflatable inflatable liferaft is hand-launched by by ____________. 4036 C.
sounding tube to either side of the tank top of the tank down to the bottom of the tank top of the liquid down to the tank bottom C. top of the sounding tube down to the surface of the liquid D. Ans: D If a person with diabetes has been injured, the symptoms of the 4037 onset of a diabetic coma would include ____________.
pulling a cord cutting the wire restraining bands removing the rubber packing strip C. throwing the entire container overboard D. Ans: D The most effective effective method in the use of a CO2 fire extinguisher is is 4038 for the discharge to be directed directed at the _____________.
reduced appetite and thirst sneezing and coughing excessive thirst and fever C. slurred speech and loss of coordination D. Ans: C A chemical material, material, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet 4039 (MSDS) that can undergo a sudden and violent release of pressure and heat is called _________________.
middle of a fire top and sides of a fire base or nearest edge of a fire C. highest flames of a fire D. Ans: C When firing a pyrotechnic distress distress signal, it should be aimed 4040 ____________.
combustible explosive flammable C. toxic D. Ans: B The oil transfer procedures aboard a tanker transferring oil are NOT 4041 required to contain _________________. the name of the person designated as the person in charge of A. transfer a line diagram of the v essel's oil transfer piping B. special procedures for topping off tanks C.
into the wind straight ahead at the vessel whose attention you want to attract C. approximately 60° above the horizon D. Ans: D Which of the following following operations should be carried out when 4042 launching an inflatable liferaft by hand? Open the liferaft casing A.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
D. Ans: 4043
a description of the deck discharge containment system A Material listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) that violently self-reacts under commonly occurring conditions is called _______________.
pyrophric toxic explosive C. unstable D. Ans: D What is the purpose of an explosimeter? 4045
A.
B.
A.
B.
A.
B.
Turn the valve on the CO2 cylinder to start inflation Make sure the operating cord is secured to the vessel before throwing it over the side After inflation, inflation, detach operating operating cord from liferaft liferaft D. Ans: C The most beneficial assistance assistance for a person having an epileptic 4044 convulsion is to __________________. B.
C.
To identify combustible gases. To detect combustible gases. To indicate the absence of oxygen. C. All of the above. above. D. Ans: B What term is listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) to 4047 describe a chemical that can produce life-threateni life-threatening ng or seriously disabling health hazard ?
give the v ictim artificial respiration completely restrain the victim give the victim one 30mg tablet of phenobarbitol C. keep him from injuring himself D. Ans: D The bayonet catch on an all purpose nozzle is used to latch in place 4046 the ____________. mechanical foam nozzle A. mechanical foam pick up tube B. high velocity fog tip C. chemical foam applicator D. Ans: C Your vessel is taking on bunkers from a shore s ide facility. If oil 4048 begins flowing from one tank vent, which of the following following actions should be taken FIRST?
Low toxicity Recommended toxicity Moderate toxicity C. High toxicity D. Ans: D What term is listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) to 4049 describe a chemical that produces only minor minor health effects that usually heal with or without medical attention when exposure stops?
Open the intake valve to an adjacent tank. Set out drip pans and sawdust and begin to mop up the spill. Signal the shore control point to shutdown. C. Close the valve on the tank v ent line. D. Ans: C Which health hazard term is listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet 4050 (MSDS) to indicate that contact with the substance will freeze body tissue on contact?
Moderate toxicity Low toxicity Lower exposure limit C. Moderate exposure limit D. Ans: B A written document document identifying identifying chemical material, material, listing listing its physical 4051 properties, describing health health hazards, hazards, required controls, correct correct procedures for firefighting, firefighting, spill or leak cleanup, waste disposal, and the safe handling and storage of the materi
Freeze hazard Cyanosis Freon hazard C. Cryogenic D. Ans: D The instrument shown in the illustration has not been used for 4052 several weeks. Prior Prior to its its use for testing a compartment, you should _______.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
MSC MSDS
A.
B.
A.
B.
A.
B.
A. B.
check or renew the batteries purge the meter
Page 228
DGC HSC Ans: B Which of the following following symptoms would be indicated ifif a person's 4053 appendix ruptured?
adjust the meter pointer to zero all of the above Ans: D The physical data term term on a Material Safety Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) 4054 describing whether a liquid is lighter or heavier than water is ____________.
Dilated pupils and shallow breathing Diarrhea and frequent urination Muscle tenseness in almost the entire abdomen C. Extreme sweating and reddening skin D. Ans: C The all-purpose, or combination nozzle is capable by itself of 4055 producing a solid stream of water __________. only A. and high velocity water fog B. and low velocity water fog C. and high and low velocity water fog D. Ans: B If you wish to remove an inflatable inflatable liferaft liferaft from its cradle, the best 4057 way to free it is by ____________. cutting the restraining strap A. unscrewing the turnbuckle on the back of the cradle B. lifting one end of the raft C. pushing the plunger on the c enter of the hydrostatic release D. Ans: D When a patient is suspected of having appendicitis, the pain should 4059 be relieved by ____________.
solubility specific gravity viscosity C. flotation point D. Ans: B Which of the following following conditions is NOT a function of the covered 4056 lifeboat pressurized air supply? Provides combustion air for the diesel engine. A. Pressurizes the water spray system. B. Provides air for passenger respiration. C. Prevents smoke and other noxious fumes from entering craft. D. Ans: B When you notice oil on the water water near your vessel while taking on 4058 fuel, you should FIRST ____________. stop loading A. notify the senior deck officer B. notify the terminal superintendent C. determine whether your vessel is the source D. Ans: A Ethylene oxide has a lower explosive limit of 2.0% and an upper 4060 explosive limit of 100% by volume in air. This means _____________.
C.
D.
A. B.
A.
keeping a ice bag over the location of the appendix
B.
giving the patient a laxative
C.
giving the patient morphine sulfate giving the patient aspirin with a glass of water
D.
A According to Regulations Regulations , a person who who discharges plastic or or garbage mixed with plastic is liable for ______________. a civil penality A. a fine B. imprisonment for up to five years for each violation C. All of the above above D. Ans: D A chemical that causes a substantial substantial proportion proportion of exposed people people 4063 or animals to develop an allergic reaction in normal tissue after repeated exposure is listed listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) as a ____________. Ans:
4061
C.
D.
A.
B.
there is no possible ethylene oxide concentration in air which is too lean to burn there is no possible ethylene oxide concentration in air which is too B. rich to burn an ethylene oxide spill always results in an explosion C. a 2.0% concentration of ethylene oxide in air would give a reading D. of 2.0% on a combustible gas indicator Ans: B Seasickness is caused by rolling or rocking motions which affect 4062 fluids in the ____________. stomach A. lower intestines B. inner ear C. bladder D. Ans: C Progressive flooding on a ship may be indicated by ________. 4064 A.
skin contact hazard physical hazard sensitizer C. skin absorption hazard D. Ans: C Using a sea anchor will ____________. 4065
ballast control alarms excessive draft excessive list or trim C. a continual worsening of list or trim D. Ans: D While taking on fuel, you notice oil on the water around the vessel. 4066 Which of the following following actions should be taken FIRST?
reduce the drift rate of the liferaft keep the liferaft from turning over aid in recovering the liferaft C. increase your v isibility isibility D. Ans: A The primary concern in aiding a back injury patient is 4067 _______________. relieving the patient's pain by giving aspirin or stronger medication A.
Stop fueling Notify the dispatcher Notify the terminal superintendent C. Determine if your vessel is the source D. Ans: A The most practical method of extinguishing a class "A" fire, 4068 involving burning dunnage, is to use _____________. chemical foam A.
A. B.
A. B.
A.
B.
A.
B.
B.
avoiding possible injury to the s pinal cord by incorrect handling
B.
a hand portable CO2 extinguishers
C.
preventing convulsions and muscle spasms caused by by the injury
C.
Purple K powder and light water
D.
providing enough fluids to prevent dehydration B In order to produce a high velocity water water fog using an all-purpose nozzle, you must _____________. pull the nozzle handle halfway back push the nozzle handle completely forward insert an in-line fog applicator
D.
water D Which of the following should NOT be done for a person who has fainted? Provide fresh air Loosen clothing Elevate head
Ans: 4069 A. B. C.
Ans: 4070 A. B. C.
Page 229
change to a small nozzle tip after changing the position of the nozzle handle Ans: A If an incorrect entry were made in the Oil Record Book, youshould 4071 _____________. erase the entry and rewrite it A. notify the ship's officer-in-charge B. completely black it out and make the correct entry alongside C. draw a single line through the wrong entry and initial it D. Ans: D A crack, located in the the shell plating plating or deck plating plating of a ship, may be 4073 temporarily prevented from increasing in length by ____________. D.
A.
drilling a hole at each end of the crack
B.
installing welded welded brackets across both ends
C.
V-grooving and welding from both sides of the crack
D.
cutting a square notch at each end of the crack
Ans: 4075 A. B. C.
A First aid treatment for battery acid or alkali burns, especially in the eyes, includes _____________. flushing with with large amounts of fresh water and and seeking medical attention ashore or by radio wiping the affected area with a clean dry cloth and resting quietly for several hours drying the acid or alkali with a rag followed by applying a light cream
all of the above may be acceptable treatments depending on the severity of the burn Ans: A When off loading garbage to another ship, your records must 4077 identify that ship by name and _________.
D.
C Generally, when lifting an inflatable liferaft back aboard ship, you would use the ____________. towing bridle A. main weather cover B. external lifelines C. righting strap D. Ans: A Which of the following procedures can be used for checking for 4074 spinal cord damage to an unconscious patient? Ans:
4072
Beginning at the back of the neck, and proceeding to the buttocks, press the spine to find where it hurts. Prick the skin of the hands and the soles of the feet with a sharp B. object to check for reaction. Selectively raise each arm and each leg and watch patient's face to C. see if he registers pain. Roll patient onto his stomach and prick along the length of his spine D. to check reaction. Ans: B Where would you look to find out what your duties are during a fire? 4076 A.
D.
home port operator's name of record official number C. master's name D. Ans: C In order to find out which lifeboat you are assigned, you should look 4079 at the _____________. fire control plan A. certificate of inspection B. muster list C. ship's articles D. Ans: C What is the required gas supply capacity of an inert gas system? 4081 A. B.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 4083
125% of forced draft rate 125% of shore side loading rate 125% of cargo pump capacity 125% of fan capacity C Firehose can be used for purposes other than firefighting service when ____________.
used for portable water service used for drills and testing determined by the Chief Engineer C. approved by Master D. Ans: B A vessel sailing through the specific special areas may discharge 4085 or dispose of __________. incinerated ash at anytime A. fairly dense material that will sink, i.e. metal cans or glass bottles at B. anytime victual waste when at least 12 nautical miles from shore C. absolutely no garbage at anytime D. Ans: C Were there are multiple accident victims, victims, which type of injury 4087 should be the first to receive emergency treatment? Severe shock A. A. B.
Stimulate face with cold water
A.
SOLAS Regulations
B.
Certificate of Inspection
C.
Muster list
D.
Ship's articles
Ans:
C The best means of combating an oil fire on the surface of the water surrounding a vessel tied to the pier, is to use _________.
4078
water fog over the fire solid water streams directly into the fire dry chemical around the fire C. foam directed against the vessel's side D. Ans: D After launching, an inflatable inflatable raft should be be kept dry inside by 4080 ____________. opening the automatic drain plugs A. draining the water pockets B. using the electric bilge pump C. using the bailers and cellulose sponge D. Ans: D An inert gas system is is designed to reduce reduce the possibility possibility of tank 4082 explosions by _____________. eliminating eliminating sparks and fire in the vicinity of cargo tanks A. removing all hydrocarbon gases from the cargo tanks B. blanketing cargo tanks with inert foam C. reducing the oxygen concentration below levels necessary for D. combustion Ans: D The three positions of an all-purpose fire nozzle are 4084 ____________. A.
B.
forward: off, center: fog, back: solid stream forward: solid stream, center: fog, back: off forward: fog, center: solid stream, back: off C. forward: off, center: solid stream, back: fog D. Ans: A Where there are multiple accident v ictims, which injuries should be 4086 the FIRST to receive emergency treatment? Major multiple fractures A. Eye injuries B. A.
B.
Back injuries with spinal cord damage Airway and breathing difficulties difficulties Ans: D The purpose of the four water water pockets, located on the underside at 4088 each corner of the raft, is to ____________. stow rainwater; these four spaces will not take up v aluable space A. C.
D.
Page 230
B.
Eye injuries
C.
Burns
Major multiple fractures A In managing a situation involving multiple injuries, the rescuer must 4089 be able to ____________. provide the necessary medication A. rapidly evaluate the seriousness of obv ious injuries B. accurately diagnose the ailment or injury C. prescribe treatment for the victim D. Ans: B After an injury, which of the following following can be determined by 4091 examining the condition of a victim's pupils? D.
Ans:
act as stabilizers by filling with sea water as soon as raft is inflated and in an upright position hold the freshwater required by regulation to be provided in the raft C. when packed none of the above D. Ans: B When an oil fire has been extinguished, the surface of the oil should 4090 be kept covered with foam to prevent ___________. air from contacting the oil vapors permitting reignition A. boiling of the heated oil B. spontaneous combustion below the oil surface C. toxic fumes from escaping to the surface D. Ans: A When fighting an oil or gasoline fire, which of the listed fire 4092 extinguishing agents should NEVER be sprayed directly into the fire? B.
The degree of pain being suffered. The degree of vision impairment. Whether or not the brain is functioning properly. C. Whether or not the victim's blood pressure is normal. D. Ans: C What is the primary purpose of a spint applied in first aid? 4093
High velocity fog Dry chemical Low velocity fog C. Steam smothering D. Ans: B Bleeding from a vein may be ordinarily controlled by __________. 4094
Reduce pain Control bleeding Immobilize a fracture C. Reset the bone D. Ans: C On most makes of inflatable liferafts, liferafts, the batteries batteries to operate the 4095 light on the inside of the rafts can be made to last longer by ____________.
pinching the wound closed applying direct pressure to the wound heavy application of a disinfectant C. pouring ice water directly into the wound D. Ans: B Fires resulting from spontaneous spontaneous combustion are usually caused 4096 by the improper disposal of _____________.
unscrewing the bulb during the daylight operating the switch for the light taking no action as there is no way of preserving power C. taking no action as they shut off automatically in daylight D. Ans: B Immediately after a class "B" fire has been extinguished by the use 4097 of foam, crewmen should _____________. carefully apply a low velocity fog over the foam blanket A. wade through the foam blanket to ev enly distribute the foam B. be careful not to disturb the foam blanket C. sweep the foam blanket overboard and secure firefighting D. equipment Ans: C A person has suffered a larceration of the arm. Severe bleeding bleeding 4099 has been controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure. What should you do next?
cigarette butts oily rags burner torches C. lighted matches D. Ans: B In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a wound should be 4098 controlled by ___________. applying a tourniquet A. cooling the wound with ice B. submerging the wound in lukewarm water C. applying direct pressure to the wound D.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 4101
A.
B.
A.
B.
A.
B.
Ans: 4100
Apply a torniqiuet torniqiuet to prevent the the bleeding from from restarting. Apply a pressure bandage bandage over the dressing. Remove any small foreign matter and apply antiseptic Administer fluids fluids to assist the body in replacing the the lost blood. B Spontaneous combustion can occur in _____________.
paint thinner in an open can fuel accumulated in the bilges oily rags stored in an unvented compartment C. gasoline stored in steel drums D. Ans: C Which of the listed fire extinguishing extinguishing agents would would be incorrect for 4103 the direct use on a gasoline or oil fire? A solid stream of water A. Low velocity water fog B. High velocity water fog C. Mechanical firefighting foam D. Ans: A Which statement is FALSE regarding Halon as a fire extinguising 4105 agent? A. B.
30 45 60 90
A. B. C. D. Ans: 4102
A The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-tomouth resuscitation by pinching the vitim's nostrils and ____________.
cupping a hand around the patient's mouth keeping the head elevated applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth C. holding the jaw down firmly D. Ans: C Which of the following following is classified classified as a grade "E" combustible 4104 liquid? Benzene A. Bunker "C" B. Very light naphtha C. Most commercial gasoline D. Ans: B Which of the circumstances listed is an exception to the garbage 4106 discharge requirements in Annex V to MARPOL 73/78? A.
B.
B.
It is more effective than CO2. It leaves no residue.
B.
C.
It is noncorrosive.
C.
A.
D According to Regulations Regulations , a pressurer-demand, pressurer-demand, open cicuit, cicuit, self contained breathing appratus shall have a minimum _______ minutes air supply.
A.
The garbage to be discharged will sink. Garbage accumulation onboard has exceeded storage space. A person falls overboard, overboard, and a plastic plastic ice chest is thrown thrown for flotation.
Page 231
It is always non-toxic. D The most likely place for a fire fire to start through the process of 4107 spontaneous combustion is in _____________. an electrical switchboard A. the pressure tanks B. the fuel oil tanks C. the oily rag bin D. Ans: D You are fighting a class "B" fire with a potable dry chemical 4109 extinguisher. The discharge should be directed ___________. D.
Ans:
C.
at the seat of the fire, starting near the edge over the top of the fire at the main body of the fire
D.
to bank off a bulkhead onto the fire
A. B.
Ans: 4111
A Which extinguising agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature?
Foam CO2 Water stream C. Water foam D. Ans: B Liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their 4113 ____________. shape A. shallow draft B. large sail area C. all of the above D. Ans: D A tourniquet should should be used to control bleeding ONLY _________. 4115
The destination port or terminal cannot receive garbage. C When welding or burning aboard a vessel, you must be certain that 4108 the space _____________. is properly vented A. contains no explosive fumes B. has no oil in the bilges C. all of the above D. Ans: D If a small fire initially initially breaks out in the engine room bilges, in which 4110 of the following sequences should the fire extinguishing agents or systems be used? D.
Ans:
Fixed CO2, semi-portable CO2, then hand portable CO2. Semi-portable CO2, fixed CO2, then hand portable CO2. Hand portable, semi-portable semi-portable CO2, then as a last resort the fixed C. CO2 system. Hand portable, fixed CO2, then then as a last resort the semi-portable D. CO2. Ans: C You are about to enter enter a compartment to investigate a suspected 4112 smoldering fire. If you're not wearing an self-contained breathing apparatus, you should should test the compartment's compartment's atmosphere to determine if there is/are _____________. A.
B.
A.
A.
B.
B.
with puncture wiounds when the victim is unconscious when all other means have failed C. to prevent bleeding from from m inor wounds D. Ans: C The date of each fire and boat drill conducted on a ship must be 4117 recorded _____________. in the official logbook A. in the Operations Manual B. on the Certificate of Inspection C. on the muster list D. Ans: A Which of the practices listed should be avoided since it represents 4119 a fire hazard?
C. D. Ans: 4114 A. B. C. D. Ans: 4116
A.
A.
B.
B.
Smoking near the burner front Smoking in the machine shop Stowing oily rags in a paint locker C. Stowing portable acetylene bottles in the vertical position D. Ans: C When taking on fuel it is important important to remember that petroleum 4121 vapors are _____________.
C. D. Ans: 4118 A. B. C. D. Ans: 4120
A.
A.
B.
B.
D. Ans:
C If you hear the sound of a gas escaping from the liferaft just after it has inflated, you should ____________.
A.
quickly hunt for the hole before the raft deflates check the sea anchor line for a tear if the seas are rough check the painter line attachment for a tear caused by the initial opening not panic as the relief valves allow excess pressure to escape
4122
B.
C. D.
heavier than air and may enter the bilges and/or deckhouse
D.
Ans:
D The only portable electrical equipment permitted in a compartment which is not gas free is a lamp that is ______________.
B.
4123
A. B. C. D. Ans:
battery fed self-contained approved explosion proof All of the above above D
4 8 12 20
C.
not volatile unless the ambient ambient air temperature exceeds 32oC lighter than air and dissipate rapidly unlikely to ignite except in the presence of an open flame
A.
sufficient oxygen to sustain human life an explosive mixture in the compartment a toxic atmosphere in the c ompartment all of the above D All of the following following are part of the fire triangle triangle EXCEPT ___________. fuel oxygen heat electricity D The best way to combat an engine room bilge fire is through the use of a _____________. dry chemical extinguisher and solid stream water foam extinguisher and low velocity water fog foam extinguisher and solid stream water foam and soda acid extinguishers B To produce a low low velocity water water fog spray with with an all-purpose fire fire hose nozzle, you must _____________. push the nozzle handle completely forward change the fire pump discharge pressure pull the nozzle handle completely back insert a low velocity fog applicator D When administering mouth to mouth resucitation to an adult, you should breathe at the rate of how many breaths per minute?
C.
Ans: 4124
A. B. C. D. Ans:
D The fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system has been activated to extinguish a large engine room bilge fire. When is the best time to vent the combustible products from the engine room? Immediately after the fire is extinguished. One half-hour after the fire is extinguished. After the metal surfaces have cooled down. Before any personnel in fireman outfits reenter the engine room. C
Page 232
Which dangerous condition should be kept in mind after using a portable CO2 fire extinguisher on a small oil fire on the engine room floor plates?
4125
A. B. C.
Possible suffocation from the CO2 gas. Forgetting to secure the engine room ventilation system. CO2 gas being drawn into nearby engine or air compressor intakes.
Rekindling of the fire. D Which portable fire extinguiser is normally recharged in a shore 4127 facilty? Dry chemical (cartidge-operated) (cartidge-operated) A. Water (cartidge-operated) (cartidge-operated) B. Water (pump tank) C. Carbon dioxide D. Ans: D You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which of the following 4129 procedures should be used during a prolonged prolonged period in a liferaft? liferaft?
Petroleum vapors are heavier than air and _____________.
4126
A. B. C.
D.
D.
Ans:
Ans: 4128
will normally dissipate rapidly will always always form explosive v apors below 0oC ambient may collect in ship's bilges are of no concern if the wind is blowing C Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical fires?
Foam CO2 Dry Chemical C. Water fog D. Ans: B It is necessary to cool the bulkheads and decks surrounding a 4130 compartment where there is a fire in order to ___________. A.
B.
Wet clothes during the day to decrease perspiration. Get plenty of rest. Keep the entrance curtains open. C. All of the above. above. D. Ans: D Which of the listed extinguishing agents is NOT suitable for fighting 4131 a liquid paint fire? Dry chemical A. Foam B. Water C. Carbon dioxide D. Ans: C If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is ____________. 4133
cool the metal below its ignition temperature form a dense coating of smothering steam prevent oxygen from reaching the flames C. prevent the fire from spreading by the conduction of heat D. Ans: D As its temperature rises, the volume of fuel fuel oil in in the tanks will 4132 _____________. remain the same A. increase B. decrease C. none of the above D. Ans: B Combustible material stored in a compartment adjacent to a 4134 compartment where there is is a fire may be ignited. This This ignition can occur by ____________.
drag the raft ashore and lash it down for a shelter find some wood for a fire get the provisions out of the raft C. set the raft back out to sea s o someone may spot it D. Ans: A The spreading of fire as a result result of heat being carried through a 4135 vessel's ventilation system, is an example of heat transfer by _____________.
heat convection through the adjacent bulkheads combustion gases carried through the v entilation system direct convection of the heat emitted by the adjacent fire C. heat radiated from the deck or bulkhead by the adjacent fire D. Ans: D If the water level level is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, you should 4136 first ____________.
conduction convection radiation C. windage D. Ans: B Which of the listed type of fires fires would the fire extinguisher, shown 4137 in the illustration, be suitable for extinguishing? extinguishing?
abandon the survival craft check for cracks in the hull shift all personnel to the stern C. check the bilge drain plug D. Ans: D The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon 4138 as possible after after entering entering a liferaft liferaft is to ____________.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B. C. D.
A.
B.
A.
B.
A.
B.
Mattress fire Fire in an electronics console Small oil fire on the engine room floor plates Fire in an ullage opening
C If a fire ignites in the engine room as a result of a high pressure fuel oil leak, you should FIRST _____________. secure the ventilation A. find a soda acid extinguisher B. shut off the fuel oil supply C. secure the generator D. Ans: C The four basic components of a fire are fuel, heat, oxygen and a 4141 chain reaction. Which of the following following statements best describes what must be eliminated to extinguish a fire? Ans:
4139
A. B. C. D.
C When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat you should ____________. plot course for nearest land A. go only with the direction of the sea B. stay in the immediate area C. go one direction until fuel runs out D. Ans: C Which of the following following statements holds true for both CO2 and 4142 Halon 1301 fixed extinguishing systems? Ans:
4140
A.
Any one component can be eliminated to to extinguish a fire.
A.
B.
Any two components must be eliminated eliminated to properly extinguish a fire.
B.
C.
Any three components must be be eliminated to properly extinguish a fire.
C.
D.
All four components must be eliminated eliminated to extinguish extinguish any fire. A
Ans:
assist in sleeping reduce appetite by decreasing nausea prevent loss of body moisture by vomiting prevent impaired impaired judgement due to motion-induced deliriousness
D. Ans:
A cylinder is considered satisfactory if its weight weight is within 10% 10% of the stamped full weight of the charge. If a protected space is ventilated mechanically, mechanically, the ventilation system must be automatically shutdown shutdown by the release of the agent. To avoid confusion during an emergency emergency situation, there should be only one action necessary (such as a single pull box) to activate the system. All of the above. B
Page 233
A sprinkler head activated by the melting of a fusible link is installed on a ship. W hich of the following statements is true regarding these devices?
4143
If a fire occurs in the boiler room as a result of a leaking fuel line, you should FIRST _____________.
4144
A.
Sprinkler heads installed in the living spaces would have a higher melting point fusible link than those installed in the galley.
A.
notify the engineer on watch
B.
Sprinkler heads installed in the galley would have a higher melting point fusible link than those installed in the living spaces.
B.
isolate and secure the piping
C.
Sprinkler heads installed in the galley and living spaces would have the same fusible link melting point.
C.
throw sand on the fire
D.
extinguish the fire using a combination nozzle with applicator
None of the above; sprinkler heads with fusible links are prohibited aboard vessels Ans: B A fire cannot exist if which of the listed elements is removed from 4145 the fire? Oxygen A. Fuel B. Heat C. All of the above. D. Ans: D Breathing petroleum vapors is hazardous and may cause 4147 _____________. temporary blindness A. permanent deafness B. severe internal bleeding C. unconsciousness and death D. D.
D When combating an oil fire in a deep tank aboard ship, water fog can be used to extinguish the fire and ____________. contain the burning liquid A. prevent any deformation of the tank top B. cool the surrounding metal C. eliminate flammable combustion gases D. Ans: C On a v essel with lifeboats on both sides, the No. 2 lifeboat would be 4151 located ____________. Ans:
4149
forward of lifeboat No. 4 on the s tarboard side forward of lifeboat No. 4 on the port side aft of lifeboat No. 1 on the starboard side C. all of the above D. Ans: B The No. 2 lifeboat on a tanker would be found __________. 4153 A. B.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 4155
forward port side forward starboard side aft of No. 1 lifeboat port side aft of No. 1 lifeboat starboard side A While working in the engine room, you hear seven short blasts followed by one long blast on the s hip's whistle, supplemented by the same signal on the general alarm bells. You should _____________.
start the fire pump to charge the fire main standby the main console and await orders from the engineer on watch go to your fire station C. go to your lifeboat station D. Ans: D Before attempting to put out a class "C" fire involving an electric4157 driven centrifugal pump, you should FIRST ________. insulate your shoes A. ground the fire hose B. secure its power supply C. start the fire pump D. Ans: C To extinguish an electrical fire, your FIRST action should be to 4159 ____________. apply a low velocity fog A. secure the power B. Completely discharge a 15 pound (6.8 k g) CO2 extinguisher C. apply mechanical or chemical foam D.
B Which of the following hazards is associated with the handling of petroleum products? Fire A. Explosion B. Asphyxiation C. All of the above D. Ans: D When making entries in the Oil Record Book, all quantities should 4148 be __________. recorded as cubic meters with a conversion to barrels A. verified by the Chief Engineer B. recorded directly from the oil discharge monitor C. consistently recorded through the Oil Record Book in one specified D. unit (gallons, barrels, cubic meters) Ans: D Which of the listed tanks presents the greatest potential for an 4150 explosion? A full tank of diesel oil A. A partially filled tank of diesel oil B. A full tank of lubricating oil C. A partially filled tank of hydraulic oil D. Ans: B Which of the following conditions is true concerning a flammable 4152 liquid with a concentration above the upper explosive limit? Ans:
4146
The mixture is too lean to burn. The mixture is too rich to burn. The vapor is about to explode. C. Conditions are perfect for combustion. D. Ans: B The FIRST course of action in fighting a fire in a cargo or fuel oil 4154 tank is to _____________. secure all openings to the tank A. discharge an initial charge of CO2 with a hand portable B. extinguisher direct a fire hose into the tank and energize the fire main C. spray the tank boundaries with a fire hose to promote cooling D. A. B.
Ans: 4156
A.
A.
B.
B.
A Which of the following steps should normally be taken first by those who have boarded a lifeboat in an emergency situation?
Ration food and water s upplies Take anti-seasickness pills
Determine position and closest point of land Check pyrotechnic supplies Ans: B Gasoline is a flammable liquid whose vapors are ___________. 4158 C.
D.
heavier than air toxic highly explosive C. all of the above D. Ans: D When fighting an electrical fire, you should first ________. 4160 A. B.
A. B. C. D.
stop ventilation to the area stop the vessel secure electricity to the circuit apply CO2 to the fire
Page 234
Ans: 4161
B If the buoyant force on a ship's hull is equal to or greater than the displacement tonnage, the ship will _____________.
Ans: 4162
C Diesel fuel is relatively safe to handle due to its low volatility, but the fumes will self-ignite and continue to burn steadily if the fuel is heated to the _____________.
require ballast added to only the port side tanks be down by the head sink C. float D. Ans: D When a ves sel is inclined due to an external force, such as the 4163 action of seas in which no cargo shifts, the tendency of the vessel to return to its original position is caused by the shift in ______.
flash point autoignition point volatility point C. upper explosive limit D. Ans: B Class C fires may be combatted using a _____________. 4164
center of buoyancy center of gravity center of flotation C. metacentric radius D. Ans: A Which of the following represents the emergency signal for fire 4165 aboard ship? More than six short blasts and one long blast on the whistle. A. Continuous blast of the ship's whistle for a period of not less than B. 10 seconds supplemented by the same signal on the general alarm.
dry chemical extinguisher carbon dioxide extinguisher halon extinguisher C. all of the above D. Ans: D Which of the listed fire extinguishers should be used on an electrical 4166 fire aboard ship? Foam A. Soda acid B.
A. B.
A. B.
Three short blasts of the whistle supplemented by the same signal on the general alarm. More than six short blasts and one long blast on the whistle D. supplemented by the same s ignal on the general alarm. Ans: B Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed is the safest to use 4167 when combating a class C fire?
A. B.
A. B.
C.
C.
Carbon dioxide
D.
Carbon tetrachloride
Ans: 4168
C If you hear a c ontinuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds; supplemented by a continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for the same time period, you should _____________.
CO2 Foam Water fog C. Soda acid D. Ans: A A continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less than 10 4169 seconds, supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds, would indicate a _____________.
go to your lifeboat station go to your fire station standby for collision C. proceed to your man overboard muster station D. Ans: B Before making any welded repairs to the internals of a vessel's fuel 4170 tank in a port, the tank must be examined by _____________.
fire collision man overboard C. flooded compartment D. Ans: A The principal effect of liquid free surface is dependent upon the 4171 volume of displacement of the vessel and the ____________.
the chief engineer the master of the vessel a certified marine chemist C. the insurance underwriter D. Ans: C A fuel tank is considered to be gas free when the tank is 4172 _____________.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 4173
A. B. C. D. Ans: 4175
A.
A. B.
A. B.
height of liquid in the tank amount of liquid in the tank dimensions of the liquid surface weight of liquid in the tank C Vessel stability is greatly affected when water or fuel tanks are partially filled as a result of the _____________. free surface effect free communication effect increase of buoyancy decrease in draft A To prevent an explosion when the pumproom has not been certified gas free and repairs are to be carried out, the only type of portable electric equipment allowed in the pumproom would be an approved _____________. explosion proof self-contained battery powered lamp
1/2 HP electric hand drill marine drop lamp and extension cords portable hand grinder D. Ans: A
A. B. C. D. Ans: 4174
inerted with carbon dioxide for 24 hours free of most flammable gas concentrations thoroughly ventilated for at least 24 hours free of dangerous concentrations of flammable or toxic gases D Which of the following precautions are necessary when us ing any electrical equipment in a hazardous location, such as a cargo pumproom?
The pumproom is to be gas free. The adjacent compartments are to be gas free. Each compartment where flammable gas is expected to C. accumulate is to be closed and secured. All of the above. D. Ans: D Which of the following procedures should be used to examine a 4176 cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher? A. B.
A.
Make certain that the pressure cartridge has not been punctured.
Check to see that hose and nozzle are clear. Ensure that dry chemical is not become caked. All of the above. D. Ans: D
B.
B.
C.
C.
Page 235
Proper maintenance of a dry chemical fire extinguisher will include _____________. adding water to the powder A. painting the CO2 cartridge red B. puncturing the CO2 cartridge C. shaking the extinguisher to loosen the caked-up portions of the D. powder Ans: D When reentering an engine room that has been flooded with CO2, 4179 the investigating team should initially _____________. leave the access door partially open A. enter from the lowest level B. enter from the highest level C. attempt to operate machinery D. Ans: C Fuel tanks should never be filled by cascading liquid through an 4181 open hatch or manhole because _____________. excessive fuel vapors will be released A. static electricity could be generated by fuel falling through vaporB. laden air
4178
spillage of fuel could occur with an open hatch water contamination of the fuel could occur Ans: B The state of charge of a stored pressure type dry chemical fire 4183 extinguisher can be readily determined by ____________.
low temperature fluids only low viscosity fluids only Ans: A When fueling, it is important to ground the ship with regard to static 4184 electricity. Therefore, you must connect the _____________.
visual inspection of the pressure gage weighing the cylinder removing the lid and checking the level of dry chemical C. weighing the CO2 cartridge D. Ans: A To minimize the possibility of an explosion caused by the discharge 4185 of static electricity, the vessel should ____________.
fuel hose before the bonding cable bonding cable only if sparks are seen bonding cable before the fuel hose has been connected C. bonding cable through a ground fault circuit breaker D. Ans: C The correct method for connecting a grounding or bonding cable is 4186 to _____________.
4177
C.
D.
A. B.
A.
be electrically grounded to shore piping
have its electrical equipment insulated from its structure have crew members use flashlights rather than AC lamps in vapor filled areas have crew members use flame safety lamps during entry to areas D. that may contain explosive fumes Ans: A Which of the following statements describes the advantage of using 4187 a Halon fire extinguisher versus a CO2 fire extinguisher? B.
C.
A vessel whose fuel tanks are half full is subject to ____________. A. B. C. D.
free surface effect serious loss of reserve buoyancy severe sagging severe hogging
A Liquid petroleum products will become electrically charged as a result of the _____________. splashing or spraying of oil into a tank A. movement of water droplets in an oil filled tank B. oil moving through the pipe lines C. All of the above are correct. D. Ans: D When petroleum products are handled, static electricity can be 4182 generated by _____________. splashing or agitation of the fluids A. excessive pressure on the fluids B. Ans:
4180
C.
D.
A. B.
open switch, connect ground cable, close switch, and connect cargo hose connect ground cable, open switch, and connect cargo hose B. close switch, connect cargo hose, open switch, and connect ground C. cable connect ground cable, connect cargo hose, open switch, and then D. close switch Ans: A You may improve a vessel's stability by ___________. 4188 A.
Halon cools rather than smothers a fire. Halon is more effective than CO2. Halon can extinguish combustible metal fires. C. Halon is not toxic and safe to breathe under all conditions. D. Ans: B The inclining experiment conducted on a merchant ship is the 4189 method for determining the exact location of the __________. ship's displacement in seawater A. position of the ship's center of gravity B. position of the ship's center of buoyancy C. position of the ship's metacenter D. Ans: B If a vessel rolls to the starboard side, and there are no mov able or 4191 moving weights onboard, the center of gravity will ____________.
keeping the fuel tanks topped off increasing the free surface effect keeping the fuel tanks at least half full C. keeping at least one fuel tank empty for slops D. Ans: A Which statement is true concerning Halon 1301 fire extinguishing 4190 equipment? The agent is highly toxic under all conditions. A. The agent is less effective than CO2. B. Halon extinguishes the fire by smothering. C. The agent is a colorless odorless gas. D. Ans: D If weight is added at the k eel, the ship's center of gravity will 4192 ______________.
move to port move to starboard move directly down C. stay in the same position D. Ans: D The stability of a vessel is normally the greatest when all fuel and 4193 water tanks are full because the _____________. center of gravity is lowered A. center of buoyancy is lowered B. reserve buoyancy is unchanged C. hull freeboard is increased D. Ans: A What is a maj or advantage of the demand-type self-contained 4195 breathing apparatus? The equipment is lightweight and the wearer can work without A. difficulty in confined spaces.
move down move up merge with the metacenter C. pass through the center of flotation D. Ans: A If you have to abandon ship, the EPIRB can be used to 4194 _____________. hold the lifeboat's head up into the s eas A. generate orange smoke B. seal leaks in rubber rafts C. send radio homing signals to searching aircraft D. Ans: D To operate a CO2 fire extinguisher equipped with a squeeze grip 4196 handle, you are to remove the locking pin and ________. raise the lower grip A.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
Page 236
B. C. D.
Ans: 4197
The average operating time is over an hour. The speed with which it can be put into operation is around 45 seconds. The regulator is designed to provide the user with quick adjustments to the air supply by a knob located near the high pressure hose connection. C Annual servicing of a hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher includes _____________.
inspecting the pressure gauge to ensure the needle is within operating range weighing the cylinder and recharging if weight loss exceeds 10% of B. the weight of the charge hydrostatic testing of the cylinder C. discharging, cleaning inside, and recharging D. Ans: B Which of the following statements describes the correct procedure 4199 for closing a watertight door?
C.
invert the extinguisher depress the upper grip
D.
rotate the cutter disc valve wheel
Ans:
C While donning the demand-type self-contained breathing apparatus, you discover that the air cylinder pressure gage and the regulator pressure gage differ from each other by 35bar. Which of the listed action should you consider as appropriate?
A.
Replace the defective gauges with a new pair from the spare parts inventory. Replace the air cylinder with a full spare cylinder.
B.
4198
A.
B.
Assume that the lower reading is correct. Take the average of the two gauges as the correct pressure. Ans: C Which of the fire extinguishers listed is to be weighed annually and 4200 sent ashore for recharging if the weight loss exceeds 10% of the weight of a full charge? C.
D.
A.
Loosely set up one dog on the opposite side from the hinges, snugly set up two dogs on the hinge side, then evenly set up all the remaining dogs.
A.
Foam
B.
Loosely set up two dogs adjacent to the hinges, snugly set up one dog on the opposite side from the hinges, then evenly set up all the remaining dogs.
B.
Soda acid
C.
Snugly set up two dogs on the opposite side from the hinges, then evenly set up all the remaining dogs. Loosely set up one dog on the hinge side, snugly set up two dogs on the opposite side from the hinges, then evenly set up all the remaining dogs.
C.
Dry chemical
D.
Carbon dioxide
Ans:
D With regards to the load line marks, the reason for the placement of mark "WNA" is ______________. more severe weather is expected in the North Atlantic in winter
D.
Ans: 4201 A. B. C. D. Ans: 4203
A Portable carbon dioxide fire extinguishers must be recharged _____________. when the remaining charge volume is less than 90% of the required volume at each biennial inspection at each annual inspection when the remaining charge weight is 10% less than the required weight D Water pressure on the hull of a ship is greatest at the _____________.
B.
bow stern
C.
keel
D.
boot topping C To prevent ov erpressurization when loading liquid petroleum products, cargo tanks should be fitted with a/an _________.
A.
Ans: 4205
pressure-vacuum valve ullage opening overpressurization valve C. equalizing line D. Ans: A Which of the precautions listed should be observed when taking on 4207 diesel fuel? Secure all lighting to the main deck. A. Provide a portable fan to blow away fumes. B. Prohibit smoking in the area. C. Display a black triangle during daylight hours. D. Ans: C During fueling operations oil is detected in the water adjacent to 4209 your vessel. If however, it is determined to be from some source other than your vessel, you should _______. A. B.
A. B.
secure operations until the exact type of oil is determined make an entry in the oil record book to that effect
4202 A. B. C. D.
more freeboard is required in the North Atlantic in winter less draft is allowed in the North Atlantic in winter all of the above
Ans:
D Which of the following statements is true c oncerning fire hose stations used in the engine room of a tank or cargo v essel?
A.
It must be marked in red letters two inches high National Standard fire hose coupling threads shall be used having 9 threads per inch for 2 1/2 inch hose and 7 1/2 threads per inch for 1 1/2 inch hose.
4204
B.
In heavy weather, the hose may be removed temporarily from the hydrant. All of the above. D. Ans: A Pressure-vacuum relief valves on tank vessel cargo tanks should 4206 be kept in good working order to prevent ___________. C.
escape of explosive vapors oil spillage on deck entry of burning substances C. damage to tank boundaries D. Ans: D After ballasting a fuel tank, which of the listed valves should you 4208 close FIRST? Tank manifold filling valve A. Pump discharge valve B. Deck filling valve C. Sea suction valve D. Ans: D The "load on top" system used on many crude oil carriers, is to 4210 provide a method for _____________. A. B.
A. B.
calculating the ullage in the cargo tanks loading ballast by gravity
Page 237
C. D. Ans: 4211
notify the Port control All of the above C If you are loading a low temperature petroleum cargo you must insure that __________.
there is room for expansion the vents are sealed vapor baffles are installed C. all of the above D. Ans: A Fire main outlet valves, or hydrants shall be installed 4213 _____________. A. B.
A. B. C. D.
C. D.
gag relief valves to prevent recirculating and heating of the liquid
A. B.
Ans: 4217
type of fuel transfer pump size of the fuel storage tanks ashore distance to the fuel storage tanks ashore C. number of tanks to be filled D. Ans: D Your ship has run aground and it is necessary to determine whether 4214 or not a compartment has flooded. Therefore, you should _____________. A. B.
in screened enclosures in all passageways where they are protected from the weather in a protected location to prevent cargo damage pointing downward or horizontal to prevent kinking of the fire hose D If flammable liquids are being pumped with a centrifugal pump, you should _____________. stop the pump immediately if it becomes vapor bound throttle the discharge valve to assure positive pumping vent the pump casing continuously to expel vapors
Ans: 4215
maintaining clean ballast cargo tanks, and the loading of new c argo into the slop tank calculating the ratio of cargo expansion in a cargo tank D. Ans: C One consideration for determining the safest maximum rate at 4212 which bunker fuel may be received is by the _______________. C.
A. B. C. D.
C.
D.
check for gland leakage and any fire hazard
A. B.
A Ans: D Tankers carrying cryogenic cargoes, such as LNG, are fitted with An LNG carrier has an approved type of gas detecting system to 4218 gas detector systems alarmed at 30% of the lower explosive limit. If detect methane leaks in the _____________. the gas detector alarms sounds, this means _____________.
the detector sensor is sampling a space where the cargo vapor concentration is 30 percent by volume an explosion is about to take place B. the detector is sampling a space in which 30 percent of the C. atmosphere is explosive a flammable vapor concentration exists at the sample point, but it is D. too lean to burn Ans: D Which of the following statements describes how the main bank of 4219 CO2 bottles is released into an engine room from most fixed CO2 fire extinguishing systems? B.
C.
C When preparing to pump flammable liquids with a centrifugal pump, you should ____________. lift the relief valve by hand to check its operation draw a small quantity of liquid to prime the pump have a standby pump running with the discharge valve closed
Ans: 4216
A.
A.
open the watertight door and take a quick look open the hatch dogs on the side away from the hinges tap the bulkhead with a hammer to check for a water level feel the bulkhead to see if it is hot
Manually releasing the bottles in groups of four. CO2 pressure from the pilot cylinders. Steel wire trigger lines provided to all bottles in the main bank.
A.
barrier spaces
B. C.
cargo handling rooms boiler burner supply piping
D.
all of the above
Ans:
D During fueling operations, which of the listed precautions should be taken when topping off fuel tanks?
A.
Reduce the pumping rate by closing the deck filling valve. Close all overflow valves. Place 20 litre containers under all flange connections in the fuel line.
4220
B. C.
Remote pull cables provided to each group of four bottles in the main bank. Ans: B When a fuel oil tank is being topped off during bunkering 4221 operations, the tank valve should be closed ____________. slowly to prevent surge stresses A. to prevent gas from escaping through the pressure-vacuum relief B. valves after the shore pumps are stopped C. rapidly to prevent overflow D. Ans: C According to Regulations , when loading, or discharging oil in bulk 4223 at a dock, which of the following signals must be displayed?
Reduce the pumping rate and sound tanks frequently as the level rises. Ans: D The amount of expansion space to be left in a fuel tank when fuel oil 4222 is being received, is determined by the __________. quantity of fuel to be received A. flash point of the fuel as it is received B.
A red flag (day), red light (night) A yellow flag (day), red light (night) A green flag (day), green light (night) C. A signal is not required for discharging oil, only gasoline D. Ans: A The emergency shutdown requirements of Pollution Prevention 4225 Regulations apply to _____________. condensate pumps A. air compressors B. induced draft fans C. cargo transfer systems D. Ans: D
shuts off the main propulsion plant shuts off the firefighting foam systems stops the flow of oil to s hore facility or other vessel C. secures electrical power to all motors D. Ans: C Where will you find the procedures for the reporting of oil discharge 4226 into the water? The vessel's Certificate of Inspection A. The vessel's Oil Record Book B. The vessel's Oil Transfer Procedures C. The vessel's International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate D. Ans: C
D.
A. B.
D.
fuel temperature as it is received viscosity of the fuel being received Ans: C According to Pollution Prevention Regulations , tank vessels are 4224 required to have a means of emergency shutdown. This device _____________. C.
D.
A. B.
Page 238
Portable carbon dioxide fire extinguishers should be sent ashore to be recharged _____________.
4227
when the remaining charge volume is less than 90 percent of the required VOLUME at each inspection for certification B. at each annual inspection C. when the weight loss exceeds 10% of weight of charge D. Ans: D What is the required combined capacity for all fans used in an inert 4229 gas system as related to the cargo pumps? 0.5 A. 0.75 B. 1 C. 1.25 D. Ans: D The purpose of the deck seal in an inert gas system is to prevent 4231 ________________. A.
A. B.
flammable vapors from entering machinery space flue gas escaping to atmosphere
Inert gas systems fitted on tank vessels must be fitted with an alarm to give an audible and visual warning when the oxygen content of the inert gas exceeds ____________.
4228
A.
4% by volume
8% by volume 12% by volume 16% by volume D. Ans: B Waste oil from the lube oil sumps of machinery may NOT be 4230 _____________. drained into the vessel's bilges A. reclaimed for other uses B. held in a slop tank C. purified and then reused D. Ans: A The Pollution Prevention Regulations state that a ship's oily bilge 4232 slops may be pumped in port only if the ______________. B.
C.
A. B.
local port authority gives permission local port authority has completed the required pollution inspection
inert gas escaping to atmosphere air entering inert gas system Ans: A Your vessel has run aground and upon taking fuel oil tank 4233 soundings, you find that a fuel tank level has increased. You therefore should suspect _____________.
discharge is led to a slop barge or shoreside tank engineer on watch has signed the declaration of inspection Ans: C According to regulation, a single layer flame screen of corrosion 4234 resistant wire is required to be of at least a mesh of ____________.
condensation in the fuel tank a crack in the hull portion of the fuel tank a load of bad fuel C. contamination from the saltwater flushing system D. Ans: B A new ocean going ship of 2000 gross tons having an inoperative 4235 oily water separator may dispose of its bilge s lops by _____________.
8x8 10 x 10 20 x 20 C. 30 x 30 D. Ans: D Which of the following statements represents the correct action to 4236 take when three crew members discover a fire?
C.
D.
A. B.
holding its slops onboard until they can be pumped into the city sewer system circulating them through the lube oil purifier to remove water and B. debris holding its slops onboard until they can be discharged to a C. shoreside reception facility pumping them into a settling tank for separation before pumping D. the oily water residue overboard Ans: C In an oil pumping operation where pumping connections are made 4237 up of flanged hoses the weakest link is the _________. A.
C.
D.
A. B.
A.
One man report the fire, and the other two men fight the fire.
One man report the fire, one man fight the fire, and one man evacuate and secure the area. One man report the fire, one man fight the fire, and one man act as C. a safety observer. All three men fight the fire and report it immediately after it is D. extinguished. Ans: B While on watch in the engine room, you hear a continuous 4238 sounding of the general alarm. Which of the following actions should you take? B.
flange hose stud C. bolt hole D. Ans: B According to Pollution Prevention Regulations , no person may 4239 connect or engage in any other critical oil transfer operation unless _____________.
Make an entry in the official logbook. Open the master control valves on the fixed CO2 system. Start the fire pump and check discharge pressure. C. Secure auxiliary condenser overboard discharge. D. Ans: C Which of the actions listed should be taken by the engineer on 4240 watch when the general alarm is sounded c ontinuously for 10 seconds?
the designated person-in-charge is present that person holds a tankerman endorsement that person holds a license as master, mate, or engineer C. that person holds a valid port security card D. Ans: A Pollution Prevention Regulations specify that the person-in-charge 4241 of bunkering is responsible for the _____________. vessel draft A. quantity of fuel received B. quality of fuel received C. communications with terminal operator D.
Engine room ventilation should be started. Main engines should be secured. The fire pump should be s tarted. C. The fixed CO2 system should be activated. D. Ans: C According to Pollution Prevention Regulations , how much hose 4242 should you use in transferring oil in bulk? Twice the distance between ship and dock. A. One and one half times the distance between ship and dock. B. Not over 300 feet (91.4 m) of hose. C. Sufficient for maximum vessel movement without straining the D. hoses. Ans: D Which of the following represents the maximum percent of oxygen, 4244 by volume, required to be achieved by a ship'sinert gas system, prior to the commencement of crude oiltank washing?
A. B.
A. B.
Ans:
D The term "oily mixture", as defined in the Pollution Prevention Regulations includes ______________.
A.
sludge oily ballast water bilge slops
4243
B. C.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B. C.
0.06 0.08 0.1
Page 239
D. Ans: 4245
all of the above D Each inert gas system gas main must have an automatic shut down valve at the outlet of the gas production plant. This valve must close automatically upon ___________.
Ans: 4246
A.
cargo pump failure
A.
B.
blower failure
B.
C.
deck seal low water level
C.
D. Ans: 4247
low inert gas temperature B An inert gas system incorporating a separately fired inert gas generator shall be provided with visual and audible alarms to indicate failure of the power supply to the generator, the automatic control system, and _____________.
cooling water flow combustion air temp too low high sea water temperature C. insufficient fuel supply D. Ans: D People should be protected from the rotating parts of machinery by 4249 _____________. vents A. bright lights B. reflective tape C. guards D. Ans: D Why is it important for fuel oil tanks not to be topped off when 4251 loading cold oil? Increased viscosity of the product needs higher loading pressure, A. which increases the chance of a spill. Air pockets may cause the fuel to bubble out of the ullage hole. B. A. B.
The change in its specific volume when heated may cause an overflow. The fueling valve may become stuck closed and cause the fuel oil D. to spill before the valve can be opened. Ans: C Which of the following statements is true concerning a,Halon 1301 4253 fixed extinguishing system? The quantity of Halon supplied would be less than the quantity of A. CO2 for the same space protected. CO2 gas is used to propel the Halon to the space on fire. B. The Halon must be agitated occasionally to ensure that it doesn't C. cake up. All of the above. D. Ans: A The most critical time for preventing an accidental oil spill during 4255 bunkering, is when the _____________. tanks are being topped off A. fuel begins to come aboard B. hoses are being blown down C. hoses are being disconnected D. Ans: A When administering only mouth-to-mouth resuscitation, you should 4257 continue the victim's ventilation rate at how many inflations per minute?
D. Ans: 4248
4 8 12 20
B. C. D. Ans: 4259
C The zipper of an immersion suit s hould be lubricated with _____________.
paraffin oil graphite C. vegetable oil D. Ans: A Topping lifts and runners supporting flexible cargo hoses should be 4261 made fast to the ____________. capstan A. gypsy head B. A. B.
B Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen indicators? The instrument is capable of providing an immediate accurate reading of any space with no delay. Prolonged exposure to gases such as CO2 may affect the accuracy of the indicator. A cotton filter placed in the end of the sampling tube prevents damaging the instrument when exposed to strongly acidic gases. All of the above. B Which of the following liquids can ordinarily be discharged overboard without being processed through an oily water separator?
Cargo tank ballast Segregated ballast Engine room bilges C. Cargo pumproom bilges D. Ans: B The word "discharge" as used in Pollution Prevention Regulations 4250 applies to oil __________. leaked into navigable waters A. poured into navigable waters B. pumped into navigable waters through a fixed piping system C. all of the above D. Ans: D The trim of a vessel is the _____________. 4252 A. B.
C.
A.
0.12
D.
A.
value of the mean draft
B.
degree of list
C.
amount of roll
D.
difference in fore and aft drafts
Ans:
D Regulations require that lifejackets shall be _____________.
A.
provided for each person onboard
B.
provided for all personnel on watch readily accessible to persons in the engine room
4254
C. D. Ans: 4256
all of the above D Where would you look to find out what your duties are during a fire?
Ship's articles Muster List Certificate of Inspection C. Manning Certificate D. Ans: B Which of the listed c lasses of fires should be extinguished with a 4258 water fog? A. B.
Class A and B Class A and C Class B and C C. Class A, B, and C D. Ans: A The blocking open or absence of fire dampers can contribute to 4260 _________. A. B.
the accumulation of explosive gases faster cooling of the fire the fire spreading by way of the v entilation system C. fixed foam systems to be ineffective D. Ans: C The purpose of the vessel inclining experiment is to __________. 4262 A. B.
A. B.
determine the location of the metacenter determine the lightweight center of gravity location
Page 240
cleats manifold riser Ans: C Atificial respiration to an adult should be administered 4263 ___________. 4 to 6 times per minute A. 12 to 15 times per minute B. 20 to 30 times per minute C. At least 30 times per minute D. Ans: B The external flotation bladder on an immersion suit should be 4265 inflated ____________. before you enter the water A. after you enter the water B. after one hour in the water C. C.
D.
D.
after you notice that your suit is losing buoyancy
Ans:
B "Air gap" is the vertical distance between the bottom of the hull and the __________. still water level wave crest wave crest plus the charted water depth and tidal corrections
4267 A. B. C.
wave crest plus the charted water depth, plus tidal correction and storm surge Ans: A Horizontal transverse motion of a vessel is known as 4269 ____________. pitch A. surge B. sway C. heave D.
verify the hydrostatic data verify data in the vessel's operating manual Ans: B Which of the firefighting agents listed is the least hazardous to 4264 personnel? CO2 A. Steam B. Water C. Carbon tetrachloride D. Ans: C The principle personnel hazard unique to Halon fire extinguishers 4266 is ____________. displacement of oxygen A. skin irritation B. inhaling toxic vapors produced when exposed directly to a flame for C. extended periods eye irritation produced immediately after discharge from cylinder D. C.
D.
Ans: 4268 A. B. C.
D.
Ans: 4271
C The signal to man emergency stations is _________.
a 30 second on - 30 second off alternating signal the continuous ringing of the general alarm signal an intermittent ringing of the general alarm for not less than ten C. seconds announced over PA system D. Ans: C Dry chemical fire extinguishers may be effectively used on which of 4273 the listed classes of fires? Class "A" only A. Class "B" only B. Class "B" and "C" only C. Class "A" and "C" only D. Ans: C When the height of the metacenter has the same v alue as the 4275 height of the center of grav ity, the metacentric height is equal to ______________.
D.
All of the above conditions
Ans:
D As a precaution against oil spills when topping off fuel tanks, you should _____________. close the deck filling valve to reduce the pumping rate close all tank vents to prevent ov erflow fill the tank to the bottom of the expansion trunk notify the shore pumping station to reduce the pumping rate as tanks near full capacity
4270 A. B. C. D. Ans: 4272
A.
A.
B.
B.
height of the metacenter height of the center of grav ity same as half the height of the metacenter C. zero D. Ans: D A solid stream of water might be useful in fighting a burning oil fire 4277 on deck when it is used ____________. to wash burning oil over the side A. to provide cooling for the fire fighters B. in conjunction with chemical foam C. to cool the main deck D. Ans: A If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution 4279 hazard during fuel transfer operations on a ship, which of the listed actions should be taken first? A. B.
Wait for the person-in-charge to act. Notify the ballast control operator. Shutdown the transfer operations. C. Sound the fire alarm. D. Ans: C
C Which of the listed conditions could cause a dangerous reduction in oxygen in a s hipboard compartment? Fire Rusting or the drying of paint Decomposing organic material
C.
D When administering chest compression during CPR, at what part of the victim's body should the pressure be applied? Lower half of the sternum Tip of the sternum Top half of the sternum
Left chest over the heart A When removing the cap from a sounding tube ,the sound of air 4274 escaping indicates _______________. the tank is full A. the tank may be partially flooded B. the tank level has dropped C. the tank is c ompletely flooded D. Ans: B If a liferaft should capsize, _____________. 4276 D.
Ans:
climb onto the bottom swim away from the raft right the raft using the righting straps C. inflate the righting bag D. Ans: C Yawing is the angular motion of the ves sel about what axis? 4278 A. B.
Longitudinal Transverse Vertical C. Centerline D. Ans: C The signal for fire alarm on a vessel must be indicated 4280 ____________. A. B.
at each alarm bell at each alarm actuator near all exits C. on the station bill D. Ans: D
A.
A.
B.
B.
Page 241
Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to look for _____________.
4281
Recharging a previously used cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher is accomplished by ______________.
4282
survivors in the water food and water land C. bad weather D. Ans: A Heave is the motion of a v essel along the _____________. 4283
authorized fire equipment servicing personnel only replacing the propellant cartridge and refilling it with powder puncturing the cartridge seal after installation C. recharging the cartridge and refilling it with powder D. Ans: B Pollution Prevention Regulations (MARPOL) state that when a tank 4284 vessel is discharging cargo, each sea suction valv e connected to the vessel's oil transfer, ballast, or cargo tank systems must be ____________.
longitudinal axis transverse axis vertical axis C. centerline axis D. Ans: C You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. While blowing 4285 into the victim's mouth, it is apparent that no air is getting to the lungs. Which of the following actions should you take?
sealed or lashed closed fitted with a blank flange fitted with an anti-siphon device C. lined up for immediate use D. Ans: A Why should passageway fires be fought from one end only? 4286
A.
A.
B.
B.
A. B.
B.
A.
Blow harder to force the air past the tongue.
A.
B.
Raise the victim's head higher than his feet.
B.
C.
Press on the victim's lungs so that air pressure will blow out any obstruction. Re-tip the head and try again.
D.
D CO2 cylinders equipped with pressure actuated discharge heads will discharge automatically when ______________. the discharge valve is open A. the control box glass is broken B. pressure from the control cylinders is initially detected C. the control cylinders have been completely discharged D. Ans: C In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be 4289 given only to personnel who are ______________. thirsty A. sick or injured B. wet C. awake D. Ans: B After you have put water on a burning mattress, and the fire 4291 appears to have been extinguished, you should then _____________. Ans:
dry the mattress in a warm area make sure the fire is out with CO2 pull the mattress apart to ensure no fire remains C. secure the mattress in a well ventilated area D. Ans: C Which of the listed devices is required to be located on the 4293 discharge side of the pump in a fire main system? Pressure gage A. Strainer B. Reduction valve C. International shore connection D. Ans: A Carbon dioxide cylinders must be recharged when the cylinder 4295 charge weight is less than what percent of the stamped full weight charge? A. B.
A. B. C. D.
0.8 0.85 0.9 0.95
C When personnel are lifted by a helicopter from an inflatable liferaft, the personnel on the raft s hould ______________. deflate the floor of the raft to reduce the danger of capsizing A. inflate the floor of the raft to provide for additional stability B. remove their lifejackets to prepare for the transfer C. take in the sea anchor to prevent fouling of the rescue sling D. Ans: A Ans:
This action will cause the passageway to become slippery and difficult for fire fighters to stand. So that one hose team does not push the flames heat and smoke directly at the other hose team.
It is impossible for the fire main to handle two fully pressurized hoses. So that the extinguishing water can be trapped at the end of the D. passageway. Ans: B Keeping the draft of a vessel at, or below the load line mark, insures 4288 the unit will have adequate _______________. reserve ballast A. reserve buoyancy B. lightweight displacement C. critical motion D. Ans: B Mechanical foam used for firefighting is produced by mechanically 4290 mixing and agitating _____________. soda acid and water A. dry chemical and water B. foam chemical with air and water C. bicarbonate soda with air and water D. Ans: C When a vess el is floating upright, the distance from the keel to the 4292 metacenter is called the ______________. C.
4287
4297
A.
metacentric differential height of the baseline height of the metacenter C. righting arm D. Ans: C Artificial respiration may be necessary in cases of _______. 4294 A. B.
drowning electrocution poisoning C. All of the above D. Ans: D The discharge side of every fire pump must be provided with a 4296 ______________. A. B.
gate valve pressure gage check valve C. strainer D. Ans: B Which of the devices listed must be used in conjunction with the 4298 portable in-line foam proportioner to produce foam? A plain or common fire hose nozzle A. The mechanical foam nozzle B. Any low velocity applicator C. An all-purpose nozzle D. Ans: B A. B.
Page 242
The relief valve on a fire pump is set at 1.75kg/cm2 (25 psi )above the pressure necessary to maintain the required fire hose streams, or ___________.
4299
The horizontal distance between the vertical lines of action of gravity and the buoyant forces is called the ___________.
4300
3.5kg/cm2 5.0kg/cm2 8.8kg/cm2 C. 10.5kg/cm2 D. Ans: C The amount of Halon remaining in a fire extinguisher cylinder is 4301 determined by ______________. internal inspection A. checking the quantity indicating gauge B. weighing the cylinder C. checking the tag D. Ans: C The use of flexible hose pipes to connect the crude oil washing 4303 machines is permitted only on ________________. product tankers A. crude oil tankers B. combination OBO tankers C. chemical tankers D. Ans: C Fire hydrant valves on a crude oil tanker shall be isolated from the 4305 crude oil washing system by ____________.
righting arm metacentric height metacentric radius C. height of the center of buoyancy D. Ans: A The order of importance in addressing damage control on a floating 4302 ship is ________________. control flooding, control fire, repair structural damage A. restore vital services, control fire, control flooding B. control fire, restore vital services, control flooding C. control fire, control flooding, repair structural damage D. Ans: D Which of the following is NOT a recommended safe practice? 4304
spade blanks face blanks nonreturn valves C. automatic closing valves D. Ans: A Antiseptics are used principally to ___________. 4307 promote healing A. prevent infection B. reduce inflammation C. increase blood circulation D. Ans: B Which type of firefighting foam listed is supplied in both 3% and 6% 4309 concentrations? Mechanical foam A. Protein foam B. Aqueous film forming foam C.
