1) Test Case Coverage Coverage can can be measured by _________ _____________ ________ _______. ___. a. Glob Global al dat data a cove covera rage ge b. State Stateme ment nt Co Cove vera rage ge c. All of the the list listed ed opti options ons d. User specifi specified ed data data cove coverag rage e e. Trac Tracea eabi bili lity ty 2) Functional Functional testing testing that verifies the application application functions functions in accordance accordance with user-specifi user-specified ed requirements is called __________________. __________________. a. Use User r Accepta Acceptance nce test testing ing b. Re Regre gress ssio ion n test testing ing c. Eas Ease of Use Use d. Co Corr rrec ectn tnes ess s 3) Test technique technique to simulate simulate system disaster disaster to verify manual procedures procedures are adequate adequate is called __________. a. Volu Volume me test testin ing g b. Dis Disast aster er tes testin ting g c. Stress d. Securi Security ty test testin ing g 4) When we talk about analysi analysis s performed performed by executing the program program code, we are talking talking about about ______________. a. Fo Forc rce e fiel field d anal analys ysis is b. Dyn Dynami amic c ana analys lysis is c. No None ne of of the the list listed ed opt optio ions ns d. Fo Form rmal al ana analy lysi sis s 5) The following following entrance entrance criteria criteria are prerequisit prerequisites es to test plan EXCEPT: EXCEPT: a. Peop People le Issu Issues es b. Co Cons nstr tra aint ints c. Test Test Obje Object ctiv ives es d. KT do docu cume ment nt 6) Which of the followi following ng are the important important elements elements of the control control environment? environment? a. Both inte integrit grity y & ethica ethicall values values b. Integri grity c. Inte Integr grit ity y only only d. Ethi Ethica call valu values es 7) A white box testing technique technique that executes executes possible possible combinations combinations of condition condition outcomes outcomes in each decision is _____________. _____________. a. Co Condi nditi tion on Co Cove vera rage ge b. Deci Decision sion/con /conditi dition on cover coverage age c. Deci Decisi sion on cove covera rage ge d. State Stateme ment nt cov cover erag age e 8) The testing testing technique technique that is used to verify multipl multiple e authorizatio authorization n procedures to perform perform properly is called ________________. ________________. a. Erro Errorr han handl dlin ing g b. Recovery c. Se Sec curi rity ty d. Control
9) The process process of verifying the consistenc consistency, y, completeness completeness and correctness correctness of software software at each stage of the development lifecycle is ______________. ______________. a. Lif Lifecy ecycle cle tes testin ting g b. Lead Leader ersh ship ip c. Management d. All of the listed listed option options s 10) 10) Whic Which h of the the foll follow owin ing g is an Inf Infor orma mall Ana Analy lysi sis s of of the the pro progr gram am sou sourc rce e code code yie yield ldin ing g computer software ready for testing? a. Func Functi tion onal al Re Revi view ew b. Co Code de Ins Inspe pect ctio ion n c. Co Code de Veri Verifi fica cati tion on d. Cod Code e Wa Walkt lkthro hroug ugh h 11) 11) a. b. c. d.
12) a. b. c. d.
Whic Which h amo among ng the the foll follow owin ing g is is a pri prima mary ry caus cause e of of dela delays ys in in ack ackno nowl wled edgi ging ng a defe defect ct? ? Inability to Inability to reprodu reproduce ce the the defect defect Defect Defect caused caused by user error error or misunderst misunderstanding anding Defe Defect ct is not not val valid id No one one else has has repor reported ted a defec defectt like like that Whi Which one of the the fol followi lowing ng sta stateme tement nt is true true abo about def defects ects? ? All of the listed listed option options s A single defec defectt can cause millions of failures failures A defect defect has greater greater impact even even if it does not not affect affect customer customer and the operation operation of the the system Defects Defects cannot cannot be found found in the the supporting supporting document documentation ation
13) 13) Comp Co mput uter er sys syste tems ms are are int inter erco conn nnec ecte ted d into into cycl cycles es of of cha chain ins s suc such h that that prob proble lems ms in one one can cascade into and affect others. Identify this technological development from the following options, which impacts testing approach? a. Sy Syst stem em Ch Chai ains ns b. Inte Integr gra atio tion c. Ca Casc scad ade e effe effect ct d. Domi Domino no effe effect ct 14) a. b. c. d. 15) a. b. c. d.
16) 16) a. b. c. d.
Walter Walt er Shew Shewha hart rt is know known n for for his his wo work on ____ _______ ______ ____ ____ ___. _. Scat Scatte terr Plot Plot Diag Diagra rams ms Run char hart Cont Co ntro roll cha chart rt His Histogra gram Test Test objec bjecti tive ves s do not not inclu nclude de whic which h of of the foll follo owin wing? Supplemental Supplemen tal deliverables, deliverables, such as application documenta documentation. tion. Enabling Enabling the tester tester and project project managers managers to gauge testing testing progress progress and success. success. Guide to to the develo development pment of of test cases, cases, proced procedures, ures, and and test data. data. Enhancing Enhancing of communica communication tion both both within and outside outside of the the project project team by helping helping to define the scope of the testing effort. An ope opera rato torr veri verifi fies es tha thatt all all prod produc ucti tion on job jobs s are are run. run. Thi This s is ___ _____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ___. _. Prod Produc ucti tion on Pla Planni nning ng Disa Disast ster er reco recove very ry Qual Qualit ity y Assur Assuran ance ce Qual Qu alit ity y Contr Control ol
17) 17) Whic Which h amon among g the the foll follow owin ing g is the the most most eff effec ecti tive ve met metho hod d to solv solve e disp disput ute e rega regard rdin ing ga defect?
a. Arbitration by by software owner and and arbitration by software software development development management b. All of the listed listed option options s c. Arbitratio Arbitration n by software software owner owner and arbitrat arbitration ion by test test manager manager d. Arbitratio Arbitration n by softwa software re developm development ent managem management ent
18) 18) ____ ______ ____ ___ _ is is use used d to to veri verify fy proce process ssing ing of a sin singl gle e tra transa nsact ctio ion n can can be recon reconst struc ructe ted d and and examine review trail to verify the appropriate information. a. Au Audi ditt tra trail il b. Re Revi view ew tra traiil c. Auth Author oriz izat atio ion n d. Co Corr rrec ectn tnes ess s 19) 19) a. b. c. d. 20) 20) a. b. c. d. 21) a. b. c. d.
High High pri prior orit ity y act activ ivit ity y in in any any defe defect ct mana manage geme ment nt pro progr gram am sho shoul uld d be ____ ______ ____ ____ __.. to preve prevent nt defe defect cts s All of the listed listed option options s to imp impro rove ve the the pro proce cess ss to identify identify the best best prevention prevention techniques techniques and and implement implement them them Whic Which h amo among ng the the fol follo lowi wing ng is the the cor corre rect ct sequ sequen ence ce to test test exec execut utio ion? n? All of the listed listed option options s Identify Identify test cases cases and test cycles, cycles, assign test scripts, scripts, set up test environmen environments, ts, review test cases Set up test environme environment, nt, identify identify test case, case, review review test result, result, assign assign test scripts scripts Set up test test environments, environments, identify identify test cases cases and test test cycles, assign assign test scripts, review test results Whi Which among mong the the fo follow llowin ing g tec techn hniq ique ues s is is use used d to to cre creat ate e tes testt da data? ta? Test beds Produc Pro ductio tion n dat data a All All of the the lis liste ted d opti option ons s Scr Scripti pting
22) With thorough testing it is possible to remove defects from a program prior to delivery to customer. State True or False. 23) a. b. c. d.
