Condition Monitoring Case Studies on Gas Turbine Presented by Syed Nadeem AhmedDescripción completa
Before Applying for Qatar Airways
Names and contact numbers of some companies in Qatar.
Names and contact numbers of some companies in Qatar.Full description
The QT version of the interview.
Sample questions for UPDA MechanicalFull description
ETS Design Guidelines - Lusai, Qatar
Qatar Interview Profile SIM Airbus 330 or sometimes 320. 1. Depart LHR RWY 27R or it could be RWY 34 DOHA. 2. Straight out departure, sometimes the instructor will let you do some general handling, sick as steep turn, climb, descent so you get a feel of the airplane. 3. But most of the time they will immediate vector you for an ILS to land. 4. You will be lined up for takeoff again, and this time you might get an engine failure before V1. 5. Then you get a fire on the a/c, ask for memory items. 6. Request mayday, do the after T/O checklist, ask for rest of checklist. 7. Let the pilot non flying inform cabin crew and packs, quickly back request short vectors and fire guys to be ready when you land. 8. Do a briefing about evacuation etc. 9. Be aware for GS interception, since you might approach at a lower alt for the ILS. 10. The sim usually takes around 30-45 minutes.
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Interview Question Bank 1. How does a pressure altimeter work? a) Air pressure is highest at Earth\'s surface and gradually falls, in a systematic way, the higher up you go. Measuring the air pressure is therefore (in theory, at least) a simple and effective way of measuring altitude. b) The altimeters onboard most planes are actually aneroid barometers (pressure-measuring instruments) that have been calibrated (marked with a scale) so they show height inside of pressure. Like normal aneroid barometers, they consist of a hollow, sealed box that expands (as the pressure falls) or contracts (as the pressure rises). As the box changes size, by very tiny amounts, an intricate system of levers and gears magnifies its movements and makes a pointer rotate on a dial marked with height measurements. Hey presto, tiny changes in air pressure become accurate measurements of altitude. 2. Give definition of QNH,QFE? • QNH is the barometric Above Mean Sea Level (AMSL) pressure in Hectopascals. On this setting, the aircraft altimeter reads altitude. QFE is corrected for altitude pressure at the airfield, on this setting the altimeter in the aircraft reads Feet AGL (Above ground level). (Usually above the highest fixed point on the runway) 3. How does weather affect altimeter setting? 4. Altimeter instrument errors? a) Position Error: In some installations, position error can be of considerable magnitude. b) Scale Error: Commonly referred to as instrument error, scale error is caused by the aneroids not assuming the precise size designed for a particular pressure difference. This error is irregular throughout the range of the instrument (it might be -30 feet at 1,000 feet and +50 feet at 10,000 feet). The tolerances for this error became larger as the measured altitude is increased. c) Mechanical Error: Mechanical error is caused by misalignment or slippage in the gears and linkage connecting the aneroids to the display, or in the shaft of the barosetting knob. d) Density Error.- ICAO Standard Atmosphere conditions seldom prevail, and the resulting density error is only
partially offset by the diligent application of correct altimeter settings (station or standard pressure). It can generally be disregarded for Air Traffic Control purposes, since all pressure altimeters in close proximity react in the same way, and vertical separation is maintained. e) Hysteresis: This error is a lag in the altitude indications caused by the elastic properties of the materials used in the aneroids. It occurs when an aircraft initiates a large, rapid altitude change or an abrupt level-off from a rapid climb or descent. It takes a period of time for the aneroids to catch up with the new pressure environment; hence, a lag in indications. This error has been significantly reduced in modern altimeters and is considered negligible at normal rates of descent for jet aircraft. f) Reversal Error: During abrupt or rapid attitude changes, reversal error occurs; it is only momentary in duration.
5. Static variation in pitot tube causes error and is called? 6. How to calculated true altitude at an airport? • True altitude is your actual height above sea level. If you set the altimeter to local pressure corrected to sea level, indicated altitude is approximately true altitude. 7. What happens to your indicated airspeed if the pitot tube is blocked at the start of a descent? • The airspeed will show decrease. 8. What happens to your indicated airspeed if the static vent is blocked at the start of a climb? • Airspeed indicator will show inaccurate reading. 9. What happens to your indicated airspeed if your descent at a constant true air speed (TAS)? • Increase 10. What happens to your TAS if you climb at a constant Indicated airspeed? • TAS will increase 11. What happens to your mach number if you climb at a constant calibrated airspeed or indicated airspeed? • Mach number will increase 12. What happens to your indicated airspeed and TAS if you fly at a constant IAS into a warmer area? • TAS increases and IAS constant. 13. What happens to MN or IAS when climbing through an isothermal layer at constant true airspeed? • MN remains constant, IAS decreases. 14. What happens to local speed of sound (LSS) or TAS if one increases or the other decreases? 15. When do you use anti-ice? • With visible moisture or less than 1sm visibility. 16. What is the temperature at Troposphere (poles, equator)? • Poles -45, equator -75 Celsius 17. With ISA standards what is the temp at 10000ft? • -5 degrees celsius 18. Altocumulus castellanus are indication of? • Mid- atmospheric instability 19. Where is hail most encountered? • CB clouds 20. What type of cloud can be expected with virga? 21. Decode a TAF and what will the wind be at you ETA? 22. How is wind shear detected? 23. What effect does wind shear have during an approach for landing? 24. What is the recovery technique for wind shear?