Looking for unsafe practices. Inspecting for unsafe conditions. Analyzing jobs for safer methods. C. Doing all of the above. D. Ans: D Low velocity water fog is very effective in _____________. 4308 removing toxic fumes from the air A. controlling the movement of burning oil B. removing combustible vapors from the air C. shielding fire fighters from the fire D. Ans: D What information can be obtained from a marine 4310 chemist'scertificate issued to a fishing vessel? The number of fire extinguishers required onboard. A. The quality of fuel in the vess el's tanks B. The tanks which are safe to enter when the certificate was issued C.
A. B.
A. B.
D. Ans: 4311
All of the above D The water in which a ves sel floats provides vertical upward support. The point through which this support is assumed to act is known as the center of ______________.
effort flotation gravity C. buoyancy D. Ans: D If you have to abandon ship, and enter a liferaft, your main course 4313 of action should be to ________________. A. B.
B.
Securing equipment against slipping or drifting. Operating machinery at its recommended speed. Repairing loose handles on tools before using. C. Using tools for purposes for which they are not designed. D. Ans: D If accidents are considered as an "unexpected contact", you will be 4306 able to perform a better j ob by observing which of the following practices? A. B.
A. B.
D. Ans: 4312
The vessel's stability information C Sufficient portable drive heads for a crude oil washing system must be provided in order to avoid one head being used during the tank washing procedure more than __________.
2 times 3 times 4 times C. 5 times D. Ans: B A seaman has sustained a small, gaping laceration of the arm 4314 requiring sutures to close if medical facilities were available. Which of the following remedies can be done to temporarily close the wound? A. B.
head for the closest sea-lanes get a majority opinion Ans: A No outlet on a fire hydrant may point above the horizontal, in order 4315 to _______________.
Wrap a tight bandage around the wound. Gently close the wound and while holding it closed apply a compression bandage. Use temporary stitches of sail twine. C. Apply butterfly strips and cover with a sterile dressing. D. Ans: D Aqueous film forming firefighting foam is also known as 4316 _____________.
avoid kinking the hose avoid personal injury during connection make connecting easier C. prevent spray on electrical equipment D. Ans: A When water fog is used as an extinguishing agent, the fire is 4317 extinguished principally by the ____________.
chemical foam high-expansion foam mechanical foam C. all of the above D. Ans: C A person reports to you with a fishhook in their thumb. The 4318 accepted procedure for removing it should be to ___________.
A. B.
remain in the vicinity of the sinking vessel head for the closest land
A.
C.
D.
A. B.
A. B. C.
isolation of the fuel absorption of heat displacement of gases of combustion
A. B.
A. B.
A. B. C.
pull it out with pliers cut the skin from around the hook push the barb through, cut it off, and then remove the hook
Page 243
D. Ans: 4319
A. B. C.
extinguishment of incipient smoldering B A vessel is subjected to "hogging" when it __________.
has its main deck under compressive stress has its bottom plating under tensile stress is supported on a wave whose crests are at the bow and stern
D. Ans: 4320
A. B. C.
have a surgeon remove it C Which of the actions listed and instituted on your part will have the greatest lasting effect on the crew with respect to safety? Posting posters illustrating practices Showing video tapes of actual accidents Incorporating safety practices in daily routine
is supported on a wave whose crest is amidships D At which of the listed tank locations should you obtain oxygen 4321 content readings prior to tank washing? At the hatch coaming and tank bottom. A. At the hatch coaming and middle of the tank. B. At the middle and bottom of the tank. C. At the center of the ullage and one meter below deck. D. Ans: D Which of the following fire extinguishing agents has the greatest 4323 capacity for heat absorption? Water fog A. Dry chemical B. Chemical foam C. Carbon dioxide D. Ans: A Overhauling a fire in the living quarters on a vessel must include 4325 _______________. opening dead spaces to check for fire or lingering sources of heat A.
Publishing comprehensive safety rules C When a floating vess el inclines to an angle slightly greater than the 4322 angle of loll, it will ____________. capsize A. incline further B. flop to the other side C. return to the angle of loll D. Ans: D Initial stability refers to the vessel's stability ________. 4324
evacuation of the vessel immediately sounding the "all clear" s ignal operation of the emergency generator D. Ans: A Which of the documents listed will describe lifesaving equipment 4327 located aboard your vessel? Station bill A. Certificate of Inspection B. Forecastle card C. Clearance papers D. Ans: B A fire main system must have enough fire hydrants for each 4329 accessible space to be reached with ______________. a low velocity spray applicator A. a water spray or s olid stream B. at least two spray patterns of water C. at least 1.75kg/cm2 delivered pressure D. Ans: C With damaged floating vessels, the most important consideration 4331 is the preservation of ________________.
Push on the hydrostatic release, pull on the sea painter. Push on the hydrostatic release, push on the sea painter. Pull on the hydrostatic release, push on the sea painter. D. Ans: B The maximum draft to which a cargo ship may be safely loaded is 4328 called __________. mean draft A. calculated draft B. deep draft C. load line draft D. Ans: D The preferred method of controlling external bleeding is by 4330 _____________. applying direct pressure on the wound A. elevating the wounded area B. applying pressure on a pressure point C. applying a tourniquet above the wound D. Ans: A You have found a person laying prone and not breathing. An 4332 electric wire is touching the victim. Which of the actions listed is the FIRST thing you should do?
bilge pumping capacity reserve buoyancy level attitude C. instability D. Ans: B Water applied as a "fog" can be more effective than water applied 4333 as a "solid stream", because _____________.
Shut off the power or remove the wire from the person. Immediately begin artificial respiration. Immediately begin cardiac massage. C. Leave the accident scene and summon medical assistance. D. Ans: A The stability term for the distance between the center of gravity (G) 4334 to the Metacenter (M), when small angle stability applies is known as the _________________.
D.
Ans:
B.
C.
A. B.
a given amount of water can absorb more heat when it is in the form of fog it reduces the total amount of water that must be pumped into the B. ship to fight a given fire it does not have to hit the seat of fire to be effective C. of all of the above D. Ans: D On a cargo ship, firefighting equipment must be inspected once 4335 every _______________. three months A. six months B. twelve months C. eighteen months D. Ans: C After extinguishing a paint locker fire using the fixed CO2 system, 4337 the next immediate action is for the space to be ____________. A.
A.
opened and burned material removed
D.
Ans:
at small angles of inclination when loaded with minimum deck load when at transit draft C. when GZ is zero D. Ans: A Which of the following must be carried out in order to launch and 4326 inflate an inflatable liferaft? Pull on the hydrostatic release, pull on the s ea painter. A. A. B.
B.
C.
A. B.
A.
metacentric height
B.
metacentric radius
height of the metacenter righting arm Ans: A Bleeding from a vein can be characterized as _____________. 4336 C.
D.
dark red and slow bright red and slow bright red and spurting C. dark red and spurting D. Ans: A Control valves for a CO2 fire extinguishing system may be located 4338 within the protected space when _____________. A. B.
A.
it is impractical to locate them outside
Page 244
B. C. D. Ans: 4339 A. B. C. D. Ans: 4341 A. B. C. D. Ans: 4343 A. B. C. D. Ans: 4345
left closed with vents off until all boundaries are cool checked for the proper oxygen level opened and doused with water to prevent reflash B If the cause of severe list, or trim is due to off-center ballast, counterflooding into empty tanks will ____________. increase the righting moment increase the righting arm increase list or trim decrease list or trim D The important stability parameter "KG" is defined as the _______________. metacentric height height of the metacenter above the keel height of the center of buoyancy above the keel height of the center of gravity above the keel D A person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries should __________. be assisted in walking around be examined then walked to a bunk not be moved, but made comfortable until medical assistance arrives, provided he is in a safe env ironment not be allowed to lie down where injured but moved to a chair or bunk C What is the function of the small gas accumulator cylinder attached to the discharge piping of the engine room fixed CO2 system?
It absorbs the pressure shock to the piping resulting from the initial release of carbon dioxide. It delays the release of carbon dioxide into the engine room. B. It directly activates the warning siren in the engine room. C. It controls the rate of discharge of carbon dioxide into the engine D. room. Ans: B Your assigned emergency stations aboard your vessel can be 4347 found on the ship's ______________. clearance papers A.
there is also a control valve outside the CO2 cylinders are also in the space an automatic heat sensing trip is installed D. Ans: C As a firefighting medium, CO2 can be dangerous under certain 4340 conditions as it can cause _____________. hallucinations A. burns and blistering B. undulation C. carbon monoxide poisoning D. Ans: B A quick and rapid motion of a floating vessel in a seaway is an 4342 indication of ____________. large "GM" A. high center of gravity B. excessive free surfaces C. small "GZ" D. Ans: A The object of plugging holes below the waterline on a ship should 4344 be to ____________. eliminate all water entering through the hole A. only plug holes in machinery or other vital spaces B. reduce the entry of water as much as possible C. B.
C.
D. Ans: 4346
A.
plug the largest holes first C A CO2 fire extinguisher is checked by __________.
A.
reading the gage pressure
B.
weighing the extinguisher discharging a small amount of CO2 checking for broken inspection seals
C. D. Ans: 4348 A.
B You should operate a fixed CO2 system by opening the control valve to the space protected and ___________. visually checking to see that CO2 is discharging through the piping
permit to proceed certificate of inspection muster list D. Ans: D Operation of the release control valve on a fixed CO2 fire 4349 extinguishing system, must automatically ______________. release CO2 to the protected space A. secure all mechanical ventilation in the protected space B. sound the general alarm signal for a fire C. sound an alarm in the ballast control room D. Ans: B How often must fixed CO2 fire extinguishing systems be inspected 4351 to confirm the cylinders are within 10% of the stamped full charge weight?
operating a separate control to release CO2 listening for the sound of the warning siren modulating the proper amount of CO2 from individual bottles D. Ans: B In order to release CO2 to the machinery spaces, you must 4350 physically open the engine room ____________. control valve and actuate the alarm A. CO2 releasing valve and actuate the alarm B. control valve, then open the CO2 releasing valve C. control valve, then shut off the engine room v entilation D. Ans: C Portable Halon fire extinguishers used may be charged with 4352 _______________.
Quarterly. Semiannually. Annually. C. Biannually. D. Ans: C Unless there is danger of further injury, a person with a broken 4353 bone should not be moved until bleeding is controlled and _______________.
HALON 1301 only HALON 22 only HALON 1211 only C. HALON 1301 or 1211 D. Ans: C The most effective means for combating an oil fire on the water 4354 surrounding a vessel is to use _____________.
the bone has been set the fracture is immobilized radio advice has been obtained C. the wound has been washed D. Ans: B The usual method for effectively applying foam on a fire is by 4355 ___________. spraying directly on the base of the fire A. flowing the foam down a vertical surface B. sweeping the fire before you with the foam C. spraying directly on the surface of the fire D. Ans: B
high velocity fog over the fire solid streams of water directed at the edge of the fire dry chemicals over the fire C. foam directed against the side of the vessel D. Ans: D At all angles of inclination, the true measure of a vessel's stability is 4356 the _____________. metacentric height A. displacement B. righting moment C. inclining moment D. Ans: C
B.
C.
A. B.
A. B.
B.
C.
A. B.
A. B.
Page 245
The weight of the liquid displaced by a v essel floating in sea water is equal to the _______________. weight required to sink the vessel A. total weight of the vessel B. displaced submerged volume C. reserve buoyancy D. Ans: B When the height of the metacenter is less than the height of the 4359 center of gravity, a v essel has what type of stability? 4357
The inspection of portable fire extinguishers must be _______________. accomplished by an authorized servicing representative A. recorded by the person-in-charge B. completed every six months C. all of the above D. Ans: B On a cargo s hip equipped with a combination detection-carbon 4360 dioxide system, the presence of fire is indicated at the cabinet simultaneously in two spaces: #3 hold upper between decks, containing bagged coffee beans; and #4 lower hold containing fertilize 4358
Stable Neutral
A.
B. C.
Unstable
C.
D.
Positive
D.
Ans:
C Foam extinguishes a fire by _____________.
A.
4361
chemically absorbing the oxygen smothering the burning material chemically absorbing the burning material C. releasing large amounts of carbon dioxide D. Ans: B Which of the following conditions is a symptom of a person in 4363 shock? Warm and dry A. Warm and damp B. Cold and dry C. Cold and damp D. Ans: D Which of the following conditions is NOT a symptom of traumatic 4365 shock? Slow deep breathing A. Pale and cold skin B. Weak and rapid pulse C. Restlessness and anxiety D. Ans: A Which of the following procedures is always recommended in the 4367 rescue of an unconscious person from a compartment containing an unsafe atmosphere? A. B.
A. B. C.
Have the rescuers wear an approved self-contained breathing apparatus. Have the rescuers carry in a s tokes basket for the victim. Have the rescuer carry an emergency first aid kit for the v ictim.
Have the rescuers carry a c ombustible gas analyzer. A A person who observes an individual fall overboard from a ship 4369 should ______________. immediately jump into the water to assist the individual A. call for help and keep the individual in sight B. run to the radio room to send an emergency message C. go to the control room for the distress flares D. Ans: B Increasing the free surface of a confined liquid has the effect of 4371 raising the ____________. uncorrected "KG" A. virtual height of the center of gravity B. metacenter C. metacentric height D. Ans: B Which of the following statements is true concerning the actions of 4373 a properly organized rescue party for removing an unconscious victim from a tank containing toxic vapors? D.
Ans:
A. B. C.
The victim should not be moved until the extent of his injuries is determined. The victim should be fitted with a canister type OBA as soon as possible. The rescue party should provide the victim with oxygen or fresh air immediately.
B.
Ans: 4362
open the three-way valves to each space simultaneously open the applicable three-way valve for #3 hold and fight the fire in #4 hold with water open the applicable three-way valve for #4 hold. After discharge, secure the valve; then open the applicable valve for #3 hold. activate the pilot CO2 cylinders, directing the discharge to #3 hold, then to #4 hold through the three-way valve C When the height of the metacenter is the same as the height of the center of gravity, the upright equilibrium position is ________________.
stable neutral unstable C. negative D. Ans: B Foam extinguishes a fire by ____________. 4364 A. B.
destroying the burning materials chemical reaction with the burning m aterial absorbing the burning material C. smothering the burning material D. Ans: D Extinguishing an oil fire when using foam is a result of 4366 _____________. Cooling A. Dampening B. Smothering C. Vapor absorbtion D. Ans: C When treating a person for shock, you should wrap the victim in 4368 warm coverings to ____________. A. B.
A.
decrease body heat
B.
preserve present body heat avoid self-inflicted wounds caused by spastic mov ement
C.
protect the person from injury during transportation B The reserve buoyancy of a vessel varies directly with changes in 4370 the vessel's _____________. free surface A. freeboard B. rolling period C. none of the above D. Ans: B High concentrations of hydrogen sulfide gas are most dangerous to 4372 personnel because they can _____________. cause involuntary skeletal muscle contractions A. paralyze your breathing system B. cause eye inflammation C. cause dizziness D. Ans: B After an accident, the victim may go into shock and die. Which of 4374 the following actions should be taken to help prevent shock? D.
Ans:
A.
Slightly elevate the head and feet.
B.
Keep the person awake.
C.
Keep the person lying down and at a comfortable temperature.
Page 246
The tank vapors should be tested with an explosimeter before personnel enter. Ans: C Why is an upper limit switch used when raising the lifeboat? 4375
4376
To prevent the davits from pulling up against the stops. To assist in cranking in the lifeboat. To keep the tricing lines from releasing or getting tangled. C. To stop the lifeboat from being lowered. D. Ans: A The maximum concentration of hydrogen sulfide to which workers 4377 may be regularly exposed without adverse effects is _____________.
200 lbs (90.7 kg) 210 lbs (95.2 kg) 220 lbs (99.8 kg) C. 230 lbs (104.3 kg) D. Ans: C When the engine room fixed CO2 system is activated, which of the 4378 following actions should be taken FIRST if the automatic fuel oil and ventilation shutoffs have failed to operate?
D.
A. B.
B.
10 ppm 20 ppm
C.
40 ppm
D.
80 ppm B Firefighting foam is only effective when the foam ________.
A.
Ans: 4379
penetrates to the bottom of the fire is kept saturated with low velocity water fog mixes with the burning fuel oil C. completely covers the top of the burning liquid D. Ans: D When fighting a fire on deck with foam, you should ________. 4381 A. B.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 4383 A. B. C. D.
Shifting suction of main fuel pump to reserve fuel oil tank. Changing out sprayer plates to adjust for steam demand. Daily inspection of engine room bilges.
A Chemical foam is most suitable for use on a fire involving _____________. oil A. burning insulation B. hot bulkheads C. electrical machinery D. Ans: A First, second, and third degree burns are classified according to 4387 ____________. Ans:
4385
area of the body burned source of heat causing the burn layers of skin affected C. size of the burned area D. Ans: C The approval period for a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan 4389 expires after __________. one year A. two years B. four years C. five years D. Ans: D The hand brake of a lifeboat winch is _____________. 4391 A. B.
A. B. C. D.
manually disengaged when hoisting a boat applied by dropping the counterweighted lever controlled by the centrifugal brake mechanism automatically engaged if lowering speed is excessive
Give the person a stimulant to increase blood flow.
Ans:
C The empty weight of a "100 pound" (45.4 kg) cylinder in a fixed CO2 system is 130 pounds (58.9 kg). What is the minimum acceptable total weight of the cylinder before recharging is required?
A. B.
Manually operate the remote shutdown controls. Activate an additional CO2 bottle to increase pressure on the pressure switch plunger. Send someone down to manually secure the fuel oil pumps and C. ventilation fans. Discharge extra carbon dioxide into the engine room. D. Ans: A The difference between the initial trim of a vessel and the trim after 4380 a change in load has occurred is known as _____________. A. B.
trim change of trim final trim C. change of draft D. Ans: B A weathertight door on a ocean going ship must not allow water to 4382 penetrate into the unit _____________. A. B.
play the foam stream directly on the burning oil play the foam stream off nearby vertical vessel structures only use the foam on flowing liquids play the foam stream on the base of the fire with whirling motion B Which of the following machinery space operations is required to be logged in the Oil Record Book? Ballasting or cleaning of fuel oil tanks.
D.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 4384 A.
in 50 knot winds in 70 knot winds in 100 knot winds in any sea condition D In firefighting, the term "protecting exposures" means _____________. protecting fire fighters from direct exposure to the heat of the fire
keeping flames from burning at the tank vents protecting exposed areas of the superstructure from flames taking measures to prevent the spread of fire from the involved D. compartment to an adjacent compartment Ans: D For an upright vessel, draft is the vertical distance between the keel 4386 and the _____________. waterline A. freeboard deck B. Plimsoll mark C. amidships section D. Ans: A Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF), commonly known as "light 4388 water", is especially suitable for fighting _____________. B.
C.
oil fires in the engine room bilges class B fires in paint lockers any class D fire C. all of the above D. Ans: A When treating a person for third degree burns, you should 4390 ___________. submerge the burn area in cold water A. make the person stand up and walk to increase circulation B. cover the burns with thick sterile dressing C. break blisters and remove dead tissue D. Ans: C The centrifugal brake mechanism incorporated in a lifeboat handling 4392 winch is intended to _____________. automatically stop the boat if electric power fails A. mechanically stop the boat when the hand brake fails B. hold the load s uspended during lowering operations C. automatically control the speed of lowering by gravity D. A. B.
Page 247
Ans: 4393 A. B.
B A device for preventing sparks or flames from entering a tank, yet permitting the free passage of gases is _____. gas absorption detector pressure-vacuum relief valve
C.
flame screen
D.
sacrificial anode
Ans: 4395
C A fine mesh wire screen is fitted to tank vent pipes to prevent _____________.
passage of flames into the tank entry of rodents into the tank debris stopping up the vent pipe C. embers from a fire entering the tank D. Ans: A Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a ship must be 4397 stowed _____________. in a locked cabinet in the machinery space A. in an unlocked cabinet in the machinery space B. in a separate and accessible location C. A. B.
D. Ans: 4399 A. B. C. D. Ans: 4401 A. B. C. D. Ans: 4403
at a fire hydrant location C If a crewman suffers a second degree burn on the arm, you should ____________________. drain any blisters apply antiseptic ointment scrub the arm thoroughly to prevent infection immerse the arm in cold water D On a ship, the locker or space containing the self-contained breathing apparatus must be _____________. located in close proximity to the main c ontrol station equipped with battery powered emergency lighting marked "SELF-CONTAINED BREATHING APPARATUS" all of the above C In the Oil Record Book, a comprehensive list of operational items are grouped into operational sections. Each section is codified by a/an ____________.
number abbreviation letter C. all of the above D. Ans: C Severe airway burns will cause _____________________. 4405 A. B.
nausea reddening of cheeks complete obstruction of respiratory passages C. nosebleed D. Ans: C Which is the best way to ensure adequate oxygen is present for 4407 safe entry into a seldomly used cargo tank? Test tank atmosphere with a combustible gas indicator. A. Observe the amount of rust deposited on the tank's surface. B. Ventilate the tank with fresh air and test with an oxygen indicator. C. A. B.
D. Ans: 4409
Open the manhole cover for approximately ten minutes. C A vessel would most likely develop a list if you were _____________.
burning fuel from a centerline tank using water from two equally sized tanks on either side of the centerline simultaneously using fuel from tanks on the port side only C. using water from the fore peak tank D. Ans: C
Ans: 4394
D A shipboard oil pollution emergency plan is required of _________.
all vessels, regardless of size and commercial application any barge or other ship which is constructed or operated in such a manner that no oil in any form can be carried aboard an oil tanker of 150 gross tons or above, or other ship of 400 gross C. tons or above an oil tanker of 400 gross tons and above, or other ships of 150 D. gross tons and above Ans: C Which of the toxic gases listed is a product of incomplete 4396 combustion, and is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment? A. B.
Carbon dioxide Hydrogen sulfide Carbon monoxide C. Nitric oxide D. Ans: C Why are flame screens an important safety device? 4398 A. B.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 4400 A. B. C. D.
They provide a "dead air space" within a fuel tank. They accelerate the dispersal of fuel vapors. They prevent the passage of flames from or into closed spaces. They smother flames once a fire has been started. C On a ship, a cabinet or space containing the controls or valves for the fixed firefighting system must be __________. posted with instructions on the operation of the system ventilated and equipped with explosion-proof switches painted with red and black diagonal stripes equipped with a battery powered source of emergency lighting
A Each hand portable fire extinguisher carried on a s hip must be marked with ____________. the name of the unit on which it is located A. the date that it was installed on the unit B. the names of the individuals qualified to use it C. an identification number different from other extinguishers on the D. unit Ans: D A minor heat burn of the eye should be treated by _________. 4404 Ans:
4402
gently flooding with water warming the eye with moist warm packs laying the person flat on his back C. mineral oil drops directly on the eye D. Ans: A Which of the listed substances is susceptible to spontaneous 4406 combustion? Coal A. Scrap rubber B. Leather C. All of the above D. Ans: D The FIRST action in the treatment of a person suspected of having 4408 airway burns is to ____________. move him to a cool location A. confirm and maintain an open airway B. apply cool damp dressing to his neck C. A. B.
D. Ans: 4410
A.
A.
B.
B.
have him drink c ool liquids B It shall be insured that each lifeboat on a cargo ship is lowered to the water, launched, and operated at least once every _____________. month two months
three months six months Ans: C C.
D.
Page 248
How should a Halon fire extinguisher be used to extinguish an electrical fire?
4411
Apply by bouncing agent off nearby bulkheads. Use a quick sweeping motion towards the base of the fire. Always direct discharge at the source of the fire. C. It shouldn't be used on an electrical fire. D. Ans: C Chemical burns are caused by the skin coming in contact with 4413 ___________. acids or alkalies A. diesel oil B. acids, but not alkalies C. alkalies, but not acids D. A. B.
Ans: 4415
A Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed uses a chain breaking action to put out a fire?
Rigidly mounted reduction gear bearing Segmental pivoted-shoe thrust bearing Self-aligning radial bearing C. Spherically-seated radial bearing D. Ans: B Which of the following statements is true c oncerning the Halon 4414 1301 fire extinguishing agent? The agent is highly toxic as stored in pressurized cylinders. A. The agent is less effective than carbon dioxide. B. Halon extinguishes the fire by a chain breaking reaction. C. The agent can not be used on electrical fires because it leaves a D. residue. Ans: C The person on a ship who is responsible for maintaining the 4416 engineering spaces in a clean and sanitary condition is the _____________. A. B.
D Compliance with the terms of the load line c ertificate on a ship is the responsibility of the ______________. Chief Officer A. Chief Engineer B. Officer in charge C. Master D. Ans: D Since electrical burn victims have been subjected to electric shock, 4419 the FIRST medical response is to check for ____________.
master, or person-in-charge chief engineer, or engineer-in-charge senior mechanic, or mechanic on duty if no senior mechanic C. designated senior electrician, or electrician on duty if no senior electrician D. designated Ans: B Periodic surveys to renew the load line assignment for a ship must 4418 be made at intervals not exceeding ____________. 18 months A. two years B. three years C. five years D. Ans: D Halogenated fire extinguishing agents such as Halon 1301 4420 extinguish fires by _____________.
indication of broken bones breathing and heartbeat location of burns C. bleeding injuries D. Ans: B What should you do with your emergency position indicating radio 4421 beacon if you are in a liferaft during storm conditions?
cooling producing excess CO2 breaking the chain reaction C. foaming action D. Ans: C When a rescuer discovers a burn victim in the vicinity of electrical 4422 equipment or wiring, his first step is to ________________.
A. B. C. D.
Halon 1211 Halon 1301 Purple K
Which of the following types of bearings is designed to limit end movement and carry loads applied in the same direction as the shaft axis?
4412
All of the above
Ans:
4417
A. B.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 4423
Bring it inside the liferaft and leave it on. Bring it inside the liferaft and turn it off until the storm passes. Leave it outside the liferaft and leave it on. Leave it outside the liferaft but turn it off. A After being launched from a ship, a totally enclosed survival craft which has been afloat over a long period of time, requires _______________.
C.
frequent opening of hatches to permit entry of fresh air regular checks of bilge levels use of ear plugs to dampen engine noise
D.
frequent flushing of the water spray system with fresh water
A. B.
Ans: 4425
B The purpose for the bag or box on top of some survival craft is to ______________.
A.
right it in case of capsize
B.
increase area for radar detection
act as a sail in case of a power loss steady the craft in heavy seas Ans: A Normally fire hose should be stowed with the ___________. 4427 female end connected to the fire hydrant A. male end attached to the fire hydrant B. female end connected to the nozzle C. female end and nozzle arranged to be quickly run out to the fire D. C.
D.
Ans:
A
A. B.
A. B.
flush water over any burned area of the patient apply ointment to the burned areas on the patient shutdown electrical power in the area C. remove the patient from the vicinity of the live electrical equipment D. or wiring Ans: C Basic emergency care for an electrical burn is to _________. 4424 A. B.
flood the burn with water for two minutes brush away the charred skin and wrap the burned area cover the burned area with a clean cloth and transport the patient to C. a medical facility apply ointment or spray to the burned area and wrap with a clean D. cloth Ans: C A patient has an electrical burn, after checking breathing and pulse, 4426 ____________. A. B.
look for a second burn, which may have been caused by the current exiting the body locate the nearest water source and flood the burn with water for B. five minutes remove any dirt or charred skin from the area of the burn C. apply ointment to the burn area and wrap with clean cloth D. Ans: A To prevent the spread of fire by convection ____________. 4428 cool the bulkhead around the fire A. remove combustibles from direct exposure B. close all openings to the area C. shut off all electrical power D. A.
Ans:
C
Page 249
If an oil spill occurs on deck, you should _____________.
4429
cover the area with foam cover the area with absorbent material wash down immediately with a fire hose C. wash down immediately with an oil dispersing solvent D. Ans: B Dry chemical extinguishing agents extinguish a fire by 4431 _____________. cooling the fuel below ignition temperature A. smothering and removing the oxygen from the fuel B. breaking up the molecular chain reaction C. removing the fuel by absorbing the heated vapors D. Ans: C With the air supply on, the air pressure in the survival craft will be 4433 _____________. changing in relation to the speed of the craft A. A. B.
Which of the listed burning materials would be described as a class "B" fire? Acetylene A. Lube oil B. Grease C. All of the above D. Ans: D At a speed of six knots the fuel aboard a survival craft should last 4432 ________. 8 hours A. 12 hours B. 24 hours C. 48 hours D. Ans: C Which of the listed conditions is a symptom of sun stroke? 4434 4430
A.
Temperature falls below normal, pulse is rapid and feeble, and skin is cold and clammy. Temperature is high, pulse is strong and rapid, and skin is hot and dry.
B.
less than outside air pressure
B.
C.
greater than outside air pressure
C.
Temperature is high, pulse is slow and feeble, and skin is clammy.
D.
equal to outside air pressure
D.
Temperature falls below normal, pulse is rapid, and skin is clammy.
Ans: 4435
C Aboard a survival craft, ether can be used to _____________.
Ans: 4436
B The backup system on an electric start survival craft is a _____________.
start the engine in cold weather aid in helping personnel breathe prime the sprinkler system C. prime the air supply D. Ans: A If the survival craft is not loaded to full capacity, the personnel 4437 should be ______________.
hydraulic system pneumatic system spare battery C. hand crank D. Ans: D When a rescue vessel approaches a survival craft in heavy seas, 4438 the person in charge of the survival craft should ______________.
loaded more on port side to forward loaded equally on both sides with more forward loaded equally on both sides with more aft C. allowed to sit anywhere D. Ans: C When an electrical fire has been extinguished with a dry chemical 4439 agent, there is always a possibility of the _________.
tie up to the rescue vessel transfer only those personnel who are not seasick wait for calmer weather before transferring personnel C. transfer all personnel immediately D. Ans: C The survival craft engine is fueled with _____________. 4440
machinery suffering thermal shock damage fire being rekindled by spontaneous combustion electrical contacts or relays being rendered inoperative C. chemical crystals suffocating the fire fighter D. Ans: C During an abandonment or drill, the first person to arrive at the 4441 survival craft should _____________.
kerosene unleaded gasoline diesel oil C. liquefied gas D. Ans: C Which of the following methods should be used to prevent a class 4442 "A" fire in a topside compartment, with steel bulkheads, from spreading to the adjacent compartments?
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A.
pass out food and water to personnel
A.
B.
open the doors and start the sprinkler system
B.
C.
activate the emergency release handle
C.
D.
open the doors and prepare the craft for boarding
D.
Sweep all exterior surfaces with water fog until steam is no longer produced, secure the nozzle, and repeat as necessary.
Ans:
D When retrieving the survival craft, the helmsman should instruct the crewman to __________.
Ans: 4443
D While retrieving the survival craft, the engine should be stopped ____________.
when the craft clears the water when the cable has been attached on approach to the platform C. at the embarkation D. Ans: A Small oil spills on deck can be kept from contaminating the 4445 surrounding waters by _____________. driving wooden plugs into the vents A. closing the lids on the vents B. plugging the scuppers C. keeping plugs in the sounding pipes D. Ans: C A. B.
4444
Sweep all exterior surfaces with water water fog until the fire is reportedly extingished. Sweep all exterior surfaces with a solid stream of water until the fire is reportedly extinguished. Sweep all exterior surfaces with a solid stream of water until steam is no longer produced, secure the nozzel, and repeat as necessary.
check the fuel level open the doors take the lifejackets off C. check that hooks are fully locked in place D. Ans: D A class "C" fire would occur in _____________. 4446 A. B.
bedding pipe insulation paint C. a generator D. Ans: D A. B.
Page 250
4447 A.
A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of both feet. You should __________. immerse the feet in warm water
B.
warm the feet with a heat lamp
C.
warm the feet at room temperature
D.
rub the feet to restore circulation
Ans: 4449
A When transferring survivors from a survival craft to a rescue vessel, personnel onboard the craft should ____________.
remove their lifejackets to make it easier to climb onboard the rescue vessel climb on top of the survival craft while waiting for their turn to B. transfer to the rescue vessel remain seated inside the survival craft and make the transfer one C. person at a time enter the water and swim over to the rescue vessel D. Ans: C The ventilation system aboard your vessel has fire dampers 4451 restrained by fusible links. Which of the following statements concerning the fusible links is true?
The best way to effectively use a dry chemical type fire extinguisher in fighting a fire, is to _____________. discharge a stream horizontally and allow it to flow down evenly on A. all burning surfaces discharge a stream at the base of the fire, starting at the near edge, B. and use side-to-side sweeping motions play the stream off adjacent vertical surfaces until the area is C. blanketed use concentrated amounts in small locations and put the fire out in D. sections Ans: B Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire 4450 by ____________. 4448
A.
A. B.
A.
removing the heat
B.
removing the oxygen
C.
removing the fuel
D.
interrupting the chain reaction C If a fire hose is left unattended and under pressure with the nozzle shut off, the fire hose will ____________.
Ans: 4452
A fusible link will automatically open after a fire is extinguished and reset the damper. Fusible links must be replaced at every inspection for certification.
A.
burst under pressure
B.
lash about violently
Fusible links are tested by applying a source of heat to them. Fusible links must be replaced if a damper is closed. Ans: D A health hazard, listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), 4453 that can cause cancer in exposed individuals is called a ________.
remain motionless become elongated by 125% Ans: C A fire, occurring in the windings, of an overloaded electrical motor, 4454 is considered a ______________.
carcinogen cryogenic irritant C. mutagen D. Ans: A Which of the listed methods, is the most effective to fight a fire on 4455 the open deck of a v essel if using a dry chemical type fire extinguisher?
class "A" fire class "B" fire class "C" fire C. class "D" fire D. Ans: C Fire dampers prevent the fire spreading through the process of 4456 ____________.
C.
D.
A. B.
Approach the fire from the windward side. Direct the extinguisher discharge at the base of the fire. Move the discharge stream back and forth in a rapid sweeping C. motion. All of the above. D. Ans: D Which of the following is least likely to cause the ignition of fuel 4457 vapors?
C.
D.
A. B.
A.
A.
B.
B. C. D. Ans: 4458
convection conduction radiation direct contact A If emergency welding repairs must be made to the upper areaof a fuel tank, the tank and/or adjacent compartments mayneed to be ____________.
Static electricity An open running electric motor Loose wiring C. Explosion proof lights D. Ans: D A fire in an electrical generator is considered to be ___________. 4459
gas freed inerted filled with water C. all of the above as necessary D. Ans: D The flammable limits of methane by volume is 5% to 15%. If the 4460 combustible gas indicator reading is 50% when sampling a compartment containing methane, the flammable vapor concentration at the sample point is ____________.
Class "A" Class "B" Class "C" C. Class "D" D. Ans: C Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning life4461 jackets? They come in two sizes, c hild and adult. A. They are required to be of a highly visible color. B. The life jackect will always support an unconscious wearer in an C. upright position. They must be able to support the wearer in an upright position. D.
0.5% by volume 2.5% by volume 7.5% by volume C. 50.0% by volume D. Ans: B Besides heat, fuel, and oxygen, which of the following is necessary 4462 for a fire to exist? Chain reaction A. Thermal action B. Chemical occulsion C.
A. B.
A. B.
Ans:
C
A. B.
A. B.
D. Ans:
Pyrotechnical reaction A
Page 251
In order to retrieve an inflatable liferaft and place it on deck, you should heave on the ____________. lifelines A. righting strap B. sea anchor C. towing bridle D. Ans: D The vapor explosive range of gasoline by volume is 1.0% to 6.0% 4465 in air. If a gasoline tank is sampled with an explosimeter, and the reading obtained is 30% L.E.L., the vapor concentration at the sample point is ____________.
4464
0.3% by volume 0.6% by volume 1.3% by volume C. 6.3% by volume D. Ans: A The class of fire on which a blanketing effect is essential to 4467 extinguish the fire is ________. class A A. class B B. class C C. class D D. Ans: B If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs 4469 should be ____________. spread apart as far as possible A. held as tightly against your chest as possible B. in a kneeling position C. extended straight down and crossed at the ankles D. Ans: D Which of the tools listed is designed for connecting and 4471 disconnecting fire hose couplings? Vise grips A. Channel locks B. Spanner wrench C. Pipe wrench D.
Locking wrench Spanner wrench Crescent wrench C. Pipe wrench D. Ans: B Extra chemicals maintained aboard the vessel for producing 4468 chemical foam, should be stored ____________. in a freezer A. in a cool dry place B. at a temperature not less than 80°F C. in open bins D. Ans: B If a crew member faints, you should ___________. 4470
4463
A. B.
Ans: 4473 A.
C With no alternative but to jump from a v essel, the correct posture should include ____________. holding down the lifejacket against the chest with one arm crossing the other, covering the mouth and nose with a hand, and feet together
knees bent and held close to the body with both arms around the legs body straight and arms tightly at the sides for feet first entry into the C. water both hands holding the lifejacket below the chin with knees bent D. and legs crossed Ans: A Which of the following conditions must be met before a marine 4475 chemist will issue a certificate for a c ompartment to be "safe for workers, safe for hot work"?
The symptoms of heat exhaustion are ____________.
slow and strong pulse flushed and dry skin slow and deep breathing C. pale and clammy skin D. Ans: D Which type of wrench listed is used to disconnect fire hose 4466 couplings? A. B.
A. B.
lay him down with his head slightly raised administer a liquid stimulant lay him down with his head lower than his feet C. attempt to stand him upright to restore consciousness D. Ans: C When should food or water be provided to survivors after boarding 4472 a lifeboat or liferaft? After 12 hours A. After 24 hours B. After 48 hours C. Some food and water should be consumed immediately and then D. not until 48 hours later Ans: B A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water ____________. 4474 A. B.
B.
A.
should be righted by standing on the carbon dioxide cylinder, holding the righting straps and leaning backwards
B. C.
should be righted by standing on the lifeline, holding the righting straps and leaning backwards will right itself when the canopy tube inflate
D.
must be cleared of the buoyant equipment before it will right itself
Ans: 4476
A The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is a/an ___________.
A.
The residues in the compartment must not be capable of producing any toxic gas under existing atmospheric conditions.
A.
vigorous shaking
B.
The concentration of combustible gases in the compartment's atmosphere must be less than 10 percent of the lower flammable limit.
B.
sequence of back blows
The toxic gases in the compartment's atmosphere must be within permissible concentrations. All of the above. D. Ans: D If an inflatable life raft inflates upside down, you can right it by 4477 ____________. pushing up on one side A.
C.
precardial thump
D.
ammonia inhalant D When collecting condensation for drinking water, __________.
C.
Ans: 4478
B. C.
it should be strained through a finely woven cloth
D.
standing on the CO2 bottle, holding the bottom straps, and throwing your weight backwards getting at least three or four men to push down on the side containing the CO2 cylinder doing nothing; it will right itself after the canopy supports inflate
a sponge used to mop up and store condensation must be kept salt free only condensation on the bottom of the canopy should be collected
D.
chlorine tablets should be used to m ake it drinkable
Ans:
B
Ans:
B. C.
A.
A
Page 252
When the concentration of gas vapor in the s ample is above the 100% explosive reading on the meter shown in the illustration, then ____________.
4479
the atmosphere at the sample point consists of 100% flammable gas the meter is defective B. no further increase in v apor concentration at the sample point is C. possible the flammable vapor concentration at the sample point is above the D. lower explosive limit Ans: D If you must enter the water on which there is an oil fire, you should 4481 ____________.
If an inflatable liferaft is overturned, it may be righted by ____________.
4480
A.
A.
filling the stabilizers on one side with water
B.
releasing the CO2 cylinder pushing up from under one end
C.
standing on the inflating cylinder and pulling on the straps on the underside of the raft Ans: D According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (MARPOL), 4482 which of the following statements is correct regarding the fuel oil containment under the oil filling connection section? D.
A.
protect your lifejacket by holding it above your head
A.
B.
enter the water on the windward side of the vessel
B.
C.
keep both hands in front of your face to break the water surface when diving head first wear very light c lothing
C.
D. Ans: 4483
B Seawater may be used for drinking water ____________.
at a maximum rate of two ounces per day after mixing with an equal quantity of fresh water if gather during or immediately after a hard rain C. under no circumstance D. Ans: D Combustible gas indicators measure the percentage of the 4485 concentration of the lower explosive limit of gases. If the hydrocarbon content of the sample exceeds the upper explosive limit ____________. A. B.
D. Ans: 4484
The containment may be fixed or portable depending upon the age of the vessel. The containment drains must have quick-closing valves to be closed in the event of leakage or failure of any part of the transfer connection. All containment drains must lead to a common, fixed drain tank. Containment drains are prohibited from leading to a common tank. A Which of the following gases represents the greatest threat to personnel safety in an engine room where the exhaust is leaking from a diesel engine?
Carbon dioxide Carbon monoxide Carbon trioxide C. Hydrogen sulfide D. Ans: B Which of the following components provides a direct source of 4486 seawater for the fire main system? A. B.
A.
the needle will rise slowly to and remain at the maximum reading
A.
Rosebox
B.
the needle will move rapidly to and remain at the maximum reading
B.
Sea chest or spool piece
C.
the needle will move to the maximum reading and return to zero immediately
C.
Sluice valve
D.
Fire pump stuffing box B When a rescue v essel approaches a lifeboat in heavy seas, the person in charge of the lifeboat should ____________.
D. Ans: 4487
it will not be detected C A small fire is reported in the forward cargo hold on a vessel equipped with a combination smoke detection/carbon dioxide fixed fire extinguishing system. After ensuring the space is unoccupied and properly sealed off, you should NEXT ____________.
Ans: 4488
A.
operate the control heads mounted on the main pilot cylinders
A.
transfer all personnel immediately
B.
close all three-way valve levers that are in the detecting position with the exception of the valve(s) to the involved space
B.
tie up to the rescue vessel
C.
open the three-way valve whose number (on the handle) corresponds with the line index chart number for the space on fire
C.
wait for calmer weather before transferring personnel
D.
transfer only those personnel who are not seasick
lock the smoke detector indicator on the monitoring line, which automatically activates the CO2 extinguishing system Ans: C If a cargo tank has not been c ertified as gas free, ______. 4489 D.
entry without a breathing apparatus may be made at the top of the tank since petroleum vapors are heavier than air a man may work safely without breathing apparatus in cold weather B. as vapors are less volatile breathing apparatus would not be necessary in an emergency as C. you would only be in the tank a short time fresh air breathing apparatus should always be used D. Ans: D One of the limitations of foam as a fire extinguishing agent is that 4491 foam ____________. cannot be made with salt water A. is heavier than oil and sinks below it surface B. is corrosive and a hazard to fire fighters C.
Ans: 4490
A.
C A crewman has suffered a blow to the head and various symptoms indicate a concussion. Proper treatment should include ____________.
A.
turning the victims's head to the side to keep his airway open
B.
positioning the victim so the head is lower than the body
C.
giving the victim water but no food
D. Ans: 4492 A. B. C.
placing a pillow only under the victim's head A A magnesium fire would be classified as a ________. class A class B class C
Page 253
D. Ans: 4493
conducts electricity D For a ship of 10,000 gross tons, constructed after 30 June 1974, a fixed container, or enclosed deck area, must exist under or around each fuel oil tank vent. The container must have a capacity of at least ______________.
D. Ans: 4494
class D D How is the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit inflated?
A.
5 gallons (18.9 l)
A.
It is inflated by a small CO2 bottle that is automatically tripped when the front zipper is at the top of zipper track.
B.
10 gallons (37.8 l) 21 gallons (79.5 l) 42 gallons (158.9 l)
B.
It is inflated by a small CO2 bottle that is manually tripped. It is inflated by blowing through an inflation tube. It inflates by sea water bleeding into the flotation bladder and reacting with a chemical.
C. D.
D Limit switches on gravity davits should be tested by ____________. the engineers, from a panel in the engine room A. shutting off the current to the winch B. pushing the switch lever arm while the winch is running C. all of the above D. Ans: C There is always a lower water pressure at the fire hose outlet than 4497 is found at the discharge of the pump. Which of the following reasons is the common cause of this loss in pressure? Ans:
4495
Leaky pilot valve Leaky pump suction valve Friction in the piping and valves C. Wear in the hydrant D. Ans: C An inflatable liferaft is floating in its container, attached to the ship 4499 by its painter, as the ship is sinking rapidly. Which of the actions listed should be taken with respect to the liferaft container? A. B.
C. D.
C If a person gets battery acid in their eye while filling a battery, they should FIRST wash the eye with ____________. boric acid solution A. water B. baking soda solution C. ammonia D. Ans: B The use of sinking and dispersing agents for the removal of surface 4498 oil is ____________. Ans:
4496
the most common method used in the United States too expensive for common use generally safe to sea life C. generally harmful to sea life D. Ans: D Which of the following statements is true concerning an immersion 4500 suit and its use? A. B.
A.
Cut the painter line so it will not pull the life raft container down.
A.
Only a light layer of clothing may be worn underneath.
B.
Swim away from the container so you will not be in danger as it goes down.
B.
They provide sufficient flotation to do away with the necessity of wearing a lifejacket.
C.
They should be tight fitting.
Take no action as the pull on the painter will cause the liferaft to inflate and open the container. Manually open the container and inflate the liferaft with the hand D. pump. Ans: C A tank which has been sealed for a long period of time can be 4501 dangerous because _____________. C.
D.
A puncture in the suit will not appreciably reduce its value.
Ans:
B For a victim who is coughing and gagging, as a result of a partial obstruction of the airway by a foreign body, a potential rescuer should ____________.
4502
A.
steel surfaces consume oxygen by rusting
A.
encourage the victim to continue coughing. If the victim is unable to expel the object, arrange for prompt transport to an appropriate medical facility
B.
sealed tanks usually form a vacuum
B.
wait for the victim to become unconscious then give four back blows followed by four abdominal thrusts immediately give four abdominal thrusts bend the victim over and give back blows
moisture condenses in the tank, displacing the oxygen most tank coatings give off poisonous vapors in the presence of moisture Ans: A The reading on the combustible gas indicator, shown in the 4503 illustration, is obtained by burning the vapor sample withinthe instrument. How is the flame prevented from ignitingthe vapor within the space being tested? C.
C.
D.
D.
A. B.
The test burn occurs outside the tested space. A series of baffles within the instrument prevents a flashback.
The length and diameter of the s ampling tube are designed to prevent a flashback. Flame arresters are placed at the inlet and outlet of the combustion D. chamber. Ans: D The operating cord of the inflatable liferaft has a length of 4505 ____________. 6 fathoms A. C.
B.
50 metres
C.
100 feet
Ans:
A Which of the following statements concerning immersion suits is correct?
A.
Immersion suits should be worn during routine work on deck to provide maximum protection. After purchasing, the suit should be removed from its storage bag and hung on a hanger where it will be readily accessible.
4504
B.
During the annual maintenance, the front zipper should be lubricated with paraffin or beeswax. Small leaks or tears may be repaired using the repair kit packed D. with the suit. Ans: C Which of the following statements concerning immersion suits is 4506 correct? Immersion suits should be worn while performing routine work on A. deck. After purchasing, the suit should be stowed in the storage bag in B. which it was received. C.
C.
During the annual maintenance, the front zipper should be lubricated using light machine oil or mineral oil.
Page 254
D.
300 metres
C When using a handheld smoke signal in a liferaft, you should ____________. activate the signal on the downwind side A. activate the signal on the upwind side B. activate the signal inside the boat C. activate the signal at the stern D. Ans: A While at your lifeboat station, you hear a signal consisting of one 4509 short blast of the whistle. This indicates ________. abandon ship A. commence lowering boats B. stop lowering boats C. secure from boat stations D. Ans: B Combustible gas indicators are used to detect flammable gases, or 4511 vapors present in a tank. This is accomplished by an intricate instrument incorporating a/an ____________. Ans:
4507
inflatable bag heated filament sensitive liquid chemical C. vapor detecting carbon compound D. Ans: B An inflatable liferaft can be launched by ____________. 4513 A. B.
the float-free method only kicking the hydrostatic release throwing the entire container overboard, then pulling on the C. operating cord to inflate the raft removing the securing straps D. Ans: C Which of the following statements is true concerning carbon dioxide 4515 when used as a fire extinguishing agent? A. B.
A. B.
Its total cooling effect is far greater than water. Its smothering effect is excellent for class B fires. Ans: D Which of the following statements concerning immersion suits is 4517 correct? D.
B. C. D.
Ans: 4519
A A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as a ___________.
class A class B class C C. class D D. Ans: A The fire extinguishing action of CO2 is derived mos tly from 4521 _____________. a blanket of bubbles formed on the surface of the fire A. smothering B. cooling C. isolating the heat from the fuel D. Ans: B A liquid, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), having a 4523 flash point below 100‚F (37.78‚C) is called a/an __________. B.
B. C. D.
B.
stiff tender buoyant C. neutral D. Ans: B Combustible gas indicators incorporate the use of a/an 4514 ____________. sensitive liquid chemical A. vapor-detecting carbon compound B. Wheatstone bridge C. A. B.
D. Ans: 4516
A. B.
viscous liquid explosive liquid combustible liquid flammable liquid
inflatable bag C Hydrogen sulfide is the constituent giving sour crude oil the characteristic odor of rotten eggs. One of the hazards associated with hydrogen sulfide is _____________. chemical burning of the skin irritation of the intestinal tract
its high toxicity resulting in death dependency addiction to the highly toxic fumes Ans: C The atmosphere of an empty fuel tank is tested and designated 4518 "gas free". Which of the following statements is correct concerning this tank? C.
D.
Some models will not automatically turn an unconscious person face-up in the water. The immersion suit seals in all body heat and provides protection against hypothermia for weeks. The suit is flameproof and provides protection to the wearer while swimming through burning oil. The wearer of the suit is not severely restricted in body movement and permits the wearer to perform any form of strenuous work.
A.
A.
electrical fire in the engine room oil fire in the engine room bilges oil fire involving a grade "A" petroleum product C. mattress fire in a stateroom D. Ans: D A person suffering from a heart attack may show which of the 4510 following symptoms? Shortness of breath A. Pain in the left arm B. Nausea C. All the above D. Ans: D A vessel having a concentration of weight toward the top of the 4512 vessel is said to be ____________. A.
Carbon dioxide is corrosive when exposed to fire. Carbon dioxide should be applied slowly to a large engine room fire.
C.
A.
Any tear or leak will render the suit unserviceable and it must be replaced. Ans: B An example of class "A" fire is a/an _______________. 4508 D.
A. B. C. D.
The concentration of flammable gas in the compartment is less than 10% of the lower flammable limit. The tank should be frequently retested. The gas free status is good as long as the initial conditions remain unchanged. All of the above.
D To detect the presence of explosive gases in any space, tank, or compartment, you should use a _____________. flame scanner A. halide torch B. combustible gas indicator C. detector filament D. Ans: C Which type of fire extinguisher is most prone to the freezing when 4522 exposed to low temperatures? Halon 1211 A. Carbon dioxide B. Foam C. Dry chemical D. Ans: C If a diabetic suffers an insulin reaction and is conscious, he s hould 4524 be given ____________. Ans:
4520
A. B. C. D.
soda crackers and water orange juice or a candy bar an ounce of whiskey a glass of milk
Page 255
Ans: 4525
D An instrument used to detect explosive gas/air mixtures, usually measures the concentration in terms of the lower explosive limit, and is known as a _____________.
toxic vapor meter flame safety lamp gas absorption detector C. combustible gas indicator D. Ans: D Which of the following items is NOT required to be contained in the 4527 vessel's oil transfer procedures? A. B.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 4529
Ans: 4526
solid stream to fog shut to solid stream low velocity to high velocity fog C. fog to shut D. Ans: B If a raft is to be released manually, where should the operating cord 4528 be attached before throwing the raft overboard? A. B.
A line diagram of the vessel's oil transfer piping.
A.
The number of persons on duty during oil transfer operations.
B.
Any special procedures for topping off tanks. The location and capacity of all fuel and cargo tanks on the vessel. D Most lifeboats are equipped with ____________.
unbalanced rudders balanced rudders contraguide rudders C. straight rudders D. Ans: A The "flammable limits" of an atmosphere are the ___________. 4531 A. B.
B A person manning a fire hose under pressure with an all-purpose nozzle attached, should be aware that the nozzle is most difficult to control when the handle position is changed from ____________.
C. D.
Do not attach the cord to anything but throw it overboard with the raft container. To some fixed object on the ship. Stand on it with your foot. To the special pad eye on the "raft davit launcher".
B The maximum lowering speed for a lifeboat on gravity dav its must not be more than ____________. 21mtr per minute A. 35mtr per minute B. 78mtr per minute C. none of the above D. Ans: C A high velocity fog nozzle will produce the most effective spray 4532 pattern when the water pressure is not less than _____________. Ans:
4530
A.
two temperatures between which an atmosphere will self- ignite
A.
2.5kg/cm2 (241.3 kPa)
B.
upper and lower percentage of vapor concentrations in an atmosphere which will burn if an ignition source is present upper and lower pressures between which an atmosphere will not burn two temperatures between which an atmosphere will burn if an ignition source is present
B.
4.2kg/cm2 (413.6 kPa)
C.
5.2kg/cm2 (517.0 kPa)
D.
7kg/cm2 (689.4 kPa)
C. D.
B For which of the listed classes of fire combinations would carbon dioxide be most suitable as the extinguishing agent? Class "A" and class "B" A. Class "B" and class "C" B. Class "A" and class "C" C. Class "C", class "D", and class "E" D. Ans: B Which of the items in the lifeboat equipment listed would be the 4535 most suitable for night signaling to a ship on the horizon? Ans:
4533
D The transfer procedures for oil products are required to be posted ____________. in the pilothouse A. in the officer's lounge B. in the upper pumproom flat C. where they can be easily seen or readily available D. Ans: D A chemical material, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet 4536 (MSDS), that can spontaneously burst into flames when exposed to air at temperatures below 130‚F (55.5‚C) with no ignition source needed, is called _______________. Ans:
4534
A red parachute flare A red handheld flare A flashlight C. A lantern D. Ans: A If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an inflatable liferaft is not 4537 periodically serviced and becomes inoperable, it will fail to ____________.
expolsive pyrophoric unstable C. flammable D. Ans: B A fire in a pile of linen is considered to be a class __________. 4538
set the water lights on immersion release the dyemarker from the liferaft free the liferaft from the vessel C. break the seal on the carbon dioxide cylinder D. Ans: C Appendicitis symptoms include cramps or pain in the abdomen 4539 located in the ____________. lower left side A. lower right side B. upper left side C. upper right side D. Ans: B The high velocity fog tip used with the all-purpose firefighting 4541 nozzle should always be _____________.
A fire B fire C fire C. D fire D. Ans: A If the chemical material is a mixture, what must the Material Safety 4540 Data Sheet (MSDS) identify? Paints or coatings that are s afe to use with it. A. The name of each hazardous ingredient. B. Other similar mixtures of liquids, solids or gases. C. None of the above. D. Ans: B Most enclosed lifeboats or covered surv ival capsules will 4542 automatically right themselves if they capsize. This will occur when which of the following conditions exists?
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
stowed separately in a clip or rack at each fire station attached to the all-purpose nozzle by a c hain
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
The lower ballast tanks are filled with water. The fuel tanks are not less than half full.
Page 256
coated with heavy grease to prevent corrosion painted red to be identified as emergency equipment Ans: B The explosive range of a mixture of flammable vapors and air lies 4543 between the lower and upper explosive limits. These limits are specified as a percentage of _____________. C.
D.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 4545
The passengers are strapped to their seats. The sea anchor is deployed to windward. Ans: C A hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft ____________. 4544 C.
D.
flammable vapor by volume in air the lower limit of explosibilty of the mixture oxygen present to support combustion the temperature of the flash point
A. B. C. D.
A The physical data term on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) that indicates if the vapor formed by a material is lighter or heav ier than air is called ___________.
Ans: 4546
must be wet before it will release should be kept in a watertight cover except in an emergency will inflate the raft in its cradle if operated manually must be submerged to a certain depth to release automatically D In a closed container of liquid, the force exerted by vapor on the walls of the container above the liquid surface is called ________.
vapor pressure vapor gravity vapor level C. vapor density D. Ans: D A chemical material, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet 4547 (MSDS) that reacts with water or moist air, and produces a health or physical hazard, is called __________.
storage pressure vapor pressure over-pressure C. reactive pressure D. Ans: B The physical difference of the water spray patterns developed by 4548 the high velocity tip and low velocity applicator is due to _____________.
water-reactive toxic flammable C. combustible D. Ans: A A lifeline must be connected to the liferaft ____________. 4549
a difference in water pressure the method of breaking up the water stream the type of fire being fought C. the capacity of the fire pump D. Ans: B The significant difference between the high velocity fog tip and the 4550 low velocity fog applicator used with the all-purpose nozzle is the ____________.
at the bow at the stern in the middle C. all around D. Ans: D A health hazard term listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet 4551 (MSDS) that indicates allergic-like reaction in some people after repeated exposure is ______________.
difference in available water pressure number of personnel required to effectively use each of them degree to which the water stream is broken up C. ability to exclude free oxygen D. Ans: C The explosive range of methane is 5% to 15% by volume in air. This 4552 means a v apor/air mixture of _____________.
A. B.
A.
B.
A. B.
B. C. D. Ans: 4553
skin contact hazard sensitizer pyrophorichazard oxidizer
3 percent methane by volume is too rich to burn 20 percent methane by volume is too lean to burn 10 percent methane by volume is too rich to burn C. 5 percent methane by volume will give a reading of 100 percent D. L.E.L. on a combustible gas indicator Ans: D Symptoms of seasickness include ________________. 4554
main deck under compressive stress main deck plating under strake stress bottom plate under compressive stress C. bottom and deck plating under compressive stress D. Ans: B Carbon dioxide extinguishers must be recharged when the weight is 4555 less than? 0.8 A. 0.85 B. B.
Ans: 4557
0.9 0.95 C Each personal flotation device light on a ship that has a nonreplaceable power source must be replaced ____________.
every six months after initial installation every 12 months after initial installation every 24 months after initial installation C. on or before the expiration date of the power source D. Ans: D Tank stripping is accomplished more effectively by using a 4559 _______________. a multistage centrifugal pump A. the load on top system B. the water displacement method C. a positive displacement pump D. Ans: D A. B.
B.
B.
A.
D.
A.
A.
B A vessel which is subjected to "hogging" has its __________.
C.
B.
A.
B.
A.
A.
fever and thirst nausea and dizziness stomach cramps and diarrhea C. reddening of skin and hives D. Ans: B What information can be obtained from a marine 4556 chemist'scertificate issued to an offshore supply vess el? The vessel's stability information A. The tanks which were safe to enter when the certificate was issued B. A. B.
The number of fire extinguishers required to be aboard The quality of fuel in the vess el's tanks Ans: B An inflatable liferaft is thrown into the water from a sinking vessel. 4558 Which of the following actions occurs automatically after the painter trips the CO2 bottles to inflate the raft? C.
D.
The sea anchor is deployed. The floor inflates. If upside down, the craft will right itself. C. The painter detaches from the raft. D. Ans: A The combined fan discharge rate in an inert gas system is related to 4560 the ______. shoreside loading rate A. maximum cargo pump discharge rate B. boiler forced draft fan rate C. size of the largest cargo tank D. Ans: B A. B.
Page 257
4561 A. B. C. D.
While taking on fuel oil, the transfer hose begins leaking, causing a sheen on the water. You should ____________. apply dispersants to the sheen repair the leak with duct tape reduce the rate of transfer shut down operations
Ans:
D Which of the following methods should be used to prevent a class "A" fire in a topside compartment, with steel bulkheads, from spreading to the adjacent compartments?
A.
Sweep the exterior bulkheads with a solid stream of water until the fire is reportedly extinguished. Sweep the exterior bulkheads with a solid stream of water until steam is no longer produced, secure the nozzle, and repeat as necessary.
A.
automatically as the liferaft inflates
B.
with a switch near the boarding handle
Sweep the exterior bulkheads with water fog until the fire is reportedly extinguished. Sweep the exterior bulkheads with water fog until steam is no longer produced, secure the nozzle, and repeat as necessary.
C.
at night because the light has a photosensitive switch
D.
by screwing the bulb in after the raft is inflated
4563
B.
C. D.
Ans: 4565 A. B. C. D. Ans: 4567 A. B. C. D. Ans: 4569 A. B. C. D. Ans: 4571 A. B. C. D. Ans: 4573 A.
B.
D An effective method for lifting and carrying patients with spinal injuries is known as the ____________. pack strap carry two man extremities carry fireman's drag four man log roll D Your assigned emergency stations aboard your vessel can be found on the ship's ______________. muster list certificate of inspection clearance papers permit to proceed A Regulations stipulate that in addition to emergency signals, muster lists must specify_____________. actions to be taken by persons on board when each s ignal is sounded the order to abandon the vessel the duties assigned to different members of the crew all of the above D The amount of garbage disposed must be entered into the records maintained by each ship and stated in __________. cubic meters barrels, measured in 55 gallon drums weight in either kilogram or pounds cubic yards convertible to long tons A Why should you wear a self-contained breathing apparatus before entering a closed compartment to fight a fire? The fire produces carbon monoxide which causes an oxygen deficiency in the brain and body, leading quickly to death. The fire produces smoke, which contains toxic gases that cause breathing difficulties and irritation of the respiratory tract.
The fire consumes oxygen which may lead to asphyxiation. All of the above. Ans: D When launching an inflatable liferaft, you should make sure that the 4575 operating cord is ____________. fastened to some substantial part of the vessel A. not fastened to anything B. C.
D.
C.
secured to the hydrostatic release
D.
fastened to the raft container
Ans: 4577
The sections of an Oil Record Book preceeding the log pages contain a ____________. damage control plan for isolating firemain valves A. list of machinery space operation items B. complete classification of hazardous materials C. detailed listing of all organizations to call in the event of an D. accidental oil spill Ans: B The inside light in an inflatable liferaft is turned on ____________. 4564 4562
A The process that occurs when heat is generated by a chemical reaction within a substance and continues to a point of ignition is known as _____________.
A The most effective method of extinguishing a class "A" fire is by _____________. quenching and cooling A. using a sodium based dry chemical B. blanketing and smothering C. using nonconducting extinguishers D. Ans: A Fire and lifeboat stations are required to be listed on the 4568 _____________. ship's articles A. muster list B. bunk card C. forecastle card D. Ans: B A vessel trimmed down by the bow has _____________. 4570 Ans:
4566
A.
a greater draft forward than aft
zero trim a low mean draft a greater draft aft than forward D. Ans: A Which unit will provide excellent mobilty to the wearer in an unsafe 4572 atmosphere and provide oxygen to s ustain life? A fresh air breathing apparatus A. A self-contained breathing apparatus B. An ammonia gas mask C. All of the above D. Ans: B A solid stream of water is produced by an all-purpose firefighting 4574 nozzle when the handle is _____________. pushed all the way forward A. B.
C.
B.
pushed forward one notch
pulled halfway back pulled all the way back Ans: D How does an inert gas system on a tanker function to prevent 4576 explosions in cargo tanks? De-energizes the "charged mist" effect. A. Maintains a positive pressure on the v ent header to cool the B. flammable vapors. Inert gas filters out the flammable vapors from the cargo tank C. spaces. Inert gas dilutes the flammable vapor and air concentrations to D. keep them below the lower explosive limit. Ans: D An inert gas system on a tanker should be used to _________. 4578 C.
D.