When does Test Design begin in SDLC? Test Testin ing g Phas Phase e Low Low Leve Levell Desi Design gn Pha Phase se High High Lev Level el Desi Design gn Pha Phase se Requir Req uirem ement ents s Phase Phase
a. b. c. d. e.
The The test test sche schedu dule le sect sectio ion n doe does s not not incl includ ude e whic which h of the the foll follow owin ing? g? The types types of tests tests that must must be conduc conducted. ted. Initia Initiall estimate estimates s for each each activit activity. y. Majo Ma jorr test test act activ ivit itie ies. s. Seque Sequenc nce eo off tes tests ts.. Dependence Dependence on other project project activitie activities s
a. b. c. d.
Pare Paretto vot votin ing g is is use used d in in con conju junc ncti tio on wit with h ___ _____ ____ ____ ___ ____. ___. Statis Statistic tical al proc process ess cont control rol Vital Few 80-20 Cause Caus e and eff effect ect (Fis (Fishbone hbone))
24) 24)
25)
26)
The The rres esu ult expe expect cted ed fro from m ent enter eriing the the acti action on is is ___ _____ ____ ____ ___ ____. ___. a. Think ti time
b. Arri Arriva vall rate rate c. Sequence d. Exp Expec ected ted Res Result ult 27) 27) a. b. c. d.
The The conc concep eptt of defe defens nsiv ive e code code invo involv lves es ____ ______ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ __.. adding adding thro throw() w() and catch( catch()) None None of of the the list listed ed opti options ons adding code code to a program program so that two two parts of program must must fail before before a major adding adding a syntax syntax chec checker ker in in middle middle of code code
28) 28) Whic Which h amon among g the the foll follow owin ing g is the the most most eff effec ecti tive ve met metho hod d for for vali valida dati ting ng suc succe cess ssfu full integration? a. Test Test serv server er com compo ponen nents ts b. Test Test clie client nt comp compon onent ents s c. Test Test netw netwo ork d. All of the list listed ed opti options ons e. Integra Integrate te clien client, t, server server,, network network 29) 29) Which Which of the the fol follo lowi wing ng vali valida date tes s tha thatt mul multi tipl ple e par parts ts of the the sys syste tem m int intera eract ct acco accordi rding ng to to the system design? a. Unit Unit Test esting ing b. User Accep Acceptan tance ce Testin Testing g c. Int Integ egrat ration ion Te Testi sting ng d. Syst System em Test Testin ing g 30) 30) A docu docume ment nt that that desc descri ribe bes s an an inp input ut,, act actio ion n or even eventt and and an an exp expec ecte ted d res respo pons nse e to to determine if a feature of an application is working correctly is called as ______________. a. Flowchart hart b. All of the listed listed option options s c. Te Tes st case d. Entra Entranc nce e crit criter eria ia 31) a. b. c. d.
ALE es estimation st stands fo for __ _____________. Annua Annuall Loss Loss estim estimat atio ion n Annual Ann ual loss loss expec expectat tation ion Actu Actual al loss loss expe expect ctat atio ion n Actual Actual Loss Loss esti estimat mation ion
a. b. c. d.
Whi Which techni hnique is used in test case designing ning? ? Bounda Boundary ry Value Value Analys Analysis is Cause Ca use Eff Effec ectt Diag Diagra ram m Equival Equivalenc ence e Class Class Partit Partition ioning ing All of the list listed ed opti options ons
a. b. c. d.
Testing de defect co corre rrection in include udes __ ____________. regre regress ssio ion n test testing ing All of the list listed ed opti options ons veri verifi fica cati tion on val valida idatio tion
32)
33)
34) 34) a.
b. c. d.
Whic Which h one one of the the fol follo lowi wing ng is the the mos mostt app appro ropr pria iate te defi defini niti tion on of Asse Assess ssme ment nt? ? Assessmentt is the thoughtful analysis of testing results, Assessmen results, and and then taking corrective action on the identified weaknesses Assessment Assessment is taking taking useful useful actions actions on the identified identified strengths strengths Assessment Assessment is the the process process of taking taking actions actions on the the identified identified weakness weaknesses es Assessment Assessment is the summarizati summarization on of testing results, results, and then taking taking preventive preventive action action on the identified weaknesses
35) a. b. c. d.
Compatibility testing for products involves all the following EXCEPT: Certified and Supported client environments High and low level sanity testing Functional and non-functional compatibility Client and Server side compatibility
a. b. c. d.
Performing risk analysis during test planning include all EXCEPT: Evaluate risks Form the risk analysis team Select testing priorities Identify risks
a. b. c. d.
Which among the following techniques is NOT used for negative testing? Error Guessing Equivalence Partitioning State Transition Boundary Value Analysis
a. b. c. d.
Which one of the following statement is incorrect? Policies defines the areas in which processes will be developed Policies are required in all the areas Policies set directions Policies are developed by senior managers
a. b. c. d.
Verification methods include EXCEPT: Test Execution Static analyzers Review Walkthroughs
a. b. c. d.
Risk analysis is a process which includes evaluating the following EXCEPT: Risk threat control Complexity
36)
37)
38)
39)
40)
41) Which of the following lead to inability to translate user needs into technical requirements? a. Miscommunication b. Limited testing c. Users inability to specify requirements in sufficient details d. Failure to scan output documents 42)
Which of the following statement about different risks type is correct? a. It is not difficult to create test scenarios for high-level risks. b. Tactical risks are subsets at a higher level of the strategic risks. c. Strategic risks are the high - level business risks faced by the software system.
43) a. b. c. d.
Bottom-up integration testing has as its major advantage(s) so that _______________. regression testing is not required no stubs need to be written no drivers need to be written major decision points are tested early
44) Which of the following Software Factors correctly reflects-? "Response time in an online system is within the time span tolerance. Application workload can be completed in accordance
with the application schedule. Changes to the system can be incorporated within the agreed upon schedule." a. Service Levels b. Authorization c. Continuity of Process d. Audit Trail e. File Integrity 45) a. b. c. d.
Regression test level best suited for which type of transaction? Multiple transaction multiple terminal Single transaction single terminal Single transaction multiple terminal Multiple transaction single terminal
a. b. c. d.
How do you track requirements in test case? Requirements Document None of the listed options Traceability Matrix Test Plan
a. b. c. d.
Which of the following is not a perspective of quality? Product - based Transcendent User - Based Translucent
a. b. c. d.
All are the risk associated with software development EXCEPT: Repetition of errors concentration of data Inability to control technology Skill of resources
46)
47)
48)
49) Test tool to conduct a recovery test to determine that it can be performed within required time frame is called _____________. a. Recovery testing b. Tracing c. Disaster test d. Confirmation or Examination 50) a. b. c. d.
Following lead to cascading of errors EXCEPT: Inadequate testing Change of scope Miscommunication Limited testing
a. b. c. d.
The primary goal of defect management is __________________. to prevent defects to minimize the impact of defects to find defect as quickly as possible All of the listed options
51)
52) Testing that attempts to find the level of processing at which, system can no longer function effectively is called _______________. a. Spike testing b. Performance testing c. Load testing d. Stress testing
53)
In designing a test strategy, _________ becomes the objective of testing. a. to present a test process that can reduce cost and time b. to reduce the risk in the system c. to identify the phase of System Development Life Cycle in which testing will occur
54) Priority of defects should be given to one that causes data corruption, system crash and security violations. State True or False. False 55) a. b. c. d.