25. Take off in wind shear? • Consider delaying the takeoff • Select the most favorable runway, considering the location of the likely windshear/ downburst • Use the weather radar (and the predictive windshear system, as available) before commencing the takeoff roll to ensure that the flight path is clear of hazard areas • Select the maximum takeoff thrust • Closely monitor the airspeed and speed trend during the takeoff roll to detect any evidence of windshear. 26. What are ICAO holding speeds? • Up to 6,000 ft MSL: 200 KIAS • From 6,001 to 14,000 ft MSL: 230 KIAS
• 14,001 ft MSL and above: 265 KIAS The ICAO Maximum holding speeds: • Up to 14000 ft: 230kts • 14000 ft to 20000 ft: 240kts • 20000 ft to 34000 ft: 265kts • Above 34000 ft: M0.83 27. Holding pattern entries? a. Parallel Procedure. When approaching the holding fix from anywhere within sector (a), turn to a heading to parallel the holding course outbound on the non-holding side for the appropriate time (see step 5), turn in the direction of the holding pattern through more than 180 degrees, and return to the holding fix or intercept the holding course inbound. b. Teardrop Procedure. When approaching the holding fix from anywhere in sector (b), turn outbound to a heading 30Â° from the holding course on the holding side for the appropriate time, then turn in the direction of the holding pattern to intercept the inbound holding course. c. Direct Entry Procedure. When approaching the holding fix from anywhere in sector (c), fly directly to the fix and turn to follow the holding pattern. 28. Are standard holding with left or right turns? • right 29. What is squawk code for hijacking? • 7500 30. What is squawk code for threat in an airplane? • 7700 31. Bomb on board the airplane and what do you do? 32. Emergency descent first action? • Contact ATC and request lower altitude. 33. If you lose the Runway while circling what actions do you take? • If you lose sight of the runway you have to make a Missed Approach. 34. How long to evacuate an airplane with more than 44 sits? • Certification purposes, aircraft needs to be evacuated in less than 90 sec through half of the available exits. Before V1: • Reject the takeoff only if unacceptable airspeed variations occur and the pilot assesses there is sufficient runway remaining to stop the aircraft. After V1: • Maintain or set the thrust levers to the maximum takeoff thrust (TOGA) • Rotate normally at VR • Follow the Flight Director pitch orders, or set the required pitch attitude if FD is not available (as recommended in the applicable FCOM). 35. ASDA is? • ACCELERATE-STOP DISTANCE AVAILABLE 36. TODA is? • TODA Take of distance available 37. VMCA is? • VMCA: minimum control speed (air). The minimum speed at which control of a twin-engine aircraft can be maintained after failure of one engine. 38. ISA is? • ISA - Agreed International Standard Atmosphere (1013.2 millibars at 15\'C) to permit accurate comparison of aircraft performance figures. 39. What is ETOPS? • Extended-range Twin-engine Operational Performance Standards • (ICAO) Standard and Recommended Practice (SARP) permitting twin-engined commercial air transporters to fly routes that, at some points, are farther than a distance of 60 minutes\' flying time from an emergency or diversion airport. • It refers to single-engine flight times between diversion airfieldsâ•‰regardless as to whether such fields are separated by water or land. 40. What are the various ETOPS categories? • The Extended Range Operations are covered under categories viz. 75 minutes, 120 minutes and 180-minutes diversion time • 90mins, 120 mins, 138 mins, 180 mins, 240 mins. 41. What is lapse rate? • The lapse rate is defined as the rate of decrease with height for an atmospheric variable. The variable
involved is temperature unless specified otherwise. ... 42. What is climb gradient? • The rate, expressed as a percentage, of the change in geometric height divided by the horizontal distance traveled in a given time. 43. ILS CAT 1 Minimum, RVR, MDA? • CAT 1 Approach Minimums are 200ft DH and 2400RVR CAT 1 Approach Minimums without touchdown zone and centerline lights is 200ft DH and 1800RVR 44. The segments on a takeoff? First Segment: The Climb from 35 feet point until the landing gears are fully retracted. Conditions in this segment are: - landing gear extended - flaps in T/O position - Speed = V2 - Climb gradient for 2 engine A/C = Positive - Climb gradient for 4 engine A/C = 0.5% - Takeoff power Second Segment: Climb from gear retraction point until a height of 400 feet is reached. conditions in this segment are: - gears retracted - flaps in T/O position - speed = V2 - Climb gradient 2 engine a/c 2.4%, and 4 engine a/c 3.0% - takeoff power Third Segment: Its the horizontal distance covered after