Page 258
A.
chemical ignition
B. C.
spontaneous combustion chemical combustion
D.
radiation ignition
B Water pockets on the under side of an inflatable liferaft are for ____________. catching rain water A. stability B. easy drainage C. maneuverability D. Ans: B In the event of a fire, the doors to a stairtower must be closed to 4581 prevent the spread of fire by____________. Ans:
4579
A.
prevent the generation of flammable or combustible gas in tanks
blow out cargo lines to prevent gas concentrations dilute tank atmospheres to keep gas concentrations below the lower explosive limit prevent fires in the pumproom by continually displacing flammable D. vapors Ans: C Through which of the listed processes is heat produced in 4580 spontaneous ignition? Aeration A. Anaeroboic decomposition B. Putrefaction C. Oxidation D. Ans: D What is placed on the under side of an inflatable liferaft to help 4582 prevent it from being skidded by the wind or overturned? B.
C.
convection conduction radiation C. ventilation D. Ans: A A wiper has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not 4583 bleeding excessively. What can be done as an alternative to suturing to close the wound?
Ballast bags A keel Strikes C. Sea anchor D. Ans: A During oil transfer operations, who would be responsible to 4584 guarantee that the posted transfer procedures are being followed?
Apply a copression bandage. Use temporary stitches of sail twin. Wrap a tight bandage around the wound. C. Apply butterfly strips, then a sterile dressing. D. Ans: D Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be 4585 done ____________.
The designated person in charge The tankerman The senior able seaman C. The oiler D. Ans: A You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. W hen you blow 4586 into his mouth it is apparent that no air is getting into the lungs. What should you do?
A. B.
A. B.
A. B. C. D.
at ten minute intervals by not stopping the respiration for more than five minutes only with the help of two other people without losing the rhythm of respiration
D The air spaces in the floor of an inflatable raft will provide protection against ____________. warm water temperatures A. cold water temperatures B. tears in the outside skin of bottom of the raft C. all of the above D. Ans: D Which of the following methods is a convenient and effective 4589 system of examining the body of an injury victim? Compare the corresponding parts of the body. A. Watch the patient's eyes as you probe parts of the body. B. Look for discoloration of the patient's skin. C. Look for uncontrolled vibration or twitching of parts of the body. D. Ans:
4587
Ans: 4591
B.
A. B.
Raise the victim's head higher than his feet. Blow harder to force the air past the tongue. Re-tip the head and try again. C. Press on the victim's lungs so that air pressure will blow out any D. obstruction. Ans: C Spontaneous combustion can result from _____________. 4588 A. B.
water dripping on a running electric motor oil soaked rags stored in a closed compartment smoking in a battery room or near a battery storage locker C. an open flame near a fuel tank vent D. Ans: B Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed is the most effectively 4590 used for putting out a paint locker fire? Solid stream of water A. Soda acid extinguisher B. Carbon dioxide C. Carbon tetrachloride D. A. B.
Ans:
C Why should you wear a self-contained breathing apparatus before entering the engine room after the fixed CO2 system has been discharged to combat a major fire? Because carbon dioxide dilutes the oxygen concentration in the atmosphere and may cause asphyxiation. Because carbon dioxide breaks down in a fire into carbon monoxide which may cause blood poisoning in the person breathing this gas.
4592
A.
move the handle to position "B"
A.
B.
remove the device indicated by the letter "E"
B.
C.
move the handle to position "A"
C.
D.
remove the device indicated by the letter "D"
D One feature of an inflatable raft which helps keep people stationary in rough weather is the set of ____________. lashings on the floor of the raft for the passenger's feet A. straps hanging from the overhead B. safety straps on the inside of the raft C. ridges in the floor of the raft D. Ans: C Ans:
4593
A Prior to inserting a low velocity fog applicator into the nozzle shown in the illustration, you must _____________.
A.
Because carbon dioxide is a colorless and odorless gas that becomes highly toxic in the presence of high temperatures and will quickly incapacitate a person exposed to this gas.
This action is unnecessary as carbon dioxide is not poisonous nor toxic but is a relatively harmless gas. Ans: A In which of the areas listed is a fire resulting from spontaneous 4594 combustion most likely to occur? Engine room bilges A. Paint locker B. Battery storage locker C. Fuel oil tank D. Ans: B D.
Page 259
If a victim is unconscious, you should first look for evidence of _______________. high fever A. head injury B. broken limbs C. irregular breathing D. Ans: D To prepare a low velocity fog applicator for use, _________. 4597 4595
A. B. C. D.
replace the high velocity tip with the fog applicator and pull the handle to the middle position insert the applicator in the solid stream outlet of the all-purpose nozzle and pull the handle back half way replace the high velocity tip with the applicator and pull the handle back all the way back insert the applicator in the solid stream outlet of the all-purpose nozzle and pull the handle back to the solid stream position
A The vapors given off by heated fuel oil are flammable, explosive, and _____________. lighter than air A. heavier than air B. odorless C. nontoxic D. Ans: B If it becomes necessary to pump bilges while a vessel is in port, 4601 which of the following procedures s hould be followed? Pump only if the discharge is led to a shore tank or barge. A. Pump only during the hours of darkness. B. Pump only on the outgoing tide. C. Pump only as much as is necessary. D. Ans: A If flammable vapors have penetrated a gas free space, which of the 4603 following actions would be the most hazardous thing to carry out?
Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed can be used to effectively combat a class B fire? Dry chemical A. CO2 B. Foam C. All of the above D. Ans: D Which statement is TRUE regarding Halon as a fire extinguising 4598 agent? It is more effective than CO2. A. 4596
Opening switches in the space to de-energize circuits. Closing switches in the space to operate vent fans. Leaving electrical circuits energized in the space. C. Securing all power to the space from a remote location. D. Ans: A Diesel fuel vapors _____________. 4605 A. B.
A. B. C. D.
C.
It is noncorrosive.
Ans: 4600
All of the above.
D Generally, which of the following gases is used to inflate liferafts?
CO2 Oxygen Hydrogen C. Compressed air D. Ans: A When fighting a fire in an enclosed space, the hose team should 4602 crouch as low as possible to __________. protect themselfs from smoke A. obtain the best available air B. allow the heat and steam to pass overhead C. All of the above D. Ans: D A low velocity fog applicator is retained in an all-purpose nozzle by a 4604 bayonet joint. The applicator is prevented from rotating in the joint by _____________. A. B.
water pressure a locknut a keeper screw C. a spring-loaded catch D. Ans: D You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just 4606 inflated. You hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. Which of the following statements identifies the cause of this situation? A. B.
can not be ignited by a spark unless the vapor is in a confined space are nontoxic in all concentrations
A.
can not be ignited by a spark unless they are at their autoignition temperature are heavier than air
C.
D Two people are administering CPR to a v ictim. How many times per minute should the chest be compressed? 30 A. 45 B. 60 C. 80 D. Ans: C The MOST important element in administering CPR is 4609 ____________. having the proper equipment for the process A. treating for shock B. administering of oxygen C. starting the treatment quickly D. Ans: D The oxygen indicator is an instrument that measures the 4611 ___________. the amount of oxygen in the atmoshere of a confined space A. amount of combustible gas as a percentage of the lower explosive B. limit in a confined space concentration of CO2 as a percentage of oxygen in a confined C. space Ans:
4607
It leaves no residue.
D.
Ans:
4599
B.
B.
D.
The saltwater is activating the batteries of the marker lights on the canopy. The inflation pump is in automatic operation to keep the tubes full inflated. A deflation plug is partially open allowing the escape of CO2. Excess inflation pressure is bleeding off and should soon stop.
D You are administering chest compressions during CPR. W here on the victim's body should the pressure be applied? Tip of the sternum A. Top half of the sternum B. Lower half of the sternum C. Left chest over the heart D. Ans: C Most totally enclosed lifeboats are equipped with which of the 4610 following? A hydraulic start diesel engine A. Tanks for the storage of drinking water B. Ballast tanks to prevent the boat from capsizing C. Auxiliary mechanical propulsion (Fleming gear) D. Ans: A A simple precaution to reduce the possibility of accidental fires in 4612 the paint locker, is to _____________. label the fixed firefighting system A. store paint cans on metal shelves only B. Ans:
4608
C.
not allow oily rags to accumulate in the space
Page 260
D. Ans: 4613 A. B.
None of the above A A characteristic of most petroleum vapors is that they are ____________. lighter than air not explosive at low temperatures
C.
heavier than air
D.
inert in stable air C When a ship is abandoned and there are s everal liferafts in the water, one of the FIRST things to be done is __________.
Ans: 4615
separate the rafts as much as possible to increase chances of detection transfer all supplies to one raft B. transfer all the injured to one raft C. secure the rafts together to keep them from drifting apart D. Ans: D During annual inspection, each nonmetallic oil transfer hose must 4617 not burst, bulge, leak, or abnormally distort under a static liquid pressure of at least ____________.
D.
C If more than one liferaft is manned after the vessel has sunk, ____________. each raft should go in a different direction in search of land A. the possibility of a search aircraft finding you is increased by B. spreading out reduce the number of rafts by getting as many people as possible C. into as few rafts as possible tie each of the rafts together and try to stay in a single group D. Ans: D An extinguishing agent which effectively cools, dilutes combustible 4616 vapors,removes oxygen, and provides a heat and smok e screen is _____________. Ans:
4614
A.
C.
7bar the pressure of the relief valve setting the pressure applied by the shoreside pump
D.
1 1/2 times the maximum allowable working pressure
Ans:
D Where should muster lists be posted?
A. B.
4619
In crew's accommodation spaces On the navigating bridge In the engine room C. All of the above D. Ans: D While adrift in an inflatable liferaft in hot, tropical weather 4621 ____________. the canopy should be deflated so that it will not block cooling A. breezes the pressure valve may be periodically opened to prevent B. excessive air pressure deflating the floor panels may help to cool personnel C. the entrance curtains should never be opened D. Ans: C Quick cleaning strainers are installed in the fire main system at 4623 individual fire hydrants to _____________. prevent rust and foreign matter from entering the system piping A. A. B.
place a portable fire extinguisher immediately outside the locker
A.
Halon 1301
dry chemical water fog carbon dioxide D. Ans: C The most effective way of applying carbon dioxide from a portable 4618 extinguisher to a fire is by _____________. B.
C.
A. B. C.
forming a cloud cover over the flames discharging the carbon dioxide into the heat of the flames directing the gas at the base of the flame in a slow sweeping motion
bouncing the discharge off an adjacent bulkhead just above the burning service Ans: C In the fire main system, quick cleaning strainers are located at the 4620 _____________. pump suctions A. pump discharge B. fire hydrants C. hose nozzle D. Ans: C The heat generated by a fire will be transferred through a bulkhead 4622 or deck, as a result of _____________. conduction A. D.
B.
radiation
convection advection Ans: A What effect will transferring fuel oil from #1P double bottom to #3P 4624 double bottom have on the trim of a vessel? The mean draft will increase. A. C.
D.
B.
The mean draft will decrease.
C.
prevent rust and foreign matter from entering the hoses and nozzles protect the fire pumps from becoming clogged with marine growth
C.
The forward draft will decrease.
D.
filter out some of the s alt in an effort to reduce pipeline scaling
D.
The after draft will decrease.
Ans:
B How are solid materials kept from fouling a fire hose nozzle?
Ans:
C Which of the listed extinguishing agents could be used to fight a class "B" fire involving the duct work for the galley stove?
B.
4625
Using a Cadium Chloride coating. Use of inline system strainers. Replacement of valve seats at each fire main station. C. Periodic shutdown and backflush of fire main. D. Ans: B When fighting a liquefied natural gas fire, you should 4627 _____________. use only carbon dioxide A. use only dry chemical B. extinguish the fire, then secure the source of gas C. secure the source of gas, then extinguish the fire D. Ans: D A fire can be extinguished by removing _____________. 4629 A. B.
4626
CO2 Dry chemical Halon C. All of the above D. Ans: D One of the first actions to be taken by survivors when they have 4628 boarded an inflatable liferaft is to ____________. stream the sea anchor A. take an anti-seasickness pill B. open the pressure relief valve C. drink at least one can of water D. Ans: B Which of the following conditions are true concerning shipboard 4630 extinguishing systems? A. B.
Page 261
A.
the heat
A.
B.
the fuel
B.
C.
the oxygen
C.
D.
any of the above D The FIRST step to take in fighting an engine room fire resulting from a ruptured fuel oil service line, is to _____________.
D.
Ans: 4631
A. B. C. D. Ans: 4633 A. B. C. D. Ans: 4635 A. B. C. D. Ans: 4637 A. B. C. D. Ans: 4639 A. B. C. D. Ans: 4641
evacuate all engine room personnel fight the fire with hand portable extinguishers activate the main CO2 bank stop the flow of leaking fuel oil D Engines for lifeboats are required to have sufficient fuel to operate for how many hours? 6 hours 12 hours 18 hours 24 hours D When launching a lifeboat, frapping lines should be rigged ____________. before the gripes are released before the boat is moved from the davits at the embarkation deck after the boat is in the water C The sea painter of a lifeboat should be led ____________. forward and outside of all obstructions forward and inside of all obstructions up and down from the main deck to the foremost point on the ship A Frapping lines are fitted to lifeboat davits to ___________. reduce the swinging of the lifeboat as it is being lowered from the embarkation level secure the lifeboat in the davits when in the stowed position hold it to the ship's side until the tricing lines are passed be used as a s afety line in an emergency A When more than six short blasts and one long blast of the ship's whistle, accompanied by the same signal on the general alarm bell is sounded, the signal is for __________.
fire and emergency boat recall man overboard C. boat stations D. Ans: D Which of the lifeboat parts listed must be painted bright red? 4643 A. B.
Hatches Releasing gear Hooks C. Compass D. Ans: B Why are lifeboats usually double-ended? 4645 A. B.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 4647
A.
They are more seaworthy and less likely to be swamped or broach to. They can go forward and back ward more easily. They require less space for stowing aboard ship. There is no particular reason for this. A You have abandoned ship and after two days in a liferaft you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search pattern. You should ____________. switch the EPIRB to the homing signal mode
Ans: 4632
A. B.
Carbon dioxide and Halon are both effective fixed systems that protect against "class C" fires. Flammable gas fires are not extinguished by fixed systems; controlled burning is recommended until the fuel source can be shut off. No fixed extinguishing system is approved for use against "class D" fires involving combustible metals. All of the above. D Petroleum vapors are dangerous _____________.
only if the source of the vapor is above its flash point only if the vapor is between the upper and lower explosive limit
only if the oxygen concentration is below 16 percent at all times due to their toxicity Ans: D The three basic elements necessary for any fire are _______. 4634 C.
D.
heat, gas, and flames fuel, heat, and oxygen heat, nitrogen, and fuel C. fuel oil, nitrogen, and oxygen D. Ans: B When combating a deck fire due to a leaking cargo line, you should 4636 FIRST ____________. blanket the cargo spill with foam A. apply CO2 on the burning fuel at its source B. stop the transfer of cargo C. prevent the spread of fire with a foam dam D. Ans: C An oxygen indicator will detect _____________. 4638 the amount of oxygen in a space A. the presence of harmful amounts of carbon monoxide B. concentrations of explosive gas C. all of the above D. Ans: A Frapping lines ____________. 4640 secure the lifeboat in the davits when in the stowed position A. A. B.
bring the lifeboat close alongside the rail in the embarkation position give the occupants a safety line when the boat is being lowered C. from the embarkation level reduce the swinging of the lifeboat at the embarkation level D. Ans: D In fighting a fire in a fuel tank, the FIRST action you should attempt 4642 is to ____________. B.
secure all sources of fresh air to the tank begin transferring the fuel to other tanks top off the tank to force out all vapors C. station someone at the fixed CO2 release controls D. Ans: A Which of the actions listed should be taken FIRST to control an oil 4644 fire in a fuel oil tank? Commence draining that tank as quickly as possible. A. Seal off all vents to that tank. B. Activate the CO2 system to that tank. C. Shut off the steam heating coils. D. Ans: B In order for the automatic lifeboat drain to operate properly 4646 ____________. the cap should be removed to drain the boat when it is waterborne A. A. B.
B.
the cage must be free of rubbish or the ball may not seat properly
there is an automatic ball check located in a siphon tube the small lever to release the rubber ball float must be turned counterclockwise Ans: B If an electric motor catches fire, you should first _______. 4648 C.
D.
A.
use a CO2 extinguisher
Page 262
use the voice transmission capability of the EPIRB to guide the aircraft to your raft turn on the strobe light on the top of the EPIRB C. use visual distress signals in conjunction with the EPIRB D. Ans: D Burning electrical insulation is best extinguished by 4649 _____________. B.
soda acid foam water fog C. carbon dioxide D. Ans: D Portable tank cleaning machines are usually provided with a water 4651 supply from the _____________. inert gas scrubber A. firemain B. A. B.
mucking supply system pumproom sea chest Ans: B To fight a class "C" fire, you should use carbon dioxide or 4653 _____________. C.
D.
mechanical foam dry chemical chemical foam C. chemically teated saw dust D. Ans: B By definition, combustible liquids are liquids which 4655 _____________. spontaneously ignite A. A. B.
B.
cool the motor with air
remove the load de-energize the circuit Ans: D If a fire occurs in an electric cable, in which the inner layers of 4650 insulation, or the insulation covered by armor is burning, you should _____________. C.
D.
secure power to the cable cut the cable with an insulated cable c utter separate the two ends C. all of the above D. Ans: D When a vessel is inclined, the tendency for it to return to its original 4652 position is caused by the ____________. movement of the center of gravity A. movement of the c enter of buoyancy toward the low side of the B. vessel upward movement of the center of flotation C. increased free surface in the buoyant wedge D. Ans: B If a CO2 fire extinguisher is not readily available, which of the listed 4654 fire extinguishers would be best suited to combat a small electrical fire in a switchboard? A. B.
Dry chemical Halon Low velocity fog C. Steam D. Ans: B Which of the following signals represents the emergency signal for 4656 a fire aboard merchant vessel? Rapid blowing of the ship's whistle for a period of not less than 10 A. seconds, supplemented by the same signal on the ship's bell. A. B.
B.
are highly volatile with a flash point of 0°F
B.
C.
have a flash point of 80°F or higher
C.
A continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds, supplemented by the c ontinuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds.
D.
give off flammable vapors at or below 80°F
D.
A rapid ringing of the ship's bell for a period of not less than 10 seconds, supplemented by the same signal on the ship's whistle.
C Which of the listed fire extinguishers is recommended for use on an electrical switchboard fire? CO2 A. ABC dry chemical B. CO2 propelled foam C. All of the above D. Ans: A A vessel's stability is greatly reduced by liquid free surface. Which 4659 of the listed conditions would develop the greatest adv erse effect? Ans:
4657
Tanks which are 95% full. Tanks which have been pressed up to full capacity. Tanks which have been completely emptied. C. Tanks which are 40% full. D. Ans: D Any single ship's compartment sustaining partial flooding with free 4661 communication to the sea will ____________. increase reserve buoyancy A. decrease the free surface effect B. seriously reduce s tability C. result in the ship's sinking D. Ans: C The powder in a dry c hemical fire extinguisher ____________. 4663 A. B.
is always ready for use and requires no attention may cake up and fail to discharge properly if not occasionally agitated deteriorates to an unusable condition within three years C. puts out the fire with its cooling action D. Ans: B
Ans: 4658
Rapid ringing of the ship's bell for a period of not less than 10 seconds, supplemented by the same signal on the general alarm.
C Which of the petroleum products listed has the lowest flash point?
Hydraulic oil Lubricating oil Diesel oil C. Refrigeration oil D. Ans: C What first aid is appropriate for skin contact with tank residue from a 4660 cargo of leaded gasoline? A. B.
Cover the affected area with petroleum jelly. Immerse the area in a solution of boric acid. Wash the area with soap and water immediately. C. Administer a strong stimulant and treat for shock. D. Ans: C A tank or compartment is considered gas free when it isfree of 4662 dangerous concentrations of _____________. all flammable liquids A. any combustible liquid B. flammable or toxic gases C. all cargo oil D. Ans: C When any tank or compartment is partially filled with a liquid free to 4664 move as the ship rolls, the free surface effect is present. This condition will usually _______________. A. B.
A.
A.
B.
B.
increase reserve buoyancy reduce ship stability
cause a permanent list change the ship's trim Ans: B C.
D.
Page 263
Adverse effects due to free surface will result when ____________. the vessel is trimmed by the stern A. the vessel's draft is decreased exposing more surface area to the B. wind and current the vessel's draft is increased, thus increasing the vessel's wetted C. surface area a portion of liquid is removed from a full tank D. Ans: D If there has been a fire in a closed unventilated compartment it 4667 may be unsafe to enter because of _____________. 4665
A. B. C. D. Ans: 4669 A. B. C. D. Ans: 4671 A. B.
C If you find that the pressure cartridge on a dry chemical fire extinguisher has been punctured, you must ____________. replace the pressure cartridge replace the chemical agent have the unit hydrostatically tested weigh the pressure cartridge to determine if it must be replaced A When handling petroleum products, static electricity is generated by moving machinery and _____________. a grounded person the flowing petroleum liquids stray electric currents
D.
a short circuit B One advantage of a cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher, over that of a stored pressure dry chemical extinguisher is the former ____________.
4673
A. B.
Before a shipboard fire can be declared completely out, which of the following steps is/are essential? The cause of the fire is to be known. The fire area is safe for men to enter without a breathing apparatus.
The fire area is sufficiently cooled so that acc idental skin burns will not occur. All of the above. D. Ans: B On a newly constructed oceangoing vessel of 10,000 gross tons, 4668 equipped with an approved 15 ppm oily water separator, and bilge monitor, the bilge monitor continuous record must be _______________. C.
unburned carbon particles excess nitrogen a lack of oxygen excess hydrogen
C.
Ans:
4666
A. B. C. D. Ans: 4670 A. B. C. D.
kept readily available for 1 year only detached monthly for enclosure in the Oil Record Book maintained onboard for not less than 3 years initialled after each engineering watch by the watch engineer C Free surface effect occurring in tanks should be avoided to __________. reduce hogging and sagging maintain stability prevent oil pollution all of the above
B Which of the following methods will reduce the possibility of producing an electrical spark? Using a cargo hose with a built in electrical bonding wire. A. Connecting a bonding wire between the shoreside piping and the B. vessel. Placing an insulating flange or a section of nonconducting hose in C. the hose setup. All of the above. D. Ans: D How can the build up of static electricity be prevented so that a 4674 static spark does not ignite flammable vapors? Ans:
4672
A.
can be easily recharged aboard ship
A.
B.
has a longer operating time
B.
C.
can be discharged further from the fire
C.
A dehumidifier used in spaces containing flammable liquids will significantly reduce the possibility of static charges being generated.
D.
Static neutralizers can be used to reduce ionization in the air. A An electrically "charged mist" will be found in a _____________.
D. Ans: 4675
is lighter in weight A Where would you expect to find a "charged mist" on a tanker?
In a common vent header during tank ballasting. In a cargo tank during "Butterworthing". In a cargo tank during inerting operations. C. In the overflow line while topping off. D. Ans: B In order to find out which lifeboat you are assigned, you should look 4677 at the _____________. Certificate of Inspection A. Muster list B. Ship's Articles C. Fire Control Plan D. Ans: B You can generally improve the vessel's stability in a hazardous 4679 situation by _______________. pumping double bottoms to the forepeak A. A. B.
B. C. D. Ans: 4681 A. B. C.
ballasting deep tanks transferring ballast athwartships deballasting double bottoms B A vessel's stability normally increases when tanks are ballasted because the vessel's _______________. center of gravity is lowered center of buoyancy is lowered reserve buoyancy is increased
Ans: 4676
Each machine and hose involved in the operation should be grounded. All electrical circuits near and around the fueling operations should be opened.
diesel engine cylinder cargo tank during Butterworthing fuel tank vent outlet C. flash evaporator flash chamber D. Ans: B Which of the following statements is true concerning Halon 1301? 4678 A. B.
The agent is extremely toxic in any concentration. The agent leaves no residue. The agent extinguishes a fire by smothering. C. All of the above. D. Ans: B Which of the following statements is true concerning Halon 1301 fire 4680 extinguishing equipment? The agent is considered nontoxic at room temperature in low A. concentrations. The agent is less effective than carbon dioxide. B. Halon primarily extinguishes the fire by c ooling. C. The agent cannot be used on electrical fires because it leaves a D. residue. Ans: A In the event of a collision, watertight integrity may be lost if 4682 _____________. the sounding tube cap from a damaged tank is missing A. the dogs on a manhole cover are secure B. you have recently replaced a gasket in a watertight door C. A. B.
Page 264
D. Ans: 4683 A. B. C. D.
freeboard is increased A When checking the liquid level in a tank, you should position yourself ____________. on the windward side of the opening on the leeward side of the opening at a right angle to the wind direction so that the obstruction of your body will protect you from the fumes
C The bypass valve on a self-contained, demand-type, breathing apparatus bypasses _____________. the regulator in an emergency A. a breathing bag containing excessive pressure B. oxygen to the atmosphere C. the regenerator in an emergency D. Ans: A Which of the components listed are interchangeable between 4687 different backpack demand-type self-contained breathing apparatus produced by various manufacturers? Ans:
4685
D. Ans: 4684 A. B. C. D.
you operate the dewatering system from a flooded compartment A Which fire extinguisher is most prone to freezing when stowed in low temperatures? Halon 1211 Carbon dioxide Foam Dry chemical
C To use a portable CO2 fire extinguisher, you must FIRST _____________. turn the tank upside down A. pull the locking pin B. open the valve on the side of the tank C. shake thoroughly D. Ans: B Which of the listed fire extinguishers cannot be easily recharged 4688 aboard ship? Ans:
4686
The facepiece The regulator The air cylinder C. All of the above D. Ans: C The safe and efficient use of the facepiece of a demand-type self4689 contained breathing apparatus is directly influenced by _____________.
Soda acid Carbon dioxide Dry chemical, cartridge-operated C. Foam D. Ans: B Before the seas get rough, it is a good safety practice to 4690 _____________.
the donning of the facepiece the stowing of the facepiece the maintenance of the facepiece C. all of the above D. Ans: D When the alarm bell on a demand-type breathing apparatus 4691 sounds, how much air supply remains?
secure loose gear move quickly about the ship increase lighting C. shutdown auxiliary equipment D. Ans: A Which of the following conditions represents a particular advantage 4692 of using a pressure demand type self-contained breathing apparatus in an atmosphere that is immediately dangerous to life or health?
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A.
A 4-5 minute supply of air.
A.
B.
A 2-3 minute supply of air.
B.
C.
A 1 minute supply of air.
D. Ans: 4693 A. B. C. D. Ans: 4695
A. B. C.
D.
Ans: 4697 A. B. C. D.
Less than 1 minute supply of air. A Which of the following statements is c orrect concerning fire hoses used within the machinery spaces of cargo vessels? The fire hoses must be in 25mtr lengths. The fire hoses must be 1 1/2 inches in diameter or less. The fire hoses must be of the lined type. The fire hoses must all be fitted with approved 5/8 inch nozzles. C According to Regulations , which of the following conditions is true concerning the construction and/or operation of pressure-vacuum relief valves?
The positive pressure in the facepiece prevents contaminated air from entering the facepiece. The average operating time for most air cylinders is over an hour.
The equipment used is lightweight and easy to wear by reducing physical strain on the wearer. The equipment is compact and the wearer can work in confined D. spaces without difficulty. Ans: A Special transportation hazards of bulk LPG include ________. 4694 C.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 4696
frost burns to flesh high toxicity in small quantities noxious odors all of the above A Fire main outlet valves or hydrants located on exposed decks shall be _____________.
Valve bodies, discs, spindles, and seats must all be made of bronze or a corrosion resistant material. Pressure-vacuum valves for cargo tanks shall not be less than 2 inches nominal pipe size. Where springs are employed to actuate the valve discs , the springs are to be either plated or fabricated of a corrosion resistant material.
A.
behind glass or a suitably marked enclosure
B.
protected against freezing or be fitted with cutout valves and drain valves opened up and internally examined at each Coast Guard biannual inspection for certification
The design and construction of the valves is such that they must be removed for ov erhauling, insuring there will be no v ent blockage which could occur during a repair period.
D.
all of the above
Ans:
B When should you expect to find an insulating flange in a fueling hose?
A.
When transferring LNG. When a bonding cable is employed. When static electricity is not expected to be a problem. When the terminal is equipped with a cathodic protection system.
A When you have completed bunkering operations, the hoses should be ________________. blown down with inert gas drained into drip pans or tanks stowed with their ends open for venting steam cleaned and flushed with hot water
C.
4698
B. C. D.
Page 265
B Which of the following operations must be personally supervised by the person-in-charge when taking on fuel? Posting of the Declaration of Inspection in a conspicuous place A. under glass. Topping off any tanks being loaded. B. Overboard disposal of all waste oil or slops from drip pans. C. Sampling performed periodically during loading to ensure D. uniformity. Ans: B A fire station located in the engine room, is required by regulations 4701 to have ____________. a spanner wrench suitable for the size of hose at that station A. Ans:
4699
Ans: 4700 A. B. C. D. Ans: 4702 A.
D While loading bulk liquid cargo, a tank valve jams open. You should FIRST _____________. unplug the deck scuppers run out the vessel's fire hose order the shore facility to shut down call the chief engineer C The safe rate of bunkering heavy fuel oil is directly related to the ____________. type of fuel transfer pump aboard
lined or unlined hose, depending upon its location a 2mtr or 3mtr low velocity fog applicator all of the above D. Ans: A In a compartment that has been completely flooded, the greatest 4703 pressure will be exerted _____________.
temperature of the fuel oil being received size of the fuel storage tanks ashore distance from the fuel oil storage tanks ashore D. Ans: B When using portable tank cleaning machines, the hoses may be 4704 disconnected when ____________.
along the bottom of any bulkhead at the center of all bulkheads along the top of any bulkhead C. on the overhead of the compartment D. Ans: A After taking on fuel oil, the hoses should be disconnected and 4705 ___________. draped over the fantail to dry out A. drained over the side and washed out B. drained into the bilges and washed out C. drained into buckets or fuel tanks D. Ans: D Span gas is used aboard liquefied natural gas carriers to 4707 _____________. inert the barrier spaces A. calibrate the gas leak detectors B. odorize the cargo C. detect leaks in cargo piping D. Ans: B The most critical part of the bunkering operations, which can result 4709 in an oil spill, is when the _____________. hose joints are made up A. tanks are being topped off B.
the machine is inside the tank the machine is not inside the tank a sailor is standing by the machine C. the hose has been partially drained D. Ans: B After transferring fuel to another vessel, hoses should be drained 4706 __________. to the bilges A. over the side B. into a bucket C. all of the above D. Ans: C To prevent the overflow of cargo tanks due to expansion, you 4708 should top off ____________. to the bottom of the expansion trunk A. to within 1% to 3% of its capacity B. to within 3 to 8 cm of its capacity C. 3 to 8cm from top of the v ent pipe D. Ans: B After fuel tanks have been topped off, which of the listed 4710 procedures should be followed next? The pressure-vacuum relief valve should be reset. A. The tanks should be made seaworthy to prevent contamination. B.
B.
C.
A. B.
B.
C.
A. B.
C.
system is being lined up
C.
The tanks should be sounded to make sure the lev els are not rising.
D.
pumping operation is first started B Regulations for carbon dioxide fixed fire extinguishing systems require __________.
D.
The tanks should be marked C Regulations state that any space containing charged CO2 cylinders, shall be properly ventilated to prevent a temperature higher than ___________.
Ans: 4711
A.
Ans: 4712
a separate supply of CO2 be provided for each space protected
the total supply of CO2 to be at least sufficient for the space requiring the greatest amount the total supply of CO2 be equal to the gross tonnage of the vessel C. divided by 30 all of the above D. Ans: B Which of the signals listed is required to be displayed during the 4713 day while loading fuel? B.
A red flag A yellow flag A red and yellow flag C. A red light D. Ans: A Which of the listed functions is the purpose of a gas scrubber in an 4715 inert gas generation system? A. B.
A. B. C. D.
Cools the inert gas. Maintains the oxygen content at 5% by v olume. Drains off static electricity in the inert gas. Maintains the water seal on the gas main.
A.
130°F (54.5°C)
B.
140°F (60.0°C)
C.
150°F (66.6°C)
D. Ans: 4714
160°F (71.1°C) A The Pollution Prevention Regulations requires an emergency means of stopping the flow of oil during oil transfer operations. That emergency means may be a/an _____________.
manually-operated quick-closing valv e self-closing automatic disconnect fitting emergency pump control on the cargo deck C. automatic pressure-sensitive oil flow regulator D. Ans: C While your vessel is fueling, you notice that the transfer hose has 4716 developed a large bulge. Which of the following actions should be taken, according to Regulations , if you are the person-in-charge? A. B.
A. B. C. D.
Wrap the bulge area with nylon line. Stop the transfer of fuel. Report the incident to the Master Simply order new hose for the next fueling operation.
Page 266
Ans: 4717
A Regulations permit which of the following systems to be used for fire prevention and the simultaneous inerting of cargo tanks on tank vessels?
An inert gas system The deck foam system The fixed CO2 system C. A fixed water spray system D. Ans: A Which of the following methods is used to supply inert gas from a 4719 flue gas system to the cargo tanks? Exhaust gas pressure A. High capacity fan B. Inert gas compressor C. Natural aspiration D. Ans: B Open tank ullage holes which are not gas free, must be protected 4721 by _____________. flame screens A. warning signs B. P.V. valves C. stop-check valves D. Ans: A According to Regulations, new tank vessels enroute beyond the 50 4723 mile limit may not discharge an oily mixture into the sea from a cargo tank or cargo pump room unless __________. A. B.
A. B. C. D.
Ans: 4725
Ans: 4718
B Prior to entering a shipboard compartment containing spilled sewage, you should test the atmosphere in thecompartment for __________.
Hydrogen sulfide Methane Gas Oxygen C. All of the above D. Ans: D The Pollution Prevention Regulations prohibit draining 4720 _____________. waste oil into the slop tank A. lube oil purifiers into the bilge B. fuel oil heaters into buckets C. lube oil strainers into drip pans D. Ans: B Bilges may be pumped _____________. 4722 A. B.
on the outgoing tide overboard after dark overboard through an oily water separator C. anytime in an emergency, i.e. main engine lube oil failure D. Ans: C The device used for preventing the passage of flames into enclosed 4724 spaces is called a _____________. A. B.
the quantity of oil discharged into the sea does not exceed 1/30,000 of the total quantity of cargo carried on board anchored outside the breakwater discharging oil at a rate not exceeding 200 liters per nautical mile
A.
flame relief valve
B. C.
flame stopper safety valve
the quantity of oil discharged into the surrounding waters does not exceed 1/600,000 of the total quantity of cargo c arried onboard
D.
flame arrester
Ans:
D In port, after chemically cleaning a fuel oil tank, you should dispose of the waste oil by _____________.
A A low velocity fog applicator is held in an all-purpose nozzle by a bayonet joint. The applicator is prevented from rotating in the joint by ___________.
4726
water pressure a keeper screw a spring-loaded catch C. a locknut D. Ans: C As soon as you hear the fire and emergency signal, you should 4727 ensure that the _____________.
pumping it into the sewer connection centrifuging and reclaiming it circulating it through an oil and water separator C. discharging it into a slop barge or holding tank D. Ans: D Which of the following actions should be taken by the engine room 4728 watch when the general alarm is sounded c ontinuously?
ring buoys are thrown overboard engines are stopped fire pumps are started C. life preservers have been issued to ev eryone D. Ans: C Which of the listed operations must be personally supervised by the 4729 person-in-charge while taking on fuel? Posting of the Declaration of Inspection in a conspicuous place A. under glass. Topping off of any tanks being loaded. B. Disposing overboard all waste oil or slops from drip pans. C. Periodic sampling during the loading to ensure uniformity. D. Ans: B When bunkering operations are completed, the hoses should be 4731 _____________. drained into drip pans or tanks A. blown down with nitrogen or inert gas B. steam cleaned and flushed with hot water C. stowed with their ends open for venting D. Ans: A Where are remote readouts for oxygen concentration, pressure, 4733 and temperature of an inert gas system required to be located?
The fire pump should be s tarted. The boiler fires should be secured. The fixed CO2 system should be initiated into action. C. The engine room ventilation should be secured. D. Ans: A During topping off of bunker tanks, the loading rate must be 4730 personally supervised by the ____________. terminal operator A.
A. B.
A. B.
Bridge and engine control consoles Bridge and tank(s) being inerted Main deck and engine control consoles C. Cargo control and engine control consoles D. Ans: D
A. B.
A. B.
person-in-charge master engineer on watch D. Ans: B The term "oil", as used in the Pollution Prevention Regulations , 4732 means _____________. fuel oil only A. crude oil only B. liquefied petroleum gas C. petroleum oil of any kind D. Ans: D An oxygen indicator will detect __________. 4734 B.
C.
concentrations of explosive gas an oxygen deficiency in a space the presence of harmful amounts of carbon monoxide C. all of the above D. Ans: B
A.
A.
B.
B.
Page 267
During loading and discharging operations, in addition to when the cargo tanks have been properly filled, each inert gas system must be capable of maintaining a minimum gas pressure of ________________.
4735
A. B. C. D. Ans: 4737
150 millimeters of water pressure 125 millimeters of water pressure 100 millimeters of water pressure 75 millimeters of water pressure C Used engine oil may be properly disposed of by ___________.
An International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP) Certificate ceases to be valid on a Ship when _____________.
4736
the ship changes its port of documentation the certificate exceeds 2 years from the date of issue an intermediate survey as required is not carried out C. the vessel owners cease to belong to IMO (International Maritime D. Organization) Ans: C According to Regulations , all exposed and dangerous places, such 4738 as gears and machinery shall be properly protected with _____________. A. B.
draining it into the bilges discharging it to a dockside oil waste station pumping or throwing it over the s ide in port C. dumping it in a gasoline fuel tank D. Ans: B What safety precautions should be observed by the crew while 4739 working around machinery in an engine room? They should wear safety shoes. A.
covers guards rails C. all of the above D. Ans: D According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations , which of the 4740 following qualifies as a discharge of oil? Leakage of oil to the water by an improperly blanked transfer hose. A.
They should wear ear protection. They should not wear jewelry. All of the above. D. Ans: D Vessel stability can be adversely affected by ___________. 4741
Spilling oil on the main deck and having it flow over the side. Pumping oil overboard through a fixed piping system. All of the above. D. Ans: D Which of the following represents the maximum percent of oxygen, 4742 by volume, required to be achieved by a ship's inert gas system, prior to the commencement of crude oil tank washing?
A. B.
B.
C.
increasing the free surface effect decreasing the free surface effect ballasting down by the bow C. ballasting down by the stern D. Ans: A Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with a corrosion resistant wire mesh 4743 screen to _____________.
A. B.
B.
C.
A.
A.
B.
B.
0.06 0.08 0.1 0.12
C. D. Ans: 4744
B You are alone and administering CPR to a an adult victim. How many chest compressions and how many inflations should you administer in each sequence?
prevent dirt from entering the tank dissipate fumes leaving the vent prevent flames from entering the tank C. prevent accidental overflow D. Ans: C A vessel which is subjected to "sagging" _____________. 4745
5 compressions, then 1 inflation 15 compressions, then 2 inflations 20 compressions, then 3 inflations C. 30 compressions, then 4 inflations D. Ans: B Automatically closed fire dampers installed in the vessel's 4746 ventilation system are operated by the use of a ____________.
has its main deck under tensile stress has its bottom plating under tensile stress is supported on a wave whose crest is amidships C. is said to be under a form of transverse bending D. Ans: B The horizontal port, or starboard movement of a vessel is called 4747 _____________. yaw A. sway B. surge C. heave D.
remote operated valve fusible link CO2 system pressure switch C. heat or smoke detector D. Ans: B If a cup of oil is spilled during fueling and causes a sheen upon the 4748 water it _____________. must be reported to the fire department A. must be reported to the Port Control Authourities B. must be reported to the harbour master C. need not be reported since the spill was less than 250 barrels D.
A. B.
A. B.
Ans: 4749 A.
B In accordance with Regulations, approved buoyant work vests ___________. should be stowed in engineering spaces in lieu of approved life preservers because they are less bulky and permit free mov ement in confined spaces
may be used as a substitute for approved life preservers during routine drills, but never during an emergency should not be stowed where they could be confused with life jackets C. in an emergency all of the above D. Ans: C To safeguard the operator and other personnel working on or near 4751 a hoisting operation, which of the following precautions should be observed?
A. B.
A. B.
Ans: 4750 A.
B.
A.
Keep a load on the hoist until all personnel are finished working.
B Prior to entering a cargo pumproom, you should ensure that ____________. the forced ventilating system is operating
B.
the cargo pumps are secured
C.
no monocarbon gases are present
D. Ans: 4752
A.
the oily water separator is de-energized A Which of the following statements describes one of the functions of the ballasting system? To permit flooding of any fuel oil storage tank on any class of ship.
Page 268
B. C. D. Ans: 4753
Set the load on a movable dolly when transportation may be needed. Have one man keep a hand on the load to steady it. Insure that the lifting gear capacity is not exceeded. D The angular movement of a vessel about a horizontal line drawn from its bow to its stern is _______________.
B.
To use it as a secondary service system.
To store reserve feed or potable water for extended cruises. To stabilize the ship by flooding certain designed tanks with seawater. Ans: D To prevent oil from escaping into the sea when ballasting through 4754 the cargo piping system, you should FIRST _________. C.
D.
pitching rolling heaving C. swaying D. Ans: B The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to4755 mouth ventilation by pinching the victim's nostrils and _____________.
open sea suction valves, then start the cargo pump start the cargo pump, then open sea suction valves open block valves, then start the cargo pump C. open sluice valves, then start the cargo pump D. Ans: B Why is it necessary to cool the bulkheads, decks, and overheads 4756 surrounding an involved compartment fire?
cupping a hand around the patient's mouth keeping the head elevated applying his mouth tightly over the v ictim's mouth C. holding the jaw down firmly D. Ans: C An immersion suit should be equipped with a/an ____________. 4757
Cool the metal below its ignition temperature Form a dense coating of smothering steam Prevent oxygen from reaching the flames C. Prevent the fire from spreading by heat conduction D. Ans: D Portable Halon extinguishers used on a class "B" fire should be 4758 directed _______________. at the top of the flames A. at the base of the fire near the edge B. in short, quick bursts C. toward the upwind side of the fire D. Ans: B Which of the following conditions represents the appropriate time 4760 for setting off distress flares and rockets? Only when there is a chance of them being seen by rescue v essels. A.
A. B.
A. B.
air bottle for breathing whistle and handheld flare whistle, strobe light, and reflective tape C. whistle, handheld flare, and sea dye marker D. Ans: C When taking soundings ,the tape should be lowered and brought 4759 back quickly to _____________. reduce the time the sounding tube is open A. A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
avoid creating a spark lessen the effect of roll or pitch on the reading lessen the effect of heave on the reading D. Ans: C A straight stream of water should be used to extinguish 4761 _____________. galley grease fires A. fuel oil fires B. burning bedding materials C. a fire in the paint locker D. Ans: C Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be 4763 done _______________.
At half-hour intervals. At one hour intervals. Immediately upon abandoning the vessel. D. Ans: A Rolling is the angular motion of the ves sel about what axis? 4762
without losing the rhythm of respiration only with the help of two other people by not stopping the respiration for more than 5 minutes C. at ten minute intervals D. Ans: A When is it required for a dry chemical fire extinguisher to be 4765 recharged?
Bilge Mattress Galley range C. Switchboard D. Ans: B You are transferring fuel from a supply ves sel to your Ship. If you 4766 close off one tank in the line of tanks being filled, the flow rate to the other open tanks on the same line will _______________.
After each use When the air temperature exceeds 32°C Every six months C. Every 12 months D. Ans: A The term "segregated ballast" is defined in the Pollution Prevention 4767 Regulations as ballast water introduced into a/an ____________.
increase decrease stop C. stabilize D. Ans: A For a floating vessel, the center of buoyancy and the metacenter 4768 are in the line of action of the buoyant force ____________.
B.
C.
A. B.
A. B.
tank that is completely separated from the cargo oil and fuel oil systems fuel settling tank for segregation from lighter fluids B. oily water separator for segregation C. isolated tank for analysis because of its noxious properties D. Ans: A Before CPR is started on the victim, you should ___________. 4769 A.
A. B. C. D.
establish an open airway treat any bleeding wounds insure the victim is conscious make the victim comfortable
B.
C.
Longitudinal Transverse Vertical C. Centerline D. Ans: A Which of the listed types of fires should be extinguished with a 4764 straight stream of water? A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A.
only when there is positive stability
only when there is negative stability only when there is neutral stability at all times D. Ans: D When entering a burning compartment and equipped with a fire 4770 hose and an all-purpose nozzle, you should first direct _____________. B.
C.
A. B. C. D.
a straight stream into the center of the space the high velocity fog into the center of the space the high velocity fog at the overhead to absorb heat the high velocity fog at the deck to cool it for entry
Page 269
Ans: 4771 A. B. C. D. Ans: 4773
A.
A The free surface effects of a partially full tank in a floating vessel decrease with the _______________. surface area of the tank displacement volume draft of the MODU height of the tank above the keel
Ans: 4772 A. B. C. D.
B Once the daily ration of drinking water in a survival situation has been established, the drinking routine should include ______________.
Ans: 4774
small sips at regular intervals during the day.
A.
C A load line for a cargo ship is assigned by the ______________. P & I club Ministry of Surface Transport Corps of Engineers a recognized classification society approved by the Administration D Mechanical foam used for firefighting, is produced by ____________. mechanically mixing and agitating foam chemical, water, and air
a complete daily ration at one time during the day. one-half the daily ration twice during the day. small sips only after sunset. D. Ans: C Horizontal fore or aft motion of a v essel while underway is known as 4775 ______________.
a chemical reaction of foam components and air gas bubbles liberated when the foam chemical contacts fire chemical reaction of foam components and water D. Ans: A According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (MARPOL), if a cargo 4776 hose shows a small leak in its fabric, you may transfer oil after _____________.
pitch surge sway C. roll D. Ans: B When two people are administering CPR to a victim, how 4777 manytimes per minute should the chest be compressed?
the terminal foreman is notified the hose is replaced the hose leak is securely wrapped C. a drip pan is placed under the leak D. Ans: B To effectively and safely combat a passageway fire, 4778 ___________. two hose teams should attack the fire from opposite directions A.
B.
C.
A.
B.
A.
15
B.
30 60 80
D. Ans: 4779 A.
C.
A.
B.
C.
B.
C Spaces protected by a fixed CO2 system must be equipped with an alarm which is to sound ________________. for the first 20 seconds CO2 is being released into the space
the fire should be attacked from above if possible the fire should be attacked from one direction only water must not be used if the passageway is above the D. metacentric height Ans: C What must be accurately determined to assess the potential for 4780 progressive flooding after a vessel has been damaged? The integrity of the watertight boundaries. A. B.
C.
for at least 20 seconds prior to release of CO2 during the entire period that CO2 is being released if all doors and v entilation are not secured D. Ans: B If a leak in a fueling hose coupling cannot be stopped by tightening 4781 the coupling joint, you should _____________. reduce the pumping pressure to reduce the leakage rate A. stop the fueling operation and correct the leak B. spread absorbent material on deck beneath the leak in order to C. confine it notify the local port authority of a potential oil spill D. Ans: B Low velocity fog extinguishes a fire by ____________. 4783
The capacity of the water sprinkler system. The operation of the machinery space bilge level alarms. All of the above. D. Ans: A When using the rainwater collection tubes on a liferaft, the FIRST 4782 collection should be _____________. passed around so all can drink A. poured overboard because of salt washed off the canopy B. saved to be used at a later time C.
smothering and washing out smothering and cooling cooling and washing out C. none of the above D. Ans: B After a person has been revived by artificial respiration, they should 4785 be ____________. walked around until he is back to normal A. given several shots of whiskey B. kept lying down and warm C. allowed to do as he wishes D. Ans: C The passive safety device installed on each Halon fire 4787 extinguishing cylinder, to prevent its overpressurization is called a ____________.
center of gravity center of flotation metacenter C. metacentric height D. Ans: C A low velocity fog applicator is used in firefighting to 4786 _____________. apply large droplets of foam A. cool and smother the fire B. break up burning embers C. extinguish hard to reach electrical fires D. Ans: B The jettisoning of topside weight from a floating vessel s erves which 4788 of the purposes listed?
B.
C.
A. B.
safety valve relief valve rupture disc C. control head D. Ans: C
B.
C.
D. Ans: 4784
used to boil food B In small angle stability, when external forces exist, the buoyant force is assumed to act vertically upwards through the center of buoyancy and through the _______________.
A. B.
It returns the vessel to an even keel. It reduces free surface effect. It lowers the center of gravity. C. It raises the center of gravity. D. Ans: C
A.
A.
B.
B.
Page 270
In order for you to operate your vessel's crude oil wash system, the cargo tanks to be washed must be ______________.
4789
opened to the atmosphere for ventilation gas free inerted C. full of cargo D. Ans: C Where multiple fire pumps are installed, they may be used for other 4791 purposes, provided that one pump is _____________. on line and in operation at all times to the fire main A. A. B.
kept available for use on the fire main at all times capable of being quickly connected to the fire main with a suitable pipe spool rated at or above 125 psi D. Ans: B Inspection of a Halon fire extinguisher involves c hecking the hose, 4793 handle, nozzle, and _______________.
Oil Pollution Regulations (MARPOL) require any transfer or discharge of oil or oily mixtures to be recorded in the ____________.
4790
bridge log Master's log engine room log C. oil record book D. Ans: D In order to initiate CPR on a drowning victim, ____________. 4792 A. B.
A.
B.
B.
C.
C.
A.
each sight glass
D. Ans: 4794 A.
start chest compressions before the victim is removed from the water drain water from the lungs before ventilating begin mouth-to-mouth v entilations do not tilt the head back since it may cause v omiting C Which of the following is a correct statement with respect to inserting an airway tube? Only a trained person should attempt to insert an airway tube.
weighing of the extinguisher the service technicians report the last date it was charged D. Ans: B The piece of equipment shown in the illustration is used with a fire 4795 hose to produce _____________. high velocity fog A. mechanical foam B. low velocity fog C. light water D. Ans: B A floating vessel will behave as if all of its weight is acting 4797 downward through the ____________.
A size #2 airway tube is the correct size for an adult. The airway tube will not damage the victim's throat. Inserting the airway tube will prevent v omiting. D. Ans: A After using a portable Halon fire extinguisher, it shouldbe 4796 ____________. put back in service if more than 50% of the c harge remains A. repainted B. hydrostaticly tested before reuse C. discarded D. Ans: D In a crude oil washing system, according to regulations, each cargo 4798 tank shall be fitted with a sufficient number of mac hines, such that those areas unwashed by direct impingement shall not exceed 10% for horizontal areas, and ____
center of gravity center of buoyancy center of flotation C. metacenter D. Ans: A To turn over a liferaft that is floating upside down, you should pull 4799 on the _____________. canopy A. manropes B. sea painter C. righting lines D. Ans: D Class "B" EPIRB's transmit on frequencies that are monitored by 4801 ______________.
5% for vertical areas 10% for vertical areas 15% for vertical areas C. 20% for vertical areas D. Ans: C Which of the following conditions can contribute to accidents? 4800
B.
C.
A. B.
A.
orbiting satellites in space
commercial radio stations private, commercial, and military aircraft commercial fishing vessels D. Ans: C The master or person in charge of a cargoship must record the 4803 date of each test of emergency lighting systems, power systems, the condition of each and the performance of the equipment ____________. B.
C.
on the Certificate of Inspection on the muster list in the Operations Manual C. in the official log D. Ans: D A vessel which is subjected to "hogging" _____________. 4805 A. B.
has its main deck under compressive stress has its main deck plating under tensile stress has its bottom plate under tensile stress C. has its bottom plating under ductile stress D. Ans: B
B.
C.
A. B.
Good housekeeping Inspections Unsafe conditions C. Intelligent work habits D. Ans: C Which of the following procedures is the generally accepted method 4802 of determining whether the atmosphere within a cargo tank is ov er rich, explosive, or too lean to support combustion? A. B.
Use the open flame test on a small sample that has been taken from the tank. Send a gas sample ashore for laboratory analysis. B. Enter the tank with a teledyne oxygen analyzer. C. Use an explosimeter. D. Ans: D In the absence of external forces, the center of gravity of a floating 4804 vessel is located directly above the ___________. A.
metacenter amidships center of flotation C. geometric center of the displaced volume D. Ans: D The sea painter of an inflatable liferaft should be ____________. 4806 A. B.
free running on deck faked out next to the case secured to a permanent object on deck via a weak link C. stowed near the raft D. Ans: C
A.
A.
B.
B.
Page 271
4807
A. B. C. D. Ans: 4809
Water ballast placed in a tank that has been crude oil washed, but not water rinsed, shall be regarded as ________.
4808
clean ballast dirty ballast segregated ballast
vertically above the center of buoyancy vertically above the center of gravity at the intersection of the upright vertical centerline and the line of C. action of the buoyant force geometric center of the underwater volume D. Ans: A A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has 4810 been controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure. Which of the following actions should be taken next?
crude oil B According to MARPOL Regulations , all ships are required to prepare, submit, and maintain a(an) __________.
synthetic plastic discharge plan oil discharge plan shipboard oil pollution emergency plan C. vapor recovery procedures plan D. Ans: C Paints and solvents used aboard a vessel should be __________. 4811 A. B.
B.
stowed safely at the work site until work is completed returned to the paint locker after each use
C.
covered with a fine mesh screen to protect from ignition sources
D.
continuously kept in closed containers at all times B The term "arrival ballast" refers to ___________.
A.
Ans: 4813
brackish water ballast dirty ballast clean ballast C. any form of sea water ballast D. Ans: C When fire pumps are used for purposes other than firefighting 4815 service, each pipe connection to the other service (except for branch lines used for deck washing) must have a ___________. A. B.
check valve installed in the line shut off valve at a manifold near the pump quick disconnect union within ten feet of the pump C. regulator in the line set at 8.8kg/cm2 D. Ans: B The stability existing after the unintentional flooding of a 4817 compartment on a cargo ship is called ______________. intact stability A. initial stability B. immersion stability C. damage stability D. A. B.
D When compared to other fire extinguishing agents, water fog _____________. has the greatest ability to produce foam A. has the greatest cooling ability B. will completely remove toxic fumes from the air C. will completely remove combustible vapors from the air D. Ans: B An initial attempt to extinguish a galley grease fire may be made by 4821 using ____________. Ans:
4819
A. B. C. D. Ans: 4823
At all angles of inclination the metacenter is located ______________. A. B.
Apply a tourniquet to prevent the bleeding from restarting. Apply a pressure bandage over the dressing. Remove any small foreign matter and apply antiseptic. C. Administer fluids to assist the body in replacing the lost blood. D. Ans: B The primary function of an automatic sprinkler system is to 4812 ____________. instantaneously extinguish the fire which triggered it A. limit the spread of the fire and control the amount of heat produced B. A. B.
C.
alert the crew to the fire B The volume of a floating vessel above the waterline that can be 4814 made watertight is its __________. displacement volume A. reserve buoyancy B. gross tonnage C. net tonnage D. Ans: B Bleeding from a vein may ordinarily be controlled by ___________. 4816 D.
Ans:
applying direct pressure to the wound heavy application of a disinfectant pouring ice water directly onto the wound C. pinching the wound closed D. Ans: A According to MARPOL regulations, the shipboard oil pollution 4818 emergency plan must include __________. all information ordinarily provided in the oil record book A. an explanation and purpose of this plan B. a one-line schematic of the plan to be implemented C. the operating instructions for any and all oily-water separators D. installed aboard the vessel Ans: B The quality of initial stability is indicated by __________. 4820 A. B.
GM KM Deck load C. Maximum allowed KG D. Ans: A Which of the following is the c orrect procedure to follow when 4822 launching an inflatable liferaft by hand from an ocean going v essel? A. B.
water a mechanical foam system
A.
the range hood extinguishing system fire dampers only
C.
C The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from _____________.
filling completely developing free surfaces developing free surface moments C. collapsing D. Ans: A
protect people in the areas which have had sprinkler heads installed
B.
D. Ans: 4824
Connect the stainless steel link (float free link) to the vessel. Pull the line (painter) from the container and make it fast to the c leat provided. Open the canopy relief valves. Remove the raft from the container to permit complete inflation. B The angle to which a floating vessel, with a negative initial metacentric height, lies while at rest in still water is the angle of __________.
trim yaw heel C. loll D. Ans: D
A.
A.
B.
B.
Page 272
On a cargo ship, size I and II fire extinguishers are considered ____________, fixed systems A. steam generated B. hand portable units C. semi-portable units D. Ans: C Blood flowing from a cut artery would appear _____________. 4827 4825
A. B. C. D. Ans: 4829
fuel supply only exhaust ventilation only supply and exhaust ventilation C. mechanical and natural v entilation D. Ans: C During counterflooding to correct a severe list or trim aggravated 4831 by an off center load, a cargo ship suddenly takes a list or trim to the opposite side. You should ____________. A. B.
A. B. C. D.
continue counterflooding in the same direction continue counterflooding, but in the opposite direction immediately stop counterflooding deballast from the low side
C Which abbreviation represents the height of the center of buoyancy? BK A. KB B. CB C. BM D. Ans: B What is the primary purpose for applying a splint in first aid? 4835 Ans:
4833
A. B. C. D. Ans: 4837
Control bleeding Reduce pain Immobilize the fracture Reset the bone C A CO2 fire extinguisher provided aboard has lost 10% of its charge. It now must be _______________.
used at the earliest opportunity hydrotested recharged C. weighed again in one month D. Ans: C A CO2 fire extinguisher must be weighed ____________. 4839 monthly A. quarterly B. semiannually C. annually D. Ans: D Which of the listed of fractures would be considered as the most 4841 serious? Compound A. A. B.
B.
Greenstick
C.
Closed
D. Ans: 4843 A.
buoyancy deadweight draft C. freeboard D. Ans: A One of the main concerns when fighting a galley fire is__________. 4828 A. B.
dark red with a steady flow bright red with a steady flow bright red and in spurts dark red and in spurts C Actuating the fixed CO2 system should cause the automatic shutdown of the ________________.
Crack A When positive stability exists, "GZ" represents the _______. righting moment
The upward force of displaced water is known as __________.
4826
A. B. C. D. Ans: 4830
contamination food with extinguishing agent spreading of fire through the engineering space the loss of s tability the igniting of a grease fire in the range hood ventilation system D The stamped full weight of a 45kgs CO2 cylinder is 142kgs. What is the total minimum weight of the cylinder before it must be recharged?
128kgs 133kgs 136kgs C. 138kgs D. Ans: D If the alarm provided in the fixed CO2 system sounds in the engine 4832 room, you should _____________. A. B.
leave the space immediately start the fire pump make certain that the CO2 starts flowing into the space C. immediately assist the fixed system by discharging all portable D. units as well Ans: A How often are fire hoses required to be tested ? 4834 A. B.
Once a week. Once a month. Once a year. C. During each drill. D. Ans: C A Crude Oil Wash (COW) system is considered as ____________. 4836 A. B.
a water operated Butterworth system a mechanism which filters and purifies crude oil a Butterworth system using crude oil instead of water as the C. cleaning medium a cleanup for pump room bilges D. Ans: C Before releasing CO2 into the machinery space, the alarm for a 4838 fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system must sound for at least ______________. A. B.
20 seconds 30 seconds 40 seconds C. 60 seconds D. Ans: A A compound fracture is a fracture _____________. 4840 in which more than one bone is broken A. in which the same bone is broken in more than one place B. which is accompanied by internal bleeding C. which causes external bleeding at the site of the fracture D. Ans: D Which of the following statements concerning chemical foam is 4842 true? It is formed as a result of the reaction between dry powder and A. water. It is recommended for use on fires in main propulsion electric B. motors. It is formed as a result of the rapid mixing of foam liquid, water, and C. air. It is useful in fighting only chemical fires. D. Ans: A In a fixed CO2 s ystem, the "pilot" cylinders are used to 4844 ____________. direct CO2 to the pilot house A. A. B.
Page 273
B.
center of gravity
C.
righting arm metacentric height
D. Ans: 4845 A. B. C.
C To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning a ship, they should _____________. be placed in the middle of a small circle formed by the other survivors in the water float on their backs with their arms extended for maximum exposure to the air remove their lifejackets and hold on to the uninjured survivors
sip seawater at intervals of fifteen minutes A When discharging the main bank of fixed CO2 into a major engine 4847 room fire, CO2 pressure is used to _____________. discharge each bottle A. sound the general alarm B. secure the ventilation fan dampers C. All of the above. D. Ans: A Flooding of any compartment in a ship, resulting in a serious loss 4849 of reserve buoyancy, will always _____________. increase ship stability A. reduce ship s tability B. cause a serious permanent list C. decrease the heeling moment D. Ans: B Smoking in bed on a ship is prohibited _______________. 4851
activate individual groups of CO2 bottles in a predetermined time delay sequence activate the main bank all at once C. automatically activate the main bank if an abnormal heat rise is D. detected Ans: C If you have to jump into the water when abandoning a ship, your 4846 legs should be ____________. spread apart as far as possible A. B.
B.
held as tightly against your chest as possible
C.
in a kneeling position
D.
D.
Ans:
Ans:
at all times during evening hours unless another person is present C. during drilling operations D. Ans: A When the height of metacenter is greater than the height of the 4853 center of gravity, a v essel has what type of stability? Positive. A. Neutral. B. Unstable. C. Negative. D. Ans: A The lowest temperature at which the vapor formed from a liquid 4855 ignites and continues to burn steadily in the presence of an ignition source is called the ___________.
4848 A. B. C. D. Ans: 4850 A. B. C. D. Ans: 4852
A.
A.
B.
B. C. D. Ans: 4854 A. B. C. D. Ans: 4856
extended straight down and crossed at the ankles D When should the emergency position-indicating radio beacon be activated after abandoning a ship? Immediately After on hour Only when another vessel is in sight Only after sunset A Which of the equipment listed is required to be included in the fireman's (emergency) outfit? Chemical protection face shield Approved work vest Self-contained breathing apparatus 5 cell approved flashlight C The order to abandon a ship should only be given by the ___________. Chief Officer Chief engineer Master Head office C If you wear extra clothing when entering the water after abandoning a ship it will ____________. weigh you down preserve body heat reduce your body heat make it more difficult to breathe B Fire and lifeboat stations are required to be listed on the _____________.
flash point fire point upper explosive limit C. lower explosive limit D. Ans: B When using mechanical foam to fight a bilge fire, the stream of 4857 foam is most effective when directed _________. at the overhead A. at a vertical surface B. onto the deck C. directly into the bilge water D. Ans: B The sense of smell cannot be depended upon to detect hydrogen 4859 sulfide because _______________. it has a smell similar to petroleum products A. the gas is odorless in any concentration B. of paralysis to the olfactory nerves C. it is better to rely on eye irritation as a detector D. Ans: C The effects of free surface on initial stability depend upon the 4861 surface area dimensions of the free liquids andthe __________.
ship's articles bunk card forecastle card C. muster list D. Ans: D Reducing the free surface of a liquid within a tank has the effect of 4858 lowering the _______________. uncorrected "KG" A. virtual height of the center of grav ity B. metacenter C. metacentric height D. Ans: B Which of the following is NOT a mandatory requirement part of the 4860 shipboard oil pollution emergency plan? reporting requirments A. diagrams B. steps to control a discharge C. national and local coordination D. Ans: B When the wave period and the apparent rolling period of the ship 4862 are the same, __________.
volume of liquid in the tank volume of displacement of the ship location of the tank in the ship C. height of the center of gravity of the ship D. Ans: B Which of the following statements is true concerningAqueous Film 4863 Forming Foam (AFFF)?
synchronous rolling occurs the roll period decreases the roll period increases C. the roll amplitude is dampened D. Ans: A Reducing the free surfaces within a vessel, reduces the 4864 ____________.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
Page 274
A. B. C.
The agent cannot be used in conjunction with dry chemicals. AFFF can only be produced from fresh water. Because AFFF works through surface tension, it cannot be broken up if it is agitated.