To develop a software test matrix, follow these steps EXCEPT: Define tests as required Definite test plan Define verification tests Prepare the software test matrix
a. b. c. d.
Which among the following is NOT a characteristic of good test case? A good test case should be repeatable but not traceable to the requirements It should be repeatable It is not traceable to the requirements Clear to execute
a. b. c. d.
When should you stop testing? When you run out of time When all test cases are done When quality goals established in the beginning of the projects are met None of the listed options
56)
57)
58) Synchronization is not one of the considerations to incorporate into script execution. State True or False. 59) a. b. c. d.
Cost of conformance includes ______________. Studies Survey Training Survey etc, Studies and Survey Rework
60) ___________ in a test phase verifies the application being tested could correctly communicate with interrelated application system. a. Regression testing b. Unit testing c. Coupling d. Functional testing 61) Which among the following does NOT form the part of acquisition activities for informal procurement? a. Score candidates b. Acquisition plan c. RFP generation(only for formal procurement) applying selection criteria(informal) d. Select tool 62)
63)
Defect is anything that causes customer dissatisfaction and this view is called __________. a. usability b. fit for use c. ease of use Fixing defect involves _________________.
a. b. c. d.
removing defects from system correcting and verifying one or more deliverables All of the listed options reviewing test data, checklist
64) The largest cost of quality is from production failure. State True or False. True 65) Which of the following testing demonstrates key functional capabilities by testing a string of units that accomplish a specific function in the application? a. Thread testing b. Black box testing c. Unit testing d. Integration testing 66)
d.
Following are the key concepts of the process engineering program EXCEPT: Program is driven by management policies Process is driven by testing projects Management provides an organizational structure for the workers to develop their own standards and procedures Absolute compliance to standard and procedures is required
a. b. c. d.
CBOK is prepared and presented by ________________. ISO QAI IEEE ANSI
a. b. c.
67)
68) Following are the guidelines adhered to tool usage to be more effective and efficient EXCEPT: a. Testers should not be permitted to use tools for which they have not received formal training b. Tester should work together to build open source testing tools c. The use of test tools should be incorporated into test processes so that the use of tools is mandatory, not optional d. Testers should have access to an individual in their organization, or the organization that developed the tool 69) Without preparation of a test plan, at an earlier testing phase, tests may be _______________. a. economical b. effective c. None of the listed options d. uneconomical and ineffective 70) Developing scripts to test when there are two or more users accessing the same file at the same time is ___________________. a. Regression scripting b. Integration scripting c. Stress/performance scripting d. Pseudo concurrency scripting 71) a. b. c. d.
The magnitude of a risk can be determined by any of the following means EXCEPT: consensus hit and trial intuition risk formula
72) a. b. c. d.
73)
_____________________ is used to record data as it is gathered. Check sheet All of the listed options Certification Checkpoint
Steps involved in defect discovery are ________, _________ and __________. a. Acknowledge, Find, Report b. Find, Acknowledge, Report c. Find, Report, Acknowledge
74) These document test prerequisites. This may include skill level of test resources, budget, and state of the application, tools available and or entrance or exit criteria. Which one of the following is this document? a. Assumptions b. Test design c. Test data management d. Communication approach 75) a.
b.
c. d.
76) a. b. c. d. 77) a.
b. c. d.
78)
Which of the following is a correct definition of threat? Threat is something capable of exploiting vulnerability in the security of a computer system or application. Threat includes both hazards and events that can trigger flaws. Threat an analysis of an organization’s information resources, its existing controls, and its remaining organization and computer system vulnerabilities. It combines the loss potential for each resource or combination of resources with an estimated rate of occurrence to establish a potential level of damage in dollars or other assets. Threat is a design, implementation, or operations flaw that may be exploited by a threat; the flaw causes the computer system or application to operate in a fashion different from its published specifications and to result in destruction or misuse of equipment or data. Threat is the potential loss to an organization, as for example, the risk resulting from the misuse of its computer. This may involve unauthorized disclosure, unauthorized modification, and/or loss of information resources, as well as the authorized but incorrect use of a computer. Risk can be measured by performing risk analysis. To log ‘incidents’ which of the following is used? Test log User Report Defect tracking system Test script Which one of the following is the correct definition for Policy? Managerial desires and intents concerning either process (intended objectives) or products (desired attributes) The measure used to evaluate products and identify nonconformance. The basis upon which adherence to policies is measured The step-by-step method that ensures that standards are met Policies provide direction, standards are the rules or measures
Test efficiency is always directly proportional to ______________. a. Functional Coverage b. Product Delivery c. Product Cost
d. Product Reliability
79) a. b. c. d.
_________________ is a process that follows the flow of computer logic at execution time. Test scripts Test data None of the listed options (tracing) Test tools
80) A change has been done to the design of an application. Which of the following is required after this change is implemented? a. Subsystem retesting b. All of the listed options c. Design re-verification d. None of the listed options e. Unit retesting 81) “Post Mortems Review" is In Process Review, True or False 82) a. b. c. d.
83) a. b. c. d.
Complexity can be measured by the following EXCEPT: Business Complexity Documentation complexity Logic complexity Size of module / unit Which among the following is the best way to identify critical risks? Identify type of defects most likely to occur and to identify defects that have greatest impact on system Identify type of defects most likely to occur and identify flaws in process Identify defects that have greatest impact on system All of the listed options
84) During software acceptance, the testing technique that is relied upon for more accurate results (than any other testing techniques listed below) is ___________. a. Incremental b. Thread c. Black Box d. White Box 85) Which among the following does NOT form the part of acquisition activities for formal procurement? a. RFP Generations b. Solicitation of Proposals c. User review of candidates d. Source Selection
86) Which among process of analyzing and correcting syntactic, logic, and other errors identified during testing? a. Desk Checking b. Dynamic Analysis c. Error guessing d. Debugging 87)
Following are examples of satisfaction metrics EXCEPT: a. Ease of use
b. Customer subjective assessment c. Acceptance criteria met d. Customer satisfaction 88) The following tasks are provided to help understand what is necessary to develop a good test plan EXCEPT: a. Analyze the test plan b. Write the test plan c. Build the test plan d. Understand the characteristics of the software being developed 89) Joe is performing a test to see that it complies with the user requirement that a certain field be populated by using a dropdown box containing a list of values. From the above what kind of testing is Joe performing? a. White-box testing b. Black-box testing c. Alpha testing d. Regression testing 90) Due to a change in design, the requirements for an already coded critical software component got modified in its entirety. The developer had to modify the code based on the new requirements. Testing team is to choose the appropriate type of regression test to minimize the impact to the project schedule. Which type of regression test would you choose? a. System Testing b. Regional Regression Test c. Full Regression Test d. Unit Regression Test 91) a. b. c. d.
The Table of Contents of a test plan might contain the following EXCEPT: Test Matrix Assumptions Test Scope Test Objective
92) When evaluating the paybacks received from various test techniques, _____ testing produces a higher defect yield than other techniques when planned and executed correctly. a. Black Box b. Incremental c. Thread d. White Box 93) a. b. c. d.
Which of the following is not one of Deming's 14 points for management? Create constancy of purpose Eliminate slogans, exhortations, and targets for the work force Mobility of management Adopt a new philosophy
94) Given the following costs: User documentation - $ 1000 Rework - $ 1500 Design - $ 400 Review of User Documents - $ 800, Code review - $ 1200, The cost of Quality is ______________. a. $2,400 b. $5,000 c. $3,500 d. $4,000 95)
Which among the following are the techniques to prevent defects?
a. Quality Assurance, Quality Control, defensive design and code and finally Methodology and Standards b. Quality Assurance, Training and Education, Quality Control and Methodology & Standards c. Quality Assurance, Training and Education, defensive design and code and finally Methodology and Standards d. Training and Education and Methodology and Standards 96) a. b. c. d.