the second segment until the flap retraction speed is reached, to raise the flaps plus the distance required to accelerate the aircraft to the flaps up climb speed. It consists of two parts: First part of 3rd segment: Distance covered before flap retraction, accelerating to flap retraction speed. The conditions are: - gears retracted - flaps in t/o position - speed increasing from v2 to flap retraction speed - Climb gradient 2 engine a/c 1.2%, 4 engine a/c 1.7% - takeoff power Second part of 3rd segment: Distance covered after flap retraction, accelerating to final t/o climb speed. the conditions are: - gears retracted - flaps retracted - speed, accelerating from flaps retraction to final t/o climb speed - Climb gradient 2 engine a/c 1.2%, 4 engine a/c 1.7% - maximum continous power Fourth Segment: the Climb from 400 feet till 1500 feet is reached, after the end of third segment operating with max continous power. The conditions are: - gears retracted - flaps retracted - speed = final t/o climb speed - max continous power - Climb gradient 2 engine a/c 1.2%, 4 engine a/c 1.7% 45. 1st segments stops at? • Landing gear is fully retracted with flaps in the takeoff setting. 46. What is 3rd segment of a climb? • Third segment is the distance required to go from the end of the second segment climb at V2 to the final climb speed with the flaps retracted. It\'s flown level while accelerating. 47. How many % to be considered a contaminated RNW? • In the JARs, its 25% or more of the runway surface must be covered. Under the FAA system we are presently using ANY amount of snow makes the runway contaminated. 48. NOTAMS, and how are they distributed? • Three categories. These are NOTAM (D) or distant, NOTAMâ•?(L) or local, and Flight Data Center (FDC) NOTAMs. • CLASS I NOTAMS (ICAO): NOTAMs distributed by means of telecommunication. • CLASS II NOTAMS (ICAO) OR PUBLISHED NOTAMS: NOTAMs distributed by means other than
telecommunications. In the United States these NOTAMs are published in the Notices To Airmen Publication (NTAP) which is issued every 28 days 49. What is a dutch roll? • Dutch roll is a type of aircraft motion or oscillation occurs in roll and yaw. Aircraft with swept wings are especially prone to butch roll and thus are almost always equipped with yaw dampers. • Yaw Damper is a gyro operated stability augmentation autocontrol system installed to automatically provide immediate rudder input when necessary to aid in canceling out yaw tendencies such as (dutch roll). 50. Describe the spiral stability of the A320 in Normal law? 51. What happens if you move C.G from forward to aft position? 52. Lift Formula is? • L=(1/2)d v2 s CL 53. How is gliding distance affected by the weight of the aircraft? 54. What is the effect of speed brakes and ailerons simultaneous input? 55. During flare aircraft will float, why? 56. If you are climbing at 270/.80 and then you increase your speed to 290/.80 are you going to reach the .80M earlier or later? 57. If in a turn and try to maintain the same speed and altitude, what do you have to do? 58. MCRIT + swept back wing? 59. What does DER/MORA stands for? 60. MTOM and MLM, what type of limitations are these? 61. The fix distance markings on RWY are at what distance? 62. Red Pyrotechnic or red flare from aircraft to tower means? 63. What is loop or pigtail in an impulse line? 64. What is maintenance planning? 65. How does control valves work? 66. What is barrette? 67. Low visibility operation? 68. What does the blood transport? • hemoglobin
Tell us about yourself? Tell us about your family? Does your wife approve your job in Qatar? Why Qatar Airways? What do you know about Qatar airways? What do you expect from Qatar Airways? What can you bring to the company? How long time do you need to notify you company? Do you currently have a bond with your company? Why should we hire you instead of other applicants? Why do you want to leave your current job? Tell us 10 good/bad things about you? What makes a good/bad captain/first officer? Why Have you flown with demanding captain? Give an example Any time a captain or first officer didnâ•?t agree with you? Have you had someone to misinterpreting you? Give an example On takeoff and while on high speed you realize your tires are deflated, what do you do? How does it affect the breaking performance? If you have a bomb in the airplane what do you do? Do you have a bomb immediate action in your company? What is the definition of safe take off distance? What are the five major elements in a emergency descent? What is MNPS ALT limits?
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How many degrees of pitch would you fly with an engine failure right after takeoff> What would you see on the PFD? What is your company procedures for? What do you think about it?