AFFF controls the vaporization of flammable liquids by means of a water film. Ans: D The minimum concentration of hydrogen sulfide that can result in 4865 death if a person is exposed for even an instant is _____________.
C.
natural roll period metacentric height waterplane area
D.
uncorrected height of the center of grav ity
A. B.
D.
Ans: 4866
A While you are fighting a fire in a smoke-filled compartment one of your shipmates falls sustaining a severe laceration and ceases breathing. Your FIRST response should be to __________.
200 ppm 400 ppm 600 ppm C. 1000 ppm D. Ans: D Which of the following is a mandatory section of the shipboard oil 4867 pollution emergency plan?
remove him from the compartment begin artificial respiration control the bleeding C. treat for shock D. Ans: A The lethal concentration of hydrogen sulfide that will result in death 4868 with short-term exposure is a minimum of _____________.
reporting requirements removal equipment list plan exercises C. list of individuals required to respond D. Ans: A Which of the following is NOT required to be provided as part of the 4869 appendixes of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?
100 ppm 200 ppm 400 ppm C. 700 ppm D. Ans: D Which of the listed fixed fire extinguishing systems is most effective 4870 for use in the cargo holds?
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A.
a list of agencies or officials of Coastal State administrations responsible for receiving and processing incident reports
A.
Sprinkler
B.
a list of agencies or officials in regularly visited ports. a list which specifies who will be responsible for informing the parties listed and the priority in which they must be notified.
B.
Chemical foam Dry chemical
a list of personnel duty ass ignments D Individuals who have consumed alcohol within 24 hours of exposure to H2S can tolerate ___________.
D.
C.
D. Ans: 4871
unusually large concentrations of H2S smaller than normal concentrations of H2S moderate concentrations of H2S without the usual reactions C. longer exposure to H2S concentrations D. Ans: B Which of the devices listed below is designed to prevent flames 4873 from entering through fuel tank vents? Safety cap A. Flame screen B. Spark arrester C. Flame inhibitor D. Ans: B Which of the following operations aboard a tanker must be 4875 recorded in the Oil Record Book on a tank-to-tank basis according to MARPOL Regulations? A. B.
A. B.
Any internal transfer of oil cargo during a voyage. The discharge overboard in port or at sea of any bilge water accumulated in machinery spaces.
The loading or unloading of any or all oil cargo. All of the above. Ans: D After transferring a weight forward on a vessel, the draft at the 4877 center of flotation will ____________. C.
D.
A. B.
change, depending on the location of the LCG increase
decrease remain the constant Ans: D According to Regulations , a bulkhead capable of preventing the 4879 passage of smoke and flame for one hour would be classified as a/an ____________. C.
D.
A-60 B-60 C-60 C. D-60 D. Ans: A
C.
Ans: 4872
CO2 D A man has suffered a burn on his arm characterized by reddening of the skin, blistering, and swelling. This is an example of what kind of burn?
Major burn Third degree burn Second degree burn C. Blister burn D. Ans: C Part of the required equipment for a lifeboat includes 4874 _____________. a boathook A. life preservers B. a sea painter C. all of the above D. Ans: D An explosive mixture containing air with a maximum concentration 4876 of vapor, is c apable of ignition when it is at the ____________. A. B.
A. B.
flammable range rich point limit
autoignition point upper explosive limit Ans: A The Oil Record Book must be maintained onboard the vessel for 4878 ______________. C.
D.
not less than 3 years and be readily available for inspection 6 months and then submitted to the nearest Marine Safety Office for review an annual inspection C. the duration of the ship's active employment D. Ans: A The average of the observed drafts is known as ____________. 4880 A. B.
mean draft true mean draft mean of the calculated drafts C. draft at the center of flotation D. Ans: A
A.
A.
B.
B.
Page 275
For small first degree burns the quickest method to relieve pain is to __________. immerse the burn in c old water A. administer aspirin B. apply petroleum jelly C. apply a bandage to exclude air D. Ans: A An inflatable liferaft should be lifted back aboard the ship by using 4883 ____________. 4881
A.
the single hook at the top of the raft
B.
two lines passed under the raft
C.
the towing bridle
D.
all of the above
C On a ship, how many ring buoys are required to have a buoyant line attached? One ring life buoy. A. One ring life buoy on each side of the MODU. B. Three ring life buoys. C. Two ring life buoys on each side of the MODU. D. Ans: B The spread of fire can be prevented by ____________. 4887 Ans:
4885
cooling surfaces adjacent to the fire removing combustibles from the endangered area shutting off the oxygen supply C. all of the above D. Ans: D In the absence of external forces, adding weight to one side of a 4889 floating vessel, will cause the vessel to ____________. heel until the angle of loll is reached A. list until the center of buoyancy is aligned vertically with the center B. of gravity trim to the side opposite TCG until all moments are equal C. decrease draft at the center of flotation D. Ans: B Each emergency light on a ship must be marked with ________. 4891 A. B.
the letter "E" an arrow pointing to the nearest exit a no smoking symbol C. the word "DANGER" D. Ans: A With no environmental forces acting on the vessel, the center of 4893 gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the ______________. A. B.
longitudinal centerline center of flotation original vertical centerline C. metacenter D. Ans: C With no environmental forces present, the center of gravity of an 4895 inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the ____________.
When flooding occurs in a damaged vessel, reserve buoyancy ______________. decreases A. remains the same B. increases C. shifts to the low side D. Ans: A A victim has suffered a second degree burn to a small area of the 4884 lower arm. Which of the following statements represents the proper treatment for this injury? 4882
Immerse the arm in cold water for 1 to 2 hours, apply burn ointment, and bandage. Open any blisters with a sterile needle, apply burn ointment, and B. bandage. Apply burn ointment, remove any foreign material, and insure that C. nothing is in contact with the burn. Immerse the arm in cold water for 1 to 2 hours, open any blister, D. and apply burn ointment. Ans: A Spontaneous combustion is most likely to oc cur in _________. 4886 A.
rags soaked in linseed oil overloaded electrical circuits dirty swabs and cleaning gear C. partially loaded fuel tanks D. Ans: A A branch line valve of a fixed fire extinguishing system on a ship 4888 must be marked with the ____________. maximum pressure allowed at that branch A. name of the space or spaces which it serves B. date of the last maintenance inspection C. pressure needed to maintain an effective stream at that point D. Ans: B Each completed page of the Oil Record Book must be signed by 4890 the ____________. engineer on watch A. Chief Engineer B. A. B.
Chief Mate Master Ans: D In treating a person for extensive first or second degree thermal 4892 burns it is important to prevent or reduce _____________. C.
D.
disfigurement infection pain C. asphyxia D. Ans: C For each passenger vessel, the minimum number of immersion 4894 suits to be carried for each lifeboat is at least ____________. A. B.
A.
A.
B.
B.
longitudinal centerline center of flotation original vertical centerline C. center of buoyancy D. Ans: C Halon 1301 enters the fire area as a _____________. 4897 A. B.
powder gas pellet C. glassy slag D. Ans: B The most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns is to 4899 immediately ____________. apply ointment to burned area A. flood the affected area with water B. A. B.
1 2 3 4
C. D. Ans: 4896
C How are line shaft bearings usually lubricated?
Gravity feed Pressure feed Oil lubricating disks C. Oil lubricating rings D. Ans: D If the metacentric height is large, a floating vess el will 4898 ______________. be tender A. have a slow and easy motion B. be stiff C. have a tendency to yaw D. Ans: C Which of the following statements is true c oncerning the Halon 4900 1301 fire extinguishing agent? The agent is highly toxic at normal room temperature. A. The agent by weight is more effective than CO2. B. A. B.
Page 276
C. D. Ans: 4901
wrap the burn with sterile dressing apply an ice pack to the burned area B A fire in a fuel oil settling tank is a ____________.
Class A fire Class B fire Class C fire C. Class D fire D. Ans: B Each distress signal and self-activated smoke signal must be 4903 replaced not later than the marked date of expiration, or from the date of manufacture, not later than ___________. A. B.
A. B. C. D.
12 months 24 months 36 months 42 months
B Which of the following would be considered a Class "B" fire? Electrical fire in a motor A. Waste rag fire in the engine room B. Oil fire in the engine room bilges C. Fire in the main switchboard D. Ans: C If a person is unconscious as a result of an electric shock, you 4907 should first remove the victim from the electrical source and then ____________. Ans:
4905
C. D.
Halon extinguishes the fire by smothering. The agent can not be used on electrical fires as it leaves a residue.
B If fuel oil is burned from the port side tanks alone, the ship will _____________. go down by the head A. list to starboard B. trim by the stern C. list to port D. Ans: B If a line shaft bearing begins to overheat the shaft speed should be 4904 reduced. If overheating persists, you should then _____________. Ans:
4902
increase lube oil pressure to the bearing decrease lube oil pressure to the bearing apply emergency cooling water externally to the bearing C. flood the bearing with a higher viscosity oil to provide emergency D. lubrication and cooling Ans: C Convection spreads a fire as a result of ____________. 4906 transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal A. burning liquids flowing into another space B. heated gases flowing through v entilation systems C. the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space D. Ans: C Fire fighting agents, such as Halon and Purple K, suppress the fire 4908 by ______________. A. B.
administer ammonia smelling salts check for serious burns on the body determine if he/she is breathing C. massage vigorously to restore circulation D. Ans: C The master or person-in-charge of a MODU is required to submit a 4909 casualty report of an intentional grounding when ______________.
dissipating heat breaking the chain reaction removing the fuel C. all of the above D. Ans: B Which of the following substances is to be considered as fuel for a 4910 class "B" fire?
it creates a hazard to the vessel it will last longer than 24 hours it will last longer than 48 hours C. it occurs in international waters D. Ans: A Which of the listed precautions should be taken when testing a line 4911 throwing gun? Never remove the line from the rocket. A. Fire it at an angle of approximately 90 degrees to the horizon. B.
Wood Rags Electrical insulation C. Fuel oil D. Ans: D You are in a survival craft boadcasting a distress message. W hat 4912 information would be essential to your rescuers? The nature of the distress. A. The time of day. B.
Wear asbestos gloves. All of the above. Ans: A Who is charged with appointing persons to be in command of the 4913 lifeboats and/or liferafts on a mobile offshore drilling units?
Your radio call sign. Your position by latitude and longitude. Ans: D A self-righting survival craft will return to an upright position provided 4914 that all personnel ____________.
Rig superintendent Toolpusher Company man C. Designated person-in-charge D. Ans: D When abandoning a ship, following the launching of the survival 4915 craft you should _____________.
are seated with seatbelts on and doors shut are seated with seatbelts on and doors open are to shift to one side to right it C. escape from the craft D. Ans: A When the scuppers are plugged and an oil spill occurs on deck , you 4916 should _____________.
A. B.
A. B.
C.
D.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
C.
D.
A. B.
plot a course for the nearest land take a vote on which direction you should go
A.
B. C.
stay in the immediate area
C.
D.
go one direction until fuel runs out
D.
Ans:
C If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after having abandoned a ship in a survival craft, you should __________.
A.
4917
go in one direction until the fuel runs out plot course for the nearest land take a vote on which direction you should go C. shutdown the engines and set the sea anchor D. Ans: D
B.
Ans: 4918
remove scuppers and wash fuel overboard with water use absorbent material, such as sawdust, to clean up the spill remove scuppers to allow the spill to run overboard and wipe the area dry with rags remove scuppers and wash the fuel overboard with a solvent B Treatment of heat exhaustion should consist of ____________.
moving to a shaded area and laying down bathing with rubbing alcohol placing patient in a tub of cold water C. All the above D. Ans: A
A.
A.
B.
B.
Page 277
In a typical automatic fire alarm system, all zone circuits are always connected ____________. in parallel A. in series B. to the detecting cabinet C. to the trouble alarm supervising resistor D. Ans: C In the event of a small bunker oil spill on deck occ urring while 4921 fueling, you should _____________. wash down the area immediately with a fire hose A. wash down the area with kerosene B. cover the area with absorbent material C. cover the area with foam D. Ans: C An "on-load" release system on a survival craft means the cable 4923 can be released ______________. only when the load is taken off the cable A. only there is a load on the cable B. only when activated by the controls at the lowering station C. at any time D. Ans: D Treatment of sunstroke consists principally of ____________. 4925 4919
Properly stowed fire hose is either faked or rolled into a rack with the _____________. male and female ends connected together to prevent damage A. female end available to be quickly c onnected to the hydrant B. male end attached to the adjacent fire hydrant C. nozzle end arranged to be easily run out to the fire D. Ans: D The source of power for the CO2 alarm is obtained from 4922 ___________. the emergency power and lighting bus A. the general alarm 24 volt DC bus B. the flow of CO2 under pressure C. all of the above D. Ans: C Small oil spills on deck can be prevented from contaminating any 4924 waters by _____________. plugging all scuppers and drains A. placing floating booms around the ship B. regularly emptying all drip pans C. thoroughly draining all bunkering hoses D. Ans: A In a cartridge-operated dry chemical type fire extinguisher, when the 4926 CO2 cartridge is activated, the dry chemical is released from the extinguisher _____________. 4920
A.
cooling, removing to shaded area and having the victim lay down
A.
with the squeeze grip trigger on top of the container
B.
bathing with rubbing alcohol drinking ice water
B.
by squeezing the control valve carrying handle by turning the activating handle on the bottom of the container
C. D. Ans: 4927 A.
All of the above A Fire hoses located at protected fire stations, must always be _____________. connected to the fire hydrant
C.
A.
with the squeeze-grip on/off nozzle at the end of the hose D When a helicopter is lifting personnel from a survival craft, the other individuals in the craft should __________. enter the water in case the person being lifted slips from the sling
D. Ans: 4928
B.
capped on the ends for protection
B.
stand on the outside of the craft to assist the person being lifted
C.
supplied with a smooth bore nozzle
C.
remove their lifejackets to prepare for their transfer to the helicopter
D.
open to the air to prevent rot
D.
remain seated inside the craft to prov ide body weight for stability
Ans:
D The sprinkler system of a survival craft is used to ____________.
A.
cool the craft in a fire
B.
cool the engine spray oil on the sea to calm it
Ans: 4929 A. B. C.
A Which of the conditions listed is necessary for a substance to burn?
4930
The temperature of the substance must be equal to or above its fire point. The air must contain oxygen in sufficient quantity. The mixture of vapors with air must be within the "explosive range."
All of the above. D The MAIN objection to the use of a dry chemical fire extinguisher 4931 on an electrical fire is that the __________. extinguishing action is not as good as with soda acid A. powder conducts electricity back to the fire fighter B. dry chemical leaves a powder residue which may render electrical C. equipment inoperative extinguisher will need to be recharged D. Ans: C Limit switches are located on the survival craft winch systems to 4933 ____________. stop the winch just before the craft reaches final stowage position A.
C.
D.
D.
Ans:
Ans:
limit the amount of cable on the drum limit the ascent rate stop the winch in case the craft weighs too much D. Ans: A All ship's personnel should be familiar with the survival craft 4935 __________. boarding and operating procedures A. maintenance schedule B. navigational systems C. fuel consumption rates D. Ans: A With the sprinkler system and air system on, and all hatches shut, 4937 the survival craft will be protected from ___________. B.
C.
4932 A. B. C. D. Ans: 4934 A.
spray personnel during a fire A The scuppers should be plugged ____________. only if fixed containment is not used only if portable containment is not used only if fixed containment drains are open whenever the vessel is being fueled D Physical exertion on the part of a person who has fallen into cold water can ___________. be the best thing to try if there were no rescue in sight
increase survival time in the water increase the rate of heat loss from the body not affect the heat loss from the body D. Ans: C Which of the following statements concerning fire hose couplings is 4936 true? Fire hose couplings are strong and not easily damaged. A. Fire hose couplings must be lubricated with oil. B. Fire hose couplings can be easily damaged by dropping. C. Fire hose couplings should be painted red. D. Ans: C A class "C" fire is burning _____________. 4938 B.
C.
Page 278
a nuclear environment a fire and toxic env ironment a hurricane C. a drop greater than ten feet D. Ans: B Treatment of frostbite is to _________. 4939
diesel oil magnesium dunnage C. electrical insulation D. Ans: D When using a dry chemical fire extinguisher to fight a fuel oil fire, 4940 you should ___________. attack the fire from the leeward side A. direct the chemical discharge into the center of the burning fuel B. surface sweep the chemical discharge back and forth across the burning C. fuel surface invert the dry chemical extinguisher before starting to fight the fire D.
A.
A.
B.
B.
rub with ice or snow rub briskly to restore circulation
C.
wrap tightly in warm cloths
D.
warm exposed parts rapidly
A.
Ans: 4941
D On a cargo vessel, fire and boat drills must be held within24 hours of leaving port if the percentage of the crew replaced is more than ____________. 0.05 0.1 0.25 0.4
A. B. C. D. Ans: 4943
B.
C When the cotton cover of a fire hose becomes oily or greasy, it should be washed with a solution of mild soapy freshwater and _____________.
Ans: 4942
C The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be ____________.
in the midships house at the main deck manifold at the vent header C. in the pumproom D. Ans: D Fusible link fire dampers are operated by ____________. 4944 A. B.
a soft-bristled brush a holystone a canvas wiper C. cornstarch D. Ans: A When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam will 4945 ____________. be wetter A. be lighter B. be more heat resistant C. not cling to vertical surfaces D. Ans: B The most effective warming treatment for a crew member suffering 4947 from hypothermia is ____________.
a mechanical arm outside the vent duct electrical controls on the bridge the heat of a fire melting the link C. a break-glass and pull-cable system D. Ans: C A burning AC motor would be considered what class of fire? 4946
running or jumping to create heat lying in the sun a warm water bath C. mouth-to-mouth resuscitation D. Ans: C If the threads and gasket of a fire hose coupling are in good 4949 condition, the minimum mechanical advantage necessary for making a watertight connection to another hose coupling, can be developed with ______________.
downwind upwind across the wind C. directly above D. Ans: B A fire and boat drill on a tank vessel shall, by regulation, include 4950 ____________.
A. B.
A. B.
B.
your hands a hose wrench
C.
a monkey wrench
A.
a coupling wrench A When compared to a high-expansion foam, a low-expansion foam 4951 will ____________. be dryer A. be lighter B. be less heat resistant C. not cling to vertical surfaces D. Ans: D Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning lifejackets? 4953 D.
Ans:
Buoyant vests may be substituted for lifejackets. Lifejackets are designed to turn an unconscious person's face clear of the water. Lifejackets must always be worn with the same side facing C. outwards to float properly. Lightly stained or faded lifejackets will fail in the water and should D. not be used. Ans: B
A. B.
Class "A" Class "B" Class "C" C. Class "D" D. Ans: C When using a dry chemical type fire extinguisher in a windy 4948 location, you should direct the stream from _____________. A. B.
A. B.
starting the fire pumps bringing all rescue and safety equipment from the emergency equipment lockers demonstrations of rescue and safety equipment by designated C. persons all of the above D. Ans: D Which of the listed classes of fire is considered as one involving 4952 electrical equipment? Class "A" A. Class "B" B. Class "C" C. Class "D" D. Ans: C Fires are grouped into which of the listed categories? 4954 A. B.
A.
A.
B.
B.
Class A, B, C, and D Type 1, 2, 3, and 4
C.
Combustible solids, liquids, and gases
D.
Flammable solids, liquids, and gases
Ans:
A
Page 279
Which of the following events shall be conducted during a fire and boat drill?
4955
All watertight doors which are in use while the vessel is underway shall be operated. All lifeboat equipment shall be examined. B. Fire pumps shall be started and all exterior outlets opened. C. All of the above. D. Ans: A If the liferaft you are in should c apsize, all personnel should leave 4957 the raft and ____________. A.
A. B. C.
climb onto the bottom swim away from the raft right the raft using the righting straps
inflate the righting bag C Lifesaving equipment shall be stowed so that it will be 4959 ____________. locked up A. readily accessible for use B. inaccessible to passengers C. on the topmost deck of the v essel at all times D. Ans: B A reproductive health hazard, listed on a Material Safety Date 4961 Sheet (MSDS), that can cause genetic changes in sperm or egg cells is called a ___________. D.
Ans:
If, in a compartment or space, the gas or oxygen content is not within permissible concentration, and dangerous gases are either present, or may be produced by residues, what would be the safety designation listed on a marine chemist's certificate?
4956
A.
Safe for Men - Safe for Fire
Safe for Men - Not Safe for Fire Not Safe for Men - Safe for Fire Not Safe for Men - Not Safe for Fire D. Ans: D When using the combustible gas indicator to test a cargo tank, and 4958 the hydrocarbon content of the atmosphere exceeds the upper explosive limit (UEL), _____________. B.
C.
the needle will move to zero and stay there the needle will move to the m aximum reading and stay there the needle will move to the m aximum reading and return to zero C. immediately an audible beeping will be heard D. Ans: C An oil fire would be classified as a _________. 4960 A. B.
class A class B class C C. class D D. Ans: B A compartment is tested and found to contain 20.8% oxygen by 4962 volume, permissible concentrations of toxic materials, and concentrations of flammable gas just below the lower flammable limit. If the residues are not capable of producing toxic materials or A. B.
cyrogenic carcinogen teratogen C. mutagen D. Ans: D The flammable limits of benzene are 1.4% to 8.0% by volume in air. 4963 If a reading of 50% of the lower explosive limit isobtained, using the meter shown in the illustration, thevapor concentration at the sample point is __________.
Safe for men - Safe for Fire Safe for men - Not Safe for Fire Not safe for men - Safe for Fire C. Not safe for men - Not Safe for Fire D. Ans: B After the lifeboat has reached the top of the davit heads, the davit 4964 arms begin moving up the tracks until the movement is stopped by the ____________.
3.3% by volume in the flammable range too rich to burn C. too lean to burn D. Ans: D Which of the following procedures is NOT recommended when it is 4965 necessary to swim through an oil fire? Wear as much clothing as possible. A. Enter the water feet first and legs together. B. Swim in the same direction as the wind is blowing. C. Cover your eyes with one hand when entering the water. D. Ans: C The function of the lifeboat davit limit switch is to ____________. 4967
hoist man limit switch brake handle C. preventer bar D. Ans: B If ignited, which of the listed materials would be a class "B" fire? 4966
A. B.
A. B.
A. B. C.
control the descent rate of a lifeboat control the ascent rate of a lifeboat cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat nears the final stowed position
cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat reaches the davit bumpers Ans: C Provided every effort is used to produce, as well as preserve body 4969 moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without stored quantities of water?
A. B.
A. B.
Magnesium Paper Wood C. Diesel Oil D. Ans: D To determine whether or not an adult v ictim has a pulse, the 4968 rescuer should check for the pulse at the ___________. carotid artery in the neck A. femoral artery in the groin B. brachial artery in the arm C. A. B.
D.
Up to 3 days 8 to 14 days 15 to 20 days C. 25 to 30 days D. Ans: B A class "D" fire would be considered as burning __________. 4971 A. B.
A.
wood
D. Ans: 4970
radial artery in the wrist A You will find a limit switch on a ____________.
liferaft cradle radial davit sheath-screw davit C. gravity davit D. Ans: D The flammable limits of kerosene is 0.7% to 6.0% by volume in air. 4972 If a tank hav ing contained kerosene is tested with the c ombustible gas indicator, shown in the illustration, and a reading of 50% is obtained, this means _____________. A. B.
A.
insufficient oxygen exists in the space to support life
Page 280
B.
oil
B.
the atmosphere contains 50% kerosene vapor by volume in air
C.
electrical equipment magnesium
C.
the sample is below the lower explosive limit the sample contains approximately 3.0% kerosene vapor by volume
D. Ans: 4973
A. B. C. D.
D An unconscious person should NOT be _____________.
placed in a position with the head lower than the body given an inhalation stimulant given something to drink treated for injuries
D. Ans: 4974
C Why is it essential to introduce CO2 from a fixed fire extinguishing system, into a large engine room, as quickly as possible?
The fire may warp the CO2 piping. To keep the fire from spreading through the bulkheads. Updraft from the fire tends to carry the CO2 away. C. Carbon dioxide takes a long time to disperse to all portions of a D. space. Ans: C Which of the hazards listed is of a primary concern, other than fire 4976 damage, associated with a class C fire? A. B.
Ans:
C When a helicopter is lifting personnel from an enclosed lifeboat, the other individuals in the boat should ____________.
A.
enter the water in case the person being lifted slips from the s ling
A.
Susceptible to reflash
B.
stand on the outside of the boat to assist the person being lifted
B.
Electrocution or shock
C.
remove their lifejackets to prepare for their transfer to the helicopter
C.
Explosion
D.
remain seated inside to provide body weight for stability D The reading of a combustible gas indicator indicates the percentage of the _____________. concentration of flammable gas in a compartment lower explosive limit of a flammable gas concentration upper explosive limit of a flammable gas concentration concentration by weight of nonflammable gas in a c ompartment
D.
Deep seated fire B The fire main system should be flushed with fresh water whenever possible to _____________. help destroy marine growth identify loose pipe joints prevent corrosion of valve stems eliminate cracking of fire hose linings
4975
Ans: 4977 A. B. C. D.
B One of the disadvantages of using carbon dioxide to extinguish a fire in an enclosed space is _____________. the "snow" which is sometimes discharged along with the gas is A. toxic prolonged exposure to high concentrations of CO2 gas causes B. suffocation rapid dissipation of the CO2 vapor C. the CO2 gas is lighter than air and a large amount is required to D. extinguish a fire near the deck Ans: B A good approach to personnel safety is to assume that all tanks 4981 and pumprooms are potentially dangerous. You should immediately leave an area whenever _______________.
Ans: 4978 A. B. C. D.
Ans:
4979
A. B.
Ans: 4980
you experience an abnormal bodily sensation any of the above conditions occur Ans: D When testing the atmosphere of a compartment with a 4983 combustible gas indicator, the operator must remember that _____________. C.
D.
A.
a portable radio
B.
an oil lantern
C.
canned milk a towing bridle
D. Ans:
D In reviving a person who has been ov ercome by gas fumes, which of the following treatments would you AVOID using?
A.
Giving stimulants Prompt removal of the patient from the suffocating atmosphere
4982
you have irritation of the eyes, nose, or throat you smell an unusual odor
A Inflatable liferafts are provided with ____________.
B.
Determine the need for, and administer CPR if appropriate Keeping him warm and comfortable Ans: A Lower level fire main stations in the engine room should undergo 4984 regular routine maintenance, including ____________. C.
D.
most petroleum vapors are lighter than air and accumulate around deck longitudinals
A.
operating the self-cleaning strainers once a day
the indicator guarantees a safe atmosphere for a maximum of two hours the meter scale indicates only the upper explosive range C. the indicator tests only the atmosphere at the end of the suction D. tube Ans: D When any fire has been extinguished with carbon dioxide, there is 4985 always the danger of the _____________. fire being reignited by residual heat A. machinery suffering thermal shock damage B. dry ice crystals clogging the machinery C. atmosphere containing a dangerous charge of static electricity D.
B.
flushing out the hydrants with full fire main pressure
C.
repacking valve stems at three month intervals a weekly replacement of fire hose fittings
A. B.
Ans: 4987 A.
A When operating gravity davits, ____________. the gripes should be released after the boat is moving
D. Ans: 4986 A. B. C. D. Ans: 4988 A.
B A safety feature provided on all inflatable liferafts is ____________. overhead safety straps built in seats internal releasing hooks the use of water stabilizing pockets D Which of the following can result in an oxygen deficiency in a closed space? Rusting
Page 281
B. C. D. Ans: 4989
the davits should always be hand cranked the last 12 inches into the final stowed position the boats are generally lowered by surging the falls around cruciform bits the tricing pendant should be tripped prior to releasing the gripes B Combustible gas indicators are used to detect flammable gases or vapors in the atmosphere. As a s afety feature, they are equipped with _____________.
B.
Cargo residue
C.
Fuel oil residue
D.
All of the above
Ans:
D Which of the following conditions would be true if a serious leak developed in the main line of a horizontal, looped, fire main system? It would not be possible to prov ide water beyond the point where the break occurred. The ruptured section could be isolated allowing water to be delivered to all other parts of the system. The capability of the system would be greatly reduced due to the drop in line pressure but still remain operational through the use of the alternate loop.
4990
A.
an audible signaling devices
A.
B.
an inflatable bag
B.
C.
a pressure relieving devices
C.
D.
flame arrestors
D.
D If you continue to wear extra clothing when entering the water after abandoning your vessel, it will ____________. weigh you down A. preserve body heat B. reduce your body heat C. make it more difficult to breathe D. Ans: B The purpose of the wire stretched between the lifeboat davit heads 4993 is to ____________. Ans:
4991
A. B. C. D.
A.
prevent vibration during lowering of the boat support the manropes
C.
A. B.
booms
skimmers chemical dispersants Ans: B Combustible gas indicators detect flammable gases, or v apors 4997 present in the atmosphere by an intricate system which includes ____________. C.
D.
A.
burning the vapors
metering the vapors measuring the vapor volume weighing the vapor D. Ans: A Before you initiate the engine room fixed CO2 system to extinguish 4999 a serious fire, you would _____________. start the emergency diesel A. stop the main engine B. evacuate all engine room personnel C. turn off electrical power D. Ans: C Which of the following statements concerning immersion suits is 5001 correct? B.
C.
A. B. C. D.
Ans:
B The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft also serves as a ____________. lifeline A. painter B. drogue C. marker D. Ans: B A tank has been sealed and unventilated for a long period of time. 4994 Which of the following conditions does this indicate? Ans:
4992
keep the movement of the davits at the same speed keep the davits from slipping when they are in the stowed position
D The most common type of containment device for spilled oil on the water is the use of ____________. straw
Ans: 4995
All models will automatically turn an unconscious person face-up in the water. The immersion suit seals in all body heat and provides protection against hypothermia for weeks. The suit will still be serviceable after a brief (2-6 seconds) exposure to flame and burning. The wearer of the suit is no way restricted in body movement and the suit may be donned well in advance of abandoning ship. C
Full fire main pressure could be maintained but only on one side of the vessel through the use of either the fore or aft isolation valve.
B.
D. Ans: 4996 A.
The tank is safe to enter. The tank is especially dangerous to enter. Carbon monoxide is present. Water vapor present when the tank was sealed has oxidized. B Which of the following signals is used to report for boat stations or boat drill? More than six short blasts followed by one long blast of the whistle.
A continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds. One long blast followed by three short blasts of the whistle. C. Three short blasts of the whistle. D. Ans: A How may a cargo tank atmosphere be tested for explosive gases? 4998 B.
Use the open flame test on a small sample that has been taken from the tank. Send a gas sample ashore for laboratory analysis. B. Enter the tank with a teledyne oxygen analyzer. C. Use an explosimeter. D. Ans: D After having thrown the liferaft and stowage container into the water, 5000 the liferaft is inflated by ____________. pulling on the painter line A. forcing open the container which operates the CO2 B. hitting the hydrostatic release C. using the hand pump provided D. Ans: A Persons who have swallowed a non-petroleum based poison are 5002 given large quantities of warm, soapy water or warm s alt water to ____________. A.
A.
induce vomiting
B.
absorb the poison from the blood
C.
neutralize the poison in the blood
D.
increase the digestive process and eliminate the poison
Ans:
A
Page 282
In cleaning up an oil spill, the use of chemical agents would ____________. absorb the oil for easy removal A. remove the oil from the water B. disperse or dissolve the oil in the water C. not affect the oil D. Ans: C A raft should be manually released from its cradle by 5005 ____________. cutting the straps that enclose the container A. removing the rubber sealing strip from the container B. loosening the turnbuckle on the securing s trap C. pushing the button on the hydrostatic release D. Ans: D Which of the following best defines First A id? 5007
5004
Medical treatment of internal injuries Setting of broken bones and transport of victim Emergency treatment of the injury at the scene. C. Dosage of medications and application of bandages D. Ans: C While at your lifeboat station, a signal consisting of two short blasts 5009 of the ship's whistle is sounded. This indicates _______.
Explosion point Flash point Fire point C. Danger point D. Ans: B Which of the following statements concerning immersion suits is 5010 FALSE?
5003
A. B.
If fuel is burned from only the starboard tanks, the ship will _____________. go down by the head A. list to starboard B. trim by the stern C. list to port D. Ans: D A fire in a pile of canvas would be classified as a ______. 5006 class A class B class C C. class D D. Ans: A Which of the following terms is the minimum temperature at which a 5008 liquid, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), gives off sufficient vapor concentration to ignite in the presence of an ignition source? A. B.
A. B.
A.
abandon ship
A.
B.
commence lowering boats
B.
C.
stop lowering boats
C.
D.
secure from boat stations
Ans:
C To launch a liferaft by hand, you should ____________.
A.
cut the casing bands, throw the liferaft over the side and it will then inflate
5011
detach the operating cord, throw the raft ov er the side and it will then inflate cut the casing bands, throw the raft over the side and pull the C. operating cord throw the liferaft over the side and pull the operating cord D. Ans: D A liquid, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) having a 5013 flash point at or above 100‚F is called a/an ____________.
A small leak of water into the suit will destroy the protective qualities against hypothermia. Ans: D A fire involving trash and paper waste would be classified as a 5012 _______. class A A. D.
B.
explosive liquid combustible liquid flammable liquid C. viscous liquid D. Ans: B When should distress flares and rockets be used? 5015 A. B.
Only when there is a chance of them being sighted by rescue vessels. They should be set off at half-hour intervals. B. They should be set off at one-hour intervals. C. Immediately upon abandoning the vessel. D. Ans: A Burning wood is considered to be which of the listed classes of fire? 5017 A.
Class A Class B Class C C. Class D D. Ans: A
They should be worn while working on deck if the possibility exists of being washed overboard. The suit is received from the manufacturer in a bag intended to be used for storage of the suit onboard ship. During the annual inspection and maintenance, the zipper should be lubricated with beeswax or paraffin.
B.
class B
C.
class C
D. Ans: 5014
class D A If an emergency pump control is used as the emergency shutdown on a tank vessel, it must stop the flow of oil through __________.
the main deck manifold the facility the pump C. a means that is not dependant on electrical power D. Ans: C Physical data on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) which 5016 describes chemicals that produce health effects requiring medical attention where damage may be permanent but is neither lifethreatening nor seriously disabling, is called ________. A. B.
A.
moderate exposure level
high toxicity high exposure level moderate toxicity D. Ans: D A specific document identifies a chemical, listing its physical 5018 properties, health hazards, required controls, firefighting procedures, clean up methods, waste disposal, and the safe handling and storage requirements. This document is a ____________. B.
C.
Hazardous Chemical Information Sheet Physical/Chemical Characteristics Document Material Safety Data Sheet C. Hazardous Chemical Loading Document D. Ans: C
A.
A.
B.
B.
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Epilepsy is a chronic nervous disorder characterized by ______________.
5019
Which of the following statements describes the correct method to use when applying CO2 from a portable fire extinguisher?
5020
A.
C.
severe nausea and cramps muscular convulsions with partial or complete loss of consciousness sudden thirst and craving for candy
D.
severe agitation and desire to get out of close spaces
D.
A. B.
Ans: 5021
B When using a handheld smoke signal in a lifeboat, you should ____________.
activate the signal on the downwind side activate the signal on the upwind side activate the signal inside the boat C. activate the signal at the stern D. Ans: A As a vessel sinks to a depth of 5 metres, the hydrostatic trip 5023 releases the liferaft container from its cradle by ____________. A. B.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5025 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5027
B Prior to lowering the lifeboat, the most important item to check is the ____________. oars sail boat plug life preservers C A combustible gas indicator is used to determine __________.
Bounce the CO2 off the bulkhead. Apply CO2 to the base of the flames in a sweeping motion.
C.
Apply the CO2 to the center of the flames with a beating motion.
Ans: 5022
Direct the CO2 in as near a vertical upward direction as possible. B A chemical material, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) that supplies oxygen required to start or support fire is called a/an ____________.
irritant polymerization hazard oxidizer C. toxin D. Ans: C Which of the statements listed is accurate concerning fires involving 5024 carbon tetrachloride? A. B.
breaking the weak link releasing the tie-down strap pulling the operating cord releasing the CO2 canister
B.
A. B.
It will explode if exposed to a flame. Phosgene gas may be formed if it comes in c ontact with hot metal.
It will burn rapidly once ignited. You cannot use water to fight the fire because it will react with the carbon tetrachloride. Ans: B While providing assistance to a victim of an epileptic seizure, it is 5026 most important to ____________. move a patient to a comfortable bed A. get professional medical advice for further medical care B. keep the patient awake and make him walk if necessary to keep C. him awake C.
D.
D. Ans: 5028
remove any soiled clothing and put the patient in a clean bed B Which of the following visual distress s ignals is acceptable for daylight use only?
if there is sufficient oxygen to support life the toxicity of flammable gases or v apors the amount of CO2 present in flue gas C. the presence of flammable gases or vapors in the air D. Ans: D Your vessel is taking on fuel oil when a small leak develops in the 5029 hose and you have ordered the pumping stopped. Before resuming pumping you should ____________.
Handheld red flare Self-contained rocket propelled parachute red flare Orange smoke signal C. Red aerial pyrotechnic flare D. Ans: C What is the purpose of the liferaft hydrostatic release? 5030
notify the terminal superintendent place a large drip pan under the leak and plug the scuppers repair the hose with a patch C. replace the hose D. Ans: D According to Regulations , grinders orcomminutors used for the 5031 discharge of garbage between 3 and12 nautical miles from the nearest land must be ________.
To release raft from the cradle automatically as the ship sinks To inflate the raft automatically To test rafts hydrostatically C. None of the above D. Ans: A Material listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) referring to 5032 more than one chemical is called a _____________.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B. C.
A. B.
A. B.
provided with flush back capabilities insuring the passage of all ground particles through a final control element provided on all vessels that may operate on the Great Lakes and shall discharge under the highest load line of the vessel capable of reducing the size of garbage so that it will pass through a screen with openings no greater than 25 millimeters
capable of processing all garbage generated onboard the vessel including all deck and engine department refuse Ans: C While loading bulk oil, you notice oil on the water near the barge. 5033 Which of the following actions should you carry out FIRST? D.
Search the vessel for leaks Notify terminal superintendent Stop loading C. Notify the Port authorities D. Ans: C When a patient is suspected of having appendicitis, the primary 5035 action is to ____________. A. B.
A.
mixture
B.
combination
C.
multi-material
D.
toxin
Ans: 5034
A Before entering a fuel tank that has been cleaned, it should be checked with an oxygen indicator and a/an ______________.
Orsat apparatus flame safety lamp Halide torch C. combustible gas indicator D. Ans: D The upper explosive limit (UEL) of a mixture of flammable vapors 5036 and air is defined as _____________. A. B.
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A.
give patient a laxative to relieve pain
B. C.
give patient morphine sulfate to relieve pain evacuate patient to a hospital
D.
give patient aspirin with a glass of water
Ans:
C Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which of the following statements is c orrect should the boat be enveloped in flames?
A.
The ventilators will automatically close by the action of fusible links.
5037
The diesel engine will take its air supply from outside the lifeboat to prevent asphyxiation of the crew. A water spay system to cool the outside of the boat is operated by C. a high-volume manual pump. A pressurized air tank will provide approximately ten minutes of air D. for the survivors and the diesel engine. Ans: D Most totally enclosed lifeboats are equipped with _________. 5039
that concentration above which there is just enough flammable vapor to produce an explosion that concentration above which the mixture is too rich to burn B. the percentage of flammable vapor by volume in air sufficient to C. create an explosion the percentage of oxygen present in the air sufficient to support D. combustion Ans: B Victual waste is __________. 5038 A.
B.
A.
the final discharge of sewage treatment plants
B.
any garbage that comes from food or food provisions
C.
the resultant sludge that is collected after waterwashing a boiler
D.
the final waste product of a manufacturing process
Ans: 5040
B According to Regulations , which of the following statements is accurate concerning the discharge of garbage?
A.
tanks for the storage of drinking water
A.
B.
ballast tanks to prevent the boat from capsizing
B.
C.
buoyant oars and paddles
C.
The discharge of all garbage is prohibited in the navigable inland waters and in all other waters within three nautical miles of the nearest land.
D.
auxiliary mechanical propulsion (Fleming gear) C Which of the devices listed will prevent an inflated liferaft from being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 35mtr deep?
D.
All of the above are correct. C If you detect oil in the water around your vessel while discharging fuel, the FIRST thing to do is ____________.
Ans: 5041
The hydrostatic release A shear pin A rottmer release C. A weak link in the painter D. Ans: D Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire 5043 by __________. A. B.
B.
removing the fuel removing the heat
C.
interrupting the chain reaction
A.
removing the oxygen A When the height of the metacenter is less than the heightof the 5045 center of gravity, a v essel has what type ofstability? Stable A. Neutral B. Negative C. Positive D. Ans: C If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution 5047 hazard during fuel transfer operations, which of the following actions should be taken FIRST? D.
Ans:
Ans: 5042
The discharge of plastic or garbage m ixed with plastic into any waters is permitted. The discharge of dunnage, lining, and packing materials that do not float is prohibited within 25 nautical miles of the nearest land.
try to find out where the oil is coming from call the Master have the pumpman check the discharge piping C. shutdown operations D. Ans: D A patient suffering from heat exhaustion should first be 5044 ______________. A. B.
A. B.
placed in a sitting position with the head lowered to the k nees kept standing and encouraged to walk s lowly and continuously
given a glass of water and told to return to work after 15 minutes of rest directed to move to a cool space unass isted D. Ans: D If the metacentric height is small, a floating ship will 5046 _______________. be tender A. have a quick and rapid motion B. be stiff C. yaw D. Ans: A A patient suffering from heat exhaustion should first be 5048 ______________. C.
A.
Close the valves at the transfer manifold.
A.
given a mild seawater solution to drink to replace salt and fluids
B.
Notify the person in charge of the shore facility.
B.
kept standing and encouraged to walk s lowly and continuously
C.
Shut down the transfer operation.
D.
Sound the fire alarm. C The symptoms of a fractured back are ____________.
Ans: 5049
A. B. C. D.
given a glass of water and told to return to work after 15 minutes of rest moved to a cool room and told to lie down D. Ans: D To fight a large class "A" fire contained in a closed compartment, 5050 the nozzleman should open a door enough to insert the hose nozzle and initially ____________. C.
leg cramps in the muscles in one or both legs pain and uncontrolled jerking of the legs and arms
A.
vomiting and involuntary urination or bowel movement pain at the site of the fracture and possible numbness or paralysis below the injury
C.
B.
D.
sweep a straight stream around the compartment hold the nozzle steady while applying a straight stream in the area where he suspects the source of the fire to be sweep a fog stream around the compartment hold the nozzle steady and direct a fog stream in the area where he suspects the fire
Page 285
Ans: 5051 A. B.
D Which statement regarding garbage disposal is correct? Records for ground garbage disposal are not required when disposal into the sea occurs more than 25 miles offshore. Discharging or transfer of garbage while in port to a shore facility must be recorded.
Maintaining records for the incineration of garbage aboard ship is not required. The recording of garbage disposal should include the approximate D. weight. Ans: B How much warning must be provided by the CO2 warning alarm 5053 before CO2 is discharged into a space? 5 seconds A. 10 seconds B. 15 seconds C. 20 seconds D. Ans: D You can find the location of your abandon ship post by checking 5055 the _________________. vessel's logbook A. vessel's documentation B. muster list C. Certificate of Inspection D. Ans: C When administering first aid you should av oid ____________. 5057 C.
any conversation with the patient instructing bystanders unnecessary haste and appearance of uncertainty C. touching the patient D. Ans: C Normal mouth temperature is ________________. 5059 A. B.
Ans: 5052 A.
C When dumping garbage into the sea, other than special areas, __________. the Port State Control must be notified for each occurence
B.
records must be prov ided and maintained for two years
C.
an entry into the official log book must be made
no record is required if dumping is carried out more than 25 miles offshore and there is no included plastic material Ans: B CO2 extinguishes a fire by __________. 5054 D.
a blanket of bubbles formed on the surface of the fire smothering cooling C. isolating the heat from the fuel D. Ans: B The lights on the outside of the canopy of an inflatable liferaft 5056 operate ____________. by turning the globe clockwise A. by a switch at each light B. by a light sensor C. automatically when the raft is inflated D. Ans: D The best extinguishing agent for fighting a burning mattress fire is 5058 the use of _____________. carbon dioxide A. water in a solid stream B. foam C. dry chemical D. Ans: B Which of the following fire extinguishing agents is best suited for 5060 use on a large class "B" fire occurring on the open deck of a vessel? A. B.
96.4°F 97.5°F 98.6°F C. 99.7°F D. Ans: C The sorting of accident victims according to the severity of their 5061 injuries is called ____________.
CO2 Aqueous film forming foam Dry chemical C. Steam smothering system D. Ans: B In each inflatable raft, what piece of equipment is provided to make 5062 quick, emergency, temporary repairs to a cut, or rip in a raft?
evaluation triage surveying C. prioritizing D. Ans: B The tendency of a ship to resist a change in trim is 5063 _______________.
There is no equipment provided Glue and rubber patches Several various-sized repair clamps C. Self-adhesive rubberized canvas patches D. Ans: C You are wearing a self-contained breathing apparatus while fighting 5064 a fire in an enclosed space. If sudden strong resistance to breathing is experienced, your first action should be to ____________.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A.
the righting arm couple
A.
tug twice on your lifeline and slow your breathing until help arrives
B.
longitudinal stability metacentric height
B.
C.
retreat immediately to outside air take a deep breath and remove your apparatus for adjustment
D.
transverse inclination
Ans: 5065
B The addition of weight at the longitudinal center of flotation will ____________.
increase the forward draft and decrease the after draft decrease the forward draft and increase the after draft have no effect on the trim C. have no effect on the stability D. Ans: C The low velocity fog applicator used in conj unction with the all5067 purpose firefighting nozzle, should always be _____________. A. B.
A. B.
stored in the rack when not in actual use attached to the nozzle by the chain
C.
give two or three strong exhalations to increase the flow through the apparatus Ans: B When you are wearing a self-contained breathing apparatus, you 5066 should immediately return to fresh air if you feel _____________. D.
heat in the canister or hose excess air flow in the mask two pulls on the safety line C. nauseous, dizziness or high breathing resistance D. Ans: D What should you do when the alarm bell on a self-contained 5068 breathing apparatus sounds? A. B.
A. B.
Immediately evacuate the contaminated area. Open the bypass valve on the regulator and immediately evacuate the contaminated area.
Page 286
C.
coated with heavy grease to prevent corrosion
C.
Move the reserve lever to the "reserve" position on the regulator and reset the alarm so you can evac uate the area when it sounds again.
D.
left in place in the all-purpose nozzle
D.
Move the tank selector lever to the full tank position and reset the alarm so you can evacuate the area when it sounds again.
Ans: 5069
A.
A Which of the following statements is c orrect regarding the fog applicators used in conjunction with the combination nozzle?
Ans: 5070
All cargo and miscellaneous vessels must be equipped with high velocity fog applicators for use with the required combination nozzle at each station.
A While wearing a self-contained breathing apparatus, the user must be aware of the bulkiness of the unit in order to avoid confined spaces. Of what other limitations should the user be aware?
A.
The weight of the unit changes the user's center of gravity.
B.
In machinery spaces, the applicators should be 3 to 4 mtrs. in length to insure all portions of the bilge can be effectively reached.
B.
The lens of the facepiece reduces the user's peripheral vision.
C.
On container ships, an applicator termed a bayonet or piercing type utilizes a sharp tip for cutting and penetrating the metal skin of a container.
C.
The attached lifeline limits the user's mobility.
D. Ans: 5071 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5073
All of the above. C Hazardous conditions exist which may result in spontaneous combustion when ____________. oil soaked rags are stowed in the machine shop powdered aluminum is stowed dry dry metal turnings accumulate all of the above A When it is necessary to remove a victim from a life threatening situation, the person giving first aid must ____________.
pull the victim by the feet avoid subjecting the victim to any unnecessary disturbance during movement not move the victim to a another location until all injuries have been C. assessed place the victim on a stretcher before attempting removal D. Ans: B To safely enter a closed compartment, where CO2 has been 5075 released from a fixed extinguishing system, you should _____________.
All of the above. D A person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries 5072 should ___________. be examined then walked to a bunk A. be assisted in walking around B. not be allowed to lie down where injured but moved to a chair or C. bunk not be moved but made comfortable until medical assistance D. arrives Ans: D The longer an oil fire is permitted to burn, the __________. 5074 D.
Ans:
A.
A.
B.
B.
harder it is to extinguish easier it is to extinguish
C.
less chance there is of reignition
D. Ans: 5076
test the air with an Orsat apparatus wear a self-contained breathing apparatus
A.
B. C.
wear a canister type gas mask
C.
D.
test the air with an explosimeter
D.
A.
B Which of the devices listed would be safe to use in a compartment with insufficient oxygen? Cascaded air tanks. A. Self-contained breathing appratus. B. Canister type mask. C. Dust or gas mask. D. Ans: B Antiseptics are used principally to ___________. 5079 Ans:
5077
speed healing prevent infection reduce inflammation C. increase blood circulation D. Ans: B A person on a fixed or floating platform engaged in oil exploration 5081 MAY discharge food waste into the sea when the distance from the nearest land is at least ____________. A. B.
3 nautical miles 5 nautical miles 12 nautical miles C. 25 nautical miles D. Ans: C Before inserting a low velocity fog applicator into an all-purpose 5083 combination nozzle, you must _____________. A. B.
B.
easier it is to control A First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds is to _________.
stop the bleeding, clean, medicate, and cover the wound lay the patient down and cover the wound when the bleeding stops apply an ice pack to the wound and cover it when the bleeding stops apply a hot towel to purge the wound, then medicate and cover it
A Which of the following statements is true c oncerning a low velocity fog tip? It is usually kept in the nozzle when stowed. A. It sprays large droplets. B. It is chained to the combination nozzle. C. It sprays a fine mist. D. Ans: D The air spaces in the floor of an inflatable liferaft will provide 5080 protection against ____________. asphyxiation from CO2 A. loss of air in the sides of the raft B. rough seas C. cold water temperatures D. Ans: D When giving first aid, you should understand how to conduct 5082 primary and secondary surveys in addition to __________. Ans:
5078
which medications to prescribe how to diagnose an illness from s ymptoms the limits of your capabilities C. how to set broken bones D. Ans: C A squeeze-grip type carbon dixide portable fire extinguisher has 5084 been partially discharged. It should be ____________. A. B.
Page 287
A. B. C. D.
tighten the high velocity fog tip put the control handle in the solid steam position
A.
put the control handle in the fog position remove the high velocity fog tip
C.
D By definition, an example of a combustible liquid is ______________. lube oil A. gasoline B. butane C. benzene D. Ans: A To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should 5087 __________. remove combustibiles from direct exposure A. cool the bulkhead around the fire B. close all openings to the area C. shut off electrical power D. Ans: C The chief source of spontaneous combustion aboard tankers is 5089 _____________. JP4 cargo A. gasoline cargo B. kerosene cargo C.
B.
D.
Ans:
5085
D. Ans: 5091
oil soaked rags or rubbish D You have just extinguished an oil fire on the floor plates of the engine room with a portable CO2 extinguisher. Which of the listed dangers should you now be preparing to handle?
Ans: 5086
replaced in its proper location reguardless of weight replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than 15% labled empty and recharged as soon as possible replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than 25% C The canopy of your liferaft should ____________.
go into place as the raft is inflated be put up after everyone is aboard be put up only in severe weather C. be used as a sail if the wind is blowing D. Ans: A The term "discharge", as it applies to the pollution regulations, 5088 means ____________. spilling A. leaking B. dumping C. all of the above D. Ans: D Fire prevention during welding or burning aboard any vessel should 5090 include _____________. posting a fire watch in the immediate area A. providing an extinguisher which is ready for immediate use B. requiring the fire watch to remain on post for 30 minutes after the C. completion of welding or burning All of the above. D. Ans: D The vapors given off by heated fuel oil are heavier than air and are 5092 _____________. A. B.
Reflashing of the fire. Sudden stoppage of the m ain engine. Complete lack of oxygen in the engine room. C. Chemical reaction of the CO2 and oil forming carbonic acid. D. Ans: A In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator 5093 must FIRST ___________. open the discharge valve A. remove the locking pin B. invert the CO2 extinguisher C. squeeze the two trigger handles together D. Ans: B You are along and administering CPR to an adult victim. How many 5095 chest compressions and how many inflations should you administer in each sequence?
odorless explosive nontoxic C. visible D. Ans: B A person reports to you with a fishook in his thumb. To remove it 5094 you should _________. have a surgen remove it A. pull it out with pliers B. cut the skin from around the hook C. push the barb through, cut it off, then remove the hook D. Ans: D Which of the following procedures reduces the possibility of an 5096 interior ventilation duct fire from rapidly spreading?
5 compressions then 1 inflation 15 compressions than 2 inflations 20 compressions then 3 inflations C. 30 compressions then 4 inflations D. Ans: B Which of the following statements is true concerning Bunker "C" 5097 vapors?
Having a portable CO2 ready at each duct opening. Keeping the duct interior clean. Having a fire hose charged at each duct opening. C. Keeping the duct exterior clean. D. Ans: B You have just abandoned ship and boarded a liferaft. After the raft 5098 is completely inflated you hear a whistling noise coming from a safety valve. You should ____________.
A. B.
A. B.
They can not be ignited by a spark unless the v apors are in a confined space. They are nontoxic in all concentrations. B. They can not be ignited by a spark unless vapors are at their C. autoignition temperature. They are heavier than air. D. Ans: D The lifeline which is part of a fireman's outfit must be ___________. 5099
A. B.
A. B.
A.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5101
A. B. C.
collapse of the raft due to cold temperatures asphyxiation due to keeping the canopy closed hypothermia caused by cold temperature
not become alarmed unless it continues for a long period of time
B.
plug the safety valve unscrew the deflation plugs
C. D. Ans: 5100
made of steel or bronze wire rope corrosion resistant not less than 16mtrs in length All of the above D You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitutes, the greatest danger is ___________.
A.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5102
A. B. C.
remove the safety valve and replace it with a soft patch A A hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher is effective on burning oil only _____________. if applied promptly if applied in connection with foam to prevent rekindling if attempts to extinguish the fire with low velocity fog have failed A You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure(s) should be used during a prolonged peroid in a raft? Wet clothes during the day to decrease perpiration. Get plenty of rest. Keep the entrance curtins open.
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D. Ans: 5103
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5105 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5107 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5109 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5111 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5113 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5115 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5117 A.
The hydrostatic release A shear pin A rottmer release A weak link in the painter D When approaching a fire from windward, you should shield firefighters from the fire by using _____________. low-verlocity fog high-velocity fog a straight stream of water foam spray A Which of the listed fire extinguishing agent combinations is the best for simultaneous use on a large oil fire? A solid stream of water in conjunction with CO2. Water fog used in conjunction with foam. CO2 applied in conjunction with foam. CO2 applied in conjunction with dry chemical. B On a tanker, the most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur would be ____________. in the midships house at the main deck manifold at the vent header in the pumproom D When abandoning ship in an emergency situation, you should _____________. jump off feet first from the windward side dive head first from the bridge dive head first from the main deck follow directly behind another person on the leeward side A A large oil fire on the weather deck of a ship can be effectively fought using _____________. dry chemical soda acid foam high velocity fog C Which of the following statements is true concerning an inflatable liferaft? The floor may be inflated for insulation from cold water. Crew members can j ump into the raft without damaging it. The raft may be boarded before it is fully inflated. All of the above. D Fires resulting from escaping liquefied flammable gases are generally extinguished by _____________. cooling below the ignition point
D. Ans: 5104
Apply a copression bandage. Use temporary stitches of sail twin. Wrap a tight bandage around the wound. C. Apply butterfly strips, then a sterile dressing. D. Ans: D The best method of extingquishing a class A fire is to 5106 _____________. remove oxygen from the area A. smother fire with foam B. smother fire with CO2 C. cool fuel below igition temperature D. Ans: D The rate of expansion of heated fuel oil is _____________. 5108 B.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5110 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5112 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5114 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5116 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5118 A.
cutting off the oxygen supply
B.
C.
stopping the flow of gas
C.
D.
interrupting the chemical chain reaction
D.
Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
C If a fire occurs in the fireroom as a result of fuel oil leaking from the boiler fuel oil manifold, the FIRST action taken should be to _____________.
Ans: 5120
pressurize the fire main activate the CO2 system secure the fuel supply sound the general alarm C If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after abandoning ship in a lifeboat, you should ____________.
All of the above. D A crewmember has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not bleeding excessively. What can be done as an alternative to suturing to close the wound?
A.
B.
5119
5121
starvation C Which of the devices listed will prevent an inflated liferaft from being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 100 feet (30.48 m) deep?
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5122
approximately 1% for each 13.9°C(25°F) temperature rise calculated in British Thermal Units measured by weight also called absolute viscosity A If you see an individual fall overboard, you should ______________. throw them a life ring hail "Man overboard" pass the word to the bridge all of the above D The rate of expansion of heated fuel oil v aries with the _____________. conductivity viscosity volume specific gravity D The greatest danger in cold temperatures, when at sea in an inflatable liferaft is ____________. asphyxiation due to keeping the canopy closed hypothermia caused by the cold temperature collapsing of the raft due to the cold temperature starvation B Which of the gases listed is the poisonous gas m ost likely to be found in a closed compartment involved in a fire? Nitrogen Hydrogen Carbon dioxide Carbon monoxide D A class "B" fire develops on the weatherdeck amidships of moored tank vessel. The fire party should man the _______. leeward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while applying a solid stream of water to wash residual fuel over the side away from the pier leeward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while applying water fog to protect the monitor operator windward monitor and direct the foam onto a v ertical surface while applying water fog to the fire windward monitor and direct the foam onto a v ertical surface while standing by with a charged hose to protect the monitor operator with water fog if needed D If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should ____________. remain in the immediate vicinity head for the nearest land head for the closest s ea-lanes vote on what to do, so all hands will have a part in the decision A The four basic components of a fire are chain reaction, heat, fuel, and _____________.
Page 289
go in one direction until the fuel runs out plot course for the nearest land plot a course for the nearest sea lane C. shut down the engines and set the sea anchor D. Ans: D When fighting a spreading fire resulting from a broken fuel line, you 5123 should FIRST _____________. look for a CO2 extinguisher A. use a soda acid extinguisher B. shut off the fuel supply C. smother the fire with rags D. Ans: C The highest concentration of a harmful substance to which a 5125 person may be exposed without danger to health, is termed the ____________.
carbon monoxide oxygen carbon dioxide C. any gaseous substance D. Ans: B When lowering lifeboats as the vessel is pitching in heavy seas, a 5124 good practice is to rig frapping lines ____________. on only the forward falls A. on only the after falls B. fore and aft with a lead of about 45‚ to the boat C. from the falls to the tricing gear D. Ans: C The rekindling of a fire can occ ur when a fire, extinguished by 5126 smothering, is resupplied with oxygen. Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed, when properly used on an oil fire, will prevent rekindling?
odor threshold threshold limit value vapor pressure C. tolerance point D. Ans: B The volatility of a liquid is the tendency of a liquid to 5127 _____________. ignite A. explode B. asphyxiate C. vaporize D. Ans: D Vessel bilge keels are designed primarily to ____________. 5129
Low velocity fog High velocity fog Chemical foam C. Dry chemical D. Ans: C Lines passed around the falls to hold the boat into the vessel while 5128 boarding passengers are called ____________. lifelines A. frapping lines B. tricing lines C. tripping lines D. Ans: B Which of the following emergency signals are used to report for 5130 boat stations or boat drills? Three short blasts of the whistle along with the same signal on the A. general alarm bells. More than six short blasts and one long blast of the whistle, along B. with the same signal on the general alarm bells. Steady rapid ringing of the ship's bell for at least 10 seconds, along C. with the same signal on the general alarm bells.
A. B.
A. B.
A.
assist in reducing rolling
B.
improve vessel steering response
C.
reinforce the bilge knuckle in way of double bottom tanks
D.
provide strengthening of the bilge plating through the mid-body
Ans: 5131
A The No. 3 lifeboat would be ____________.
A.
the forward boat on the starboard side
B.
behind boat No. 1 on the port side
behind boat No. 1 on the starboard side behind boat No. 2 on the port side Ans: C If you hear more than six short blasts, followed by one long blast on 5133 the whistle, and supplemented by the same signal on the general alarm, you should _____________. C.
D.
A. B.
A. B.
Less than five short blasts and one long blast of the whistle, along with the same signal on the general alarm bells. Ans: B To extinguish a fire in an unruptured cargo tank, you should FIRST 5132 _____________. cool nearby decks, bulkheads and, equipment with high velocity A. fog shut off the air supply by closing tank tops, ullage plugs, P.V. B. valves, and other openings activate the fixed CO2 system C. activate the portable CO2 system D. Ans: B All personnel should be familiar with the lifeboats ____________. 5134 D.
start the fire pump go to your man overboard station go to your lifeboat station C. stand by for collision D. Ans: C When combating a major electrical fire at sea, the main 5135 consideration is _____________. reducing the possibility of electrical shock to personnel A. preventing a total loss of electrical power B. preventing saltwater damage to electrical equipment C. eliminating the toxic fumes from burning insulation D. Ans: A If the diesel fuel vapors present are within the flammable range 5137 _____________.
boarding and operating procedures maintenance schedule navigational systems C. fuel consumption rates D. Ans: A By definition, an example of a flammable liquid is ________. 5136
the vapor air mixture is too rich to burn an explosion may occur if a source of ignition is present the vapor air mixture is too lean to burn C. the upper explosive limit has been exceeded D. Ans: B When combating a class C fire, which of the following dangers may 5139 be present? Flooding of the vessel A. Increased surface area of the burning fluid B.
secure the fuel manifold shut off power to the pump shut off the power ventilation C. spray water on the fire D. Ans: B The most important property of any extinguishing agent used in 5140 fighting class "C" fires is the agent's _____________. cooling capacity A. ability to suppress rekindling B.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
kerosene gasoline caustic potash C. animal and vegetable oils D. Ans: B You are transferring fuel from the storage tanks to the day tanks by 5138 means of an electric fuel oil transfer pump. If the pump m otor catches fire, you would FIRST ___________. A. B.
A. B.
Page 290
Water damage to machinery not involved in the fire Toxic fumes from burning insulation Ans: D The center of volume of the immersed portion of the vessel is the 5141 ____________.
nonconducting property lack of fumes Ans: C The most important characteristic of a fire extinguishing agent to be 5142 used on electrical fires is for the agent to be _____________.
center of flotation metacentric height center of buoyancy C. center of gravity D. Ans: C If a fire broke out in an automation console, you would first secure 5143 the power and then proceed to use which of the listed hand portable fire extinguishers?
nonconducting flame resistant easily removable C. wet D. Ans: A To extinguish an electrical fire, you should use __________. 5144
Soda acid Dry chemical CO2 C. Foam D. Ans: C Which of the listed fire extinguishers would be most effective to use 5145 on a fire in a small electric motor?
mechanical foam chemical foam carbon dioxide C. soda acid D. Ans: C A continuous sounding of the vessel's whistle, supplemented by a 5146 continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for a period of not less than 10 seconds, is the signal for ____________.