Risk involves everything EXCEPT: test planning unauthorized disclosure incorrect use of computer loss of information
a. b. c. d.
Regression analysis is used for the following EXCEPT: Projecting performance based on multiple variables Cause and effect relationship of two variables Probing to determine the cause of some unfavorable event Find the regression candidates
97)
98)
Which among the following is a suggested prioritization method to follow? a. Major, Minor, High b. Critical, Major, Minor c. Critical, Major, Minor, High d. Critical, Major, Low 99) The functional testing that verifies the procedures to balance file function properly is called ______________. a. Compatibility testing b. Compliance testing c. File Integrity d. Integration testing 100) Which among the following are major concerns testers have on entering the test execution? a. All of the listed options b. Software not in a testable mode c. Significant problems will not be uncovered during testing d. Inadequate time or resources 101) a. b. c.
d.
102) a. b. c. d.
Which of the following is a correct definition of risk? None of the listed options Risk is something capable of exploiting vulnerability in the security of a computer system or application. Risks include both hazards and events that can trigger flaws. Risk is an analysis of an organization’s information resources, its existing controls, and its remaining organization and computer system vulnerabilities. It combines the loss potential for each resource or combination of resources with an estimated rate of occurrence to establish a potential level of damage in dollars or other assets. Risk is the potential loss to an organization, as for example, the risk resulting from the misuse of its computer. This may involve unauthorized disclosure, unauthorized modification, and/or loss of information resources, as well as the authorized but incorrect use of a computer. Risk can be measured by performing risk analysis. Following are important to perform the analysis of the test process EXCEPT: Effectiveness and efficiency of the test process Test program meets the test objective Maturity of the test processes test methodology is used correctly
103) Decision rules used to determine whether a software item or feature passes or fails a test is Pass/Fail criteria. State True or False. True 104) Which among the following is a parse program looking for violations of company standards? a. compliance checkers b. Affinity diagram c. Checkpoint review d. Benchmarking 105) Which among the following is a way to leverage a dynamic analyzer during system testing? a. Determine testing levels b. All of the listed options c. Spend time to do a complete test plan d. Generate test cases based on black box test techniques 106) __________ testing involves continuous testing of the solution even after software plans are complete and the tested system is implemented. a. b. c. d.
Life Cycle Testing System Testing Maintenance Testing End-to-End Testing
107) Which of the following testing techniques are used in the Acceptance Testing stage? a. Thread Testing b. Black Box Testing c. Both White box and Black box testing d. Incremental Testing e. White Box Testing
108) ………………………………. is an independent appraisal activity within an organization for the review of operations, and is a service to management. a. Regression Testing b. Quality Assurance c. All of the listed options d. Internal Auditing e. Adhoc Testing 109) The process of generating test sets for structural testing based on use of complexity or coverage metrics is called _________________. a. Metric based test data generation b. Quality function deployment c. Cyclomatic complexity d. Regression testing 110) Testers insert additional code into a program to collect information about program behavior during program execution. This is called as ____________. a. Instrumentation b. Integration Testing c. Dynamic assertion d. Inspection 111) Activities associated with risk management are ___________. a. Risk Mitigation
b. c. d. e.
Risk Reduction Methods Risk Analysis Risk elimination Contingency planning
112) Defects generally occur due to following EXCEPT: a. Unspecified requirement b. Immature process c. Incorrectly implemented specification d. Specified requirement not built e. None of the listed options 113) Attitude that has shaped a negative view of testing and testers is that ______________. a. letting testers find the problems is not the only way to debug b. testers should not be blamed for the defects found in production c. giving testers less time to test will reduce the chance that they will find defects d. testers need training 1. Testers hold up implementation. 2. Giving testers less time to test will reduce the chance that they will find defects. 3. Letting the testers find problems is an appropriate way to debug. 4. Defects found in production are the fault of the testers. 5. Testers do not need training; only programmers need training. 114) _________________ permits the testing of programs without data. a. Flow chart b. Training c. Symbolic Execution d. Checklist 115) Which of the following strategic issues needs to be addressed in successful software testing process? a. Specify requirements in a quantifiable manner b. Consider using independent test terms c. All of the listed options d. Conduct formal technical review prior to testing 116) Amount of resources allocated to each test condition is determined by ______________. a. Ranking b. Global data coverage c. Both global data coverage and ranking d. Battlemap 117) Testers get involved with the project only when testing steps are about to begin. State True or False. 118) Techniques for Reporting a defect may include _______________. a. All of the listed options b. Computer forums, Electronic mails, help desk c. Static d. Operational 119) Which among the following are the key elements in the defect management process? a. Management Reporting b. Defect Prevention c. Deliverable base lining
d. All of the listed options e. Process Improvement
120) Which among the following is the quantitative measure of the current level of performance? a. Benchmarking b. Pareto analysis c. Affinity diagram d. Baseline 121) The test technique to enter erroneous data to determine it cannot affect the integrity of the files is called _____________. a. Error handling b. File integrity c. Functional d. Security 122) Risk analysis is a process which includes evaluating the following EXCEPT: a. Complexity b. control c. threat d. Risk 123) Regression testing mainly helps in ___________. a. checking for side-effects of fixes b. ensuring high level sanity c. retesting fixed defects d. checking the core gaps 124) Process Engineering Manager includes the following EXCEPT: a. Ensure involved parties are adequately trained b. Promote the concept of Process engineering c. Be the driving force behind the process d. Be highly certified and qualified in process areas 125) To define test objectives testers need not to do following EXCEPT: a. Validation process for incoming external data b. Data bridges and filters c. Define each objective so that you can reference it by a number. d. Development of a model showing the internal and external dependency links among core business areas, processes, and information systems 126) Review falls under which category of Cost of Quality? a. Preventive Costs b. Failure Costs c. None of the listed options d. Appraisal Costs 127) Purpose of software reviews is to uncover errors and defects in work products so they can be removed before moving on to the next phase. State True or False. True 128) Testing that simulates problem in original environment so that an alternative processing environment can be tested is _____________. a. Recovery testing b. Disaster testing c. Performance testing d. Compliance testing
129) Objective of integration testing is to _________________. a. validate the application design and phase and prove application components can be successfully integrated b. integrate all components c. application integrated correctly into its environment d. All of the listed options 130) A defect can be defined in ____________. a. Producer’s viewpoint and tester’s viewpoint b. All of the listed options c. Producer’s viewpoint and customer’s viewpoint d. Customer’s viewpoint 131) ___________ is identifying defects in the stage in which they were created, rather than in later testing stages. a. Defect Validation b. Down stream c. Stage Containment d. Risk Strategy 132) QAI has identified the following six tests that each measure and metric should be subjected to, EXCEPT: a. Consistency b. Validity c. Reliability d. Calibration e. Ease of Use and Simplicity f. Timeliness 133) Following are the main advantages of using work processes EXCEPT: a. Improves communication b. Enable knowledge transfer c. Improves interpersonal skills d. Improves Productivity 134) When conducting risk analysis, the following major components are taken into consideration EXCEPT: a. The probability of losing a customer. b. The probability that the negative event will occur. c. The potential loss or impact associated with the event. 135) Testing on, above and below the edges of classes is called _____________. a. Boundary Value Analysis b. Equivalence Class Partitioning c. Test Combinations d. Cause Effect Diagram 136) The development of an effective test plan involves the following tasks EXCEPT: a. Develop the test matrix b. Define test administration c. Collect test metrics d. Set test objectives 137) The risk team can use which one of the following methods of risk identification? a. Risk Template b. Risk Control chart c. Risk analysis plan
d. Risk analysis scenario and risk checklist
138) At a minimum, the developer should always execute Unit Regression testing when a change is made. True 139) Unit testing is conducted in the development environment. True 140) Following are examples of Intentional act EXCEPT: a. Communication protocol may fail to positively identify the transmitter or receiver of a message. b. Messages may be recorded and replayed into the system. c. If encryption (i.e., use of codes) is used, keys may be stolen. d. False messages may be inserted into the system. 141) One of the most effective methods for estimating expected impact of risk is _____________. a. Annual loss Expectation formula b. None of the listed options c. Pareto Analysis d. Risk analysis 142) Defect Density is calculated by ______________. a. Total no. of Defects/ Effort b. Valid Defects/ Total no. of Defect c. Invalid Defects/ Valid Defects d. Valid Defects/ Effort 143) Following are the valid Defect Severity EXCEPT: a. Major b. Showstopper c. Minor d. Critical 144) The best reason for using Independent software testing teams is that ___________________. a. testers do not get involved with the project until testing begins b. strangers will test the software mercilessly c. quality of software is given as much consideration as the project budget and timeline d. software developers do not need to do any testing 145) Which one of the following statements is correct? a. Policies are set by Test managers b. Policies are guidelines c. Policies help in defining products d. Policies are set by senior management 146) Which one of the following is NOT the part of the test process improvement model? a. Analyze assessment output b. Conduct Assessment c. Derive new processes d. Initiate process improvement 147) Test steps are grouped into manageable and schedulable units called ________________. a. Structural Testing b. Test Scenario c. Test design specification d. Test procedure specification: (specifying a sequence of actions for the execution of a test)
148) The purpose of software testing is to ___________. a. validate the logical design b. demonstrate that the application works properly c. All of the listed options d. detect the existence of defects 149) Test planning should begin ____p251___________. a. after Design b. before Requirement collection c. at the time of Requirement definition d. after Requirement collection 150) Infeasible path is a sequence of program statements that can be executed. False 151) The objective of _________________ is to assure that the requirements are covered for application in test design document. a. Operation and maintenance b. Test Coverage c. Management Directive d. None of the listed options 152) ________________ is a record of relevant details about execution of tests. a. None of the listed options b. Test log c. Defect tracking sheet (incidence) d. Test data 153) _________________ is responsible for conducting Test Readiness Review prior to start of testing. a. Developer b. Test Manager c. None of the listed options d. Development Manager 154) Requirement Checklist is an example for which of the following testing technique? a. White Box testing b. Black Box Testing c. Requirement Study d. Static Analysis 155) Integration testing should begin once unit testing for the components to be integrated is complete. State True 156) Minimizing expected impact of defect involves _______________. a. reducing probability of risk becoming a problem b. All of the listed options c. eliminating the risk d. reduce impact if there is a problem 157) The inability of a system or component to perform its required functions within specified requirements is called _______________. a. error b. Failure c. defect d. bug 158) A catchall term for all software defects or errors __________________. a. Bug
b. Fault c. Error 159) The types of conditions that cause erroneous or falsified input data include _____________. a. Records in one format may be interpreted according to a different format b. The evidence from intermediate processing is not retained c. Early use of new software technology d. Detailed analysis of the technology 160) Following are important factors in selecting the members of Process engineering committee EXCEPT: a. Make long term assignment to Process engineering committee b. Ensure that appropriate areas of interest are involved c. Select the highest level manager who accepts the position d. Select a tester who lot of experience in audits 161) _____________ testing verifies all the performance criteria have been achieved when the system is placed into production. a. Security testing b. Compliance testing c. System testing d. User acceptance testing 162) One of the most commonly identified weaknesses in software testing is ________________. a. lack of metrics b. lack of skilled resources c. lack of defects count d. lack of time 163) Regression testing is _________________. a. verify authorization rules have been properly implemented b. ensuring functions are performed correctly c. verification of changes to make sure older programs still works with new changes 164) The tool used to verify the operational system results are in compliance with organizations policies and procedure is called _________________. a. Tracing b. Confirmation or Examination c. Fact finding d. Checklists and inspections 165) Run chart doesn’t help to ___________. a. monitor a process b. Track changes or trends c. tracking observations in sequence or time order d. find the problem areas 166) A set of Boolean conditions such that complete test sets for the conditions uncover the same errors is ___________. a. Consistency b. Consistent condition set c. Complete test set: A test set containing data that causes each element of pre-specified set of Boolean conditions to be true. In addition, each element of the test set causes at least one condition to be true. d. Correctness
167) Deliverable base lining involves _____________. a. risks and identify key deliverables b. identify key deliverables and define standards for each deliverable c. All of the listed options d. risks and define standards for each deliverable 168) Performing risk analysis during test planning includes all EXCEPT: a. Select testing priorities b. Evaluate risks c. Form the risk analysis team d. Identify risks 169) Effectiveness is doing things right and efficiency is doing the right things. False 170) Defects are measured in relation to ___________. a. lines of code b. total number of defects c. development team size d. project efforts 171) A white box testing technique that measures the number of or percentage of decision outcomes covered by the test cases designed is called ______________. a. Decision Coverage b. Basis path coverage c. Modified decision coverage d. condition coverage 172) The objective in Test design is to _____________. a. minimize test maintenance costs b. detect as many defects as possible c. All of the listed options d. minimize test execution cost 173) Testing for the existence or effectiveness of programmed controls requires using ___________. a. Complex data b. Valid data c. Redundant data d. Invalid data 174) Work Processes constitute the following EXCEPT: a. Standard b. Process c. Procedure d. Policy 175) Guidelines to Writing the Test Plans are EXCEPT: a. Finish early b. Calculate the planning effort c. Start Early 176) Which of the following statement is NOT correct? a. 90 percent of all defects are caused by process problems b. Reviews are generally greater than 65 percent efficient in finding defects c. 60 percent of software defects originate in the requirements phase of the project d. Over 50 percent of life cycle of software system is spent on requirements
e. Over 50% of the life cycle costs of a software system are spent on maintenance 177) Which among the following is an important attribute for test case? a. Test Description & Expected Result b. Test Description & Actual Result c. Test Case ID & Expected Result d. Expected Result and Actual Result 178) ______________ is the method of testing the maintainability of the application system. a. Inspections b. Code Walkthroughs c. Reviews d. Functional testing Compliance testing 179) Which among the following is a technique designed to ensure the process employed are adequate to produce the desired result and process is being followed? a. Quality Control b. Testing Methodology c. Quality Assurance d. Testing Strategy 180) The effective Control environment strives for everything EXCEPT: a. Attitude of integrity b. Control consciousness and positive “tone at the top” c. Competent people d. Defect free product 181) Following are the guidelines to establish an organizational structure EXCEPT: a. Establish a Process engineering committee b. Let the standard Ad Hoc committees develop the technical standard c. Process engineering committee d. Process reengineering committee 1. Establish a Process Engineering Committee compromised of the most senior IT managers possible. 2. Represent all IT organizational areas on the Process Engineering Committee. 3. Appoint an individual as the Process Engineering Manager. (Note that this can be a part-time assignment.) 4. Appoint Ad Hoc Committees (i.e., special task forces) to develop individual standards and procedures. 5. Let the Standards Ad Hoc Committees develop the technical standard. 182) Which of the following Software quality Factors correctly reflects - "Employee gross pay can be substantiated by supporting documentation. Sales tax paid to a specific state can be substantiated by the supporting invoices. Payments made to vendors can be substantiated should the vendor disavow receiving the payment." a. File Integrity b. Audit Trail c. Authorization d. Continuity of Process e. Service Levels 183) Removing or reducing which of the following can help in diminishing the undesirable behavior? a. Promotion & Training b. Incentive & Temptations