Soda acid Foam CO2 C. Light water D. Ans: C A continuous blast of the ship's whistle for a period of not less than 5147 10 seconds, supplemented by a continuous sounding of the general alarm for a period of not less than 10 seconds, is the _______________.
man overboard boat stations fire stations C. secure from all drills D. Ans: C If you hear a c ontinuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less 5148 than 10 seconds, supplemented by a continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds, you should go to your _____________.
boat stations signal secure from boat stations signal fire alarm signal C. lower lifeboats signal D. Ans: C A class "D" fire would involve the burning of ____________. 5149
boat station fire station man overboard station C. collision station D. Ans: B While in a foreign port, burning and welding repairs are to be carried 5150 out on a section of heating coil located in a tank having last contained a grade "D" product. W hich of the following procedures should be followed when a certified marine chemist is no
C.
D.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
C.
D.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
A.
diesel oil
A.
It is solely the chief engineer's responsibility to ensure all safety precautions are observed, and all entries are to be made in the engine room log.
B.
magnesium
B.
C.
dunnage
C.
The repair work cannot be done at this time due to the lack of the chemist's certificate. Prior to any hot work, an inspection must be made by the senior officer present, and an entry made in the official logbook.
D.
electrical insulation
Ans:
B Excessive free surface occurring in tanks carrying liquid cargo should be avoided in order to _____________.
A.
A.
C.
maintain hog and sag maintain good stability prevent oil pollution
D.
all of the above
D.
5151
B.
B After a fire has been extinguished in a closed space, personnel may safely enter the space when ____________. smoke density has been decreased sufficiently to see the A. bulkhead opposite the compartment's entrance a lifeline and explosion proof flash light are used B. all smoke and toxic fumes are removed and an adequate oxygen C. supply is present overhaul has been completed to remove any possible source of D. reignition Ans: C According to Regulations , pumproom ventilation on a tanker may 5155 be accomplished by _____________. steam or air actuated gas ejectors A. power blowers B.
Repairs should proceed as scheduled since a chemist's certificate is not required for that type of work. Ans: C Servicing of a cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher 5152 aboard ship would include ensuring that the ____________. D.
B. C.
Ans:
5153
Ans: 5154 A.
pressure gage is within the operating range powder is not caked and there is a full charge cartridge weight is not less than 1/4 ounce of weight stamped on cartridge recharge of weight loss exceeds 10% of the weight of charge B Ships are less stable when water or fuel tanks are partially filled because of the ____________. free surface effect
C.
increase in buoyancy decrease in draft
D.
reduction in trim
B.
Ans: 5156 A. B.
A Regulations require electric hand lamps, approved for use in fuel tanks, to be battery powered and _____________. flame resistant explosion proof
Page 291
natural ventilators all of the above Ans: D Vessel stability can be adversely affected by ________. 5157 C.
D.
A.
decreasing the laden draft
increasing the free surface effect ballasting down by the bow ballasting down by the stern D. Ans: B When you hear three short blasts on the ship's whistle and the 5159 same signal on the general alarm bells, you ___________. B.
C.
corrosion resistant moisture proof Ans: B Regulations stipulate that in addition to emergency signals, muster 5158 lists must specify_____________. actions to be taken by persons on board when each signal is A. sounded the order to abandon the vessel B. the duties assigned to different members of the crew C. all of the above D. Ans: D Following an engine room bilge fire, believed to be extinguished, 5160 and properly fought using a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system; the investigating team should reenter the closed space ____________. C.
D.
A.
are required to be at your liferaft
A.
no sooner than 15 minutes after the fire is believed extinguished
B.
are dismissed from drills should point to the man overboard
B.
via the lowest access door via the lowest access door and equipped with SCBA's no sooner than 30 minutes after the fire is believed extinguished
should start the fire pump B To initially combat a fire the ventilation to a compartmentshould be secured to ____________. allow the exhaust fans to remove the smoke lower the carbon monoxide smothering capabilities reduce the amount of available oxygen to the fire
D.
C.
D. Ans: 5161 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5163 A.
protect the fire fighters from smoke C The advantage of using a dry chemical fire extinguishing agent is _____________. permanent extinguishment regardless of the reignition sources
C.
Ans: 5162 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5164 A.
via the highest access door and equipped with SCBA's D An insulating flange should be used in a cargo hose connection instead of a bonding wire _____________. when pumping LNG only when static electricity may be generated when the terminal is equipped with a cathodic protection system during cold weather C Bonding cables are used to reduce the possibility of accidental spark discharge when _____________. transferring flammable liquids to or from a vessel
its excellent cooling ability its good stability and nontoxicity all of the above D. Ans: C Any liquid with a flash point above 26.7°C is a __________. 5165
transferring dry mud to or from a vessel transferring fuel oil from storage to day tanks securing drill pipe on deck D. Ans: A Any liquid which gives off flammable vapors at or below 26.7°C, as 5166 determined by flash point from an open cup tester, describes a _____________.
flammable liquid combustible liquid coal base oil C. synthetic base oil D. Ans: B What is the usual effect of moving weight from the main deck to a 5167 position lower in the vessel? The stability of the vessel is increased. A. The trim of the v essel is changed s ubstantially. B.
flammable liquid combustible liquid nonflammable liquid C. noncombustible liquid D. Ans: A Which of the following statements is true c oncerning Halon 1301 fire 5168 extinguishing equipment? The agent is highly toxic at normal room temperature. A. For portable extinguishers, the agent is only available in a 2½ B. pound unit. Halon extinguishes the fire by smothering action. C. The agent can not be used on electrical fires because it leaves a D. residue. Ans: B Which of the listed effects will occur when an operating diesel 5170 engine ingests Halon 1301?
B.
C.
A. B.
C. D. Ans: 5169
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5171
The stability of the vessel is significantly decreased. The vessel will list in proportion to the volume of the cargo shifted. A Which of the listed conditions will occur to the ship's center of gravity if 200 tons of steel is transferred to the ships cargo hold from shore side? The reserve buoyancy will rise. The center of gravity will remain in the same position. The center of gravity will be lowered. The reserve buoyancy will remain the same. C A vessel's center of gravity is lowered when the __________.
A.
freeboard is increased
B.
tanks are ballasted
reserve buoyancy increases trim is increased Ans: B If deck cargo is carried, it should be stowed so that it 5173 _____________. C.
D.
B.
C.
A. B.
The high engine combustion temperatures liquefy the Halon. The engine absorbs the Halon into its cooling system. The engine decomposes the ingested Halon. C. The engine will stall regardless of how little Halon has been taken in D. through the air intake. Ans: C Each vessel in ocean and coastwise service must have an 5172 approved EPIRB. An EPIRB ____________. must be stowed in a manner so that it will float free if the vessel A. sinks must be stowed where it is readily accessible for testing and use B. A. B.
is a device that transmits a radio signal all of the above Ans: D To operate a carbon dioxide extinguisher having the type of head 5174 shown in the illustration, you would ____________. C.
D.
Page 292
is now higher than 300mm above the deck does not block access to the fire station hydrant will cover no more than 25 percent of deck space C. will be easily visible from the bridge D. Ans: B Prior to entering a compartment containing an atmosphere 5175 potentially dangerous to life or health, you should don an approv ed self-contained breathing apparatus. Which one of the listed dev ices is a self-contained breathing apparatus?
open valve, pull pin, and pull up on release lever pull pin, open valve, and pull up on release lever open valve and pull pin C. pull pin and open valve D. Ans: D A safety "ring pin" is usually inserted in the handle of a CO2 fire 5176 extinguisher to prevent _____________.
A demand-type breathing apparatus A fresh-air breathing apparatus A canister-type gas mask C. All of the above D. Ans: A The knife edges and gaskets of watertight doors should be 5177 _____________. clean and uncoated A. lightly coated with tallow B. coated with petroleum jelly C. painted to prevent weathering D.
the cylinder valve from coming loose the handle from contacting the cylinder contamination of the valve parts C. accidental discharge from the extinguisher D. Ans: D A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher has been partially discharged, 5178 and should be immediately _____________. tagged and restowed properly in its rack A. weighed and the charge loss recorded B. given to the chief engineer for recharging C. tagged "empty" and stowed separately from charged extinguishers D.
A. B.
A. B.
Ans: 5179
A While wearing a demand-type self-contained breathing apparatus the alarm bell begins ringing. Which of the following conditions does this indicate?
A.
There is a 4-5 minute supply of air remaining in the air c ylinder.
B.
There is approximately 35bar (3.5 MPa) of pressure left in the air cylinder. The wearer should immediately leave the contaminated area.
C.
All of the above. D When is it required for carbon dioxide fire extinguishers to be 5181 recharged? At least once each year. A. Each time the vessel drydocks. B. When the charged weight decreases by 10%. C. When the trigger seal has been broken. D. Ans: C If a fixed fire extinguishing system is installed on any vessel, it must 5183 be of a type approved by the _____________. D.
Ans:
A. B.
A. B.
A. B.
Ans:
D You are replacing a section of heavy piping on deck and using a chain fall to lift the pipe. Which of the following precautions should be taken to prevent personal injury?
A.
Position several men under the pipe so they can catch it if it falls.
5180
Attach lines to the ends of the pipe and have your helpers steady the load. Place an old mattress under the hoist to prevent the load from C. hitting the deck. Have a first aid kit at the job s ite. D. Ans: B A flat block placed under the end of a shore for the purpose of 5182 distributing pressure is referred to as a ____________. strong back A. butt piece B. shore foot C. shole D. Ans: D According to Regulations , which of the following statements 5184 concerning fire main shore connections for a 20,000 gross ton cargo vessel on an international voyage is correct? B.
Ship owner
A.
Administration
B.
C.
Class
C.
D.
P & I club B Which of the following pressures represents the normal pressure setting of a pressure-vacuum relief valve?
D.
Ans: 5185 A.
+1bar a,
B.
+2500mm WG,
C.
+1250mmWG
D.
+1bar g 0 bar g D To avoid excessive pressures in the fuel oil filling system during bunkering, you should ____________.
Ans: 5187
- 76cm Hg -750mmWG -300WG
close the tank filling valves quickly top off all tanks at the same time fill completely all tanks to less than 95% full C. reduce the loading rate when topping off D. Ans: D Prior to loading or discharging bulk cargo, all sea valves should be 5189 _____________. A. B.
A. B. C.
secured and lashed secured and locked opened and lashed
Ans: 5186
There must be at least one shore connection to the fire main system on each side of the v essel. Shore connections must be in an accessible location and fitted with cutoff and check valves. There must be at least one portable international shore connection available to each side of the vessel. All of the above. D Fire doors are released by a/an _____________.
hydraulic directional valve that automatically releases the door in the event of a disruption to the control power system spring-loaded catch that automatically lifts to release the door in the B. event of the presence of a fire method that automaticly releases the door in the event of a C. disruption of control system power pneumatic heat sensor D. Ans: C For all loading operations, the terminal must supply the ves sel with 5188 a means in which the vessel's designated person-in-charge may stop the flow of oil to the vessel, insuring immediate shutdown in the event of a hose rupture, tank overflow, etc. This me A.
electrically pneumatically or mechanically via a communications device used for no other purpose C. All of the above. D. Ans: D If a leak in an oil hose coupling cannot be stopped by tightening the 5190 coupling bolts, you should ____________. A. B.
A. B. C.
notify the Master of a potential pollution incident reduce the pumping pressure to reduce the leakage rate spread absorbent material on deck beneath the leak
Page 293
D. Ans: 5191
opened and locked A According to Regulations , each fire hydrant must have at least _____________.
one length of fire hose a spanner wrench a hose rack or other dev ice for stowing hose C. all of the above D. Ans: D A gurgling noise is heard from within a cargo tank when 5193 discharging cargo, this would indicate that the ___________. A. B.
D. Ans: 5192
stop transfer operations and renew the gasket D One precaution to take prior to working in a freshly painted compartment where there are an excessive amount of paint fumes, is to _____________.
take shallow breaths of air ventilate the area wear a breathing apparatus while working C. keep a charged fire hose handy D. Ans: B Which of the listed pumping arrangements will be hazardous when 5194 two similar centrifugal pumps are used to discharge a cargo of flammable liquid? A. B.
A.
tank liquid is too viscous
B.
pump discharge pressure is excessive
C.
pump is sucking air
D.
tank foot valve is partially clogged
Ans:
C If your vessel is to carry ten portable foam fire extinguishers, you must maintain a supply of at least ____________.
Both pumps operating at the same speed and discharging into a common line. Both pumps operating at the same speed and taking suction from a B. common line. Each pump operating at a different speed and taking suction from a C. common line. Each pump operating at a different pressure and discharging into a D. common line. Ans: D A portable foam fire extinguisher carried aboard a tank vessel must 5196 be recharged every _____________.
one spare extinguisher one spare charge five spare charges C. ten spare charges D. Ans: C In order to release CO2 to the machinery spaces from a fixed fire 5197 extinguishing system, you must _____________.
3 months 6 months 9 months C. 12 months D. Ans: D Why is it important for fuel oil tanks not to be topped off at the inner 5198 bottom level when loading on a c old day?
5195
A. B.
A.
A. B.
A.
actuate an alarm and open the engine room control valve
A.
B.
actuate an alarm and open the engine room CO2 releasing valve
B.
open the engine room control valve and shut off engine room ventilation fans open the engine room control valve and then the CO2 releasing D. valve Ans: D If the overflow tank high-level alarm sounds while the fuel oil tanks 5199 are being topped off, the engineer should _____________.
C.
Fueling valve may become stuck closed and cause the fuel oil to spill before the valve can be opened. Ans: C To avoid shock pressures in the fuel oil filling hoses while you are 5200 topping off tanks, the ____________.
close the static leg filling valve close the overflow tank filling valve reduce the fuel oil pumping rate C. stop the fuel oil pumping operation D. Ans: D A cylinder used for storing CO2 in a fixed firefighting system, must 5201 be hydrostatically retested and restamped every _____________.
loading rate should be decreased oiler should sound all tanks continuously hoses should be looped C. tank vent valves should be clear D. Ans: A Which of the following statements is correct concerning fixed 5202 carbon dioxide fire extinguishing systems?
C.
A. B.
A. B.
once in every calendar year
A.
B.
5 years
B.
C.
8 years
C.
D.
12 years D The component in an inert gas system used for cleaning the gas of solid and sulphur combustion products, while simultaneously cooling the inert gas, is called the _____________.
D.
5203
filter cooler scrubber C. purifier D. Ans: C The lengthening of a crack formed in the shell plating of a ship may 5205 be prevented by ________. welding brackets across both ends of the crack A. chipping out and slot welding the entire crack B. A. B.
C.
drilling a hole at each end of the crack
The temperature rise of the fuel will cause an overflow.
D.
A.
Ans:
Increased viscosity of the product needs higher loading pressure, which increases the chances of a spill. Air pockets may cause the fuel to bubble out of the ullage hole.
Ans: 5204
A separate supply of carbon dioxide must be provided for each space protected. The piping shall be used for no other purpose except that it may be incorporated with the fire-detecting system. Distribution piping within the space shall be proportioned from the supply line to give the proper throttling to the outlets. All of the above. B The fire extinguishing action of CO2 comes mostly from _____________.
breaking the fire chemical chain reaction smothering cooling C. isolating the heat from the fuel D. Ans: B A high concentration of hydrogen sulfide gas is most likely to be 5206 found in which of the locations listed? Fireroom bilges where hydrazine has accumulated. A. Sewage compartment bilges where leaked sewage has B. accumulated. Engine room bilges where chemical cleaners and solvents have C. accumulated. A. B.
Page 294
D.
cutting a square notch at each end of the crack
Ans:
C The blowers of an inert gas generation system aboard a tanker, will be automatically secured if _____________.
5207
normal water supply at the water seal is lost the temperature of the inert gas being delivered to the cargo tanks is more than 65°C the cooling water supply to the scrubbers is lost C. all of the above D. Ans: D After allowing for pressure losses, the pressure-volume capacity of 5209 an inert gas blower must be able to maintain a pressure, in any cargo tank, with a minimum of ____________.
Emergency battery storage compartment where discharge gases have accumulated. Ans: B When pumping sour crude, which gas should be tested for prior to 5208 entering the cargo pumproom to repair a leaking pump? D.
A.
A.
B.
B.
50 millimeters of water 100 millimeters of water 150 millimeters of water C. 200 millimeters of water D. Ans: B Flame screens used on ullage openings prevent flames from 5211 entering a tank by _____________. reducing the cross-sectional area of the opening A. restricting the flow of gases through the opening B. creating turbulence in the exiting gas stream C. dissipating heat from the flame into the surrounding metal D. Ans: D When cargo oil tanks are cleaned by crude oil washing while in 5213 port, _____________. provision should be made for a shoreside holding tank or an A. onboard slop tank water should be allowed to settle before discharge overboard B. A. B.
filters should be installed in bilge strainers to absorb oil before discharge overboard the dock supervisor need not be notified before discharging oily D. mixtures overboard Ans: A A fireman's outfit carried onboard cargo vessels, must have a 5215 _____________.
Hydrogen sulfide Tetrathyl lead Ans: C The Pollution Prevention Regulations prohibits draining 5210 ____________. C.
D.
fuel oil burners into buckets oil transfer hoses into buckets fuel oil strainers into the ship's bilges C. lube oil strainers into fixed drip pans D. Ans: C Following a grounding, you can best determine that a SLACK fuel 5212 oil tank has been holed by _____________. sounding the tank A. waiting for the vessel to list B. examining tank boundaries C. checking fuel oil strainers D. Ans: A At the earliest indication of fire aboard your vessel, you must FIRST 5214 _____________. locate the fire A. A. B.
C.
A.
canister-type gas mask
B.
determine which type of fire is burning
C.
sound the alarm
D.
fight the fire
Ans:
C While on watch in the engine room, you hear a continuous sounding of the general alarm. Which of the following actions should you take FIRST?
A.
Secure the burners then proceed to your assigned boat station.
5216
fresh-air breathing apparatus B. self-contained breathing apparatus C. combustible gas indicator D. D. Ans: C Ans: Pollution Prevention Regulations state that no person may transfer 5218 5217 oil to or from a vessel unless _____________. hoses are supported so that couplings have no s train on them A. A. B.
C.
B. C. D.
a sample has been taken from the oil being received an oil containment boom is av ailable for immediate use each part of the transfer system is blown through with air
A As soon as you hear the fire and emergency signal, you should ensure that _____________. the ring buoys are thrown ov erboard A. the engines are stopped B. the fire pumps are started C. everyone is suited in an approved life preserver D. Ans: C The term "oil" as defined in the Pollution Prevention Regulations 5221 means: ____________. Ans:
5219
petroleum in any form animal or vegetable based oil noxious liquid substances designated under Annex II of MARPOL C. 73/78 All of the above D. Ans: A
Benzene Carbon monoxide
Start the fire pump and es tablish flow to the fire main. Open the guardian valve and standby to maneuver. Open the master control valves on the fixed CO2 system. B When the general alarm is sounded continuously, the engine room personnel should _____________. proceed to their man ov erboard stations
start the fire pump put on lifejackets and go to their abandon ship stations secure the propulsion diesel engines and ev acuate the engine D. room Ans: B When fuel tanks are being topped off, the person-in-charge of 5220 bunkering is directly responsible for the _____________. loading rate A. vessel draft readings B. quality of fuel received C. temperature of fuel received D. Ans: A Each inert gas system must be designed to supply the cargo tanks 5222 with a gas, or mixture of gases, that has an oxygen content by volume of ____________. B.
C.
A.
A.
B.
B. C. D. Ans:
5% or less 10% or less 15% or less 20% or less A
Page 295
Each inert gas system must be equipped with the following instruments: oxygen concentration indicator and recorder, pressure indicator and recorder, and temperature indicator. The point of measurement for these instruments must be located ____________.
5223
after the gas regulating valve downstream of the blowers scrubber outlet C. upstream of the liquid filled breaker D. Ans: B Each ship having an inert gas system must have a portable 5225 instruments to measure concentrations of hydrocarbon vapor in inert atmospheres and also to measure ____________. A. B.
nitrogen oxygen carbon dioxide C. water vapor D. Ans: B If fuel tank levels are found to have increased after a grounding, 5227 you should suspect _______________.
To determine that a compartment contains sufficient oxygen to sustain life, you should use a/an _____________.
5224
explosimeter oxygen indicator fresh air indicator C. all of the above D. Ans: B The upper limit of sulphur dioxide permitted to be maintained in the 5226 inert gas should not exceed ___________. A. B.
A.
A.
B.
B.
a damaged pneumercator line a puncture, crack, or hole in the skin of the vess el improper record keeping of fuel transfer activities C. contamination of the contaminated steam supply system D. Ans: B The explosive range of a mixture of flammable vapors is specified 5229 as a percentage of ________. A. B.
A. B.
flammable vapor by volume in air oxygen present to support combustion
the temperature of the flash point the lower limit of explosibility of the mixture Ans: A
0.0008 0.0006 0.0004 0.0002
C. D. Ans: 5228
D Regulations require gears, couplings, flywheels, and all machinery capable of injuring personnel shall be ____________.
protected with adequate covers or guards identified by yellow and black warning signs conspicuously identified as to their particular hazard C. located where they may not be easily contacted D. Ans: A What operational limitation should the user of a self-contained 5230 breathing apparatus be concerned with when using the device? A. B.
A. B.
The weight of the unit changes the user's center of gravity. The lens of the facepiece reduces the user's peripheral vision.
The attached lifeline limits the user's mobility. All of the above are correct. Ans: D
C.
C.
D.
D.
Page 296
ELECTRO - TECHNOLOGY The full torque electric brake on an electric cargo winch functions to _____________.
5231
A. act as a backup brake in the event the mechanical brake should fail B. automatically hold the load as soon as current to the machine is shut off C. automatically govern the lowering speed of the load D. automatically govern the hoisting speed of the load Ans: B An electric tachometer receives the engine speed signal from a 5233 _______________. A. small generator mounted on the engine B. bimetallic sensing device C. stroboscopic sensing device D. vibrating reed meter generating a voltage proportionate to engine speed Ans: A Which of the listed devices may be installed on a large turbo5235 electric alternating current propulsion generator? A. Temperature detector coils inserted in the stator slots for measuring stator temperature. B. A CO2 fire extinguishing system. C. Electric space heaters to prevent c ondensation of moisture. D. All of the above. Ans: D The output voltage of a 440 volt, 60 hertz, AC generator is 5237 controlled by the _____________. A. prime mover speed B. exciter output voltage C. load on the alternator D. number of poles Ans: B The electrolyte used in a nickel-cadmium battery is distilled water 5239 and ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 5241
diluted sulfuric acid potassium hydroxide lead sulfate zinc oxide B While starting a main propulsion synchronous motor, the ammeter pegs out at maximum and then returns to the proper value after synchronization. This indicates the _____________.
A. input impedance much greater than the impedance across which the voltage is being measured B. input impedance much less than the impedance across which the voltage is being measured C. sensitivity of less than 1000 ohms/volt D. sensitivity of more than 1000 volts/ohm Ans: A A semiconductor that decreases in resistance with an increase in 5234 temperature is known as a _____________. A. resistor B. thermistor C. diode D. thermopile
5236
C. slip rings are dirty D. power transmission cables are grounded Ans: A Autotransformer starters or compensators are sometimes usedwith 5243 polyphase induction motors to _____________.
C. extended periods of vibration D. all of the above Ans: D
B. C. D. Ans:
coating the switch box internals with epoxy s ealer venting the switch box regularly using strip heaters inside the switch box D Any electric motor can be constructed to be _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
short proof ground proof explosion proof overload proof C Which of the damages listed can occur to the components of a winch master control switch, if the cover gasket becomes deteriorated?
A. B. C. D. Ans:
Overheating of the winch motor. Contamination of lube oil. Sparking at the winch motor brushes. Rapid corrosion of switch components. D The purpose of a short c ircuit forcing module (short time trip) installed in a branch line is to provide ____________.
5238
5240
5242
A. high speed clearance of low impedance short circuits in the branch B. continuity of service on main bus under short circuit conditions in a branch C. isolation of short circuits by selective tripping of branch circuit breakers D. all of the above Ans: D In an AC synchronous motor electric propulsion plant,propeller 5244 speed is controlled by varying the _____________.
A. reduce the voltage applied to the motor during the starting period B. increase the voltage for "across-the-line starting" C. provide a backup means of voltage regulation for emergency starting D. allow the voltage to be either stepped up or down, depending on the application, to ensure full torque Ans: A Grounds occurring in electrical machinery as a result of insulation 5245 failure may result from _____________. A. deterioration through extended use B. excessive heat
Ans: B Moisture damage, as a result of condensation occurring inside of the cargo winch master switches, can be reducedby __________________. A. installing a light bulb in the pedestal stand
A. motor has started properly B. field windings are grounded
When troubleshooting most electronic circuits, "loading effect" can be minimized by using a voltmeter with a/an ___________________.
5232
A. prime mover speed B. electric coupling field strength C. number of energized main motor poles D. propulsion generator field strength
5246
Ans: A The amount of voltage induced in the windings of an AC generator depends on ____________. A. the number of conductors in series per winding B. the speed at which the magnetic field passes across the winding C. the strength of the magnetic field D. all of the above Ans: D
Page 297
The device that most commonly utilizes the principle of electromagnetic induction is the _____________. A. diode B. transformer C. transistor D. rheostat Ans: B Which of the following statements concerning analog anddigital 5249 devices are correct? A. The variables in digital systems are fixed quantities, and the variables in analog systems are continuous quantities. B. There are no basic differences between the two systems. C. Analog devices are superior in accuracy compared to digital devices. D. Operations in a digital device are performed s imultaneously. Ans: A The current at which a m agnetic-type overload relay tends to trip 5251 may be decreased by raising the plunger further into the magnetic circuit of the relay. This action ___________. 5247
A. reduces magnetic pull on the plunger and requires more current to trip the relay B. reduces magnetic pull on the plunger and requires less current to trip the relay C. increases magnetic pull on the plunger and requires more current to trip the relay D. increases magnetic pull on the plunger and requires less current to trip the relay Ans: D Regarding an AC generator connected to the main electrical bus; 5253 as the electric load and power factor vary, a corresponding change is reflected in the generator armature reaction. These changes in armature reaction are compensated for by the _________ governor speed droop setting voltage regulator balance coil phase-balance relay B Electrical leads and insulation on a motor s hould be painted with 5255 ____________. A. heat-resisting acrylic B. heat-resisting aluminum C. insulating varnish D. insulating white lead Ans: C The alarm system for an engine order telegraph uses small selsyn 5257 motors attached to the indicators. The alarm s oundswhen the rotors are _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A tubular fuse should always be removed from a fuse panel with _____________. A. a screwdriver B. a pair of insulated metal pliers C. any insulated object D. fuse pullers Ans: D The number of cells in a 12 volt lead-acid battery is 5250 ________________. A. three cells 5248
B. four cells C. six cells D. twelve cells Ans: C Protection against sustained overloads occurring in molded-case 5252 circuit breakers is provided by a/an __________. A. overvoltage release B. thermal acting trip C. thermal overload relay D. current overload relay
5254
slip rings and brushes an armature and brushes inductive reaction of the rotating stator field external variable resistors C Voltage generated by most AC generators is fed from the machine 5256 to the bus by means of ____________. A. brushes on a commutator B. brushes on slip rings C. slip rings on a commutator D. direct connections from the stator Ans: D As a general rule, the first troubleshooting action to be taken in 5258 checking faulty electric control devices is to _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. in synchronous position, no current is flowing, and the relays are open B. in synchronous position, no current is flowing, and the relays are closed C. not synchronized, current is flowing, and the relays are open D. not synchronized, current is flowing, and the relays are closed
5259
Ans: D Which of the following statements is c orrect concerning the circuits in a sound powered telephone system?
Ans: B In an induction motor, rotor currents are circulated in therotor by _____________.
A. draw a one line diagram of the circuitry B. test all fuses and measure the line voltage C. take megger readings D. insulate the apparatus from ground
5260
Ans: B The first requirement for logical troubleshooting of any system is the ability to ______________.
A. The ringing circuit is composed of only one common wire to ground.
A. collect all available data on a casualty
B. The common talking circuit is c omposed of two ungrounded wires.
B. recognize normal operation
C. The ringing circuit has two grounded wires connected to each station. D. The talking and calling circuits are electrically dependent upon each other. Ans: B AC circuits possess characteristics of resistance, inductance, and 5261 capacitance. The capacitive reactance of acircuit is expressed in _____________. A. ohms B. mhos C. henrys
C. identify the probable cause of a symptom D. isolate the faulty component
5262
Ans: B A low voltage source is being used for testing armature coils. A coil short circuit will be indicated by a _______. A. high voltage reading, while the other coil readings will have an equal or lower value B. low or zero voltage reading, while the other coils will have higher readings C. fluctuating voltmeter reading, while the other coil readings are steady
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D. farads
5263
Ans: A The electrical energy necessary to transmit a person's voice over a sound-powered telephone circuit is obtained from _____________. dry cell batteries the ship's service switchboard the emergency switchboard the speaker's voice D Which of the listed conditions is an advantage of a PNdiode over a vacuum diode? A. Longer life. B. No warm up time. C. Less delicate. D. All of the above.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5265
Ans: D A shading coil used in an AC magnetic controller, functions to _____________. A. reduce vibration and noise in the contactor B. prevent flux buildup in the operating coil C. eliminate arcing when the contacts close D. energize the operating coil and "pull in" the contacts Ans: A Time delayed or delayed action-type fuses are designed to 5269 _____________. 5267
D. steady voltmeter reading, while the other coil readings are fluctuating Ans: B Which of the listed procedures should be carried out to prevent 5264 moisture damage to electrical apparatus during extended periods of idleness? Fill the motor housing with CO2 to inert the s pace. Strap silica gel around the commutator. Place heat lamps in the motor housings. Cover the equipment with a canv as tarpaulin. C The freezing point of the electrolyte in a fully charged lead-acid 5266 battery will be _____________. A. higher than in a discharged battery B. lower than in a discharged battery C. the same as in a discharged battery D. higher than in a discharged battery, but the specific gravity will be less Ans: B In a cartridge-type fuse, the metal element is c ontained in a 5268 ___________________. A. porcelain window B. thermal cut out C. fiber tube D. flasher device Ans: C Silicon diodes designed for a specific reverse breakdown voltage, 5270 become useful as an electronic power supply voltage regulator, called _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
prevent grounds in branch circuits prevent opens in motor circuits permit momentary overloads without melting guard lighting and electronic circuits C To effectively clean a commutator in good physical condition, you 5271 should use ____________. A. trichloride ethylene B. kerosene C. a canvas wiper D. a commutator stone Ans: C When charging lead-acid batteries, you should reduce the charging 5273 rate as the battery nears its full charge capacity to ______________.
tunnel diodes hot-carrier diodes compensating diodes Zener diodes D What will be the phase angle relationship of a six-pole, three-phase, 5272 rotating field generator? A. 60° B. 120° C. 180° D. 360° Ans: B Ammeters and voltmeters used in sinusoidal AC power 5274 systemsindicate which of the following values of the waveforms measured?
A. prevent excessive gassing and ov erheating B. allow equalization of cell voltages C. reduce lead sulfate deposits D. increase lead peroxide formation Ans: A Since fuse elements are made of zinc or any alloy of tin and lead, 5275 the melting point of the fuse element m ust be _____________.
A. Peak value B. Root-mean-square value C. Average value D. Maximum value Ans: B Which of the following statements correctly applies to transistors? 5276
A. B. C. D. Ans:
5277
A. higher than that of copper B. lower than that of copper
A. NDN and PNP are the two basic types of transistors. B. The three terminals are called the emitter, base, and collector.
C. equal to that of copper D. reached when the conductor it is protecting becomes "white hot."
C. The emitter separates the base and collector. D. The collector separates the emitter and base.
Ans: B Fuses are rated in _____________. A. voltage B. amperage C. interrupting capacity D. all the above
5279
A. B. C. D. Ans:
Ans: D A damper winding is designed as part of a synchronous motor to ____________. A. increase efficiency B. provide starting torque C. provide excitation
Ans: B Which of the following statements comparing transistors and vacuum tubes is correct? A. Both transistors and vacuum tubes have a cathode that must be heated to give off electrons. B. A vacuum tube must have a heated cathode, where transistors do not. C. Neither transistors nor vacuum tubes require heat for electrons to flow. D. The anode of both transistors and vacuum tubes must be heated to give off electrons. Ans: B The type of control circuit that will not permit automatic restarting 5280 after power is restored, following a power failure is called _____________. 5278
A. low voltage protection B. low voltage release C. overload lockout
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D. eliminate slippage Ans: B Which of the following types of motors is often designedfor use in 5281 correcting power factor? Polyphase Wound-rotor Induction Synchronous D The purpose of amortisseur windings in a synchronous motor is to ______________. A. reduce eddy current losses B. produce a higher power factor C. provide a means for starting
D. reduced voltage restart Ans: A Electric cables are formed of s tranded wire to ____________. 5282
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5283
D. eliminate arcing between the stator and the rotor
5285
Ans: C High vacuum diodes, gas-filled diodes, and germanium semiconductor diodes may all be used as _____________. A. B. C. D.
5287
5284
D. specific gravity of all cells reaches the correct value and no longer increases over a period of 1 to 4 hours Ans: D Local action in a dry-cell, or lead-acid storage battery is the process 5286 whereby ________________.
potentiometers rectifiers power sources photocells
Ans: B Large cable sizes are formed as individual conductors that may be comprised of several smaller strands to __________.
A. B. C. D.
5288
A. obtain the flexibility required for easy handling B. reduce the overall weight of the wire run C. reduce the number of supports needed for a horizontal overhead run D. all of the above Ans: A A hydrometer indicates specific gravity by comparing the 5289 _____________. A. density of a substance in water with the density of the same substance in air B. differences in weight between water and the liquid measured
Ans: D A common type of protective covering used on electrical conductors is _____________. A. plain paper B. fibrous braid C. silver sheathing D. babbitt sheathing
Ans: B An across-the-line starter is typically used for which of the following applications? A. Reduced-current starting of large motors B. Low torque starting of small motors C. Low resistance starting of DC motors D. Full-voltage starting of motors Ans: D Before testing insulation with a megohmmeter, the windings of large 5295 machines should be grounded for about 15 minutes just prior to the test, because the ___________. 5293
A. static charge of the machine may give a false reading B. armature will have a greater number of leakage paths C. insulation may be damaged D. insulation may be covered with moisture Ans: A Which of the methods listed is used to maintain equal load sharing 5297 between two compound wound DC generators operating in parallel? A. The shunt fields are interconnected.
hydrogen gas is liberated the electrolyte compensates for overcharging potassium hydroxide absorbs carbon dioxide from the air the battery becomes discharged without being connected to a load
Ans: D The conversion of the throttle command voltage to thesignal necessary to achieve the desired shaft RPM isaccomplished by the _____________. A. ahead or astern function generator of the throttle control circuit B. feedback resistor of the summing amplifier circuit C. operational amplifiers in the autorotation circuit
D. long time constant amplifier circuit Ans: A The unit of apparent power in a purely inductive circuit is called the 5290 _____________. A. kva B. var
C. mass of substance measured with the density of the same substance D. buoyancy of an object in water with the buoyancy of the same object in the liquid being measured 5291
increase the current carrying capability for a given size wire increase their flexibility decrease the weight for a given size wire assure good conductivity at j unction points B A lead-acid battery is considered fully charged when the ______________. A. electrolyte gasses freely B. battery charger ammeter indicates a positive reading C. terminal voltage reaches a constant value at a given temperature
A. B. C. D. Ans:
C. emf D. watt
5292
Ans: B The main difference between an electron tube and a transistor is the _____________. A. type of function they can perform B. reaction of electron flow through a gas or vacuum in a transistor
C. reaction of electron flow through a semiconductor when placed in a tube D. reaction of electron flow through a semiconductor used to form a transistor Ans: D The multiple prefix "kilo" means ____________. 5294 A. thousand (10 to the 3rd power) B. million (10 to the 6th power) C. billion (10 to the 9th power) D. trillion (10 to the 12 power) Ans: A A double squirrel-cage motor is designed to have__________. 5296
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5298
low starting torque low starting current high starting voltage low starting resistance B The rotor slots of a repulsion-type motor are generally skewed (placed nonparallel to the rotor axis) to _________.
A. produce a constant starting torque
Page 300
B. The shunt field rheostats are interconnected. C. The series fields of both generators are connected in series. D. The series fields of both generators are connected in parallel.
5299
Ans: D When using a megohmmeter to test insulation, good insulation will be indicated by _____________.
A. slight kicks of the needle down scale B. a downward dip followed by a gradual climb to the true resistance value C. a gradual rise in the pointer reading at the outset D. the initial dip of the pointer Ans: B The process, whereby electrons gain sufficient energy to 5301 bereleased from the surface of a thin, heated metal plate, isknown as _____________.
B. permit a greater air gap with the starter C. permit a smaller air gap with the starter D. reduce eddy current losses
5300
A. Overspeed trip B. Thermal overload relay C. Three-pole safety switch D. Magnetic blowout coil Ans: B Before testing insulation with a megohmmeter, the windings of large 5302 machines should be grounded for about 15 minutes just prior to the test as the ______________.
A. photo electric emission B. secondary emission C. thermionic emission D. regressive emission
5303
Ans: C The multiple prefix "tera" (T) means ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
5305 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5307
thousand (10 to the 3rd power) million (10 to the 6th power) billion (10 to the 9th power) trillion (10 to the 12th power) D In a series c ircuit, which value will remain unchanged at all places in the circuit? Voltage Current Resistance Inductance B Which of the listed conditions describes the effect on intrinsic semiconductor operation as a result of a temperature increase?
A. Additional heat sinks will be required B. Conductivity will increase C. Conductivity will decrease D. Resistivity will increase Ans: B To minimize magnetic field interaction between electrical 5309 conductors in physical proximity, it is best to keep them ___________________. parallel and as close as possible to each other at right angles and as close as possible to each other parallel to and as far as practicable from each other at right angles and as far as practicable from each other D The purpose of a motor undervoltage protection device is to 5311 _____________. A. prevent high armature current when power is restored B. start the motor at a very low voltage C. trip the load off the motor in case of fire D. protect personnel from low voltage shocks Ans: A Low voltage releases as used in some shipboard motor starter and 5313 control equipment will have which of the following characteristics? A. B. C. D. Ans:
5315
Ans: A A three-phase, induction-type motor experiences an open in one phase. Which of the listed automatic protective devices will prevent the machine from being damaged?
A. insulation may be damaged B. insulation may be covered with moisture C. armature windings will have a greater number of leakage paths D. larger machines may acquire a charge of static electricity during operation Ans: D Most conducting materials such as copper, aluminum, iron, nickel, 5304 and tungsten _____________. A. increase in resistance with increased temperature B. increase in resistance with decreased temperature C. decrease in resistance with increased temperature D. increase in conductance with increased temperature Ans: A If the pointer fails to return to zero when a megger is disconnected, 5306 the _____________. A. pointer is stuck B. hair springs are burned out C. megger is out of calibration D. megger is operating normally Ans: D In electronic circuits, DC voltages can be positive (+) or negative (-) 5308 when measured with respect to the _________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 5310
printed circuit board "common" trace chassis, console frame or hull "ground" analogue or digital circuitry "common" bus all of the above D Capacitors are used on the output of the power supply in today's consoles to _____________.
A. filter out "ripple" B. prevent overloads C. act as a permanent load D. decrease the average value of the output voltage Ans: A Which of the following components are used to assemble a 5312 fluorescent lighting system? A. Lamp B. Starter C. Ballast D. All of the above Ans: D The schematic symbol for an operational amplifier in an analog 5314 circuit is a _________.
A. They trip circuit contactors when the motor starts to overspeed.
A. circle
B. They require manual resetting upon restoration of normal voltage.
B. square
C. They use a phase sensitive relay to trip contacts in series with the holding coil of the starter.
C. trapezoid
D. They allow the motor to restart upon restoration of normal v oltage.
D. triangle
Ans: D A motor controller contains three selector push buttons labeled "start", "jog", and "stop". When the "jog" button is pushed, the motor _____________.
5316
Ans: D For more complete vessel protection when using an impressed current cathodic system _____________.
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A. will run continuously after the "jog" button is released B. will run until the "jog" button is released C. will not start until both the "jog" and "start" buttons are pushed D. will not stop unless the "stop" button is pushed
5317
Ans: B When you are making a high potential test on a piece of repaired electrical machinery, a rise in leakage current indicates ____________. A. good insulation B. bad insulation
C. high insulation power factor D. a high slot discharge factor Ans: B Regarding an induction motor, the power developed by the rotor 5319 automatically adjusts itself to the _____________.
A. all ship's service alternators have additional temperature sensing devices and a thermal recorder installed B. machinery on deck and in the engineroom is first coated with zinc chromate before final painting C. the hull's magnetic fields are aligned with a solid-state degaussing circuit using SCR's D. straps connect the rudder with the hull and the propeller shaft is grounded through a slip ring/brush arrangement Ans: D What is the function of the interpoles installed in DC motors? 5318
A. To provide greater torque by strengthening the main field. B. To provide sparkless commutation without having to shift the brushes. C. To limit the production of counter-electromotive force. D. To limit the starting surge current. Ans: B You are testing the insulation in an AC generator with a 5320 megohmeter. The resistance value of a dry, clean winding will ____________.
A. power required to drive the load
A. continue to rise as the test potential is maintained, becoming fairly steady as the leakage c urrent stabilizes B. remain constant as the temperature of the windings increases
B. speed required to drive the load C. current flow in the motor stator D. torque developed by the rotating field Ans: A Routine maintenance of dry-type transformers s hould include 5321 ____________. A. cleaning the windings, if accessible, with a vacuum cleaner or very low pressure air B. measuring and recording the winding temperature with an accurate mercury thermometer C. periodic cleaning of the winding insulation with an approved solvent D. making sure that the units are close to bulkheads or corners to protect them from damage Ans: A The part of the shipboard electrical system used to control the 5323 distribution of power to the branch circuits, is the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 5325
bridge control panel disconnect links governor relay box main switchboard D A switchboard for an AC electrical system requires the use of which of the following devices?
A. Frequency meter. B. Ohmmeter. C. Induction voltage regulator. D. Current transformer governor. Ans: A One function of the movable cams in a drum-type motor controller 5327 is to _____________. A. regulate the speed of the motor
5329
C. continue to drop as the potential is maintained, becoming fairly steady after 5 to 7 minutes D. stabilize after approximately 2 to 4 minutes of fluctuation Ans: A The sub-multiple prefix "micro" (Greek letter 'mu') means 5322 ____________. A. thousandth (10 to the -3rd power) B. millionth (10 to the -6th power) C. billionth (10 to the -9th power) D. trillionth (10 to the -12th power)
5324
Ans: B The amount of current flow required for the cathodic protection of a vessel is dependent upon the _________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
amount of bare steel surface speed of the ship through the water temperature of the water all of the above D When replacing a power transistor fitted with a heat s ink in a circuit, a coating of silicone grease is applied between the transistor case and the heat sink. This is done to ____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
lubricate the transistor lubricate the heat sink aid in the removal of the heat sink provide maximum heat transfer D The point of operation for a saturable reactor in a power circuit is that at which _______________. a large change in control current results in small change in load current a small change in load current results in a large change in control current a small change in control current results in a large change in load current a large change in load current causes a small change in control current C What precaution should be taken with a vessel's impressed current cathodic protection system after a drydocking period during which the hull has been painted?
5326
5328 A.
B. maintain resistance contacts in clean condition
B.
C. insulate the operating handle
C.
D. limit the amount of load put on the motor
D.
Ans: A Magnetic controller contacts may become welded together during operation due to _____________. A. an open coil B. low contact pressure
Ans: 5330
A. Output currents should be carefully monitored to assure operation at nearly 100 % capacity for proper curing. B. Reference cell voltages should be maintained at half the normal range for approximately 48 hours.
Page 302
C. excessive ambient temperature D. excessive magnetic gap
5331
Ans: B Possible phase relationships between voltage and current in an alternating current circuit include which of the following conditions?
A. Current and voltage may be in phase. B. Current may lead the voltage. C. Current may lag the v oltage. D. All of the above. Ans: D Which of the procedures listed could result in damaging a transistor 5333 beyond repair? A. Applying incorrect polarity to the collector circuit. B. Applying excessive voltage to the input circuit. C. Careless soldering which would overheat the transistor. D. All of the above. Ans: D If the contacts of a motor starter or c ontroller fail to drop out when 5335 the "stop" button is depressed the ____________. A. contacts are carrying excessive current B. contacts have become welded together C. shading coil is broken D. shading coil is loose Ans: B Grease coatings on electrical contact surfaces increase contact 5337 resistance and should be removed with a/an _______________. A. B. C. D.
5339
C. The unit should remain off for the s pecified amount of time so as not to disturb curing. D. A slight (10-15%) overcurrent to the anodes should be allowed in order to speed drying. Ans: C A suspected "open" in a motor field can be tested by using a/an 5332 ____________. potentiometer megger wattmeter ammeter B Basically, a magnetic amplifier is a saturable reactor withthe 5334 addition of _____________. A. AC to the bias winding B. variable capacitance to all windings C. eddy current protectors D. a rectifier in the load circuit Ans: D A capacitor discolored due to excessive heat should be 5336 _____________. A. calibrated B. replaced C. cooled D. soldered Ans: B A ground in an electrical circuit outside the engine room 5338 _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
small wire brush compressed air jet clean dry cloth 10% solution carbon solvent and water
Ans: C Controller contacts should be routinely cleaned by ________.
A. B. C. D.
5340
A. blowing with compressed air B. filing with a bastard file C. wiping with a clean dry cloth D. dressing with crocus cloth Ans: C When troubleshooting AC motors, a portable growler can be used 5341 for locating ____________. A. open field coils B. grounded field coils C. grounded stator coils D. shorted stator coils Ans: D When charging a nickel-cadmium battery, ____________. 5343 A. the charging rate should be lessened when gassing commences
Ans: C Which of the listed items will stop a motor due to a reduction in voltage and restart it when the voltage is restored to normal? A. B. C. D. Ans:
5347
Low voltage protection circuit Non-renewable link fuse Renewable link fuse Low voltage release circuit D The difference between the synchronous speed of an induction machine and its operating speed (slip) may be correctly expressed _____________.
A. as a percent of synchronous speed B. as a decimal fraction of synchronous speed
Ans: D The third color band on a resistor is used to indicate the ______________. A. tolerance of the resistor B. number of zeros following the first two significant figures in the resistance value
C. first significant figure of the resistance D. second significant figure of the resistance Ans: B Impressed current cathodic protection is used on vessels instead of 5342 _________________. A. fire alarm systems B. repeated painting C. sacrificial zincs D. vacuum tube degaussing systems Ans: C Common basic applications for the operational amplifier include 5344 ____________. A. counting, pulsing and clocking amplifiers
B. overcharging should be avoided C. the specific gravity of the electrolyte will be unaffected by the state of charge D. add distilled water just prior to charging to insure proper mixing
5345
cannot be detected under normal conditions is of no consequence to engineering personnel is indicated at the branch circuit breaker panel is indicated by the ground detecting lamps on the main switchboard
B. summing, scaling and difference amplifiers C. step-up, step-down and rectifying amplifiers D. all of the above
5346
Ans: B The timer element found in a rev erse power relay obtains its operating torque via _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
5348
line voltage the main bus electromagnets a separate battery source C The set point current at which a magnetic-type overload relay tends to trip may be increased by turning the dashpot in the "lower" direction. This action _____________.
A. reduces magnetic force on the plunger and requires more current to trip the relay B. reduces magnetic force on the plunger and requires less current to trip the relay
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C. directly in revolutions per minute D. as all of the above
5349
Ans: A Which of the listed statements is correct when using an analog multimeter as an ohmmeter?
A. The pointer should be adjusted to zero each time a new resistance range is selected. B. The pointer will move to infinity when the meter is not in use. C. Ohmmeters are not sufficiently sized to measure conductor insulation resistance. D. All of the above. Ans: D When a nickel-cadium battery begins gassing while connected to 5351 the battery charging circuit, you should _____________. A. do nothing as this is a normal condition when charging B. add distilled water to each cell to reduce the specific gravity of the electrolyte C. add potassium hydroxide to each cell to increase the specific gravity of the electrolyte D. decrease the charging rate Ans: A In a three-phase circuit, the phase voltages are _____________. 5353 A. 120‚ apart B. 160‚ apart C. 180‚ apart D. 360‚ apart Ans: A When troubleshooting electronic equipment, the FIRST step to be 5355 taken before testing the circuit voltage is to _________. A. set the meter to the lowest range
C. increases magnetic force on the plunger and requires more current to trip the relay D. increases magnetic force on the plunger and requires less current to trip the relay Ans: A Kilowatt load is divided between two AC generators operating in 5350 parallel by _____________. A. adjusting the governor controls B. varying the excitation voltage C. increasing both prime mover speeds simultaneously D. decreasing both prime mover s peeds simultaneously Ans: A The frequency of an alternator at a given RPM is determined by the 5352 _____________. A. number of turns of wire in the armature coil B. number of magnetic poles C. strength of the magnets used D. output voltage Ans: B A solid-state circuit is inoperative; the FIRST action that should be 5354 taken is to ____________. A. wiggle all the components to check for loose connections B. check all the resistors C. change all transistors D. check the DC supply voltage Ans: D When charging a 100 amp-hour lead-acid battery, ___________. 5356 A. the temperature of the electrolyte should not be allowed to exceed 32oC B. the charging rate should be no greater than 125% of the battery amp-hour rating C. the source of power for charging should be 2.5 volts per cell D. gassing within the battery decreases when nearing full charge and it will be necessary to reduce the charging current to a low finishing rate
B. check the voltage supply from the power source C. remove the suspected component D. check the current flow through the circuit
Ans: B The charging of lead-acid storage batteries will always result in __________. A. dangerous acid burns B. a dangerously explosive gas being liberated C. the danger of lead poisoning D. all of the above Ans: B Transformers are used onboard ships with AC generators to 5359 _____________. 5357
change frequency increase power output to modulating frequency controllers decrease power output to modulating frequency controllers permit higher voltage for electric motor operation and low v oltage for lighting circuits Ans: D The function of the autotransformers used with the starters of large 5361 AC motors is to provide _____________. A. increased voltage for starting B. increased torque for starting C. reduced voltage for starting D. speed control Ans: C Reversing any two of the three rotor leads on a wound-rotor 5363 induction motor will _____________.
Ans: C When the current flow through a power transmission line is doubled, the power loss _____________. A. is halved B. is doubled C. is quadrupled D. remains the same Ans: C A full-wave rectifier has one diode burned out in an open condition, 5360 what will be the output characteristic of the device? 5358
A. B. C. D.
A. B. C. D.
increase motor performance decrease motor performance reverse the motor rotation have no effect on the direction of rotation or motor performance
Ans: D
A. B. C. D.
Zero Half-wave rectified Full-wave rectified Equal to the AC input
Ans: B When lead-acid batteries are charging, they always give off hydrogen gas that is _____________. A. considered inert B. highly explosive C. extremely toxic D. heavier than air Ans: B Which of the following conditions is most likely to occur if a s ingle 5364 element fuse were used to replace a blown dual element fuse in a motor controller circuit? 5362
A. B. C. D.
The fuse will blow when the motor is started. The fuse works, but overheats at high motor loads. The motor runs at reduced voltage. The motor runs normally.
Ans: A
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As load is added to an AC generator provided with constant field excitation, the prime mover slows down with the effect of ____________.
5365
A. lowering frequency and lowering generated voltage B. increasing frequency and increasing generated voltage C. increasing frequency and lowering generated v oltage D. lowering frequency and increasing generated v oltage Ans: A The most inefficient method of voltage reduction from the stand 5367 point of power loss, is a/an _____________. A. capacitor in series with the load B. inductor in series with the load C. capacitor and inductor in series with the load
Ans: D A transformer works on the basic principle of ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
5371
self impedance attraction and repulsion mutual induction increasing power C An ohmmeter can be used to measure ____________.
current flow in a circuit voltage between two points in a circuit circuit continuity power C The basic operating principle of a transformer is attributedto 5373 ______________. A. electromagnetic induction B. variance of a conductor in a magnetic field C. mutual reaction D. thermionic emission Ans: A When using an ohmmeter to test a semiconductor diode, you find a 5375 low resistance in both the forward and rev erse bias directions. This indicates that the diode has a/an ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
open short good resistive quality good capacitive quality B The pitting of controller contacts can be caused by 5377 _____________. A. excessive spring pressure B. insufficient contact pressure C. continuous motor overload D. all of the above Ans: B The main purpose of an electric space heater installed in a large 5379 AC generator is to _____________. A. prevent the windings from becoming brittle B. prevent moisture from condensing in the windings during shutdown
high starting voltage high starting current high slippage low starting voltage B Which is a function of the voltage regulators used with ACgenerators? A. To cut out generators when they are no longer required. B. To cut in additional generators automatically as required. C. To divide the KW load equally between generators operating in parallel. D. To divide reactive current between generators operating in parallel.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5368
D. resistor in series with the load
5369
A characteristic of an induction motor with a low resistance rotor winding is _____________.
5366
Ans: D Before measuring an unknown resistance with an ohmmeter, you should _____________. A. adjust the meter's pointer to mid-scale B. short the test leads and calibrate the meter reading to "zero" C. change the meter's batteries D. center the meter's pointer at infinity Ans: B Under normal conditions, the speed of a two-speed squirrel cage 5372 induction motor is changed by v arying the ____________. 5370
frequency of the applied voltage resistance in the rotor circuit number of field poles amplitude of the applied voltage C Which of the meters listed should only be used after a circuit has 5374 been electrically disconnected? A. Wattmeter B. Frequency meter C. Ammeter D. Ohmmeter Ans: D The capacity of a storage battery is measured in 5376 ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5378
volts ampere-hours farads amps B A transformer in an electric circuit serves to ____________.
generate its own electrical power transform electrical energy into mechanical energy increase or decrease circuit v oltage as required convert AC current to DC current C The speed of a squirrel-cage induction motor is determined by the ____________. A. diameter of the stator B. number of stator poles
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5380
C. prevent acidic pitting of the slip rings C. rotor winding resistance D. keep the lube oil warm for quick starting D. rotor conducting bars resistance Ans: B Ans: B Prior to starting an AC generator prime mover, the v oltage regulator 5382 A loud buzzing noise at the contacts of a magnetic controller could 5381 cutout switch should be placed in the __________. indicate _____________. A. manual position A. weak contact spring pressure B. bus neutral position B. misalignment of the magnet faces C. raise voltage position C. excessive line current D. transfer position D. mechanical binding Ans: A Ans: B When securing an AC generator, you should FIRST___________. The speed of a squirrel-cage motor is usually changed by 5383 5384 _____________. A. open the generator circuit breaker A. varying the frequency to the mac hine B. switch the voltage regulator to "manual" B. adding resistance in series with the stator windings C. decrease the field excitation to minimum C. adding resistance in parallel with the stator windings D. reduce the load on the unit D. changing the number of connected poles in the stator
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5385
Ans: D Which of the following actions must be carried out before a voltage tester can be used to test the three line fuses to a three-phase motor?
5386
A. The fuses must be removed from the circuit. B. The starter must be placed in the STOP position to stop the motor.
A. the speed of the engine driving the alternator B. the resistance applied to the field rheostat
C. The three line connections in the motor terminal box must be disconnected and tagged. D. Nothing need be done as long as the motor is running under a light load.
C. the synchronous speed of induction
Ans: B The existing resistance of a conductor is dependent upon its length, cross-sectional area, _____________. A. temperature and insulation B. material and insulation C. resistive coefficient and material D. material and temperature Ans: D In a simple DC circuit, the resistance is held constant while the 5389 applied voltage is halved. Current flow, therefore, will ______________. 5387
A. B. C. D.
D. the adjustments made to the voltage regulator Ans: A The frequency of an AC generator is adjusted by means of the ____________. A. main alternator field rheostat B. exciter field rheostat C. prime mover governor control D. equalizing reactor Ans: C When measuring AC current flow, you must always connect the 5390 meter _____________. 5388
double remain the same be divided by two be divided by four
Ans: C To conduct an in-circuit test of a transistor, you should use a/an ____________. A. voltmeter or transistor tester B. impedance meter C. ohmmeter or transistor tester D. wattmeter Ans: A Normally, the FIRST step in troubleshooting a transistor circuit card 5393 is to _____________. A. carefully remove the transistors from the card B. give the circuit an initial test with a signal generator C. test for continuity with a low voltage DC supply D. visually inspect the card Ans: D If many turns of an alternating current coil for a contactor become 5395 short circuited, the coil _____________. A. temperature will drop B. will probably burn out immediately C. will continue to operate D. will operate on reduced current Ans: B Which of the following operating characteristics for DC motors is 5397 considered to give high s tarting torque? 5391
A. series B. shunt C. cumulative-compound D. differential-compound Ans: A Equal power factors on paralleled AC generators are maintained 5399 by an automatic _____________. A. voltage regulator B. reverse power relay C. reverse current relay D. governor control switch Ans: A As load is added to a shunt motor, the motor will _________. 5401 speed up continue to operate at the same speed slow down slightly stop C Which of the listed devices may be installed on a large dieselelectric alternating current propulsion generator? A. Temperature detector coils inserted in the stator slots for measuring stator temperature.
A. B. C. D.
in series with the power source and load in parallel with the power source and load insuring correct polarity using the lowest range possible to prevent instrument damage
Ans: A The specific gravity of the electrolyte solution in a lead acid battery _____________. A. is not effected during charging B. remains the same during discharge C. would read close to 1.830 when discharged D. gives an indication of the state of charge of the battery Ans: D During discharge of a lead-acid storage battery, which of the 5394 following actions occ urs? A. The acid becomes stronger. B. Both plates change chemically to ammonium c hloride. C. The acid becomes weaker. D. Hydrogen gas is liberated. Ans: C A bus disconnect link is used to isolate _____________. 5396 5392
A. B. C. D. Ans:
one bus bar from another the generator circuit breaker from the bus different phases from the equalizer connection positive and negative buses from the neutral B If a magnetic controller contactor fails to pick up when the coil voltage is applied to the contactor coil, the cause may be _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
overload misalignment of the affected contactor contacts low spring pressure an open contactor coil D If a lower than normal resistance is applied to the shunt field of a DC compound motor, the motor speed will _____________.
5398
5400
A. decrease B. increase C. remain constant D. brake down to a stop Ans: A Which of the processes listed occurs during the charging ofa lead5402 acid storage battery?
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5403
Ans: D The cycles per second developed by the alternator aboard your vessel is determined by _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5404
Negative plates change to lead peroxide. Positive plates change to lead peroxide. Both plates change to lead peroxide. Both plates change to lead sulfate. B The total power consumed in a parallel circuit is __________.
A. the sum of the powers used in each load (resistor) divided by the number of loads
Page 306
B. A CO2 fire extinguishing system. C. Electric space heaters to prevent condensation of moisture. D. All of the above. Ans: D The arc resulting from the tripping of a circuit breaker is prevented 5405 from damaging the contacts by _____________. designing the contacts to open slowly directing the arc into an arc chute an inverse timed thermal trip for short circuit currents instantaneous magnetic trip for overload currents B When the voltage remains constant, and the resistance increases 5407 in a series circuit, current flow _____________. A. decreases B. remains the same C. increases D. increases by the square Ans: A An operational amplifier, as used in today's consoles, may have a 5409 calculated gain of 5. This means that as the input changes by ______________.
C. 5 volts, the output changes 10 volts D. 10 volts, the output changes 5 volts Ans: A Nickel-cadmium batteries are superior to lead-acid batteries at high 5411 discharge rates because they _______________.
Ans: A Part of the insulation of practically all electrical machinery is in the form of organic compounds which containsome amount of ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
asbestos water fibre plastic B The standard method of controlling the output voltage of a 440 v olt, 60 Hz, AC generator is accomplished by adjusting the ____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
prime mover speed droop number of poles alternator field excitation load on the alternator C An accidental path of low resistance which passes an abnormal amount of current is known as a/an _____________.
5417
5419
polarized ground short circuit ground reference point open circuit B An instantaneous-trip-type fuse will _____________. A. open as soon as the load current exceeds its set point
A. To determine its capacity. B. Whenever a cell cannot be brought within 10 points of full charge specific gravity. C. When one or more cells is found to have less than normal voltage after an equalizing charge. D. All of the above. Ans: D When the operating handle of a molded-case circuit breaker is in 5412 the mid-position, the circuit breaker is indicated as being ____________. A. in the "closed" position B. in the "opened" position C. tripped D. reset Ans: C What is the approximate voltage per cell produced by the nickel-iron 5414 (Edison) battery? A. 0.85 volts B. 1.35 volts C. 2.20 volts D. 6.05 volts
5416
Ans: B When the current in a power transmission line is increased, the power loss _____________.
A. increases as the square of the current B. decreases as the square root of the current C. remains the same, as it is independent of current flow D. increases in direct proportion as the current Ans: A The air gap provided in induction motors should be checked 5418 periodically with a feeler gage to detect an unequal air gap and _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 5420
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5421
be increased remain unchanged be decreased shut off C A DC ammeter is always connected ______________.
A. in series with a circuit B. in parallel with a circuit C. with internal shunts only D. without regard to polarity Ans: A Under which of the following conditions will a lead-acid battery be 5410 given a "test discharge"?
C. Ground detection systems are unnecessary. D. Accidental contact between one line and ground will always cause an outage. 5415
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5408
A. deliver a large amount of power and can be recharged in a shorter time B. need fewer cells in connected series and less mounting space C. have higher output voltages and require no maintenance D. all of the above Ans: A Which of the following represents a c haracteristic of an ungrounded 5413 electrical distribution system? A. Accidental contact between one line and ground does not cause an outage. B. Double ground faults on different phases will not cause an outage.
always less than the power used in the smallest load the sum of the powers used in each individual load never more than the power used in the largest load C When a lead-acid battery begins gassing freely while receiving a normal charge, the charging current should _____________.
5406
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. 1 volt, the output changes 5 volts B. 5 volts, the output changes 1 v olt
B. C. D. Ans:
8.0 and 10.0 milliamperes 8.0 and 12.0 milliamperes 9.8 and 10.0 milliamperes 9.8 and 10.2 milliamperes B Basic electrical motor action depends on _______________. A. a conductor rotated within a magnetic field
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5422
decreased motor magnetizing current hysteresis loses increased power factor mechanical damage to the rotor D A milliammeter, with a full scale deflection reading of 100 milliamps, is known to have an accuracy of + or - 2%. A meter reading of 10 milliamps would indicate a line current of between _____________.
Page 307
B. allow a preset delay between overcurrent and melting C. open a circuit by us ing a time delay element with a magnetic trip D. reset itself when the overcurrent is corrected Ans: A Upon failure of the normal power supply, the emergency generator 5423 is placed on the line by the _____________. A. main bus tie feeder B. automatic bus transfer device C. line connection feeder D. power failure alarm bus Ans: B The speed of a multi-speed, squirrel-cage, induction motor 5425 operating in a fixed frequency system can be changed by _____________. A. B. C. D.
B. a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field C. the relative force of the c ommutator and commutating poles D. the relative force of the armature and interpoles Ans: B Routine maintenance of a ship's serv ice alternator should include 5424 ______________. A. changing the pedestal bearing insulation yearly B. megger testing of all rectifying diodes C. lubricating excitation slip rings D. periodic cleaning of the air filters or screens Ans: D In the construction of D.C. motors, parts of both theseries and shunt 5426 fields are wound on the _____________.
reconnecting stator windings for different numbers of poles changing the RPM of the rotor flux changing the phase sequence of the applied voltage reconnecting the stator so that no poles have the same polarity
Ans: A Inductance is the property of an electric circuit that _____________. A. opposes any change in the applied voltage B. opposes any change in the current flow through the circuit C. aids any changes in the applied voltage D. aids any changes in the current through the circuit Ans: B Capacitance is the property of an electric circuit opposinga change 5429 in the _____________. A. current in the circuit B. voltage in the circuit C. inductance in the circuit D. resistance in the circuit Ans: B At high discharge rates, nickel-cadmium storage batteries are 5431 superior to lead-acid batteries because they __________. A. require fewer cells for the same voltage and less mounting space 5427
A. B. C. D.
Ans: D An important factor in reducing D.C. motor commutator wear is _______________. A. keeping the ambient humidity as low as poss ible B. ensuring a very low brush current density C. establishing the copper oxide surface film D. all of the above Ans: C A megohmmeter is connected to each end of an individual motor 5430 winding. A low ohm reading indicates ____________. A. an open coil B. a loose coil C. good continuity D. a dirty coil Ans: C A megohmmeter can be used to test for _____________. 5432 5428
A. an open field coil
B. are able to produce higher voltages and do not have to be charged as often C. can be charged and discharged many times without much damage D. have no individual cells to replace at the end of useful life Ans: C In an AC circuit, the inductive reactance of a coil varies with the 5433 _______________. A. resistance of the circuit B. frequency of the circuit C. voltage of the circuit D. current of the circuit Ans: B Sparking of D.C. motor brushes can be caused by __________. 5435 A. B. C. D. Ans:
an open commutating winding many mechanical, electrical or operating faults an open interpole all of the above B Electrical insulation is classed by the _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
International Association of Electrical Manufacturers approximate operating voltage and current expected IEEE temperature stability of the manufacturing material(s) D Electric current is the flow of electrons through a conductor. The rate of this flow is measured as ___________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
volts/watt amperes/centimetre coulombs/second ohms/volt C Voltage will always lead current in a/an ______________.
5437
5439
5441
opposite main pole rotor core interpole same main pole
B. a shorted field pole C. undercut mica D. reversed polarity Ans: A Complete maintenance of electrical motors should include periodic 5434 checks for machine _____________. A. vibration B. watertight integrity C. speed droop D. reactive power Ans: A A hydrometer is used to measure the ____________. 5436 A. specific gravity of a battery electrolyte B. water pressure in a deck pipeline C. amount of potable water a vessel is taking on D. power developed by a salt water service pump Ans: A In D.C. motor construction, commutating windings are wound on 5438 _________________. A. opposite main poles B. interpoles C. adjacent main poles D. the rotor core Ans: B If the pointer on a m egger fails to return to "zero" when not being 5440 used, the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 5442
megger is out of calibration megger is operating normally hairsprings are burned out pointer probably stuck in that position B The need for insulation cleaning may be determined by _____.
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A. B. C. D. Ans: 5443
capacitive circuit inductive circuit magnetic circuit resistive circuit B When troubleshooting a console circuit card suspected of being faulty, first check operating voltages, clean the card and then _________________.
A. visual inspection for dirt accumulation B. high megger readings C. low operating temperature D. the time period since the last cleaning Ans: A Four lamps are connected in parallel in a single circuit. If one of the 5444 lamp burns out, the others will _____________.
A. make sure wired connections and push-on connectors are tight
A. all go out
B. test each resistor and capacitor on the card with an ohmmeter
B. become dimmer
C. check the continuity of all printed circuit traces with an ohmmeter
C. burn with their original intensities
D. measure the gain of each transistor or integrated circuit Ans: A Discharge switches are often located on hand-driven meggers. The 5445 purpose of these switches is to discharge capacitive charges stored in the _____________.
D. become brighter Ans: C You are attempting to parallel two AC generators and the 5446 synchroscope pointer stops at a position other than 0‚ prior to closing the circuit breaker. This indicates ___________.
A. megger hand generator
A. the frequency of the incoming machine is the same as the bus frequency B. the incoming machine is in phase with the bus, but the frequency is not the same C. the circuit breaker may be closed after breaker has been reset
B. megger movement coils C. tested equipment while conducting test D. tested equipment after testing Ans: D A megohmmeter can be used to test for ____________. 5447
D. there is an existing cross current between generators Ans: A You are attempting to parallel two AC generators and the 5448 synchroscope pointer is revolving slowly in the fast direction. You should _____________.
A. an open field coil
A. use the governor control switch to adjust the incoming voltage so it is equal to the bus voltage B. use the governor control switch to increase the speed of the machine on the line only C. close the circuit breaker when the s ynchroscope pointer approaches the 0° position D. use the field rheostat to adjust the speed of the incoming machine
B. synchronous speed C. undercut mica D. reversed polarity Ans: A When changing fuses and the spring clips are found to hav e lost their grip, they should be replaced or _____________. A. tightened firmly with insulated pliers B. clip clamps should be used C. wired closed with uninsulated, varnished copper wire D. carefully bent back to their original shapes Ans: B The direction of rotation of a DC propulsion motor can be reversed 5451 by __________. A. reversing the field connections B. reversing the field and the armature connections C. wiring the field and armature in parallel D. wiring the field and armature in series Ans: A When the voltage and the current developed in an A C circuit reach 5453 their peak values at the same time, the power factor is considered to be _____________. 5449
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5455
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5457
A. B. C. D.
lagging leading unity infinity C The direction of propeller shaft rotation in a turbo-electric synchronous propulsion drive motor is changed by reversing the _____________. polarity of the propulsion motor polarity of the propulsion generator phase sequence of power to the motor phase sequence of power to the generator C Compressed air should not be used to clean motor controller equipment because ________________. it may force metallic particles into coil insulation the surrounding area may need additional cleaning the air blast dries out insulation quickly a mask and respirator would be required
Ans: C Which of the substances listed should be applied to battery terminals to help prevent corrosion? A. Zinc chromate B. Naval jelly C. Lead peroxide D. Petroleum jelly Ans: D Motor controllers are seldom troubled by grounds because 5452 ________________. A. cabinet heaters always keep internal components dry B. special insulation is used on wire for v ital circuits C. shock mounts on controller panels greatly reduce vibration D. contactors and relays are mounted on nonconducting panels Ans: D Which of the instruments listed is used to check insulation 5454 resistance? 5450
A. B. C. D. Ans:
Magneto Megohmmeter Dynamometer Rheostat B When voltage and current developed in an AC c ircuit reach their peak values at the same time, the power factor is _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
lagging leading maximum minimum C Which of the following problems is indicated if a lead-acid battery begins to gas v iolently when it is first placed on charge?
5456
5458
A. Insufficient compartment ventilation is being provided. B. A short circuit exists in one of the battery cells. C. The battery is undergoing its normal charging rate. D. An excessive charging rate is being applied to the battery.
Page 309
5459
Ans: A Temporary repairs to an open DC propulsion armature coil can be made by _____________. A. connecting the coil ends directly to a pair of negative brushes
5460
B. disconnecting coil ends, insulating each, and short circuiting the two commutator bars C. grounding the coil ends and s hort circuiting the commutator bar D. removing the sparking brushes Ans: B You are attempting to parallel two AC generators and the 5461 synchroscope pointer stops at a position other than 0‚. If you close the circuit breaker at this moment _____________. A. the incoming machine will accept all of the load B. the incoming machine will trip out on low voltage release C. a hazardous condition will be created by the cross current between the machines D. a hazardous condition will be created by the incoming machine being at a higher frequency than the bus Ans: C You are attempting to parallel two AC generators, and the 5463 synchroscope pointer is revolving fast in the clockwise direction. This indicates that the frequency of the incoming machine is _____________. A. higher than the bus frequency B. lower than the bus frequency C. the same as the bus frequency and the circuit breaker may be closed at any pointer position D. the same as the bus frequency but out of phase with it Ans: A A galvanometer is an instrument used to measure ___________. 5465 A. thickness of galvanized metal B. resistance of electrical wiring insulation C. very small amounts of current or voltage D. quantity of galvans in an electric circuit Ans: C A device which can be used to check the calibration of a circuit 5467 breaker is a _________________. A. 500 volt megohmmeter B. portable low voltage high current testing unit C. standard digital multimeter D. clamp-on voltmeter Ans: B The operating torque of the upper induction disc-type element, or 5469 timer element, of an AC reverse power relay is obtained from ____________. A. the main bus B. a separate battery source C. line voltage D. electromagnets
5471
Ans: D Which of the listed transformer uses a single winding to produce voltage transformation? A. Stepup transformers B. Stepdown transformers C. Autotransformers D. Isolation transformers
5473
Ans: C The hook-on AC volt-ammeter consists essentially of a split-core and a rectifier-type instrument connected to the secondary winding of a _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
potential transformer control transformer current transformer reactance transformer C
Ans: D When shore power is being connected to a ship in dry dock, _____________. A. the ship's generators are paralleled with the shore power to prov ide continuous power B. proper phase sequence must be established C. exactly 450 volts must be supplied from the shore
D. exactly 60 Hz must be provided by the terminal Ans: B The timer element of a reverse power relay cannot be energized 5462 unless _____________. A. the power flow is the same as the tripping direction B. the power flow is the opposite to the tripping direction C. the movement of the disk is damped by a permanent magnet D. one generator is motorized
5464
Ans: A A "dielectric" is a/an ________________.
A. electrical insulator B. current flow C. good conductor D. semiconductor material Ans: A Using a fuse whose rating is higher than necessary ________. 5466 A. endangers the apparatus it is supposed to protect B. reduces the possibility of short circuits C. increases the efficiency of the equipment by allowing more current to be used D. wastes money because they are more expensive Ans: A Propulsion DC motor brush pressures can be calculated by 5468 _____________. A. dividing the brush contact area by the spring pressure B. subtracting the brush contact area from the spring pressure C. dividing the spring force by the brush contact area D. subtracting the spring pressure from the brush contact area Ans: C Which of the following statements represents the action of a 5470 megohmmeter when testing a small capacitor in good condition? A. The meter pointer should immediately swing to the maximum resistance value for the c apacitor. B. The meter pointer should first swing quickly to zero and then gradually move up the scale as the capacitor charges. C. The meter pointer should immediately swing to infinity and then drop in sharp jerks as the voltage increases. D. The meter pointer should immediately swing to a high reading and gradually decrease. Ans: B A capacitor is to be tested with a megohmmeter. If the meter is 5472 connected to a shorted capacitor, the meter pointer should _____________. immediately swing to the maximum resistance value deflect to zero and remain at that position swing to a high reading and gradually decrease swing to zero then gradually increase with slight pointer movements down scale Ans: B Which type of flux should be used when soldering electrical wire 5474 connections and electronic components? A. B. C. D.
A. Silver flux B. Rosin flux C. Solid flux D. Acid flux Ans: B
Page 310
An internal resistance is placed in series with the meter movement of which of the following instruments?
5475
A. AC ammeter
A. frequency of the incoming generator is approaching that of the bus
B. DC ammeter
B. frequency of the incoming alternator is less than that of the bus
C. DC voltmeter D. Frequency meter
5477
Ans: C AC voltmeters are generally calibrated to read the ________.
instantaneous voltage average voltage RMS voltage peak voltage C If a small electric motor has been submerged in saltwater for a 5479 short period of time, you should _____________. A. send it ashore for rewinding B. rinse it with warm freshwater and bake it dry in an oven C. soak it in a bucket of commercial solvent and bake with internal heat D. clean it with carbon tetrachloride and blow it out with compressed air Ans: B When a fluorescent lamp has reached the end of its useful life, it 5481 should be replaced immediately, or the resultant flashing may _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5483
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5485
blow the lamp's circuit breaker explode, causing glass to fly in all directions short circuit the ballast transformer damage the starter and the ballast D Electrostatic forces in high voltage circuits cause indicating instruments to give ____________. parallax readings highly intuitive readings highly accurate readings inaccurate readings D Which of the following procedures should be used to maintain a large electric motor during periods of inactivity?
A. A thin layer of air-drying varnish should be applied on the windings. B. Compressed air should be blown over areas where dust is deposited. C. Spraying a solvent periodically to remove carbon dust. D. Space heaters should be used to prevent c ondensation of moisture. Ans: D The speed of a synchronous motor is v aried by _____________. 5487
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5489
When paralleling two alternators using three synchronizing lamps, the flickering of all three lamps becomes progressively slower and slower. This means the ______________.
5476
interchanging any two of the three live leads changing the voltage of the system changing the input frequency increasing the field excitation C Seating the brushes on a D.C. motor is first accomplished using ________________.
A. a file for cutting the approximate curvature followed by sandpaper for the final fit B. sandpaper with the motor not operating and then a seating stone while running the machine C. emery paper for the initial cut and crocus cloth for the finishing cut
C. phase rotation of the incoming alternators is opposite to that of the bus D. terminal voltage of the incoming alternator is approaching that of the bus Ans: A When paralleling two AC generators, the synchroscope selector 5478 switch and frequency meter switch should be set upto sense the frequency of the _____________. bus generator on the line oncoming generator bus transfer relay C How will a molded-case circuit breaker react after it has tripped, as 5480 a result of an overloaded circuit? A. The breaker will trip again if immediately reset. B. The breaker handle will lock in the OFF position. C. The breaker handle will lock in the tripped position until the thermal element cools down. D. The breaker handle cannot be moved to the OFF position until the thermal element cools down. Ans: A One of the generator or motor bearings is generally insulated from 5482 the end housing in order to prevent ________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
rapid brush wear current leakage from the shaft excessive field winding heat circulation of shaft currents induced in the machine's frame D If a circuit breaker that utilizes built-in, current limiting fuses (CLF's) cannot be closed, the problem may be traced to __________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
a blown CLF plunger holding the trip bar in the open position a missing CLF a misaligned limiter housing assembly all of the above D In replacing a defective transformer with a new one, which of the following actions must be carried out to insure proper operation of the equipment it serves?
5484
5486
A. The secondary leads must be grounded for 10 minutes to remove static charges. B. The transformer connections must be made as before with regard to the indicated polarity. C. The iron core of the transformer must be flashed to pre-magnetize it. D. The iron core must be grounded for 10 minutes to remove any residual magnetism. Ans: B When working on electrical circuits containing large capacitors, in 5488 addition to de-energizing the circuit, which of the listed precautions should also be taken? A. B. C. D. Ans: 5490
Keep all radio equipment away. Measure capacitor insulation resistance. Ground the capacitor terminals. Check capacitor circuit polarity. C The basic type of D.C. motor speed control where a generator armature directly feeds the motor armature and the motor and generator fields are excited by a separate D.C. s ource is called ___________________.
A. Burmeister-Wain B. Ward-Leonard C. Sperry-Rand
Page 311
D. course lapping compound, followed by a medium and then a fine grade Ans: B Which of the following problems will most likely occur if the starting 5491 winding of a split-phase induction motor failed to cutout once the motor was in continuous operation? A. The motor will overspeed. B. The motor will run at a reduced speed. C. A time delay will stop the motor. D. The winding will burn out. Ans: D A single-phase induction motor fails to start. The rotor is spun 5493 rapidly with the line switch closed. Having started by this method it is noted that the motor fluctuates between a very slow speed and half speed. The problem probably lies in the _________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 5495
starting winding centrifugal mechanism centrifugal switch running winding D The true power indicated by a wattmeter depends on the current flow through the load, the magnitude of the potential across the load, and the _____________.
A. power factor of the load B. angle of coil displacement C. inertia of the movable coil D. high resistance from the load Ans: A A multimeter can be used to directly measure _____________. 5497 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5499
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5501 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5503
watts field flux current all of the above C A volt-ohm-millimeter can be used to check for ____________.
continuity grounds voltage all of the above D When paralleled, AC generators must have the same _________. frequency number of phases phase rotation all of the above D A voltmeter located on a control panel has been operating correctly for six months, suddenly burns out. After removing it, it is found that neither side of the meter has been grounded. When installing the new meter it should be __________.
A. grounded to the negative side B. connected to a large resistor between the positive side and the ground C. installed exactly as the old installation D. grounded to the positive side Ans: C If a synchronous motor begins to vibrate severely and pull out of 5505 synchronism, the cause may be ____________. A. an overload B. an open in the field coils C. no exciter voltage D. all of the above Ans: D A device used in an electrical circuit to change alternating current to 5507 direct current, is known as a _____________.
A. current transformer B. rectifier
D. Atlas-Copco
5492
Ans: B When insulation failure produces a low resistance current path between two conductors, the resulting condition is known as ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
an open a short circuit a ground a surge B When disassembling motors for maintenance or overhaul, ________________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
punch mark frame and end bells for proper assembly wrap bearings in lint free cloths if they are to be reused tag and store small parts in a box all of the above D When paralleling two AC generators, the frequency of the machine coming on-line, immediately prior to closing its breaker, should be ____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
slightly less than the oncoming generator frequency the same as the bus frequency slightly greater than the bus frequency the same as the bus v oltage C The kilowatt load can be adjusted on a paralleled generator by using the _____________. field rheostat governor control automatic voltage regulators hand tachometer B When paralleling two AC generators, the frequency (cycles) of the incoming generator, just prior to closing the c ircuit breaker, should be _____________.
5494
5496
5498 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5500
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5502 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5504
slightly less than the frequency of the generator on the line the same as the frequency of the generator on the line slightly more than the frequency of the generator on the line all of the above C Discoloration of the rotor bars in a squirrel-cage motor is typical evidence of _____________. moisture overheating vibration all of the above B Which of the following should be the FIRST step in removing a generator from parallel operation?
A. Trip the generator off the switchboard. B. Turn off all electrical equipment. C. Remove the load from the "off going" generator. D. Increase the cycles of the generator staying on the line. Ans: C Accidental grounds in a shipboard electrical system must be 5506 repaired as soon as possible as they will ____________. A. result in immediate power outages B. damage circuit breakers C. appear on the ground detection system D. damage insulation and may cause outages Ans: D Two AC generators of the same capacity are operating in parallel. 5508 One with a zero speed droop setting and the other with a 5% speed droop. If its capacity is not exceeded, the unit whose governor has the zero speed droop setting will _____________. A. assume the smaller share of the load B. maintain the frequency of the system
Page 312
C. condenser D. shunt Ans: B An alternator is being paralleled with one on the line. At the 5509 INSTANT the circuit breaker is closed, the frequency of the incoming alternator will normally _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
increase not change decrease be exactly 60 hertz C Battery capacities are given in _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
volts volt-amperes volt-hours ampere-hours D The twisting force developed by a motor and applied to a shaft is called _____________. magnetism electromotive force torque voltage C The unit of electrical power is the _____________.
5511
5513 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5515
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5517
ampere kilovolt watt farad C Some large A.C. motors are equipped with with heaters. Thesecould be ___________. I. resistance heaters bolted directly to the frame II. low v oltage windings embedded in the motor windings
I only II only either I or II neither I or II C A current-carrying conductor making electrical contact with a wiring 5519 conduit will be indicated by a _____________. A. high switchboard wattmeter reading B. totally dark switchboard ground detecting light C. low switchboard wattmeter reading D. all of the above Ans: B If air gap readings for an electical generating machine have 5521 changed significantly from the last reading, you should check _________.
C. have poor sensitivity characteristics D. have poor power response Ans: B If a three-phase induction motor is operated under a light load and 5510 it develops an open in one of its supply lines, the motor will _____________. A. continue to run, but will vibrate and have reduced torque B. speed up due to the reduced number of poles C. run cooler due to reduced current flow D. stop Ans: A When a low input voltage is imparted to a device which then 5512 delivers a high output voltage, the device is known as a _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 5514 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5516
A. the bearings B. insulation readings and machine c leanliness C. the prime mover thrust bearing D. the field coil bolts for the proper torque values Ans: A A circuit that has one of two wires in contact with the hull of a ship, 5523 is called a _____________. A. grounded circuit B. short circuit C. series circuit D. closed circuit Ans: A Which of the following statements is true concerning transformer 5525 operation? A. The inductance on the primary side is the same as the inductance on the secondary side. B. The voltage to the primary side is the same as the v oltage from the secondary side. C. The current to the primary side is the same as the current from the secondary side. D. The power to the primary side is greater than the power from the secondary side. Ans: D
A. B. C. D. Ans:
continue to operate at no load lose its load and overspeed begin to motorize and then trip out slow down and operate at reduced load C The unit of electrical resistance is the _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
ampere volt watt ohm D Maintenance of alkaline batteries should include _________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
checking the electrolyte weekly using a hydrometer replacing the electrolyte every 5 years trickle charging replacment when the volts per cell drops below 1.8 VDC C In the event of a power failure during cargo loading operations, the movement of an electric powered cargo winchwill be stopped by ____________.
5518
A. B. C. D. Ans:
primary transformer secondary transformer stepdown transformer stepup transformer D If field excitation is suddenly lost to an alternator operating in parallel, that alternator will _____________. supply excessive current to the bus operate at the same load, but with reduced voltage lose its load and tend to overspeed become overloaded and slow down C If the energy input is significantly reduced to the prime mover of one shipboard alternator operating in parallel with others, that alternator will _____________.
5520
5522
a manual override switch the weight of the load on the boom a spring set brake a hand operated band brake C Attempting to parallel an AC generator which is out of phase with 5524 the bus will result in which of the following problems? A. The breaker should trip. B. The KVA will decrease. C. The synchronizing lamps will burn out. D. The power factor will be unitized. Ans: A To remove an alternator operating in parallel with another unit from 5526 the main electrical bus, you must FIRST _________. A. adjust the power factor on both units A. B. C. D. Ans:
B. set the desired voltage on the outgoing alternator C. open the circuit breaker on the outgoing alternator D. remove the load from the outgoing alternator Ans: D
Page 313
Maintenance of alkaline batteries should include _________.
5527
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5529
One item listed on the name plate of a cargo pump motor is "degrees centigrade rise." This number is based on _____________.
5528
checking the electrolyte weekly using a hydrometer A. normal temperature change from cold to hot replacing the electrolyte every 5 years B. an ambient temperature of 40°C top off with sulfuric acid as needed C. minimum heat rise from no load to full load making certain connections are tight and c lean D. maximum degrees centigrade rise from absolute zero D Ans: B If your multimeter gives a reading in ohms when testing each end of 5530 What is the rotor speed of a four pole, 60 cycle, induction motor each conductor of a three-conductor cable, this indicates operating at full load with 3% slip? ______________.
A. continuity of the conductor B. an infinite resistance C. the presence of a partial ground D. that the conductor is not short circuited Ans: A Which of the methods listed is used to start a AC generator 5531 turning?
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5532
270 RPM 540 RPM 873 RPM 1746 RPM D When a megohmmeter is being used on a alternating current machine, the meter pointer will dip toward "zero" and then gradually rise to the true resistance v alue if the motor insulation is _____________.
Residual magnetism remaining in the field poles. Residual magnetism remaining in the field coils. Residual magnetism remaining in the armature. Rotation by a mechanical prime mover. D The most effective method of locating a loose commutator bar in a 5533 D.C. motor is by _____________. A. visual inspection B. jiggling each by hand C. sounding each bar with a light weight hammer D. checking with a calibrated torque wrench Ans: C An equalizing connection between two compound-wound DC 5535 generators when paralleled, serves to _____________. A. reverse the polarity of the incoming generator as the series field weakens B. automatically equalize the power factors C. reverse the direction of current in the series field of the incoming generator D. parallel the series fields of the generators Ans: D Which of the following represents the corrected specific gravity of a 5537 lead acid battery, with a temperature of 90‚F,and a hydrometer reading of 1160?
grounded good shorted dirty B An open armature connection in a DC propulsion motor could be 5534 caused by ____________. A. low-load operation B. clogged ventilation ducts C. sparking at the brushes D. a grounded shunt field coil Ans: B If a D.C. motor hums, but does not run when energized, which of 5536 the listed conditions could exist? A. Incorrect lead connections
1150 A. 1156 B. 1160 C. 1164 D. Ans: D A short in the shunt field of a DC motor is best located by 5539 _____________. A. visual inspection of the commutator B. applying AC voltage to each field coil and measuring the voltage drop across each field coil
A. sparking at the brushes B. shiny armature coil C. worn grooves in the armature D. undercut mica Ans: A In a three-wire, 230/115 volt DC system, the potential between 5540 neutral and negative is _____________. A. 0 volts B. 115 volts
C. using a growler and hacksaw blade D. isolating each coil from the others and using a megohmmeter Ans: B Sparking at the brushes of a running motor could be an indication 5541 of _____________. A. normal operation B. a dirty commutator C. increased brush capacity D. water vapor absorption Ans: B A four-pole 60-hertz induction motor has a synchronous speed of 5543 1800 RPM and a slip of 4 percent at full load. What will be its full load speed?
C. 230 volts D. 460 volts Ans: B Electrical failures in motors are caused by the breakdown of 5542 insulation, which may be caused by _____________. A. penetration of moisture B. accumulation of dirt C. overheating D. all of the above Ans: D The speed of a squirrel-cage, multi-speed, induction motor, as used 5544 aboard ship, is varied by changing the __________.
A. 1728.0 RPM B. 1730.7 RPM C. 1800.0 RPM D. 1872.0 RPM Ans: A What is the main function in the use of a capacitor forstarting a 5545 single phase motor? A. Reduce radio interference B. Split the phase to establish a rotating magnetic field
A. number of connected poles in the stator B. frequency to the motor C. excitation voltage D. resistance of the rotor circuit Ans: A The most practical method of controlling the RPM of a step-speed 5546 AC motor is to _____________. A. change input voltage B. vary the number of poles
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
B. Incorrect brush setting C. A dirty commutator D. All of the above are correct. Ans: D A shorted armature coil in a DC motor can be detected by 5538 _____________.
Page 314
C. Reduce the phase angle D. Prolong the life of the starting contacts Ans: B Which of the following is a characteristic of fractional horsepower 5547 repulsion start motors?
A. They start with a rotating stator field. B. The short circuiting ring is removed from the commutator while starting. C. The brushes are remov ed from the commutator while starting.
C. vary power factor D. change the number of brushes Ans: B A vessel is equipped with two ship's service generators. Generator 5548 #1 is rated at 900 kw and generator #2 is rated at 600 kw. During parallel operation, with a load of 1,000 kw, what should be the kw load on generator #2? A. 100 kw B. 400 kw C. 500 kw
D. They have a low starting torque. Ans: B Which statement is true concerning a split-phase inductionmotor? 5549 A. Motor rotation can be reversed without changing the windings or leads. B. Motor speed can be readily adjusted from zero to full speed.
D. 600 kw Ans: B Which of the following statements, concerning the general 5550 maintenance of a brushless generator, is c orrect? A. Paint should be applied to insulating surfaces on an annual basis. B. Alcohol should be used to remove dust and grime from windings.
C. The motor will run as a generator with the proper wiring. D. Motor rotation can be reversed by reversing the leads on the starting winding. Ans: D A lead-acid battery can deliver 20 amperes continuously for 10 5551 hours with an ampere-hour rating of ____________.
C. High pressure air should be used to blow out carbon dust. D. Accessible generator parts should be wiped with a clean dry rag on a periodic basis. Ans: D An advantage of DC motors over AC motors is that they 5552 _____________. 20 A. A. are less expensive 40 B. B. require less maintenance 200 C. C. offer infinite speed variation 400 D. D. all of the above Ans: C Ans: C An increase in the amount of current flow through the armature of The torque produced by a DC motor armature is the productof the 5553 5554 a shunt motor is the final result of a/an _____________. force acting at the armature surface multiplied by _____________. A. increase in the load on the motor B. decrease in the load on the motor C. increase in counter EMF
A. work done by the armature in one revolution B. effective armature diameter at which the force acts C. maximum moment arm at the center of rotation of the armature
D. decrease in armature torque Ans: A A four pole, 60 Hz, three-phase synchronous motor comes up to 5555 1760 RPM when started as an induction motor. What is the percent slip after the rotor field is energized? A. B. C. D.
0 1.1 2.2 3.3
Ans: A Chattering of the collector ring brushes on a generator may be remedied by _____________. A. lubricating brush holders B. reinsulating the brushes C. cleaning the collector rings D. increasing length of pigtail Ans: C If the excitation of an alternator operating in parallel is decreased 5559 below normal, its _____________. A. power factor will change in the lagging direction B. power factor will change in the leading direction C. ampere load will be greatly increased D. kilowatt load will be greatly decreased Ans: B Which of the following statements is true concerning the operation 5561 of two alternators in parallel? 5557
A. The cycles per second of each alternator are the same. B. Both alternator governors must be set with the same amount of speed droop. C. The number of field poles must be the same on each alternator. D. The load must always be div ided equally between alternators. Ans: A
D. perpendicular distance to its center of rotation Ans: D In preparing to take insulation resistance readings on a main 5556 generator, the windings should be grounded for about 15 m inutes prior to the test to _____________. allow accurate zeroing of the meter help the windings to cool to ambient temperature release any residual capacitive charge from the windings help the windings to cool to the same temperature as the ground test connection Ans: C When the current flow in a power transmission line is halved, the 5558 power loss _____________. A. is halved B. is doubled C. is divided by four D. remains the same Ans: C Motorization of an alternator is undesirable because 5560 _____________. A. the alternator will be damaged B. it puts an additional load on the bus C. high voltage pulses are induced in the bus D. all of the above Ans: B An alternator switchboard has a synchroscope and synchronizing 5562 lamps. If the synchroscope is broken, which of the steps listed is the most essential before an alternator can be paralleled with the bus? A. B. C. D.
A. The breaker should be closed when one synchronizing lamp is dark and the other is bright. B. The breaker should be closed when both synchronizing lamps are bright. C. The frequency meter should be used to determine that the incoming alternator frequency is slightly higher than the bus. D. A portable phase sequence indicator must be used to verify the information from the lamps. Ans: C
Page 315
Sparking at the brushes of a DC propulsion motor can be the result of ____________. A. improper brush pressure B. improper brush seating C. reversed interpole polarity D. all of the above Ans: D The main purpose of an electric space heater installed in a large 5565 AC generator is to _____________. A. keep the lube oil warm for quick starting B. prevent moisture from condensing in the windings when the machine is shutdown
5564
C. prevent the windings from becoming brittle D. prevent acidic pitting of the slip rings Ans: B The most common type of AC serv ice generator found aboard ship 5567 is the s tationary _____________.
C. 1 second D. .016 of a second Ans: D The load sharing characteristics of two diesel alternators operating 5568 in parallel are directly related to the setting of their governors' ____________.
5563
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5569
electromagnetic field, revolving armature type electromagnetic field, oscillatory armature type armature, oscillatory electromagnet field type armature, rotating electromagnetic field type D Regulations state that a continuous trickle charge, supplied from the ship's service power system, is required for batteries supplying power to the ___________.
A. emergency diesel starting system B. emergency power system for the radar C. portable radios for the lifeboats D. radios installed in the lifeboats Ans: A The shipboard general alarm system must receive its main source 5571 of power from _____________. A. a storage battery B. the emergency generator C. an auxiliary generator D. the ship's service generator Ans: A When maintenance personnel are working on electrical equipment, 5573 all supply switches should be secured in the open position and tagged specifically by the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 5575
watch engineer chief engineer or first assistant chief electrician person performing the repair D Wire in general, when used aboard vessels must meet minimum requirements. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A. Each wire must be 14 AWG or larger, regardless of locations and use. B. Wire must be stranded. C. The only wire that does not have to be in a suitable enclosure or cover is the ground wire used with portable tools and lights. D. All of the above. Ans: B Which of the following statements is/are true regarding 5577 requirements for receptacle outlets aboard vessels? A. Each receptacle outlet operating at 100 volts or more must have a grounding pole. B. Outlets connecting a lifeboat and the ves sel's electrical system must have threaded plugs. C. Machinery spaces must contain sufficient outlets for lighting all machinery with a portable light having a 50 foot flexible cord. D. All of the above. Ans: A Which of the following methods of finish applications is/are 5579 considered to be satisfactory for resisting corrosion? A. Electroplating with cadmium B. Sherardizing
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5566 A. B.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5570
When using a megohmmeter to determine which shunt field coil is grounded in a DC machine, you must ____________. insulate the field frame from the ship's hull disconnect each shunt field coil before testing use a motor driven high capacity megohmmeter remove all main line lead connections before testing B In a 60 Hz AC system, the current will pass through one complete cycle in _____________. 60 seconds 6 seconds
load limit idle speed speed limit speed droop D Regulations require manual contactors for operating the general emergency alarm on tank vessels tobe located in the navigating bridge, engine room and the____________.
A. deck officers' quarters furthest from the engine room B. galley / dining room areas C. crew accommodations and sleeping spaces D. engineering officers' quarters furthest from the bridge Ans: A All electric cables passing through watertight bulkheads must be 5572 _____________. A. installed with watertight stuffing tubes B. grounded on both sides of the bulkhead C. fitted with unions on each side of the bulkhead D. welded on both sides of the bulkhead Ans: A When changing fuses, you should always _____________. 5574
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5576
wear rubber boots use a fuse puller stand on a rubber mat wear safety glasses B Which of the following is/are true concerning electric power operated watertight door systems?
A. Each motor driven door must use the main bus as its source of power. B. Each distribution panel for the system must be on the lowest level where berthing quarters are located. C. Distribution panels must not be provided with a m eans of locking in order to permit quick activation of the system. D. Each system must have a separate branch circuit. Ans: D An emergency generator, driven by an internal combustion engine, 5578 shall be tested under load for a minimum of 2 hours at least once every _____________. A. week B. 2 weeks C. month
D. 3 months Ans: C When working on a high voltage circuit, you should always have 5580 another person present with you. This person should have a good working knowledge of _____________. A. the circuit being worked on and the location of all switches and circuit breakers controlling it B. first-aid techniques for treating electrical shock
Page 316
C. Galvanizing D. All of the above Ans: D Which of the listed features open the power circuit to a motor due 5581 to low voltage and re-close when the voltage is restored to normal?
Low voltage protection 6 volt non-renewable link fuse 12 volt renewable link fuse Low voltage release D Transformer windings must be resistant to ___________. A. moisture
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5583
5585
C. cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) D. all of the above Ans: D In accordance with Regulations , each diesel engine driven 5582 generator prime mover must have an overspeed device, independent of the normal operating governor, and adjusted so that the speed cannot exceed the maximum rated speed by more than 0.1 A. 0.15 B. 0.2 C. 0.25 D. Ans: B If a steering motor becomes overloaded, the _____________. 5584 A. overload condition of 5% will trip the motor off the line immediately
B. sea atmosphere
B. overload condition will be indicated visually in the engine room
C. oil vapor
C. motor running indicator will begin to flash "on" and "off" in response to the sustained overload condition
D. all of the above
D. standby steering pump will start automatically and come on the line
Ans: D Regulations state that a normal source for emergency loads and power on a cargo vessel must be supplied from ____________. A. emergency generator supply to the emergency s witchboard B. emergency generator supply to the main s witchboard C. battery supply to the main switchboard
D. ship's service generator via the emergency switchboard Ans: D Regulations require the emergency diesel generator on a cargo 5587 vessel of over 1600 gross tons sailing international voyages to be able to supply power to the _____________.
5586
A. close all watertight doors twice B. open all watertight doors four times C. open and close all watertight doors in six consecutive cycles within a 20 second period D. none of the above Ans: A While on watch in the engine room at sea with only one ship's 5588 service turbine alternator on line, the entire plant suddenly blacks out without warning. After restoring power, the cause for this casualty was attributed to which of the following faults?
A. smoke detector system
A. The micro switch at the generator throttle trip vibrated open, allowing the main breaker to open via the under voltage trip. B. Someone pushed the trip button to the "shore power" breaker.
B. emergency loudspeaker system C. daylight signaling light system D. all of the above
5589
Ans: D On a vessel with turbo-electric drive, which of the following conditions would indicate that the propulsion motor had dropped out of s ynchronization with the propulsion generator?
A. Excessive vibration of the vessel B. Tripped main motor interlocks C. Overheated crosstie busses D. Closed contact in the field circuits Ans: A The shunt used in an ammeter should be connected in 5591 ____________. A. series with the load and in parallel with the meter mov ement B. parallel with the load and in series with the meter mov ement C. parallel with the load and in parallel with the meter movement D. series with the load and in series with the meter movement Ans: A Which of the following conditions will occur if thesolenoid coil burns 5593 out on a cargo winch with an electricalbrake? A. B. C. D.
5595
C. The main air compressor suddenly stopped. D. The standby generator started automatically and became motorized. Ans: A On some diesel-electric ships, the DC propulsion motor will only 5590 attain half speed when the generator fields are fully excited. Speeds above this are obtained by _____________.
C. Contactors can handle heavier loads than relays.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
rotating brush alignment raising the generator engine speed lowering the generator engine speed decreasing excitation B Brushless generators are designed to operate without the use of ___________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
brushes slip rings commutators all of the above D Which of the listed battery charging circuits is used to maintain a wet-cell, lead-acid, storage battery in a fully c harged state during long periods of disuse?
5592
5594
The brake will be set by spring force. The motor will overspeed and burn up. The load suspended from the cargo boom will fall. Nothing will happen; the winch will continue to operate as usual.
Ans: A Which of the following statements represents the main difference between a relay and a c ontactor? A. Contactors control current and relays control voltage. B. A relay is series connected and a contactor is parallel connected.
Ans: B A storage battery for an emergency lighting and power system must have the capacity to _____________.
A. B. C. D.
5596
Normal charging circuit Quick charging circuit Trickle charging circuit High ampere charging circuit
Ans: C Which of the following statements is true concerning a polyphase synchronous propulsion motor? A. The motor is started as an induction motor. B. Resistance is gradually added to the rotor c ircuit. C. The starting current is held below the rated current.
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D. Contactors are made from silver and relays are made from copper.
5597
Ans: C An accidental path of low resistance, allowing passage of abnormal amount of current is known as a/an ____________. A. open circuit B. short circuit C. polarized ground D. ground reference point
5599
Ans: B Which of the following electric motors would be the safestand most reliable to use on the main deck of a v esselin foul weather conditions?
Sealed motors Drip proof motors Enclosed motors Watertight motors D A molded-case breaker provides protection against short circuits 5601 by using a/an ____________. A. shading coil B. arc quencher C. electromagnet D. holding coil Ans: C A motor using a rheostat in the motor circuit to vary the speed is 5603 called a ____________.
D. The field winding is energized for starting purposes only.
5598
A. both meters in series with the resistance B. both meters in parallel with the resistance C. the ammeter in series and the voltmeter in parallel with the resistance D. the ammeter in parallel and the v oltmeter in series with the resistance Ans: C A direct current passing through a wire coiled around a soft iron 5600 core is the description of a simple ____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5602 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5604
A. squirrel-cage induction motor
C. wound-rotor induction motor D. synchronous motor Ans: C One factor that determines the frequency of an alternator is the ____________. A. number of turns of wire in the armature coil B. number of magnetic poles C. strength of the magnets used D. output voltage Ans: B The Wheatstone bridge is a precision measuring instrument utilizing 5607 the principle of changes in _____________. A. inductance B. capacitance C. resistance D. amperage Ans: C Which of the listed logic gates is considered to be a BAS IC building 5609 block (basic logic gate) used in logic diagrams? A. NAND B. OR C. NOR D. All of the above. Ans: B An electrical device which prevents an action from occurring until all 5611 other required conditions are met is called a/an ___________. limit monitor modulator interlock D A degree of control over the speed of a slip ring inductionmotor can be obtained by _____________. A. adjusting governor linkage B. changing the number of phases to the motor
Ans: C The variable resistance placed in the rotor circuit of a wound-rotor induction motor provides for __________. A. speed control B. frequency control C. voltage control D. use as a split-phase motor Ans: A The greatest detrimental effect on idle electrical equipment, such 5608 as cargo pump motors, is the _____________. A. loss of residual magnetism B. absorption of moisture in the insulation C. insulation varnish flaking D. dirt collecting on the windings Ans: B When choosing a battery for a particular application, major 5610 consideration should be given to the battery's ____________. A. amp-hour capacity B. terminal polarity C. stability under charge D. ambient temperature rise Ans: A A circuit breaker and a fuse have a basic similarity in that they both 5612 _____________. 5606
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5613
C. inserting resistance into the stator circuit D. inserting resistance into the rotor circuit
magnetic shield electromagnet piezoelectric dev ice electromagnetic domain B The method used to produce electron emission in most vacuumtubes is known as ____________. photoelectric emission secondary electric emission cold cathodic electric emission thermionic emission D Which of the following precautions should you take when securing propulsion generators and motors for an extended period of time?
A. Disconnect the brush pigtails from their contacts and circulate air through the units. B. Disconnect the brush pigtails from their contacts and discharge carbon dioxide into the units to keep them dry. C. Lift the brushes from commutator collector rings and use the built-in heater to prevent moisture accumulation. D. Lift the brushes from commutator collector rings and circulate cool dry air through the units.
B. regenerative braking motor
5605
Ans: A A resistance in a circuit of unknown value is to be tested using the voltmeter/ammeter method. Therefore, the meters should be connected with _____________.
can be reset to energize the circuit should open the circuit when overloaded will burn out when an over c urrent flow develops all of the above B A circuit breaker differs from a fuse in that a circuit breaker _____________. A. melts and must be replaced B. is enclosed in a tube of insulating material with metal ferrules at each end C. gives no visual indication of having opened the circuit D. trips to break the circuit and may be reset
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5614
Page 318
5615
Ans: D An electrical device which employs a stationary armature and a rotating electromagnetic field is used aboard ship as a ____________. A. B. C. D.
5617
5616
magnetic amplifier ship's service alternator three-wire DC generator saturable core reactor
Ans: B The load sharing characteristics of two diesel generators operating in parallel are mostly dependent on their governor ____________.
load limit settings idle speed settings speed limit settings speed droop settings D In an AC generator, direct current from a separate sourceis passed 5619 through the windings of the rotor _____________. A. by means of slip rings and brushes B. by means of a commutator C. by means of rotating bar magnet D. to minimize the danger of arc over Ans: A A constant output voltage from an AC generator is maintained by 5621 the _____________. A. prime mover governor B. exciter generator C. voltage regulator D. reverse power relay Ans: C The heating of conductors as a result of resistance in a distribution 5623 circuit causes a power loss expressed as _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D.
5618
5625
Ans: B In process control terminology values which can change without distinct increments, such as temperature, pressure, or level are called ____________. binary values digital values bumpless values analog values D Which of the following statements best describes the material known as varnished cambric? A. Felted asbestos sealed with varnish. B. Cotton cloth coated with insulating v arnish.
A. wash it with fresh water and apply an external source of heat B. renew the windings C. send it ashore to an approved service facility D. rinse all electrical parts with a carbon tetrachloride cleaning solvent and then blow dry the motor with compressed air Ans: A The proper way to apply plastic electrical tape to an electric cable 5626 splice is to _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5631
eliminate slippage provide excitation provide starting torque increase efficiency C Before reassembling any machinery, you should _____________.
A. replace all bearings regardless of length of serv ice B. apply a heavy coat of oil to all mating surfaces C. clean any corroded surfaces and file all burrs smooth
apply tape to the braided cover, but avoid touching it wind the tape so that each turn overlaps the turn before it apply the tape in one non-overlapping layer only heat the tape with a soldering iron for good bonding B A synchronous motor maintains synchronism with the rotating field because _____________. A. field strength varies directly with rotor slip B. DC current applied to the rotor coils causes the rotor magnets to lock in with the rotating flux of the stator C. the stator poles are dragged around due to the flux created by the excitation current D. the stator flux rotates in the opposite direction
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5628
C. Rubber insulation coated with a layer of tin. D. Paper impregnated with mineral oil, specially wrapped with nonmetallic tape, and coated with varnish. Ans: B The function of amortisseur, or damper windings in a synchronous 5629 motor is to _____________.
Ans: C What type of rotor is used in split-phase motors?
Drum Salient pole Squirrel-cage Wound-rotor C The purpose of a cage rotor winding placed on the rotor of a 5620 synchronous motor is to _____________. A. provide excitation to the DC field B. start the machine as an induction motor C. contribute extra torque at synchronous speed D. prevent the machine from falling out of step Ans: B Amortisseur windings are installed in a synchronous motor to 5622 _____________. A. reduce eddy current losses B. produce a higher power factor C. provide a means for starting D. eliminate arcing between the stator and the rotor Ans: C To repair a small electrical motor that has been submerged in 5624 saltwater, you should _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5627
limit the starting voltage increase the starting current start the motor keep the motor running in the event the main winding should fail
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. line droop B. line loss C. IR drop D. hysteresis
Ans: D The main purpose of the auxiliary winding on a split-phase,singlephase motor is to _____________.
5630
Ans: B The main difference between a motor control circuit containing low voltage protection and low voltage release is that the latter contains _____________. a magnetic operating coil normally open line contacts thermal-overload protection a momentary-contact start button D The purpose of the commutator and brushes on a DC generator is to _____________. A. transfer generated direct current voltage from the armature to the line B. convert the alternating voltage generated within the armature to a direct voltage C. provide a sliding contact method to excite the field
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5632
Page 319
D. coat all parts with alemite grease
5633
Ans: C The basic measuring unit of inductance is the _________. A. coulomb B. ohm
C. farad D. henry Ans: D Which of the following statements concerning nickel-cadmium 5635 batteries is true? A. When mixing electrolyte always add acid to the water. B. Nickel-cadmium batteries can be charged and discharged only a limited number of times without damage to the cells. C. Nickel-cadmium batteries can be stored for a long time and still keep a full charge without additional charging. D. The electrolyte of an idle nickel-cadmium battery must be replaced monthly to maintain battery condition. Ans: C Local action in a nickel-cadmium battery is offset by 5637 _____________.
D. reduce sparking between the armature and the carbon brushes Ans: B Which of the listed precautions should be taken when cleaning the internals of a motor with compressed air? A. Open the machine on both ends so as to allow the air and dust to escape. B. Be certain that the circuit breaker is opened and tagged on the feeder panel. C. Be certain that the air is clean and as dry as possible. D. All of the above. Ans: D Power transformers are rated in _____________. 5636 5634
A. kilowatts B. ampere-turns C. kilowatt-volts D. kilovolt-amperes
5638
A. separating the positive and negative plates with plastic spacers B. separating the positive and negative plates with resin impregnated spacers C. adding a small amount of lithium hydroxide to the electrolyte D. trickle charging Ans: D A device which prints out a permanent record of the plant operating 5639 conditions is known as the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 5641
analogger bell logger alarm logger data logger D The opposition to the establishment of magnetic lines of force in a magnetic circuit is called the circuit's_______.
Ans: D Alternating current circuits develop resistance, inductance and capacitance. The inductance of a coil is expressed in _____________. A. ohms B. mhos
C. henrys D. farads Ans: C Alternating current circuits develop resistance, inductance, and 5640 capacitance. The capacitance of individual capacitors is expressed in _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 5642
ohms mhos henrys farads D The insulation resistance of electric equipment and machinery should be tested for the lowest normal insulation values _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
resistance reluctance impedance inductance B The RMS value of a sine-wave current may also be expressed as the _____________.
A. immediately after shutting down the machine B. every time the brush rigging is adjusted C. immediately after starting up the machine D. every 30 days whether the machine is in use or not Ans: A On tank v essels with an electrically-driven capstan, the motor 5644 should be meggered periodically to test _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
average value maximum value effective value instantaneous value C The apparent power in a purely inductive circuit is also known as _____________.
A. insulation resistance B. eddy currents C. capacitance D. armature reactance Ans: A The multiple prefix "giga" (G) means ____________. 5646
5643
5645
true power lead power induced power reactive power D A grounded switch or cable will be indicated by a megohmmeter 5647 reading of _____________. A. infinity B. "zero" C. being unsteady in the high range D. being unsteady in the low range Ans: B Which of the following statements concerning the specific gravity of 5649 a battery electrolyte is true? A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. The electrolyte becomes less dense when it is cooled. B. The specific gravity reading is lowered when the electrolyte is heated.
thousand (10 to the 3rd power) million (10 to the 6th power) billion (10 to the 9th power) trillion (10 to the 12th power) C Regarding battery charging rooms, ventilation should be provided 5648 __________. A. at the lowest point of the room B. horizontally near the batteries C. at the highest point of the room D. only when charging is in progress Ans: C The ratio of the effective value of the counter EMF in volts, to the 5650 effective value of the current in amperes is called _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. impedance factor B. capacitive reactance
Page 320
C. The most accurate hydrometer reading is obtained immediately after water is added. D. The temperature does not affect the s pecific gravity of the electrolyte. Ans: B An adjustable resistor, whose resistance can be changed without 5651 opening the circuit in which it is c onnected, is called a _____________. bleeder resistor rheostat bridge variable shunt strip B In a DC series circuit, all the conductors have the same 5653 ____________. A. power expended in them B. voltage drop across them C. resistance to current flow D. current passing through them Ans: D Shading coils are installed on AC full-voltage starters to 5655 _____________. A. eliminate contact chatter B. dissipate opening contact arcs C. delay current build up in the holding coil D. protect the motor windings from momentary starting current overload Ans: A Most three-phase induction motors used for driving engine room 5657 auxiliaries are started by _____________. A. resistor starters B. across-the-line starters C. impedance starters A. B. C. D. Ans:
D. reactor starters Ans: B A variable shunt, connected across the series field coils of a DC 5659 compound wound generator, to permit adjustment of the degree of compounding, is called a _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 5661
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5663
divider diverter converter rheostat B The electrician reports to you that he has obtained low (but above 1 megohm) megger readings on the windings of a deck winch motor. Upon checking the records of that motor, you find the readings have consistently been at that level for the last six years. motor be replaced windings be dried windings be cleaned readings are acceptable D Which of the following components are used to convert alternating current produced in the generator windings to direct current?
A. Armature and equalizer B. Commutator and brushes C. Rotor and interpoles D. Field and exciter Ans: B The final step in testing a circuit for a ground involves the use of a 5665 megohmmeter. A grounded switch or cable will be indicated by a megohmmeter reading of ____________. A. "zero" B. infinity C. steady in the high range D. unsteady in the low range
5667
Ans: A A nickel-cadmium battery is receiving a normal charge and gases freely. The charging current should _____________. A. be increased B. be decreased
C. inductive reactance D. root mean square
5652
Ans: C The purpose of a heat sink, as frequently used with transistors, is to ____________.
A. prevent excessive temperature rise B. compensate for excessive doping C. increase the reverse current D. decrease the forward current Ans: A Battery charging rooms should be well ventilated because the 5654 charging process produces_____________. A. highly poisonous gas B. highly combustible oxygen C. explosive gases D. corrosive gases Ans: C A silicon controlled rectifier (SCR) is a solid state device used to 5656 change ________________. A. DC to AC and control relatively low load current B. AC to DC and control relatively high load current C. DC to AC and control relatively high load current D. AC to DC and control relatively low load current Ans: B When electrical cables penetrate watertight bulkheads, _______________. A. they should be grounded on either side of the bulkhead B. they must be bent to a radius of six diameters C. a watertight stuffing tube capable of accepting packing should be employed D. they should be secured by a clamp Ans: C Across-the-line starters are used with AC motors to provide 5660 _____________. 5658
A. B. C. D. Ans:
reduced starting current regulated starting current high starting torque controlled starting acceleration C In a faceplate-type motor starter, the starting arm is held in the "OFF" position by a/an _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
cotter pin magnet electrical circuit strong spring D In electronic circuitry, the abbreviation "PCB" commonly means ______________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
pulse coded binary printed circuit board poly-coated braid personal computer bits B Which of the following statements is true c oncerning the cleaning of electrical contacts?
5662
5664
5666
A. Compressed air should be used to blow out metallic dust. B. Magnetic brushes should be used to remove metallic dust. C. The contact surfaces should be greased to increase contact resistance. D. Delicate parts should be cleaned with a brush and an approved safety solvent. Ans: D Reduced voltage applied to a motor during the starting period will 5668 _____________. A. result in decreased acceleration time only B. lower the starting current and increase accelerating time
Page 321
C. be cut off and the battery allowed to cool D. remain the same Ans: D A saturable-core reactor operates on the principle of controlling a 5669 load winding's inductance by varying the core's _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
dielectric permeability reactance inductance B The total resistance of a parallel circuit is always ____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
larger than the greatest branch resistance smaller than the lowest branch resistance equal to the sum of the individual branch resistances one-half the sum of the individual branch resistances B A "dead front" switchboard is one _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
without switches on it with insulated switches and no exposed terminals without circuit breakers without safety hand rails nor rubber mats B The purpose of a main switchboard circuit breaker's reversepower trip is to _____________.
5671
5673
5675
A. prevent main circuit overload B. protect the circuit breaker blowout coil C. prevent alternator motorization D. prevent low voltage tripout
5677
Ans: C Modern DC generators are fitted with commutating poles to _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
5679
prevent motorizing reduce sparking reduce the load on the main poles reduce spring pressure on the brushes B A semiconductor is a material with a _____________.
C. cause a greater starting torque D. increase the starting current and pump capacity Ans: B Operational amplifiers, used primarily in analog circuits, are 5670 characterized by ____________. A. high input impedance, high gain and low output impedance B. high input impedance, high gain and high output impedance C. low input impedance, low gain and high output impedance D. low input impedance, high gain and low output impedance Ans: A Which of the following expresses the relationship of the input and 5672 output frequencies in a full wave rectifier? A. The output frequency is the same as input frequency. B. The output frequency is one-half the input frequency. C. The output frequency is twice the input frequency. D. The output frequency is four times the input frequency. Ans: C Mercury filled thermometers should never be used to determine 5674 the temperature of the battery electrolyte because accidental breakage of the thermometer can cause __________________. A. severe sparking and explosions B. rapid oxidation of battery plates C. contamination of the electrolyte D. corrosion on the battery terminals Ans: A A temperature instrumentation system for an engine room console 5676 consists of a resistance temperature detector (RTD), a measuring bridge circuit, and a meter (or alarm circuit).Which of the following statements is true concerning the measuring bridge circu A. The input voltage varies in a linear fashion with temperature. B. The voltage across the center of the resistance bridge is always constant. C. The resistance bridge is said to be balanced when its output v oltage is zero. D. The input voltage of the resistance bridge is the constant temperature signal. Ans: C The purpose of a magnetic relay is to _____________. 5678 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5680
A. conductivity higher than a normal conductor
A. immediately swing to the maximum resistance value for the capacitor B. first swing quickly to "zero", then gradually move up the scale as the capacitor charges C. immediately deflect to and remain at zero D. immediately swing to a high reading and then gradually decrease
B. conductivity higher than a normal insulator C. high conductivity at low temperatures D. low conductivity at high temperatures
5681
Ans: B When mixing electrolyte for a lead-acid storage battery, you should pour the ___________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5683 A. B. C. D.
distilled water into the acid in a zinc-plated container distilled water into the acid in a glass c ontainer acid into the distilled water in a zinc-plated container acid into distilled water in a glass container D The charge of a lead-acid battery can be restored by ______. passing an alternating electric current through the cell passing a direct electric current through the cell adding acid to the electrolyte all of the above
Ans: B
open a circuit only in the event of overload remotely open and close contacts provide overcurrent protection during starting relay voltages at increased power B A capacitor can be tested using a megohmmeter or an ohmmeter. If the meter is c onnected to a shorted capacitor, the meter pointer should _____________.
5682
Ans: C To carry out an insulation resistance test, one terminal of the megohmmeter should be connected to the winding, with the other terminal being connected to the ____________________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
5684 A. B. C. D.
power supply variable resistor frame of the machine armature C The resistance of a conductor varies _____________. directly as its length and inversely as its cross-sectional area inversely as its length and directly as its cross-sectional area directly as its length and directly as its cross-sectional area inversely as its length and inversely as its cross-sectional area
Ans: A
Page 322
In order to check the performance of a transistor removed from its circuit, the instrument to be used should be a/an ____________.
5685
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5687
voltmeter or transistor tester impedance meter ohmmeter or transistor tester sensitive potentiometer C On a switchboard, if all three ground detection lamps remain burning at half intensity when the test button is depressed, which of the listed conditions is indicated?
Ans: A Insufficient brush pressure on a DC motor may cause _______.
generator overload excess residual magnetism water vapor absorption sparking of the brushes D Which of the electrical properties listed will always be the same for 5691 each component in a parallel circuit? A. Impedance B. Current C. Resistance D. Voltage Ans: D The standard procedure for maintaining the charge in an 5693 emergency diesel starting battery is to trickle charge the battery _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D.
5695
5697
using a thermal shunt pre-oxidizing the leads to be soldered coating the leads to be soldered with a light oil film B Why is it a poor practice to use a high wattage soldering iron when soldering or desoldering components on a printed circuit board?
A. The circuit board will blister and warp. B. The foil wire bonded to the board may come loosened from the board. C. The circuit board has a low melting temperature. D. The solder is kept to a dull heat dissipating finish. Ans: B Which of the following methods should be used to dress the face of 5699 silver-plated contacts? A. Filing B. Burnishing C. Sanding with 0000 sandpaper D. All of the above are correct. Ans: C Which of the substances listed can be used to shield sensitive 5701 equipment from static magnetic fields? A. Glass B. Mica C. Bakelite D. Permeable iron Ans: D When soldering a printed circuit board component, you should be 5703 careful to prevent damage by _________. A. quickly heating the joints, using a high wattage iron
A. B. C. D.
Increase the current through the collector-base junction. Install a heat sink. Shift the "Q" point to increase c ollector current. Increase the potential difference between the emitter and the base.
Ans: B Burning of controller contacts, when opening, is prevented by _____________. A. coating the contact surfaces lightly with petroleum jelly B. magnetic blowout coils C. an overvoltage release D. an overcurrent release Ans: B Which of the listed instruments can be best used to locate a 5692 grounded field coil in a synchronous motor? A. Frequency meter B. Megohmmeter C. Voltmeter D. Multimeter Ans: B A replacement wire having twice the length and one-half the cross5694 sectional area of the original wire will have a resistance that is _____________. A. B. C. D.
5696
A. operating the soldering gun not more than 60 seconds at a time B. C. D. Ans:
ammeter voltmeter hydrometer potentiometer B Which of the following actions can be carried out in order to prevent thermal runaway in a transistor?
5690
continuously at least once each week whenever the charge falls to 75% of full charge whenever the electrolyte specific gravity falls to 1.250 or lower
Ans: A If a delicate component must be soldered into a circuit, the component may be protected from the heat of the soldering process by _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5688
A. No grounds exist. B. All three phases are grounded. C. The test switch is grounded. D. The current transformers are shorted.
5689
To test the state of charge of a nickel-cadmium battery, you s hould use a/an ____________.
5686
four times that of the original wire twice that of the original wire the same as that of the original wire one-half that of the original wire
Ans: A If you disconnect and arrange both ends of a three conductor cable, without any contact between the individual conductors, an indicated ohmic value between the ends of a single conductor would indicate ______________. A. continuity of the conductor
B. an infinite resistance C. the presence of a partial ground D. that the conductor is not short circuited Ans: A Which of the following temperatures represents the maximum 5698 allowable temperature for the electrolyte of a lead-acid battery? A. 100°F B. 125°F C. 145°F D. 212°F Ans: B A lead-acid battery may become hotter than normal during a charge 5700 if the _________. A. battery has a shorted cell B. charging voltage is too low C. specific gravity is too high D. battery room door is secured Ans: A Handheld phase sequence indicators are useful when ________. 5702 preparing to parallel alternators connecting lighting branch circuits troubleshooting DC motors connecting shore power lines to the ship D To determine the state of charge of a nickel-cadmium battery, you should ___________. A. check the electrolyte with a hydrometer
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5704
Page 323
B. C. D. Ans: 5705
A. B. C. D.
using the soldering iron tip sparingly using only acid cord solder applying mechanical pressure to the joints being soldered B The timer element of a reverse power relay cannot be energized unless _____________.
B. C. D. Ans: 5706
one generator is fully motorized the movement of the disk is damped by a permanent magnet the power flow is the same as the tripping direction the power flow is the opposite to the tripping direction
Ans: C An increase in which of the listed conditions will increase the speed of a synchronous motor? A. Frequency B. Voltage C. Armature current D. Inductance Ans: A Which of the following methods should be used to test for an "open" 5709 coil in an AC motor stator? 5707
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5708 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5710
A. Test with an ohmmeter, one test lead on the shaft, and the other test lead to the stator leads. B. Test with an ohmmeter with the test leads between the stator leads. C. Use a growler, listening for noise and v ibration to diminish when over an open coil. D. Use a growler, listening for noise and v ibration to increase when over an open coil. Ans: B Which of the problems listed will occur if a lead-acid battery is 5711 allowed to remain in a discharged condition for a long period of time?
C. the meter deflects to a low resistance value and slowly increases towards infinity D. the meter deflects to a low resistance value and increases rapidly to a higher value, but s tays fairly low Ans: C While troubleshooting a circuit in an engine room central control 5715 console, a resistor is suspected of being faulty. Which of the following precautions must be observed if an ohmmeter is to be used to check its value?
B. more torque will be developed C. the motor will immediately stop and not be able to be restarted D. the motor will immediately stop and can only be restarted at no load
5712
Ans: C The full load torque of an electric motor is the __________.
A. minimum torque developed by the m otor accelerating from stop to full speed B. turning moment exerted by the motor at rated load and speed C. maximum torque developed by the motor with rated voltage and frequency D. turning moment exerted by the motor from any rotor angular position at any load Ans: B
Ans: A The division of the kilowatt load between two AC generators operating in parallel is controlled by the settings and characteristics of the _____________. A. voltage regulators B. field rheostats C. reverse power relays
D. prime mover governors Ans: D The division of kilowatt load between two paralleled alternators is 5714 determined by the _____________. A. amount of field excitation of the leading machine B. load-speed characteristics of the governors C. amount of field excitation to the lagging machine D. type of alternator
5716
A. Correct polarity must be observed because reverse bias will damage the component. B. Meter leads must not be twisted so as to cancel out the individual magnetic fields. C. Resistor's circuit must be de-energized and at least one end of the component isolated. D. The meter case must be grounded prior to attaching the leads.
5717
gently tap the body with a screwdriver tag it with a de-energized tag be equipped with an insulated fuse puller short circuit the terminals to make sure that the capacitor is discharged D Before working on an electric cargo winch m aster switch or controller, you should _____________. spray the gasket surface with a solvent drain condensate from the box open the circuit breaker in the power supply and tag heat the switch box to remove any moisture C If a three-phase induction motor malfunctions and drops to a singlephase (one supply line open) ____________.
A. the motor will continue to run if it is not heavily loaded
A. The battery may be unable to accept a full charge. B. The electrolyte will change to lead sulfate. C. The concentrated sulfuric acid will attack the lead peroxide plates. D. The separators will harden. Ans: A When testing a capacitor with an analog type ohmmeter, a good 5713 capacitor will be indicated when _____________. A. there is no meter deflection B. the meter deflects to a low resistance value and remains there
use the constant specific gravity method use a nonbreakable mercury thermometer connect a voltmeter to the battery terminals D Before touching a small capacitor connected to a de-energized circuit, or even one that is completely disconnected, you should ____________.
Ans: B Which of the following procedures should be used to determine the load of a three-phase, delta wound, AC generator?
A. Multiply the amperage in one phase by three. B. Divide the total amperage in all phases by three. C. Multiply the amperage in one phase by the s quare root of three. D. Divide the total amperage in all phases by the square root of three.
5718
Ans: C Prior to using an analog type ohmmeter, the leads are purposely shorted together. Which of the following actions should be taken if, when adjusting to "zero" ohms, the indicating needle can not be returned to "zero" on the scale? A. The lead clips should be replaced. B. The batteries should be replaced. C. The test reading should be added to each final reading. D. The test reading should be subtracted from each final reading. Ans: B
Page 324
The transmit and receive elements of a sound-powered telephone handset are _____________.
5719
A. identical and can be used for either function B. of similar construction but different enough to be used only for its own function C. of very different construction and MUST be us ed only for its own function D. constructed so that each can fit only in its own recess Ans: A The function of a stepdown potential transformer is to reduce the 5721 load _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 5723 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5725
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5727
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5729 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5731 A. B.
voltage and current voltage and increase line current current and increase line voltage power B A loud buzzing noise in an AC controller is probably caused by _____________. poor contact with the overload relay an incorrectly sized heater a broken shading coil abnormal starting current C If an induction motor were to be operated at 90% rated voltage, _____________. there would be an increase in starting torque starting current would increase slightly synchronous speed would decrease slightly the slip would increase D The instantaneous reduction in voltage of an AC generator, resulting from an increase in load, and prior to the automatic voltage regulator correcting the situation, is called voltage ____________. droop drop dip regulation C Magnetic controller contacts may become welded together during operation because of _____________. excessive magnetic gap low contact pressure an open coil excessive ambient temperature B The output voltage of a 440 volt, 60 Hz AC generator is controlled by the ______________. load on the alternator load on the prime mover
A. increase as temperature decreases B. decrease as temperature decreases C. remain the same between -7°C and 44°C D. remain the same between 20°C and 110°C Ans: B To avoid damaging the components of a printed circuit board when 5722 testing it with a DC volt-ohmmeter, you should _______.
Ans: D When placed in a magnetic field, which of the materials listed will maintain the highest permeability? A. Glass B. Bakelite C. Soft iron D. Aluminum Ans: C One diode of a full-wave rectifier has burned out in a shorted 5735 condition. Therefore, the output will be ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 5737
zero a rectified half-wave a rectified full-wave equal to the AC input D Magnetic controller contacts may become welded together during operating conditions as a result of _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
ground the board avoid reversing the polarity of the leads isolate sensitive components with heat sinks all of the above B Increasing the load to the secondary windings of a transformer will cause a/an ____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
decrease in the primary voltage increase in the primary voltage decrease in the primary current increase in the primary current D When troubleshooting a magnetic controller, it is found that the contacts are welded together. The most probable cause is _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
excessive operation at low load high ambient temperature low voltage on the operating coil high voltage on the operating coil C A characteristic of a wound-rotor induction motor, with a high resistance rotor winding, is _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
low starting torque high starting torque high speed low starting voltage B If a transformer is connected to a DC source, the transformer will overload at the ____________. contacts primary coil secondary coil core B In a three-phase, s quirrel-cage type, induction motor the rotating magnetic field is established by the _____________. current induced in the rotor windings application of a three-phase voltage supply to the stator windings
5724
5726
5728
5730 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5732 A. B.
C. speed of the prime mover D. exciter output voltage
5733
The resistance of most conducting materials will change as a result of temperature change. The resistance of copper will _____________.
5720
C. laminated steel core and aluminum conductors in the rotor D. interaction of the magnetic field caused by the induced current in the squirrel-cage bars with the magnetic field of the stator Ans: B Before measuring an unknown resistance with an ohmmeter, you should _____________. A. adjust the meter's pointers to mid-scale B. change the meter's batteries C. center the meter's pointer at infinity D. short the test leads and calibrate the meter Ans: D The charge of a lead-acid battery is checked with a/an 5736 ____________. 5734
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5738
manometer hydrometer voltmeter ohmmeter B When a transformer is used to step down v oltage, the low voltage winding is _____________.
Page 325
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5739
high spring pressure high ambient temperature an open coil low voltage on operating coil D An AC circuit has capacitance arranged in series. If the line voltage remains constant, the capacitive reactance value can be varied by changing the _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5740
A. line frequency B. resistance C. number of commutating poles D. number of interpoles Ans: A Excessive humming of AC contactors may be caused by 5741 ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 5743 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5745 A. B. C. D.
burnt arc shields shorted armature coils a broken shading coil high voltage C The counter EMF produced in the windings of a DC motor is "zero" when the ____________. armature has just begun to turn armature is not turning motor is almost up to rated speed motor is at rated speed B The function of the commutator in a DC motor is to ________. reverse the flow of current through the armature reverse the flow of current in the field poles reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path through the motor shift the neutral running plane of the brushes to prevent sparking
Ans: A To increase the frequency of an operating AC generator, you should ____________. A. increase the field excitation B. decrease the field excitation C. increase the number of magnetic poles D. increase the speed of the prime mover Ans: D In the flow of one cycle of single phase AC current past any given 5749 point in a circuit, the maximum current peak occurs _____________. 5747
A. one time B. two times C. three times D. four times Ans: B If the length of a wire is halved and the cross-sectional area is 5751 doubled, the resistance will be _____________.
A. quartered B. unchanged C. doubled D. quadrupled Ans: A When correcting specific gravity readings of a lead-acid battery for 5753 existing temperature conditions, you should ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 5755
add 10 points for each 2.2° above 26.7°C subtract 10 points for each 2.2° above 26.7°C add 4 points for each 4.5° above 26.7°C add 4 points for each 4.5° below 26.7°C C The total power used up in a series circuit is ___________.
A. the sum of the powers used in each load (resistor) divided by the number of loads
part of the core the primary coil not insulated the secondary coil D The total voltage of a s eries circuit is the _____________.
A. sum of the individual voltage drops B. total resistance divided by the total current C. sum of the individual currents multiplied by the number of resistors D. total current divided by the total resistance Ans: A Decreasing the frequency in a capacitive circuit while maintaining a 5742 constant circuit voltage, will result in a/an _____________. increase in apparent power decrease in circuit current decrease in capacitive reactance decrease in total impedance B A loud buzzing noise coming from the contacts in a magnetic 5744 controller can be caused by ____________. A. excessive current B. excessive magnet gap C. bouncing of contacts D. dirt on magnet faces Ans: D Humming or buzzing of electric contacts is a symptom of 5746 ____________. A. low voltage on the operating coil B. power failure to the operating coil C. a control circuit ground D. a control circuit overload A. B. C. D. Ans:
5748
Ans: A The counter EMF of a DC motor is maximum when the _________.
A. motor is at rated speed B. armature is not turning C. motor is almost up to rated speed D. armature has just begun to turn Ans: A AC and DC generators are similar in that they _____________. 5750
A. both generate alternating voltages B. both rectify the voltage before delivery C. are constructed at the same physical size for the same kilowatt rating D. both supply three-phase power Ans: A Prior to taking a resistance reading with a volt-ohm-milliammeter, 5752 the "zero" setting must be adj usted. After clipping the two leads together, you find the adjustment knob will not return the pointer to "zero". This is most likely an indication of _ A. B. C. D. Ans:
an improper resistance range setting weak batteries a faulty zero ohms knob a faulty meter movement B Relative to the secondary winding of a s tep-up transformer, the primary winding will have _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
more turns fewer turns half as many turns twice as many turns B When the operating handle of a molded-case circuit breaker is in the mid-position, this indicates that the circuit breaker is _____________.
5754
5756
A. on
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B. C. D. Ans: 5757
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5759
the sum of the powers used in each load always less than the power used in the smallest load never more than the power used in largest load B If a magnetic controller contact fails to pick up when the operating coil is energized, one possible cause may be _______________. low spring pressure low voltage to the coil the residual magnetism of the contact faces dirty contact faces B The primary function of an electric motor is to ___________.
A. develop torque B. generate high voltages C. produce a magnetic field D. generate high electrical resistance Ans: A The resistance of electric wire will decrease as its 5761 _______________. A. length increases B. cross-sectional area increases C. temperature increases D. percent of metallic purities increases Ans: B When the voltage remains constant and the resistance is 5763 increased in a series circuit, the flow of current _____________. increases by the square of the original value increases remains the same decreases D The voltage output of an AC generator is accurately controlled by 5765 _____________. A. changing the sensitivity of the prime mover to large changes in voltage B. varying the reluctance of the air gap C. varying the DC exciter v oltage D. shorting out part of the armature windings Ans: C Which of the formulas listed is correct for determining power? 5767
B. C. D. Ans: 5758
saltwater brackish water distilled water light water C Current measuring instruments must always be connected in 5760 _____________. A. series with a circuit B. parallel with a circuit C. series-parallel with a circuit D. delta with the shunt Ans: A Which of the instruments listed should always be connected in 5762 series with a circuit? A. Ammeter B. Megohmmeter C. Wattmeter D. Voltmeter Ans: A An ammeter should be used to measure ___________. 5764 A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. P = (E)(E)/R B. P = (I)(R)(R) C. P = (I)(I)/R D. P = E/R Ans: A When a console indicating lamp burns out, attempts to renew it 5769 should not be made while maneuvering because _______________. A. the new lamp may be of a higher wattage and cause heat damage to the lens B. removing a faulty lamp usually causes an alarm to sound on the bridge C. attention should be paid only to engine orders D. a socket/wiring fault may cause a ground or short circuit to shut down a vital function Ans: D One horsepower is equal to _____________. 5771 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5773 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5775
500 watts 663 watts 746 watts 1,000 watts C Modern handheld digital tachometers operate by counting light pulses returned to the unit by ______________. the tach generator either the coupling or shaft a small bulb attached to the shaft a piece of reflective tape D When troubleshooting a lead-acid storage battery, a weak or dead cell is best detected by _________________.
off reset tripped D Which of the listed forms of water should be added to a lead-acid battery?
the voltage between two points in a circuit circuit continuity current flow in a circuit total or partial circuit resistance C In a compound-wound motor, a portion of the line current flows through the _____________. A. inertial poles
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5766
stator shunt field coils frame C Which of the listed meters uses a shunt connected in series with the 5768 load, but parallel with the meter movement? A. Voltmeter B. Power factor meter C. Ammeter D. Wattmeter Ans: C The rate at which heat is produced in a direct current circuit is 5770 equal to ____________. B. C. D. Ans:
A. P divided by R B. I squared times R C. E divided by I D. I times R divided by T Ans: B An ammeter reads slightly above "zero" when its leads are disconnected, this is a result of ___________. A. mechanical misalignment of the meter pointer B. a poor ground for the meter case C. static electricity in the air D. resistors inside the meter storing charges Ans: A To determine the state of charge of a nickel-cadmium battery, you 5774 would use a/an _____________. A. voltmeter B. hydrometer C. ammeter D. potentiometer Ans: A Common nickel-cadmium and nickel-iron storage batteries utilize 5776 _______________. 5772
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measuring and comparing all cells' specific gravity taking an open circuit v oltage test of individual cells visually inspecting the electrolyte levels of each cell taking each cell's temperature with a calibrated mercury thermometer Ans: A The amount of voltage induced in the windings of an AC generator 5777 depends mainly on _____________. A. the number of field poles energized B. the speed at which the stator windings rotate through the magnetic field C. the strength of the magnetic field D. all of the above Ans: C When mixing electrolyte, which of the following precautions should 5779 always be observed? A. B. C. D.
5778
acid primary cells alkaline primary cells acid secondary cells alkaline secondary cells
Ans: D Which of the following materials is a good electrical insulator? A. wood B. silver
C. copper D. gold Ans: A Which of the following statements represents the correct method of 5780 connecting the shunt of an ammeter prior to taking a reading?
A. Add the acid to the water.
A. In series with the load and in series with the meter movement.
B. Use a heavy duty aluminum pail.
B. In series with the load and in parallel with the meter movement.
C. Add the water to the acid.
C. In parallel with the load and in series with the meter movement.
D. Mix the solution outdoors.
D. In parallel with the load and in parallel with the meter movement.
Ans: A Nickel-cadmium storage batteries are s uperior to lead-acid batteries because they __________. A. put out higher voltages and require no maintenance B. can remain idle and keep a full charge for a long time C. need fewer cells in series and use less mounting space D. all of the above Ans: B A handheld digital tachometer could give a bad reading if 5783 ___________________. 5781
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5785 A. B. C. D.
aimed directly at the shaft partially aimed at a 60 Hz. fluorescent light positioned 10-25 cms from the shaft the tape is too shiny B When removing ball or roller bearings from the shaft of a motor, you should use a _____________. rawhide hammer brass mallet wheel puller soft iron pry bar
Ans: C The frequency of an AC generator is controlled by the _____________. A. rheostat B. governor C. exciter D. capacitor Ans: B The frequency of an alternator is controlled from the main 5789 switchboard by adjusting the _____________. A. frequency meter B. voltage regulator C. governor control D. sychroscope switch Ans: C In order to take a current reading with a "clamp-on" ammeter, the 5791 instrument's jaws _________________. 5787
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5793
A. B. C. D.
should remain open cannot touch the adjacent conductor must be fully closed will act as a transformer primary C When troubleshooting an alkaline storage battery a weak or dead cell is best located by ____________.
A. checking the specific gravity of each cell B. visually inspecting each cell's electrolyte level C. testing each cell with a v oltmeter
Ans: B The force that causes free electrons to move in a c onductor as electric current flow is called a/an _____________. A. resistant force B. electromotive force C. inductive force D. dielectric force Ans: B Which of the listed sections of an emergency switchboard is used to 5784 supply power for alarm signals under emergency conditions? 5782
The generator and bus transfer section The 450 volt, 60 cycle, 3 phase bus The 120 volt, 3 phase, 60 cycle bus The 24 volt DC bus D The rotation of a three-phase induction motor can be reversed by _____________. A. interchanging any two of the three line leads to the stator B. disconnecting one of the three line leads to the stator C. switching the shunt field coil leads D. permanently disconnecting any two of the three line leads to the stator Ans: A The 24 volt DC bus on the emergency switchboard is used to supply power to the _____________. A. general alarm system B. gyrocompass power failure alarm system C. smoke detection system D. all of the above Ans: D The reversal of an AC, three-phase, induction motor is accomplished by ______________. A. changing all three motor leads B. reversing the position of the slip rings C. interchanging any two of the three motor leads D. interchanging any two brushes Ans: C The number of cycles per second occurring in AC v oltage is known as the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
5786
5788
5790
5792
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5794
phase angle frequency wave form half mode B When a megohmmeter is used to test the dielectric strength of wire insulation, the initial dip of the pointer toward "zero" is caused by _____________.
A. good insulation B. the leakage of current along the s urface of dirty insulation C. the capacitance of the circuit
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D. measuring the electrolyte temperature with an accurate mercury thermometer Ans: C Which of the following statements concerning AC circuits is correct? 5795
D. the dielectric absorption effect of the insulation
5796
A. The power factor of a resistive circuit is always zero. B. True power in an inductive circuit always equals apparent power. C. Inductive reactance varies directly with the frequency and the inductance. D. Total opposition to the flow of alternating current depends upon the amount of reactive power. Ans: C If the driving torque, such as that produced by a diesel engine, 5797 creates pulsations when coupled with a synchronous generator operating in parallel; the generator rotor may beperiodically pulled ahead or behind its normal position as it rotates. This hunt A. amortisseur windings B. direct coupling C. increase governor speed droop D. decreasing governor speed droop
5799
5801
Ans: A Motor name plate data includes "‚°C rise". This indicates the _____________.
C. a reading of "zero" on a megger from one of the coil's leads to ground D. a higher-than-normal voltage reading across the winding
5798
Ans: B Which of the following statements represents the FIRST s tep in seating new brushes on slip rings?
A. Wrap sandpaper around the slip rings and slide it back and forth between the brushes and the s lip rings. B. Press the brushes against the slip ring with a wood block. C. Increase brush pressure and run at no load for 3 to 4 hours. D. Apply seating compound under the brushes and run at no load for 2 hours. Ans: A When using a megohmmeter to test the dielectric strength of wire 5800 insulation, a continuous series of slight downscale kicks by the pointer is result of ____________.
A. actual running temperature of the winding from no load to full load
A. good insulation
B. permissible temperature rise of the windings above the designed ambient temperature C. maximum allowable temperature rise above normal full load operating temperature D. maximum allowable temperature rise for continuous no load service
B. the leakage of current along the surface of dirty insulation
Ans: B A commutator's protective oxide film can be destroyed by _________________.
C. the capacitance of the windings D. the dielectric-absorption effect of the insulation
5802
Ans: B When the electrolyte level of a lead-acid storage battery has decreased due to normal evaporation, the level should be reestablished by adding _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
periods of low humidity very low brush current density improper brush grade all of the above D When shipboard electrical distribution circuits are connected in parallel, additional parallel circuits will cause the total circuit resistance to _____________.
A. distilled water only B. sulfuric acid only C. a weak solution of sulfuric acid and distilled water D. a strong solution of sulfuric acid and distilled water Ans: A Which of the listed classes of electrical insulation is suited for the 5804 highest operating temperature?
A. B. C. D. Ans:
increase, causing a drop in the line current increase, causing a decrease in the line voltage decrease, causing an increase in the line voltage decrease, causing an increase in the line current D When the c ontrol handle is in the "off" position, thesolenoid actuated brake of the electric winch is _________. de-energized and the brake is released energized and the brake is released energized and the brake is set by a spring de-energized and the brake is set by a spring D When troubleshooting a console circuit card suspected of being faulty, the last step would be to _______________. check the fuses and v oltage levels of all power supplies in the console clean dust and debris from the card and burnish the sliding connections make sure all connections are tight including wire wrappings and push-on types substitute a new or repaired spare card and check the operation of the circuit D Which of the listed groups of electrical insulation materials is best suited for the highest operating temperatures?
Class 90 (O) Class 105 (A) Class 130 (B) Class 180 (H) D In D.C. motor construction, the armature coils' ends are 5806 _______________. A. soldered to the commutator bar risers B. imbedded into core slots C. crimped together with brush pigtails D. spliced with the field windings Ans: A The armature cores of the D.C. motors are constructed with 5808 laminations to ___________. A. eliminate hysteresis
5803
5805 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5807 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5809
Ans: C When troubleshooting motor controllers, a shorted relay or contactor coil is often indicated by _______________. A. a resistance reading of "infinity" on an ohmmeter B. charred insulation and/or a blown control fuse
A. impregnated cotton and silk B. unimpregnated paper and cotton
A. B. C. D. Ans:
B. minimize brush sparking C. reduce eddy current losses D. compensate for armature reaction
5810
Ans: C Capacitors can be used in electric distribution systems to improve power factor. This is accomplished by seesawing energy between the capacitor and the _____________. A. generator B. inductive loads
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C. pure glass and quartz D. mica and porcelain with bonding agents Ans: C You are paralleling two alternators. The synchronizing lamps grow 5811 dim and are totally darkened as the synchroscope pointer approaches the 0‚ position. This indicates that the ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 5813
5815
5817
5819
5821
A. open field coil B. shorted field coil C. grounded field coil D. shunted field coil Ans: A Moisture absorbed in the windings or condensed on the surface of electrical machinery insulation ________. A. is good for long term preserving since most insulation is organic and contains some amount B. lowers the insulation value and is a common cause of fault grounds in idle machines C. will enhance insulation resistance only if it is fresh water and contains no salt D. reduces the amount of current supplied or drawn by the machine so horsepower is limited Ans: B If a fuse of correct size and type blows frequently, ________________. A. try the next higher amperage rating B. try the next lower amperage rating C. look for trouble within the circuit D. reduce the applied voltage 10% Ans: C What type of electric motor is commonly used to start small auxiliary diesel engines? A. synchronous B. series C. shunt D. cage Ans: B All of the following items can be used in the maintenance of a D.C. propulsion motor's commutator EXCEPT _______________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
a canvas wiper safety solvent abrasive dressing stones sandpaper B Complete controller maintenance includes _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
periodic testing of protective devices checking for loose or worn contacts and weak springs maintaining a sufficient supply of spare parts all of the above D How is a wattmeter electrically connected in a circuit?
A. B. C. D. Ans:
In series In parallel In series-parallel Inductively C A wattmeter is used to determine ____________.
5823
5825
5827
alternator voltages are 180‚ apart circuit breaker can be closed incoming alternator is running too slowly synchroscope is defective or broken B The leads from a megohmmeter are attached to the leads of an AC motor field coil. A reading of infinity is obtained indicating a/an ____________.
A. the power being consumed by electrical equipment B. partial circuit resistance C. current flowing in a circuit D. voltage existing between two points in a circuit Ans: A
C. resistive loads D. all of the above Ans: B If you reverse both the field and the armature connections to a DC 5812 propulsion motor, _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5814
the direction of motor rotation will change the brushes will become overheated a magnetic lock will occur in the motor the direction of motor rotation will remain the same D The direction of rotation of a DC propulsion motor can be changed by reversing the _____________.
brush holder position polarity of the field poles brush staggered order motor interpole connections B The voltage developed by an AC generator is controlled by varying the ____________. A. speed of the prime mover
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5816
B. AC excitation to the field C. DC excitation to the field D. DC excitation of the voltage regulator Ans: C If violent gassing occurs when a lead-acid storage battery is first placed on charge, the _____________. A. battery must be given an emergency charge B. charging rate is too low C. charging rate is too high D. specific gravity of the electrolyte solution is too low Ans: C Violent gassing developed by a lead-acid battery during charging 5820 indicates that the ____________. A. plate separators are grounded B. cell voltages are excessive C. specific gravity in insufficient D. charging rate is excessive Ans: D A reverse-current relay will prevent AC generator motorization by 5822 ____________. 5818
automatically redirecting the load automatically speeding up the prime mover tripping the panel board main switch tripping the generator circuit breaker D If a loaded shunt motor's field were weakened by rheostat 5824 resistance or by an open circuit, the motor would _________. A. overspeed due to reduced CEMF B. stop because of low flux C. continue to run at base speed D. slow down and overheat Ans: A An AC generator panel is fitted with both synchronizing lamps and 5826 a synchroscope. When the synchroscope pointer reaches the noon position, one synchronizing light is bright and the other is dark. This means _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5828 A. B. C. D. Ans:
there is a ground on the phase with the dark lamp the phase sequence is incorrect the phase sequence is correct the generator breaker may be closed B Which of the following statements is true concerning a stepdown transformer in an operating AC power circuit? Voltage and current will both be increased. Voltage and current will both be decreased Voltage decreases as current increases. Voltage increases as current decreases. C
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The RPM of an AC generator can be measured with a/an _____________.
5829
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5831
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5833
ammeter voltmeter vibrating reed meter synchroscope C If the pointer of the synchroscope is rotating in the slow direction when you are preparing to parallel two alternators, the _____________. incoming machine is turning faster than the load alternator loaded alternator is turning faster than the incoming machine load on the loaded alternator is ready to split incoming machine is beginning to pick up some of the load B The following air gap readings were obtained from a horizontally mounted, bilge pump, induction motor, equipped with sleeve bearings: FWD END AFT END Top .045 .049Right Side .045 .047Left Side .
A. The aft bearing should be realigned or replaced. B. Shims should be removed from the aft bearing. C. The forward bearing should be lowered. D. The aft bearing should be lowered. Ans: A When the operating handle of a molded case circuit breaker is in 5835 the mid-position, it indicates the circuit breaker is _____________. A. in the "opened" position B. in the "closed" position C. tripped D. reset Ans: C In a three-phase, open-delta connected transformer, the line 5837 current is equal to _____________. A. the phase current B. three times the phase current C. the sum of any two phase currents D. the difference of any two phase c urrents Ans: A To limit the current flow through a DC voltmeter to as low a v alue as 5839 possible, the moving coil circuit is provided with a/an _____________.
The "dielectric constant" is a numerical value indicating the effectiveness of a dielectric material in comparison to that of a standard, which is _______________.
5830
A. B. C. D. Ans:
paper or cloth glass or mica plastic or Teflon dry air or a vacuum D The air gap in an induction motor should be checked periodically with a feeler gage to detect ____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
rotor contact with the laminations changes in armature magnetic strength excessive bearing wear electrical damage to the rotor C The "dielectric constant" of dry air or a vacuum is _______.
5832
5834
A. B. C. D. Ans: A During maintenance of circuit breakers, _______________. 5836
1 10 100 1000
A. always smooth roughened contact surfaces with a file B. never pass more than rated breaker current through the overload heater element C. inspect for wear and misalignment of main contacts D. assume heater elements installed are of correct size Ans: C Most AC voltmeters are calibrated to indicate __________. 5838 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5840
peak-to-peak voltage root-mean-square voltage average voltage peak voltage only B Encrusted dirt accumulated inside a motor s hould be removed with a _____________.
A. high series resistance A. fiber scraper B. high parallel resistance B. pointed welding rod C. series inductor C. hammer and chisel D. external shunt D. paint scraper Ans: A Ans: A To check the three line fuses of a three-phase system consisting of 5842 If the voltage applied to a moving disk frequency meter decreases, 5841 a three-phase motor, you must _____________. while the applied frequency remains the same, the frequency indication will _____________. A. place the starter in the "s top" position B. make sure the motor is operating at full load to guard against a false reading C. place the leads across the "hot" ends of the fuses D. place the leads across the bottom ends of the fuses Ans: A Which of the listed conditions could indicate the need for cleaning 5843 electrical insulation? A. Low ambient temperature B. Low operating temperature C. High dielectric strength
A. increase B. decrease C. remain the same D. oscillate Ans: C The reactive power drawn by a motor from an AC generator is the 5844 power which is _____________. A. used to establish the magnetic field of the motor B. lost in overcoming friction in the bearings C. strictly converted to heat generated by current flow through the windings
D. Low megger readings
5845
Ans: D The most inefficient method of voltage reduction, from the standpoint of power loss, even when placed in series with the load, is the use of a/an ____________. A. capacitor B. inductor C. resistor D. transistor
D. transmitted directly through the rotor shaft to perform useful work
5846
Ans: A When using a multimeter for resistance measurements, it should be calibrated by clipping the loose ends of the leads together and _____________. A. setting the instrument pointer at "zero" ohms B. adjusting the line voltage to calibrate the instrument C. plugging each end of one test lead into the plus and minus terminals D. using a special purpose resistance measuring instrument (a bridge)
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Ans: C Which of the following statements regarding the use of a current measuring instrument is correct? A. It must be connected in series with the circuit. B. You should always start with the lowest range until a suitable reading is obtained. C. The indicating needle is deflected from left to right regardless of polarity. D. An external shunt is generally utilized where current is less than 10 amperes. Ans: A Which of the listed pairs of materials make the best insulators? 5849 5847
A. copper and aluminum B. glass and mica C. dry air and a vacuum D. doped silicon and germanium Ans: B In a logic circuit the NOR and NAND gate functions 5851 ____________. A. must be accomplished with a common base transistor arrangement B. are available in diode form C. are exact opposites with the same NOR and NAND inputs D. have output conditions that are exact opposites to the output condition for OR and AND, respectively Ans: D A three-phase, squirrel cage, induction motor will run hot due to 5853 _____________.
5848
A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four
5850
D. reversed commutating poles Ans: A A three-phase, squirrel cage, induction motor will run hot due to 5855 a/an ______________. A. improper brush position B. reversed commutating pole C. shorted stator D. high power factor Ans: C A split-phase induction squirrel-cage motor will not come up to 5857 speed, even though the rated voltage, rated frequency, and rated load are applied. The suspected trouble could be due to _____________.
B. ammeter only C. voltmeter and an ammeter D. ohmmeter only
5854
C. open the circuit breakers on the distribution panel, one at a time, until the lights no longer indicate a ground D. check all circuits for continuity Ans: C Which of the listed pairs of materials make the best insulators? 5856 A. B. C. D. Ans: 5858
C. change over generators D. check each circuit with a megohmmeter Ans: B To protect the rotor of a motor disassembled for maintenance or 5860 overhaul, it should be ___________________.
A. examine the main bus bars for signs of overheating B. eliminate the individual circuits one by one until the ground detecting system no longer indicates any grounds
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5863
Fuel pump motor Steering motor Condensate pump motor Forced draft blower motor B A change in field excitation of an alternator operating in parallel will cause a change in its _____________.
dry air and a vacuum tin and lead doped silicon and germanium paper and oil D A ground is indicated by the ground-detecting system on the main electrical switchboard. The FIRST step in locating the actual ground is to _____________.
A. close all circuit breakers in the distribution panel until the ground detector indicates normal B. open the individual circuit breakers, one by one until the ground detection system indicates normal
B. broken rotor bars
C. change over generators D. check each circuit with a megohmmeter Ans: B An overload in which of the listed motors will result inthe illumination 5861 of an indicating light at the propulsion control station alarm panel?
Ans: C The ground indicating light on the main electrical switchboard is indicating a ground. The best procedure for locating the grounded circuit is to _____________. A. trace the circuit paths while looking for burned spots B. check circuit resistances with a megohmmeter connected between the grounded line and the distribution panel framework
A. a faulty centrifugal switch
C. worn bearings D. all of the above Ans: D Multiple grounds have developed and were initialy indicated by the 5859 ground-detecting system as one ground. The FIRST step in locating the grounds is to _____________.
Ans: B In a logic circuit, the NOT gate function _____________.
A. does not alter a logical input B. serves to amplify a given signal level C. must be accomplished with a common collector transistor arrangement D. reverses an input logic c ondition Ans: D Conductor resistance may be INDIRECTLY measured by using 5852 a/an _____________. A. voltmeter only
A. open stator coils B. high power factor
C. dirty or corroded slip rings
Ans: A How many possible states does a binary logic circuit have?
A. suspended by wire slings in one corner of the shop B. wrapped in several layers of heavy paper or cardboard C. supported by flat wood blocks on the workbench D. returned to the frame as soon as the bearings are removed Ans: B A current-carrying conductor makes accidental contact with a wiring 5862 conduit. This will be indicated by a _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 5864
low switchboard wattmeter reading high switchboard wattmeter reading darkened switchboard ground detecting lamp darkened switchboard synchronizing lamps C The effect of carrying field excitation excessively high on a synchronous motor will result in a _____________.
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alternator frequency kilowatt load voltage output all of the above C A fuse will "blow" if _____________. A. an electric motor is stopped suddenly by opening a switch B. the flow of current to the protection device is reversed C. the electrical current exceeds the rated value of the fuse D. unequal resistors are connected in parallel Ans: C When a fluorescent lamp fails to light, the trouble can be in the _____________. A. lamp B. starter C. ballast D. all of the above Ans: D Which of the following conditions can lead to the failure of a resistor? A. Excessive vibration B. Insufficient v entilation C. Corrosion D. All of the above Ans: D Which of the conditions listed will indicate the need to clean the insulation on the windings of an electric motor? A. Higher than normal operating temperature. B. Excessive vibration at normal speed. C. Sparking at the brushes. D. High megger readings. Ans: A Which of the listed procedures is the best way to tell if a motor has become overloaded? A. Measure the current flow and compare it with the m otor full load current flow as shown on the nameplate. B. Feel the motor and judge by the temperature. C. Watch for telltale signs of smoke coming from the motor. D. Periodic opening of the O/L relay coil Ans: A On some electrical generating equipment one outboard bearing pedestal is insulated from the bedplate. To check this insulation with the machine assembled you should us e a____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
5865
5867
5869
5871
5873
5875
ohmmeter with the machine secured millivolt meter and a jumper with the machine running megohm meter with the machine running voltmeter and ampmeter with the machine running B If deck machinery is expected to be idle for an extended period of time you should____________. A. have electrical safety gloves available in case of electrical shock before running B. perform a "high pot" test to determine the condition of the insulation
5866
5868
5870
5872
C. water wash the motor and controller to remove any salt that may interfere with smooth operation D. check run at regular intervals to inusre correct operation and to renew the internal coating of lubrication Ans: D A switchboard ammeter indicates a reading slightly above "zero" 5879 when the leads are disconnected, this is caused by _____________. A. mechanical misalignment of the meter pointer B. a poor ground for the meter case C. static electricity in the air D. capacitors inside the meter storing charges Ans: A Brush sparking during commutation may be caused by ________. 5881
A. B. C. D.
eddy currents in the armature core laminations in the generator field pieces induced current opposite to coil inductance coil inductance discharge occurring at commutation
variable resistor diode strain gauge thermistor B If a small electric motor is imersed in salt water itshould be _________. I. washed in fresh water II. dried in an oven A. I only
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5874
B. C. D. Ans:
II only both I and II neither I or II C When an AC or a DC motor fails to start, the FIRST step in troubleshooting should be to check the ____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
motor windings for obvious opens motor controller leads for c ontinuity fuse or circuit breaker motor controller leads for grounds C Ambient temperature is the _____________.
5876
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5877
tendency for the motor to fall out of step tendency for the motor to overspeed tendency for the motor to overheat loss of motor speed regulation C The inductance of a coil is measured in _____________. A. ohms B. volts C. henries D. amperes Ans: C Electric current is the flow of electrons through a conductor; the rate of this flow is measured in ___________. A. volts B. amperes C. coulombs D. ohms Ans: B A circuit with a blown fuse would be described as a/an _____________. A. short circuit B. open circuit C. bonded circuit D. grounded circuit Ans: B Which of the listed devices may be used as a digitaldevice? A. B. C. D. Ans:
5878
A. amount of temperature rise with no load B. amount of temperature developed by an operating motor C. temperature of the compartment where the motor is located D. normal operating temperature, less the room temperature
5880
Ans: C Air gap readings should be periodicly taken for electrical generation equipment. The best tool to use to take these measurements is a ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
5882
A. B. C. D.
cloth (non-metalic) tape measure dial indicator inside micrometer tapered, long blade, feeler gage D Air gap readings for electrical generating equipment should be taken periodicly. This is to _______. I. determine the condition of the bearings II. prevent damage to the rotor and stator I only II only both I and II neither I or II
Page 333
5883
Ans: D The following air gap readings were obtained from a horizontally mounted, bilge pump, induction motor, equipped with sleeve bearings: FWD END AFT END Top .045 .049Right Side .045 .047Left Side .
A. both the aft and foward bearings should be replaced. B. Shims should be removed from the aft bearing. C. The forward bearing should be lowered. D. The aft bearing should be lowered. Ans: A As part of a routine maintenance program for deck machinery, you 5885 should ___________.
5884
Ans: C A ground on a particular phase of a three-phase low voltage distribution system would be indicated by a _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5886
high switchboard wattmeter reading low switchboard wattmeter reading dark or dim switchboard ground detecting light bright switchboard ground detecting light C Which of the listed conditions will occur if the polarity of the field poles and the direction of current to the brushes of a DC motor were both reversed?
A. inspect electrical wiring and pushbutton switches for evidence of corrosion or burned insulation B. disassemble pushbutton switches and drain water each week
A. The motor would not start.
C. remove motor covers and ventilate as weather permits
C. The direction of rotation of the armature would be unchanged.
B. The direction of rotation of the armature would be reversed.
D. Check drum switch contact pressure every three months Ans: A The armature cores of the D.C. motors are constructed with 5887 laminations to ___________. A. eliminate hysteresis B. minimize brush sparking C. reduce eddy current losses D. compensate for armature reaction Ans: C DC generator voltage is decreased by cutting _____________. 5889
D. The field pole windings would become overheated. Ans: C Equalization of the power factors of two alternators operating in 5888 parallel is accomplished _____________. A. manually, by adjusting the governor controls B. automatically, by automatic voltage regulators C. manually, adjusting the output of current transformers D. automatically, by the designed action of the governors Ans: B In a three-phase electrical system, three ground detecting lamps 5890 are provided. If all three lamps REMAIN at half-brilliance when the ground detecting test switch is operated, ______________.
A. in field resistance B. out field resistance C. in armature resistance D. out armature resistance Ans: A An open coil in a transformer will be indicated by which ofthe listed 5891 conditions? A. "zero" resistance accompanied by high inductance B. no resistance accompanied by stray inductance C. infinite resistance in addition to no inductance D. infinite resistance in addition to normal inductance Ans: C An open in the armature of a DC motor is suspected, but is not 5893 found by visual inspection of the commutator. The next step in troubleshooting this problem is to ________________.
there is a slight ground on all three phases the switch must be replaced there are no grounds present the light bulbs are of improper v oltage C A four-pole induction motor, operating on three-phase 60 cycle 5892 current will operate at approximately ___________. A. 850 RPM B. 1,150 RPM C. 1,750 RPM D. 3,550 RPM Ans: C An autotransformer is equipped with a 50% tap, a 65% tap, and an 5894 80% tap. Which of the following statements is true concerning a load connected to the 50% tap?
A. conduct a bar to bar test of the armature B. visually inspect the armature windings C. conduct an insulation resistance test of the armature D. test the commutator for a ground Ans: A A battery is connected to a circuit containing three resistors in 5895 parallel. The values of the three resistors are 2 ohms, 3 ohms, and 6 ohms. What is the voltage of the battery if the total circuit current is 12 amps? A. B. C. D. Ans: 5897
A. B. C. D.
5899
2 volts 6 volts 12 volts 24 volt C If a DC motor runs hot, the cause may be _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. 5 volts, the output changes 10 volts B. 10 volts, the output changes 5 volts C. 2 volts, the output changes 10 volts
The load is receiving minimum v oltage and minimum current. The load is receiving minimum v oltage and maximum current. The load is receiving maximum v oltage and minimum current. The load is receiving maximum voltage and maximum current. B When two generators are on the line and are sharing the load equally, they are said to be operating in _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
frequency series parallel resonance C Which of the methods listed is used to maintain the division of load between two compound-wound, DC generators operating in parallel?
A. B. C. D.
The shunt fields are interconnected. The shunt field rheostats are interconnected. The series fields of both generators are connected in series. The equalizer connection parallels the series fields of all machines.
5896
5898
high mica condition low ambient temperature clogged ventilation ducts an open in the shunt field
Ans: C An operational amplifier, as used in today's consoles, has a calculated gain of 5. This means that when the input changes _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
5900
Ans: D Damp armature windings in a D.C. motor may lead to ____________. A. reduced voltage B. reduced current C. increased resistance
Page 334
D. 10 volts, the output changes 2 volts Ans: C When the length and cross sectional area of a wire are both tripled, 5901 the resistance _____________.
D. overheating Ans: D Universal motors will operate on AC or DC current, and are 5902 generally found in _____________.
increases nine fold increases three fold remains the same decreases six fold C A diesel driven emergency generator is prevented from being 5903 paralleled with the ship's service generators by __________. A. an electrical interlock system B. an automatic paralleling trip switch C. the synchronizing oscilloscope D. the reverse current relay Ans: A Which of the listed motors will operate at the highest RPM, 5905 assuming that each operates at the same frequency? A. A four-pole synchronous motor under normal load.
A. portable tools B. large pump motors C. turbo electric main motors D. forced draft fans Ans: A The energy consumed by an AC motor, as strictly reactive power, is 5904 _____________. A. used to do mec hanical work B. used to establish the magnetic field of the motor C. lost as heat generated by the windings D. lost in doing work to turn the motor itself Ans: B On large generators, space heaters are used to ____________. 5906
A. B. C. D. Ans:
B. A four-pole induction motor under no load. C. A six-pole synchronous motor under normal load. D. A six-pole induction motor under full load. Ans: A Which of the listed colors properly describes a DC motor 5907 commutator when correct commutation is taking place? A. B. C. D. Ans: 5909
Shiny blue Burnished green Brick red Chocolate brown D A twelve volt lead-acid battery is constructed of _________.
A. keep the machine at ambient tmperature of the machinery space B. maintain rotor and stator winding temperatures above the dew point to prevent the formation of condensation C. prevent condensation in the lube oil D. prevent electrolysis due to condensation in the bearings Ans: B An AC generator produces 60 Hz at 1800 RPM. If the generator 5908 speed is increased to 1830 RPM, the cycles will _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 5910
A. one cell B. three cells C. six cells
A. feeding current into the windings at low voltage B. short circuiting the armature and field windings C. short circuiting the field windings and passing current through the armature D. obtaining current from a DC source such as an electric welder and feeding it into the armature while running the motor at full speed
D. twelve cells
5911
Ans: C In order to safely carry out repairs to a generator circuit breaker, it must be isolated from the bus. This is accomplished by opening the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
5913
reverse power relay bus disconnect link generator bus fuse connections power directional relay B The removal of paint from electrical equipment, such as generators, should be cautiously undertaken because ____________.
5912
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5917
the dropping of load by that alternator overspeeding of the v ibrating alternator the alternator was operating out of synchronism flashover at the alternator collector rings C Which of the following problems will occur if the circuit breaker of the incoming alternator is closed and it is 180° out of phase with the loaded alternator when paralleling?
Ans: A Three 12 volt, lead-acid, batteries connected in series will develop __________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
5914
A. the mechanical shock of paint removal lessens the dielectric strength of the insulation B. the paint dust is composed of abrasive and semi-conducting materials which impair insulation C. paint dust buildup has a tendency to cause corrosion D. phase windings frequently become isolated from each other due to dust interference at the terminals Ans: B An alternator operating in parallel begins to vibrate severely and 5915 eventually trips out on the reverse power relay. The cause of the vibration was a result of ______________________.
remain at 60 Hz increase to 61 Hz decrease to 59 Hz increase to 63 Hz B Moisture accumulating in electric motors and generator windings having a cold insulation resistance greater than 50,000 ohms may be baked out with internal heat. This heat can be developed by ____________.
12 volts 24 volts 36 volts 48 volts C An alternator will fail to produce line voltage as a result of _____________.
A. a closed circuit breaker B. oxidized slip rings C. improperly staggered brushes D. exciter generator failure
5916
Ans: D Severe vibration, accompanied by flashover at the collector rings of an alternator operating in parallel, is a symptom of _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5918
reverse current m otorization loss of synchronism destructive overspeeding reversed polarity B Voltage failure of an AC generator may be caused by ____________.
Page 335
A. The rotor of the loaded alternator will hunt. B. Severe cross currents will occur which could cause damage. C. The rotor of the incoming alternator will stop. D. Both alternators will parallel 180° out of phase. Ans: B According to Regulations , which of the following systems must be 5919 arranged so as to be energized by the final emergency power source? A. B. C. D. Ans: 5921
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5922
arcing at the brushes pulsating terminal current heating of the armature core hunting and over control C An open shunt field in a direct current machine may be located by connecting the field circuit to an external power source, equal to the rated field voltage or less, and tested with a voltmeter from _____________.
turn it down in the ship's lathe use a grinding rig use a hand stone burnish it with commutator stones B Three factors responsible for the change in voltage as load is applied to an AC generator are: 1) the drop inresistance in the armature circuit, 2) the change in flux,and 3) the ____________.
A. one line terminal to each coil lead in succession B. one field coil to each adj acent field coil in turn C. any suitable ground to any available line lead D. any field pole to each field coil lead Ans: A The division of the reactive KVA load between paralleled AC 5924 generators is initiated by the ______________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
armature winding speed inductance load drop coil pitch factor armature reactance voltage drop D Which of the following statements about a three-phase wye connection is correct? The line current is 1.73 times the phase current. The phase current is 1.73 times the line current. The line voltage is 1.73 times the phase voltage. The phase voltage is 1.73 times the line voltage. C Regulations require that lighting fixture globes must be protected by guards if the fixtures are located in the ____________.
prime mover governors voltage regulators phase balance relay proportioner B According to Regulations , the talking and calling circuits of a sound 5926 powered telephone system must be _____________. A. intrinsically safe B. independent of each other C. independently grounded D. connected to a common ground Ans: B The emergency electrical power source on tank vessels over 500 5928 GT on an international voyage, should be capable of continuous operation under emergency load for _____________.
5925 A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. steering gear room B. galley C. living quarters D. wheelhouse Ans: A Which of the following statements concerning electrical cables is 5929 correct? A. Where they pass through watertight bulkheads, they should be fitted with watertight stuffing boxes. B. Electric cable coverings should never be grounded. C. Electrical cables must be rigidly held in place by welding of armored cable, or glued in place where nonmetallic insulation is used. D. All of the above.
5931
C. high mica segments on the stator bus bar D. excessive prime mover speed Ans: A Hysteresis in a direct current generator is indicated by 5920 _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5923
5927
at least one light in the steering gear room each power operated watertight door system each charging panel for temporary emergency batteries all of the above D The most practical method used for resurfacing a ship's service motor commutator is to _____________.
A. failure of the exciter generator B. a tripped bus circuit breaker
Ans: A If overloading a DC machine becomes necessary in an emergency, you should ____________. A. cool the machine with portable blowers and fans
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5930
6 hours 12 hours 18 hours 24 hours C From the standpoint of safety, you should never allow salt water to enter a lead-acid storage battery or come in contact with sulfuric acid because ______________.
A. the resulting gas is extremely flammable B. the resulting gas is a respiratory irritant that can be fatal C. the primary constituent, sodium, reacts lethally with lead peroxide
D. combining salt water with lead-acid creates an invisible gas resulting in severe corrosion Ans: B Which of the following statements of Regulations concerning battery 5932 installations is correct? A. Sign, permanently secured to the battery trays, indicating that "naked lights or smoking is prohibited in the vicinity" is not necessary to be posted if trickle charging is used.
B. hold thermal overload relays open with blocks of wood
B. When power ventilation is required, blower blades must be nonsparking and the system must be interlocked with the battery charger to prevent simultaneous operation.
C. inject small amounts of CO2 into the windings for cooling
C. Trays should be chocked with wood strips or equivalent to prevent movement and each tray should be fitted with nonabsorbent insulating supports on the bottom.
D. increase the residual magnetism value of windings to reduce eddy currents Ans: A
D. Power and lighting batteries must be of the lead-acid type only. Ans: C
Page 336
Unless it can be shown that a 45°C ambient temperature willnot be exceeded, motors within a machinery space must be designed for an ambient temperature of _____________.
5933
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5935
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5937
45°C 50°C 55°C 60°C B Regulations require that each alternating current generator arranged for parallel operation shall be provided with _____________. more than one means of excitation individual circuit fuses a high back-pressure trip a reverse-power trip D When there is a fire in a large electric motor, normally the very FIRST step is to ____________.
A. secure the electric supply B. ventilate area to remove smoke C. start the fire pump and lead out hose D. apply foam Ans: A Which of the following devices for a lifeboat winch electrical circuit 5939 automatically prevents the davit arms of a gravity-type unit from over traveling their tracks when raising the lifeboat? A. Master cutout switch B. Emergency disconnect switch C. Limit switch D. Clutch interlock switch
5941
5943
Ans: C Which of the following safeguards can be built into the control circuit of a remotely operated fire pump to ensure that the pump is not started with the suction valve closed?
Regulations require each switchboard to have mechanical protection including _______.
5934
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5936
closed sides a dripshield a door at each entrance to a rear working space all the above D When supplying emergency lighting loads, the storage battery initial voltage must not exceed the standard system voltage by more than _____________.
0.02 A. 0.03 B. 0.05 C. 0.1 D. Ans: C According to Regulations , which of the following statements is the 5938 ONLY method allowed to ease the starting of emergency diesel generator engines? A. B. C. D. Ans: 5940
Bayonet-type electrical oil heaters Steam or hot water lube oil heaters Thermostatically controlled electric jacket water heaters Electric resistance heaters in the air intake m anifold C Regulations require that automatic starting emergency diesel generators assume emergency power loads as soon as ____________.
A. it is started B. the electric potential of the ship's service generators drops 15 to 40 percent below normal value C. the potential from the emergency generator reaches 85 to 95 percent of its normal value D. the electric potential of the ship's service generators drops to 15 to 40 percent of normal value Ans: C Regulations require that each electrical receptacle is to have a 5942 grounding pole, but only if it ____________.
A. The fire pump starting circuit is completed by a limit switch when the suction valve opens. B. A normally closed contact opens in the suction valve starter circuit, and the pump starts immediately upon the pushing of the pump start button.
A. operates at 100 volts or more
C. A normally open contact closes in the fire pump suction valve starter circuit, and the pump starts immediately upon the pushing of the pump start button.
C. is in a location accessible to other than qualified personnel
D. A time delay relay is de-energized when the "ON" button is pushed, and the pump starts after a predetermined time delay.
D. is connected to a DC source
Ans: A Regulations require a continuous trickle charge is to be supplied from the ship's serv ice power system for batteries supplying power to the _________________.
emergency power system for the radar portable radios for the lifeboats radios installed in the lifeboats emergency power and lighting system D In a diesel electric plant, raising the generator's field excitation will 5945 cause the DC propulsion motor to ________. A. increase in speed B. decrease in speed C. affect generator speed only D. affect main motor speed if done in conjunction with higher generator engine speeds Ans: A An operating characteristic appearing on the name plates of 5947 shipboard AC motors is _____________. A. the type of winding B. input kilowatts C. temperature rise D. locked rotor torque Ans: C
B. is in a location exposed to the weather
5944
A. B. C. D. Ans:
Ans: A Regulations require that the emergency generator fuel tank on an ocean going cargo vessel must be capable of supplying fuel to a fully loaded engine for a time period of at least ____________. 2 hours 4 hours 6 hours 18 hours D Electric propulsion coupling excitation is reduced at slow speeds to ___________. A. increase speed control B. increase shaft torque C. prevent coupling overheating D. prevent coupling slippage
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5946
5948
Ans: C Low horsepower, polyphase, induction motors can be started with full voltage by means of _____________. A. compensator starters B. autotransformer starters C. across-the-line starters D. primary-resistor starters Ans: C
Page 337
5949
A ground can be defined as an electrical connection between the wiring of a motor and its ____________. A. shunt field B. circuit breaker C. metal framework D. interpole
5951
Ans: C Where a thermal-acting breaker is required to be used in anarea of unusually high, low, or constantly fluctuating temperatures, an ambient compensating element must be used.This element consists of a ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
5953
cylindrical spring on the contact arm conical spring on the contact arm second bimetal element second electromagnet C In general, polyphase induction motors can be started on full line voltage by means of ______________.
5950
A. increase meter sensitivity B. permit shunts with larger resistances to be utilized C. prevent damage to the meter movement from heat generated by the shunt D. enable the construction of a compact meter with a virtually unlimited range Ans: C Which of the following statements represents an application of a 5952 silicon controlled rectifier?
A. To provide DC power for a main propulsion motor. B. For use as a v oltage reference diode. C. For sensing flame in an automated burner. D. To eliminate power supply hum. Ans: A Which of the following statements concerning the maintenance of 5954 solid-silver contacts in relays and auxiliary control circuits is correct?
A. compensator starters B. autotransformer starters C. across-the-line starters D. primary-resistor starters
5955
Ans: C To properly use a hook-on-type volt/ammeter to check current flow, you must FIRST _____________. A. de-energize the circuit to allow connection of the instrument in series B. hook the jaws of the instrument around the insulated conductor
C. connect the voltage test leads to the appropriate terminals D. short the test leads and calibrate the instrument to zero Ans: B When troubleshooting electronic equipment, you should use ahigh 5957 impedance multimeter ________________. A. to prevent excess current flow through the meter that would damage it B. for AC measurements only and a low resistance meter for DC measurements C. whenever a low impedance meter is not available, regardless of the components being tested D. so as not to load down the circuit and obtain erroneous voltage readings 5959
Ans: D When reading electrical motor controller diagrams, it helps to k now that ____________.
A. When necessary, they s hould always be dressed with a wire wheel. B. They should be filed with a fine-cut file when projections extend beyond the contact surface. C. When black silver oxide is present, it should always be removed from the contact surface with coarse sandpaper. D. If necessary, they should be held together with moderate pressure while emery paper is drawn between the contacts. Ans: B The use of four diodes, in a full-wave bridge rectifier circuit, will 5956 __________. A. provide unidirectional current to the load B. allow a very high leakage current from the load C. convert direct current to alternating current D. offer high opposition to current in two directions Ans: A Which of the listed devices is used to measure pressure andconvert 5958 it to an electrical signal? A. Transducer B. Reducer C. Transformer D. Rectifier
5960
Ans: A Which of the following precautions should be taken when troubleshooting various power circuits using a common s olenoidtype mechanical voltage tester (wiggins)?
A. current paths in the control circuit are drawn as heavy lines and in the power circuit as lighter lines
A. Never use this tester on circuits greater than 60 Hz, as the coil's resultant high impedance lowers current and magnetic pull. The tester may not register dangerous v oltages.
B. current paths in the power circuit are drawn as heavy lines and in control circuit as lighter lines
B. Always remember that the unit is polarity sensitive and if used on DC circuits reversing the leads may result in high temperatures within the tester.
C. circuits subject to 500 volts or greater are drawn as heav y lines and below 500 volts as lighter lines
C. Never connect the device to circuits where potentials greater than 120 volts may be present, as the coil's extremely fine wire cannot withstand more than a few amps.
D. circuits subject to 500 volts or greater are drawn as light lines and below 500 volts as heavy lines
D. Always pre-set the meter to the next higher range than the amount of voltage expected in the circuit in order to prevent damage from an off-scale reading.
Ans: B Which of the motors for the devices listed below is fitted with an instantaneous overload relay? A. Fan B. Pump C. Winch D. Machine tool Ans: C The frequency output of an operating alternator is controlled by the 5963 _____________. 5961
External shunts are sometimes used with ammeters to_______.
Ans: A A molded-case circuit breaker provides protection against short circuits by using a/an ________________. A. electromagnet B. shading coil C. arc quencher D. burn away strip Ans: A Which of the following physical characteristics does a wound-rotor 5964 induction motor possess that a squirrel cage motor does not? 5962
Page 338
A. relative speed of the rotor poles B. number of turns of wire in the armature coil C. strength of the magnets used D. output voltage Ans: A The rated temperature rise of an electric motor is the 5965 _____________.
A. Slip rings B. End rings C. A centrifugal switch D. End plates Ans: A Which of the following represents the accepted m ethod of cleaning 5966 dust and foreign particles from electrical equipment while limiting damage to electric components?
A. average temperature at any given latitude B. normal temperature rise above the standard ambient temperature at rated load C. average temperature rise due to resistance at 10% overload
A. Carefully wiping off the components with a soft cotton rag. B. Blowing a high velocity stream of compressed air rapidly across the components. C. Using a vacuum cleaner to remove debris from the components.
D. permissible difference in the ambient temperature of the motor due to existing weather conditions Ans: B The electrolyte in a lead-acid storage battery consists of distilled 5967 water and _____________.
D. Using carbon tetrachloride as a cleaning solvent to clean the components. Ans: C The torque produced by a motor when its shaft will not turn, even 5968 though rated voltage is applied to the stator, is known as _____________.
hydrogen chloride calcium chloride sulfuric acid muriatic acid C Heat sinks are frequently used with _____________. 5969 A. power transistors B. vacuum tubes C. tunnel rectifier diodes D. all of the above Ans: A Which of the following statements describes the significance of 5971 ambient temperature in relation to the service life of electronic components?
A. locked-rotor torque B. pullout torque C. breakdown torque D. torque margin Ans: A Incandescent lamps are classified according to __________. 5970 A. shape of bulb and type of service B. size and style of base C. operating voltage and wattage D. all of the above Ans: D The state of charge of a lead acid storage battery is best indicated 5972 by the _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. Ambient temperature should be as high as possible to drive off moisture. B. Increased ambient temperature decreases the service life of electronic components. C. Ambient temperature is not significant as long as the relative humidity is kept low. D. A reduced ambient temperature causes a corresponding reduced service life. Ans: B Tightly knit metal braid wire can be used with a printed circuit board 5973 when ___________. A. conductor flexibility is required B. desoldering components in the circuit C. electrically produced magnetic fluxes would cause inaccuracies in adjacent components D. reactance in the circuit must be kept to a minimum Ans: B Motor controllers are seldom troubled with grounds because 5975 _____________. A. the auxiliary contacts have a high resistance connection B. the contactors and relays are mounted on a nonconducting panel C. the resistor banks are composed of individual series-connected units D. there are separate switches for the motor and the control Ans: B Electric strip heaters are used in motor controllers to 5977 _____________. A. prevent freezing of movable contacts B. keep the components at their design ambient temperature C. prevent condensation of moisture D. minimize resistance in internal circuits Ans: C The output voltage of a three-phase alternator is regulated by the 5979 _____________. A. AC voltage to the armature B. AC voltage to the field C. DC voltage to the armature D. DC voltage to the field Ans: D Which of the following statements is true concerning all three-phase 5981 alternators?
A. testing of the individual cell voltages B. ampere hour capacity of the battery C. specific gravity of the electrolyte D. total cell voltages
5974
Ans: C The open-circuit voltage of a fully charged lead-acid battery cell is _____________. A. 1.5 volts B. 1.8 volts C. 2.0 volts
D. 2.3 volts Ans: C A delayed-action fuse is most frequently used in which of the listed 5976 circuits? A. Lighting circuit B. Motor circuit C. Electric heater circuit D. Radar circuit Ans: B A fuse that blows often should be replaced only with a fuse of 5978 _____________. A. the recommended current and v oltage rating B. higher current and voltage rating C. higher current and lower voltage rating D. lower current and higher voltage rating Ans: A The function of damper windings in a synchronous motor is to 5980 _____________. A. eliminate slippage B. provide excitation C. provide starting torque D. increase efficiency Ans: C A low-voltage protection circuit is used in electric motor starting 5982 equipment to _____________.
Page 339
A. Each has three separate but identical armature windings acted on by one system of rotating magnets. B. Each has one armature winding acted on by three identical but separate systems of rotating magnets. C. All three-phase alternators are designed to operate with a 0.8 leading power factor. D. The three phases always provide power to the load through three sets of slip rings and brushes. Ans: A The part of a fuse that melts and opens the circuit is made of 5983 _____________. A. copper and antimony B. steel and babbitt C. aluminum or beryllium alloy D. zinc or an alloy of tin and lead Ans: D Fuses placed in series with a thermal trip-type circuit breaker are 5985 used for _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5987
time-delay protection short-circuit protection short duration surge protection sustained overload protection B The most common source of excitation for synchronous motors is a/an _____________.
A. low voltage battery B. motor attenuator set C. DC exciter generator D. AC supply Ans: C The purpose of DC generator brushes is to _____________. 5989 neutralize armature reaction conduct electric current to an outside circuit convert DC current to AC current provide excitation to a DC generator B Which of the listed precautions should be observed before spraying liquid solvent on the insulation of an electric motor? A. Slow the motor down to low speed.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 5991
B. C. D. Ans: 5993
Disconnect the motor from the power source. Secure all ventilation in the area. Preheat the insulation to assist in cleaning. B An insulation resistance test is performed on a particular piece of electric equipment. In addition to the resistance reading, what information listed below should be entered in the electrical log?
A. trip circuit contactors when the motor overspeeds due to low voltage B. trip circuit contactors when the motor develops a short circuit due to low voltage C. allow the motor to restart automatically on restoration of voltage without manually resetting D. prevent the motor from restarting automatically on restoration of voltage Ans: D The cross-sectional area of shipboard electrical cable is expressed 5984 in _____________. A. millimeters B. gage numbers C. centimeters D. circular mils Ans: D On an engine throttle control system, the auxiliary control circuits 5986 are provided with devices to prevent excessive overtravel of the pilot valve by the synchronous motor. These devices are called _________________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 5988
low voltage protection high amperage protection low voltage release high amperage release C The most common source of excitation for synchronous motors is 5990 a/an ______________. A. stepup transformer B. half-wave rectifier C. DC supply D. AC supply Ans: C The simplest method of controlling the terminal voltage of 5992 compound-wound DC generator is with a _____________. A. hand-operated field rheostat connected in series with the shunt field circuit B. separate exciter in a series with the s hunt field C. carbon pile regulator in series with the load D. balance coil diverting neutral current through the shunt field Ans: A A compound generator has a no-load voltage of 250 volts anda full5994 load voltage of 230 volts, and therefore, is considered to be _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. The maximum allowable operating temperature of the machine. B. The temperature of the machine at the time the resistance reading was taken. C. The normal temperature rise of the machine. D. The complete nameplate data from the resistance test instrument used to obtain the reading. Ans: B One method of testing for a reversed shunt field coil in a DC 5995 generator or motor is by connecting the field to a direct current source, at reduced field rated v oltage, and test for polarity using a/an ____________. A. iron bar across each field B. magnetic compass placed near each field C. test lamp across adjacent fields
D. copper jumper across the interpole connections Ans: B
overlap sensors limit switches overtravel relays proximity switches B The type of feature afforded auxiliaries vital to the operation of propelling equipment, where automatic restart after a voltage failure would not create a hazard, is termed _____________.
A. flat compounded B. over compounded C. under compounded D. terminal compounded
5996
Ans: C Which of the following statements represents the important factor that must be considered when replacing a faultydiode in the exciter rectifier assembly? A. Be certain that the replacement diode is the same polarity as the one removed. B. Never alter the diode alignment to cause a change in the neutral plane. C. Replacement of a diode also requires balancing of the rotor with a one-piece rotor lamination to be shrunk fit and k eyed to the shaft. D. The replacement diode must be dipped in varnish prior to installation to protect against humidity. Ans: A
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Which of the terms listed best describes a c ompound-woundDC generator having a higher v oltage at no load than at fullload?
5997
Flat compounded Over compounded Under compounded Terminal compounded C A triac thyristor functions as a control device and is basically 5999 ________________. A. two NPN transistors in parallel with a common base lead B. a diode in series with a temperature sensitive capacitor C. two back-to-back SCR's with a common gate lead D. a triode tube with an extra heavy grid element Ans: C Copper is often used as an electrical conductor because it 6001 _______________. A. has high resistance at low temperatures B. has a highly polished surface C. is able to pass current with little opposition D. holds insulation together well Ans: C In a 11kw induction-type motor with a cage rotor, the current 6003 required at standstill to produce starting torque is approximately ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 6005
half the full load current equal to the full load current five times the full load current ten to twenty times the full load current C A generator has been exposed to water and is being checked for its safe operation. Therefore, it is necessary to _______________.
check for shorted coils with a growler take moisture readings with a hydrometer test insulation values with a megger ground the commutator, or slip rings and run it at half load for 12 hours Ans: C Batteries used for diesel engine starting should __________. 6007
provide more precise balancing produce a higher power factor eliminate arcing between the stator and the frame provide a means for starting D The speed of a squirrel cage induction motor is determined by the 6000 _____________. A. diameter of the stator B. number of stator poles C. rotor winding resistance D. bar resistance of the conducting rotor Ans: B Under which of the listed conditions can the engine room retake the 6002 throttle control from the bridge? A. Any time it is deemed necessary. B. Only with the master's permission. C. After a 10 minute delay to the input command. D. Only after the throttle has been placed in stop. Ans: A A single-phase induction motor having a relatively high starting 6004 torque, is the ___________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 6006
A. B. C. D.
A. be located in a locker on the weather deck B. be located as close as possible to the engine C. have sufficient capacity to provide at least 50 starts consecutively without recharging D. only be of the nickel alkaline type Ans: B AC circuits develop resistance, inductance, and capacitance. The 6009 inductive reactance of a circuit is expressed in _____________. A. ohms B. mhos C. henrys D. farads Ans: A The basic control action of a magnetic amplifier depends upon 6011 _____________. variations in the load capacitance changes in inductance type of core material construction of the core B The purpose of an impressed current cathodic protection system aboard ship is to _______________. A. prevent corrosion of the hull, propeller, rudder and line shafting
A. B. C. D.
6008
B. neutralize the vessel's stray magnetic fields which would interfere with radar C. protect engine room and deck machinery from oxidation in the presence of salt air D. maintain a minimum constant alternator load to prevent overheating Ans: A
shaded pole motor wound-rotor motor capacitor-start motor resistance-start motor C The speed of a three-phase squirrel-cage induction-type motor operating in a fixed frequency system is varied by changing the _____________. number of phases to the motor number of stator poles locked rotor current resistance of the rotor winding
Ans: B The combined effect of inductive reactance, capacitive reactance, and resistance in an AC series circuit is known as _____________. A. reactance B. total reactance C. impedance
D. resonance Ans: C When a megohmmeter is used to test insulation, the gradual rise of 6010 the pointer reading as a result of continued cranking, is caused by _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 6012
A. B. C. D. Ans: 6013
The purpose of squirrel-cage windings in a synchronous motor is to ______________.
5998
good conductor resistance the leakage of current along the surface of dirty insulation the inductive reactance of the windings the dielectric-absorption effect of the insulation D During the charging process of storage batteries, the charging rooms should be well ventilated because __________.
without ventilation excessive gassing will occur highly poisonous gases are released highly explosive gases will otherwise accumulate without ventilation the battery will not take a full charge C Routine maintenance of lead acid batteries should include _____________. A. keeping the terminals clean
A. B. C. D. Ans: 6014
B. coating cable connections with petroleum j elly C. maintaining a trickle charge D. all of the above Ans: D
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Electrical circuits are protected against overheating bymeans of a/an ______________. A. circuit breaker B. amplifier C. diode D. capacitor Ans: A A circuit is protected from overheating by a/an ___________. 6017 6015
A. B. C. D. Ans:
pyrometer thermal overload relay magnetic contactor overload transformer B The seven segment arrangement for numerical display on consoles, test meters and other applications can be either ________________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
UJT or BJT BCD or OCD JFET or IGFET LED or LCD D Which of the following describes the ac tion when the handleis moved to the start position of a drum-type motor controller used with a compound motor?
6019
6021
trap regulating valve check valve filter C Which of the following devices should be used to measure the 6018 temperature of a battery electrolyte? A. Mercury thermometer B. Alcohol thermometer C. Thermocouple pyrometer D. Potentiometer Ans: B Line losses in a distribution circuit are kept to a minimum by 6020 __________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 6022
A. Full current is supplied to the s hunt field, series field, and armature. B. Full line current is supplied to the shunt and series fields, and reduced current is supplied to the armature. C. Full line current is supplied to the shunt field, and reduced current is supplied to the series field and the armature. D. Reduced line current is supplied to the shunt field, series field, and armature. Ans: C Armature cores in a DC generator are made of laminated steel 6023 sheets to _____________. A. fit the curvature of the frame B. increase the hysteresis effect C. reduce eddy current losses D. allow for easy assembly Ans: C Reversing the current flow through a c oil will ___________. 6025 A. reduce the amount of flux produced B. have no effect on the eddy currents produced C. reduce the power consumed D. reverse its two-pole field
6027
Ans: D The direction of rotation of an induction motor is ________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 6029
opposite the rotating field direction the same as the direction of the rotating field determined by the number of poles determined by the staggering of the brushes B The sub-multiple prefix "milli" (m) means ____________.
A. one thousandth (10 to the -3rd power) B. one millionth (10 to the -6th power) C. one billionth (10 to the -9th power) D. one trillionth (10 to the -12th power) Ans: A When charging lead-acid batteries, the charging rate should be 6031 reduced as the battery nears its full charge to ____________. A. prevent damaging battery plates B. allow equalization of cell voltages C. reduce lead sulfate deposits D. increase lead peroxide formation Ans: A A saturable reactor uses relatively small DC currents to control 6033 _______________.
The function of a rectifier is similar to that of a _______.
6016
adding rubber insulation conductors to the circuit using higher current and lower voltage increasing the number of thermal relays in the circuit using higher voltage and lower current D The multiple prefix "mega" (M) means ____________.
A. thousand (10 to the 3rd power) B. million (10 to the 6th power) C. billion (10 to the 9th power) D. trillion (10 to the 12th power) Ans: B The item referred to as a pigtail on a DC motor brush rigging is a/an ______________. A. feather spring B. uninsulated wire C. flexible spring adjuster D. brush holder Ans: B In testing a three-phase delta winding for an open c ircuit using a 6026 megohmmeter, you must ______________. A. test each phase with all connections intact B. measure the voltage across the open connections while testing 6024
C. test the windings as parallel groups to avoid short circuiting D. open the delta-connections to avoid shunting the phase being tested Ans: D An insulation resistance reading is taken at 20°C and found to be 6028 10 megohms. What would you expect the resistance reading to be at 40°C? A. 2.5 megohms B. 10 megohms C. 15 megohms D. 20 megohms Ans: A When a solid-state component of an electronic circuit is mounted to 6030 a metallic mass, the general purpose of that mass is to ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
prevent vibration damage to delicate components prevent mechanical damage to solid-state components dissipate stray magnetic currents act as a heat sink D One feature of the operational amplifier is that it can hav e ____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
up to ten outputs binary coded decimal inputs several hundred amps at the output inverting and non-inverting inputs D A signal derived from a controlled function and returned to the initiating point is called a/an ____________.
6032
6034
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A. B. C. D. Ans: 6035
high frequency low power loads low frequency low power loads high frequency high power loads low frequency high power loads D A shaded-pole motor is a ____________.
synchronous motor three-phase induction motor compound-wound motor single-phase induction motor D The mica used in the commutators of DC machinery is 6037 _____________. A. harder than copper B. softer than copper C. the same hardness as the copper D. softer than copper but wears away at a slower rate Ans: A To determine if a stator coil is grounded, you should use a/an 6039 _____________. A. ammeter B. ground detection lamp C. magneto D. megger Ans: D When a megohmmeter is being used to test insulation resistance, 6041 current leakage along the surface of the insulation is indicated by the megohmmeter's pointer _____________.
6036
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 6043
6045
dipping toward zero then raising s lowly continually rising as test voltage is applied kicking slightly down scale as v oltage is applied fluctuating around a constant resistance reading C When checking the specific gravity of the battery electrolyte with a hydrometer, you should be aware that ________________.
monitoring signal inverse signal reverse signal feedback signal D To provide its unique characteristics to analog c ircuits, the operational amplifier is made up of a/an______________. A. voltage amp, current amp and output amp B. input amp, power amp and output amp C. scaling amp, power amp and voltage amp D. differential amp, voltage amp and output amp Ans: D When starting a DC propulsion motor the variable rheostat must FIRST be turned ____________. A. all the way to the run position then quickly back to slow B. to the slow position then gradually moved to full speed C. to the mid position D. quickly to the run position Ans: B In an impressed current cathodic protection system, the anode is ____________. A. connected to the hull and deteriorates with time B. insulated from the hull and does not waste away C. connected to the hull but does not waste away D. insulated from the hull but deteriorates with time Ans: B Which of the following types of DC motors has its field connected in parallel with its armature? A. B. C. D. Ans:
6038
6040
6042
A. B. C. D. Ans: 6044
Counter EMF Shunt Salient pole Series B Basic operating characteristics of the operational amplifier such as gain and stability are the function of its _____________.
A. the battery is fully charged when the float sinks deepest into the electrolyte B. the battery is discharged when the float is highest in the electrolyte
A. differential input stage
C. a hydrometer reading is accurate if taken immediately after water is added to the cell D. warm temperatures will lower the specific grav ity of the electrolyte
C. feedback circuit
Ans: D The sub-multiple prefix "nano" (n) means ____________.
thousandth (10 to the -3rd power) millionth (10 to the -6th power) billionth (10 to the -9th power) trillionth (10 to the -12th power) C A generator is prevented from becoming motorized by the use of 6047 a/an _____________. A. overspeed trip B. reverse power relay C. back pressure trip D. governor controls Ans: B Aboard ship, a grounded field coil in an AC motor can be 6049 determined by using a _________________. A. portable growler B. galvanometer C. visual inspection D. megohmmeter Ans: D A testing device called a "growler" is being used to locate a shorted 6051 coil in the stator of an AC electrical machine. When the "feeler" is moved over a slot containing the shorted coil _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D.
a loud growling noise will be heard any vibration within the feeler will cease the meter needle will be deflected to zero the meter needle will be deflected to full-scale
B. power output stage
D. supply voltages Ans: C A switchboard, for a AC electrical distribution system, will be provided with which of the following components? A. Frequency meter. B. Ammeter C. Voltmeter D. All of the above Ans: D Which type of AC single-phase motor will also operate on direct 6048 current? A. Split-phase B. Series-wound C. Shaded-pole D. Repulsion-start Ans: B The electrical energy necessary to power a sound-powered 6050 telephone's small vibrating bell is obtained from _________. A. the emergency batteries for the general alarm B. each station's hand-cranked generator C. the emergency switchboard D. normal 115 volt DC s upplies Ans: B A DC shunt generator has its field windings connected in 6052 _____________. 6046
A. B. C. D.
series with the series windings parallel with the field rheostat series with the armature windings parallel with the armature windings
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6053
Ans: A The sub-multiple prefix "pico" (p) means ____________.
6054
A. thousandth (10 to the -3rd power) B. millionth (10 to the -6th power) C. billionth (10 to the -9th power) D. trillionth (10 to the -12th power)
6055
Ans: D The resistance value of a resistor in a circuit can best be determined by the _____________. single solid body color of the resistor band markings on the resistor amperage value written on the resistor physical size of the resistor B A shunt-wound DC generator is one in which the shunt field windings are in parallel with the _____________. A. commutator B. brushes
A. B. C. D. Ans: 6057
C. armature D. all of the above Ans: D Hand-portable phase sequence indicators should be used when 6059 ____________. A. installing a new synchroscope B. preparing to make the shore power connection C. replacing a defective solenoid D. all of the above Ans: B A breakable, mercury-filled thermometer should not be used in a 6061 lead-acid battery to measure electrolyte temperature, as an accidental breakage can cause ____________.
D. The total voltage equals the sum of the individual voltages across each resistance. Ans: A On AC ves sels, which of the following statements represents the 6056 most difficult problem involved in obtaining a DC potential suitable for use by computer components? A. A stepdown transformer is always required. B. Vessel vibrations affect the voltage source. C. The voltage must be rectified and made ripple free. D. Rectifiers cannot operate with voltage regulators. Ans: C The rotor of a synchronous motor operates in synchronism with the 6058 rotating field because ______________. A. of the amortisseur windings B. the rotor is magnetically locked into step with the rotating magnetic field by the excitation current C. the field strength varies directly with rotor slip D. the stator flux rotates in the opposite direction Ans: B The division of kilowatt load between two paralleled alternators is 6060 determined by the _____________. A. amount of field excitation to the leading machine B. load-speed characteristics of the governors C. amount of field excitation to the lagging machine D. number of field poles per alternator Ans: B Which of the following statements is true c oncerning simple parallel 6062 resistance circuits?
A. severe sparking and explosions
A. The total current flow equals the sum of the individual currents.
B. rapid oxidation of battery plates
B. The total current flow equals the reciprocal of the sum of the individual currents. C. The total resistance equals the sum of the individual resistance.
C. violent gassing at the positive plates D. corrosion on the battery terminals
6063
Ans: A The pushbutton on the handset of a ship's sound-powered telephone must be depressed to ______________.
D. The total voltage equals the sum of the individual voltages across each resistance. Ans: A When troubleshooting an electronic circuit, a cold solder j oint can 6064 be located with the aid of an ohmmeter. Once the problem has been located, you s hould _________________.
A. talk then released to listen
A. reheat the circuit in an oven to an even temperature and recheck with an ohmmeter B. reheat the connection with a match and recheck with an ohmmeter
B. listen then released to talk C. both talk and listen D. ring the station being called Ans: C During its operation, loud buzzing and resultant welding of contacts 6065 of a magnetic relay may be caused by __________. A. overheating of the contactor coil B. low voltage on the operating coil C. low insulation resistance to ground D. lubrication of the contact bearing points Ans: B Most three-phase induction motors of five horsepower or less, are 6067 started by _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 6069
Ans: D Which of the following statements concerning a simple parallel resistance circuit is correct? A. The voltage drop across each resistor is the same. B. The total current flow equals the reciprocal of the sum of the individual currents. C. The total resistance equals the sum of the individual resistances.
autotransformer starters resistor starters across-the-line starters reactor starters C The synchronous speed of an induction motor is the ________.
A. speed at which the rotor turns B. speed of the rotating field
C. reheat connection with a soldering tool and recheck with an ohmmeter D. do nothing as this is the normal condition Ans: C Although saturable reactors are extremely useful in some 6066 applications, their gain is low because of ____________. A. core hysteresis losses B. inductive reactance in the control winding C. IR drop throughout the load winding D. all of the above Ans: A If a magnetic controller relay fails to drop out when the coil voltage 6068 is removed from the relay, the probable cause may be _____________. excessive spring tension overvoltage excessive current welded contacts D In a simple series c ircuit, the entire source voltage will drop across ______________. A. the resistor next to the negative terminal B. a short circuit
A. B. C. D. Ans: 6070
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C. frequency of the rotor current D. slip in per cent of rotor RPM Ans: B An across-the-line starter provides ___________________. 6071 A. maximum torque B. slow starting power C. high speed D. reduced voltage Ans: A The speed of a wound-rotor induction motor _____________. 6073 A. B. C. D. Ans: 6075
will be fixed by the number of field poles can be varied by a rheostat-type control can only be synchronous speed at full load can only attain synchronous speed at no load B Which of the following conditions indicates a short circuited capacitor when checking its condition with an ohmmeter?
A. The capacitor shows charging, but the final resistance reading is appreciably less than normal. B. The reading is practically zero and remains there. C. The capacitor shows no charging action, but indicates a very high resistance. D. The pointer moves quickly to the low resistance side of the scale, then slowly recedes toward infinity. Ans: B A resistor placed in parallel to the output of a power supply 6077 _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 6079
6081
is a temperature compensator corrects power factor prevents excessive currents aids in output voltage regulation D In troubleshooting a circuit in a console, you find that a resistor may be faulty. Which of the precautions listed must be observed when using an ohmmeter to carry out this test?
A. It will remain unchanged. B. It will decrease by approximately 3%. C. It will become variable. D. It will increase.
6078
Ans: D With both ends of a three conductor cable disconnected and arranged without the conductors touching each other, an ohmmeter reading of "zero" ohms between the ends of one conductor would indicate _____________.
A. continuity B. a partial ground C. the resistance is infinite D. a short circuit Ans: A The state of charge of a lead-acid battery is best indicated by the 6080 ____________.
A. Correct polarity must be observed, connecting the red lead to the banded end of the resistor. B. Meter leads must be twisted to cancel the leads' magnetic fields.
A. individual cell voltage
C. The meter must be placed in series with the resistor and the circuit.
C. electrolyte specific gravity
D. The resistor's circuit must be de-energized and at least one end of the component isolated.
D. total cell voltage
Ans: D For practical purposes, in a simple series circuit, the source voltage will be dropped across one resistor if it has ______________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
6083
half the resistance of the other resistor a resistance equal to the other at least ten times the resistance of the other a partial short circuit C You have installed a Zener diode in parallel with a load. While measuring the voltage across the Zener diode it is found that it does not change as the current through the load increases. This means that the Zener diode __________.
A. is working as it should B. is shorted C. is open D. does not regulate as it should Ans: A A burned-out LED should be indicated by _____________. 6085
A. B. C. D. Ans: 6087
C. the resistor next to the positive terminal D. an open circuit Ans: D Excessive heat in an operating motor controller can result from 6072 _____________. A. a closed starter contact B. loose connections C. missing arc chutes D. low motor starting torque Ans: B If you hear a loud buzzing noise coming from a magnetic motor 6074 controller, you should ____________. A. assume that the motor is operating at a full load B. assume that the controller is operating normally C. notify the electrician or watch engineer of the problem D. feel the outside of the casing with your hand to see if it is hot Ans: C Which of the following will happen to the alternator frequency if the 6076 load is removed from a turbogenerator, whose governor has a 3% speed droop?
excessive output a slight glow in the crystal excessive illumination no illumination D Motor controller or starter contacts may become pitted and welded together if the contacts _____________.
B. ampere-hour capacity
6082
Ans: C If both the "high level" and "low level" alarms come on for the same address of a c entralized control console, the most likely problem is a/an ____________.
A. sensor failure B. failed alarm C. low level D. extremely high level Ans: A Violent gassing from a lead-acid battery while it is being charged, 6084 indicates that the _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
plate separators are grounded battery compartment ventilation is inadequate electrolyte specific gravity is too low charging rate is too high D When a lead-acid battery begins gassing freely while receiving a normal charge, the charging current should be _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
increased shut off decreased unchanged C Transformer cores are laminated to reduce _____________.
6086
6088
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open under loaded conditions close slowly with light pressure open too quickly and arc close quickly with proportionate pressure B The governor control switch of an alternator is moved to the "raise" 6089 position. This action will _____________. A. raise the no-load speed setting of the governor B. raise the percentage of speed droop C. lower the no-load speed setting of the gov ernor D. lower the percentage of speed droop Ans: A As an armature revolves within a magnetic field, friction 6091 isdeveloped between the rotated magnetized particles as they pass through each magnetization cycle. This results in ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 6093
copper loss eddy-current loss hysteresis loss armature reaction C The proper way to mix the electrolyte for a battery is to add _____________.
A. eddy currents B. secondary flux C. leakage flux D. all of the above Ans: A Which of the following statements is true c oncerning the operating 6090 characteristics of a squirrel-cage motor? A. Rotor slip is dependent upon the motor load. B. An increase in motor load results in less slip. C. A decrease in rotor speed results in less generated current. D. A decrease in rotor speed produces a weaker magnetic field. Ans: A To test fuses in an energized circuit, you should use a 6092 ____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 6094
low voltage light bulb megohmmeter voltmeter resistance meter C In order to increase its range of measurement, a resistancewould be placed in series with which of the following instruments?
A. B. C. D. Ans:
acid to alkaline water acid to distilled water alkaline water to acid distilled water to acid B When mixing electrolyte for a lead-acid storage battery, ______________.
A. DC voltmeter B. DC ammeter C. frequency meter D. power factor meter Ans: A If the approximate voltage to be m easured in a circuit isnot k nown, 6096 you should _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
stirring should always be avoided a lead container should always be used always pour the water into the acid always pour the acid into the water D Caution must be exercised during the charging of lead-acid storage batteries as _____________. the acid will become weaker hydrogen gas is being continuously liberated both plates are changing chemically to lead s ulfate lead peroxide in the negative plate is poisonous B While testing a semi-conductor diode with an ohmmeter, both the forward and reverse readings are almost in the infinity range. This would indicate that the unit is _____________.
use the lowest voltage range on the voltmeter connect the meter in series with the circuit only have to calibrate the meter before using it use the highest voltage range on the voltmeter D When the current flow through a copper wire increases, its 6098 _____________. A. resistance will decrease B. insulation will burn C. temperature will increase D. conductivity will increase Ans: C The specific gravity of the electrolyte in a lead-acid battery is 6100 measured by a _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
good open grounded shorted B Capacitance in an AC c ircuit will _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
stop current flow once the c apacitor is fully charged allow current flow in only one direction oppose any change in circuit voltage rectify the current C Magnet chatter or "pumping" occurring in a magnetic contactor can be caused by ______________.
gould plate titration pipette hydrometer litmus paper test C Which of the following activities occurs during the charging process 6102 of a lead-acid storage battery? A. The specific gravity of the acid increases. B. Both plates change chemically to lead sulfate. C. The specific gravity of the acid decreases. D. Hydrogen gas is absorbed. Ans: A Which of the following characteristics is most critical in determining 6104 the size of the cable to be used in a particular circuit?
6095
6097 A. B. C. D. Ans: 6099
6101
6103
dirt or grease on pole faces mechanical interference in the contacts chattering contacts on the control relay magnetic lock out of the contacts C Shunt, series, and compound wound motors, are all DC motors 6105 designed to operate from _____________. A. constant potential, variable current DC sources B. variable potential, constant current DC sources C. variable potential, variable current DC sources D. constant potential, constant current DC sources Ans: A Which of the following devices are protected from being motorized 6107 by a reverse-power relay? A. Alternators A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans:
voltage rating weight per unit length current rating inductance per unit length C Motor starter or controller contacts may become welded together if 6106 the contacts _____________. A. open too quickly and arc B. close under excessive pressure C. open or close too quickly D. close under excessive starting current Ans: D An advantage of DC motors over AC motors is that they 6108 _____________. A. are less expensive A. B. C. D. Ans:
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B. Wave guides C. Exciters D. Amplidynes Ans: A Before using a volt-ohmmeter to measure resistance readings, you 6109 should _____________. A. replace all batteries B. test the insulation resistance of the leads C. make sure the test leads do not touch D. hold the leads together and "zero" the meter Ans: D When you check the specific gravity of the battery electrolyte with 6111 a hydrometer, it should be kept in mind that ____________.
require less maintenance can be started across the line offer a more effective means of controlling speed D To equalize the power factor of two alternators operating in parallel, 6110 the ____________. A. field excitation of both units is adjusted B. governors of both units are adjusted C. phase sequence is altered D. kilowatt load is evenly divided Ans: A The total resistance of a parallel circuit is always ____________. 6112 B. C. D. Ans:
A. the battery is fully charged when the indicator floats low in the electrolyte B. any water that has been previously added to the cells will dilute the solution and give a false reading C. a hydrometer reading is inaccurate if taken immediately after water is added to the cell D. temperature has no effect on hydrometer readings
6113
Ans: C If the resistance of a circuit is cut in half and the applied voltage is kept constant, the current flow will be _____________.
A. doubled B. quadrupled C. unchanged D. cut in half Ans: A If the excitation is increased to one of two alternators operating in 6115 parallel, the _____________. A. power factor will change in the lagging direction B. power factor will change in the leading direction C. kilowatt load will be greatly increased D. ampere load will be greatly decreased Ans: A The power factor of an AC generator operating singularly is 6117 determined by the __________. A. connected load B. prime mover speed C. field excitation D. generator's rated voltage Ans: A Why is it desirable to operate paralleled AC generators at the same 6119 power factor? A. Circulating currents are kept to a minimum. B. Field excitation losses are kept to a minimum. C. Generator rotors will have a lesser tendency to hunt. D. Because a power factor increase will decrease kilowatt output.
6121
Ans: A If a 6 volt battery were connected in series with a 24 volt battery by putting their negative terminals together, what would be the result?
B. smaller than that of the branch with the lowest
resistance
C. equal to the sum of the individual branch resistances D. equal to the sum of the individual branch resistances divided by the number of branches Ans: B The power factor at which a paralleled AC generator operates is 6114 usually adjusted by the _____________. connected load prime mover speed field excitation generator's rated voltage C In a series wound motor, the current passing through the field 6116 windings is also passing through the _____________. A. armature B. shunt field C. reactance comparator D. laminations Ans: A The speed of a series wound winch motor is controlled by 6118 ____________. A. varying the voltage applied to the motor B. the weight of the load on the cargo boom C. overcurrent protection devices in the motor D. a hydraulic speed-limiting governor Ans: A The charge of a lead-acid battery is checked with a 6120 _____________. A. manometer B. hydrometer C. viscosimeter D. ohmmeter A. B. C. D. Ans:
6122
Ans: B You can determine if a circuit breaker has tripped by ________________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
"Zero" volts 12 volts of the opposite polarity 18 volts, positive on the 24 v olt battery 30 volts, negative on the 24 v olt battery C Which of the following statements describes what will happen when both the polarity of the field poles, and the direction of current to the brushes of a DC motor are reversed?
A. examining the position of the handle B. checking for which of the breakers is warm C. looking for a burned-out link D. all of the above Ans: A A slow continual loss of electrolyte level from one cell of a storage 6124 battery could be due to _______________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
The motor will not start. The direction of rotation of the armature will be reversed. The direction of rotation of the armature will remain the same. The field pole windings will become overheated. C The basic meter movement responds to the flow of current through its coil. Therefore, this meter movement may be used as a/an _____________.
A. a cracked casing B. too low a charging rate C. the specific gravity being higher than normal D. one filler cap installed too tightly Ans: A When power is restored after a complete power failure, a steering 6126 gear pump motor will ____________.
6123
6125
A. larger than that of the branch with the greatest resistance
A. voltmeter by placing a resistance in parallel with the coil B. ohmmeter by placing another meter movement in parallel with the coil
A. have to be restarted B. have to be reset
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C. wattmeter by placing a battery in parallel with the coil D. ammeter by placing a low resistance in parallel with the coil Ans: D When an alternator is to remain idle for even a few days 6127 _________________. A. lift the brushes and disconnect the pigtails B. insulate the collector rings with strips of cardboard C. energize the heater circuit D. open the equalizing bus disconnect switch Ans: C The true power indicated by the pointer movement of a wattmeter 6129 depends on the c urrent flow through the load, the magnitude of the potential across the load, and the ____________.
C. restart automatically D. trip its overload relays Ans: C Proper storage battery maintenance includes ____________. 6128
A. power factor of the load B. angle of coil displacement C. inertia of the movable coil D. high resistance from the load Ans: A Due to the operating characteristics of the system, time lag fuses 6131 (or dual-element fuses) are necessary for use in _____________.
A. series with the load and in parallel with the meter mov ement B. parallel with the load and in series with the meter mov ement C. parallel with the load and in parallel with the meter movement D. series with the load and in series with the meter movement Ans: A Loss of or weak residual magnetism in an alternator or generator 6132 can be corrected for by _________________.
A. keeping connections tight and casing surfaces clean B. making sure electrolyte level is below the separator plates C. insulating the terminals with naval j elly D. maintaining a high charging rate at all times Ans: A The shunt of a DC ammeter should be connected in __________. 6130
A. main lighting circuits B. motor starting circuit C. emergency lighting circuits D. general alarm circuits Ans: B Cleaning of electrical insulation should be _____________. 6133 A. done every six months B. accomplished every 12 months C. determined by need and not the calendar D. performed whenever the electrician is not otherwise busy Ans: C Relative to the direction of rotation, a D.C. motor commutating 6135 pole has the same polarity as the _____________. A. main pole following B. interpole following C. main pole preceding D. interpole preceding Ans: C Which of the following meters uses a shunt connected in series with the load, but parallel with the meter movement? A. voltmeter B. power factor meter C. wattmeter D. ammeter Ans: D Which of the listed ranges represents specific gravity corrected for 6139 temperature for the electrolyte of a fully charged portable lead-acid battery? 6137
A. B. C. D. Ans: 6141 A. B. C. D.
6143
1.100 to 1.150 1.180 to 1.200 1.280 to 1.300 1.750 to 2.000 C When troubleshooting a console circuit card which is suspected of being faulty, the first step would be to _____. pull the card and measure the value of all resistors check for the correct value and polarity of all power connections to the card pull the card and v isually inspect for burned components check for continuity of circuit board traces and then the gain of each transistor
Ans: B The life expectancy of electrical insulation, is approximately halved for an increased operating temperature of _______________. A. B. C. D.
10° C 25° C 50° C 100° C
A. running the rotor in the opposite direction for 5 minutes B. allowing the generator to run at 10% of normal s peed for 5 minutes C. running the generator at normal speed with the field rheostat fully counterclockwise D. using a storage battery or battery charger to "flash" the field Ans: D The plates of a NiCad storage battery are made of ________. 6134 A. potassium hydroxide with a small amount of sulfuric acid B. lead and lead peroxide C. silver oxide and lead sulfate D. combinations of nickel powder and nickel & cadmium salts Ans: D One method of troubleshooting digital circuits in a console is to 6136 ___________. A. supply alternate logic levels at the input(s) and test for change of state conditions at the output B. ground all inputs and test for a logic "1" at the output C. open all inputs and test for a logic "0" at the output D. vary each input smoothly from 0-10 volts and test for similar variance at the output Ans: A Electrical machinery insulation will break down more rapidly due to 6138 _________________. A. low loading of motors and generators B. frequent megger testing C. high temperatures and vibration D. high operating frequencies Ans: C The operator of electrical motors should keep a constant check on 6140 the loads they carry because _____________. low loads necessitate frequent insulation cleaning exceeding nameplate values shortens useful life energy is wasted if full loading is not utilized power factor correction methods are load dependent B The amount of mechanical force or torque produced by an electric motor depends on the ________________. A. strength of its magnetic field B. amount of armature current flow
A. B. C. D. Ans: 6142
C. length of conductor in the field D. all of the above
6144
Ans: D Under normal conditions, storage batteries used for starting the emergency diesel generator are maintained in a charged s tate by which of the following methods? A. B. C. D.
Trickle charging Fast charging Equalizing charge Reverse charging
Page 348
6145
Ans: A When troubleshooting a console circuit card suspected of being faulty, first check for proper voltages to the card and then _______________.
A. test transistors or integrated circuits for gain and compare with manufacturer's specifications B. blow any accumulated dust from the card with at least 2kg/cm2 air from the ship's service air system C. pull the card, clean the s liding connections with a pencil eraser, and remove accumulated dust D. de-energize the card and check the printed circuit traces for continuity with an ohmmeter Ans: C What is the approximate voltage produced by a nickel-cadmium 6147 battery cell?
A. 1.25 volts B. 1.50 volts C. 2.20 volts D. 6.05 volts Ans: A The voltage of an operating AC turbogenerator is raised or lowered 6149 by adjusting the _____________. A. exciter generator governor controls B. synchronizing switch C. phase sequence switch D. generator field exciter Ans: D When a battery-charging panel is being used, the batteries will 6151 discharge if _____________. A. DC voltage is supplied B. the polarity is reversed
6146
A. hand or battery-operated megger B. vibrating-reed frequency meter C. hook-on voltmeter-ammeter D. D'Arsonval iron-vane probe
6148
A. B. C. D.
6155
C. bearing replacement each year using sealed units if available D. all of the above Ans: A Periodic testing of circuit breakers is necessary to assure that a 6154 correctly rated and properly installed unit _________________.
to stand on a rubber mat and use rubber gloves to use insulated pliers or sc rewdriver the fuse clips are straight, tight, and in good contact to increase the fuse rating 10% to guard against "nuisance blowing"
Ans: C You are attempting to parallel two AC generators and the synchroscope pointer is revolving in the slow direction. This indicates that the frequency of the incoming machine is _____________.
higher than the bus frequency lower than the bus frequency the same as the bus frequency but out of phase with it the same as the bus frequency, and the circuit breaker may be closed at any pointer position Ans: B When troubleshooting a motor controller, all indications are that a 6157 relay coil should be energized. If there were no magnetic pull, with rated voltage measured across the coil, the most probable cause would be that the _________________.
A. B. C. D.
6156
A. B. C. D.
A. coil is open B. control fuse is open C. auxiliary contact in series with the coil is defective D. relay armature is stuck Ans: A Which of the following procedures represents the best method to 6159 prevent the freezing of batteries continuously exposed to low temperatures? A. The battery caps should be removed. B. The battery cap vents should be sealed. C. The battery should be kept in a fully charged condition.
Ans: C You are using a mechanical voltage tester to check the fuses in a three-phase circuit supplying an electric motor. For which of the following reasons must the motor be stopped during the test?
A. Testing an energized circuit presents a hazard to the testing personnel. B. A faulty fuse could go undetected with the motor energized. C. Reversed polarity of the circuit would be indicated by the voltage tester with the circuit energized. D. All of the above. Ans: B To properly seat the brushes on slip rings, you should use 6150 ____________. A. sand paper B. crocus cloth C. emery cloth D. all of the above Ans: A Routine A.C. motor maintenance should include periodic 6152 ______________. A. thermometer readings at normal loads to detect abnormal temperature rises B. inspection of the motor's internals for loose rotor bars or field poles
C. the voltage fluctuates D. too little current is supplied Ans: B When replacing fuses, always make sure _______________. 6153
Ans: A A useful instrument for checking A.C. motor performance by measuring possible unbalanced currents is the _____________.
Ans: B Periodic testing by a shoreside support technician using a special camera which can detect potentially dangerous loose or corroded bus bar and controller connections is termed ______________. A. B. C. D.
6158
heat sensitive thermography visual pyrotronics corrosion electrolysis electric vibroanalysis
Ans: A Materials that retain a large part of their magnetization, after the magnetizing force is removed, are said to have _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 6160
can trip faster as it increases in age will continue to provide the original degree of protection does not exceed its interrupting capacity be able to withstand at least 125% of applied voltage
low hysteresis loss high flux density high permanence high permeability C Ambient temperature is the _____________.
A. amount of temperature rise with no load B. temperature of the compartment where the motor is located C. normal operating temperature, less the room temperature
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D. The battery should be disconnected from its charging source.
6161
Ans: C Electric circuits are protected against overloads and short circuits by means of a/an ______________.
D. amount of temperature developed by an operating motor
6162
A. circuit breaker
A. changing out of magnetic elements and thermal heaters yearly
B. amplifier
B. checking for corrosion, accumulation of dirt and thermal fatigue
C. diode D. capacitor Ans: A When a megohmmeter is being used to test insulation resistance, 6163 current leakage along the surface of the insulation is indicated by the megohmmeter pointer _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 6165
A. B. C. D. Ans: 6167
fluctuating around a constant resistance reading dipping towards "zero", then rising s lowly kicking slightly downscale as voltage is applied continually rising as the test voltage is applied C A lead-acid battery cell sustaining a short circuit _______.
will be indicated by lime accumulation on the terminal posts will have unusually high cell voltage will become excessively heated while being charged cannot be completely discharged under load C A fuse will blow for all the listed reasons EXCEPT ________.
A. excessive vibration B. extremely hot surroundings C. loose fuse clips D. low contact resistance within the fuse Ans: D In general, D.C. propulsion motor brush sparking can be caused by 6169 _______________. A. incorrect brush grade, pressure or position B. a concentric commutator C. a dark chocolate colored commutator D. all of the above Ans: A In which of the situations listed will a megohmmeter give the most 6171 accurate readings?
While the machine is in operation. While the machine is discharging static electricity. Immediately prior to restarting the mac hine. When the machine has been shut down and grounded for a period of 15 minutes. Ans: D The most practical way to control the voltage output of an AC 6173 generator is to vary the _____________. A. number of windings B. speed of the rotating field C. strength of the rotating magnetic field D. power factor of the load Ans: C One important difference between wye-connected and delta6175 connected generators is that delta connections have ____________. A. B. C. D.
line voltages equal to the vector sum of the phase voltages phase voltages 90° out of sync line current equal to the phase current line voltage equal to the phase voltage D If many turns of an alternating current coil for a contactor become short circuited, the coil _____________. A. will continue to operate
C. inspecting for loose or missing parts D. making sure foreign matter does not block tripping element Ans: A While paralleling two (2) AC generators using synchronizing lamps 6164 only, both lamps will go dark when the generators are ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 6166
running at the same speed grounded of the same polarity in phase D The propeller shaft speed in a turbo-electric, synchronous, propulsion drive motor is changed by varying the __________.
A. turbine speed B. number of motor poles C. field strength of the generator D. field strength of the motor Ans: A Two contributors of electronic console failures are heat and 6168 vibration. To combat some of their effects, preventive maintenance procedures should include ______________. A. systematic rotation of circuit cards with those from s pares to allow component cooling B. periodic changing or cleaning of console ventilation and control room air conditioning filters C. weekly tightening of console foundation bolts and changing of the air in the control room D. all of the above Ans: B Automatic voltage regulators provided on switchboards function to 6170 _____________. A. regulate the AC load on the generator B. protect the switchboard from high voltage C. govern prime mover speed to control voltage D. vary the field excitation to the generators Ans: D You are attempting to parallel two AC generators, and the 6172 synchroscope pointer is revolving in the fast direction. This indicates that the frequency of the incoming machine is _____________. higher than the bus frequency lower than the bus frequency the same as the bus frequency but out of phase with it the same as the bus frequency and the circuit breaker may be closed at any pointer position Ans: A Which of the instruments listed could be use to locate a grounded 6174 field coil in a synchronous motor? A. Ammeter B. Voltmeter C. Megohmmeter D. Frequency meter Ans: C A megohmmeter is used to measure _____________. 6176 A. B. C. D.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 6177
Ans: B In addition to testing the calibration of a circuit breaker, maintenance should include all of the following EXCEPT ______________.
voltage dielectric strength current power B When a battery is continuously exposed to low temperatures, the best procedure to keep it from freezing is to _________. A. remove the battery caps
A. B. C. D. Ans: 6178
Page 350
B. C. D. Ans: 6179
A. B. C. D. Ans: 6181
A. B. C. D. Ans: 6183
will probably burn out immediately will operate on reduced current temperature will drop B The purpose of the reverse power relay, provided on a ship's service alternator panel, is to trip the circuit in the event of ______________. main circuit overload high power transfer generator overspeeding alternator motorization D Which of the listed faults cannot be eliminated, EXCEPT by turning or grinding a commutator with a rigidly supported tool? Sparking brushes Eccentricity High mica Blackened commutator B When a megohmmeter is used to test the insulation of a large motor, the initial dip of the pointer toward "zero" is caused by ____________.
A. good insulation B. the capacitance of the windings C. the leakage of the current along the surface of dirty insulation D. the dielectric-absorption effect of the insulation Ans: B The air gap in an induction motor should be periodically checked 6185 with a feeler gage to prevent possible ___________.
B. C. D. Ans:
securely cover the battery keep the battery fully charged disconnect the battery C Which of the following conditions indicates that a lead-acid battery is being charged too rapidly?
A. B. C. D. Ans:
Sparks occurring at the positive terminal. Unusually high electrolyte specific gravity. Low plate potentials being developed. Excessively high temperatures and gassing rates. D The dielectric strength of a vacuum or dry air is approximately ________________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
450 volts/inch 1000 volts/inch 20-kv/inch 50-kv/inch C For routine cleaning of a commutator, you should apply _____________.
6180
6182
6184
A. course sandpaper in a slow back and forth motion across the commutator slots B. an emery cloth parallel to the axis of the machine C. a canvas wiper to the machine while running D. cotton swabs between the commutator bars Ans: C Undervoltage trips are frequently installed on switchboard circuit 6186 breakers to trip ____________.
A. rotor contact with the stator B. axial misalignment of the rotor
A. out generators in the event of severe arcing or sparking B. out generators when there is reversal of power in the main circuit
C. damage to the motor bearings
C. the breaker if the generator overspeeds by 5%, but continues to run
D. electrical damage to the bearings Ans: A A shore power circuit breaker should be closed only 6187 _____________. A. when the ship's generators have been paralleled to those on shore B. C. D. Ans: 6189
in a shipyard if a quick disconnect coupling is used when the ship's generators have been removed from the bus D You can determine if a circuit breaker is tripped by ______.
A. examining the position of the handle B. checking for the warm breaker C. looking for a burned-out link D. looking for the tripped breaker light Ans: A If there is a reduction in the normally supplied frequency to a 6191 120/240 volt, three-phase AC current motor from 60 hertz to 55 hertz, the motor would _____________. A. run at a slower speed B. operate at a lower current C. overheat D. trip off the line Ans: A When paralleling two alternators the s ynchronizing lamps grow dim 6193 and are totally darkened as the synchroscope pointer approaches the 0‚ position. This indicates the ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
alternator voltages are 180‚ apart incoming alternator is running too fast incoming alternator is in phase with the bus voltage synchroscope pointer is defective or broken C
D. out generators when there is low voltage in the main circuit Ans: D When a resistor is used as a shunt and is connected in parallel with 6188 a meter movement coil, it will provide _____________. A. a measurement of circuit resistance an increased accuracy of approximately 1.5 percent an extended meter range none of the above C In addition to undercutting the mica, proper maintenance of a D.C. 6190 motor's commutator includes _______________. A. side-cutting the copper segments and insulating the slots B. coating the copper surface with light machine oil for the first four hours of operation C. baking the armature in an oven at a maximum of 95‚ C for not over 8 hours D. all of the above Ans: A Which of the following electric meter movements uses a stationary 6192 permanent magnet and movable coil? B. C. D. Ans:
A. D'Arsonval B. Electrodynamometer C. Moving iron-vane D. Inclined coil iron-vane Ans: A D.C. motor brush adjustment includes attention to _________. 6194
A. B. C. D. Ans:
angle with the commutator and clearance within the holder brush length and pigtail tightness grade of material and surface dirt conditions all of the above D
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If all three ground-detection lamps continue to burn at equal intensity after the test button is depressed and released, which of the listed conditions is indicated?
6195
A. No grounds exist B. All three phases are grounded C. The test switch is faulty D. The current transformers are shorted out Ans: A You are calibrating a multimeter using internal batteries to supply 6197 power for resistance measurements. However, you are unable to adjust the pointer to "zero" using the adjustment knob. Therefore, you should _____________. A. replace the batteries in the instrument B. measure resistance by dividing the voltmeter indication by the ammeter indication C. set the pointer using a bridge D. change scales to the R X 100 scale and adjust using the "zero ohms" adjusting knob Ans: A A multimeter may be damaged by taking a _____________. 6199
A. voltage reading while in the ammeter mode B. current reading while in the voltmeter mode C. resistance reading while in the ammeter mode D. resistance reading while in the voltmeter mode Ans: A If two AC generators have just been placed in parallel, the true 6201 power load is initially distributed evenly by _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
a balance coil changing field excitation adjusting the governor control settings a rheostat C A multimeter can be used to measure _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
resistance voltage current all of the above D Before using an all-purpose electric measuring instrument (multimeter) utilizing internal batteries to supply power for resistance measurements, you should FIRST ____________.
6203
6205
A. B. C. D. Ans: 6198
6207
A. B. C. D.
remove all the batteries calibrate using a known external resistance select the proper resistance range D If the centrifugal switch or relay used for cutting out the starting winding of a split-phase induction motor fails to open once the motor is in operation, the _____________.
C. synchroscope is defective or broken D. alternator power factors are in phase
6200
Ans: B D.C. propulsion motor brush pressure depends on the brush grade used and in practice is set with a ______________. A. multimeter B. manometer C. spring scale D. compound gauge Ans: C A current carrying conductor making an electrical contact with a 6211 wiring metal conduit is indicated by a _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
low switchboard wattmeter reading reading of 1.0 on the power factor meter high switchboard voltmeter reading totally darkened switchboard ground-detecting light D
Ans: C When two AC generators are being paralleled, the breaker should be closed with the synchroscope pointer rotating in the ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
6202
"slow" direction, just before the 12 o'clock position "fast" direction, just after the 12 o'c lock position "fast" direction, just before the 12 o'clock position "slow" direction, just after the 12 o'clock position C Which of the following types of insulation will begin to deteriorate FIRST as a result of the heat generated in the conductor it surrounds?
A. Varnished cloth B. Rubber C. Silicon D. Asbestos Ans: B The KW load is evenly distributed between two alternators just 6204 placed in parallel by adj usting _____________. A. a balance coil B. the governor settings C. the field excitation D. a rheostat Ans: B When paralleling two AC generators, the frequency of the incoming 6206 machine immediately prior to closing its breaker should be ____________. A. controlled by placing the governor switch in the automatic position B. C. D. Ans: 6208
motor will overspeed starting winding will burn out motor will immediately stall under load motor torque will be above normal at rated speed
6209
rapid brush wear residual magnetism leak off excessive field winding heat circulation of shaft currents D When paralleling two alternators, the synchronizing lamps remain lit as the synchroscope pointer approaches the 0°. This indicates the _____________.
A. incoming alternator is running too fast B. alternator voltages are 180 degrees apart
A. remove one of the batteries B. C. D. Ans:
One of the generator bearing shells is generally insulated from the end housing in order to prevent _____________.
6196
A. B. C. D.
6210
adjusted with the voltage regulator slightly greater than the bus frequency slightly less than the bus frequency C A flickering ground detection lamp on a DC system would indicate a _____________. multiple-ground condition in the distribution system ground in an armature coil of an operating machine ground in a motor accompanied with a short short between two adjacent bars of the generator commutator
Ans: B The unit "hertz" is equivalent to _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
coulombs per second revolutions per second revolutions per minute cycles per second D A DC generator is used to supply direct current in order to maintain an AC generator field and is known as a/an _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
rotor stator exciter armature C
6212
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Fuses are usually rated in _____________.
6213
watts amps only volts only amps and volts D Which of the following materials is a good insulator? 6215 A. steel B. aluminum C. glass D. copper Ans: C An electrical connection between the wiring of an electric motor and 6217 its metal frame is known as a/an _____________.
6214
A. B. C. D. Ans:
eddy current ground impedance flux leakage B In addition to short circuits and s ustained overloads, fuses are likely 6219 to blow due to _____________. A. loose fuse clips B. low ambient temperatures C. low contact resistance D. all of the above Ans: A You are reconnecting a three-phase induction motor to the supply 6221 line. To prevent possible damage to the load, due to the wrong direction of rotation, you should ____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans: 6216 A. B. C. D. Ans: 6218
A. B. C. D. Ans:
A. B. C. D. Ans: 6220
Ans: D Why is it a good practice to have the frequency of the incoming alternator adjusted slightly higher than that of the loaded alternator when paralleling two alternators? A. This allows the oncoming machine to accept load immediately.
B. This prevents the machine from floating on the line. C. The reverse power relay is prevented from activating. D. All of the above. Ans: D Two paralleled alternators are operating near rated load. If one trips 6225 out mechanically, which of the listed actions should be taken FIRST? A. Restart the tripped machine immediately. B. Strip the board of all non-vital circuits. C. Start the emergency generator. D. Transfer all vital loads to the emergency bus. Ans: B If all of the ground detection lamps burn with equal brilliance, 6227 whether the test button is depressed or released, then ___________. A. no grounds exist B. all phases are grounded C. all lamps show a ground D. all of the above
6229
Ans: A In order to change the direction of rotation of a D.C.motor_________. I. the field leads must be changed II. the input leads must be changed A. I only B. II only C. either I or II
slightly less than the line frequency the same as the line frequency slightly greater than the line frequency all of the above C The greatest single cause of electrical failures is ______.
A. the breakdown of insulation B. overcurrent C. high inductance D. too frequent testing Ans: A Current flowing in only one direction is called ___________. 6222
A. connect the motor and then use the "jog" button to determine the direction of rotation B. connect the phase indicator to the motor leads, rotate the motor by hand and then connect to the supply voltage C. connect the phase indicator to the supply voltage then connect the motor D. check the supply line phase sequence and motor rotation with appropriate indicators, then connect correspondingly marked leads
6223
When used for taking resistance measurements, a volt-ohmmilliammeter is normally powered by _____________. a hand cranked generator internal storage batteries the current in the circuit being tested a step down transformer B Electrical power is expressed in _____________. ohms volts amps watts D Prior to closing the breaker when paralleling two AC generators, the recommended practice is to have the frequency of the incoming machine _____________.
A. alternating current B. omnidirectional current C. direct current D. sinusoidal current
6224
Ans: C In an alternating current electrical system, a low system power factor is a direct sign of _____________. A. wasted energy
B. efficient operation C. a short in the exciter field windings D. an excessive number of minor system grounds Ans: A Routine maintenance of dry-type transformers should 6226 include______________. A. preventing the entrance of water from broken pipe lines steam lines B. keeping protective surfaces and insulating bushings free of dirt and conductive debris C. periodic testing of insulation resistance with a megger D. all of the above Ans: D A capacitor discolored due to excessive heat should be 6228 _____________. A. calibrated using a capactance wheatstone bridge B. replaced and the reason for the overheating found C. cooled with a spray can of refrigerant approved for this purpose D. resoldered with care taken to insure that the origional cold solder joint is repaired Ans: B In an A.C. generator, pitting of collector rings will 6230 cause__________. I. sparking II. chattering A. I only B. II only C. both I and II
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D. neither I or II Ans: A Air gap readings should be taken periodicly on electrical generation 6231 equipment to __________.
6233
D. neither I or II Ans: D On some electrical generating equipment one outboard bearing 6232 pedestal is insulated from the bedplate. This should be c hecked with a millivolt meter and a jumper. With the millivolt meter connectd between the shaft and the bedplate how should the jumper be
A. determine the amount of varnish that can be applied to correct insulation problems B. determine the condition of the bearings
A. It should be placed from one end of the shaft to the other to eliminate shaft currents. B. It is used to short the + and - in a D.C. generator or Phase A and Phase C in an alternator to eleminate the effects of CEMF.
C. provide for the correct proper tightening of the field coil bolts and correct lateral adjustment of the field coils
C. It should be placed across the insulating block to increase the shaft current to a point where it can be measured with the millivolt meter.
D. increase machine efficiency
D. It should be placed from the shaft to the pedestal while one reading is taken, then removed to take a second reading. This eliminates the insulating effect of the bearing.
Ans: B After closing the circuit breaker to place two similar alternators in parallel, the NEXT step is to balance the _____________. A. power factor B. voltage load C. kilowatt load
D. ampere load Ans: C Air gap readings should be taken on electrical generation 6235 equipment periodicly to ________. I. check machine effeciency II. determine the need for cleaning
6234
A. failure to clean the bearing before repacking B. failure to maintain proper alignment C. excess lubrication forcing the bearing full of grease and eliminating all areas of expansion D. all of the above Ans: D On some electrical generating equipment one outboard bearing 6236 pedestal is insulated from the bedplate. To check this insulation with the machine assembled you should use a____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
I only II only both I and II neither I or II D Air gap readings should be taken on electrical generation machinery periodicly to _________. I. determine the need for cleaning II. check the condition of the bearings
A. millivolt meter and a jumper B. ohmmeter C. megohm meter D. high potential tester Ans: A If the driving torque, such as that produced by a diesel engine, 6238 creates pulsations when coupled with a synchronous generator operating in parallel; the generator rotor may beperiodically pulled ahead or behind its normal position as it rotates. This cond
A. B. C. D. Ans:
I only II only both I and II neither I or II B If the bearings of an electrical generator are failing more frequently than expected and the lubricating oil is sludging then you should ______________.
A. hunting B. direct coupling C. peaking D. harmonic coupling Ans: A On electrical generators one of the bearings is isolated from the 6240 bedplate. This insulating block should not be painted and must be kept clean to ___________.
6237
6239
A. check the connections to the output leads B. check the bearing insulating block on one end of the unit C. replace the bearing with a sealed roller type D. replace the thrust bearing of the prime mover Ans: B A single-phase induction motor will only start if you spin the rotor 6241 rapidly with the line switch closed. After starting, its speed fluctuates between very slow and half-speed. The problem probably lies in the ________.
A. protect operating personnel from shock B. create an isolated ground for the instrumentation C. allow for the expansion of the generator away from the prime mover as it warms up D. eliminate shaft currents to prevent damaging the bearings Ans: D When testing for blown fuses in a three-phase supply circuit to a 6242 motor, you should first ___________________.
A. starting winding B. centrifugal mechanism
A. apply the megger across the tops of the line fuses B. apply an ammeter diagonally across the top of the first line fuse and the bottom of the third line fuse C. apply the voltage tester across the bottoms of the line fuses D. ensure the circuit is de-energized, and then use a continuity tester
C. centrifugal switch D. running winding
6243
Ans: D The failure of ball bearings used in electric motors can result from _____________.
Ans: D A short circuit in the armature of a DC motor will cause the motor to _____________.
A. B. C. D.
run fast hum when energized spark at the brushes fail to start
6244
Ans: D In a three-phase electrical system, three ground detecting lamps are provided. One lamp goes dark and the others increase in brightness. When the test button is pushed, all lamps have equal illumination. You should conclude that ____________. A. B. C. D.
there is a ground on the line with the dark lamp the dark lamp must be replaced there are grounds on the lines with the bright lamps this is a normal c ondition
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6245
Ans: C Which of the listed conditions will occur if dirt and grease are allowed to accumulate between the commutator segments of a motor?
A. A partial short circuit. B. A dead short circuit. C. Misalignment of the motor shaft. D. Overspeeding of the motor. Ans: A Which of the listed conditions could cause a DC motor to have 6247 excessively hot windings and sparking at the brushes?
6246
A. the dark lamp must be replaced B. there is a ground in the line with the dark lamp C. there are grounds in two of the three phases D. the voltage to the dark lamp is less than that of the system Ans: A Which of the following statements identifies the difference between 6248 the primary windings and the secondary windings of a 2:1 stepdown transformer?
A. High bar-to-bar voltage
A. The secondary windings have twice as much resistance as the primary windings. B. The secondary windings give off twice as much heat as the primary windings. C. The secondary windings require half as much c urrent as the primary windings.
B. Reversed interpole polarity C. Loose brushes D. Excessive humidity
6249
Ans: A When troubleshooting an amplifier, you measure an output of 30 volts. If the gain of the amplifier is 2, what must the input voltage be for the amplifier to work properly? A. B. C. D. Ans:
6251
32 volts 30 volts 28 volts 15 volts D If a DC motor runs faster than designed, with all other conditions being normal, the possible cause could be a/an ______________.
A. shorted shunt field coil B. open armature coil C. reversed commutating pole D. overload Ans: A Which of the listed conditions might contribute to very rapid 6253 wearing of a DC machine's commutator bars?
A. A grounded commutator bar B. Using improper carbon brushes C. Aligning the front and rear mica V-rings improperly D. An open circuit in the armature Ans: B If a single-phase induction motor fails to start, the problem may be 6255 _____________.
A. an open in the main winding B. a shorted shunt field C. a closed centrifugal switch D. low circuit frequency Ans: A A motor enclosure which protects against falling liquids is classified 6257 as ____________.
D. The secondary windings have half as many turns as the primary windings. Ans: D If an electric motor fails to start, you should FIRST check the 6250 _____________. phase sequence ampere load fuse or circuit breaker line frequency C The formula for computing impedance in a series circuit containing resistance, capacitance, and inductance is _____________. [ NOTE: the symbol * s tands for 'multiplied by' ]
A. B. C. D. Ans:
Z = RT + XL + XC Z = R + XL - XC Z * Z = R * R + (XL - XC) * (XL - XC) Z = R * R + (XL * XC) - (XL * XC) C The prime mover of an AC two pole main propulsion generator drives the generator at 3600 RPM. If the main propulsion motor has 80 poles, what will be the propeller speed?
A. B. C. D. Ans:
45 RPM 80 RPM 90 RPM 180 RPM C A single-phase induction motor starts, comes up to about 75% rated speed, slows down to a lower speed, and accelerates again. The problem is most likely in the ____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
starting winding running winding starting capacitor running centrifugal switch B As a result of a mechanical malfunction in one of the ship's service generators operating in parallel, you must secure that generator. In order to prevent a possible overload to the remaining generator, which of the following sequential courses of action
6254
6256
6258
A. Trip the malfunctioning generator's circuit breaker and prime mover throttle trip. B. Trip all nonvital distribution feeder circuit breakers, the malfunctioning generator's circuit breaker, and the prime mover throttle trip.
B. drip proof
C. spray tight
C. Trip the malfunctioning generator's circuit breaker and distribution feeder circuit breakers. D. Trip all nonvital distribution feeder circuit breakers, the malfunctioning prime mover turbine throttle trip, and the generator circuit breaker.
D. spray proof
Ans: B A turbogenerator has a rated output of 1200 KW at 60 Hertz, with a no load frequency of 61.5 Hertz. What is its speed droop?
A. B. C. D. Ans: 6252
A. waterproof
6259
Ans: A A three-phase electrical system is equipped with ground detecting lamps. If one of the lamp goes dark and the other two burn normally before and after the test switch is operated, this indicates _______________.
6260
Ans: B If an alternator is to be inactive for a considerable period of time, which of the following actions should be taken?
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A. B. C. D. Ans: 6261
0.01025
A. It should be disconnected from the prime mover and raised off its bearing supports. 0.015 B. Insulation resistance readings should be taken weekly to ensure resistance is not deteriorating. 0.02439 C. The brushes should be lifted off the slip rings to prevent pitting of the metal by electrolytic action. 0.025 D. The windings and collector rings should be protected with a thin coat of grease or oil. D Ans: C Which of the following materials is recommended for finishing the A megger is being used to test the insulation of an AC generator. 6262 slip rings after grinding or turning? The resistance value of a dry, clean winding will _____________.
A. grade 00 sandpaper
A. continue to rise as test potential is maintained, becoming fairly steady as the dielectric-absorption effect of insulation stabilizes
B. canvas wiper
B. remain constant as the temperature of the windings increases
C. crocus cloth D. smooth file Ans: C Brushes in a generator must be positioned in the neutral plane to 6263 avoid sparking between the brushes and the _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans: 6265
A. B. C. D. Ans: 6267
6269
yoke armature windings field pole windings commutator D A series wound DC motor has its armature and field connected in series with a resistor. When the motor is disconnected from its power supply, this motor will exemplify __________. the proper connections for across the line starting the proper connections for an automatic strip heater a reversing controller circuit dynamic braking D Unnecessary and frequent applications of varnish to the generator windings to repair defective insulation will result in ____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
the motor will run as a generator the motor will not run the direction of rotation will be the same the direction of rotation will be reversed C Uneven wear of the commutator surface on a direct current propulsion motor can be caused by _____________.
A. B. C. D. Ans:
rapid change in load excessive operation at light load incorrect brush staggering unequal pole spacing C The insulation of electric generators during short idle periods should be _____________.
6266
6268
A. heavy coatings of v arnish interfering with heat dissipation B. deficient air gap clearance and eventual damage to the casing
A. allowed to cool slowly to ambient temperatures B. flashed with direct current to remove any residual magnetism
C. failure of the rectifier assembly D. a built-up of v arnish without changing generator operation
C. kept warm by using strip or space heaters D. relieved of all capacitive charge by grounding the conductors
Ans: A If an AC generator experiences voltage failure, the cause may be _____________.
A. an open in the field circuit B. the brushes shifting out of the neutral plane C. excessive locked-rotor current D. a rotating slip ring Ans: A An open occurring within the field rheostat of an AC generator can 6271 be detected by short circuiting its terminals and observing a ____________. A. B. C. D.
6273
C. continue to drop as test potential is maintained, becoming fairly steady after 5-7 minutes D. stabilize after approximately 2-4 minutes of fluctuation Ans: A If the connections for the field and the armature on a DC motor are 6264 reversed, _____________.
6270
A. four times as great B. twice as much C. the same as the original resistance D. one-half of the original resistance Ans: A If three AC generators are operating in parallel, and one of them 6272 were to "pull out" of synchronism with the other two generators, the ____________.
negative deflection of the wattmeter pointer positive deflection of the wattmeter pointer buildup of alternator voltage low, but constant alternator voltage
Ans: C A loss of field excitation to an AC generator while operating in parallel will cause it to ____________. A. absorb more and more load due to decreased armature reaction B. lose its load due to the inherent speed droop built into the governor C. smoke and overload due to field flashover as residual field flux changes polarity D. lose its load, begin to motorize, trip out on reverse power relay, and possibly overspeed
Ans: C A wire is being used as a replacement having twice the length and one-half the cross-sectional area of the original wire. The resistance of this new wire, when compared to that of the original wire, is _____________.
A. normally operating AC generators will vibrate sev erely B. AC generator pulling out of synchronism will vibrate severely C. normally operating AC generators will overspeed and unload D. AC generator pulling out of synchronism will become motorized
6274
Ans: B An AC generator operating in parallel loses its excitation without tripping the circuit breaker. This will __________. A. not affect the faulty generator due to the compensation of the other generators B. cause the slip rings to melt C. cause a low voltage differential to develop between the armature and the bus D. cause high currents to be induced in the field windings
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6275
Ans: D Etched or burned bands on the contact faces of the brushes in a direct current generator can be c aused by ____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
6277
high mica segments copper drag on the commutator brushes improperly positioned copper embedded in the brushes C Which of the following statements describes the effects of ambient temperature on local action within lead-acid storage batteries?
6276
A. B. C. D. Ans: 6278
A. Increasing ambient temperature increases local action. B. Increasing ambient temperature decreases local action. C. Ambient temperature has no effect on local action. D. At 32°C all local action virtually ceases. Ans: A Which of the following losses is/are present in every direct current generator armature? A. Winding copper loss B. Core eddy current loss C. Magnetic hysteresis loss D. All of the above. Ans: D Which of the spaces listed is defined as a "locationrequiring an 6281 exceptional degree of protection" whenconsidering the installation of shipboard electricalequipment?
Ans: D If only one brush on a commutator is sparking excessively, you should look for _____________. a high commutator bar copper imbedded in the brush a loose commutator bar flux in the commutating zone B Diesel generators #1 and #2 are operating in parallel at near full load capacity. Diesel generator #1 suddenly trips out mechanically due to low lube oil pressure. The rev erse power relay functions properly and trips generator #1 electrically off the boa
A. Start the emergency generator. B. Ascertain cause of the low lube oil pressure. C. Strip the board of all nonvital circuits. D. Secure alarms, reset reverse power relay, and restart #1 engine. Ans: C Upon failure of the normal power supply, the emergency generator is placed on the line by the _____________. A. bus tie feeder B. automatic bus transfer device C. line connection feeder D. power failure alarm bus Ans: B The source of emergency lighting and power at loss of normal 6282 ship's power on a cargo vessel should be obtained from the ______________.
6279
6280
A. Machinery space B. Chart room C. Console room D. Accommodation space Ans: A Which of the following statements represents the FIRST precaution 6283 to be taken prior to working on any installed electrical component?
A. emergency generator supply to the emergency switchboard B. emergency generator supply to the main switchboard C. battery supply to the main switchboard D. turbogenerator supply to the emergency switchboard Ans: A Which of the listed safety features should be provided in small 6284 rooms or lockers where batteries are stored?
A. Wear rubber gloves and boots. B. Use only approved nonconducting tools.
A. Installation of a fixed CO2 system. B. An exhaust duct is to be provided and led from within three inches of the deck. C. Power ventilation is to be provided if trickle charging is utilized.
C. Ground the case of the machine before beginning any repairs. D. Open the supply circuits and tag the switches.
6285
Ans: D Which of the following precautions should be taken when a blown fuse, rated at 10 amperes, is replaced?
A. Short out the fuse before removing it from the circuit. B. Use needle-nose pliers to remove fuse from the circuit. C. Replace blown fuse with one of equal v oltage and ampere capacity. D. Fuses of 10 ampere rating and less are v irtually harmless when energized and may be handled freely. Ans: C Receptacle outlets aboard ship should be designed so those 6287 mounted have _____________. A. there must be a sufficient number of receptacle outlets in the crew accommodations for an adequate level of habitability B. each receptacle outelt must be compatible with the voltage and current of the circuit in which it is installed C. a receptacle outlet must not have any exposed parts with the plug opening uncovered D. all of the above Ans: D According to Regulations , which of the following is an acceptable 6289 lining for battery trays containing alkaline batteries? A. B. C. D. Ans:
Brass Lead Steel Zinc C
D. An exhaust duct is to be provided and led from the top of the locker to the open air. Ans: D Before any work on electrical or electronic equipment is performed, 6286 which of the following precautions should be carried out? A. De-energize the applicable switchboard bus. B. Bypass the interlocks. C. Secure and tag the supply circuit breaker in the open position. D. Station a man at the circuit supply switch.
6288
Ans: C Regulations require that an indicating light at the propulsion control station will operate if overloading or overheating occurs in a _______________. A. forced draft blower motor B. steering gear motor C. fuel pump motor
D. condensate pump motor Ans: B According to Regulations, the motor controller for a submersible 6290 electric motor driven bilge pump should be installed _____________. A. B. C. D. Ans:
in the shaft alley at the submersible bilge pump above the uppermost continuous deck at the engine room emergency c ontrol panel C