c. Training & Promotion d. Incentive & Promotion 184) Which of the following is a correct definition of risk analysis? a. Risk analysis is something capable of exploiting vulnerability in the security of a computer system or application. Risk analysis includes both hazards and events that can trigger flaws. b. Risk analysis is an analysis of an organization’s information resources, its existing controls, and its remaining organization and computer system vulnerabilities. It combines the loss potential for each resource or combination of resources with an estimated rate of occurrence to establish a potential level of damage in dollars or other assets. c. Risk analysis is the potential loss to an organization, as for example, the risk resulting from the misuse of its computer. This may involve unauthorized disclosure, unauthorized modification, and/or loss of information resources, as well as the authorized but incorrect use of a computer. Risk can be measured by performing risk analysis. d. None of the listed options 185) Some organizations divide people into four categories when attempting to identify issues EXCEPT: a. People who will help the software system happen b. People who will attempt to make the software system not happen c. People who will hope the software system happens d. People who will make the software system happen e. People who will let the software system happen. 186) Check for defects in process for the primary aim of correcting or establishing new process. This is a. Quality Control b. Quality Assurance c. Both Quality Control and Quality Assurance d. None of the listed options 187) The following should be used to estimate ALE EXCEPT: a. Calculate an ALE using the loss and frequency tables b. Understanding of information services concepts and systems design c. Make a preliminary assessment of the loss d. Document the decision reached 188) Decision to stop test execution should be based upon ____________________. a. successful use of specific test case design methodologies b. All of the listed options c. a percentage of coverage for each coverage category d. rate of error detection falls below a specified threshold 189) Following lead to improper use of technology EXCEPT: a. Early use of new hardware technology b. Detailed analysis of the technology c. Early use of new software technology d. Improper skill 1. ƒ Systems analysts and systems programmers improperly skilled in the use of technology 2. ƒ Early user of new hardware technology 3. ƒ Early user of new software technology 4. ƒ Minimal planning for the installation of new hardware and software technology
190) Which of the following factor assures that data is processed in accordance with the intents of management for processing of transactions? a. b. c. d.
Authorization Maintainability Access Control Service Levels
191) When a defect is fixed in production rather than in requirement, how many times can this be expensive? a. 1000 times b. 10 times c. 1 times d. 100 times 192) Which among the following is the correct order in which Defect Resolution process should follow? a. Schedule fix, Prioritize fix, fix defect, Report resolution b. Prioritize fix, fix defect, Report Resolution, Schedule fix c. Prioritize fix, Schedule fix, fix defect, Report resolution 193) Entering alphabetic characters when numeric characters are expected is not an example of test using valid data. False 194) What is incremental testing? a. Testing a string of units that accomplish a specific function in the application b. Testing the interfaces between the unit - tested programs as well as between components c. All of the listed options d. Testing transaction flow, input validation and functional completeness in incremental order 195) Most common cause of defect is ________________. a. failure to estimate b. failure to assess risks c. ambiguous or incomplete requirements d. weak communication 196) Following are the most effective way of communicating moral guidance EXCEPT: a. Verbal communication b. Lead by examples c. Written code of conduct d. CMM and ISO standards 197) Inability to Substantiate Processing includes the following EXCEPT: a. The cost of substantiating processing exceeds the benefits derived from the process b. The evidence from intermediate processing is not retained c. Users inability to specify requirements in sufficient details d. Evidence is not retained long enough 198) Test team should investigate the following characteristics in order to evaluate the potential magnitude of the risk EXCEPT: a. Assess the severity of potential failures b. Identify the components for the system c. Evaluate contingency plans for this system and activities d. Build the test plan
199) A _______________ is a software item that is an object of testing. a. Both proof of correctness and test item b. Proof of correctness c. Test item 200) Which among the following is an example of functional testing? a. Condition coverage b. Branch Coverage c. Decision coverage d. Cause-Effect Graphing (orange) 201) Difficulties surrounding the introduction of tools can arise in the following areas EXCEPT: a. Testers skills b. Obstacles in the computer environment c. Organizational obstacles d. Problems arising from the tools 202) Which among the following are common items to focus on during Integration testing? a. All of the listed options b. Performance and load lists on individual application components c. Output interface file accuracy d. Validation of links between the client and server 203) The reason for decomposing the strategic risks into tactical risks is to create test scenarios. True 204) Which of the following is not a category under tactical risks? a. Size Risks b. Resource Risks c. Structural Risks d. Technical Risks 205) A deliverable is subject to _________________ once it is base lined. a. All of the listed options b. Risk management c. Defect Management d. Configuration Management e. Process Management 206) Most common reason for existence of large number of bugs in a software product is ___________. a. error in code b. incomplete testing c. wrong use of tools and techniques d. inadequate requirement analysis 207) Following are valid defect types EXCEPT: a. Wrong b. Extra c. Change Request d. Missing 208) System test should begin as soon as a minimal set of components has been integrated. (and successfully completed integration testing . add this sentence then it’s right )State True or False
209) Which one of the following is not a valid step to collect Benchmark data? a. Analysis Phase b. Integration Phase c. Planning Phase d. Construction Phase Action phase 210) Software testing activities should start _____________. a. during the design stage b. when the requirements have been formally documented c. as soon as possible in development life cycle d. as soon as the code is written 211) Which of the following statement is true about Functional Testing? a. Testing where one wouldn’t think of b. Testing of software’s structure logic c. Possibility of redundant testing d. Does not mimic real world situations 1. Potential of missing logical errors in software. 2. Possibility of redundant testing. 212) Severity is one which determines the order in which defects should be fixed. False 213) A testing method in which the test data are derived solely from the program structure is ______________. a. white box testing b. All of the listed options c. Structural testing d. Glass box testing 214) Examples of assumptions include EXCEPT: a. Tools available. b. Availability of test equipment. c. Implementation of new test automation tools. d. Skill level of test resources. 1. Skill level of test resources. 2. Test budget 3. State of the application at the start of testing. 4. Tools available. 5. Availability of test equipment. 215) These document test prerequisites. This may include skill level of test resources, budget, and state of the application, tools available and or entrance or exit criteria. Which one of the following is this document? a. Communication approach b. Assumptions c. Test data management d. Test design 216) Which among the following options specifies the details of the test approach and identifies the associated tests? a. Test data b. Test Design specification c. Test procedure specification 217) Which among the following are the key elements in the defect management process?
a. b. c. d. e.
Deliverable base lining Defect Prevention Process Improvement Management Reporting All of the listed options
218) An operator verifies that all production jobs are run. This is a. Production Planning b. Disaster recovery c. Quality Assurance d. Quality Control 219) Which among the following techniques are used to find defects? a. All of the listed options b. Dynamic techniques, operational techniques and functional techniques c. Static techniques and dynamic techniques d. Static techniques, dynamic techniques and operational techniques e. Static techniques, operational techniques and functional techniques 220) Which of the following is NOT a test factor? a. Portability b. None of the listed options c. Continuity of Processing d. Compliance e. Functionality 1. correctness, 2. Authorization 3. File integrity 4. Audit trail 5. Continuity of processing 6. service levels 7. access control 8. compliance 9. reliability 10.ease of use 11.maintainable 12.Portable 13.coupling 14.performance 15.ease of operations 221)
Synchronization is not one of the considerations to incorporate into script execution. False
222) Test Plan is not a living document. False 223) Some of the primary testing risks include EXCEPT: a. Lack of management support b. Lack of Test Tools c. Lack of Customer and User Involvement d. Not Enough Training/Lack of Test Competency e. None Not Enough Training/Lack of Test Competency Us versus Them Mentality Lack of Test Tools Lack of Management Understanding and Support of Testing Lack of Customer and User Involvement
Not Enough Schedule or Budget for Testing Over Reliance on Independent Testers Rapid Change Testers are in A Lose-Lose Situation and Having to Say “No” Test Environment New technology and new developmental processes 224) In general the earlier a software defect is discovered and corrected the less costly to the overall project budget. True 225) Testers get involved with the project only when testing steps are about to begin. State True or False. False 226) Which of the following does not represent the general of defect management philosophy? a. Capture and Analysis of defect information should be automated b. Defect management process should be risk driven c. none of the listed options d. Primary goal is to prevent defects 227) Which among the following is NOT a way to define and measure test coverage? a. Modified Decision coverage b. Global data coverage c. User specified data coverage d. Stable/control coverage 228) Which one of the following is the correct definition for Standards? a. The measure used to evaluate products and identify nonconformance The basis upon which adherence to policies is measured b. Policies provide direction, standards are the rules or measures c. Managerial desires and intents concerning either process (intended objectives) or products (desired attributes) d. The step-by-step method that ensures that standards are met 229) _________________ provide direction, _______________ are the rules or measures by which the implemented policies are measured, and the _________________ are the means used to meet or comply with the standards. a. Standards, Policies, Procedures b. Policies, Procedures, Standards c. Policies, standards, procedures 230) Temptations cause employees to engage in the following improper acts EXCEPT: a. Weak Internal Audit function b. High Decentralization c. Nonexistent or ineffective control d. High Centralization 231)
Which of the following is a correct definition of risk analysis? a. None of the listed options b. Risk analysis is something capable of exploiting vulnerability in the security of a computer system or application. Risk analysis includes both hazards and events that can trigger flaws. c. Risk analysis is the potential loss to an organization, as for example, the risk resulting from the misuse of its computer. This may involve unauthorized disclosure, unauthorized modification, and/or loss of information resources, as well as the authorized but incorrect use of a computer. Risk can be measured by performing risk analysis. d. Risk analysis is an analysis of an organization’s information resources, its existing controls, and its remaining organization and computer system vulnerabilities. It combines
the loss potential for each resource or combination of resources with an estimated rate of occurrence to establish a potential level of damage in dollars or other assets. 232) Risk involves everything EXCEPT: a. test planning b. loss of information c. unauthorized disclosure d. incorrect use of computer 233) Test tool used to verify the application limits have been tested is called _______________. a. Load testing b. Volume testing c. Spike testing d. Disaster testing 234) Which of the following statement is correct about monitoring performance? a. All of the listed options b. Management should review the process improvement program regularly c. Careful analysis of results of testing should be performed d. The risks to the organization and its products from using the process should be monitored 235) Test in Test plan should be following EXCEPT: a. b. c. d.
Reusable Controllable Coverage Repeatable
236) Which among the following is the best strategy to reduce impact if there is a problem? a. Contingency plans b. Disaster recovery plans, contingency plans and c. Disaster recovery plans and contingency plans d. All of the listed options e. Reduce Scope of the system and also do not use latest unproven technology
237)
_________ are important element of test objectives. a. Feasible and simple b. Reasonable and understandable c. Affordable and Flexible d. Reasonable and Adequate (feasible, reasonable, affordable and adequate)
238) ________________ is a record of relevant details about execution of tests. a. Test data b. None of the listed options c. Test log d. Defect tracking sheet 239) Distribution of responsibilities reduces the chances of selecting a tool that __________________. a. can be available with all the plug-ins b. can be used to automate all the applications c. lacks training d. does not meet the recognized needs of the organization 240)
A branch is
a. An unconditional transfer of control from any statement to any other statement in the component except the next statement b. A conditional transfer of control from any statement to any other statement in a component c. When a component has more than one entry point, a transfer of control to any entry point of the component d. All of the above 241)
A metric is: a. A mathematical number that shows a relationship between two variables. b. Metrics is quantitative measure of the degree to which a system /component or process possesses a given attribute. c. Both (a) and (b) d. None of the above.
242)
Data collected during testing should include: a. Test Factors. b. Functions/subroutines c. Platforms d. All of the above
243)
Which of the following does not represents ways to define and measure test coverage? a. Statement coverage b. Point to point coverage c. Branch coverage. d. Basic path coverage.
244)
For building a test plan following tasks are required. Choose the correct sequence. a. Understand Project Risks, Form Test Team, Build Test Plan b. Build Test Plan, Form Test Team, Understand Project Risks. c. Form Test Team, Understand Project Risks, Build Test Plan d. None of the above represents the tasks involved in building test plan
245)
Choose the correct from those given below. a. Compliance Testing – Business rules. b. Black Box Testing – Path Coverage. c. Regression Testing – End users. d. File Integrity – Control Totals e. None of the above.
246) To know with adequate confidence, “when is testing over”, which of the following is the best approach? a. Declare that it is over when Time is out. b. Use test appropriate Metrics c. Declare that it is over when budget is consumed d. Let the management decide that 247)
Which of the following is not a component of “software fit” for acceptance? a. Data b. Structure and People c. Rules d. Models
248)
Which of the following statements are not correct? a. Structural testing evaluates all aspects of the structure to verify that the structures is sound b. Functional testing technique help ensure that the requirement/specifications are properly satisfied by the software system c. Functional testing not concerned with how processing occurs, but with the results of process. d. Functional testing techniques help to establish the roles and responsibilities of users during acceptance testing.
249)
Which of the following is not one of the techniques to find defects? a. Operational Techniques b. Dynamics Techniques
c. Functional Techniques d. Static Techniques
250)
Quality Assurance methods are usually considered a. Preventive b. Corrective c. Protective
251)
Who has the primary responsibility of setting the quality culture in the organization a. The Training Dept. b. The Quality Dept. c. Senior Management d. None
252)
In statistics, the mean and median are called a. Variance b. Standard deviation c. Control Chart Values. d. Measure of Central tendency
253)
Quality principle dictate that the strategic quality plan should a. Be incorporated by the quality assurance function b. Be written for quality assurance function c. Identify individual quality programs d. Define the size of the quality assurance department.
254)
Pareto analysis will tell us a. Which problems occur most often b. Why problem occur c. Relative value of walkthrough and inspections d. All of the above
255) Total quality management is a common term applied to a quality management system. Total quality management is a. A process to produce zero defects b. Another way of expressing statistical process control c. A strategy built around control charts d. A management philosophy 256)
Quality Function Deployment a. helps an organization to decide how the Quality function is deployed b. is testing of previously verified program of application c. is another approach to implementing balance score card method d. is a systematic method to translate customer wants or needs into product or service
257) Which of the following are categories of acceptance requirement from user’s point of view a. Overall software quality requirements b. Functionality requirements c. Performance requirements d. Interface quality requirements e. All the above 258)
Risk is defined as a. Frequency * Occurrence b. Occurrence * Risk Factor c. Risk Factor * Risk Response Number d. Probability * Influence
259)
Key elements of a defect management process are: a. Defect Prevention b. Defect discovery/defect naming
c. Defect resolution d. All of the above 260)
which of the following does not represent the general of defect management philosophy a. All of the below are the general principles b. The primary goal is to prevent defects c. Defect management process should be risk driven d. Capture and analysis of the defect information should be automated e. Defect information should be used towards process improvement.
261)‘Requirement’ is a formal statement of a. An attribute to be possessed by the product/function to be performed by the product b. The performance standard for the attribute or a function c. The measuring process to be used in verifying that the standard has been met
d. All the above 262)
Dynamic assertion is a. All the below b. a way of empowering people in the organization c. the analysis performed by executing the program code d. a powerful way of expressing yourself to make your presence felt
263)
Condition coverage is a. A black box testing technique b. The property of logical coherence among constituent modules of a system c. The number of decision statements covered in cyclomatic complexity analysis d. None of the above
264)
A Test Log a. is a worksheet/spreadsheet to record test activities b. helps to record incidents into the defect tracking system
c. is responsible for conducting the test readiness review d. should contain the procedure environment and tools for test execution e. only(a) and (b) above 265)
Which of the following is the correct sequence to test execution? a. Set up Test environment, Identify test cases and test cycles, Review test results, Assign test scripts b. Identify test cases and test cycles, Assign test scripts, Set up Test environment, Review test results c. Set up Test environment, Identify test cases and test cycles, Assign test scripts, Review test results d. Any of the above is a right sequence
266) Which of the following does not represent major concerns in the mind of testers during test execution step? a. Software not in a testable mode b. Inadequate time/resources c. Significant problem will not be uncovered during testing d. Developer will not appreciate testing e. None of the above 267) Which of the following is/are factors used by Test Manager to determine whether the application is ready for production a. MTBF Mean time between failures (MTBF) is the predicted elapsed time between inherent failures of a system during operation. b. Failure or % coverage achieve by the executed test c. Severity level-wise number of open defects d. Risk associated with moving the application into production e. All of the above 268) During the recording of test results, deviations must be documented. Which of the following attributes should be documented? a. All of the following b. Activities involved
c. Users/Customer served d. Deficiencies noted e. Procedure used to perform work 269) The ‘cause’ is the underlying reason for the ‘condition’. The determination of the cause requires a scientific approach. Which of the following represents the correct sequences? a. Define the problem b. Identify workflow c. Identify procedures d. Identify people involved e. Recreate the circumstances i. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
270)
ii.
5, 1, 3, 2, 4
iii.
1, 5, 4, 3, 2
iv.
3, 5, 2, 4 ,1
What technique is most effective in encouraging participation of attendees at meetings? a. Having the moderator play the devil’s advocate b. Tell people that participation will be one of the appraisal factors c. Role playing and requesting suggestions d. Requiring participation
271)
Risk management involves identifying risk and ___________ a. Eliminating risks b. Avoiding risks c. Risk analysis d. Developing strategies to address risk
272)
How could root cause analysis be applied to software? a. It can help identify error-prone parts of the process b. It cannot be applied; there is no normal variation in software c. It cannot be used to identify similar types of failures
d. It cannot be applied; software failure expose the root cause directly 273)
One of the primary objective of process control is to: a. Increase competition b. Improve metrics c. Find root causes d. Reduce Variability
274)
Quality has been defined as: a. Meeting requirements b. Customer satisfaction c. Zero defects d.
275)
(a) and (b) Three part of the PDCA cycles are act, plan and do. The fourth part of the PDCA cycle is:
a. Calibrate b. Control c. Coordinate d. Create e. Check
276)
The primary purpose of quality control is to: a. Prevent defect from occurring b. Assign quality responsibilities c. Conducting testing d. Find and correct defects e. Writing work processes
277)
The overall goal of software testing is to: a. Identify error not removed previously b. Find who cause the error c. Keep re-work costs as low as possible
d. None of the above 278)
With the acquisition of a testing tool, the test engineer’s first priority is to: a. Decide how much to pay b. Check with end-user first c. Identify the goal for the tool usage d. Make sure your management agrees to use the tool
279) The objectives of _________Control are to prevent, detect or correct or incorrect processing. a. Transaction processing system b. External c. Internal d. Environmental 280) Testing to determine that current changes have NOT adversely affected previous functionality is called: a. Regression Testing b. System Testing c. Unit Testing d. Acceptance Testing 281)
White box testing is primarily: a. Data driven b. Logic driven c. Bottom up driven d. Top down driven
282) The most effective test approach is to begin testing when: a. After requirements b. After external design c. After coding d. A new project begins
283)
Verification is an approach to testing that can occur during: a. Requirements b. External design c. Internal design d. Coding e. All of the above
284)
Quality is often referred to as being free. This is because: a. The payback is greater than its cost over time b. It’s difficult to quantify consumer satisfaction c. There is a never ending goal to be achieved d. Of continuous improvement
285)
The characteristic of an effective meeting for testing related issues include: a. Develop an agenda b. Define the role of the people attending the meeting c. Encourages attendees to contribute fully d. Clearly define the test objective e. All the above
286)Which of the following is NOT part of a process workbench? a. Input b. Do Procedure c. Check Procedure d. Defect Management e. Output 287)
Quality function deployment is most associated with: a. Total Quality Management b. Problem Analysis c. Regression Testing
d. Tracing requirements e. Continuous Process Improvement 288) Which among the following is not a defect? a. An extra function provided in the system b. None of the listed options c. A requirement implemented incorrectly d. A requirement not implemented in the system 289) ----------- is a statement of what the tester is expected to accomplish or validate during a testing activity. a. Test objective b. Test design c. None of the listed options d. Risk analysis 290) Which is the test method satisfying the coverage criteria that each logical path through the program be tested? a. Integration testing b. Performance testing c. Interface testing d. Usability testing e. Path testing 291) ----------- is a statement of the overall approach to testing, identifying what levels of testing are to be applied and the method, techniques and tool to be used. a. Risk analysis b. Defect Report c. Requirement review d. Test Strategy
292)
---------------------is a test technique that changes a data element in a single file, which is
redundant in several files. This technique also verifies that other files will be changed accordingly. a. Requirements b. Control c. Security d. File integrity
293)
Which among the following are techniques that facilitate the recording of the defect at each
stage or test process? a. All of the listed options b. Acknowledge defect c. Report Defect d. Defect naming 294)
Which among the following is a set of predefined action items used by tester for a process
to be complete and acceptable? a. Exit Criteria b. Error guessing c. Force field analysis d. Formal analysis 295) Testing cost that exceeds the cost of defect uncovered isn’t a indicator of ‘over-testing” state true or false 296) Cost of non-conformance includes -------------------------------a. survey b. training survey, etc c. training survey etc, studies and survey d. studies e. rework 297) Top-down integration testing has as its major advantage(S) so that low level modules never need testing. State true or false 298)
Creating representative processing conditions using test transactions is the concept of
--------------------a. all of the listed options b. requirement trace ability matrix c. test data preparation d. test plan preparation 299)
Most of the problems associated with the testing process occur from one of the following
causes EXCEPT: a. failure to define testing objectives b. testing at the wrong phase in the life cycle c. use of ineffective test techniques d. defects present in production environment 300)Following are the valid testing certifications EXCEPT: BSTE
The defect management process is based on the following general principles:
