Study Guide Very Important

STUDY KIT 2005-2006

For use to prepare for: Public Service, Post-Secondary Recruitment, and Foreign Service competitions.

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STUDY KIT 2005-2006 TABLE OF CONTENTS PREFACE

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COPYRIGHT ADVISORY

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SECTION I – INTRODUCTION & AUTHOR PROFILE ............................................................. 3 SECTION II – GOVERNMENT RECRUITMENT AND PROMOTION CAMPAIGNS: OVERVIEW ............................................................................................................................... 5 i. Insights into the Post-Secondary Recruitment and Promotion Processes

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ii. Public Service Commission Web Page Insertion-2005 Fall Campaign

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SECTION III - THE APPLICATION AND RESUMÉ ............................................................... 11 SECTION IV – PERSONAL “STATEMENT OF INTEREST” ................................................. 15 SECTION V – CRUCIAL TEST-TAKING TIPS ....................................................................... 20 SECTION VI – WRITTEN COMMUNICATION PROFICIENCY TEST (WCPT) ...................... 23

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i. Communication Skills Testing – WCPT Exercise

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ii. Public Service Commission Web Page Insertion

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iii. Tips on WCPT Performance Improvement

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WCPT Sample Test #1 – 50 Questions

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Answers and Categories for WCPT Sample Test #1

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WCPT Sample Test #2 - 50 Questions

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WCPT Sample Test #3 - 50 Questions

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SECTION VII – SITUATIONAL JUDGEMENT TEST (SJT).................................................... 85 i. Situational Judgement Testing – Previous Situational Exercises

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ii. Situational Judgment Testing -Current Situational Judgement Test (SJT)

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iii. Public Service Commission Web Page Insertion

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iv. Tips on SJT Performance Improvement

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SJT Sample Test # 1 – 100 Questions

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Answers and Competencies Tested for Sample SJT Test #1

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SJT Sample Test # 2 – 100 Questions

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Answers and Competencies Tested for Sample SJT Test #2

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SECTION VIII – WRITTEN COMMUNICATION TEST (WCT) .............................................. 167 Introduction

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i. Communication Skills Testing – Past WCT Exercise

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ii. Communication Skills Testing – Current WCT Exercise

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iv. Tips on WCT Performance Improvement

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v. Instructions for Sample WCT Texts and Sample WCT Summaries

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WCT Sample Text #1 to Summarize

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WCT Sample Summary #1

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WCT Sample Text #2 to Summarize

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WCT Sample Summaries #2A and #2B

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vi. Sample Government Summary –

Canada in the World Web Page Insertion

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SECTION IX – GRADUATE RECRUITMENT TEST (GRT) .................................................. 189

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Introduction

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i. Cognitive Testing – Past GRT Exercise

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ii. Cognitive Testing – Current GRT Exercise

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iv. Tips on GRT Performance Improvement

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v. Instructions for Sample GRT Questions

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GRT Sample Questions: Similarities

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GRT Answers: Similarities

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GRT Sample Questions: Number Series

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GRT Answers: Number Series

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GRT Sample Questions: Arithmetic

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GRT Answers: Arithmetic

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GRT Sample Questions: Figure Analogy

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GRT Answers: Figure Analogy

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SECTION X – ADDITIONAL GOVERNMENT / OTHER CAREERS INFO ........................... 244 i. Information on Government Departments/Agencies Hiring Candidates

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ii. Our Other Services

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This Study Kit has been prepared for the 2005-2006 government competitions developed by the Public Service Commission (PSC) of Canada. The Study Kit has been revised this year, as necessary, to reflect changes in the overall examination and evaluation processes. A new kit should be obtained for each competition to stay abreast of changes, and to prepare wisely and effectively. The Study Kit is the only information source published specifically to help candidates prepare for federal government competitions. Our company’s services enjoy an outstanding success rate: typically, we attract about 9% of all candidates, but over 35% of those hired are our clients.

Copyright © 2005

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COPYRIGHT ADVISORY

This 2005-2006 Study Kit is provided for the sole use of the purchaser of record. It may not be retransmitted or reproduced, in whole or in part, without the written consent of the publisher, FSECC Inc.

All purchasers are identified individually by a coded security symbol in the text of the Study Kit to ensure personal usage. Any contravention of copyright will result in immediate legal action against the purchaser by FSECC Inc.

It is in the interest of FSECC Inc. to limit Study Kit usage to bona fide individual purchasers; it is in the interest of the purchasers to retain the Study Kit for personal use only, to enhance their performance compared to that of other competitors in government examinations and to comply with copyright law.

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SECTION I – INTRODUCTION & AUTHOR PROFILE Thank you for purchasing this newly revised Study Kit, prepared to help improve your performance in various current federal government competitions. The Kit contains essential advice and useful practice exercises, and is literally the only source of in-depth, informed assistance to candidates taking examinations for Public Service jobs and promotions. How does this information help you? Simple: we provide good information to bright people, and urge them to use it. The success rate of clients over our 20 years in business is triple that of the general group of candidates who undertake the government competitions on their own. In addition to providing instruction and practice tests, the Study Kit dispels the myths and misinformation which have always surrounded federal government recruitment and advancement methods. The cost of the Study Kit combined with other coaching services we provide – all listed on our website - amounts to approximately 1% of the salary of most Public Service positions available in the Public Service competitions. We believe you will find the Study Kit, and our other, proven services, valuable in pursuing your career objectives. Best wishes in your efforts to prepare for your competition.

Sincerely, Barry Yeates * President

* See attached Profile 3 FSECC SCESE


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BARRY YEATES — PROFILE

Barry Yeates has developed all career advancement materials and services provided throughout our company’s 20 year history. His extensive coaching, training and consulting experience includes work with organizations and individuals in the government, multilateral, non-governmental, political, corporate, legal, media and education sectors in more than 25 countries. Barry has delivered career-related workshops in Canada, the United States and Europe at over 150 schools, universities and conferences. Barry joined the then Department of External Affairs as a Foreign Service officer in 1977. He served in the Media Relations Office in Ottawa, and as Executive Assistant to the Ambassador at the Canadian Embassy in Washington, D.C.. Among other duties he specialized in political reporting on Central America and the Caribbean. Barry has also worked as University Secretary at Trent University, as an Organizational Development Consultant for an international training firm, and as Director of Political Operations for a federal party. Barry holds a Master’s degree from the University of Guelph, was the recipient of a Social Sciences and Humanities Research Council Doctoral Fellowship, and taught at Guelph and Carleton universities.

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SECTION II – GOVERNMENT RECRUITMENT and PROMOTION CAMPAIGNS: OVERVIEW

i.

Insights into Post-Secondary Recruitment and Promotion Processes

ii.

Public Service Commission Web Page Insertion

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i.

Insights into the Post-Secondary Recruitment and Promotion Processes N.B.

The following refers particularly to the details and vagaries associated with government recruiting competitions; however, those using the Study Kit for government promotion exercises will recognize that some of the observations apply to their situation as well.

The Post-Secondary Recruitment (PSR) Campaign run by the Public Service Commission (PSC) of Canada has been around for decades. We have followed it closely for over 20 years to help people succeed in it. The Campaign recruits entry-level officer staff for government departments and agencies. The number of participating government entities varies in each campaign, as does the type and number of positions available. The testing is developed and administered by the Public Service Commission, then qualified candidates are “referred” to the various departments and agencies to be interviewed. Usually there are two national PSR campaigns annually, a Fall and a Winter version, with a different mix of participating government entities and job types in each one. A book deserves to be written on this exercise, but for your purposes we will limit our observations to what will help you, and fill in some details to combat the abundant myths and misinformation surrounding this Public Service hiring process. In almost every campaign there are changes: the jobs change, the application and academic criteria change, the tests change, and the pass marks change. Three things do not change: -

First, everyone talks about how the PSR process works, and almost none of them are right.

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Second, the electronic system through which you apply and which posts the marks almost always fails at some point, causing delays.

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Third, despite what is said by government recruitment staff or other federal employees in all jobs at all levels, and by university teachers and counsellors, only test scores and interview performance count. With the rarest of exceptions, degrees, marks, scholarships, experience 6

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and language ability (other than English and French, sometimes) do not count in advancing your candidacy. Affirmative action and/or regional preference mechanisms have been used in a limited fashion on occasion, but top marks on the tests – virtually alone – are key. Age is not a factor in hiring. Currently, the basic tests used in different combinations for most Public Service jobs available in the PSR campaign are: the Situational Judgement Test (SJT); the Graduate Recruitment Test (GRT) (formerly the ELOST – Entry-Level Officer Selection Test); the Written Communication Test (WCT), a précis exercise; and the Written Communication Proficiency Test (WCPT), a multiple-choice language test. The SJT replaced, in 2003, various incarnations of Foreign Service situational tests used over time. The old Foreign Service Knowledge Test (FSKT), a multiple-choice exercise on international affairs issues, was done away with for the 1999 competition. Test results: The “pass” mark to qualify for the “interview pool” is always much lower than the mark finally set for those who receive interviews. In other words, just because you pass does not mean you will be interviewed (and obviously just because you are interviewed does not mean you will be hired). As an example, in the 2005 Spring PSR campaign, pass marks for Foreign Service (FS) candidates was 23 out of 55 on the GRT, and 60 out of 100 on the SJT. Those actually interviewed (with a few adjustments) had a minimum of 35 out of 55 on the GRT, 75 out of 100 on the SJT, and a score on the WCT (typically 65 out of 100, or better) which placed them in the top 750-800 candidates. Number of applicants versus applicants hired: The overall recruitment process, irrespective of job type, has several stages with fewer people at the later stages than at each earlier stage, as is normal in any job competition. The PSR competition involves several stages/groupings of candidates for each job type: those who complete the application, those who actually write the tests, those who pass and are in the interview pool, those who are interviewed, those who make the preliminary short-list, those who make the final short-list (after reference and other checks), those who receive a job offer, and finally those who take a position. As a ball park example, again using the Foreign Service (FS) group from the recent competition, about 8000 took the tests, about 1000 passed, about 800 will be interviewed, preliminary and final short-list numbers will likely be around 225 and 200, respectively, and about 165 positions will be filled. Actual candidate numbers vary widely for each job category in the PSR competition, but the 7 FSECC SCESE


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ratios apparent at the various stages of the FS competition will be roughly similar to those occurring in other position categories. So how do you succeed in these competitive, lengthy recruitment exercises? First, unlike most candidates, prepare for the application process and tests. Use this Study Kit to start now. Second, when it is time, prepare for the interviews. We can assist you with that, as indicated on our website. Ignore the government’s claim that you cannot prepare for these tests or interviews. We have the data and success stories to prove otherwise. If you have questions about government rules and procedures regarding the PSR process you will have to call them. However, questions should be directed not to local government offices/spokespersons, or to hastily assembled campus information teams, but rather to informed Ottawa-based coordinators of the tests at the Public Service Commission, where there is some institutional memory about the process and the authority to take decisions on problem issues. (N.B. The PSC will not provide information beyond test scores, as the results are used for staffing only and not for diagnostic purposes in career development.) Finally, to do well on your application and the tests themselves, read and use the material in this Study Kit to help you.

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ii.

Public Service Commission Web Page Insertion-2005 Fall Campaign

The following description was taken directly from the Public Service Commission of Canada’s website www.jobs.gc.ca. It is imported here as a sample to show you their explanation of the campaign.

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Français

Contact us

Help

Search

Canada Site

Site Map

Your Opinion

Information

PSC Offices

Home

PSR My Jobs Listing of Current Opportunities How to apply After you apply Test Information Manager Website

[Employer of Choice] [What You'll Get]

Our Annual Fall Campaign is now open! Tested career choices will occur across Canada on October 22, 2005. Pleas note that you can't change your testing location after the closing date. Please note that the Knowledge and Ability Test for Mathematical Statistic (MA) for Statistics Canada will occur across Canada on November 2, 2005 Careers with other governmental organizations Français | Contact us | Help | Search | Canada Site Site Map | Your Opinion | Information PSC Offices | Home PSR | My Jobs | Listing of Current Opportunities How to Apply | After you Apply | Test Information | Manager Website

Updated: 2005-09-12

Important Notices and Disclaimers

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SECTION III - THE APPLICATION and RESUMÉ

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The Application and the Resumé Despite what you may expect, your application and initial resumé (the latter required only for certain Public Service positions as noted on the government website for particular jobs) are not reviewed or used in the Post-Secondary entry process usually until after you are interviewed, if at all. Basically, the Public Service Commission demands this material for its own internal purposes, and it plays little or no role in getting you to or, often, beyond the interview process. With two exceptions, test scores alone get you to the interview, and interview performance alone gets you to the stage where your personal background may be vetted. Why is this so? The government simply does not have the human and financial resources to devote to scrutinizing individual applicants until far along in the hiring process, and has no way to evaluate one candidate’s degrees, scholarships, language skills, range of experience, etc. versus other sets of similar claims by others. The two exceptions: first, your input on the application and resumé is used to screen for key words or phrases to show you are eligible to apply for particular jobs as defined by their posted criteria; second, your self-identification in the affirmative action section of the application could be used in preparing interview eligibility lists. This is not always necessary if the demographics of those succeeding on the tests match government demographic needs - whatever they may be – which are seldom made public. The “net out” of the foregoing is that the Public Service uses, and trusts, only its own test and interview scores to advance candidates in the hiring process. Possibly before but usually after the interview is when your resumé can come into play. If and when the resumé is deemed important, you will be invited to submit an up-to-date, hard copy version. There is, however, value for you in doing a good application and resumé at the outset as they may help to advance your candidacy at some point in the hiring process, and distinguish you from competitors.

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•

Look over the application early, and think about what it and the resumé, if requested, require of you. Application forms are on-line on the Public Service Commission (PSC) website at www.jobs.gc.ca

•

The real question underlying the application and resumé is: “Why hire you?” Therefore you need to show how you suit the job, intellectually and otherwise. The key is doing a solid selfassessment before completing the application and resumé. This exercise should explore not only your academic work, but also your vocational and avocational experience, and your skills and qualities. The Resumé Planning Matrix graphic which follows in this section of the study kit will help you with preliminary self-assessment.

•

For the resumé, do a draft first. Put it aside and re-read it after a day or two. Make the necessary revisions and ask someone who (a) knows you well, (b) knows something about the position(s) you are applying for, and (c) writes well, to review how you have expressed yourself (grammar, spelling, punctuation) and represented yourself (sequence and emphasis of your achievements).

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When completing the application and resumé:

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- Don’t worry about sending a cover letter or reference letters unless specified at this stage. They aren’t read, just discarded. - Don’t overly embellish your qualifications or give false information. - Don’t submit a resumé longer than 2 to 3 pages maximum if a hard-copy version is required. Should references be needed, ask them for permission to include them on the resumé. If they are not familiar with the job(s), describe the competition and the position(s). Later, if you are granted an interview give your references a copy of your application and an up-to-date resumé for background use in case they are contacted by the government.

•

Unless instructed otherwise, use employers as references: you are applying for a job not a scholarship.

•

Proofread the completed application and resumé carefully before submitting the final version.

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Keep copies for your records in case of a system failure, and to review before your interview.

•

Submit the material on the internet by the deadline indicated on the PSC website www.jobs.gc.ca

The application and resumé alone will not win you a job, but they can help or hinder you at various stages of the competition. Which of these they achieve is your choice.

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RESUMÉ PLANNING MATRIX Process

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List beneath relevant job heading(s) you have applied to the requirements stated in their description on the PSC website

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Correlate the requirements to your background using the matrix columns

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Highlight in colour your greatest strengths and experience vs job requirements

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Package your resumé

Their World/Work

Your World/Career

(examples of jobs) Educational Background

Samples • Economist - various requirements • Policy Analyst - various requirements • Management Trainee - various requirements •

Etc.

» Secondary (if still relevant) » Post-secondary (degree(s), particular courses, thesis topics, etc)

Work Experience

Avocational Experience/Interests

» Part-time/ summers (if still relevant) » Full-time

N.B Counts as much as paid work

» Scholarships (if any) » Professional Development (if any)

Contrary to popular belief, degrees alone are the least important element of your candidacy once you satisfy the entry criteria. Critical elements underlying a good resumé are: solid selfanalysis, focus/application of your whole background to the job, articulateness and brevity.

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SECTION IV – PERSONAL “STATEMENT OF INTEREST”

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Personal “Statement Of Interest” You will see on the description for certain types of jobs open in the government recruitment and promotion campaigns a requirement to submit a personal “statement of interest” on why you are right for the position. The title and length for these statements vary, sometimes two are required (one for ‘why you qualify’, another to explain your interests and suitability), and they are not demanded by every federal department or agency. Check the listing for the job(s) you are interested in to see what is applicable. If you need to submit some type of personal interest statement, there are a number of tips to help you in doing one, and background advice you may find useful. As with the Application and Resumé, it is highly unlikely that anyone will actually review interest statements until well along in the hiring process. To reiterate, the government does not have the time, funding, staff or will to do so, usually until, at the earliest, before the interview crop is selected, or more likely after you have been interviewed. Typically, test scores alone get you to the interview, and interview performance alone gets you to the point where your background, including your personal statement, may come into play. The purpose of the statement is to let the government have on hand a writing sample which they can use to verify whether your verbal communication skills demonstrated at the interview are matched by your written communication skills displayed in the statement. For your information, we have seen innumerable examples of weak personal statements submitted by people who got interviews, so the likelihood of the statement being used to advance or reject candidates up to that stage is remote for most, if not all, government departments or agencies. Nonetheless, you will still benefit by crafting a good statements of interest for whenever they are looked at in the competition. To overcome the dearth of website information about what “they” (the government entity you are applying to) want in a personal statement, we offer the following recommendations.

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First, determine whether the outline for the job(s) you are interested in on the government website, and which requires some sort of personal essay, refers to an attached “statement of qualifications” for the position. If so, go to it (there may be occasion where one is mentioned, but not provided) and use it as a basis to develop your personal statement. We have provided the following sample government position “statement of qualifications” as an example here, although every position’s “statement of qualifications” will differ.

Statement of Qualifications -Entry Level Officer Position EDUCATION: Bachelor’s degree in any area of study LANGUAGES: Non-imperative staffing Candidates must attain language proficiency level BBB/BBB ABILITIES: The various Ability to analyse elements of ability Ability to plan and organize and personal Ability to communicate orally suitability described are PERSONAL SUITABILITIES: referred to Flexibility and adaptability collectively as Client focus “competencies” by Judgement government human Interpersonal relations resource people. Teamwork and cooperation

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What you should do after reviewing the “statement of qualifications” for your prospective job(s), if one is posted, is use a matrix process again, similar to the one we discussed for the Application and Resumé, to undertake your planning to create your personal statement. An example of the matrix adapted for this purpose is shown below.

“STATEMENT OF INTEREST” PLANNING MATRIX Process • List beneath relevant position heading(s) the particulars required under their “statement of qualifications” (if one is available on the website) • Correlate to your resumé using the matrix columns •

Highlight in colour your greatest strengths and experience for the job vs the SOQ requirements

•

Write a description of your experience complying with the title and length required by each personal interest statement request N.B.

If two statements of interest are required for a particular position, one will likely demand an explanation of your qualifications (education, experience, possibly languages) for the job, while the other statement will likely demand an explanation of your interests and suitability related to the position description and “competencies”

Their World/Work “Statement of Qualifications” (SOQ) particulars (for each position applied for)

• • •

• • •

Your World/Career Educational Background

Work Experience

Avocational Experience/Interests

Samples: Accelerated Economist ~ SOQ details Management Trainee ~ SOQ details Foreign Service – Political/Economic ~ SOQ details Foreign Service – Trade ~ SOQ details Foreign Service – Immigration ~ SOQ details Management/Consular Officer ~ SOQ details Etc. Critical elements underlying good “statement of interest” descriptions are: solid self-analysis, focus/application of your whole background to the job, articulateness and brevity (i.e. sticking to the prescribed word limit for each statement).

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If there is no “statement of qualifications” mentioned for the job(s) you are applying to, or if it is mentioned but missing on the government website, then analyze instead the textual description provided for the position in the job ad on the government website. From this, construct, as best you can (the ads are often poorly written and/or layed out) a replica of a “statement of qualifications”. Use your facsimile of the position “statement of qualifications” to work with in the matrix. Depending on the length specified for the required personal statement, you may have to do considerable sifting through your matrix outputs to write a targeted, succinct piece. Come up with a one-sentence personal intro line which connects with the government’s statement request, then organize the bulk of your text in, perhaps, three paragraphs, plus a one-sentence personalized concluding line. We recommend getting your greatest set of strengths in the first paragraph, your least array of strengths in the second, and your second-best agglomeration of strengths in the third paragraph, just before your one-sentence, personalized wrap-up line. If you are applying for several types of positions, each will require its own personal statement because the qualifications for each job will vary. As we also recommended concerning the Application and Resumé: do a draft first, edit it after a day or so goes by to get some objectivity, let someone else read it, and proofread carefully yourself before submitting the piece. Keep a copy for your file in case of a system failure, and to have on hand to look over before your interview. Irrespective of when or how your personal “statement of interest” is used by the government, it ought to be written in a way that speaks to their needs using your attributes. This makes it easy for the reader(s) to connect you with the position, whether you were clearly asked to do so or not. Finally, using care in drafting the statement will enable you to pass muster in terms of written communication skills, which may be bench-marked against your verbal performance at the interview.

N.B.

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See our website for details on our Statement of Interest service.


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SECTION V – CRUCIAL TEST-TAKING TIPS

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Crucial Test-taking Tips All test prep services and manuals provide advice to candidates on what to do logistically, as well as intellectually, to improve performance on examinations. Our following point-form recommendations are brief, easy to read, and based on long experience in taking and observing Public Service examinations at many venues across Canada. Please read the suggestions, think about what is being proposed and why, and carry through with the ones you need to follow to do better on test day. The annual Fall Public Service tests in particular are usually fraught with confusion and involve a large cast of characters - test-takers and test administrators alike - unfamiliar with the process. Keep your focus by doing what is in your control to reduce the challenges inherent in mass testing events. Three days before your test: • Check the Public Service website to re-confirm the date and room location for your test(s), and call the local PSC office and/or the facility hosting the testing to ensure all information is correct. The night before your test day: ● Sleep and eat properly, unless you perform best “on edge” On test day: Arrive early and bring with you to the test site: ● Your identification (PSR) number from your internet application ● Two pieces of personal identification, at least one with a photo and a signature ● A watch, to keep track of time yourself during the tests, so you do not have to rely on defective wall clocks or invigilators posting the time remaining ● A large eraser, to make it easier and clearer if you decide to change answers ● A pencil sharpener (or ask for extra pencils) FSECC SCESE


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● Highlighters to use on the test booklets, if acceptable (N.B. ask first before highlighting government materials) ● Earplugs if noise bothers you (or pick a corner or end seat if traffic bothers you) ● Food and water: facilities may not be available or breaks may not be long enough to leave, particularly in larger test centres ● Visit the washroom before – not during – each test At the start of each test: ● Listen carefully to oral test directions, and ask questions if you are unclear ● Read test directions carefully, and make inquiries if necessary N.B.

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The most important tip you should consider is taking your test at a smaller venue instead of in a large city/university (Montreal, Ottawa, Toronto and Vancouver especially). There is much less confusion in the test administering process, administration time is reduced, and you may perform better as a result.


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SECTION VI – WRITTEN COMMUNICATION PROFICIENCY TEST (WCPT)

i.

Communication Skills Testing – WCPT Exercize

ii.


iii.

Tips on WCPT Performance Improvement WCPT Sample Test #1 – 50 Questions Answers and Categories for WCPT Sample Test #1 WCPT Sample Test #2 – 50 Questions Answers and Categories for WCPT Sample Test #2 WCPT Sample Test #3 – 50 Questions Answers and Categories for WCPT Sample Test #3

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i.

Communication Skills Testing – WCPT Exercise

The Written Communication Proficiency Test (WCPT) is a multiple-choice, wide-ranging language usage evaluation tool that differs radically from the Written Communication Test (WCT), included elsewhere in this Study Kit. The WCPT makes it easy, fast and cheap for the government to score the language proficiency of candidates. The government’s test instructions and practice example below are included for guidance. Then we have provided tips to improve your WCPT performance. Finally there are three, full-length sample WCPT tests of 50 questions each followed by the answers to help you prepare for this exam.

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ii.


The following description is taken directly from the Public Service Commission of Canada’s website www.jobs.gc.ca. It is imported here to show you their description of, and sample passage and questions for, the WCPT test. It also serves as an instructional preface to our following three fulllength sample (WCPT) tests which you can use for practice to improve your performance on test day.

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Written Communication Proficiency Test (WCPT): Information

The Written Communication Proficiency Test (WCPT) assesses your ability to communicate in writing. In this test, you will read 13 short passages, each of which contains approximately 10 sentences or sentence fragments. Errors have been introduced into some of the passages, and the order of some sentences or paragraphs has been purposely modified. After each passage, you will be presented with several questions related to the passage. The questions involve, for example, identifying grammar errors, determining the best word to insert in a blank, choosing the best title for a passage, ordering sentences, and choosing the best summary of a text. In total, there are 50 questions. For each of these, you will select the answer that seems best to you from among the choices presented, and you will record it on an answer sheet. You will be allowed 1 hour and 40 minutes to do the test. You will be tested on your knowledge of the following features of writing: grammar, punctuation, vocabulary richness and preciseness, appropriate level of language use, avoiding wordiness and redundancies, knowledge of main points vs. subordinate details, and paragraph and text development including order of sentences and paragraphs. Sample Passage & Questions The following examples show some of the question types used in the Written Communication Proficiency Test. This list is not exhaustive, however. Also, please note that these questions are not necessarily the same difficulty as those in the test. In the explanations following each sample question, some of the reasons for choosing the designated answer and not the other choices are provided. Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow. NOTE: The order of the paragraphs in the following text has been purposely modified. A. [1] In the women's relay in the 1928 Olympics, Rosenfeld began and Myrtle Cook ran the final part as the Canadian team dramatically demonstrated excellence. [2] They won the gold medal in the world record time of 48.4 seconds.

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B. [3] Canadas' finest Olympic moments occurred in the 1920s. [4] The first competition was in the Winter Olympics which took place in 1924, at this competition, one of the athletes, Cecile Smith, finished sixth in figure skating. [5] Moreover, Canadian female athletes were to make a remarkable showing in the 1928 Summer Games in Amsterdam. [6] In many ways those Games were a sporting watershed for Canada, a high-water mark of achievement not __________ until the 1984 Summer Games. C. [7] The Canadian women's 4 x 100-metre relay team in the 1928 Games was made up of a quartet of some of the finest athletes ever to represent their country. [8] Fanny Rosenfeld was __________ competitor who later coached women's hockey and baseball teams, and was named Canada's female athlete of the half-century. [9] She was an accomplished journalist who did much to promote women's sports in Canada's major daily newspapers. [10] Rosenfeld narrowly missed gold in the 100-metres, edging out her relay teammate Ethel Smith. [11] Another Canadian, Myrtle Cook, was disqualified in that race, but along with Florence Bell made up the other members of the relay team. 1. Which of the following alternatives is the right order of the three paragraphs of the text? (1) B, C, A

*

(2) B, A, C (3) A, C, B (4) C, A, B [Explanation: The first sentence of B is an introductory sentence; Fanny Rosenfeld is only referred to by the last name in paragraph A, but a full name is given in paragraph C where she is introduced.] 2. Which of the following is the most appropriate title for the text? (1) Sports, Health and Politics *

(2) Canadian Female Athletes (3) The History of the Canadian Female Relay Team (4) Glory of a Nation

[Explanation: "(1)" is incorrect because neither health nor politics is discussed in the text. "(3)" is incorrect because other sports are discussed in the text, and "(4)" is incorrect because it gives no indication of the topic of the text.] 3. Which of the following rephrases of Sentence 4 is best in terms of style and conciseness? (1) When Canadian female athletes first participated in competition in 1924, one of the athletes by the name of Cecile Smith could get the sixth position in figure skating. (2) During their first appearance in international FSECC SCESE


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tournaments, namely in the Winter Olympics, one of the Canadian athletes finished sixth in figure skating. *

(3) Canadian women first competed in the 1924 Winter Olympics in which Cecile Smith finished sixth in figure skating. (4) The first appearance of Canadian female athletes was in the Winter Olympics, in the competition where Cecile Smith finished sixth in figure skating.

[Explanation: "(1)" does not mention the Olympics; "(2)" is imprecise; "(4)" does not include a year and Cecile Smith was not the only female athlete; "(3)" is correct because it contains all the pertinent information without being redundant.] 4. Which of the following words, if inserted in the blank in Sentence 6, would best fit the style of the sentence and the whole text? * (1) Surpassed (2) Beaten (3) Transcended (4) surmounted [Explanation: "(2)" is too low (or too informal) a level of language for the passage; "(3)" is too high (or too formal) a level; "(4)" is an incorrect use of the word; "(1)" is the most accurate use of the word and best fits the style used.] 5. Which of the following phrases, if added in the blank in Sentence 8, would best fit the meaning of the paragraph? (1) an awesome (2) a great (3) a fascinating *

(4) a multi-talented

[Explanation: "(4)" is correct because it is the only one which highlights that she was involved with several sports.]

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6. Which of the following changes is needed in the text? (1) Sentence 1: place dramatically after demonstrated. *

(2) Sentence 3: change Canadas' to Canada's. (3) Sentence 5: change were to make to made. (4) Sentence 9: change women's to woman's.

[Explanation: "(2)" is correct since Canada is a single entity; thus the apostrophe must go before the s.] 7. Which of the following changes would improve the text? (1) Sentence 4: change the comma after 1924 to a semicolon

*

(2) Sentence 6: change the comma after Canada to a colon. (3) Sentence 9: add a comma before who. (4) Sentence 11: add a dash between dis and qualified in the word disqualified. [Explanation: "(1)" is correct because a semicolon is used to join the two halves of a compound sentence.]

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iii.

Tips on WCPT Performance Improvement

Before you take the practice tests, and after having read the government’s introduction to the WCPT, you will benefit from considering the following pointers to improve your performance. The government’s textual description lists the following general writing features being tested:

Government Terminology •

Grammar

•

Punctuation

•

Vocabulary-richness and preciseness

•

Appropriate level of language, or Register

•

Avoiding wordiness and redundancy, or Conciseness

•

Knowledge (main points vs. subordinate details), or Content

•

Paragraph/Text Development (ordering of sentences within a paragraph, and paragraphs within a text), or Organization

What we have done on the answer key following our three enclosed sample tests is describe precisely not only the general writing feature being probed in each question (e.g. grammar), but also the specific element of that general feature (e.g. use of correct verb tense) that is being examined. This helps you because you will easily see exactly where you have weaknesses. Then you can go to any grammar/ writing/ language text to correct faults which you have identified by using the appropriate term. As a resource for you to use, we recommend A Canadian Writer’s Reference by Diana Hacker. It is published by Nelson Thomson Learning (website www.nelson.com) and is available in most university and chain bookstores. Any similar text can also help you, as long as it is well-indexed and, preferably, Canadian in origin.

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WCPT Sample Test #1 – 50 Questions Note: The order of the paragraphs in the following text has been purposely modified.

[1] Charles George Douglas Roberts was born in Douglas, New Brunswick, in 1860. [2] He attended the University of New Brunswick. [3] At the age of 20, he published his first book, Orion and Other Poems. [4] He ________ a number of different jobs while continuing to write poetry over the next 15 years. [5] During this time, his many collections of works attracted considerable attention in Great Britain and North America. [6] Several of his contemporaries; Archibald Lampman, D.C. Scott, and Roberts’ cousin, Bliss Carman, acknowledged his influence on their work and their careers.

A

[7] As a result of this commercial success, Roberts devoted himself to writing fiction, leaving poetry behind. [8] In 1897, he moved to New York, where he remained for ten years, before leaving for Europe. [9] It was only after Roberts returned to Canada in 1925 that he once again turned his attention to poetry, publishing two books: The Vagrant of Time and The Iceberg and Other Poems. [10] One of the most popular writers of his time, Roberts was knighted in 1935. [11] He died in Toronto in 1943 at the age of 83.

B

[12] In 1896, Roberts’ career ________ when his first work of fiction, Earth’s Enigmas, received accolades for being a “realistic animal story”, in which animals behave as animals and not as humans. [13] Together with his friend, Ernest Thompson Seton, Roberts is credited with having created this genre.

C

1.

Which of the following alternatives is the correct order for the three paragraphs of the text? 1) B, C, A 2) B, A, C 3) A, C, B 4) C, A, B

2.

Which of the following is the most appropriate title for the text? 1) Canadian Poet in the United States 2) The Life of Charles George Douglas Roberts 3) The Realistic Animal Story as a Genre 4) Charles George Douglas Roberts, Poet, Animal Lover

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3.

Which of the following words, if inserted in the blank in Sentence 12, would best fit the style of the sentence and the whole text? 1) 2) 3) 4)

skyrocketed got better increased worsened

4.

Which of the following changes is needed in the text? 1) Sentence 6: change the semi-colon after contemporaries to a comma 2) Sentence 7: remove the comma after success 3) Sentence 10: add a comma after writers 4) No change is necessary

5.

Which of the following words, if inserted in the blank in Sentence 4, would best fit the style of the sentence and the whole text? 1) executed 2) was working at 3) had done 4) held

6.

Which of the following changes would improve the text? 1) Sentence 5: place North America before Great Britain 2) Sentence 6: change and their careers for and careers 3) Sentence 12: change Roberts’ to Robert’s 4) Sentence 13: remove the word together

[1] Scholastic success is not always a good indicator of someone’s intellectual capacity. [2] __________ Albert Einstein, Dr. Frederick Banting is proof of that very fact. [3] Born in rural Ontario, Banting barely scraped through medical school, only to become, by the age of thirty-one, world renowned and Canada’s favourite son. [4] He rose to prominence through his discovery of insulin and his experimentation with it in 1922. [5] Banting and his colleagues, Dr. Charles Best, Dr. J.J.R. McLeod, and Dr. J.B. Collip experimented with insulin and were the first to apply its use to treat people suffering from diabetes mellitus. [6] In 1923, along with his colleague J.J.R. McLeod, Banting received the Nobel Prize for Medicine. [7] He later received the Starr Gold Medal from the University of Toronto, the George Armstrong Peters Award, the Reeve Prize, and the Charles Mickle Fellowship Award. [8] Banting was installed as the first full professor for medical research by The University of Toronto and then FSECC SCESE


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a happy Canadian government also put him in as the chief of his research institution. [9] Before discovering and experimenting with insulin, Banting had been a doctor in Flanders during World War I. [10] On his return from the war, he attempted to set up a clinic in London, Ontario. [11] After the out-break of World War II, Banting devoted himself to the war effort. [12] He died in a plane crash in Newfoundland while en route to England on a mission in 1941. [13] At the Sir Frederick Banting Square in London, Ontario, a “Flame of Hope” was lit in 1989 as a tribute to Dr. Banting and to those who have lost their lives to diabetes. [14] It also serves as a reminder that insulin is only a control for diabetes. [15] The Flame of Hope will continue to burn until a cure for diabetes is found. 7.

Choose the place in the text where a shift of emphasis or topic suggests that a new paragraph should have been started, if appropriate. 1) 2) 3) 4)

8.

Which of the following changes would improve the flow of the text? 1) 2) 3) 4)

9.

Sentence 5: Remove “experimented with insulin and” Reverse the order of sentences 7 and 8 Sentence 9: Remove “Before discovering and experimenting with insulin” Sentence 14: Reverse the order of the words “also” and “serves”

Which of the following changes is necessary in the text? 1) 2) 3) 4)

10.

After Sentence 10 After Sentence 11 After Sentence 12 No break needed

Sentence 3: Change “thirty-one” to “thirty one” Sentence 6: Change “colleague” to “collegue” Sentence 11: Change “out-break” to “outbreak” Sentence 13: Change “Sir” to “sir”

Which of the following is the most appropriate title for the text? 1) 2) 3) 4)

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Great Canadian Scientific Discoveries Frederick Banting and the Discovery of Insulin Frederick Banting: A Man of Importance The Amazing Discovery of Insulin


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11.

Which phrase, if inserted in the blank in Sentence 2, would help the reader better understand the logical sequence of the writer’s ideas? 1) 2) 3) 4)

12.

Because of Without However with Along with

If sentence 8 seems poorly written, which version, from those given below, is the most appropriate for this type of text? 1) Banting became the first full professor of medical research at The University of Toronto and was set up as the head of his own research institute by a grateful Canadian government. 2) With his wonderful advancements in medical research, Frederick Banting was awarded the first full professorship of the medical research team by The University of Toronto which also acquired him a research institute with him at its head by the Canadian government 3) Banting became the first full professor of medical research at The University of Toronto, which earned him great prestige and recognition by the Canadian government who in turn set him up as the head of his own research institute. 4) No change is needed.

[1] In the morning of December 6, 1917, in Halifax, Nova Scotia, a Belgian relief vessel collided with a French munitions carrier in Halifax Harbour, creating the largest man-made explosion before Hiroshima. [2] During World War I, Halifax was the main base of the new Canadian Navy and housed the most important army garrison in Canada. [3] The port and harbour were crowded with warships, supply ships, and troop transports. [4] The Belgian relief vessel Imo was heading to New York from Halifax, while the French munitions ship Mont Blanc was on its way to wait for a convoy when the two collided in the harbour. [5] The Mont Blanc was carrying priric acid, gun cotton, benzol, and dynamite. [6] Some of these flammable substances spilled on the deck and started burning as the Mont Blanc drifted towards Pier 6. [7] Crowds were gathered around the harbour to watch the fire. [8] __________ crews from nearby ships raced to put out the _________, the captain and crew of the Mont Blanc rowed in lifeboats for the Dartmouth shore. [9] _________________________ [10] When the Mont Blanc rammed the pier, it set its wood pilings on fire. [11] The Mont Blanc then exploded, flattening everything within 800 metres, and causing damage for 1.6 km. [12] People heard the explosion from as far away as Prince Edward Island. [13] The explosion was so powerful that it vapourized the water around the ship, and a wave flooded the streets of Halifax and Dartmouth, sweeping people into the harbour where they drowned. [14] The weather did not help, as the next day one of the worst blizzard ever recorded in Halifax began, and lasted for six days.

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13.


14.

Which word, or phrase, if inserted in the first blank in Sentence 8, would help the reader better understand the logical sequence of the writer’s ideas? 1) 2) 3) 4)

15.

During While At the time After

Choose the word or phrase to be inserted in the second blank in Sentence 8 which is most appropriate for this text. 1) 2) 3) 4)

16.

Sentence 1: change “man-made” to “man made” Sentence 5: remove the comma after benzol Sentence 12: change “Prince Edward Island” to “Prince Edward island” Sentence 14: change blizzard to blizzards

blaze conflagration fire burning mess


Sentence 1: remove “Belgian” and “French” Sentence 4: change “collided” to “intercepted” Sentence 10: change “its” to “the pier’s” Reverse the order of Sentence 12 and Sentence 13

17. Which of the following sentences, placed in the blank labelled Sentence 9, would best fit the second paragraph in terms of the writer’s style, the sequence of ideas, and intended audience? 1) It was because they knew about the flammable materials on the ship that the captain and the crew tried to make people leave the scene. 2) As they landed, they tried to warn people to run. 3) Upon their arrival on shore, they attempted to evacuate the populace to secure the premises. 4) It was nothing but a disaster waiting to happen.

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18.

Choose the summary that best fits the style of the text. 1) The most important explosion made by man before Hiroshima was the one that rocked Halifax Harbour on December 6, 1917. It was during World War I, and Halifax Harbour had the best army garrison in Canada. A relief vessel and a munitions carrier collided in the Harbour. The munitions carrier caught fire and rammed into Pier 6, setting it on fire also. Shortly after, there was an explosion on the munitions carrier that destroyed everything within 800 metres. The people who had come to see the fire were dragged into the harbour by the mighty wave that flooded the streets of Halifax and Dartmouth. These unfortunate souls drowned. To make things worse, a fierce blizzard started the next day and lasted for 6 days. 2) During World War I, Halifax was the most important harbour for the military. It had a vast number of ships stationed there. When the Belgian relief vessel Imo ran into the French munitions carrier Mont Blanc, the Mont Blanc caught on fire and drifted, eventually ramming Pier 6. The pier caught fire also, then the Mont Blanc exploded, destroying everything within 800 metres, and dragging the spectators into the harbour where they drowned. The weather did not help, as the next day a fierce blizzard started and lasted six days. 3) The largest explosion made by man before Hiroshima happened on December 6, 1917, in Halifax, Nova Scotia, where a Belgian relief vessel collided with a French munitions carrier in the harbour. During World War I, Halifax was the main base of the new Canadian Navy and the port and harbour were crowded with ships of all kinds. The munitions carrier caught fire and set the pier on ablaze when it hit it. Many had gathered to watch the fire and after the carrier hit the pier, the vessel exploded, flattening everything within 800 metres. The explosion was so powerful that it vapourized the water around the ship, and a wave flooded the streets of Halifax and Dartmouth, sweeping people into the harbour where they drowned. The fierce blizzard that started the next day did not help. 4) Halifax Harbour was an important garrison and had many boats in harbour. This is where the largest explosion made by man before Hiroshima happened. There, a Belgian relief vessel and a French munitions carrier collided and the supplies that the munitions carrier carried caught on fire. The French vessel drifted as it was burning and rammed into Pier 6, setting it on fire also. After ramming the pier, the vessel then exploded. The water around the harbour was vapourized and people were swept under by a giant wave that flooded the streets in Halifax and in Dartmouth. Those poor people drowned. The weather didn’t help, because a 6-day long blizzard started on December 7th.

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Note: The order of the paragraphs in the following text has been purposely modified.

A

[1] Ten Actar 911 can fit in one duffel bag. [2] CPR training was revolutionized when Dianne Croteau and her partner, Richard Brault, released Actar 911, a lightweight mannequin, affordable, well-designed, and suitable for wet conditions, such as lifeguard training. [3] This Canadian mannequin comprises only the head and torso, greatly reducing its overall size, bulkiness, and weight. [4] Due to those mannequin’s cost, classes often had only one of them and students wasted valuable class time waiting to practice. [5]When someone’s heart stops beating, rescuers perform Cardio-Pulmonary Resuscitation (CPR). [6] Before 1989, CPR training was done on heavy, expensive, full size, life-like mannequins. [7] This procedure has saved uncounted numbers of lives, which makes training people in the procedure invaluable.

B

[8] ____________________ [9] Actar 911’s life-like torso responds to pressure by deflating slightly when pressed and expanding when air is blown in the “mouth” and “lungs.” [10] Actar 911’s affordability allowed institutions to purchase several for each class, allowing more practice time for students who no longer had to wait to share the mannequin.

C

[11] The demands of performing CPR on small children require that the child be in the arms of the rescuer. [12] Dianne and her partner felt is was necessary to have a different mannequin for infant CPR training and released the Actar 911 Infant in 1992. [13] This model is life-size and includes an entire small body. [14] __________, new versions of Actar 911 have been designed and both the Actar 911 and the Actar Infant are used by many organizations around the world.

19.

Choose the best topic (introductory) sentence for paragraph C. 1) Although CPR training had been greatly improved with the Actar 911, it was still difficult to teach how to perform CPR on babies. 2) Because the Actar 911 was bigger than a small child, the rate of failure of CPR on infants was still much too high. 3) The Actar 911 had greatly advanced CPR training, but it was time for more development. 4) Training for CPR performance on children still left something to be desired.

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20.

Which of the following alternatives is the correct order for the sentences in paragraph A? 1) 2) 3) 4)

21.

2, 3, 1, 6, 5, 7, 4 6, 7, 5, 2, 1, 4, 3 5, 6, 2, 3, 1, 7, 4 5, 7, 6, 4, 2, 3, 1


Sentence 2: add “which is” after “Actar 911,” Eliminate sentence 7 Sentence 10: change “had to wait” to “have to wait” Reverse the order of Sentence 11 and Sentence 12

22. Choose the sentence that would best fit the blank of Sentence 8, with respect to the writer’s development in the paragraph and text. 1) How does one know what it feels like to push down on someone’s chest and what it’s like to blow into their lungs? 2) Everyone knows what it feels like to press on a person’s chest. 3) One of the crucial elements of CPR training is that students should know what it feels like to press on someone’s chest and blow into their lungs. 4) Without the Actar 911, CPR training had not been possible. 23. Choose the summary for the text which you believe best reflects the content, writer’s style, purpose, and intended audience. 1) Before the invention of the Actar 911, Cardio-Pulmonary Resuscitation training used expensive and bulky life-like mannequins. Students wasted class time waiting to share the one mannequin. Dianne Croteau and her partner, Richard Brault, designed a lightweight, inexpensive, and life-like training mannequin which meant that there could be several in a classroom, increasing practice time. The success of the Actar 911 prompted Dianne Croteau and her partner to further her developments by designing an infant version to facilitate training on babies, which uses a different method. Today both of these Canadian mannequins are used worldwide for CPR training. 2) Cardio-Pulmonary Resuscitation is so important in saving lives and the mannequins that were previously used were so bulky and expensive that the invention of a lightweight and affordable mannequin to teach the procedure was needed. After the conception of the Actar 911, Diane Croteau did not rest, as she felt that there was a need to develop an infant version of the Actar in order to teach rescuers how to perform the procedure on babies. Both inventions are now used all over the world. FSECC SCESE


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3) The importance of a hands-on approach in Cardio-Pulmonary Resuscitation training prompted Dianne Croteau to develop a life-like mannequin. Rescuers in training needed to practice more to improve their skills and the Actar 911 allowed them to do this. Once the Actar 911 proved its usefulness, Dianne and her partner, Richard Brault, designed the Actar 911 Infant, to improve the teaching of infant resuscitation. 4) The Actar 911 made the use of full size mannequins obsolete and its life-like build lets students feel what it is like to perform Cardio-Pulmonary Resuscitation on someone. Dianne Croteau and her partner, Richard Brault, have now developed the Actar 911 Infant for CPR training on infants, which requires that the infant be in the arms of the rescuer. 24. Which word or phrase, if inserted in the blank in Sentence 14, would help the reader better understand the logical sequence of the writer’s ideas? 1) 2) 3) 4) 25.

Nevertheless Until now However Today


Sentence 5: change “Cardio-Pulmonary” to “Cardio Pulmonary” Sentence 4: change “mannequin’s cost” to “mannequins’ cost” Sentence 9: remove quotation marks around “mouth” and “lungs” Sentence 13: change “life-size” to “life size”

[1] In 1962, when the Soviet Union cancelled its plans to host the 1967 world exhibition, Montreal’s mayor, Jean Drapeau, proposed that his city be the site. [2] Drapeau made a presentation to the Bureau International des Expositions (BIE). [3] The BIE __________ the 1967 exhibition to Canada—the first such exhibition to be held in North America. [4] Expo 67 was a three-way partnership, with participation by the federal government, provincial government, and the city of Montreal. [5] The three governments met to choose a central theme, develop a philosophy, and find a site for Expo. [6] “Man and His World” evolved as the theme to show the full range of activities of contemporary humanity. [7] Ile Ste-Hélène, an island in the centre of the St. Lawrence River, would be enlarged, and a new island, Ile NotreDame, would be created. [8] Together these islands would be the location for Expo 67. [9] Landfill from the bottom of the St. Lawrence and from the excavations for a subway line to serve Expo was used to create Ile Notre-Dame and to enlarge Ile Ste-Hélène. [10] There were 120 governments at Expo, housed in sixty pavilions. [11] __________, thousands of private exhibitors and sponsors co-operated in setting up displays in fifty-three private pavilions. [12] When it was all over on October 27, 1967, more than fifty million people had paid the admission to Expo, almost double the number of people the exhibition had planned to accommodate. FSECC SCESE


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26.

Choose the best introductory sentence for paragraph 3. 1) The undeniable greatness of Expo 67 was predicted by the organizers. 2) The popularity of Expo was anticipated so many countries chose to participate. 3) The countries that participated in Expo 67 either built their own pavilions or combined with other nations to create regional pavilions. 4) Amazingly, the predicted visits of Expo 67 were to surprise everyone.

27.

Which of the following changes is beneficial to the text? 1) 2) 3) 4)

28.

Sentence 1: change “Montreal’s” to “Montreals” Sentence 3: change “Canada—the first” to “Canada, the first” Sentence 4: change “three-way” to “three way” Sentence 12: change “Expo, almost” to “Expo—almost”

In what type of document or context would you most likely find this text? 1) 2) 3) 4)

in an electoral document in a history text in an environmental activist document in a political speech

29. Which word or phrase inserted in the blank of Sentence 11 would help the reader understand the logical sequence of ideas? 1) 2) 3) 4)

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In addition As a matter of fact Yet However


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30.

Which of the following words, if added to the blank in Sentence 3, would better fit the meaning of the sentence? 1) 2) 3) 4)

entrusted bestowed gave awarded

[1] At the turn of the 20th century, watching professional sport was a very popular form of entertainment. [2] In Canada, __________ attention was focused on Tom Longboat, the greatest long-distance runner of his day. [3] Tom Longboat was an Onondaga born in 1877 on the Six Nations Reserve near Brantford, Ontario. [4] As a boy Tom raced at local town field days, and by age 19 he could outrun all of his opponents. [5] In 1906, Longboat burst onto the canadian sporting scene by winning the Hamilton Around-the-Bay race. [6] Longboat had a deceptive running style with long, smooth strides. [7] In 1907 he raced the tough, hilly course of the Boston Marathon, winning with a record time of 2 hours, 21 minutes, 24 seconds. [8] He ended the race 400m ahead of the second place runner. [9] His record was not broken until the course of the Boston Marathon was changed to make it easier. [10] Longboat did not finish the marathon in the 1908 olympics. [11] __________, he won many more marathons, including the “race of the century” in 1909. [12] He was proclaimed the world’s best long-distance runner. [13] Each time Tom Longboat ran, crowds flocked to see him. 31.

Choose where a change in emphasis suggests a change of paragraph should be. 1) 2) 3) 4)

After Sentence 2 After Sentence 3 After Sentence 4 After Sentence 5

32. Which word, inserted in the blank of Sentence 11, would help the reader understand the logical sequence of ideas? 1) 2) 3) 4)

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Consequently However Therefore Accordingly


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33.

Which of the following words, if added to the blank in Sentence 2, would better fit the meaning of the sentence? 1) 2) 3) 4)

34.

tremendous extreme little some

Which change is needed in the text? 1) 2) 3) 4)

Sentence 1: remove the comma after “century” Sentence 5: change “canadian” to “Canadian” Sentence 7: change “21 minutes, 24 seconds” to “21 minutes, and 24 seconds” Sentence 13: change comma after “ran” to a semi-colon

[1] Ask most Canadians to create a list of fifty great Canadians and few, if any, will include the name of Dr. Leonora Howard King. [2] Born Leonora Howard on a farm near Farmersville, Ontario, in 1851, Leonora dreamed of becoming a doctor but faced many obstacles in Canada because medical schools would not admit women in the 1870s. [3] Not easily hindered, she applied and was accepted into the University of Michigan’s Women’s Medical College where she graduated with honours [4] Dr. Howard applied to serve with the Women’s Foreign Missionary Society and was posted to China. [5] At the age of twenty-six, Dr. Howard sailed for China, where she would spend most of her life. [6] Two years after arriving in the Chinese province of Chihli, Dr. Howard was summoned to treat Lady Li, the wife of the provincial ruler. [7] For curing Lady Li, Howard was given part of the Tseng Kuo-fan’s memorial temple, which she used to open China’s first hospital for women and children. [8] She went on to open China’s first Government Medical School for Women after marrying Alex King. [9] The __________ of Dr. Leonora Howard King to Chinese society were recognized by the Empress Dowager, who made her the first Western woman to become an official member of the Chinese elite. [10] In 1895 she also received the Order of the Double Dragon, which elevated her to the status of Chinese royalty. [11] She was now a respected member of the Chinese community. [12] Dr. Leonora Howard King continued her medical and missionary work through war and revolution until 1916, when she retired. [13] On June 30, 1925, fortyseven years after arriving in China, Dr. Howard King died from a virus, at the age of seventy-four.

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35.

Which of the following editorial changes would help maintain focus on the main thrust of the text? 1) 2) 3) 4)

36.

Delete Sentence 5 Reverse the order of Sentences 9 and 10 Delete Sentence 11 In Sentence 13, add the place of death of Dr. Howard King.

If Sentence 7 seems poorly written, which version, from those given below, is the most appropriate for this type of text? 1) For her role in the recovery of Lady Li, Howard was given part of the Tseng Kuofan’s memorial temple by Lady li, which she used to open China’s first hospital for women and children. 2) Lady Li gave Dr. Howard a part of the Tseng Kuo-fan’s memorial temple for saving her, which Dr. Howard used to open China’s first hospital for women and children. 3) For Curing Lady Li, Howard received part of the Tseng Kuo-fan’s memorial temple as thanks from Lady Li; and howard used it to open China’s first hospital. 4) No change needed

37.

Choose the best summary for the text. 1) Dr. Leonora Howard King is almost unknown to most Canadians, but she should not be, since she did many things to improve the quality of life of people in China. After graduating from medical school, she went to China and established a hospital and a medical school for women. The Empress of the time admired her accomplishments and honoured her with many titles. Dr. Howard married Alex King and continued her work. She retired in 1916 and died in 1925. 2) Most Canadians would not be able to say who Dr. Leonora Howard King was. She was born in Ontario but could not study medicine there, so she went to the United States. She graduated with honours, and then joined a missionary society. This society sent her to China, and she ended up spending most of her life there. She saved the life of a provincial ruler, and that started her fame in China. Dr. Howard received many honours. She married Alex King and then opened a new Medical School for women. This brought her to the attention of the Empress Dowager, who gave her titles. Dr. Howard King remained in China, working until 1916, and later dying in 1925. 3) Dr. Leonora Howard King was born in Canada, but studied in the United States since Canadian medical schools did not admit women at that time. After graduating from the University of Michigan with honours, she enlisted in a missionary society and was sent to China. She spent most of her life there and her contributions to Chinese society were recognized by many. She opened China’s first hospital for woman and children, and after her marriage to Alex King she founded China’s first Medical School for women. In recognition for her accomplishments, the Empress Dowager

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bestowed many titles to Dr. Howard King. Leonora retired in 1916 and died in China in 1925. 4) Dr. Leonora Howard King was born in Canada, but had to study in the United States because Canada did not allow women to study medicine. After graduating, she enlisted in a missionary society and was sent to China. She spent most of her life there and her contributions to Chinese society were recognized by many. After her marriage to Alex King, she founded China’s first Medical School for women. In recognition for her contributions, the Empress Dowager bestowed many titles to Dr. Howard King. Leonora continued her work until 1916. She died in China in 1925. 38.

Which word, put in the blank in Sentence 9, best fits the style of the passage? 1) 2) 3) 4)

travails contributions exploits gifts

[1] ____________________ [2] When forests are “clear-cut,” the surrounding soil is no longer __________ in the ground, especially along hillsides and riverbanks. [3] When natural forces such as rain, wind, and sun beat down on this unprotected earth, erosion begins. [4] In hilly areas during rainy seasons, soil is washed away and the “runoff” water carries the soil into streams and riverbeds, causing flooding and creating a water imbalance that can harm marine life as well. [5] Wind erosion due to deforestation __________ the loss of precious topsoil in some arid and semi-arid areas of the world such as in India, China and Africa, where this form of erosion has degraded an estimated 13 million hectares. [6] At least 100 million hectares of tree planting worldwide is necessary to protect the land from wind erosion. [7] The clearing of forests has also been linked to the warming of the earth’s surface—the greenhouse effect. [8] When trees are harvested, carbon dioxide, which is stored in the trees and soil, is released into the atmosphere and absorbs some of the sun’s energy, resulting in a slow but intermittent warming of the earth. [9] This process happens even more quickly if slash-and-burn techniques are used. [10] It is believed that between 1 billion and 2.6 billion tons of carbon dioxide is released annually.

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39.

Which word put in the blank in Sentence 2 best fits the style of the passage? 1) 2) 3) 4)

fixed embedded stuck anchored

40. Choose the sentence that would best fit the blank of Sentence 1, with respect to the writer’s development of the paragraph and text. 1) 2) 3) 4) 41.

Forests are crucial to the earth’s ecosystem. Forests decorate the earth. When forests are grown, they help us breathe better. Pollution destroys our forests.

Which phrase put in the blank in Sentence 5 best fits the passage? 1) 2) 3) 4)

had been causing would cause will cause has caused

42. What change, if any, is needed in the third paragraph to make the style fit the rest of the text in terms of topic and intended audience? 1) 2) 3) 4)

Sentence 7: change linked to attached Sentence 8: change intermittent to steady Sentence 10: change believed to evident No change is needed

Email Date: Sept. 13/04 From: [email protected] To: [email protected] Subject: Alberta Management Development Plan [1] Just as other private sector businesses are doing, we must plan for our future both in the human resources and operational departments. [2] In looking at the current team of Managers in Alberta Region – Alberta Management Committee (AMC), we see that a significant number of positions will be created in the next two to four years. [3] It will be imperative to ensure that we have appropriately skilled and trained engineers and management staff available to move into these FSECC SCESE


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positions in the future. [4] To accomplish this, we need to support our staff internally in their development, look externally when necessary to fill areas of need. [5] __________ there will be a constant need in the future to replenish the workforce and ensure current employees possess the skills required to move to higher-level positions, a twofaceted development plan which includes both external and internal components is being undertaken. [6] A working committee has developed approaches in both these areas with the support and endorsement of the AMC. [7] The objectives of External Sourced Management will be achieved mainly through programs such as the university recruitment of MBA graduates, as well as external hiring. [8] We will of course also continue to conduct closed competitions to offer promotional opportunities for our employees. [9] The department will approach the Internal Sourced Management component through a Managament Development framework creating an association to employees who have career aspirations for the Management positions and who wish to acquire the management competencies required. [10] _____________________ 43. Which word or phrase inserted in the blank of Sentence 5 would help the reader understand the logical sequence of ideas? 1) 2) 3) 4) 44.

As you know Soon Understandably Since

Choose the sentence that should be placed in the blank of Sentence 10 which would best follow the development of the paragraph and of the text. 1) Benefits already acquired will be maintained, so staff changing positions for their training should not fear losing them. 2) We will, of course, not consider all those who aspire to management positions. 3) The current management will play an important role in coaching staff who wish to further develop their career. 4) Interesting seminars will be available to the staff wishing to advance with the company.

45.

What change is necessary in the text? 1) Sentence 4: add as well as before look 2) Sentence 7: add the after objectives of 3) Sentence 8: place also after continue 4) Sentence 9: delete the after approach

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46.

What is the purpose of this Email message? 1) To inform the management of the role it will have to play in the coaching of staff for upcoming openings in management and engineering positions in the company. 2) To advertise upcoming hiring to the general public. 3) To advise human resource personnel of the coming hiring and instruct them on the recruitment plan. 4) To inform the company’s employees of the upper management’s recruitment and internal training plan for the coming growth of the company, and of the need for new management members.

A

[1] Students could only expect one thing when Professor Marshall McLuhan walked into class at the University of Toronto; they would not be bored. [2] Born in Edmonton, Alberta, in 1911, Marshall McLuhan was one of the world’s leading theorists of communication. [3] He is best known for the phrases “the medium is the message” and “global village.”

B

[4] The way people use computers to record and transmit information has had a greater impact on them than has the information they are transmitting via computer. [5] These phrases were McLuhan’s way of explaining that the way information is recorded and transmitted often determines the character of a culture and has a greater influence on people than does the information itself. [6] McLuhan was focusing on the impact of the computer and technology on humanity.

C

[7] The power of Internet technology today is __________. [8] As early as the 1960s, long before the Internet was being used by masses of people, McLuhan realized that the linking of electronic information would turn the world into a “global village.” [9] Geographic and language obstacles have in many cases disappeared with the development of the Internet.

47.

What change is necessary in the text? 1) Sentence 1: change the semi-colon to a colon 2) Sentence 2: remove the comma after 1911 3) Sentence 8: change the comma after 1960s to a semi-colon 4) Sentence 9: add a comma after Geographic

48. What change, if any, is needed in the wording? 1) 2) 3) 4)

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Sentence 1: change could to will Sentence 3: change phrases to idioms Sentence 5: change determines to establishes Sentence 9: change obstacles to barriers


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49.

What is the correct order of the sentences in Paragraph B? 1) 2) 3) 4)

50.

6, 4, 5 5, 6, 4 4, 6, 5 4, 5, 6

What word or phrase, when inserted in the blank of Sentence 7, would make the sentence more appropriate for the text? 1) 2) 3) 4)

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really big almost immeasurable truly gigantic rather far-reaching


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Answers and Categories for WCPT Sample Test #1 CATEGORIES

ANSWERS

1.Organization: paragraph order 2.Content: best title 3.Vocabulary: appropriateness 4.Punctuation: use of comma and semi-colon 5.Register: tense and appropriateness 6.Grammar: flow and style 7.Content: paragraph break 8.Conciseness: redundancies 9.Grammar: use of hyphen 10.Content: best title for text 11.Organization: discourse markers 12.Conciseness: sentence re-wording 13.Grammar: number agreement 14.Organization: discourse markers 15.Register: level appropriateness 16.Vocabulary: avoid confusion 17.Register: appropriate sentence 18.Content: best summary 19.Content: topic sentence for paragraph 20.Organization: sentence order 21.Content: unnecessary information 22.Organization: best sentence 23.Content: choose summary 24.Organization: discourse marker 25.Grammar: use of possessive 26.Content: intro sentence for paragraph 27.Punctuation: use of dash 28.Register: type of language 29.Organization: discourse markers 30.Vocabulary: preciseness 31.Content: paragraph break 32.Organization: discourse markers 33.Vocabulary: richness 34.Grammar: capitalization 35.Content: change for consistent focus 36.Conciseness: most apt wording FSECC SCESE

3 2 1 1 4 2 3 1 3 2 4 1 4 2 1 3 2 3 1 4 2 1 3 4 2 3 4 2 1 4 3 2 1 2 3 4 49


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37.Content: choose summary 38.Vocabulary: preciseness 39.Register: level of word choice 40.Content: key idea 41.Grammar: correct tense 42.Vocabulary: preciseness 43.Organization: discourse markers 44.Organization: best sentence 45.Organization: discourse markers 46.Content: purpose of message 47.Punctuation: colon 48.Vocabulary 49.Organization: order of sentences 50.Register: appropriate phrase

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3 2 4 1 4 2 4 3 1 4 1 4 2 2


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WCPT Sample Test #2 - 50 Questions Note: The order of the sentences in the second paragraph have been purposely modified

A

B

[1] Antonine Maillet was born in Buctouche, New Brunswick, in 1929, and began her education in New Brunswick, later attending university in Quebec. [2] For many years, Maillet worked in relative obscurity, teaching and writing. [3] Her first novel, Pointe-auxCoques, was all but ignored when it first appears in 1958. [4] __________, Maillet has come to be acknowledged as the leading Acadian writer, primarily because of her most famous work, La Sagouine, a play consisting of a series of 16 monologues delivered by a 72-year-old Acadian cleaning woman. [5] The character narrates her personal history, a life lived in the Acadian culture and countryside. [6] Originally written for radio, the play achieved its greatest success on stage, opening in Montreal in 1972. [7] Pélagie-la-Charrette has the distinction of being the first work by a writer who is not a native of France to win the Prix Goncourt. [8] Published in 1979, this novel chronicles the British expulsion of French settlers in the 1750s. [9] Another work in which the author explores her Acadian roots is the ambitious Pélagie-la-Charrette. [10] Maillet has also received recognition of her work in Canada. [11] More recently, she was made a Companion of the Order of Canada. [12] Her 1972 novel, Don l’Orignal, also won a Governor General’s Award.

1.

Which of the following alternatives is the correct order for the sentences of Paragraph B? 1) 7, 8, 12, 11, 9, 11 2) 8, 12, 7, 9, 10, 11 3) 9, 10, 11, 8, 7, 12 4) 9, 8, 7, 10, 12, 11

2.

Which of the following changes is necessary in the text? 1) Sentence 1: change attending to to attend 2) Sentence 3: change appears to appeared 3) Sentence 6: change written to wrote 4) Sentence 12: change won to did win

3.

Which word or phrase, if inserted in the blank in Sentence 4, would help the reader better understand the logical sequence of the writer’s ideas? 1) Consequently 2) Despite this 3) However 4) Later on

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4.

Which of the following is the most appropriate title for the text? 1) Antonine Maillet: An Award-winning Acadian Writer 2) Acadian Writer Wins Awards 3) The Writing Excellence of Canadians 4) The First Canadian to win the Prix Goncourt

5.

Choose the summary for the text which you believe best reflects the content, writer’s style, purpose, and intended audience. 1) Antonine Maillet is an Acadian writer of renown. Although her earlier works were not recognized, she gained fame with her play La Sagouine and today is acknowledged as an eminent writer. The monologues of an Acadian cleaning woman who narrates her life was written for radio but was a huge success on stage. Maillet won several awards and had the honour of being the first writer who is not a native of France to win the Prix Goncourt. 2) Antonine Maillet has been acknowledged as the most eminent Acadian writer, winning several awards, including the Prix Goncourt, the Order or Canada, and a Governor General’s award. Although her early works were ignored, she gained her renown with La Sagouine, a radio play that had immense success in Montreal. The play is a narrative of the life of an Acadian cleaning woman, told in 16 monologues. She later added to her fame with the novels Pélagie-la-Charette and Don l’Orignal. 3) Antonine Maillet is the most known Acadian writer. She won many prizes. Her novels and plays won awards. Her radio play, La Sagouine, was produced in Montreal and gave her much fame. The novel Pélagie-la-Charette won her more fame when she received the Prix Goncourt, and to top it off, she won the Governor General’s Award with Don l’Orignal. 4) Antonine Maillet is a great Canadian writer. She won 3 awards, including the Prix Goncourt. This was a first, because until then, no writer not a native of France ever won it. Her most famous novels are La Sagouine, Pélagie-la-Charette, and Don l’Orignal. She also won the Governor General’s Award.

[1] Biologists define pollution as an undesirable change in the characteristics of an ecosystem. [2] This change can be physical, chemical, or biological and means that pollution can injure or kill living organisms. [3] Industrialization and human population growth have been cited as the underlying causes of pollution, making it a global problem. [4] Although air pollution has always existed in some form or other, pollution of the air has become a significant problem since the Industrial Revolution. [5] ________________________ [6] Industries using coal, oil, and other fossil fuels spew out large amounts of chemical compounds. [7] Despite regulations imposed by many governments, we still witness smokestacks belching out clouds of soot and other pollutants in the early mornings and late afternoons. [8] Automobiles, a necessity in most countries today, are also a significant contributor to air pollution. [9] __________ air pollution control on motor vehicles in most environmentally conscious countries, the city dweller faces high risks of respiratory illnesses due to carbon FSECC SCESE


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emissions from vehicle exhaust. [10] Many cities suffer under a yellowish haze that lingers overhead—a form of air pollution known as photochemical smog. [11] Cars give off gases and trucks also, and then the gases react with the oxygen in the air and the rays of the sun to produce dangerous chemicals. [12] Add industrial solvents and spilled or unburned gasoline to the air, and a dense smog will settle over the urban landscape. Photochemical smog has been linked to eye irritation, respiratory problems, and cancer in humans. [13] More than 1.5 billions people worldwide breathe unhealthy city air daily, and at least 800 of them die prematurely because of that pollution. 6.

Which word or phrase, if inserted in the blank in Sentence 9, would help the reader better understand the logical sequence of the writer’s ideas? 1) With 2) Despite 3) Because of 4) Along with

7.

Which of the following changes is necessary in the text? 1) Sentence 2: change “physical, chemical, or biological ” to “physical; chemical; or biological, ” 2) Sentence 7: add a comma after “smokestacks” 3) Sentence 10: change “overhead—a form” overhead, a form” 4) Sentence 13: change “billions” to “billion”

8.

Which of the following is the most appropriate title for the text? 1) Air Pollution and Smog 2) Respiratory Problems: A Global Problem 3) Air Pollution: Some Sources and Some Effects on Health 4) How Industry and Motor Vehicles Cause Cancer

9.

Choose the sentence for the blank in Sentence 5 which best fits the style and topic of the text. 1) Cars cause most of the air pollution today. 2) Most air pollution today is generated by industry and motor vehicles. 3) Motor vehicles pollute as much as industries using coal and oil. 4) Industrialization destroys the environment.

10.

If Sentence 11 seems to be poorly written, which of the following sentences would best fit the style of the text? 1) The gases exuded by motor vehicles combine and react with atmospheric oxygen and the sun’s rays to generate and produce dangerous chemicals. 2) Cars and trucks give off gases and these gases react with oxygen and the sun and then produce dangerous chemistry. 3) Cars and trucks give off gases which react with oxygen and the sun’s rays to produce dangerous chemicals. 4) No change is needed.

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[1] When Professor Marshall McLuhan walked into class, students at The University of Toronto knew to expect one thing; they would not be bored. [2] Born in Edmonton, Alberta, in 1911, Marshall McLuhan was one of the world’s leading theorists of communication. [3] He is best known for the phrases “the medium is the message” and “ global village.” [4] These were McLuhan’s way of explaining how information is recorded and transmitted often determines the character of a culture and has a greater influance on people than does the information itself. [5] He was focusing on the impact of the computer and technology on humanity. [6] The way people use computers to record and __________ informations has had a greater impact on them than has the informations they are transmitting via computer. [7] The power of internet technology today is almost immeasurable. [8] As early as the 1960s, long before the internet was being used by masses of people, McLuhan realized that the linking of electronic information would turn the world into a “global village.” [9] Geographic and language barriers have in many cases disappeared with the development of the internet. 11.

Which of the following changes is necessary in the text? 1) Sentence 1: change the semi-colon to a colon 2) Sentence 2: change “world’s” to “worlds” 3) Sentence 5: change “focusing” to “focused” 4) Sentence 8: change “realized” to “realizes”

12.

Choose the word for the blank in Sentence 6 which best fits the passage. 1) transmit 2) emit 3) convey 4) dispatch 1) Which of the following changes is necessary in the text? 1) Sentence 1: change “walked” to “walks” 2) Sentence 3: change “phrases” to “phrases’ ” 3) Sentence 6: change “informations” to “information” 4) Sentence 9: change “disappeared” to “disappear”

13.

14.

Which of the following changes is necessary in the text? 1) Sentence 1: change communication to comunication 2) Sentence 2: change influance to influence 3) Sentence 7: change immeasurable to imeasurable 4) Sentence 9: change development to development

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[1] Canadian-born Reginald Fessenden is best known for his invention of the modulation of radio waves and the fathometer. [2] He had been trained as an electrician. [3] He _______ for Thomas Edison, who wanted to make him a chemist, but Reginald Fessenden protested. [4] Edison replied, “I have had a lot of chemists . . . but none of them can get results.” [5] Fessenden turned out to be an excellent chemist, working with insulation for electrical wires. [6] He left Edisons’ lab around 1889 and patented several inventions of his own, including patents for telephony and telegraphy. [7] At the end of the 19th century, people communicated by radio using Morse code—sputtering dots and dashes that trained radio operators could decode into a message. [8] Fessenden _______ all that. [9] In 1900, he transmitted the world’s first voice message at Cobb Island, and on Christmas Eve of 1906, ships off the Atlantic coast, with Fessenden-designed equipment, broadcast the first trans-Atlantic voice transmission in history. [10] Fessenden held over 500 patents and won Scientific American's Gold Medal in 1929 for the fathometer, a tool to measure the depth of water beneath a ship's keel. 15.

Which of the following changes would improve the flow of the text? 1) Specify what a keel is in Sentence 10 2) Remove “and on Christmas Eve of 1906” in Sentence 9 3) Add a comma after “telephony” in Sentence 6 4) Delete Sentence 2

16.

Which of the following changes is necessary in the text? 1) Sentence 1: change “Canadian-born” to “Canadian born” 2) Sentence 6: change “Edisons’ ” to “Edison’s ” 3) Sentence 7: change “code—sputtering”, to “code: sputtering” 4) Sentence 9: change “Fessenden-designed” to “Fessenden designed”

17.

Choose the word for the blank in Sentence 3 which best fits the passage. 1) slaved 2) toiled 3) worked 4) laboured

18.

Choose the word or phrase for the blank in Sentence 8 which best fits the passage. 1) had changed 2) changed 3) will change 4) changes

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[1] During the last decade of the 20th century, the increasing use of the Internet as a _______ of information and communication has prompted some to predict the disappearance of the printed word. [2] This exhibition is meant neither as a eulogy of printing, nor as a retrospective look at a form of communication about to be replaced, but rather as a reminder that printing in Canada, since its beginning in Halifax in 1751, has played a major role in the lives of Canadians, and that it will continue doing so. [3] The exhibition shows two aspects of the printed word: the tool of learning and the communication of public information. [4] The first concerns books people owned, used, read and re-read, wrote in, and often passed on to their children or friends. [5] The book became an heirloom. The second type concerns the printed object posted for public reading, and which contained timely information designed to be shared by many: the broadside. [6] Before Confederation, it was often more profitable for book dealers to import books then to print them. [7] __________, the books displayed here show that printing in Canada was healthy and its products diverse. [8] Limits had to be set, and certain categories of printed objects, worthy of an exhibition of their own, were restricted to representative examples. [9] Popular literature and newspapers were given limited attention even though newspapers were the most widely read printed material in the country in the second half of the 19th century. 19.

What kind of text would this passage most likely be found in? 1) In a political speech 2) In a history text 3) In an electoral document 4) In a newspaper article

20.

Choose the word for the blank in Sentence 1 which best fits the passage. 1) tool 2) panoply 3) source 4) way

21.

Choose the best introductory sentence for Paragraph 4. 1) To attempt to summarize the role of printing in the lives of Canadians in a single exhibition is, to say the least, an ambitious undertaking. 2) The exhibit contained absolutely everything produced in Canada. 3) Only newspapers were restricted in their displays, because there are too much of them for the exhibition. 4) Printers had to restrict themselves in the materials they printed, and thus ignored much of the popular literature.

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22.

Which of the following changes is necessary in the text? 1) Sentence 2: change “Canadians” to “canadians” 2) Sentence 3: change the colon after “word” to a comma 3) Sentence 4: change “re-read” to “re read” 4) Sentence 6: change “then” to “than”

23.

Which of the following changes would improve the flow of the text? 1) Sentence 2: remove “has played a major role in the lives of Canadians” 2) Sentence 4: add “type” after “first” 3) Sentence 8: remove comma after “own” 4) Sentence 9: put “newspapers” before “Popular literature”

24. Choose the best word or phrase for the blank in Sentence 7 to follow the logical sequence of the text. 1) Nevertheless 2) Consequently 3) As a result 4) As a fact Email Date: Sept. 13/04 From: [email protected] To: [email protected] Subject: Merger Development [1] As the new year approaches we are heading into a new era. [2] The demand for our product is growing fast and our ability to supply this demand will not last long. [3] To continue satisfying our customers and avoid a production ceiling, we have developed a merger proposal with TheirsComp, a similar manufacturing plant located in Mississauga, Ontario. [4] This will give us manufacturing facilities in the eastern part of the country and it will increase our production capabilities by 90 percent. [5] The merger will also reduce shipping costs to our clients. [6] Also, this merger will increase our speed of delivery. [7] Our customers will be very happy about the speed of delivery. [8] Given that there will be a need to train our new partners, there will be an opportunity for qualified employees to travel to Ontario to help develop an efficient workforce there. [9] ________, you will be asked to prepare a list of those interested in becoming trainers. 25.

What change is useful in the text? 1) Sentence 1: add a comma after “approaches” 2) Sentence 3: add ‘In order” at the beginning of the sentence 3) Sentence 8: change comma after “partners” to a colon 4) Sentence 9: change “interested” to “interesting”

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26. Which word or phrase inserted in the blank of Sentence 9 would help the reader understand the logical sequence of ideas? 1) However 2) For that matter 3) Yet 4) Consequently 27.

If the second paragraph seems poorly written, which of the following would better suit the style of the text? 1) The merger will give us a manufacturing plant in Ontario and the plant will help us increase the production. Shipping will be less and be faster because we will be closer to our customers. Our customers are going to be very happy about this. 2) It is because of the merger will acquire us manufacturing facilities in Ontario that we will be able to increase production by 90 percent, which will reduce our shipping costs also. The easterly location will also increase our speed of delivery in the East edge of the country. We will therefore have some very happy customers. 3) This merger will give us manufacturing facilities in the eastern part of the country and increase our production capabilities by 90 percent. It will also reduce shipping costs and increase our speed of delivery. The faster service will make our customers very happy. 4) No change needed.

28.

What is the purpose of this message? 1) To inform the employees of the merger with a new manufacturing plant and the advantages that such a merger will have on the company. 2) To inform the management of the upcoming merger, the advantage of the change, and the role management will have to play in selecting training staff for the new manufacturing plant. 3) To explain the coming merger to the employees and that they will have a chance to participate in the training of the staff at the new facilities. 4) To explain to the company’s clients to that the merger will improve the service they have been receiving to date.

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[1] The name of Norman Bethune is unfamiliar to many Canadians, yet in China he is one of the nation’s most respected heroes. [2] Born in Gravenhurst, Ontario, in 1890, and educated at The University of Toronto, Bethune’s travels took him to Detroit, Montreal, Spain, and finally to China. [3] As a young man, he served as a stretcher bearer in World War I. [4] During World War 1, he was severely wounded in the leg by shrapnel at the second battle of Ypres, Bethune was sent home to Canada, where he finished his medical studies. [5] During the Spanish Civil War, he was greatly _______ to see the number of soldiers who died on stretchers from loss of blood. [6] Determined to stem the loss of life, Bethune designed the first mobile blood-transfusion service, a service that has since saved thousands of lives. [7] Later Bethune moved to China to practice his medicine and turned his attention to the elaboration of a mobile medical team, a mobile team that would get medical care out to the soldiers in the field instead of waiting for the soldiers to reach the medical centres. [8] The soldiers would get medical attention in the field. [9] Bethune’s idea would develop into the Mobile Army Surgical Hospitals (M.A.S.H.) Units. [10] In October of 1939 while completing an operation, Norman Bethune suffered a minor cut on his finger and infection sets in. [11] On November 12, 1939, he died from this infection. [12] Despite spending less than two years in China, he acquired hero status, rarely given to foreigners. 29. What change would improve the consistent focus of the text? 1) Delete Sentence 11 2) Sentence 4: reverse the order of “severely” and “wounded” 3) Reverse the order of Sentences 7 and 9 4) Delete Sentence 9 30. Choose the word for the blank in Sentence 5 which is most consistent with the writer’s style and intended audience. 1) upset 2) deranged 3) disturbed 4) annoyed 31.

Which of the following changes would improve the flow of the text? 1) Sentence 1: remove the comma after “Canadians” 2) Sentence 4: remove “During World War 1” 3) Sentence 9: Change “Bethune’s” to Bethunes’ ” 4) Sentence 11: delete the sentence

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32.

Which of the following changes are necessary? 1) Sentence 2: remove the comma after “Gravenhurst” 2) Sentence 3: change the comma after “man” to a colon 3) Sentence 7: change “team, a mobile” to “team; a mobile” 4) Sentence 10: add a comma after “1939”

33.

If Sentence 7 seems to be poorly written, which version, from those given below, is the most appropriate for this type of text? 1) Bethune’s life took him to China and there he initiated a mobile medical team to give medical care to the soldiers while they were still in the field instead of waiting for them to get to the medical centre for care from the medical team. 2) Bethune later moved to China to practice medicine and turned his attention to the development of a mobile medical team, which would get medical care out to the soldiers in the field rather than waiting for the soldiers to reach the medical centres. 3) Bethune came to China to start a moving medical group that could go in the field to help soldiers when they are injured. 4) No change is needed.

34.

Which of the following changes is necessary in the text? 1) Sentence 1: change “nation’s” to “nations” 2) Sentence 3: change “served” to “was serving” 3) Sentence 6: change “has” to “had” 4) Sentence 10: change “sets” to “set”

NOTE: The order of the paragraphs has been purposely modified.

A

[1] In the North, the temperate forests that once covered 80 percent of Europe have all but disappeared. [2] Early settlers cut trees for their basic needs, however, as industrialization took hold, more and more trees were cut for commercial purposes. [3] Forest carpets, once sheltering plant and animal _______, are gone forever in many parts of Europe.

B

[4] Pristine stands of forests are now a rarity in most of North America as well. [5] As the timber industry grows, these virgin forests meet their fate, transformed from giants of nature into log cabins, disposable chopsticks, writing paper, and a host of other products. [6] About two-thirds of the United State forest is commercial timberland, where loggers “clear-cut” whole areas of forest. [7] This is done by cutting every tree and then choosing the best timber, leaving or burning what is left. [8] ____________________ [9] Land managed in this way supports little wildlife and reduces soil fertility.

C

[10] Some 10,000 years ago, the Earth boasted more than 6.2 billion hectares of forest cover. [11] Estimates by the World Resource Institute state that forest cover now stands at less than 4.2 billion hectares, a third less than existed in pre-agricultural times. [12] Deforestation, the term used for the cutting down of forests, is causing much environmental harm, _______ this problem is still ignored by the majority of people.

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35. Choose the appropriate order of the paragraphs. 1) C, A, B 2) B, A, C 3) B, C, A 4) A, C, B 36.

Which of the following words, if added in the blank of Sentence 3, would better fit the sentence and the text? 1) shelters 2) homes 3) dens 4) habitats

37.

What change is useful for emphasis in the text? 1) Sentence 1: remove “but” 2) Sentence 5: change “fate, transformed” to “fate—transformed” 3) Sentence 6: change “two-thirds” to “two thirds” 4) Sentence 11: change “stands” to “stand”

38.

What change is needed in the text? 1) Sentence 6: change “United State” to “United States’ ” 2) Sentence 6: change “United State” to “United State’s” 3) Sentence 11: change “World” to “Worlds” 4) Sentence 11: change “World” to “Worlds’ ”

39.

Choose the sentence, to insert in the blank of Sentence 8, that would best fit the development of the text. 1) You often see this kind of clear cutting on tree farms that grow hybrid fast-growing trees that are fertilized, and then sprayed with pesticides, and finally harvested five years later. 2) The clear cutting happens on tree farms that have hybrid trees that growing quickly, that are fed fertilizers, that are sprayed with pesticides, and that are cut down in five years. 3) This method of clear cutting is commonly done on tree farms where fast-growing hybrid trees are planted, fertilized, sprayed with pesticides, and harvested within five years. 4) None of the sentences is appropriate.

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40. Which of the following choices, when added to the blank in Sentence 12, best fits the meaning and development of the sentence? 1) consequently 2) as a result 3) and of course 4) but [1] Sir George Cayley, considered the father of aerodynamics, did the following: wing design experimentation; distinguished between lift and drag; and formulated concepts of vertical tail surfaces, steering rudders, rear elevators, and air screws. [2] Cayley worked to discover a way that man could fly. [3] He designed many different versions of gliders that used body movement for control. [4] A young boy, whose name is not known, was the first to fly one of Cayley’s gliders, the first glider capable of carrying a human. [5] For over 50 years, George Cayley continued to make improvements to his gliders. [6] He changed the shape of the wings so that the air would flow over the wings correctly, and later designed a tail for the gliders to help with the stability. [7] He also tried a biplane design to add strength to the glider. [8] Cayley recognized that there would be a need for engine power for longer flights. [9] _______, he wrote “On Aerial Navigation”, showing that a fixed wing aircraft with a power system for propulsion, and a tail to assist in the control of the airplane, would be the best way to allow man to fly. 41.

Choose the place in the text where a shift of emphasis or topic suggests that a new paragraph should have been started. 1) After Sentence 2 2) After Sentence 3 3) After Sentence 7 4) After Sentence 8

42.

If Sentence 3 seems poorly written, choose the version that would improve it. 1) He invented many glider versions making use of the human body to control it. 2) He designed many different versions of gliders that used the movements of the body to control. 3) He made different kinds of gliders and they were made to use the human body to control them. 4) No change is needed.

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43.

Which of the following choices, when added to the blank in Sentence 9, best fits the meaning and development of the paragraph? 1) For example 2) As a result 3) However 4) Yet

44.

If Sentence 2 seems poorly written, choose the version that would improve it in keeping with the style of the text. 1) Cayley worked to discover means how men could fly. 2) Sir George Cayley worked hard to find a way to make man be able to fly. 3) Cayley toiled to discover which design would enable man to arise into the skies. 4) No change is needed.

45. Choose the summary for the text which you believe best reflects the content, writer’s style, purpose, and intended audience. 1) Sir George Cayley is considered the father of aerodynamics because of his experimentation and his elaboration of many aerodynamic concepts. He never stopped designing new gliders and eventually went further, writing a book on engine-powered flight. 2) Sir George Cayley invented many glider designs and elaborated many aspects of aerodyanamics. The first glider to take a human to the sky was his design. He never continually worked on improving the design. He could see that an engine-powered design would be needed for longer flights, and this prompted him to write a book on the subject. 3) George Cayley did a lot for aerodynamics. He studied many sides of it and designed all sorts of gliders. A boy was the first to fly his glider. He continued to invent gliders and wrote a book on flying a plane with an engine in it for longer trips. 4) Sir George Cayley designed marvelous gliding aircraft, and these designs elevated him to the title of father of aerodynamics. The many designs he made throughout his life revolutionized flying, and his ideas on engine-assisted flights were penned and published for others to read.

[1] The game of basketball was created by a Canadian, Dr. James Naismith, in 1891. [2] While teaching physical education at the YMCA college at Springfield, Massachusetts, Dr. Naismith decided to invent a new _____ for his students to play between the baseball and hockey seasons. [3] The ball used was a soccer ball, while the nets were peach baskets nailed to the gymnasium balcony. [4] That was the beginning of basketball.

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[5] The first rule book was published in 1892, with 13 basic rules, and no dribbling. [6] In 1900, the iron ring and bottomless net replaced the peach baskets. [7] The game caught on so quickly that in 1894, the Montreal YMCA started its first basketball house league and by 1900 hosted junior, intermediate, and senior leagues. [8] By 1907, the Canadian Amateur Athletic Union appointed a Dominion Basketball Committee as part of its structure. [9] Dr. James Naismith was a modest man. [10] He had university degrees in medicine, theology, and physical education, but never sought fame and fortune from his new invention. [11] _______ he was Canadian, his memory is best preserved in Massachusetts, at the basketball Hall of Fame. 46.

What change would improve the flow of the text? 1) Delete Sentence 4 2) Reverse the order of Sentences 3 and 4 3) Reverse the order of Sentences 7 and 8 4) Sentence 11: Change “at the basketball” to “in the basketball”

47.

Choose the place in the text where a shift of emphasis or topic suggests that a new paragraph should have been started. 1) At the beginning of Sentence 3 2) At the beginning of Sentence 7 3) At the beginning of Sentence 8 4) No paragraph break needed

48. Which of the following choices, when added to the blank in Sentence 11, best fits the meaning and development of the sentence? 1) Because 2) However 3) Since 4) Although 49. Which change is necessary? 1) Sentence 2: change “college at Springfield” to “college in Springfield” 2) Sentence 5: change “and no dribbling” to “ and with no dribbling” 3) Sentence 7: change “started its” to “started it’s” 4) Sentence 10: change “fame and fortune” to “fame or fortune” 50. Which of the following choices, when added to the blank in Sentence 2, best fits the style of the text? 1) entertainment 2) pastime 3) sport 4) hobby FSECC SCESE


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Answers and Categories for WCPT Sample Test #2 CATEGORIES 1. Organization: sentence order 2. Grammar: tense 3. Organization: discourse markers 4. Content: best title for text 5. Content: summary of text 6. Organization: discourse markers 7. Grammar: agreement 8. Content: best title 9. Content: best sentence 10. Conciseness: re-wording 11. Punctuation: use of colon 12. Register: appropriate term 13. Vocabulary: group noun 14. Vocabulary: spelling 15. Content: irrelevant sentence 16. Grammar: use of apostrophe 17. Register: correct level 18. Grammar: correct tense 19. Content: type of text 20. Vocabulary: preciseness 21. Content: intro sentence for paragraph 22. Grammar: right word 23. Grammar: parallel usage 24. Organization: discourse markers 25. Punctuation: use of comma 26. Organization: discourse markers 27. Conciseness: avoids choppy, repetitive writing 28. Content: purpose of text 29. Content: irrelevant sentence 30. Register: appropriate word 31. Conciseness: redundancies 32. Punctuation: use of comma and colon 33. Content: re-write sentence 34. Grammar: agreement 35. Organization: paragraph order 36. Vocabulary: appropriate term 37. Punctuation: use of dash FSECC SCESE


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ANSWERS 4 2 3 1 2 2 4 3 2 3 1 3 1 2 4 2 3 2 4 3 1 4 2 1 1 4 3 2 4 3 2 4 2 4 1 4 2 65 E: [email protected] E: [email protected] E: [email protected] ©

38. Grammar: use of apostrophe & agreement 39. Register: sentence best suited 40. Organization/content: discourse marker & meaning 41. Organization: paragraph break 42. Register: sentence appropriateness 43. Organization: discourse markers 44. Register: sentence appropriateness 45. Content: summary 46. Content: irrelevant sentence 47. Organization: paragraph break 48. Organization: discourse markers 49. Grammar: preposition 50. Vocabulary: appropriate term

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WCPT Sample Test #3 - 50 Questions Note: The order of the paragraphs has been purposely modified.

[1] Despite the best efforts of the CBC and the Massey Commission, Canadians fell in love with American programs. [2] Television introduced many new American stars and heroes—including Davy Crockett, Ed Sullivan, and Elvis Presley: to Canadians. [3] Although Canadian Broadcasters did not have the money to compete with American programs, several successful Canadian programs hit the airwaves in the 1950s, including Front Page Challenge, Tugboat Annie, and Hockey Night in Canada.

A

[4] Few technological innovations have affected society as television has. [5] Many people claimed that the introduction of television sets into Canadian homes weakened community organizations, reduced significantly the amount of conversation between family members, and distracted children from reading and doing their homework. [6] Yet, despite the dire warnings of some, the “idiot box,” as the television was called by its critics, did not ruin Canadian society. [7] _______, in many ways the television age contributed to a cultural boom in North America and placed information at everyone’s fingertips.

B

[8] Although television was first pioneered in Britain in 1926, the Depression and World War II delayed its _______. [9] By the early 1950s, television was beginning to make its way into North America. [10] _______________________ [11] Its’ goal was to provide Canadian programs that would serve the interests of national unity. [12] A year earlier, the Massey Commission had argued in favour of government controlling television rather than following the American approach, which placed broadcasting in the hands of business.

C

1.

Which of the following choices, if inserted in the blank in Sentence 8, would best fit the text? 1) development 2) growth 3) elaboration 4) invention

2.

Choose the sentence that should be placed in the space for Sentence 10 which would best follow the development of the paragraph and of the text. 1) It was in 1952 that the Canadian Broadcasting Corporation (CBC), which had begun during the 1930s to ensure that Canadians had good quality Canadian radio programming, started to broadcast the television programs. 2) In 1952 it was the Canadian Broadcasting Corporation (CBC), that had begun airing radio programming during the 1930s to promise quality Canadian radio shows, began broadcasting television programs.

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3) In 1952 the Canadian Broadcasting Corporation (CBC), which had been established during the 1930s to ensure quality Canadian radio programming, began broadcasting television programs. 4) The Canadian Broadcasting Corporation (CBC), a company that had been established in the 1930s to assure quality radio programming of Canadian origin, set off to emit television programs. 3.

Which word or phrase inserted in the space in Sentence 7 would help the reader understand the logical sequence of ideas? 1) In addition 2) In fact 3) As a result 4) Therefore

4.

Which of the following changes is necessary in the text? 1) Sentence 2: change “Presley: to Canadians” to “Presley— to Canadians” 2) Sentence 5: change “reading and” to “reading; and” 3) Sentence 7: change “age contributed” to “age, contributed” 4) Sentence 12: change “earlier, the Massey” to “earlier the Massey”

5.

Choose the correct order for the paragraphs of the text. 1) A, C, B 2) A, B, C 3) B, A, C 4) C, A, B

6.

Which of the following changes is necessary in the text? 1) Sentence 6: change “did not” to “didn’t” 2) Sentence 8: change “Depression” to “depression” 3) Sentence 11: change “Its’ goal” to “Its goal” 4) Sentence 12: change “than” to “then”

[1] Canada’s first female Chief Justice, Beverley McLachlin, was sworn into office on 17 January, 2000. [2] Dressed in her court robes, she addressed dignitaries, family, and friends. [3] McLachlin spoke of the value Canadians place on fairness as the primary reason for her appointment. [4] Canada is a country, __________, where a person could rise from a family without money or connections to become the country’s top judge. [5] Beverley McLachlin described a childhood of financial struggle on an Alberta farm near Pincher Creek. [6] She attended law school at the University of Alberta and practised law in Vancouver at a time when there were few women judges. [7] She was appointed as a judge in British Columbia and rose to be the chief justice of the BC Supreme Court in 1988.

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[8] Prime Minister Mulroney appointed Beverley McLachlin as one of the nine judges of the Supreme Court of Canada in 1989. [9] During her time on the bench she earned a reputation as a __________ judge who is not afraid of supporting controversial rulings. [10] Chief Justice McLachlin’s appointment to the position of chief justice in 1999 came at a time when the Supreme Court was finding itself increasingly enmeshed in controversy. [11] Some complained that the court was tampering in areas that should be left to elected legislators. [12] She pledged to run a court that ________________ issues widely before making judgements. 7.

Which of the following phrases, if added to the blank in Sentence 4, would better fit the text? 1) she put forth 2) she said 3) reinforced 4) proclaimed

8.

Which phrase inserted in the blank in Sentence 12 best fits the passage? 1) will debate and discuss 2) debated and discussed 3) debates and discusses 4) would debate and discuss

9.

Which of the following is the most appropriate title for the text? 1) Beverley McLachlin and Legal Issues 2) How a Great Role Model Can Come from Anywhere 3) Beverley McLachlin: First Female Chief Justice and Role Model for Women 4) Beverley McLachlin: How Women Have Achieved

10.

Which of the following words, if added to the blank in Sentence 9, would fit the meaning of the sentence? 1) thoughtful 2) pensive 3) pondering 4) deranged

11.

Which of the following changes is useful in the text? 1) Sentence 4: change “country’s” to “countrys” 2) Sentence 9: add a comma after bench 3) Sentence 10: change “McLachlin’s” to “McLachlin” 4) No change is necessary.

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12.

In what type of document or context would you most likely find this text? 1) in a history text 2) in a political speech 3) in a psychology text 4) in an electoral document

[1] Art was changing as the 20th century was starting, and especially painting was also changing much with the old rules breaking down and the artists around the world experimenting with new techniques and styles of expressing themselves. [2] The Impressionists, for example, wanted to express their feelings for their subjects through their art. [3] They were less concerned about representing their subjects to look exactly as they were. [4] Canadian artists, particularly members of the Group of Seven, were influenced by the Impressionists. [5] ______________________ [6] They took their inspiration from the Canadian landscape; the pictures portraying Canada as a land of spectacular open spaces, rivers, lakes, and forests. [7] Some of the most inspiring pictures painted by the Group of Seven were produced on sketching trips in northern Ontario, but members of the Group also illustrated other parts of Canada including areas of Quebec, Nova Scotia, and the Rocky Mountains. [8] The painters used _______, strong colours to portray the forces of nature and the paint was often applied thickly with vivid brush strokes. 13.

Which of the following changes would improve the flow of the text? 1) Sentence 2: add “ and their life” after “art” 2) Eliminate Sentence 4 3) Sentence 6: change “They took” to “The Group of Seven took” 4) Reverse the order of Sentence 7 and Sentence 8

14.

Which word, inserted in the blank in Sentence 8, best fits the style of the passage? 1) incandescent 2) bright 3) glamourous 4) pale

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15.

If Sentence 8 seems poorly written, which version, from those given below, is the most appropriate for this type of text? 1) At the turn of the 20th, century, all of the art world, most particularly painting, was changing a lot, with the rules disappearing and all the artists worldwide experimenting with new techniques and ways of expressing themselves. 2) At the turn of the 20th century, art and especially painting, was changing considerably; old rules breaking down; artists around the world experimenting with new techniques and ways of expressing themselves. 3) The turn of the 20th century brought blinding changes in painting styles and those styles had artists elaborating new techniques and rules for the expression of their emotions through art. 4) No change is needed.

16.

Choose the best sentence to put in the space as Sentence 5 to introduce the paragraph. 1) The members of the Group of Seven were determined to create art that dealt with the Canadian experience. 2) Beautiful sceneries became the focus of many paintings. 3) The Group of Seven produced paintings of urban life. 4) Foliage was the focus of the members of the group, acting as a representation of peace.

[1] Joseph-Armand Bombardier was the son of a prosperous farmer in Valcourt, Quebec, and was 15 when he built his first snow machine in 1922. [2] His father had given him an automobile and young Armand removed the engine and mounted it on the family sleigh. [3] He attached a hand-made propeller to the engine drive shaft. [4] To the astonishment of his neighbours, Armand and his brother Leopold raced this primitive snowmobile through the town. [5] In 1934, Bombardier’s son Yvon died of appendicitis during a raging winter storm, while his snow machines were lying in pieces in the garage. [6] There was no way to transport his son to the hospital. [7] Spurred on by the death of his son, Bombardier set out to work on developing a machine that would end the isolation of winter. [8] The next year he goes through Quebec taking his invention with him. [9] Everywhere he went he became front-page news. [10] He was granted a patent for his snowmobile, which could hold 7 passengers. [11] It cost $7500 and Bombardier sold 50 of them as buses and medical transport in the winter. [12] The two passengers sport model we know today was introduced in 1959. [13] __________, Bombardier’s inventions have been used around the world.

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17.

Which of the following is the most appropriate title for the text? 1) Joseph-Armand Bombardier, a Versatile Inventor and Businessman 2) Bombardier and the Design of the Snowmobile 3) Defying the Snow 4) The Invention of the Skidoo

18.

Which of the following changes is needed in the text? 1) Sentence 1: change “built” to “constructs” 2) Sentence 7: change “set out” to “sets out” 3) Sentence 8: change “goes” to “travelled” 4) Sentence 12: change “was introduced” to “is introduced”

19.

Which change is needed in the text? 1) Sentence 1: remove the comma after “Valcourt” 2) Sentence 5: change “snow machines” to “snow-machines” 3) Sentence 7: add a comma after “machine” 4) Sentence 12: change “two passengers” to “two-passenger”

20. Which word or phrase, if inserted in the blank in Sentence 12, would best fit the logical sequence of the writer’s ideas? 1) However 2) As a result 3) Since then 4) Until now 21.

Choose the summary that best fits the style of the text. 1) Joseph-Armand Bombardier, the inventor of the snowmobile, began his designs as a teenager in 1922, mounting an automobile engine to a sleigh. But it was not until 1934, when his son died in the middle of a winter storm, that he seriously undertook the construction of his snow machine. The early models, which were large and carried 7 people, served as buses and medical transport, but by 1959 we saw the emergence of the smaller snowmobile we are familiar with today. 2) In 1922, Joseph-Armand Bombardier started to build snow machines, using a car engine that he put on a sleigh to race through town with his brother. When in 1934 Bombardier’s son died of appendicitis, he decided to make medical transports out of his snow machines. He sold a whole bunch as medical transport and as buses. Later, in 1959, he made a new sports model, which sat only 2 people instead of the 7 from the earlier snow machines. 3) Joseph-Armand Bombardier, the brilliant inventor of the snowmobile, initiated his design for a snow machine when he was but a teenager in 1922, in Valcourt, Quebec. The tragedy of his son’s death in a horrible snow storm in 1934 drove him back to designing a winter vehicle that would glide on snow in any weather. His first snow machine allowed 7 people on board and was mainly utilized as a 72 Suite 102 T: (613) 567-9229 E: [email protected] FSECC 404 Laurier East F: (613) 567-9098 E: [email protected] SCESE Ottawa, Ontario K1N 6R2 E: [email protected] ©

bus or a medical transport. In 1959, he presented to the world his snow machine for two. 4) Joseph-Armand Bombardier is an important French Canadian inventor and business man. It all started in 1922 when he took a car engine and put it on a sleigh to race through the town with his brother. Later, in 1934, his son died in the middle of a snow storm because no one could travel the roads. This made Bombardier remember the sled with an engine, and he designed a medical transport that could take up to 7 people. Then, in 1959, he produced a smaller snowmobile, made for two. [1] Canada is known around the world for its prairie wheat. [2] It all began in the 1840s when a few Canadians began experimenting with new strains of wheat, looking for a plant that would mature before it was struck by the early prairie frosts. [3] A farmer in Ontario, David Fife successfully grew a very hardy new strain from some seeds he had received from a friend in Glasgow, Scotland. [4] The wheat became known as Red Fife. [5] Red Fife matured 10 days earlier than other kinds of wheat, produced a very high yield, and made excellent bread, but was still sometimes hit by early frosts. [6] After years of painstaking experiments at the government’s Central Experimental Farm in Ottawa, Charles Saunders crossed Red Fife wheat with a variety from India called Red Calcutta. [7] It grew into a healthy strain that Saunders called Marquis. [8] Marquis wheat was called “the discovery of the century.” and was better for the Canadian season than Red Fife because it took just 100 days to ripen. [9] __________, the most northern areas of the Prairies could be opened for farming. [10] By 1920, 90 per cent of the wheat grown on the Canadian Prairies was Marquis. [11] Charles Saunders was knighted for his achievement in 1934. [12] At his death, the London Daily Express wrote “He added more wealth to this country than any other man.” [13] With the development of Marquis wheat, Canada became one of the greatest wheatproducing nations of the world. 22.

Which of the following changes would improve the text? 1) Sentence 1: change “its prairie” to “the prairie” 2) Sentence 5: break the sentence into two separate sentences 3) Sentence 6: change “painstaking” to “excruciating” 4) No change needed.

23.

Choose the place in the text where a shift of emphasis or topic suggests that a new paragraph should have been started, if necessary. 1) After Sentence 2 2) After Sentence 3 3) After Sentence 4 4) After Sentence 5

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24.

What change is necessary in the text? 1) Sentence 1: change “Canada is” to “Canada’s” 2) Sentence 8: change “took” to “takes” 3) Sentence 12: add a colon after “wrote” 4) Sentence 13: remove the hyphen

25.

Which word or phrase, when inserted in the blank of Sentence 9, would help the reader understand the logical sequence of ideas? 1) Before then 2) Yet 3) Consequently 4) However Email

Date: September 13/04 To: [email protected] From: [email protected] Subject: Closing Down [1] We are sorry to announce that Worse Company will be closing its doors at the end of this year. [2] The market has been dropping for the past 5 quarters, and our sales have dropped along with it in a way that can no longer be sustained. [3] So, the drop in sales can not be sustained any longer, so we have to close down. [4] In order to survive, our parent company, Okay Business, is re-focusing its energies to its other business branches. [5] Some people will be moved to other divisions of Okay Business. [6] For those of you that are not reassigned to the other branches, there will be a winding down period which will end in December. [7] The winding down of operations will be done gradually, and those employees with more than 2 years of service will be awarded severance packages. [8] _______, in order to help all employees, there will be career counselling and placement agencies to assist in re-orienting and in job searching. [9] These two services will be offered at no cost to the employees. 26.

What is the purpose of this message? 1) To announce the closing of the company and to inform employees of the measures taken by the parent company to ensure their well being. 2) To announce the closing down of the company to all the staff and to inform them of the measures to be taken to help them find new jobs. 3) To fire everyone. 4) To announce the closing of the company and to inform employees that they will be relocated into the different branches of the parent company.

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27. Which word or phrase inserted in the blank of Sentence 8 would help the reader understand the logical sequence of ideas? 1) Yet 2) However 3) As you know 4) Fortunately 28.

Which of the following changes would improve the flow of the text? 1) Sentence 2: reverse the order of “no longer” and “be sustained” 2) Sentence 3: delete the sentence 3) Sentence 5: delete the sentence 4) Sentence 7: reverse the order of “done” and “gradually”

A

[1] As the world watches the New Year’s celebrations from Times Square in New York each year, at the stroke of midnight we hear the strains of the Robert Burns ballad, “Auld Lang Syne,” played by a big band called The Royal Canadians. [2] This tradition, which has become such an important part of the annual New Year’s celebration, is rooted in the lives of three brothers born in London, Ontario. [3] The Lombardo brothers, Guy, Carmen, and Lebert, were born in a very musical Italian Canadian family in the early years of the twentieth century. [4] When the boys were teenagers, their father formed the Lombardo Brothers Concert Company, which played at socials and parties around London.

B

[5] In 1923 the Lombardo brothers and their band left Ontario to “conquer the world” in the United States. [6] In order to sound more distinctive, in 1924 the band changed its name to Guy Lombardo and His Royal Canadians. [7] ____________________ [8] There they were the house band at the Roosevelt Grill, a popular Manhattan restaurant. [9] Throughout World War II, in what has come to be known as “The Big Band Era,” Guy Lombardo and His Royal Canadians played in a number of popular movies and became well known for their recordings.

C

[10] ____________________ [11] In 1964 the Royal Canadians staged the biggest New Year’s Eve party ever held in North America. [12] They hired New York’s Grand Central Station for the night of December 31 and held a charity benefit for two thousand guests. [13] _______, at midnight they played their signature tune, “Auld Lang Syne”. [14] The band had now been a New York institution for over four decades.

29.

Choose the best introductory sentence for Paragraph C. 1) The band’s success would not last long. 2) It would become the biggest band. 3) World War II didn’t slow them down. 4) Even after World War II the band’s success continued.

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30.

What word or phrase, when inserted in the blank of Sentence 13, would make the sentence more appropriate for the text? 1) In fact 2) Surprisingly 3) For sure 4) Naturally

31.

Choose where a change in emphasis suggests a change of paragraph should occur. 1) After Sentence 1 2) After Sentence 2 3) After Sentence 3 4) After Sentence 4

32.

What change is necessary in the text? 1) Sentence 2: change “has become” to “had become” 2) Sentence 5: change “left” to “leave” 3) Sentence 6: change “changed” to “changes” 4) Sentence 14: change “had now been” to “has now been”

33.

Which of the following sentences, when placed in the blank labelled Sentence 7, best fits the writer’s style and audience? 1) They went on to great success in Chicago, finally settling in New York in 1929. 2) They toured everywhere from Chicago to New York, and at the end, they decided that New York was the better place to be. 3) The Royal Canadians travelled all over and played lots of shows in Chicago, but they liked New York better, so they moved there in 1929. 4) The Royal Canadians illuminated the Chicago scene for a long time, but finally, it was New York that captured their hearts in 1929, so they undertook the task of moving there.

NOTE: The order of the sentences in the first paragraph has been purposely modified.

A

[1] Nunavut means “our land” in Inuktitut, the language of the Inuit. [2] It is four times the size of France. [3] The new territory was carved from the eastern half of the Northwest Territories and extends for more than 2 millions km2. [4] At the stroke of midnight on 1 April, 1999, the map of Canada was redrawn and the new territory of Nunavut came into being.

B

[5] _______ to its vast extent, Nunavut has a relatively small population of 25 000. [6] The creation of the new territory gives the Inuit of the eastern Arctic, who make up more than 85 per cent of Nunavut’s population, a self governing homeland.

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C

[7] Nunavut makes up a fifth of Canada’s land area and has been called the largest peaceful land settlement in history. [8] They have hunting, trapping, and fishing rights over all of Nunavut and receive a share of federal royalties from resource development in the territory. [9] Nunavut has its own democratically elected Legislative Assembly.

D

[10] At the ceremony marking the creation of Nunavut, government leader Paul Okalik remarked, “We the people of Nunavut have regained control of our own destiny.” [11] No one denies, however, that the government has some major problems to solve. [12] The territory has an unemployment rate of 22 per cent, more than twice the national average. [13] Still, there is a feeling of optimism there, a feeling that even the most serious problems can be overcome with cooperation and patience.

34. Which word or phrase, if inserted in the blank in Sentence 5, would help the reader better understand the logical sequence of the text? 1) Similarly 2) Because of 3) In contrast 4) Like 35.

Which of the following changes would improve the flow of the text ? 1) Sentence 8: change “They” to “The Inuit” 2) Sentence 10: remove “government leader” 3) Sentence 11: delete sentence 4) Sentence 13: change “there” to “in the territory”

36.

Which of the following changes is necessary in the text? 1) Sentence 3: change “millions” to “million” 2) Sentence 8: change “receive” to “recieve” 3) Sentence 9: change “elected” to “ellected” 4) Sentence 10: move the period after “destiny” outside the quotation mark

37.

Which of the following changes is necessary in Sentence 6? 1) Change “Nunavut’s” to “Nunavuts” 2) Change “self governing” to “self-governing” 3) Remove the comma after “Arctic” 4) Change “homeland” to “home land”

38.

Which of the following alternatives is the correct order for the sentences in Paragraph A? 1) 4, 2, 3, 1 2) 3, 2, 1, 4 3) 2, 4, 1, 3 4) 4, 1, 3, 2

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[1] Al Gross is the pioneer nonpareil of wireless telecommunications. [2] He invented the walkie-talkie in 1938. [3] At that time, the Communications Group of the US Office of Strategic Services (OSS) was eager to develop a portable, two-way, air-to-ground communications system. [4] The OSS recruited Gross, who worked for them throughout World War II. [5] By 1941, a ground unit, “Joan,” and __________ unit, “Eleanor,” were in use. [6] The sets communicated with each other via Hertzian radio waves in a manner virtually impossible to monitor, even behind enemy lines. [7] The units had an effective range of about 30 miles. [8] The transciever of the ground unit weighed only 3 1/2 pounds, with a collapsible antenna, and was powered by two B and two D batteries. [9] It could easily be carried and hidden by a soldier on hostile ground. [10] “Eleanor”, carried most often in British "Mosquito" bombers, was more complicated, heavier, and fitted with an adjustable, external antenna to emit and receive at pre-arranged polarization. [11] this Top Secret system was not declassified until 1976, the US Joint Chiefs of Staff have called it one of the most successful wireless intelligence gathering methods ever employed.

39. Choose the word or phrase to be inserted in the blank in Sentence 5 which is most appropriate for this text. 1) a launched 2) an aerial 3) an airborne 4) a flying 40. Which of the following editorial changes is necessary? 1) Sentence 6: add a sentence to explain Hertzian radio waves 2) Sentence 8: change “transciever of the ground unit” to “ground unit’s transceiver” for clarity and correctness 3) Sentence 9: add “when on a mission” after “hostile ground” 4) Sentence 11: place Sentence 11 before Sentence 9 41.

What change, if any, is needed in the sentences noted below to fit the rest of the text in terms of the meaning? 1) Sentence 1: change “nonpareil” to “unique” 2) Sentence 3: change “eager” to “anxious” 3) Sentence 10: change “emit” to “transmit” 4) Sentence 11: change employed to utilized

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42. Which word or phrase, if inserted in the blank in Sentence 11, would help the reader better understand the logical sequence of the writer’s ideas? 1) Although 2) Because 3) Today 4) When 43.

Choose the best summary for the text. 1) The invention of the walkie-talkie by Al Gross caught the attention of the Communications Group of the US Office of Strategic Services, who recruited him to make an air-to-ground communication system. “Joan” and “Eleanor” were used in 1941. “Joan” was light and battery operated, while “Eleanor” was heavier and fitted on British “Mosquito” Bombers. These units were hailed by the US Joint Chiefs of Staff as on of the most successful wireless communication techniques. 2) Al Gross, a pioneer of wireless communications, is the inventor of the walkietalkie. The OSS hired him to develop a communication method that was portable for air-to-ground communications. The units were “Joan” on the ground and “Eleanor” in the sky and while the ground unit was easy to carry, the air unit was heavier and more complicated. Despite these difficulties, this system was called one of the most successful wireless information gathering system by the US Joint Chiefs of Staff. 3) The walkie-talkie was the first development in wireless communications that led Al Gross, its inventor, to develop a portable two-way air-to-ground communications system for the OSS. In 1941, the “Joan” and “Eleanor” units were in use. “Joan”, the ground piece, was small and light, which made it easy to use behind enemy lines. “Eleanor”, the air unit, however, was not so light, and was more complicated than “Joan”. “Eleanor” was usually put on “Mosquito” aircraft. 4) Al Gross invented the walkie-talkie in 1938, and then worked for the Communications Group of the US Office of Strategic Services to develop a twoway air-to-ground communication system. By 1941, he had working units: “Joan” on the ground, and “Eleanor” in the air. The units had a range of about 30 miles and used technology that made them virtually impossible to monitor by others. “Joan” was battery powered and built to be easily carried and used on hostile ground. “Eleanor” was more complicated, heavier, and fitted with an adjustable, external antenna. This Top Secret system has been called one of the most successful wireless intelligence gathering methods developed.

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A

[1] A number of artists from Aboriginal nations gained international recognition in the 1950s and 1960s. [2] Their work increased awareness of Aboriginal cultures. [3] A prominent artist was Pitseolak Ashoona.

B

[4] Pitseolak Ashoona was born in 1904 on Nottingham Island in the Arctic. [5] For most of her life, she lived __________ camp life, moving with her husband and family in search of good hunting. [6] After her husbands death, Pitseolak was very poor and in 1957, she heard that Inuit at Cape Dorset were learning to make stone cuts and prints from drawings to earn a living. [7] ____________________.

C

[8] But the Inuit way of life the pictures show has largely disappeared in the North. [9] Her prints now hang in the National Gallery in Ottawa and in museums in Europe and the United States. [10] They also show families on hunting expeditions, and hooded figures in sealskin boats, and little girls learning to catch a goose. [11] They show traditional Inuit scenes and her energetic drawings capture the spirit and the customs of the traditional life on the land.

D

[12] Before she died in 1983, Pitseolak had created more than 7000 drawings showing the ways of her people. [13] She received many honours for her artistic achievements, including the Order of Canada in 1977.

44.

What is the correct order of the sentences in Paragraph C? 1) 8, 10, 9, 11 2) 11. 9, 10, 8 3) 9, 11, 10, 8 4) 10, 11, 8, 9

45.

Which change is needed in the text? 1) Sentence 1: add a semi-colon after artists 2) Sentence 6: change “husbands ” to “husband’s ” 3) Sentence 8: add a colon after “but” 4) Sentence 13: change “Order of Canada” to “order of Canada”

46.

What change would improve the text? 1) Sentence 2: elaborate on how awareness was increased. 2) Sentence 4: change “on Nottingham Island in the Arctic” to “in the Arctic on Nottingham Island” 3) Sentence 10: remove “and” before “hooded” 4) Sentence 12: remove “Before she died in 1983,”

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47. Which word inserted in the blank in Sentence 4 best fits the style of the passage? 1) a traditional 2) an old 3) an ancient 4) a primitive 48.

Choose the sentence that would best fit the blank of Sentence 7, with respect to the development of the paragraph and text. 1) Regardless of the fact that she had not done any drawing before, she was capable of selling all of her collection to the Cooperative in Cape Dorset. 2) She had not drawn before but it didn’t matter because her drawings were so good that the Co-op in Cape Dorset bought everything she had drawn because it was all so wonderful. 3) The Cape Dorset Cooperative liked her even though she had not done any drawing before, so her drawings were all bought. 4) She had never drawn before, but her talents were quickly recognized, and her first drawings were eagerly bought at the Cape Dorset Cooperative.

[1] In 1967, Canada celebrated its 100th birthday. [2] On 9 January, the Centennial Train left Victoria. [3] It was a traveling museum that would make 83 stops before it reached the East Coast on 4 December. [4] Across the country there were fireworks displays, festivals, parades, picnics, and pageants. [5] Almost every city, town, and village dedicated a new park, library, or concert hall to the Centennial. [6] In Montreal, Canada hosted the world’s fair—Expo 67. [7] Sixty two nations built pavilions to show the achievements of their artists, and of their engineers, as well as show the achievements of their architects, and their scientists. [8] Kings and queens, presidents and politicians came to Canada from around the world that summer. [9] In all, the fair attracted more than 50 million visitors. [10] Everywhere, Canadians were celebrating the achievements of the past hundred years. [11] Once a country rich in resources but of little strategic importance, Canada was now a middle power whose voice was respected in the world community.

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49.

If Sentence 7 seems poorly written, which version from those given below is the most appropriate? 1) Sixty-two nations built pavilions that were meant to show the achievements of the artists, engineers, architects, and scientists of their country. 2) Sixty-two nations built pavilions which were built to show what their artists, their engineers, their architects, and their scientists were capable of achieving. 3) Sixty-two nations built pavilions to show the achievements of their artists, engineers, architects, and scientists. 4) No change needed.

50.

Choose the most appropriate title for the passage. 1) A Century of History for Canadians in 1967 2) Canada’s Centennial Year 3) Canada’s Participation in the 1967 World Fair 4) Celebration Time for Canada!

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Answers and Categories for WCPT Sample Test #3 CATEGORIES 1. Vocabulary: preciseness 2. Organization: best sentence 3. Organization: discourse markers 4. Punctuation: use of dashes and colon 5. Organization: paragraph order 6. Grammar: use of possessive 7. Vocabulary: preciseness 8. Grammar: correct tense 9. Content: best title 10. Vocabulary: preciseness 11. Grammar: use of comma 12. Content: type of document 13. Organization: sequence of ideas 14. Register: appropriate word choice 15. Conciseness: sentence re-wording 16. Content: intro sentence for paragraph 17. Content: best title for text 18. Grammar/Register: tense & richness 19. Grammar: hyphen 20. Organization: discourse markers 21. Content: best summary 22. Grammar: flow and style 23. Content: paragraph break 24. Punctuation: colon 25. Organization: discourse markers 26. Content: purpose of message 27. Organization: discourse markers 28. Conciseness: redundancies 29. Content: topic sentence for paragraph 30. Register: appropriate term 31. Content: paragraph break 32. Grammar: tense agreement 33.Conciseness: appropriate sentence 34. Organization: discourse markers 35. Grammar: no antecedent 36. Grammar: number agreement and spelling 37. Grammar: use of hyphen FSECC SCESE


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ANSWERS 1 3 2 1 4 3 2 4 3 1 2 1 4 2 3 1 2 3 4 3 1 2 4 3 3 1 2 2 4 4 2 4 1 3 1 1 2 83 E: [email protected] E: [email protected] E: [email protected] ©

38. Organization: sentence order 39. Register: level appropriateness 40. Content: change for better clarity and spelling 41. Vocabulary: appropriate term 42. Organization: discourse markers 43. Content: choose summary 44. Organization: order of paragraph/logic 45. Grammar: possessive 46. Grammar: run-on sentence using “and” 47. Register: appropriate meaning 48. Content: choose best sentence 49. Conciseness: clarity and brevity 50. Content: best title

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4 3 2 3 1 4 3 2 3 1 4 3 2


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SECTION VII – SITUATIONAL JUDGEMENT TEST (SJT)

i.

Situational Judgement Testing – Previous Situational Exercises

ii.

Situational Judgement Testing – Current SJT Test

iii.


iv.

Tips on SJT Performance Improvement: Evaluation Criteria and Underlying “Corporate Culture/Values System” SJT Sample Test #1 – 100 Questions Answers and “Competencies” Tested for SJT Sample Test #1 SJT Sample Test #2 – 100 Questions Answers and “Competencies” Tested for SJT Sample Test #2

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Introduction Situational judgement testing has been part of the Post-Secondary Recruitment Campaign, intermittently, for 30 years or more. However, it was specific to the Foreign Service component of this recruitment process until after the 2002 exams, when it was instituted more broadly to apply to testing for almost all Public Service positions available in the annual national recruitment exercise. We have included below samples of previous versions of differently named situational judgement tests. You may find this useful to see why the currently used Situational Judgement Test (SJT) operates the way that it does, and how to do better on it.

i.

Situational Judgement Testing – Previous Situational Exercises

Old Foreign Service “Judgement” Questions The old “judgement” questions below are similar to - but not the same as - the kinds of scenarios you will see in the new Situational Judgement Test which you are taking. Thirty questions of this type comprised a separate sub-test in the Foreign Service (FS) entry process in the 1970s and 1980s. Candidates were instructed to select the “best” response from the four options provided. The basic level of judgement which is evaluated through this test has not changed, and is in fact still tested in-depth in the FS interview. While not essential to succeeding on the new Situational Judgement Test (SJT), you may find it helpful to try these questions.

1. You are a junior officer working at a Canadian High Commission in Africa. From your office doorway you see that an armed man has seized a locally-engaged secretary from your staff and is threatening her in an attempt to force the guard on duty to open the plexi-glass security door to the restricted section of the building. Your response would be to a) alert the Head of Post about the situation b) go into the lobby to aid your staff member c) telephone the local police for assistance d) speak to the intruder, to try to determine his state and demands FSECC SCESE


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2. You are a junior immigration officer traveling to a country where the Canadian government has no permanent representation, to interview applicants seeking admission to Canada. On arrival at the airport, local officials attempt to search your briefcase containing confidential personal information about individuals you are seeing. Your decision is to a) reassert your diplomatic status and push past the officials b) find a telephone and report the incident to your superior c) ask to see the superior of the officials confronting you d) fly home as quickly as possible to protect your documents 3. You are a trade officer serving at a post abroad. A local businessman whom you have recently arranged to include on a trade mission to Canada sends a messenger bearing a gift, accompanied by a note of appreciation for your kindness. As gestures such as this are particularly common in this country, you a) accept the gift and send the donor a gracious note of thanks b) accept the gift, informing the messenger that you will contact the donor promptly, and proceed to seek the advice of your superior c) return the gift to the messenger, informing him that Canadian public servants are not permitted to accept gifts for performing their duties d) examine the gift closely for flaws in craftsmanship 4. You are an officer serving in your first overseas assignment in a Latin American country. An elderly political dissident who has been permitted to make a representation to the Ambassador about local conditions has been entrusted to you and a colleague to be escorted to a nearby church refuge. On the way to your destination, a van carrying several local police pulls up beside you. Your charge is seized by the police without explanation. Your immediate response is to a) produce your diplomatic identification, expecting it to deter the police b) register your objection to the police and attempt to identify them and their vehicle in order to follow up with future action c) give the man up to police, since he is a foreign national and not your responsibility d) attempt to have you and your colleague accompany your charge to the police station to ensure that his civil rights are not violated

Answers - 1a, 2c, 3b, 4b

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Foreign Service Written Simulation Test (FSWST) The Foreign Service Written Simulation Test (FSWST) was used only for two years (1999 and 2000) to test FS candidates in teamwork and adaptability/flexibility skills (or “competencies” as the government calls them). The government’s description of the FSWST test is included below to ensure that candidates who took it in 1999 or 2000 will recall the test and be clear that it has been replaced, now twice over. This simulation-type test took longer to mark and was a more costly and subjective evaluation tool than the multiple-choice test which followed, beginning in 2001.

FOREIGN SERVICE WRITTEN SIMULATION TEST (FSWST) The Foreign Service Written Simulation Test (FSWST) assesses teamwork and adaptability/ flexibility competencies. You will be given descriptions of hypothetical work situations and will be asked to indicate in writing how you would handle the situations if actually confronted with them on the job. The FSWST requires no specialized or technical training, knowledge or experience so you cannot study for the test in advance. The testing sessions will last about one and a half hours. Your written responses will be scored according to standardized criteria.

Sample Scenario - FSWST Working in Washington early in your first foreign assignment, you are tasked by the Ambassador to coordinate and accompany a small visiting delegation of Canadian Parliamentarians at a joint, oneday Canada-U.S. prayer breakfast and subsequent informal meetings. You have adequate notice and budget, but no experience managing political events and dealing with politicians. Your ongoing regular duties are increasingly onerous, but interesting, and your immediate superior resents the time this annual event will occupy. How would you approach the situation and the assignment?

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The box below showed how our old Study Kit recommended analyzing the “case” before attempting a written answer.

Major Issues of Concern

Necessary Actions to Take

No choice, two masters to satisfy

Background/past info on event Assistance with plans and activities

Contacts for Parliamentarians – individual or collective – on U.S. and Canadian side Schedule/logistics Practice and contingency Protocol Welcome, event and departure Managing/confirming responsibilities Follow-up

FSECC SCESE

The box below next showed what our old Study Kit proposed as point-form steps to be turned into a written answer.

Accept job, inform Ambassador of willingness despite workload, and assuage supervisor’s concern. Also confirm reporting lines for event Locate/review files from previous annual prayer meetings Discuss with Ambassador (or who you report to re event) how to involve others, who’s available to spread duties and give you experienced assistance Touch base to find out plans/ expectations of both contingents Develop draft plan based on above, circulate internally and, with approval, externally before finalization Verbal or real run through, and troubleshoot potential problems Clarify with Parliamentarians on both sides and Ambassador, keeping your supervisor “in the loop” Participate in the background, ensuring all goes off well Keep both your bosses in touch throughout, and you stick always to logistics only unless asked Update files for future, draft letters of thanks for Ambassador’s signature


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The Foreign Service Situational Judgement Test (FSSJT) The Foreign Service Situational Judgement Test (FSSJT) replaced in 2001 the FSWST exam used for the previous two years which tested specific skills or “competencies” other than judgement. The new test, however, had similarities to the previous competency exercise, to the judgement test used years before, and to the kinds of hypothetical questions which dominate the morning portion of the FS interview. The multiple-choice FSSJT was designed to be easier and less costly to mark than its FSWST predecessor. However, it still retained an intrinsic subjectivity because of its format. A description of the FSSJT test is included below to ensure that candidates who took it in 2001 and 2002 will recall the test and be clear that it has now been replaced by the SJT for which instructions and many samples are included further on in the Study Kit.

FOREIGN SERVICE SITUATIONAL JUDGEMENT TEST (FSSJT) The Foreign Service Situational Judgement Test (FSSJT) assesses judgement required to solve problems in situations that involve working with others and dealing with unforeseen circumstances. The test consists of a number of scenarios describing work situations similar to those encountered by entry-level Foreign Service officers (Foreign Service officers in the first year of training). Each scenario consists of background information describing the work situation and a description of the problems confronting the Foreign Service officer responsible for doing the work. Each scenario is followed by a number of actions that could be taken to deal with the problems presented. Your task on the test will be to judge the effectiveness of each of those actions in contributing to their solution as if you were actually on the job and faced with deciding what actions to take. You will rate the effectiveness of each action on a 5-point scale which ranges from (1) very ineffective to (5) very effective. The judgments of experienced foreign service officers and their supervisors were used to determine the correct ratings for each of the actions.

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Sample Scenario – FSSJT You are on your first posting and are serving as the Communications Coordinator at Canada’s mission to the United Nations, New York. A Canadian delegation from Ottawa – which includes the Minister of Foreign Affairs, MPs, senior departmental officials, and representatives of several nongovernmental organizations (NGOs) – is in a closed meeting involving intense negotiations with delegates from other countries. Your superior is at the meeting and has told you previously not to interrupt her or the group. By chance, a journalist you know who is covering the UN conference (of which the meeting is a part) has told you that a Canadian NGO delegate has scheduled an official press conference in two hours through the UN Press Office. The alleged purpose of this press conference is to outline his organization’s dissenting view from the Canadian consensus position agreed upon going into the meetings. This viewpoint coincides with the position taken by certain foreign governments opposed to Canada’s stance. You know that delegates are allowed to present their own position informally in public at any time, but that delegates may not do so in an official capacity. You also know that you have the authority to intercede with the UN Press Office, whose Director is also in the in camera meeting, to stop the unsanctioned briefing. Nonetheless, you are initially reluctant to act because of the potential to publicly embarrass our government by appearing heavy-handed and highlighting the difference in views among Canadians. How would you deal with the situation? RATE EACH ACTION USING THE FOLLOWING SCALE: E Very Ineffective ● This action is very inappropriate. It would probably worsen the problems.

FSECC SCESE

D Ineffective ● This action is inappropriate. While not harmful, it will not contribute to solving the problems.

C Moderately Effective ● This action is reasonable. It may contribute to solving the problems.

B Effective ● This action is appropriate. It will contribute considerably to solving the problems.

A Very Effective ● This action is highly appropriate. It will make an extremely important contribution to solving the problems. 91


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ACTIONS 1-1

Ignore the unsolicited tip passed on to you by the journalist because you are busy handling communications events for the whole conference

1-2

Check out the journalist’s information in relation to any intelligence your Canadian colleagues at the mission may have about the disposition of various NGO delegations

1-3

Go directly to a junior representative of the NGO in question who is not in the meetings and inquire about the organization’s views on how the committee talks are progressing

1-4

Call the UN Press Office to find out if the NGO in question has booked a briefing room

1-5

Draft a media release reiterating the Canadian position and the solidarity of Canadian delegates behind it.

1-6

Alert your boss in the meeting with a note about the journalist’s tip and your planned actions to investigate

1-7

Enter the meeting and quietly take aside the leader of the NGO delegation to ask about the rumour

1-8

Enter the meeting and speak with your boss, the senior departmental negotiator and the Minister concerning the potential problem

1-9

Prepare a draft media release on the general progress of the talks and collective Canadian support for the government’s position, and give it to your boss with a note explaining the potential problem

1-10

Call the UN Division at the Department in Ottawa to get guidance from the Director since your boss is in the closed session

1-11

Inquire about availability of a briefing room and translators through the UN Press Office, to be used in case the official Canadian delegation needs to hold a media briefing after the negotiating meeting is scheduled to end

1-12

Prepare a backgrounder for reporters waiting for the Canadian delegation to emerge which includes Canada’s position, the rationale, the consensus on it reached by Canadian participating organizations, and its strengths over foreign viewpoints

Answers:

FSECC SCESE

1-1=E, 1-2=C, 1-3=D, 1-4=B, 1-5=D, 1-6=A, 1-7=E, 1-8=E, 1-9=C, 1-10=D, 1-11=C, 1-12=B


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ii.

Situational Judgment Testing -Current Situational Judgement Test (SJT)

The current judgement test, in use since the 2003 Post-Secondary Recruitment Campaign, is the multiple-choice Situational Judgement Test (SJT). Unlike the Foreign Service versions of preceding situational tests, it was developed to examine all (or most) Public Service competition applicants and therefore is set in a generic workplace environment, not an international one. The scenarios are also shorter than was the case in the two more recent Foreign Service situational tests. The SJT is, however, still testing what the government calls “competencies” (i.e. personal skills and qualities) akin to those that were also tested in the FSWST and FSSJT. (The competencies now used will be described in more detail below.) The current multiple-choice SJT makes it easier, faster and cheaper to test government job candidates than did the written FSWST which was graded by hired markers. Most important, as well as most perplexing for candidates, the SJT is still considerably subjective in its answers despite claims to the contrary by the Public Service Commission. While it may not in its use of generic settings stand in the way of someone who wants a government job and who could be taken aback by an international location, the way the answers are determined before they are set in stone and marked by machine does call the results of the test into question. Nonetheless, the SJT must be tackled as it stands. To help you in achieving this we have included in the following pages of this section of the Study Kit: the government’s SJT test instructions for your review, tips we have put together on SJT competency testing, evaluation criteria and underlying values, and two full-length sample SJT tests of 100 questions each to use in preparing for this exam.

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iii.


The following description is taken directly from the Public Service Commission of Canada’s website www.jobs.gc.ca. It is imported here to show you their description of, and sample scenarios and questions for, the SJT test. It also serves as an instructional preface to our following two (2) fulllength sample SJT tests which you can use for practice to improve your performance on test day.

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The Situational Judgement Test (317A1) The Situational Judgement Test (SJT) assesses judgement required for solving problems in work-related situations. The SJT presents you with hypothetical and challenging situations that one might encounter at work, and that involve working with others as part of a team, interacting with others, and dealing with workplace dilemmas. In response to each situation, you are presented with five possible actions that one might take in dealing with the problem described. Your task on the test will be to select the one response alternative that is the most effective and the one response alternative that is the least effective in dealing with the problem described.

The SJT consists of fifty short descriptions of problem situations. Each of them is followed by two questions (asking you to select the most effective response and the least effective response alternatives). There are thus a total of 100 questions to be answered. Each question is worth one mark. Your score will be the total number of correct answers. You will be given 90 minutes to complete this test. No specialized training, knowledge, or experience is required in order to write this test. Rather, your answers should draw on the general knowledge and life experience you have acquired (e.g., in work, school, extracurricular, and/or community activities).

You are invited to read the following example situations and, for each of them, select the most effective response and the least effective response alternatives in dealing with the problem described.

EXAMPLE SITUATIONS AND QUESTIONS Questions 1 and 2 You have become aware that a co-worker has been using office phone and fax facilities to run a private business. You know that he was warned about this once before and promised to stop. You have just found a fax for his business placed in your mailbox by mistake. 1. The MOST effective response to this situation would be: 2. The LEAST effective response to this situation would be:

(1) Tell your co-worker that you will inform the manager the next time you catch him using office resources for his private business. (2) Report the incident to the manager.

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(3) Put the fax in the manager’s mailbox without saying anything to anyone. (4) Put the fax in your co-worker’s mailbox. (5) Give the fax to your co-worker and express your disapproval with his actions. Number (5) is the most effective response, so you would darken circle number 5 on your answer sheet as illustrated below:

1.The most effective response to this situation would be: Q.1 (1) (2) (3 (4)

Number (4) is the least effective response, so you would darken circle number 4 on your answer sheet as illustrated below:

2.The least effective response to this situation would be: Q.2 (1) (2) (3)

(5)

Questions 3 and 4 You and a co-worker are working on a complex project that demands a great deal of effort from both of you. Your co-worker is frequently absent as a result of burnout and stress from her personal problems. This coworker contributes very little to the project and, as a result, you are putting in an excessive amount of overtime in order to keep the project moving ahead. 3. The MOST effective response to this situation would be: 4. The LEAST effective response to this situation would be: (1) Ask other co-workers to help you manage your workload. (2) Raise the issue with your manager and request additional help to ensure that the project is completed on schedule. (3) Meet with your co-worker to clarify each other’s roles and responsibilities and request that she does her part. (4) Continue to put in overtime to keep the project moving ahead and make sure that you receive credit. (5) Offer to help your co-worker deal with her personal problems. Number (2) is the most effective response, so you would darken circle number 2 on your answer sheet as illustrated below: 3.The MOST effective response to this situation would be: (3) (4) (5) Q.3 (1) Number (4) is the least effective response, so you would darken circle number 4 on your answer sheet as illustrated below: 4.The LEAST effective response to this situation would be: (5) Q.4 (1) (2) (3)

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iv.

Tips on SJT Performance Improvement

Before you take the SJT practice tests, and after having looked over previous situational-type exams and the government’s introduction to the SJT, you will benefit from considering the following pointers to improve your performance. The government’s textual description for the SJT indicates that you are to deal with “solving problems in work-related situations”. However, there is no information about the corporate culture or value system operative in the workplace the government has created, and in which the problems occur. Also, the government refers rather obliquely to the types of situations in which you are put as having to do with “working with others as part of a team, interacting with others, and dealing with workplace dilemmas.” What you need to know is that the government examiners have created an institutional workplace setting akin to their own environment – though an idealized version of it, and that the situations they give you each test a particular “competency” (i.e. skill or quality) which the government uses to evaluate people in all personnel processes. An outline of the competency-based personnel system follows for your information.

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Competency-Based Human Resource Management System •

Competencies comprise: • skills • knowledge • values and attitudes • distinguishing qualities and motives

•

Competencies are demonstrated: • through behaviour essential to successful performance on the job

•

Competency profiles are used: • in recruitment, selection, training, assignments, career development, appraisal and promotion

The “competencies” tested within this overall system are many, a number of which do not appear on the SJT test. The ones which do underlie questions on the test are: teamwork/ cooperation, interpersonal relations and judgement. These were alluded to in the government’s preface on the SJT. Brief definitions, based on government usage, follow to help you in interpreting and responding to situations on the SJT test.

Competency Evaluation Criteria •

Teamwork and cooperation: -

effect on others, focus on achievement of appropriate goals, adapting approach to situation, initiative through persuasion versus authority

•

Interpersonal relations: - treatment of others, sensitivity to people, adapting interpersonal style, appropriate level of personal contact

•

Judgement: - discernment, thoroughness, impact of decisions/actions

Now that you understand the genesis and enactment of recent competency-based testing, the hypothetical setting that provides the context for all SJT questions needs to be addressed. The following outline describes most of the fundamental tenets informing the “corporate culture” or “value-system” of the SJT’s workplace.

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Workplace “Culture” and “Values” •

The Organization

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values its employees, considers them all to be trainable, and, if “off the rails”, salvageable wants malfeasance and transgressions discussed and – if the pattern persists – reported, even if perpetrated by “the boss”

● The Public/Clients

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are always a priority for the organization deserve prompt, courteous service no matter what

● Supervisors

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expect orders to be carried out with suitable latitude/judgment used by the employee who does not need to check in at every step of the process want employees to approach them with ideas to solve problems, and not to expect to simply carry out detailed orders

● Colleagues/Partners

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● Employees/Staff

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● You as an Employee

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N.B.

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must be consulted collegially for teamwork/effective planning purposes when time and crises permit welcome having their ideas challenged constructively, but should not be subject to personal criticism deserve to be communicated with/involved in organizational decision-making and their own career situation will usually see, or accede to (perhaps grudgingly), the need to change their habits are willing to work above and beyond the call of duty as required by legitimate crises are respectful of hierarchical structures, but willing to take initiative and make decisions in critical situations are always honest and forthcoming in internal discussions, but usually must take the “party line” in external situations are conscious of the need to invest time in people/staff to get results are consultative and able to co-opt support/delegate by powers of persuasion more than by fiat, as you have minimal personal authority

Be aware that psychologists/personnel-types have developed the testing process, so the world envisioned is, ultimately, a rational versus an emotional universe, and the people and values within it are all “sweetness and light”. That said, good judgment/common sense combined with the training you receive in this Study Kit will help to carry you through.


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Next, if you refer back to the government’s enclosed introduction to the SJT, you will see that each scenario you will be given on the test requires you to select both the most effective and least effective response to the problem described. You can derive some help in determining what this means by considering the scale used to answer questions on the FSSJT, described elsewhere in this Study Kit, and which is reproduced again below as a touchstone to use on the SJT. FSSJT Scale for answering questions: D

E Least Effective ●

Ineffective ●

This action is very inappropriate. It would probably worsen the problems.

This action is inappropriate. While not harmful, it will not contribute to solving the problems.

C Moderately Effective ● This action is reasonable. It may contribute to solving the problems.

B

A Most Effective ●

Effective ● This action is appropriate. It will contribute considerably to solving the problems.

This action is highly appropriate. It will make an extremely important contribution to solving the problems.

The “net out” from the scale for you to remember is this: Directly applicable to the SJT • Least Effective – worsens problems •

Most Effective – important contribution to solving problems

Helpful background for the SJT • Ineffective – no contribution to solving problems

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Moderately Effective – may contribute to solving problems

•

Effective – will contribute to solving problems


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As you can see, the definitions for most effective and least effective can be adapted to the SJT. Further, in pondering answer options on the SJT you may also benefit somewhat from applying the formerly-used definitions for what constituted an effective, moderately effective or ineffective answer. One final, critical point to reiterate is that your hypothetical role in each of the questions/ situations on the SJT test is that of a relatively junior employee. Therefore, as stated in our Workplace Culture and Values outline, “you as an employee…are consultative and able to co-opt support/delegate by powers of persuasion more than by fiat, as you have minimal personal authority.” All the foregoing about the background to the SJT, Figure 1 on the next page which summarizes that material, the subsequent graphics supporting/expanding on Figure 1, and doing the following practice exercises should help you to perform on test day.

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FIGURE 1 SITUATIONAL JUDGEMENT TEST (SJT) : FRAMEWORK FOR DEVELOPING ANSWERS SJT Context: Underlying “Corporate Culture/Values System”

START

“Competencies” Being Evaluated and Definitions: = Teamwork / Cooperation + Interpersonal Skills + Judgement effect on others; focus on achievement of appropriate goals; adapting approach to situation;

treatment of others; sensitivity to people; adapting interpersonal style; appropriate level of personal contact

discernment; thoroughness; impact of decisions/actions

Interpretation of Instructions: Most Effective = Likely to resolve problem

Least Effective = Likely to worsen problem

50 Scenarios: 2 Questions Each / 5 Options per Question

Before the SJT Test (what you need to know to perform well that the government doesn’t tell you) At the SJT Test (what is on the test, with little explanation)

Select: -Most Effective Option -Least Effective Option “Best” Answers: x/100

after the SJT Test (results you need to “pass” the test N.B: pass mark varies for each job type)

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FIGURE 1 – Supplementary Caveats The Scenarios •

Read the scenarios twice, stick to the evidence, don’t presume too much “back story” (see following graphic, Figure 2, and explanation)

•

Highlight key words / phrases in scenarios, observe tone / language for clues of “excess”

Your “Tool Kit” •

Bear in mind always that you are a junior-level employee – you have no designated authority and can only influence/persuade

•

Perhaps most crucial to success on the SJT, view yourself as a change agent fostering organizational improvement (people, processes, systems, outputs, objectives) which requires: personal action (almost always) ethics and integrity (allowing for some second chances on lesser misdeeds) focus on professional (vs. personal) issues pursuit of positive (vs. negative) outcomes application of an incremental (vs. “radical”) approach most often

•

Respect the lateral and hierarchical structure of your “unit,” and stay within those bounds unless circumstances are exceptional

•

Never seek personal notice/acclaim/reward/etc.

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Consider the time available for action by you, and the potential impact/ramifications/“ripples” of your decision in order to address/contain the problem (see following graphic, Figure 3, and explanation)

The Options •

No right or wrong, only best and worst

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Highlight various options to focus your thinking (see Figure 2 again for explanation): -

•

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mark likely Ms (most effective) mark likely Ls (least effective) cross out perceived irrelevant option(s) consider Ms separately until choosing your M decision consider Ls separately until choosing your L decision

Guess after 50 seconds have elapsed – there is no “negative marking”


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FIGURE 2: OPERATING WITHIN SCENARIO/OPTION PRECEPTS “Back Story”

i) Be sure you have examined the scenarios closely (i.e. twice) for key nuances (time available, need to involve others, appropriate/inappropriate contacts) which help provide the “evidence” on which to base your choices.

ii) Don’t “invent” a “back story” i.e. things which the scenario does not suggest (some candidates incorrectly imagine things, or draw on their own past experience, in making their choices)

Scenario = “Evidence” N.B. Read and re-read

5 “Given” Options + 2 (or more) Other Answers

iii) Play around with selecting the possible Ms first, make your decision, then eliminate Ms from considering potential Ls

“Right” Answer(s) A)

Most Effective (=likely resolve)

“Best” answer

Least Effective (=likely worsen)

“Worst” answer

B) C)

iv) Having eliminated thinking about the Ms, and having eliminated any seemingly irrelevant options, consider potential Ls only in making your decision.

D) E)

“Wrong” Answer(s) N.B. Remember your junior “level” 104 FSECC SCESE


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FIGURE 3: TIME / IMPACT CHART re: SITUATIONAL JUDGEMENT Dropping the “problem/crisis” into this framework is similar to dropping a pebble into a still pond. Ripples are created, and the “time” it takes for them to expand/take effect, and the individual(s)/group(s) affected need to be considered before making your answer choices.

TIME Short-Term

Medium-Term

Long-term

Within Your “Unit”

I

M P A C T

You Colleague Colleagues Team Manager/Supervisor Within Your “Organization”

Problem / Crisis

Other Staff (1 or more) Other Manager(s)/Supervisor(s) Executive(s) Outside Your “Organization” Client(s) Public N.B. Decision-making considerations: i) time available, ii) magnitude of problem, iii) your “level”, to involve, vi) lines of authority

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iv) formal or informal approach, v) who


Now having read about SJT origins and tips to bring to bear on the exercise, you will benefit from considering the government’s sample SJT scenarios/options again. They are reproduced below with explanations showing why the given answers are “most effective”, “least effective”, or off the table in light of what has been explained in this section of the Study Kit to help you succeed on the Situational Judgement Test. EXAMPLE SITUATIONS AND QUESTIONS Questions 1 and 2 You have become aware that a co-worker has been using office phone and fax facilities to run a private business. You know that he was warned about this once before and promised to stop. You have just found a fax for his business placed in your mailbox by mistake.

1. The MOST effective response to this situation would be: 2. The LEAST effective response to this situation would be: (1) Tell your co-worker that you will inform the manager the next time you catch him using office resources for his private business. (2) Report the incident to the manager. (3) Put the fax in the manager’s mailbox without saying anything to anyone. (4) Put the fax in your co-worker’s mailbox. (5) Give the fax to your co-worker and express your disapproval with his actions. Number (5) is the most effective response, so you would darken circle number 5 on your answer sheet as illustrated below: 1.The most effective response to this situation would be: Q.1 (1) (2) (3) (4) Number (4) is the least effective response, so you would darken circle number 4 on your answer sheet as illustrated below: 2.The least effective response to this situation would be: Q.2 (1) (2) (3) (5) Scenario/Options/Answers Breakdown: First Scenario – Questions 1 and 2 •

The “most effective” response, Option 5, is so because you are acting as a “change agent”. You take on responsibility to face the employee, adopt an ethical stand, give the person a second chance, and not go to the manager yet with this problem that is becoming more serious but is not yet at the third strike stage.

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•

The “least effective” response, Option 4, is so because you are avoiding responsibility and benignly condoning malfeasance.

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Option 1 has you threatening the employee and suggesting that you are able to enforce rules, rather than only exercise moral suasion.

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Option 2 brings in the manager without your having attempted corrective action, may antagonize the miscreant if your involvement comes out, and may endanger his/her job.

•

Option 3 avoids any responsibility or explanation on your part in improving the situation.

Questions 3 and 4 You and a co-worker are working on a complex project that demands a great deal of effort from both of you. Your co-worker is frequently absent as a result of burnout and stress from her personal problems. This co-worker contributes very little to the project and, as a result, you are putting in an excessive amount of overtime in order to keep the project moving ahead.

3. The MOST effective response to this situation would be: 4. The LEAST effective response to this situation would be: (1) Ask other co-workers to help you manage your workload. (2) Raise the issue with your manager and request additional help to ensure that the project is completed on schedule. (3) Meet with your co-worker to clarify each other’s roles and responsibilities and request that she does her part. (4) Continue to put in overtime to keep the project moving ahead and make sure that you receive credit. (5) Offer to help your co-worker deal with her personal problems. Number (2) is the most effective response, so you would darken circle number 2 on your answer sheet as illustrated below: 3.The MOST effective response to this situation would be: Q.3 (1) (3) (4) (5) Number (4) is the least effective response, so you would darken circle number 4 on your answer sheet as illustrated below: 4.The LEAST effective response to this situation would be: Q.4 (1) (2) (3) (5)

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Scenario/Options/Answers Breakdown: Second Scenario – Questions 3 and 4 •

The “most effective” response, Option 2, is so because problems with the “complex” project have ramifications for the organization, your manager, your unit, your colleague and you, therefore demanding higher level attention. The phraseology in the option does not suggest you are blaming your colleague, and indicates you are sticking to professional concerns.

•

The “least effective” response, Option 4, may hang you and the organization if the project fails, hurts you in your regular work, “rewards” the other employee by covering up the situation, and suggests the wrong motivation – bald ambition – on your part for working hard.

•

Option 1 suggests potentially penalizing others for your colleague’s problems, possibly undermining other work being done, and has you overstepping your authority.

•

Option 3 has you overlooking your colleague’s seeming personal crisis which needs attention – albeit not by you, taking on slightly too much authority (suggested in the one conveyed in the option) given the collegial nature of the project assignment, and ignores the length of time the problem has already been occurring (i.e. “frequently absent”)

•

Option 5 has you deviating from the professional issue involved and taking on problems you may be unequipped to handle, with uncertain results for everyone.

Note: The values you see reflected in the SJT may be different from, and even antithetical to, any you have encountered anywhere you have worked. This includes the federal government. That said, we know that the foregoing tips in this section on the SJT will help you see what characteristics are being sought on this test which is set in a hypothetical, utopian universe created by the Public Service Commission.

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SJT Sample Test # 1 – 100 Questions Your supervisor has given you an important project to plan for the unit before the end of the month. It is different from anything you have done since coming to work for the organization. You have now learned that the supervisor has been assigned temporarily to run another unit also, and will be frequently unavailable. Response Alternatives A)

Press ahead with the project on your own to show your determination

B)

Consider who you may be able to ask for help in the supervisor’s absence

C)

Go to the supervisor and explain where you think you will need help

D)

Ask the supervisor for a schedule of her availability

E) Go to the supervisor and ask her to walk you through the project Questions 1. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 2. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ You and a group of colleagues are working on a national campaign for your organization. One member of the group informs everyone at a meeting that he has yet to begin his part of the work because of serious personal problems. You learn that he has acted this way on previous projects. Response Alternatives A) Go to your supervisor to request that the person be replaced in your group B) Go to your supervisor to get her to re-assign the person’s workload to you and others in the group C) Attempt to help the person with his problems to enable him to function better on the job D) Meet the person privately and explain that you know about his previous behaviour, and that you expect he will perform better this time E) Meet with your colleagues without the individual present, and decide how to handle the situation Questions 3. The most effective response to this situation would be: (1) A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 4. The least effective response to this situation would be: (2) A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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Your office enjoys a good atmosphere, but you think social activities have started to encroach on work. Your supervisor has spent time at lunch and after work with a small group of employees, not including you. Cliques appear to be developing and you believe some staff feel left out. Response Alternatives A) Confront your supervisor and ask to be included more often B) Meet with colleagues you think are upset to devise a collective approach to the situation C) Talk to staff in both groups to make everyone aware of feelings about what is going on D) Speak to your supervisor informally and explain your concerns about productivity and inclusiveness E) Ignore the situation and hope it will pass Questions 5. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 6. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

A co-worker and yourself are assigned by your supervisor to a project which has been requested by senior management. The time line for the work is short, and the impact of the project for the organization’s reputation will be significant. You soon discover that your co-worker is not meeting deadlines, and is unavailable when you call her. Response Alternatives A) Take over the project and work on it independently to help your career B) Explain the problem to the supervisor, and request assistance to get the project on track C) Call your co-worker at home to discuss the situation D) Let senior management know about what is happening in case there is a delay in meeting the deadline E) Try to get other colleagues to help with the project Questions 7. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 8. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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Your supervisor is a stickler for detail and tends to hover over you and other newer employees on major projects. A financial crisis has come up, requiring extra work to handle it and more interaction among certain staff in the unit. The presence of the supervisor over everyone’s shoulder is causing tension and delays in dealing with the crisis. Response Alternatives A) Ask to have a team meeting of those working on the crisis to facilitate all aspects of handling it B) Do your work off-site as much as possible C) Appeal to a senior staff member to speak to the supervisor D) Approach personnel for advice to address the supervisor’s behaviour E) Put the problem on the agenda for the next meeting of the unit Questions 9. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 10. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

You are facing a deadline on the annual report to management for your branch. Most of your team colleagues are on time with their work, but two individuals repeatedly produce poorly prepared material. Both seem to expect assistance from others in the group to finalize their material. Response Alternatives A) Set up a team meeting to clarify ground rules for the remainder of the work B) Speak to the two people directly and point out the problems they are creating C) Ask your supervisor to intervene and ensure that the two individuals perform as required D) Do your own work and do not help either of the individuals if requested E) Talk with each of the individuals and offer assistance to get the job done Questions 11. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 12. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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Your supervisor has been supportive and accessible during your first month on the job while familiarizing yourself with the organization. The extra attention has benefited you, and other staff and senior management seem pleased with your work. However, you now feel the desire to work more on your own and enjoy more personal space. Response Alternatives A) Wait a while before mentioning your feelings to your supervisor B) Ask a senior person who has seen your recent work for advice on how to address your concern C) Request a meeting with your supervisor to discuss your relationship D) Arrange to have coffee with your supervisor and explain your concerns E) Make yourself less available and work more independently Questions 13. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 14. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

A group of new employees in your division, including yourself, have collectively taken on the planning of a social event to get to know other colleagues at work. Everyone is working supportively except for one individual who has been late or absent from meetings, and often behind in completing his tasks. The party is next week and group members are unsure about trusting that the individual’s duties will be completed thoroughly and on time. Response Alternatives A) Call the person and offer your help so the party comes off as planned B) Get a few members of the organizing team to help you take the individual aside and remind him of his responsibilities C) Suggest that the team think about contingency arrangements in case the party is jeopardized D) Ask for a team meeting to review progress and take it upon yourself to get the individual to attend E) Tell others to each contact the individual and voice their concerns to him Questions 15. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 16. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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Your supervisor has long service and respect in the organization, but you have recently observed some odd actions on her part. While working together with you on a report she made questionable decisions, often seemed distracted, and appeared unkempt. You have a private meeting scheduled tomorrow to finalize the report. Response Alternatives A) Raise your observations as the first item at your private meeting B) Discuss your supervisor’s behaviour with a colleague in the office for advice C) Get an appointment with management to alert them to what is happening D) Ask your supervisor about her career and broach some of your concerns during the discussion E) Ignore the issue and get your work together completed Questions 17. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 18. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

You work in a section where everyone’s output depends on cooperation among all the members in the group. One of the newest employees produces material in volume and on time, but often fails to check the quality of the work. Previous mention of this to him seems not to have had an effect, and people in the section are becoming frustrated. Response Alternatives A) Take it upon yourself to re-state to the employee the performance standards expected of everyone B) Explain to your supervisor the impact the employee’s shortcomings are having on your work C) Tell people in the section that the employee may not be clear on what is expected of him D) Approach the employee and inform him about the things staff are saying E) Keep up your production, and fix problems in the work the employee does with you Questions 19. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 20. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ FSECC SCESE



Your supervisor is a few months from retirement, and has been away frequently without informing staff in advance. Your colleagues in the unit are criticizing his behaviour, and employees and managers outside your group know what is happening. You have a meeting scheduled tomorrow with the supervisor to discuss your work on several projects. Response Alternatives A) Explain what people are saying to your supervisor when you meet with him B) Focus on your work together and confirm when he will be available to discuss projects C) Tell your colleagues to stop their criticism and stick to their work D) Ask another supervisor for advice about dealing with your colleagues E) Recommend to your colleagues to select a representative to take their concerns to the supervisor Questions 21. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 22. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

Your work in a key unit of an organization which prides itself on the quality of its publications. Recently several critical errors have been found in published documents produced by an experienced colleague. This is proving costly, and is delaying the fulfillment of orders to clients. Response Alternatives A) Make your concerns known to the employee, and explain why changes are needed in her performance B) Consider who needs to be informed about the problems so they can be fixed C) Research the cost issues, the delays, and ask your supervisor to call a unit meeting to discuss them D) Meet with your supervisor to see what is happening about the problems E) Arrange for you and other colleagues in the unit to raise the problems at the next unit meeting Questions 23. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 24. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ FSECC SCESE



You have come to notice that your supervisor seems to favour some employees over others. During your past few months of working in the organization, the supervisor has spent more time with others than with you or with another new employee hired at the same time. Your workload is mounting and you would like more attention from your supervisor. Response Alternatives A) Get together with your co-worker and approach the supervisor to voice your collective concerns about feeling left out B) Ask other co-workers about the habits of your supervisor in the past in dealing equitably with staff C) Ignore the situation and seek advice elsewhere to help with your work D) Explain your increased workload to the supervisor, and why you want more contact E) Write an email to the supervisor stating your personal and job-related concerns Questions 25. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 26. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

You have been moved to a new office, where employees who have been with the organization a long time are located. A project you are doing with a person there is underway, but his contribution so far is slipshod. You raised this with him, but he avoided discussing your concerns. Response Alternatives A) Overlook the problem because of his length of service, and do your best B) List his shortcomings and have a private meeting with him to rectify the situation C) Document his errors and take them to your supervisor D) Document what is happening and write an anonymous note to your supervisor E) Ask another employee about your colleague’s usual ability to perform Questions 27. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 28. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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Following an emergency at one of your organization’s regional branches, your supervisor puts you and your colleagues on twenty-four hour alert to handle public inquiries. Several days have passed and activity has slowed, but is not back to a normal level. You need time off for a major personal event which has been planned for almost a year. Response Alternatives A) Get one of your colleagues to fill in for you during your time away B) Ask several colleagues to assist in substituting for you in your absence C) Expect to get time off because you are entitled to it D) Talk to your supervisor about your plans E) Put together for your supervisor a reminder about your plans and a proposal to cover off your absence Questions 29. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 30. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

You are employed by a large organization with flexible hours and experienced staff. One of your co-workers often works in the evening, and is known for productivity and for the quality of her work. While working nights yourself, you become aware that she also does work on site for her part-time job using your organization’s equipment and supplies. Response Alternatives A) Mention to her your awareness of her outside work and explain your feelings about it B) Inform your supervisor about this discovery C) Avoid raising the issue with anyone and go about your own work D) Try to find out more about what she is doing and why E) Ask a colleague whether others are aware of this situation Questions 31. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 32. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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The management group overseeing your organization has approved several projects, including a ground-breaking one providing new services across the country. You and colleagues in your branch developed the ideas behind these services over several months. A launch party for the new initiatives has been announced in the internal newsletter, but you hear that only your supervisor and his assistant are attending the event from your branch. Response Alternatives A) Call the executive office and ask if you and your branch colleagues are invited B) Ask the supervisor’s assistant who is to attend from your branch C) Assume that there is a mix-up in communications and that you can attend D) Talk to your supervisor about the party and who is to participate E) Assume that the party is an event for supervisors and senior staff only Questions 33. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 34. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

You are taking a package to the mailroom for shipping when you see two employees putting cartons into a car parked beside the building. The cartons contain products made by your organization, but they are not packed for shipment. The employees notice your presence, then drive away. Response Alternatives A) Call the supervisor of the employees and explain what you have seen B) Inform your supervisor about the incident and ask her advice about appropriate action C) Speak to building security and leave your contact information for them D) Try to locate an employee who knows the two individuals and ask if he can explain what you saw E) Wait until you see the two employees again and ask them what was going on Questions 35. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 36. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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You are new to the organization but have a background in the services which your section delivers to clients. Senior management has made it known that the reputation of the organization for delivering reliable service is particularly important in the current business climate. In a conversation initiated by a key client you realize that your supervisor has given out incorrect service advice. Response Alternatives A) Apologize to the client, correct the problem, and inform your supervisor immediately B) Delay advising the client correctly until you check with your supervisor C) Tell the client about your background, and correct the mistaken advice provided on the spot D) Let management know about the error and take the decision to correct it E) Turn the client over to a more senior colleague to handle Questions 37. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 38. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

One of the employees you sit beside sends emails during working hours to order products for his own use. This is occurring with increasing frequency while client calls and emails mount during the busiest time of year for the organization. Others are aware of the habits of this individual but have not complained. Response Alternatives A) Register your concerns with your supervisor on behalf of everyone in the office B) Tell the employee to handle his responsibilities and stop his activities not related to work C) Canvass other employees to speak up about what is going on D) Explain your observations to the employee, and tell him how you see this affecting the office’s work E) Ask to be moved elsewhere in the office Questions 39. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 40. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ FSECC SCESE



You have been tasked by your supervisor with a new departmental initiative that has a high profile in the organization. The success of the initiative is important for your new job and ultimately for the organization’s reputation. You have become aware that the supervisor has also delegated some aspects of the initiative to a co-worker without telling you. Response Alternatives A) Call your co-worker and explain that this is your project B) Ask colleagues about the supervisor’s usual behaviour in assigning projects C) Ask you supervisor to meet to go over your understanding of project responsibilities D) Overlook the potential confusion and move ahead as you had planned E) Attempt to schedule a meeting with your supervisor and co-worker immediately Questions 41. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 42. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

Your colleague at the next desk is experienced and confident, but is sometimes abrupt with clients from smaller organizations. Everyone in the office is carrying a large workload since positions are vacant. In her haste to deal with some clients, your colleague occasionally gives unclear advice to them. Response Alternatives A) Consider the problem stress-related and do not mention it to your colleague B) Offer to take on some of the smaller clients she now serves C) Suggest that she could benefit from customer-service training D) Have a talk together about advising clients and how they should be treated E) Get your supervisor involved in the situation as soon as possible Questions 43. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 44. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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You have noticed that your supervisor is increasingly inattentive in meetings and discussions with you and other staff. He reads emails and takes calls in the middle of interactions, often losing track of what has gone on. Your annual review meeting is scheduled with him for early next week, just before he leaves for a training course. Response Alternatives A) Wait until the review meeting to raise this problem B) Get together with your co-workers to plan an approach to the supervisor C) Forget about the supervisor’s behaviour until after your review and his return from training D) Ask a more senior colleague to have a word with the supervisor E) Talk to your supervisor informally about your observations and how your interaction could improve Questions 45. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 46. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

The most experienced employee in your division has started to undermine decisions made by a new co-worker on client service issues. The employee repeatedly says that mistakes are being made on orders, and gives conflicting advice to some clients who have been served by the new staff member. As a result, she is getting frequent client call-backs and is becoming frustrated. Response Alternatives A) Sit down with both colleagues and try to mediate the situation B) Avoid getting in the middle of the problem C) Ask your supervisor to call in the two employees to resolve their differences D) Let your supervisor know what is going on and what you think is the basis of the situation E) Call any clients you know who have been affected to correct the problems Questions 47. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 48. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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Your supervisor is a rising star in the organization, with more responsibilities being assigned to her by management on a regular basis. Staff losses in your branch have occurred over several months, and new hires have not been planned. Your own busy season is approaching, and morale among the people in the branch is declining. Response Alternatives A) Go to personnel to find out when new staff will be hired B) Organize a meeting outside the office of staff who are disgruntled to plan what can be done C) Forget your concerns to stay on the good side of your supervisor D) Figure out your impending work demands and schedule a talk with your supervisor E) Raise your concerns at the next staff meeting Questions 49. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 50. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

You are concerned about the changing atmosphere in your branch. Two co-workers argue continually at meetings, and the team conducting the annual branch review has had disputes affecting you and other employees. You are not directly involved, but your attitude and performance are suffering. Response Alternatives A) Stay out of the problems and work in private as much as possible B) Tell all your co-workers to act more professionally C) Ask colleagues not involved in the disputes how to resolve them D) Appeal to the supervisor to intervene with both groups for the good of the branch E) Bring together some colleagues to go to the supervisor with you and discuss the individuals causing the problems Questions 51. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 52. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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Your supervisor has been selected by senior management to run a charity initiative taken on by the organization to raise its profile in the community. He has begun delegating some of the charity work to you and another colleague who have worked there only a short time. Your case load has been increased, and more personal interaction is now required of you and other staff hired for client service. Response Alternatives A) Explain to your supervisor that charity work could slow down getting your regular work done B) Go to your supervisor with the colleague also assigned charity work to state your concerns C) Ask for a case load reduction to compensate for the extra work D) Take on everything given you without showing concern E) Ask others in the office to help you and your colleague with the increased work Questions 53. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 54. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

You and two co-workers who are best friends have been assigned to a year-end project due soon. The two individuals always criticize your ideas, and have divided the work to their liking without consulting you. As the project deadline approaches you feel increasingly frustrated and unmotivated. Response Alternatives A) Ask your supervisor to be taken off the project B) Ask your supervisor to attend the next meeting about the project to see what is going on C) Ask your supervisor to expand the project team with two employees you know D) Tell both co-workers about how you view the situation and what you expect during the rest of your work together E) Appeal to the co-worker causing the fewest problems about your misgivings Questions 55. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 56. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ FSECC SCESE



You and a co-worker have an awkward relationship caused by a disagreement you had last year. Your new supervisor has assigned you both to develop a program requested by senior management. You must meet together soon, but are hesitant to do so because of concern about being able to work compatibly. Response Alternatives A) Tell your supervisor about the past difficulties and ask to be taken off the project B) Inform your supervisor that you want to be re-assigned in the organization C) Wait until you are called by your co-worker or the supervisor to start the project D) Email your co-worker to set a date to meet E) Ask your co-worker to meet you to talk about the assignment Questions 57. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 58. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

Your supervisor has recently experienced difficult family problems which have affected his performance and personality. Few people at work besides you know what has happened, but some staff members are upset with the changes in the supervisor’s habits. A major order has just come in to your unit which demands a cooperative effort to fill. Response Alternatives A) Tell your supervisor about the impact of his behaviour B) Do extra work with others in the unit to get the new order done C) Inform others about your supervisor’s difficulties to encourage them to support him D) Call a meeting to lay the ground-work for filling the order E) Go to your supervisor’s manager to explain the situation Questions 59. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 60. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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You and your colleagues in the office have finished moving to another building in a major reorganization initiative carried out during the busiest time of year. Your supervisor ordered the relocation, but was on vacation while it was carried out. The company newsletter has an interview profiling her, mentions her role in the move, but makes no reference to any other staff. Response Alternatives A) Check with the newsletter editor to find out whether the story is factual B) Ignore the story as written, but call your supervisor to broach your feelings C) Inform your supervisor what the move entailed and how people are responding to the profile D) Complain to the supervisor about her absence during the move E) Solicit opinions from staff about their views on the story Questions 61. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 62. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

You and an experienced co-worker have worked closely for weeks on a new business initiative for the organization. Following its completion, you are told that the co-worker is making it known that he directed the exercise. An email he wrote to another branch proves what has taken place. Response Alternatives A) Send an email to the other branch correcting the claim by your co-worker B) Go to your supervisor for advice on how to handle the situation C) Go to your co-worker to discuss your perception of what is going on D) Suggest to your co-worker that you should do a joint interview in the organization’s newsletter about the new initiative E) Check around about your co-worker’s reputation for integrity Questions 63. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 64. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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You are spending long hours on a project delegated to you by your supervisor who provided little guidance but heavy expectations. Others in your section are not busy, but many are new employees with limited experience. Your supervisor emails you asking about your progress and reminds you that extra effort is expected to meet organizational needs. Response Alternatives A) Co-opt the new employees to work under your direction to get the project done for the supervisor B) Call your supervisor to request a meeting as soon as possible to discuss the project C) Go to the most senior member in your section and ask for advice in handling the problem D) Do your best on the project, but avoid working overtime until the workload in the section is redistributed E) Ask personnel for a transfer to another section Questions 65. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 66. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

You and other newer employees are experiencing difficulty in working on a large project with other co-workers. Often, information you need is not forthcoming from long-serving employees, while some of those working on the project appear to have easy access to anything they request. Your month-end team meeting for the project is scheduled for later this week. Response Alternatives A) Seek advice from some of the more difficult employees on why they are negative about the project B) Talk to team members who are getting needed information about their methods C) Ask other colleagues having difficulty whether you can work in pairs to be more forceful D) Ask for a delay in the project and revise how you approach people for information E) View this as an initiation exercise and carry on Questions 67. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 68. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ FSECC SCESE



You just learned that you are to be part of a small team hastily put together by your supervisor to create a program requested by senior management. The supervisor has given no instructions on how to develop the program. Only a memorandum identifying the program topic and the names of team members has been circulated. Response Alternatives A) Request a special meeting with your supervisor to raise your concerns B) Call your supervisor to clarify what is happening C) Draft a plan for the program and give it to the supervisor to verify your interest in it D) Talk with other prospective team members to discuss what is going on E) Wait for further instructions Questions 69. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 70. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

You are working on your first research initiative for the organization. In several meetings you have organized, the staff members you interview are dismissive of you and the objectives of the research. Your confidence is being undermined, and your deadline is nearing. Response Alternatives A) Assert yourself more with staff at times and impress on them the importance of the research B) Ask more experienced colleagues doing research about the responses of staff they have dealt with C) Ask a more experienced colleague to accompany you to a few meetings D) Discuss with your supervisor getting help at the meetings, but still doing the report yourself E) Focus on how you can improve on your next assignment Questions 71. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 72. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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You constantly experience criticism for your actions from a co-worker you deal with. She always challenges your ideas and tells you how things should be done. You will need her help frequently in a project just assigned to you. Response Alternatives A) Address the issues of her behaviour and the project when you next talk to her B) Forget the past and try to start off well together on the new project C) Make her aware of your experience before you came to the organization D) Ask your supervisor for more authority in carrying out the project E) Respond aggressively to her comments Questions 73. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 74. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

You have run into a technical problem with your equipment that is impeding your progress in fulfilling a client order that only your unit can do. Your supervisor is new to the organization and how it operates, and is very busy learning her job. The deadline for the order has been moved up by the client. Response Alternatives A) Call the client, explain your situation and that there may be a delay B) Call technical services in your organization for help C) Tell your supervisor you want to contact technical services because of concerns about meeting the order D) Go to the former supervisor for help E) Bring together others in your unit who have technical skills to get their advice Questions 75. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 76. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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You have completed the year-end report for your branch which was assigned to you by your supervisor with little instruction. The work involved long hours, considerable research and interaction with employees throughout the branch. Now you have heard that the supervisor put his name on the report and has told management he did all the work. Response Alternatives A) Inform management directly about your work and your frustration with the supervisor B) Tell colleagues about what has happened and solicit their advice C) Tell your supervisor you are requesting a transfer D) Document all your time and effort spent on the report to bring to your supervisor E) Confirm what has happened with the report before taking action Questions 77. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 78. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

At team meetings you attend you are having difficulty making your views heard. Others are constantly interrupting you, talking over you, and ignoring your suggestions. This occurs even in discussions of topics for which you have designated responsibility. Response Alternatives A) Accept that this is how your organization functions in meetings B) Suggest to your supervisor that staff need a course in running meetings C) Put an item about ground rules on the next meeting agenda to formally signal your concerns D) Assert your authority at meetings when your topics come up E) Talk to colleagues individually about your feelings Questions 79. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 80. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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Your supervisor travels extensively throughout the country on business and makes his own bookings. The organization has strict, but reasonable directives for expenses. You unintentionally overhear your supervisor in a conversation with the travel agent discussing rebate cheques to be made payable personally to him, not the organization, and this sounds like a standard routine. Response Alternatives A) Report what you have heard to your supervisor’s supervisor B) Ignore what you have heard, as you have no hard evidence and there is no benefit for you in reporting this C) Interrupt your supervisor, and warn him about the rules and his conduct D) Go to another supervisor you know for advice about this incident E) Consider how you might find evidence to expose your supervisor’s misdeeds Questions 81. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 82. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

At a meeting on site with clients, your co-worker provides outdated information to them in a presentation. The handout material distributed is correct and no one seems to have noticed the verbal discrepancy. You will be speaking to the client group later in the day. Response Alternatives A) Tell clients about the discrepancy during your presentation B) Give your co-worker time during your presentation to correct the mistake C) Prepare a memo to clients with your co-worker to explain they must adhere to the handout instructions D) Tell your co-worker what you have noticed in his presentation and ask how he wants to fix the problem E) Circulate among the clients yourself to correct the misinformation Questions 83. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 84. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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Your supervisor has been with the organization throughout his career, but has only recently been promoted to a position of authority. He is becoming increasingly disrespectful to you and other younger employees about your style of dress. You have an opportunity to meet with him next week for the first time regarding your annual appraisal. Response Alternatives A) Talk to your supervisor in private about how his remarks are perceived by you and others B) Overlook the comments in order not to jeopardize your appraisal C) Meet with others to gauge their feelings, and to plan united action if necessary D) Take your complaint to the organization’s personnel department E) Take your complaint to a senior executive Questions 85. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 86. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

You discover samples are missing which are needed by you and a co-worker to demonstrate new technology to office staff. On checking the records, you find that he ordered and received the material. The replacement cost is significant, and the effectiveness of the demonstration will be diminished if employees do not use the sample technology during the session. Response Alternatives A) Show the receiving record to your co-worker and inquire where the samples are B) Ask your co-worker to distribute the samples at the demonstration C) Tell your supervisor you are suspicious, and explain what is happening D) Rearrange your demonstration to avoid mentioning the new technology and the sample E) Go to you co-worker and discuss how the demonstration will be delivered as planned Questions 87. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 88. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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One of your co-workers is frequently absent on personal business when you need to see him. The two of you have responsibility for producing a report, and as the due date approaches face-to-face discussion is required. Your colleague has a good reputation in the organization for his work, but is known for his erratic schedule. Response Alternatives A) Tell your co-worker he must be more available during working hours B) Ask your supervisor to turn the whole report over to you to do C) Get you co-worker to commit to a fixed schedule for the balance of the work together D) Meet together and discuss how to complete the report E) Adjust your schedule to your colleague’s availability until the report is done Questions 89. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 90. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

Your unit arranges the major meetings for senior management in the organization. Since new executives took over, your supervisor repeatedly changes her decisions, creating frustration for staff and additional costs. An important conference is scheduled tomorrow for you and some team leaders in the unit to finalize preliminary arrangements for the annual executive meeting. Response Alternatives A) Use the upcoming meeting, in part, to clarify problem issues in the operation of the unit as you see them B) Expect that organizational changes will always result in uncertainty and confusion C) Explain informally to a senior executive who you know the impact of the new group’s appointment on your unit D) Invite your supervisor to the upcoming meeting and plan how to raise your concerns there E) Speak to you supervisor and raise the issues and costs with her Questions 91. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 92. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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Your supervisor has you and several other team members regularly reporting to him. It is apparent to everyone that the newest employee is receiving and enjoying special treatment from the supervisor. Many of your colleagues are annoyed with the behaviour of both individuals, and the unit’s cohesiveness and productivity are beginning to suffer. Response Alternatives A) Raise your concerns at the next team meeting B) Take the new person aside, and explain the impact of his relationship with the supervisor on the whole unit C) Organize a series of interventions with the supervisor by team members who are upset D) Take the supervisor aside, and explain how you feel about his interaction with the new person E) Take the supervisor aside, and draw his attention to your perception regarding his treatment of all team members Questions 93. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 94. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

One of your co-workers you know well has begun acting strangely at the office. His appearance, manners and productivity are increasingly poor, and his absences are frequent. Nearly everyone has commented on the problem, and several staff members do not want to work with him any longer. Response Alternatives A) Try to persuade everyone on staff to be more sensitive B) Use your relationship with the co-worker to discuss what is going on C) Tell your co-worker about the results of his change in habits D) Inform your supervisor about the changes in your co-worker and the growing tension E) Do not act until you see more evidence about what is happening Questions 95. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 96. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ FSECC SCESE



Since several changes in the organization have been implemented, your long-serving supervisor has become increasingly vocal about the shortcomings of mangers and executives. His criticisms now include the senior manager of your branch who is new, but who has made the effort to develop rapport with the staff. Another outburst by your supervisor has just occurred in earshot of staff. Response Alternatives A) Get together a group of the staff to make your supervisor aware of his recent behaviour B) Take the view that this situation does not concern you, and may change over time C) Warn your supervisor about what he is doing and the likely impact on his reputation D) Warn the senior manager of the branch about what is going on E) Tell employees to ignore the supervisor’s behaviour as it is not their concern Questions 97. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 98. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

The newest colleague in the unit is being asked by several staff members to carry out menial tasks for them. The unit no longer has any administrative personnel because of cut-backs. You see the frustration growing in the new person, but no one else seems aware or concerned. Response Alternatives A) Realize that the new person has to learn to fend for herself B) Advise her on how to do some of the tasks more easily C) Go to personnel to make the case for administrative help to your section D) Go to your supervisor with your observations E) Talk to the staff members giving her the work about the effect this is having Questions 99. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 100. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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Answers and Competencies Tested for Sample SJT Test #1 Question

Answer

Competency Tested

1. Most Effective 2. Least Effective

C A

Teamwork / cooperation Judgement


E D



D C



B D



A D



A D



A B

Interpersonal Judgement


D E



D C



A D



B C



D A


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Question

Answer

Competency Tested


D C



C A



E C



A E



D E



C D



A D



D C



C A



D C



E D



D E



D B



D E


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Question

Answer

Competency Tested


B D



D C



E A



A E



C D



C E



B E



B A



B A



A C



B E



B A


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Question

Answer

Competency Tested


E A



C A



A C



D E



A E



E D



D A



E C



E C



B C



C D



E B


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SJT Sample Test # 2 – 100 Questions The administrator for your branch keeps irregular hours and takes sick days without calling in. He has worked for the organization a long time and has friends in the branch. His backlog of work includes several of your expense claims and requests for supplies. Response Alternatives A) Go to your supervisor and recommend action because of the administrator’s unreliability B) Tell the administrator your expectations regarding his work with you C) Work with the administrator to ensure your requirements are fulfilled within his schedule D) Ask a friend of the administrator to talk to him about his habits E) Avoid complaining about the delays because of the administrator’s relationships in the branch Questions 1. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 2. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

You overhear a co-worker harassing a new employee in private. The organization has rules against harassment, but there are no previous cases that you know about. The co-worker has a good reputation and long service in the organization. Response Alternatives A) Interrupt the encounter and tell your co-worker to stop the harassment B) Tell the new employee afterwards about what you heard and the organization’s policy against harassment C) Tell your co-worker later about what you heard and mention the organization’s policy against harassment D) Go to the organization’s ombudsperson and explain what you heard and who was involved E) Go to your supervisor and explain what you heard and who was involved Questions 3. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 4. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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You learn that a co-worker has received free tickets to an event from a supplier of products to your office. No one in the organization is allowed to take complimentary gifts to do with the job. The co-worker invites you to attend the event with him and two other colleagues from the office. Response Alternatives A) Accept the invitation because the co-worker is sharing the benefits B) Recommend to your co-worker to return the tickets C) Tell the supplier the organization’s rules, for future reference D) Tell you supervisor what is going on E) Turn down the invitation and ignore the situation Questions 5. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 6. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

Two of your co-workers on a quality improvement team developed a way to save the organization money in delivering its services. The team leader has informed management about the idea. You learn that the information sent to management cited the whole team for the idea and did not mention the two co-workers specifically. Response Alternatives A) Advise the two individuals to let management know it was their idea B) Accept the need to report team success over individual achievement C) Write management an unsigned note mentioning who came up with the idea D) Tell the team leader you disagree with his approach E) Suggest to the team leader that she should give credit to the two individuals Questions 7. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 8. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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Your unit has upgraded its computers to handle more complex reporting. Several co-workers continue to use the old equipment and are slower in finishing work because of this. A new executive group has taken over the organization and the demand for timely information is growing. Response Alternatives A) Approach one of the new executives and recommend computer training for selected staff to meet increasing workloads B) Propose a mentoring system at a unit meeting to get staff operating new equipment paired with individuals using old equipment C) Explain the situation in your unit to the organization’s technology supervisor D) Meet with your supervisor to inform her about what is happening E) Help where necessary when staff using old computers slow down work involving you Questions 9. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 10. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

A group of staff gather every morning and talk loudly about social activities. The sound carries across the office, but no one seems to have complained. Your work in dealing with clients over the telephone is problematic because of the noise. Response Alternatives A) Ask to be re-located to a quieter place B) Speak to your supervisor about the problem and ask her to address it C) Apologize to clients on the telephone and carry on serving them despite the noise D) Join the next staff conversation and tell people how the group’s behaviour is affecting others E) Ask colleagues in the office to join you in broaching the noise issue with your supervisor Questions 11. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 12. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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A colleague you frequently must share tasks with is difficult to keep focused on the job. He jokes with you, and talks about issues having nothing to do with your work together. You are frustrated and your work is suffering as a result. Response Alternatives A) Go to your supervisor about the situation B) Do your best with your responsibilities in the shared tasks C) Avoid responding to your co-worker’s comments and stick to discussing work D) Get your supervisor to join your next encounter with co-worker E) Tell you co-worker how you feel and ask him the reasons he avoids discussing work matters Questions 13. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 14. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

You and a co-worker are cooperating on an assignment given by your supervisor. The co-worker is missing agreed deadlines because of an increase in his regular workload, and because he is helping a friend in another unit on a project. Your monthly report on the assignment is due next week. Response Alternatives A) Help the co-worker with his extra workload so he can make time to do the assignment B) Speak to the co-worker’s friend and ask him to stop requesting help C) Tell your supervisor you may miss the monthly report deadline D) Tell your co-worker your concerns about what is happening with the assignment E) Ask your supervisor for additional help to do the assignment Questions 15. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 16. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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One of your co-workers has a hygiene problem that seems to be worsening. Staff are ridiculing the person behind his back, and no one associates with him in the office. The co-worker happens to complain to you about the cold atmosphere and asks your opinion about the cause. Response Alternatives A) Tell him you and a friend feel as he does, and suggest you all get together to discuss the situation B) Inform him that he may be creating his own isolation C) Tell him in private what you think is the problem D) Tell him what others are saying for his own good E) Tell him you are satisfied with the atmosphere and avoid the subject Questions 17. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 18. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

Your supervisor selects you to represent the section in negotiations with representatives from other sections about next year’s budget for the organization. At the first meeting your supervisor accompanies you and interjects during remarks by you and others. Your position is undermined and your confidence is damaged. Response Alternatives A) Ask your supervisor to be replaced in the negotiations B) Take your supervisor aside at a break in the meeting and explain your feelings and the impact of his behaviour C) Assert yourself at the meeting in unison with your supervisor D) Assert yourself at the meeting when other representatives speak to demonstrate your authority E) Plan to talk to your supervisor about what took place before the next budget meeting Questions 19. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 20. The least effective response to this situation would be: A)_____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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You hear a co-worker ask your supervisor to hire his daughter for a summer job. As everyone knows, regulations do not permit family members to work together. The co-worker requests a decision tomorrow from the supervisor. Response Alternatives A) Tell the supervisor and co-worker individually to avoid violating the regulations B) Go to your co-worker and explain your views on his request C) Get a group of co-workers to speak to the supervisor with you about upholding regulations D) Ask for a meeting with the supervisor and co-worker to remind them of the regulations E) Overlook the issue as it is only about summer employment Questions 21. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 22. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

At a presentation to senior executives your supervisor mixes up his notes and becomes flustered. Turning to you he asks for a piece of missing information. The audience is growing restless and your unit’s credibility is on the line. Response Alternatives A) Ask your supervisor to announce a short break until you find all the information he needs B) Tell the audience to take a break until you find the information C) Step up and present the information to the audience D) Apologize to the audience for the confusion and delay E) Tell your supervisor you need to see his notes to find the information Questions 23. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 24. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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You and others from different departments have been put on a team to work on an initiative affecting the whole organization. Each person seems to be concerned only with the interests of their department. The initiative is stalled and arguments dominate the meetings. Response Alternatives A) Defend your department’s interests vigorously until there is agreement B) Talk to team members individually to attempt to break the impasse C) Tell the team that an outside chairperson should be brought in to run meetings D) Ask your supervisor to attend a meeting with you E) Suggest that the team be disbanded and a new group put in place Questions 25. The most effective response to this situation would be: (3)

A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

26. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

You and several colleagues are collecting donations for the charitable cause supported annually by your organization. You become aware that one of your colleagues is pocketing some cash contributions made by co-workers. No one else appears to know what is happening. Response Alternatives A) Suggest that all solicitations be carried out by employees working in pairs B) Tell people who you believe have been duped what is happening C) Tell the employee what you suspect he is doing D) Tell others soliciting donations of your findings E) Inform his supervisor about what you know Questions 27. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 28. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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You object to some material you have heard is to be used in a national promotion for your organization. Others working on the promotion have voiced similar concerns privately but apparently have said nothing at meetings. Tomorrow is the final meeting of the promotion group with executives where the decision on content will be taken. Response Alternatives A) Forget about interceding as it is not your place to do so B) Call one of the executives to raise your concerns C) Speak to the project leader about your concerns D) Ask some promotion group members to speak out E) Ask for an opportunity to speak at the meeting Questions 29. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 30. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

Your supervisor asks you and two colleagues to carry out a research project. You have done similar work before but neither of the others has experience of this type. One of them brings a plan for dividing the research responsibilities to your first meeting. Response Alternatives A) State your experience and express your desire to lead the project B) Propose that the three of you draft a work plan and take it to the supervisor C) Propose that the three of you draft a work plan and use it to proceed D) Decide to ask the supervisor to put you in charge of the project E) Consider the project a chance to teach your colleagues how to do research Questions 31. The most effective response to this situation would be: (4)

A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____


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You have been transferred to a new unit created because of an internal reorganization by management. Few of the employees know each other, and there are conflicting attitudes and work styles. An assignment is given to you and several others to carry out by your supervisor. Response Alternatives A) Contact the others and set up a team meeting B) Wait for clarification of who is to be in charge in the assigned group C) Contact co-workers you know in the assigned group to plan project ground rules together D) Take charge of the group from the outset E) Plan how to best do your part based on your experience Questions 33. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 34. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

Your organization has guidelines on the use of vehicles it owns. A colleague with access to a vehicle for work purposes is known to use it occasionally on personal business. She is planning to take the vehicle on a trip with her family on a long weekend and mentions this to you. Response Alternatives A) Report the information to your supervisor B) Ignore your colleague’s actions C) Tell your colleague you will report her to the supervisor if she takes the trip using the vehicle D) Tell the transportation supervisor about your colleague’s habits E) Tell your colleague of the risk she is taking because of her planned action Questions 35. The most effective response to this situation would be: (5)

A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____


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In reviewing reports provided to you by a contracting company hired by management, you find the work sub-standard. The contracting company has been working for some time with your organization. The next report and invoice have come to you for approval. Response Alternatives A) Leave it to management to address the shortcomings B) Approach management with details on your concerns, and withhold approval on the current report and payment C) Tell the contracting company about your concerns and request appropriate revisions to the current report D) Ask a senior co-worker for advice on dealing with management and the contracting company E) Inform the contracting company of questions about their work in a memorandum copied to management Questions 37. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 38. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

You have seen several instances where your supervisor has taken work time and used the organization’s services to support a business set up by his spouse. The organization has policies on staff conduct and activities, but they are rarely enforced. The time your supervisor is taking to engage in these pursuits is significant and evident to other staff. Response Alternatives A) Tell your supervisor that you are aware of his actions, express concern and raise the possible repercussions B) Tell everyone to overlook what is happening based on the lax enforcement pattern in the organization C) Tell your supervisor to stop what he is doing, or you and others will have to report him D) Write an email to your supervisor’s director commenting on what you know E) Call the supervisor’s spouse about what is going on and how staff are perceiving it Questions 39. The most effective response to this situation would be: (6) A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 40. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ FSECC SCESE



You have a few co-workers who ignore workplace safety rules and mock staff who comply. An orientation for new staff is to include safety instructions and a demonstration of appropriate behaviour for emergencies. Your supervisor asks you to lead the orientation. Response Alternatives A) Plan to take new staff through the orientation and ask cooperation from everyone in advance B) Tell your supervisor you will do the orientation if he first tells staff who have ridiculed safety measures to cooperate C) Warn new staff members at the start of the orientation that not all employees consider safety important D) Suggest that the supervisor task one of the critics to work with you to set an example E) Hold a meeting with the critics before the orientation to make a case for safety Questions 41. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 42. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ You keep hearing from people in your section that they are burned out and that the organization is overly demanding. Your supervisor is under pressure and has started shifting work from those who complain to others. Your workload is sizeable. but now you have been asked to do more. Response Alternatives A) Accept the increased responsibilities as others have done B) Take up the situation with your supervisor’s manager because you disagree how things are being handled C) Gather the people who have received extra work to inquire about their feelings concerning what is going on D) Go to your supervisor to resist the increase in your workload E) Meet with your supervisor to raise your concerns about staff attitudes and explore how to improve things Questions 43. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 44. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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An employee new to your division is having difficulty figuring out a project that was assigned to her by the supervisor. She calls to ask your help urgently as the supervisor is away and the work is due when he returns tomorrow. Your workload is heavy and the timing is awkward for you. Response Alternatives A) Question why the employee waited until now to ask for help B) Tell her to bring the work over later in the day when your schedule permits C) Suggest she find someone to help her who is less busy than you D) Say she should track down the supervisor to get help E) Drop your work, help her and be sure to let the supervisor know what you did Questions 45. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 46. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ Information coming to you and your colleagues from another department is poorly prepared and sometimes late. Some colleagues have complained to the originating department but no improvements have occurred. You need the next batch of information from the other department for a quarterly report to management. Response Alternatives A) Go to the other department’s supervisor and make your case to her B) Get your supervisor to intervene with the other department’s supervisor and request improvements C) Because your colleagues had no impact when broaching problems before, forget about trying to improve things and work with what you receive D) Go to the people making the errors on your own, and urge them to improve E) Organize a team meeting between both departments to discuss the situation Questions 47. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 48. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ FSECC SCESE



You are aware that a colleague is having personal problems which are causing depression and a decline in her performance. Other colleagues are trying to help, but with little effect and slippage in their own output. The year-end is approaching and everyone needs to perform well to get through it. Response Alternatives A) Try to counsel your co-worker about her problems and get her back on track B) Tell your co-worker she appears to need help and offer to make an appointment with personnel for her if she wishes C) Recommend to your colleagues to stay out of the situation so their work does not suffer. D) Do your own work and avoid personal problems at the office E) Urge your supervisor to get involved to ensure the group’s performance keeps up with demands Questions 49. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 50. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ You learn that a systems problem in another unit is threatening their ability to produce information for a senior management meeting. Your supervisor and the supervisor of the other unit have a difficult relationship and seldom communicate. The meeting is important for the organization’s future direction. Response Alternatives A) Bring the supervisors together and point out the organization’s broader needs B) Offer your assistance to the other supervisor C) Send an email to colleagues you know in both units to encourage cooperation D) Go to your supervisor and encourage him to approach the other supervisor because of the situation E) Go to the other supervisor and urge him to approach your supervisor for help Questions 51. The most effective response to this situation would be: (7)

A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

52. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ FSECC SCESE



A staff member in your office is recruiting a sports team to compete against teams from other parts of the organization. Staff in the office vary greatly in age and the gender mix is approximately even. Your colleague putting the team together is asking only younger people to participate, all from the same gender. Response Alternatives A) Let the person assembling the team be responsible for who to include B) Put an item about team demographics on the agenda of the next office meeting C) Talk to other employees about their feelings concerning the team D) Ask the person assembling the team if you can co-direct it to ensure inclusiveness E) Recommend to the person assembling the team that anyone in the office should be allowed to participate Questions 53. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 54. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ You are organizing a holiday celebration for your branch. It is an annual event and money is collected from everyone to pay for food and entertainment. Two staff members do not want to participate, which has never happened before. Response Alternatives A) Make contributing mandatory as everyone is invited to attend B) Ask colleagues to talk with the two individuals and urge them to join in C) Recognize that attending should be optional now that the issue has come up D) Make an extra effort yourself to persuade the two staff members to participate E) Tell the two staff members they are letting people down by not coming to the celebration Questions 55. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 56. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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An employee in your section who works for the supervisor has access to staff records. Policy requires that the information be kept confidential. You learn that the employee has mentioned details about a staff member’s personal problems to others in the section. Response Alternatives A) Go to your supervisor about what you have found out B) Avoid the situation as it does not concern you C) Tell the employee who works for the supervisor to keep your records confidential D) Tell the employee about whom information was divulged what has happened E) See how widespread the information is before deciding what to do Questions 57. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 58. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ Your supervisor is required to conduct a quarterly review with every employee in the unit. This is a time-consuming process to prepare for and carry out, and reviews are often delayed because of his overall work responsibilities. The last review for you and other employees is overdue and people are unhappy. Response Alternatives A) Talk to other supervisors yourself about how they manage the review process B) Go to your supervisor and ask to set a date for your review C) Meet with an executive you know to request that the review policy be enforced D) Canvass other employees to discuss what can be done E) Await your review and keep working, as you are no worse off than others Questions 59. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 60. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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Your organization has agreed to relax standards of dress one day a week. The advisory memorandum requests staff to dress in a “business casual” style. Several employees in your office have started to wear jeans and running shoes on these days, and clients who visit see them in this attire. Response Alternatives A) Tell your supervisor that the term “business casual” needs to be defined and promoted B) Suggest to employees who may be seen by customers that they should dress better C) Set a good example yourself to prompt others to follow D) Recommend to the supervisor that clients not be invited to visit on casual dress days E) Put the issue on the agenda for the next office meeting, and draft a dress code to present there Questions 61. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 62. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ A co-worker you cooperate with on projects is a capable researcher but continually adds new information right before deadlines. Your work together has received good responses from supervisors and management, though you find her style of operating unsettling. A new project has just been assigned to the two of you. Response Alternatives A) Ask your supervisor to be reassigned to develop professionally by working with others B) Ask your supervisor to reassign your co-worker and bring in someone you are more compatible with C) Use the new project to discuss with your co-worker mutual changes to improve your cooperation D) Set up a meeting with your supervisor and co-worker to set rules governing project work E) Inform your co-worker that she needs to finish her research earlier on projects you do jointly Questions 63. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 64. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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You work in a small office where staff have personal workstations. On several occasions you have noticed one staff member at the computer in cubicles other than her own. When she sees you she always leaves where she is and returns to her own location. Response Alternatives A)

Ask other employees whether anyone has been tampering with their computer

B)

Tell the employee that you have seen her in other work stations and to stay out of yours

C)

Tell your supervisor about the behaviour of the employee in question

D)

Change the password on your computer to secure your information

E)

Tell your supervisor that he needs to advise staff to change their computer password and to secure their personal effects

Questions 65. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 66. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

An employee you work with is able and outgoing. He is involved in charitable causes for the organization and several outside work as well. He repeatedly seeks donations and sells tickets for the causes he supports, and staff are finding this oppressive. Response Alternatives A) Overlook the interruptions as the causes seem worthy, but limit your giving to what you can afford B) Tell your supervisor to stop these intrusions which bother you and everyone else C) Keep turning the person down in the hope he will stay away D) Ask a few employees to join you in asking the individual to curb his solicitations on behalf of personal causes E) Make the employee aware of the effect his actions are having on his reputation and the atmosphere in the office Questions 67. The most effective response to this situation would be: (8)

A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____


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Your supervisor selects staff to attend training courses provided by the organization for professional development. Course completions are noted on personnel files and contribute to decisions about promotion. Another course has been publicized, but with no details on who will be participating. Response Alternatives A) Meet with your supervisor to indicate your interest in career advancement and your desire to go on the course B) Research the course and make a case to your supervisor why you should attend C) Wait until the list of attendees is known before taking action D) Talk to others in your group to see whether they have been selected to attend E) Call the course provider to find out details about selection Questions 69. The most effective response to this situation would be: (9)

A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

70. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ You work at headquarters in the client service unit of a new organization operating across the country. Because of different time zones, some callers have access to staff only for a limited period daily. Callers have started complaining about the hours they can reach you. Response Alternatives A) Alter your hours of work occasionally to be more available to clients B) Remind clients they can use voice mail and that you will call back as soon as possible C) Document complaints, and raise the issue of client accessibility at the unit’s monthly meeting D) Find out what colleagues are experiencing with clients E) Go to your supervisor for advice on handling client complaints Questions 71. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 72. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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When you have technical problems the support group in your branch usually responds effectively. Three individuals comprise tech support, but it seems to you that two of them provide most of the service. Calling about a current technical failure you reach the third individual for the first time in months. Response Alternatives A) Ask for one of the people you usually deal with B) Explain your problem and request assistance C) Inquire why the person you have reached is seldom available D) Hang up and call back later to get one of the people you know better E) Ask the person you have reached to come over with one of the other technical staff to look at the problem Questions 73. The most effective response to this situation would be: (10)

A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____


Your section has a combined photocopy and lunch room which is busy all the time. Posted notices explain that staff are to keep things in order in both areas. To your knowledge, one long-serving employee never fills the copier with paper or cleans up after eating. Response Alternatives A) Point out the notices and ask the employee to follow the rules B) Tell your supervisor about the employee’s conduct C) Show the employee how to service the copier, and ask him to clean up after himself D) Suggest a system of fines be developed for people who do not clean up after themselves E) Propose a rotating duty roster so everyone gets involved in keeping the facility functional and clean Questions 75. The most effective response to this situation would be: (11)

A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____


FSECC SCESE



One colleague in your section is frequently on a cell phone, making and receiving personal calls at her desk and as she walks around. The calls are distracting and put her behind in her work. You sometimes have clients come to your office who are exposed to this behaviour. Response Alternatives A) Ask her to turn her cell phone off at work B) Use the boardroom when clients come to meet you C) Go to your supervisor and request that she deal with the employee D) Put this issue on the agenda of a section meeting E) Tell the employee that personal conversations have no place in the office Questions 77. The most effective response to this situation would be: (12)

A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____


You see a newspaper story reporting that your office building is an unhealthy work environment. Anonymous staff comments appear in the story, but the writer indicates that no one representing your organization will return calls about the situation. Your supervisor has worked in the building for years. Response Alternatives A) Call your organization’s public affairs office for more information B) Ask your supervisor to investigate the allegations and inform you and other staff whether they are true C) Try to find out who the anonymous staff members are and what they know D) Go to the property management section to obtain a written statement on the building’s condition E) Start a petition to the head of the organization for a response to employees concerns about the environment Questions 79. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 80. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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One of your new colleagues has used unacceptable language and told inappropriate jokes since joining the branch. The age, gender and cultural make up of the branch is diverse, and the new individual is alienating people. Your supervisor has ignored the person’s actions so far. Response Alternatives A) Take your supervisor aside and suggest that she needs to act to address the new person’s behaviour B) Go to the person yourself and outline the impact his conduct is having on staff C) Voice your disapproval publicly the next time the person acts inappropriately D) Ask your supervisor to look into sensitivity training for the person E) Avoid the person and tell others to do likewise Questions 81. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 82. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ One of your colleagues continually takes home office supplies for his children to use at school. The quantities are not large, but occasionally supplies which staff need for work are not available. The individual does not try to hide what he is doing. Response Alternatives A) Tell colleagues that they need to complain to the supervisor when they cannot find supplies B) Let the colleague know that you disapprove of his actions C) Stock up on supplies you need when shipments come in, and tell your supervisor why you are doing this D) Inform security about what is going on E) Disregard the issue as it is not worth getting involved Questions 83. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 84. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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A colleague talks non-stop and repeats examples about how the organization was better in the past. He and the supervisor began working together when your unit was established. The individual has been paired with you by your supervisor to do a new project that will require some time to complete. Response Alternatives A) Try to focus on the project and learn from your colleague’s examples B) Suggest to your supervisor to give the project to you and someone newer in the organization to get a fresh perspective C) Decline to work with this individual on the project D) Explain your misgivings about working with this colleague to your supervisor E) Tell the supervisor this pairing will work only if he is involved on the project Questions 85. The most effective response to this situation would be: (13)

A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

86. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ One of your colleagues has begun to overpower people with the strong scent he is using. He always holds meetings in his small office because he has difficulty moving around but does not like to admit this. You have allergies and often find the situation overwhelming. Response Alternatives A) Tell the colleague how you are reacting and ask is he could change to accommodate your needs B) Consider his sensitivities and avoid discussing the issues with him or working with him for any length of time C) Promote the idea of holding meetings in a boardroom from now on D) Lobby for the introduction of a policy against the use of scent, as done in hospitals for health reasons E) Ask a co-worker close to the colleague to persuade him of the need to alter his habits Questions 87. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 88. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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Your branch has agreed to open a storefront office to become more visible to clients. Staffing the new office will require employees to dress differently, keep specific hours, and move. Employees are squabbling about the change, and the storefront could open behind schedule. Response Alternatives A) Recommend creating a team empowered to take all decisions about the store-front operation B) Suggest to your supervisor that she should make the final decisions about the storefront operation C) Ask your supervisor about transferring to the store-front to further your career D) Stay out of the disputes and offer to do what suits you best E) Ask to have a staff meeting, and develop a plan for job-sharing in the store-front so everyone is treated the same Questions 89. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 90. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ A training session is in progress for your organization which you and several other employees were selected to attend. Two employees keep disrupting the session with negative remarks aloud and whispered conversations. The presenter and other employees at the session are frustrated and losing focus. Response Alternatives A) Wait until a break, then ask the presenter to control the group better B) Take the presenter aside and recommend re-seating everyone so the two employees can be separated C) Tell the two employees directly at the session that they are undermining the effectiveness of the training D) Call your supervisor about what is going on E) Ask a senior colleague at the session to talk to the two employees about their behaviour at lunch time Questions 91. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 92. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ FSECC SCESE



A co-worker occasionally brings her young child to work for the day when the supervisor is away. You are not aware of any rules covering this type of conduct, but you have not seen other employees bring children to the office during work hours. The child is generally well behaved but does wander into offices by himself. Response Alternatives A) Mention these occurrences to your supervisor when she returns B) Reason with the child to ask him to stay in his mother’s office C) Close your door and avoid the situation so you can work and not upset anyone D) Ask your co-worker to keep better control of the child E) Tell your co-worker that you think what she is doing is inappropriate and should be cleared with the supervisor Questions 93. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 94. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ You and a co-worker just completed a project, and have been asked by your supervisor to present it to management. Your co-worker is highly qualified but has a heavy accent, making him difficult to understand at times. The meeting is next week and the audience is a large, important one. Response Alternatives A) Take over the role of presenter to ensure success and avoid embarrassment for everyone B) Ask your co-worker if he is comfortable doing the presentation with you to the group C) Point out to your supervisor the potential pitfalls with the presentation, and the risk for his, your and the co-worker’s reputation D) Carry out the presentation as assigned by your supervisor E) Plan to assist your co-worker during his part of the presentation, and tell him you are ready to step in when needed Questions 95. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 96. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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You work in an open office with other colleagues. One individual eats and drinks at his desk throughout the day, and leaves dishes and garbage in full view without cleaning up. Signs in the lunchroom say food should be consumed there, not in the office. Response Alternatives A) Ask others their opinion on the situation before taking action B) Clean up the employee’s desk while he sits there to make your point about his habits C) Point out the sign when he is next in the lunch-room with you, and ask him to abide by the rules D) Get you supervisor to speak to the employee about his habits E) Go about your work, keeping your surroundings clean as an example to the employee Questions 97. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 98. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ You have heard a rumour that a colleague in your division is about to be promoted. The organization’s promotion process is under review because of appeals of past decisions. Now a notice is posted, signed by your supervisor, announcing the colleague’s promotion. Response Alternatives A) Tell other employees about what has happened and suggest that you want to approach management for clarification on their behalf B) Congratulate your colleague, as problems with the promotion system are not her fault C) Got to your supervisor to request details on how the current promotion process is operating D) Go to senior management to question the promotion while the process is under review E) Ask to meet with the supervisor and employee together to express your concerns about how promotions are taking place Questions 99. The most effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____ 100. The least effective response to this situation would be: A) _____ B) _____ C) _____ D) _____ E) _____

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Answers and Competencies Tested for Sample SJT Test #2 Question

Answer

Competency Tested


B E



A C



B A



B A



B A



D C



E B



D A



C E



B C



A C



A C


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Question

Answer

Competency Tested


B A



C B



C B



C A



A C



E D



B A



A B



A C



E B



B E



B C



E D


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Question

Answer

Competency Tested


D B



E B



C A



A D



B C



A B



C E



C A



E B



B E



C B



B C



C D


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Question

Answer

Competency Tested


A E



B E



A C



B C



D C



A B



A B



A C



E C



D A



C B



C D


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SECTION VIII – WRITTEN COMMUNICATION TEST (WCT) Introduction Communication skills testing by the government over the past 20 plus years has involved two tests. The Written Communication Test (WCT) was used from the 1970s to 2000, and was reinstated in Spring 2005. The Written Communication Proficiency Test (WCPT), discussed elsewhere in this Study Kit, was used from 2001 onward for certain positions open in national Post-Secondary recruitment campaigns, and in some internal promotion exercises. The WCT is a summary writing exercise; the WCPT is a multiple-choice language usage and editing test. The WCT has been revived because it actually tests whether candidates can analyze a text and can write a solid, government-style summary under pressure of time. This is a useful skill in many officer-level government jobs, although somewhat less necessary with the advent of web information over hard copy documents. This section of the Study Kit focuses exclusively on the re-introduced WCT – an exercise to test the ability of candidates to write a summary in the government style.

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i.

Communication Skills Testing – Past WCT Exercise The description of the WCT for previous government competitions is included below for comparison with the outline for the “new” WCT which follows in sequence. A sampling of past WCT topics are also included along with the typical format of past tests.

Written Communication Test (WCT) Instructions: Post-Secondary Recruitment Campaigns from the 1970s to 2000 The Written Communication Test assesses your ability to communicate in writing. You will be given a text of about 2000 words and requested to summarize it in approximately 450 words. During the 90 minutes allowed for this test, you may prepare a rough draft of your summary, but you must submit a final copy. Budget your time when making a rough draft or an outline of your summary to leave enough time to make a final copy. Your text summary will be scored on the basis of grammar, spelling, punctuation, style and content coverage. You can prepare for this test by summarizing a text and reviewing your product for error in spelling, punctuation and grammar, as well as for style and content coverage.

Written Communication Test: Past Topics Articles were historical overviews of policy development:

•

The Importance of Public Transportation (1997 & 2004)

•

Regional Development in Canada (1995 & 1996)

•

Copyright Law (1994 & 1998)

•

Evolution of the Canadian Health Care System (1991 & 1992)

Typical format was:

N.B.

-

3½-page text, single-spaced

-

15 to 17 paragraphs

-

115 to 125 lines at 13 to 15 words per line

-

1900 to 2100 words to be reduced to 450 words, in 90 minutes

Candidates are typically provided with: 5 sheets of lined paper, stapled together, on which to write their summary; one piece of scrap paper to use for planning. All paper given out is collected at the end of the WCT test.

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ii.

Communication Skills Testing – Current WCT Exercise The current WCT is simply a re-instatement of the same exercise as used in the past: writing a summary in the government style. The government’s test instructions off their website are included in the following, and then we have provided comprehensive instructions on how to improve your WCT performance. There are two sample texts to summarize followed by respective sample summaries. Finally, we have included a sample of a well-written government summary about foreign policy which you can benefit from reviewing.

iii.

Public Service Commission Web Page Insertion The following description is taken from the Public Service Commission of Canada’s Website www.jobs.gc.ca. It is imported here to show you their current instructions about the WCT, and serve as a preface to our tips and sample exercises intended to improve your summary writing performance on test day.

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Written Communication Test (WCT-347) (Post-Secondary Recruitment Campaign, Spring 2005)

Use The purpose of the Written Communication Test (WCT) is to assess an individual's ability to write in a clear and concise manner. It can be used to assess individual contributors, managers, or leaders whose position requires them to write clear and concise letters, memos, reports, etc. The test can be used to assist managers in making selection decisions, identifying training and development needs, establishing organizational training needs, and counseling for career transitions.

Description In the Written Communication Test, individuals read a text of approximately 2,000 words. They then prepare a summary of approximately 450 words which covers the major points contained in the text. The summary must be written in a formal narrative style; a pointform outline is NOT acceptable. You are expected to provide an accurate, clear and concise report of the text. The summary is to be written in your own words. The scoring takes into consideration: • • •

mechanics of writing (grammar, spelling and punctuation) content style (structure, usage and conciseness)

The test takes 1 1/2 hours to write or approximately 1 3/4 hours including administrative time. Managers set the cut-off score based FSECC SCESE



on the level of skill required for the position. Test results will be available in mid-July 2005. Consult the PostSecondary Recruitment (PSR) website for information regarding the communication of results. Please note that since this test is used for staffing purposes and is not a diagnostic instrument used for career development purposes, the information available with respect to your performance is limited to the rating for the overall Written Communication and the rating for each specific component of the competency assessed:more detailed feedback cannot be provided. Candidate Information Top of Page Updated: 2005-03-23

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Important Notices


iv.

Tips on WCT Performance Improvement

The following is our proven methodology to handle the WCT summary exercise effectively. Digest and heed these instructions to practise writing summaries of the following texts which you can benchmark against the enclosed sample summaries. Most candidates will not be clear on WCT test requirements, likely will never have tried writing a government-style summary while being timed, and overrate their analytical and writing ability. However, you can excel on the WCT by doing some strategizing and practice in advance of the real test.

How To Do the Written Communication Test (WCT) Test Objective The government-style summary, executive summary or précis exercise is intended to assess ability to analyze, understand, deconstruct, synthesize and summarize a given text on a substantive topic. The requirements of the exercise are: •

To reduce the text to approximately 20% of its original length

•

To reflect the original content (not your opinions), and maintain the structural sequence

•

To complete the final summary in writing (not point form), in a clear, coherent and grammatically correct form

How to Succeed: Crucial Advice for Writing the Summary You should plan, draft and review your summary using the following 12 steps in the time allotted: 1. Text Analysis/Comprehension – read and re-read the original text thoroughly: you cannot summarize what you do not understand 2. Topic Identification – identify clearly and highlight the key idea or overriding theme of the text as you perceive it 3. Sub-theme Identification – deduce and note the primary sub-themes and/or section breaks in the overall text FSECC SCESE



4. Supporting information – find and mark supporting points, phrases, words, definitions or quotations 5. Reassess Approach – quickly re-check your analysis/understanding of the overall topic, sub-themes and essential support material for use in your summary 6. Title Selection – provide a suitable title for the summary which reflects what the original text is about 7. Topic Sentence – draft your topic or introductory sentence to articulate the main purpose of the original text N.B. Write in third person, not first person 8. Supporting Paragraphs – draft the body of the summary to reflect, In sequence, the seminal points in the original text 9. Concluding Sentence – draft a final sentence that accurately represents where the original text closed (and don’t “invent” a “conclusion” if not included in the original text) 10. Edit Draft – revise your summary as needed to ensure coherent, concise expression of the original text’s ideas in well-structured sentences, consistent in tone with the original text 11. Proofread Summary – check vocabulary and word choice for appropriateness and variety, ensure quotations selected (if any) are used exactly, and check grammar, spelling and punctuation 12. Ensure Readability – write legibly and on every second line so final changes can be made easily and clearly, and so markers can read your summary N.B. Plan your work to finish the summary in the limited time allotted Footnote: The WCT summary exercise has usually been marked 40% for content and coverage; 30% for structure, conciseness and word usage; and 30% for grammar, spelling and punctuation. FSECC SCESE



v.

Instructions for Sample WCT Texts and Sample WCT Summaries Two sample texts to summarize are provided below, with a double-spaced summary for each included. Both texts are shorter than what you will encounter on the real WCT, but are representative of the level of difficulty of the actual text you will be required to summarize on test day. Our exercises are intentionally shorter than the real test so that you will be able to practice your summary writing skills in a reasonable amount of time. Take 70 minutes to do the first sample exercise, and 35 minutes to do the second, shorter one. Contrast your sample summaries with the examples provided, and review your work and our sample vis à vis the instructions for doing the WCT.

N.B.

You are better off knowing nothing about the topic. The WCT exercise requires sticking to the text, not inserting your opinions.

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WCT Sample Text #1 to Summarize A NEW DEFINITION OF MENTAL HEALTH There is a compelling need in the Correctional Service of Canada for a well articulated definition of mental health. Such a definition would help shape enterprising, effective policies and programs in the field. It would also clarify the objectives of mental health promotion and mental health services. Furthermore, it would delineate the roles of the various agents such as professionals and community groups in promoting mental health. Essentially, this definition would allow the Service to “rank issues in order of their priority, articulate problems more precisely, design more effective strategies, and allocate available resources more appropriately and effectively” (HWC, 1988a:6). Until now, mental disorder has been the focus of the field of mental health: a recognized and medically diagnosed illness resulting in the impairment of one’s cognitive, affective or relational abilities. Mental health was described in terms of psychological and behavioural characteristics, rather than in terms of the conditions of the social, economic and cultural environment. Mental health was defined as the absence of mental disorder. In recent years, research has brought about an appreciation of the role of contributing factors to mental health, such as socio-economic situation, the physical environment, interpersonal relationships, and the family. The mutual influence of the offender, the organization and the environment on mental health is now being recognized, and is based on an underlying assumption of “systems theory”; the belief that society can best be described as a “set of units with relationships among them” (Fitzpatrick, Whall, Johnson & Floyd. 1982:5). Most models take systems theory one step further and propose that the individual, as an integral part of society, is in constant interaction with the changing environment. A striking parallel can be drawn between this vision of the role of an interactive, changing environment and the definition of mental health. This parallel is an important one, because it provides a bridge in transforming the conceptual model into operational terms and practices. Today’s definition of mental health has several key elements. These are an individual’s: • • • • •

social and psychological integration and harmony, effective personal adaptation, quality of life and general well-being, self-actualization and growth, and the interaction between the individual, group and environment.

The common theme here is that mental health derives from individuals’ personal happiness and their degree of success in adapting to their environment. The mission statement believes that the offender is capable of and responsible for adopting pro-social values, such as personal happiness and adapting successfully to the environment, and that the correctional environment promotes these values. This concept of mental health imposes on all correctional staff the responsibility to foster a positive environment.

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Operationally, the concept of unit management plays a significant role in fostering staffoffender interaction and offender mental health. It is a decentralized approach to offender management and ensures that the lines of authority are well-defined, that decision-making processes are delegated to the unit level, and that extensive interaction between staff and offenders occurs. By describing the expanded roles of the all correctional staff and emphasizing that their work is a means to achieve a healthier environment for both staff and offenders, unit management provides an operational link between the conceptual framework of mental health and correctional practice. Case management strategies play an equally important role in showing how the conceptual definitions and goals can be transformed into practice. These strategies identify the needs and problems of the offender, define the short - and long - term goals essential to deal with these, and devise a plan of action to achieve expected results. This approach provides case managers with the necessary tools to be used in the case management process, and with direction to solve identified problems. By enabling correctional staff at all levels to know the offender better, the system ensures that correctional interventions obtain concrete results. Mental life comprises both inner and interpersonal group experiences. All interactions with others take place within a framework of social values. The Task Force believes, therefore, that any definition of mental health must reflect the kind of people we are capable of becoming, the aspirations we consider desirable and the type of society we wish to live in. Such a definition must take into account the reciprocal relationship between the offender, the Service and the community. In response to this need for an interactive definition of mental health, Health and Welfare Canada has proposed the following definition: “Mental health is the capacity of the individual, the group and the environment to interact with one another in ways that promote subjective well-being, the optimal development and use of mental abilities (cognitive, affective and relational), the achievement of individual and collective goals consistent with justice and the attainment and preservation of conditions of fundamental equality,” (HWC, 1988a:7) The Task Force adopts this definition of mental health and uses it as a base for its conceptual framework. Subjective well-being means making it possible for offenders to feel well, maintain a positive self-image, and experience satisfaction in living. To achieve these feelings the physical environment as well as the social and organizational environment must be conducive to positive change, and both offenders and staff must be active participants. Barriers standing between offenders and growth must be identified and removed wherever possible. These principles apply particularly to unit management, where a correctional officer’s primary focus should be on inmate activity. All correctional staff are encouraged to play an active role in interacting with offenders and motivating them to take part in initiatives which enable selfdevelopment, a return to the community, and the achievement of well-being. Staff should be actively present in areas of inmate activity in order to encourage this interaction. By fostering positive interpersonal relationships, all correctional staff share in the responsibility for the planning and delivery of mental health interventions.

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Fostering well-being is consistent with Core Value I of the mission statement. By making it possible for offenders to maintain a positive self-image and experience satisfaction in living, the Correctional Service of Canada shows respect for the dignity of individuals and works towards providing a safe and secure environment, one which fosters positive interaction between staff and offenders (Strategic Objective 1.4). Fostering subjective well-being, through positive interaction between staff and offenders, also reflects the mission statement’s Core Value 3. Its strategic objectives concern the Service’s belief that strength lies in its staff, and that human relationships are the cornerstone of its endeavour. As such, one operational objective is to ensure that staff spend as much time as possible in direct contact with offenders (Strategic Objective 3.4). The principles of unit management, and other principles contained in the conceptual framework for mental health, aim for this common goal. Optimal development and use of mental abilities (cognitive, relational and affective) means helping offenders create opportunities to challenge themselves and to assume responsibility for self-development. It also means removing stereotypes which could impede the development of offenders’ mental abilities (such as believing that sex, race or religion determines one’s capacity to think or feel.) Helping offenders challenge themselves and assume responsibility for self-development is consistent with Core Value 2 of the mission statement. The Service recognizes that offenders have the potential to live as law abiding citizens, and works towards providing programs to assist them in meeting their individual needs and enhancing their potential for reintegration in the community (Strategic Objective 2.3). At the same time, offenders are ultimately responsible for their actions and must bear responsibility for criminal behaviour. The Service believes that programs and opportunities which assist offenders in developing social and living skills will enhance their potential to become law-abiding citizens. The Service works towards ensuring that offenders are productively occupied and have access to a variety of work and educational opportunities to meet their needs for growth and personal development (Strategic Objective 2.4). Whereas the mission statement and the conceptual framework provide the rationale, unit managers provide the means by which staff works towards optimizing individual development. They must urge correctional staff to foster a positive institutional environment and to promote responsibility for self-development. Achievement of goals consistent with fundamental justice implies the need to choose equitable goals and reject those that imperil the rights and well-being of others. Therefore, promoting mental health may minimize the social, cultural, economic and physical hindrances that limit individual choice and responsibility. Attainment and preservation of conditions of fundamental equality refers to mental life. If an offender experiences inequality and prejudice, his or her mental health will not be promoted. Attaining equality is consistent with Core Value 1 of the mission statement and its objectives involving respect for the social, cultural and religious differences of individual offenders (Strategic Objective 1.7). Certain factors prevent the offender and the Service from interacting effectively with the community and one another, and become barriers to the optimization of mental health. The FSECC SCESE



Correctional Service of Canada needs to foster healthy interactive processes and ensure that the relationship between the offender, the Service and the community is positive. Inequities can undermine an offender’s mental health; therefore, promoting mental health means removing inequities wherever possible. Given the constant interaction between the offender, the Service and the community, the definition of mental health must affirm certain societal values: human equality, justice, freedom of choice, and social responsibility. However, mental health can only be improved when social and legal environments advocate human rights and restrict destructive behaviour. The Service must support individuals and create conditions that contribute to health, and must see that offenders acquire skills and resources that permit them to contribute to communal life, meet personal needs and improve the environment. These conditions are implicit in the Service’s mission statement and core values, and must be respected. Summary Exercise: 1609 words

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WCT Sample Summary #1 A New Definition of Mental Health Citing the need for a clear definition of mental health in the Correctional Service of Canada (CSC) to improve prioritization, problem identification, strategy design and resource allocation, the paper contrasts the standard emphasis on mental health’s psychological aspects with a new approach focusing on socio-economic and cultural concerns. This “system theory” basis for mental health views the individual interacting in a social environment influenced by CSC staff. An offender’s personal happiness, psychologically and socially, is dependent on this environment. Decentralized unit management and personalized case management for incarcerated offenders can ensure that the systems concept succeeds in practice. The new definition of individual mental health proposed by Health and Welfare Canada (HWC) and adopted by CSC’s Task Force takes into account an offender’s subjective well-being, use of mental ability, and achievement of goals within an institutional setting where equality prevails. Subjective well-being entails feeling well, sustaining a favorable self-image and experiencing satisfaction in living, all of which require a social and organizational atmosphere conducive to positive change. To foster this, the primary focus and responsibility of correctional officers must be on inmate activities. Optimal development of cognitive, relational and affective mental abilities by offenders requires that staff create an environment where offenders challenge themselves and assume responsibility for self-development. This encourages offenders to be personally responsible for meeting their own needs, and for reintegrating into the community as law-abiding citizens. Achievement of goals by offenders demands environmental conditions which are based on fundamental justice and equality, and where the rights and well-being of all are respected. The paper asserts that CSC must promote positive interaction among offenders, staff and the community, and must define mental health in a way that affirms societal values such as equality, justice, freedom of choice and social responsibility. Such a definition of and operational approach to the mental health of offenders is said to be consonant with CSC’s mission, core values and strategic objectives. Summary: 317 words

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WCT Sample Text #2 to Summarize Statement by the Right Honourable Joe Clark, Secretary of State for External Affairs, House of Commons, January 21, 1985 On January 8, following two days of meetings in Geneva, the United States Secretary of State, Mr. George Shultz, and the Soviet Foreign Minister, Mr. Andrei Gromyko, agreed to undertake a new set of bilateral negotiations on nuclear arms and space weapons. That agreement represents an important step forward in relations between the United States and the Soviet Union, and in the prospect of reducing the danger of nuclear conflict. The negotiating process which it initiates can have far-reaching and positive implications for East-West relations, and also for negotiations in multilateral arms control fora in which Canada is a direct participant. I take this first occasion, in this session of Parliament, to congratulate both the United States and the Soviet Union for resuming negotiations. We are particularly encouraged by the objectives agreed on by the two sides for their negotiations: the prevention of an arms race in space and its termination on earth; the limitation and reduction of nuclear arms; and the strengthening of strategic stability, leading ultimately to the complete elimination of nuclear weapons. Those themes have long been central elements of Canadian foreign policy. As the joint statement following the Shultz/Gromyko meetings indicated, the negotiations will address “a complex of questions concerning space and nuclear arms – both strategic and intermediate range – with all these questions considered and resolved in their inter-relationship”. It is understood that a principal theme of the discussions will be the relationship between offensive and defensive systems. Included in the latter will be the USA Strategic Defense Initiative (SDI) and Soviet defensive systems. It is altogether appropriate that the defensive systems of each side, both actual and potential, figure in these negotiations. The United States President, Mr. Reagan, has stated that the Strategic Defense Initiative is a research programme designed to examine the feasibility of strengthening strategic stability and reducing reliance on nuclear weapons through greater attention to non-nuclear defensive measures. To date, the full extent of the programme has not been explored and it would FSECC SCESE



therefore be premature to draw definitive conclusions about it. Given the extraordinarily complex technical questions which SDI raises, questions which even an intensive research programme is unlikely to resolve for many years – if ever, it is obvious that it is a highly hypothetical concept. As the programme is presently understood, research on SDI does not in and of itself contravene the provisions either of the 1967 Outer Space Treaty or of the 1972 Anti-Ballistic Missile (ABM) Treaty, both of which Canada strongly supports. In light of significant Soviet advances in ballistic missile defence research in recent years, and deployment of an actual ballistic missile defence system, it is only prudent that the West keep abreast of the feasibility of such projects. However, actual development and deployment of space-based ballistic missile defence systems by either side would transgress the limits of the ABM Treaty as currently constituted. That could have serious implications for arms control and would therefore warrant close and careful attention by all concerned. We welcome in this regard President Reagan’s affirmation that the USA would not proceed beyond research without discussion and negotiation. We should be under no illusion that the course charted at Geneva will be an easy one. It won’t be. What we are witnessing now is the beginning of a long and sensitive process. The conduct of Canada should be calculated to encourage the success of that process. Nothing is more important than that the two nuclear superpowers agree on means to end the arms race. For our part, Canada will continue to work actively – in the united Nations, in NATO and elsewhere – to make practical progress on arms control, and to improve understanding between East and West. The agreement at Geneva, after a long and dangerous stalemate, offers a new chance, and the world cannot waste that opportunity. Summary Exercise: 635 words

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WCT Sample Summaries #2A and #2B Sample Summary #2A below is an example of a very good summary of the original text. Sample #2B is an example of a much weaker summary, for which we also have provided a critique. Reviewing both examples will help you see the difference between an A-level and low C-level which is not a passing grade.

WCT Sample Summary #2A – “Good” Summary Example Summary of Statement by Minister Clark on US –Soviet Arms Control Talks Addressing Parliament, Secretary of State for External Affairs Clark congratulated the United States and the Soviet Union on agreeing to begin new negotiations on nuclear arms and space weapons. Calling this a “step forward” in US-USSR relations and in reducing the danger of nuclear conflict, he noted also that the agreement had positive implications for multilateral arms control discussions involving Canada. The Minister was encouraged that objectives for the bilateral discussion paralleled key elements of our foreign policy, including the elimination of nuclear weapons, and that the talks would address “actual and potential” offensive and defensive systems. He viewed American Strategic Defense Initiative research which does not contravene existing treaties as prudent for the West during the sensitive negotiations. He also pledged Canada’s support for the talks, and stated we would continue working in international forums for arms control and East-West understanding. Summary: 142 words

WCT Sample Summary #2B – “Failing” Summary Example Agreement on Nuclear and Space Arms Race The Right Honourable Joe Clarke reported on an agreement reached in Geneva on January 8, 1985 by United States Secretary of State Mr. George Shultz and Soviet Foreign Minister Mr. Andrei Gromyko to conduct a new set of bilateral negotiations on nuclear arms and space weapons. The objectives of the agreement will be to prevent, limit and reduce arms and arms races and strengthen strategic stability. The principal theme of the negotiations will be the FSECC SCESE



relationship between offensive and defensive systems, including the USA Strategic Defence Initiative (SDI) and Soviet defence systems. SDI is a research program to examine the feasibility of strengthening strategic stability and reducing reliance on nuclear weapons through greater attention to non-nuclear defensive measures without contravening provisions of previous arms race treaties. President Reagan affirmed that the USA would not progress beyond research without further negotiations. Canada will continue to work actively through multi-lateral organizations and other for and to make practical progress on arms control and improve understanding between East and West.

WCT Sample Summary #2B – Critique The piece above is likely to be rated at 60-64% depending on the marker. Improvements: 1) Title needs to mention the Minister – the media release is about Canada’s reaction through the Foreign Minister to the agreement, not about the agreement on its own 2) Need to mention he spoke to Parliament 3) Could drop the Mr. For Schultz and Gromyko – saves word count and their titles are sufficient 4) The “objectives” pertain to the negotiations and no the agreement 5) The assertion in Sample Summary #2B that this is a “step forward”, an important diplomatic nuance, needs to be directly or indirectly indicated. 6) The implications of the agreement for us are crucial to specify – the release is issued about Canada’s, our government’s, our Foreign Minister’s reaction. Here the U.S. is secondary 7) Multilateral doesn’t take a hyphen, and forums (or fora) isn’t a complete word 8) Three ands in the last sentence to link ideas cause a dribbling conclusion More proofreading would help, and who this is written about (i.e. our reaction) and why needs to be beefed up. Attention to detail on substance and writing/editing needs work.

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vi.

Sample Government Summary – Canada in the World Web Page Insertion

The following summary, Canada in the World, is taken directly from Foreign Affairs Canada’s (FAC) website www.fac-aec.gc.ca. It is imported here to show you a substantive, well-written, government-style summary. Summaries are increasingly hard to find with the proliferation of web page information over hard copy documents, which almost always included on introductory summary. This summary is about 10 years old, dating back to the last foreign policy review, and is considerably longer than what you will be expected to produce on the WCT test. Having said that, it does let you see the real thing, and is instructive in terms of structure, format, tone, sentence variety, word choice, grammar, punctuation and so on.

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Main Menu Foreign Policy o Canadian International Policy o Global Issues,Peace and Security o Canada and International Organizations o Canada's Relations with Other Countries o International Development o Environment o History of Canada's Foreign Policy o Canada World View International Trade Travel Assistance Countries and Regions Culture, Education and Youth Ministers and Parliamentary Secretaries o Foreign Affairs o International

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Canada in the World Main Page SUMMARY The world is changing rapidly. Influence depends increasingly on the strength of economic relations, while security issues, some of a new order, continue to challenge us. The measure of our success in this world will be our ability as a society to effectively focus our international efforts in a spirit of shared enterprise. •

•

•

•

•

Canada occupies a position of leadership among the open, advanced societies which are becoming increasingly influential as world power is dispersing and becoming more defined in economic terms. Canada's geographic location gives it an important advantage as new poles of political and economic power emerge in the Pacific and Latin America. Canada's cultural heritage gives it privileged access to the anglophone and francophone worlds as well as to the homelands of Canadians drawn from every part of the globe who make up its multicultural personality. Canada can further its global interests better than any other country through its active membership in key international groupings, for example, hosting the G-7 Summit this year and the APEC Summit in 1997. Canada's history as a non-colonizing power,



champion of constructive multilateralism and effective international mediator, underpins an important and distinctive role among nations as they seek to build a new and better order.

Trade

Canada, thus, is in a privileged position to influence change and to benefit from opportunities as we move toward the end of the twentieth century. The Government will exercise that influence responsibly to protect and promote Canada's values and interests in the world. Based on wide consultations, it is clear that Canadians want to remain actively involved in the world, although they recognize the financial constraints we face. In response to Canadians' aspirations and to meet the challenges of an evolving world, the Government will pursue foreign policy to achieve three key objectives: • • •

The promotion of prosperity and employment; The protection of our security, within a stable global framework; and The projection of Canadian values and culture.

These objectives are interrelated and mutually reinforcing. They will guide decisions on priorities and on the allocation of resources. •

The promotion of prosperity and employment is at the heart of the Government's agenda. International markets present tremendous opportunities for Canadians: we can compete with the best in the world. In order to assist Canadians to do so, the Government will work to build a supportive domestic economic policy framework; to gain access for our goods and services abroad; to reinforce an open, fair and predictable set of rules governing international trade and investment; and to provide means to ensure that Canadian firms are able to take advantage of opportunities abroad. The Government will also work to reinforce global prosperity. When other parts of the world prosper, we benefit in many ways. Prosperity helps to anchor international stability and enables progress towards sustainable development. More

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prosperous people are able to maintain more mature and mutually beneficial economic partnerships with Canada, becoming increasingly open to our values and thus more active partners in building the international system. •

The promotion of global peace as the key to protecting our security remains a central element of our foreign policy. Stability and security are prerequisites for economic growth and development. However, the threats to security now are more complex than before. A whole range of issues that transcend borders - including mass migration, crime, disease, environmental degradation, overpopulation, and underdevelopment - have peace and security implications at the regional or global level. Our own security, including our economic security, is increasingly dependent on the security of others. More than ever, the forces of globalization, technological development, and the scale of human activity, reinforce our fundamental interdependence with the rest of the world. We need to address security issues in an integrated fashion and to draw on all available foreign policy instruments.

•

The projection of Canadian values and culture is important to our success in the world. The Government agrees with the Special Joint Parliamentary Committee Reviewing Canadian Foreign Policy that: "Canadian foreign policy should celebrate and promote Canadian culture and learning as an important way of advancing our interests in international affairs." Successful promotion of our values - respect for human rights, democracy, the rule of law, and the environment - will make an important contribution to international security in the face of new threats to stability. Acceptance of such values abroad will help safeguard the quality of life at home: Canada is not an island able to resist a world community that devalued beliefs central to our identity.

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Vitality of our culture is also essential to our economic success. In the new knowledge-based world economy, the skills of people, their education, ingenuity and social adaptability, will become key elements of international advantage. Our educational system, cultural diversity and continued dynamic growth in exports of cultural products and services will contribute significantly to our international achievement. The Government intends to pursue these key objectives in the policy framework set out in this statement. They will be the focus for the full span of the Government's instruments, including the programs of international trade, diplomacy, and international assistance. More than ever before, it is important that foreign policy making broadly involves Canadians. The Government will ensure that it engages Canadians in all aspects of foreign policy on a systematic basis by conducting an annual foreign policy forum. We will build on our existing series of consultations to create a permanent and open consultation process with groups and individuals interested in key international topics. We will also establish a mechanism within the Department of Foreign Affairs and International Trade (DFAIT) for policy consultation, research and outreach, and will turn increasingly to Parliament for policy formulation and advice. The Government is committed to ensuring that Canada will continue to do its fair share for the world, maintaining our proud and uniquely Canadian contribution to global governance and prosperity. Canada in the World Main Page

Last Updated: 2003-02-17

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Important Notices


SECTION IX – GRADUATE RECRUITMENT TEST (GRT) Introduction The description of the GRT for previous government competitions is included below for comparison with the outline for the “new” GRT which follows. As you will discover, the test is not new at all, as the sample questions for the previous and current GRT exercises are the same, with minor alterations.

i.

Cognitive Testing – Past GRT Exercise GRADUATE RECRUITMENT TEST (GRT) The Graduate Recruitment Test measures your ability to use reasoning to solve problems. The test session lasts about two hours including time for administrative matters. The test consists of multiple-choice questions. There is only one correct answer for each question. Your score on the test will be the total number of correct answers. Note: Pass marks on the GRT may vary according to career areas. Each will be set at a level that will provide a sufficient number of persons for staffing the vacant positions. The following questions are similar to those included on the GRT. The correct answers have been marked with an asterisk (*).

TYPE I: SIMILARITIES 1.

Select the pair of words that refers most direct to a single concept. 1) 2) 3) 4) 5)

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APPLE – AUTOMOBILE ORANGE – APPLE (*) AUTOMOBILE – CLOUD CHARITY – ORANGE CLOUD – CHARITY



TYPE II: ARITHMETIC PROBLEMS From among the formulas provided, choose the one which can be used to solve the problem. In the exam, you may use rough paper to arrive at your answers. You are not permitted to use a calculator. 2.

An employee works 11 hours in a day; 7½ hours are regular hours and the rest is overtime for which she receives payment at time and a half. If she is paid $112 for the day, what is her regular rate per hour? 1) 2) 3) 4) 5)

112 / (11 - 3.5) 112 / (11 - 1.5 x 3.5) 112 / (7.5 + 1.5 x 3.5) (*) 112 / (11 x 1.5) None of the above formulas

TYPE III: FIGURE ANALOGIES 3.

Figure X has been changed in some way to make figure Y. Figure Z has been changed in exactly the same way to make one of the five numbered figures on the right. Find this figure. (*)

TYPE IV: NUMBER SERIES 4.

Find the rule used to produce the series of numbers, then select the number which would logically complete the series. 3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18,

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(1) 19 (2) 20 (3) 23 (4) 22 (5) 21 (*)



ii.

Cognitive Testing – Current GRT Exercise The current GRT is simply a re-introduction of the cognitive exercise used in the past for years. The government’s test instructions off their website are included in the following, then we have provided an overview of tips to improve your GRT performance. Following that, samples of each type of GRT question are included accompanied by an explanation for solving the question.

iii.

Public Service Commission Web Page Insertion The following description is taken directly from the Public Service Commission of Canada’s website www.jobs.gc.ca. It is imported here to show you their current instructions about the GRT, and serves as a preface to our tips and sample questions to improve your performance on test day on this cognitive exercise.

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Graduate Recruitment Practice Test: Information

TAKING THE GRT: TEST-TAKING TIPS AND INFORMATION •

For each question in the GRT, your task is to find the correct answer from among the five alternatives provided. You will indicate your choice by clicking the circle with the number that corresponds to your choice. (In the actual testing session, you will indicate your answer on an answer sheet by filling in completely the circle corresponding to your answer choice.)

Example: •

Pace yourself. Since each question is worth one point, try to answe the questions as you can. Your score will be the total number of co you have chosen. While estimating the average amount of time to each question is useful, you should note that the questions on the a increasingly more difficult toward the end, and, therefore, may req to solve.

•

You should read the questions completely and look at all of the answer choices before choosing an answer. It is often a mistake to think that because the first or second answer choice looks good to you that it is correct.

•

If you wish to change your answer, click on your new choice

•

When you are not sure of the right answer to a difficult question, guess. No points are deducted for incorrect answers. To improve your chances of choosing the correct alternative, try first to eliminate the answer choices that clearly seem to be wrong.

•

Use all the time available. If you have time to spare, review your answers to those questions you found most difficult. You may also check to ensure that all your answers are entered correctly

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on the answer sheet. •

You will require rough paper when you do this practice test (rough paper will be provided at the time of the real test). Please note that calculators are not allowed during the test.

EXAMPLES There are four types of questions in this test: similarities, arithmetic problems, figure analogies and number series. You will find that the rough paper will be particularly useful for the arithmetic problems and the number series. SIMILARITIES In each similarity question, five pairs of words are given. Your task is to select from among them the pair that refers most directly to a single more general concept. Each member of the pair should be an example of this concept. Try to find this pair in the following example: Question 1 (1) DRIVER - AUTOMOBILE (2) CARROT - ONION (3) AUTOMOBILE - CARROT (4) ONION - CLOUD (5) CLOUD - DRIVER Among these five pairs, pair (2), CARROT - ONION, refers most directly to the same concept, the concept of vegetables (or garden products). Therefore, you would click on the circle number 2 as illustrated below.

1

2

3

4

5

DRIVER and AUTOMOBILE

both refer to driving;

AUTOMOBILE and CARROT

are consumer goods;

ONION and CLOUD

both contain water;

CLOUD and DRIVER

are things that move.

In each case, however, the reference is less direct and the similarity is weaker than for CARROT - ONION. Note that opposites refer to a single concept. LOW - HIGH, for example, refers to the concept of height. Note also that an association between two things does not necessarily mean that they are highly similar (DRIVER -

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AUTOMOBILE in the above example). ARITHMETIC PROBLEMS For the arithmetic questions, your task is to determine the formula for solving a problem and then to choose the correct formula among the five proposed. Try this example: Question 2 An employee worked 11 hours in a day; 7 1/2 hours were regular hours and the rest was overtime, for which she received payment at time and a half. If she was paid $112 for the day, what was her regular rate per hour? (1) 112 / (11 - 3.5) (2) 112 / (11 - 1.5 × 3.5) (3) 112 / (7.5 + 1.5 × 3.5) (4) 112 / (11 × 1.5) (5) None of the above formulas The employee is paid for 7.5 hours in regular time and for 1.5 × 3.5 hours for her overtime. The total number of paid hours is 7.5 +1.5 × 3.5. The regular rate is the amount paid for the day, $112, divided by the total number of hours paid. Therefore, you would click circle number 3. 1

2

3

4

5

FIGURE ANALOGIES Each figure analogy question consists of eight figures: figures X, Y and Z on the left-hand side of the page, and figures (1) to (5) on the righthand side of the page. Figure X has been changed in some way to make figure Y. Figure Z has been changed in exactly the same way to make one of the five numbered figures on the right. Find the answer for the following example:

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Question 3

In this example, figure X is a large triangle containing a small triangle. To make Y, a small triangle, the outer triangle of X was removed. Figure Z is a large square containing a small square. By changing Z in the same way that X was changed, we obtain figure (1), the small square of Z. Therefore, you would click circle number 1. 1

2

3

4

5

NUMBER SERIES Each number series question presents a series of numbers that you must complete by adding a new number. Find the rule which has been used to make up the series and apply this rule to complete the series correctly. Answer choices appear after the series on the same line.

Try the following example: Question 4 3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18,

(1) 19

(2) 20

(3) 21

(4) 22

(5) 23

In this example, each number of the series is the preceding number plus three. The number that completes the series correctly is obtained by adding 3 to 18. Therefore, 21 is the correct answer and you would click circle number 3. 1

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2

3

4

5



iv.

Tips on GRT Performance Improvement The following overview gives helpful general strategies and tips to improve your speed and score in doing the GRT. Tips pertaining to specific sample questions developed for this study kit are included in a subsequent section.

How to “Manage” the Graduate Recruitment Test (GRT) Test Objective The GRT is used to quickly weed out people in the government recruitment process. It saves the government time and money by reducing the number of candidates who make it to the stage where tests such as the Written Communication Test (WCT) must be marked individually. GRT cut-off scores vary every year for each job category i.e. Foreign Service (FS), Program Manager (PM), etc. Pass scores in the recent past to make the cut to the FS interview pool – which does not guarantee you an interview by the way – were: 33 out of 55 in 2001, 37 out of 55 in 2002, and 33 out of 55 again in 2003. The message for you is that you can get approximately 18 to 20 questions wrong – of any or all types – and still advance to the interview pool in the recruitment campaign. Every question is worth one mark, irrespective of type or how long it takes to do. You should also know that past GRTs which had 55 questions usually were comprised of 19 similarities questions, 16 number series questions, 13 math questions, and 7 figure-type questions.

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How to Succeed Consider the following general suggestions, then refer to tips for individual questions farther along in this kit. 1.

Time Allocation – not every type of question demands the same amount of time to answer, so don’t fall into the trap of apportioning the same time for, say, a math question as for a similarities question.

2.

Skills Recognition – identify which one or two types of questions are easiest for you and do them first to save time and build confidence, leaving more time for the types of questions you find harder. N.B.

With a 55-question GRT exam you can flip back and forth through the test booklet easily and not lose time.

3.

Extra Practice – although the GRT does not have exactly the same types of questions as other cognitive exams (the SAT – Scholastic Aptitude Test, the GMAT – Graduate Management Admission Test, the LSAT – Law School Admission Test, the GRE – Graduate Record Exam, etc.), practising on those similar, timed tests will indirectly help you do better on the GRT.

4.

General GRT Tips – apply the following techniques to help you with the various GRT question types: a)

Similarities (or concept) questions •

For each pairing of words, try to complete a sentence beginning “These are ….” The shortest, simplest description yields the answer.

•

Alternatively, try saying _______ is “like”(or closest to) ________ for each pairing of words. The similar pair usually emerge this way.

b)

Number Series (or numerical logic) questions •

First, try - in sequence - addition, subtraction, multiplication, division.

•

Next, see if there are two or possibly three sub-series operating by checking after every two, three or four sets of numbers.

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c)

Arithmetic (or math) questions •

Don’t linger too long on the first question - it’s often the hardest. Go back to it if you have time.

•

d)

Look at the options quickly to try to eliminate one or two of them.

Figure Analogy (or geometric logic) questions •

Determine the number of elements in play (squares, circles, dots etc.).

•

Follow any movement(s): - addition or deletion of figure, or a part thereof - clockwise/counterclockwise action - rotation: left/right or reverse; over/under or reverse.

•

Note shading change(s), if any.

•

Then, follow one element, movement or shading to its logical conclusion and check the answers. Continue to do this with other changes until the right answer is identified.

5.

Don’t Linger – if you are completely stumped by a question of any type, move on so you don’t waste time and lose confidence.

6.

Guess vs. Blanks – remind yourself to save up to two minutes at the end of the test to go back through the unanswered question and guess the answers, since wrong answers are not deducted from your score.

As resources for you to use, we recommend Schaum’s Outlines. Two of these guides in particular will help you: College Algebra, 2nd Edition, by Murray Spiegel and Robert E Moyer; and Elementary Algebra, 3rd Edition, by Barnett Rich and Philip A. Schmidt. Both are published by McGraw Hill as part of the Schaum’s Outline Series, and are available in most university and chain bookstores. College Algebra discusses ratio problems in Chapter 11, and sequence and series problems in Chapter 22. Elementary Algebra, Chapter 9, discusses age problems in Section 4, ratio problems in Section 5, cost and mixture problems in Section 9, investment or interest problems in Section 10, motion problems in Section 11, and percentage problems in Section 4 of Appendix A. FSECC SCESE



v.

Instructions for Sample GRT Questions Samples for the 4 types of GRT questions are provided below. Instead of intermingling the various types of questions as is done on the real GRT, our sample questions are organized in groups by type. Why is this so? Our goal is to help you learn how to do the 4 types of questions to your best ability. The way for you to do this is to practise thoroughly on a particular type of question before moving on to the next question type. This methodology also models the notion of doing questions of the same type in groups which many candidates find beneficial. Because our sample questions do not mirror the layout of the real GRT, we are not recommending a time limit for doing these questions. The most important thing is to practise before doing the real GRT, and to get as comfortable as possible with the required types of multiple-choice cognitive questions.

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GRT Sample Questions: Similarities Instructions: In each question, 5 pairs of words are given. Select from among them the pair that refers most directly to a single general concept. 1.

3.

5.

7.

1)

SPEED – LENGTH

2)

1)

NIGHTMARE – GHOST

SPEED – RACE

2)

SOMNANBULISM – NIGHTMARE

3)

LENGTH – WIDTH

3)

PRESENTIMENT – SOMNANBULISM

4)

WIDTH – STRENGTH

4)

NIGHTMARE – TRIP

5)

STRENGTH – TEST

5)

DREAM – GHOST

1)

CLOCK – AUCTION

1)

MULTIMEDIA – CONFERENCE

2)

KEEPSAKE – FAMILY

2)

IMAGE – MIXTURE

3)

FAMILY – CLOCK

3)

GROUP – POLYGAMY

4)

HIERLOOM – WOVEN

4)

POLYGLOT – MULTIMEDIA

5)

TREASURE – HIERLOOM

5)

OPERA – POLYGOT

1)

COTTON – HONEY

1)

DISCLOSE – HIDE

2)

LIGHT – SUMMER

2)

CONTEMPLATE – CONFIRM

3)

HONEY – MOON

3)

UNDERHANDED – DISCLOSE

4)

SUMMER – COTTON

4)

HIDE – CONTEMPLATE

5)

MOON – LIGHT

5)

AFFIRM – UNDERSTAND

1)

FIND – LOOK

1)

CONFUSION – TRANSLATION

2)

SEND – FIND

2)

MENTAL – METAPHOR

3)

RECEIVE – LOOK

3)

TRANSLATION – METAPHOR

4)

OPEN – SEND

4)

CONFUSION – EXPLOITATION

5)

SEND – RECEIVE

5)

EXPLOITATION – GENEROSITY

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2.

4.

6.

8.



9.

1) CLOTH – STONE

10.

1) SHEEP - OUTPOST

2) PIN – GLUE

2) OXEN - HERD

3) STONE – ROOF

3) HERD – SWARM

4) PIN – CLOTH

4) SWARM – SHEEP

5) LEAF – GLUE

5) FARMS – BEES

11. 1) HANGERS – HOOKS

12.

1) HAND – CALCULATOR

2) COATS – MATS

2) DIGITS – HAND

3) MATS – CLOSET

3) LAPTOP – POWER

4) CLOSET – HANGERS

4) POWER – DIGITS

5) HOOKS – COATS

5) CALCULATOR – LAPTOP

13. 1) SUNDIAL – PARKING METER

14.

1) FARMER – HARVEST

2) PARKING METER – COMPUTER

2) WINES – VINEYARD

3) MORNING – RADIO

3) HARVEST – GRAPES

4) SUNDIAL – MORNING

4) GRAPES – WINES

5) RADIO – ELECTRICITY

5) VINEYARD – VINTNER

15. 1) RING – ALARM

16.

1) SUN – HEALTH

2) DOCTOR – RING

2) DAWN – SUN

3) COMA – DOCTOR

3) SOLSTICE – OBSERVATORY

4) SYMPTOM – COMA

4) OBSERVATORY – HEALTH

5) ALARM – SYMPTOM

5) DAWN – SOLSTICE

17. 1) DEATH – CONFLICT

18.

1) PYRAMID – SQUARE

2) HATRED – SORROW

2) CUBE – PYRAMID

3) CONFLICT – HATRED

3) CIRCLE – SQUARE

4) SORROW – TEARS

4) CUBE – CIRCLE

5) TEARS – DEATH

5) CIRCLE – TRIANGLE

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19.

21.

23.

25.

1) ARCHIVE – NOISE

20.

1) HUNT – HOUND

2) MUSIC – DOCUMENTARY

2) TEPEE – FOREST

3) DOCUMENTARY – ARCHIVE

3) KENNEL – TEPEE

4) CHOIR – MUSIC

4) FOREST – HUNT

5) NOISE – CHOIR

5) HOUND - KENNE

1) OIL – FUEL

22.

1) INSTRUCTION – DESCRIPTION

2) ENGINE – BATTERY

2) COMMAND – INSTRUCTION

3) BATTERY – GASOLINE

3) FIAT – COMMAND

4) CYLINDER – ENGINE

4) ADVICE – FIAT

5) WATER – OIL

5) DETAILS – ADVICE

1) GAGGLE – PRIDE

24.

1) DISH – SATELLITE

2) PRIDE – PROUDLY

2) TUBE – DISH

3) GANG – PARTY

3) HOOP – CYLINDER

4) PARTY – POD

4) BASKET – HOOP

5) POD – PEAS

6) 5)

CARTON – BASKET

1) TIE – RIBBON 2) KNOT – TIE 3) GUN – STAPLE 4) STAPLE – CLIP 5) CLIP – RIFLE

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GRT Answers: Similarities Introductory Remarks: An “association” is not a “similarity.” For example, a race may test speed (see Question 1), but it is not “similar” to speed; ghosts may be in nightmares (see Question 2), but they are not “similar” to nightmares. Also, you will see that our explanations might be phrased other ways by you. 1.

3) LENGTH – WIDTH The concept is dimension. Using our tips for similarity questions, “These are …indicators of dimension,” or length is “like/closest to” width.

2.

2) SOMNANBULISM – NIGHTMARE The concept is unconscious or dream-like states. Using our tips, “These are …unconscious states, or states during sleep,” or somnambulism is “like/closest to” nightmare.

3.

5) TREASURE – HEIRLOOM The concept is items of physical value. Using our tips, “These are …items of value, or worth,” or heirloom is “like/closest to” treasure.

4.

4) POLYGLOT – MULTIMEDIA The concept is mixtures or mélanges. Using our tips, “These are…mixed groupings,” or polyglot is “like/closest to” multimedia.

5.

1) COTTON – HONEY The concept is natural products. Using our tips, “These are … naturally created, or agricultural products,” or cotton is “like/closest to” honey.

6.

1) DISCLOSE – HIDE The concept is honesty. Using our tips, “These are…decisions, or choices, indicating honesty,” or disclose is “like/closest to” hide.

7.

5) SEND – RECEIVE The concept is communication. Using our tips, “These are … actions involved in communication,” or send is “like/closest to” receive.

203 FSECC SCESE

Suite 102

T: (613) 567-9229

E: [email protected]

404 Laurier East Ottawa, Ontario K1N 6R2

F: (613) 567-9098

E: [email protected] E: [email protected] ©

8.

3) TRANSLATION – METAPHOR The concept is interpretation, or representation. Using our tips, “These are … renderings, or versions, of meaning,” or translation is “like/closest to” metaphor.

9.

2) PIN – GLUE The concept is attachment, or means to bind things together. Using our tips, “These are …things used to attach items,” or pin is “like/closest to” glue.

10.

3) HERD – SWARM The concept is group names, or designations. Using our tips… “These are gatherings of creatures,” or herd is “like/closest to” swarm.

11.

1) HANGERS – HOOKS The concept is suspension devices. Using our tips, “These are…means of hanging something,” or hangers are “like/closest to” hooks.

12.

5) CALCULATOR – LAPTOP The concept is electronic machines. Using our tips, … “These are … electronic instruments,” or calculator is “like/closest to” laptop.

13.

1) SUNDIAL – PARKING METER The concept is calculating time. Using our tips, “These are…devices indicating time,” or sundial is “like/closest to” parking meter.

14.

4) GRAPES – WINES The concept is comestibles, or “foods.” Using our tips, “These are …things which are consumed,” or grapes are “like/closest to” wines.

15.

5) ALARM – SYMPTOM The concept is warnings. Using our tips, “These are … warning signs or indicators,” or alarm is “like/closest to” symptom.

16.

5) DAWN – SOLSTICE The concept is beginnings. Using our tips, “These are…signals of new starts,” or dawn is “like/closest to” solstice.

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17.

2) HATRED – SORROW The concept is emotions. Using our tips, “These are… deep feelings,” or hatred is “like/closest to” sorrow.

18.

2) CUBE – PYRAMID The concept is three-dimensional figures. Using our tips, “These are… figures having volume,” or cube is “like/closest to” pyramid.

19.

2) MUSIC – DOCUMENTARY The concept is art forms. Using our tips, “These are… types of artistic expression,” or music is “like/closest to” documentary.

20.

3) KENNEL – TEPEE The concept is dwellings, or abodes. Using our tips, “These are … types of residences,” or kennel is “like/closest to” tepee.

21.

2) ENGINE – BATTERY The concept is power units. Using our tips for similarity questions, “These are ….sources of power, or an engine is “like/closest to” a battery.

22.

3) FIAT – COMMAND The concept is orders. Using our tips for similarity questions, “These are ….orders, or a fiat is “like/closest to” a command.

23.

1) GAGGLE – PRIDE The concept is groups of creatures. Using our tips for similarity questions, “These are ….gatherings of creatures, or a gaggle is “like/closest to” a pride.

24.

5) CARTON – BASKET The concept is containers. Using our tips for similarity questions, “These are … items which contain or hold things, or a carton is “like/closest to” a basket.

25.

4) STAPLE – CLIP The concept is fasteners. Using our tips for similarity questions, “These are …items which fasten things together, or a staple is “like/closest to” a clip.

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GRT Sample Questions: Number Series Instructions: Each number series question presents a series of numbers that you must complete by adding a new number. Find the rule which had been used to make up the series and apply this rule to complete the series correctly. (You may want to cover the solution when trying the questions.) 1.

16, 11, 13, 8, 10, 5 (1) 10

2.

(5) 61

(2) 1

(3) 7

(4) 20

(5) 2

(3) 64

(4) 32

(5) 8

(3) 9

(4) 6

(5) 3

(3) 58

(4) 78

(5) 62

(3) 16

(4) 19

(5) 17

(3) 102

(4) 72

(5) 82

(2) 16

(2) 4

(2) 68

(2) 14

6, 12, 20, 30, 42, 56 (1) 62

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(4) 63

2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13 (1) 23

8.

(3) 45

9, 3, 18, 15, 36, 75 (1) 72

7.

(2) 39

81, 64, 49, 36, 25, 16 (1) 30

6.

(5) 5

8, 8, 16, 16, 32, 8 (1) 4

5.

(4) 13

2, 1, 5, 7, 8, 4 (1) 5

4.

(3) 0

0, 1, 3, 7, 15, 31 (1) 65

3.

(2) 7

(2) 92



9.

1, 5, 1, 7, 1, 15 (1) 5

10.

(2) 30

(3) 1

(4) 21

(5) 2

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 4

(5) 5

(2) 56

(3) 54

(4) 52

(5) 60

(2) 34

(3) 25

(4) 256

(5) 50

(3) 8

(4) 5.5

(5) 11.5

(3) 20

(4) 21

(5) 22

(3) 34

(4) 36

(5) 46

(3) 140

(4) 150

(5) 170

(3) 112

(4) 13

(5) 14

1, 1, 2, 1, 2, 3 (1) 1

11.

2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42 (1) 42

12.

1, 5, 4, 5, 27, 5 (1) 85

13.

40, 24, 16, 12, 10, 9 (1) 11

14.

2, 6, 8, 12, 14, 16 (1) 18

15.

(2) 130

1, 2, 3, 10, 11, 12 (1) 111

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(2) 44

10, 20, 30, 50, 70, 110 (1) 120

17.

(2) 19

100, 86, 74, 64, 56, 50 (1) 40

16.

(2) 8.5

(2) 113



18.

448, 224, 112, 56, 28, 14 (1) 7

19.

(2) 43

(3) 52

(4) 53

(5) 50

(2) 10

(3) 12

(4) 14

(5) 16

(2) 26

(3) 27

(4) 28

(5) 29

(2) 50

(3) 55

(4) 60

(5) 65

(2) 81

(3) 45

(4) 36

(5) 27

(2) 25

(3) 35

(4) 27

(5) 29

(3) 52

(4) 49

(5) 61

1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36 (1) 45

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(5) 52

45, 40, 36, 33, 31, 30 (1) 30

26.

(4) 54

3, 9, 9, 27, 27, 27 (1) 33

25.

(3) 55

5, 5, 10, 15, 25, 40 (1) 45

24.

(2) 18

39, 38, 37, 35, 33, 29 (1) 25

23.

(5) 2

10, 10, 12, 10, 12, 14 (1) 8

22.

(4) 12

12, 13, 24, 35, 36, 42 (1) 48

21.

(3) 6

75, 3, 72, 6, 66, 12 (1) 24

20.

(2) 8

(2) 42



27.

1, 2, 3, 4, 10, 8 (1) 6

28.

(3) 12

(4) 28

(5) 1

(3) 100

(4) 156

(5) 162

6, 12, 20, 32, 52, 88 (1) 96

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(2) 2

(2) 94



GRT Answers: Number Series 1. Solution: The odd numbers in the series are each 2 more than the previous odd number and the even numbers in the series are each 5 less than the previous even number. 3rd: 1st-5 = 16-5 = 11 th 4 : 2nd+2 = 11+2 = 13 5th: 3rd-5 = 13-5 = 8 th 6 : 4th+2 = 8+2 = 10 Finally, 7th: 5th-5 = 10-5 = 5 Notice that it was not necessary to determine how the even numbers were obtained to get the correct answer. Therefore the answer is (2). 2. Solution: Each number in the series is two to the power of 0, 1, 2, 3, …..minus 1 1st: 20 – 1 = 0 2nd: 21 – 1 = 1 rd 3 : 22 – 1 = 3 4th: 23 – 1 = 7 th 5 : 24 – 1 = 15 th 6 : 25 – 1 = 31 Finally, 7th: 26 – 1 = 63 Therefore the answer is (4). 3. Solution: Each number in the series is the previous one times 5 then the digits are added to produce a one digit number. 2nd: 1stx5 = ##, # + # = 2nd : 2 x 5 = 10, and 1 + 0 = 1 2ndx5 = ##, # + # = 3rd : 1 x 5 = 5, and 0 + 5 = 5 3rd: th rd th 4 : 3 x5 = ##, # + # = 4 : 5 x 5 = 25, and 2 + 5 = 7 5th: 4thx5 = ##, # + # = 5th : 7 x 5 = 35, and 3 + 5 = 8 th th th 6 : 5 x5 = ##, # + # = 6 : 8 x 5 = 40, and 4 + 0 = 4 Finally: 7th: 6thx5 = ##, # + # = 7th : 4 x 5 = 20, and 2 + 0 = 2 Therefore the answer is (5).

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4. Solution: The 1st, 3rd, and 5th (odd) numbers are all increased by multiplying the number two previous by 2: 3rd: 1stx2 = 8x2 = 16 th 5 : 3rdx2 = 16x2 = 32 Finally: 7th: 5thx2 = 32x2 = 64 Notice that the 2nd, 4th, and 6th (even) numbers do not impact the odd numbers and are part of a different series, and do not need to be considered. Therefore the answer is (3). 5. Solution: Each number in the series is a multiple of a number multiplied by itself or in other words the square root of the number is a whole number: √1st : √81 = 9 nd : √64 = 8 √2 √3rd : √49 = 7 √4th : √36 = 6 √5th : √25 = 5 √6th : √16 = 4 Finally, √7th : √9 = 3 Therefore the answer is (3). 6. Solution: The even numbered series are obtained by multiplying the number two before it by 5 and the odd numbered series are obtained by multiplying the number 2 before it by 2. 3rd: 1stx2 = 9x2 = 18 4th: 2ndx5 = 3x5 = 15 th 5 : 3rdx2 = 18x2 = 36 4thx5 = 15x5 = 75 6th: Finally, 7th: 5thx2 = 36x2 = 72 Therefore the solution is (1) 7. Solution: These are the first 6 prime numbers. The seventh is 17. Note: Prime numbers are numbers that can only be evenly divided by themselves or one. e.g. 3: 1x3 = 3 there is no other combination that when multiplied will give three, therefore 3 is a prime number. 4: 1x4 = 4 and 2x2 = 4 therefore 4 is not a prime number. Therefore the answer is (5). FSECC SCESE



8. Solution: 1st: 3x2 = 6 nd 2 : 4x3 = 12 3rd: 5x4 = 20 4th: 6x5 = 30 5th: 7x6 = 42 6th: 8x7 = 56 Finally 7th: 9x8 = 72 Therefore the answer is (4). 9. Solution: Every other number is one so the seventh in the series must be 1. Note the alternate numbers are the sum of those that came before them, but this is not necessary information to solve the series. Therefore the answer is 1. 10. Solution: The numbers start counting from 1. The first set has only one number in it so the series is 1. The second set has 2 numbers in it so the series numbers are 1, 2. The third set has three numbers in it so the series numbers are 1, 2, 3. For the seventh number the series starts over at 1. Therefore the solution is (1). 11. Solution: The numbers are the series number squared, plus the series number. 1st: 12+1 = 2 2nd: 22+2 = 6 rd 3 : 32+3 = 12 42+4 = 20 4th: th 5 : 52+5 = 30 6th: 62+6 = 42 Finally, 7th: 72+7 = 56 Therefore the answer is (2).

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12. Solution: The second, fourth and sixth numbers are 5, and they have no effect on the seventh number. The first, third and fifth numbers are: 1st: 11 =1 rd 2 3 : 2 =4 5th: 33 = 27 Finally, 7th: 44 = 256 Therefore the answer is (4). 13. Solution: Each series number is the previous number divided by 2 plus 4. 2nd: (1st/2+4) = (40/2+4) = 24 3rd: (2nd/2+4) = (24/2+4) = 16 4th: (3rd/2+4) = (16/2+4) = 12 th th 5 : (4 /2+4) = (12/2+4) = 10 6th: (5th/2+4) = (10/2+4) =9 Finally, 7th: (6th/2+4) = (9/2+4) = 8.5 Therefore the answer is (2). 14. Solution: The numbers are a part of the series 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16, 18, 20. The difference is that the 2nd number (4), the 5th number (10), and the 9th number (18) are missing. In other words: - put down the 1st number skip the next one 2 - put down the next 2 numbers skip the next one 6, 8 - put down three numbers skip the next one 12, 14, 16 - put down the last number 20 Therefore the solution is (3). 15. Solution: Each number is the previous number minus 14, 12, 10, 8, ….. 2nd: 100 - 14 = 86 3rd: 86 - 12 = 74 4th: 74 - 10 = 64 5th: 64 - 8 = 56 6th: 56 - 6 = 50 7th: 50 - 4 = 46 Therefore the solution is (5).

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16. Solution: The numbers are the prime numbers (numbers not evenly divisible by any number other than 1 and themselves) multiplied by 10. The series of prime numbers is 1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, ... Therefore the solution is (2). 17. Solution: The numbers are based on a number system consisting of 0, 1, 2, and 3. They count up from 1 when they reach three they go to double digits starting with 10 and then count up to 13. Therefore the solution is (4). 18. Solution: Each number is the previous number divided by 2. 2nd: 448/2 = 224 3rd: 224/2 = 112 4th: 112/2 = 56 5th: 56/2 = 28 6th: 28/2 = 14 7th: 14/2 = 7 Therefore the solution is (1). 19. Solution: There are two separate series here: The even numbers are the previous even number multiplied by 2. The odd numbers are the previous odd number minus the previous even number. 3rd: 1st - 2nd = 75 - 3 = 72 4th: 2nd x 2 = 3x2 = 6 5th: 3rd - 4th = 72 - 6 = 66 6th: 4th x 2 = 6x2 = 12 7th: 5th - 6th = 66 - 12 = 54 Therefore the solution is (4). 20. Solution: The series consists of the odd numbers so the even numbers may be neglected. The series is the previous even number plus 12: 3rd: 12 + 12 = 24 5th: 24 + 12 = 36 7th: 36 + 12 = 48 Therefore the solution is (1).

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21. Solution: The series counts up by 2 from 10 for one number then starts back at 10 and counts up two numbers then counts up from 10 three numbers. The series then starts back at 10 for the 7th number. In other words, 1st: 10 2nd and 3rd: 10, 12 4th, 5th and 6th: 10, 12, 14 7th, 8th, 9th and 10th: 10, 12, 14, 16 Therefore the solution is (2). 22. Solution: Each number in the series is 40 minus each consecutive prime number (1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13). 1st: 40 - 1 = 39 2nd: 40 - 2 = 38 3rd: 40 - 3 = 37 4th: 40 - 5 = 35 5th: 40 - 7 = 33 6th: 40 - 11 = 29 7th: 40 - 13 = 27 Therefore the solution is (3). 23. Solution: Each number is the sum of the previous two numbers. 3rd: 5 + 5 = 10 4th: 5 + 10 = 15 5th: 10 + 15 = 25 6th: 15 + 25 = 40 7th: 25 + 40 = 65 Therefore the solution is (5). 24. Solution: The series is 3 to the power of 1, 2, 3, ... The first number is repeated once, the second number is repeated twice, the third number is repeated three times and the fourth is repeated four times. 1st: 3^1 = 3 2nd and 3rd: 3^2 = 9 4th, 5th and 6th: 3^3 = 27 7th: 3^4 = 81 Therefore the solution is (2).

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25. Solution: Each number is the previous number minus 5, 4, 3, ... 2nd: 45 - 5 = 40 3rd: 40 - 4 = 36 4th: 36 - 3 = 33 5th: 33 - 2 = 31 6th: 31 - 1 = 30 7th: 30 - 0 = 30 Therefore the solution is (1). 26. Solution: Each number is the series 1, 2, 3, 4, ... multiplied by itself. 1st: 1 x 1 =1 2nd: 2 x 2 =4 3rd: 3 x 3 =9 4th: 4 x 4 = 16 5th: 5 x 5 = 25 6th: 6 x 6 = 36 7th: 7 x 7 = 49 Therefore the solution is (4). 27. Solution: The even numbers are the series 2, 4, 8, 16, ... and the odd numbers are the sum of all the numbers preceding them. 3rd: 1 + 2 =3 5th: 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 = 10 7th: 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 10 + 8 = 28 Therefore the solution is (4). 28. Solution: The series is 4 multiplied by the series number plus 2 multiplied by the series number. 1st: 4 x 1 + 2^1 = 6 2nd: 4 x 2 + 2^2 = 12 3rd: 4 x 3 + 2^3 = 20 4th: 4 x 4 + 2^4 = 32 5th: 4 x 5 + 2^5 = 52 6th: 4 x 6 + 2^6 = 88 7th: 4 x 7 + 2^7 = 156 Therefore the solution is (4).

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GRT Sample Questions: Arithmetic Instructions: Your task is to determine the formula for solving a problem and then to choose the correct formula among the five proposed. 1. A car gets 60 km for each litre of fuel when its tank is more than ¼ full. However when the gas gauge drops below ¼ the car only gets 80% of its full tank mileage. If the tank holds 80 litres of fuel which formula indicates how far the car can drive on one tank of fuel? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

[(60x3/4) + (60x0.8x1/4)]x80 [80x60x3/4 + 60x0.8x1/4] [80x60x3/4 + 60x0.8x1/4]x80 [(60x1/4) + (60x0.8x3/4)]x80 [3/4x0.8 +1/4]x80x60

2. A pickup truck transporting table and chair sets consisting of 4 chairs and a table has 35 m2 of cargo space. If a chair takes up 0.5 m2 and a table takes up 1.5 m2 of cargo space, which formula will compute the maximum number of complete sets that can be transported at one time? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

35x(1.5+4) (1.5+4)x100/35 35/(1.5+4x0.5) 35/(1.5+4) 35x(1.5+4x0.5)/100

3. A doctor sees 3 regular patients in one hour. However, if patients require blood work the doctor can only see 2 in an hour. On a normal day the doctor sees 15 regular patients and 8 patients requiring blood work. Which formula can be used to determine how many hours the doctor works on a normal day? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

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15x3+8x2 (15+8)/(3+2) 8/3 +15/3 (8+15)x(3+2) 15/3+8/2



4. A bakery can produce 4 dozen donuts in half an hour or 4 dozen croissants in an hour. If 8 dozen donuts and 4 dozen croissants are required by 9 am, what formula will determine when the bakery should start preparing the baked goods? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

9+[(8/4)x0.3+(4/4)x1] 9-[4x2+1] 9-[(8/4)x0.5+(4/4)x1] 9-[(8/4)x0.3+(4/4)x1] None of the above

5. The annual cottage barbecue serves hotdogs. The buns come in packages of 8 and the hot dogs in packages of 12. The organizer is expecting 120 people to eat an average of 3 hotdogs each. Which formula can be used to determine how many bags of buns should be purchased? (14) (1) (2) (3) (4)

120/8+120/12 8x(8+12)/120 8x120/(8+12) 120x(8+12) None of the above formulae

6. A bartender needs to make a punch containing 1 oz of rum, 4 oz of fruit juice and 8 oz of ginger ale. The bartender has plenty of juice and ginger ale; however, she is limited by 26 oz of rum. What formula will give the maximum amount (in oz) of punch that can be made? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

(1+4+8)x26 1x4x8 (1+26)x(4+26)+(8+26) 1/26+4/26+8/26 1x4x8x26

7. 40% of the people who voted, voted Liberal, but only 60% of the people eligible to vote actually did vote. Which formula can be used to calculate the percentage of people eligible to vote who voted Liberal? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

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(40/100+60/100)x100 (40/100+60/100) (40/100x60/100)x100 (40/100x60/100) 40x60



8. A company donates $20 000 to Unicef, $10 000 to the Heart and Stroke Foundation and $15 500 to various other charities in a particular year. If charitable donations make up 12.5% of the company’s gross yearly income, which formula will give the gross income of the company for the year? (1) (2) (15) (3) (4)

(20 000+10 000+15 500)/0.125 (20 000+10 000+15 500)x1.125 (20 000+10 000+15 500)x0.125 (20 000+10 000+15 500)/1.125 None of the above formula

9. A manufacturing plant has 4 assembly lines working at the same rate producing 1 car an hour. If the company adds 2 more assembly lines each working 5 times as fast as the original 4 lines, which formula indicates how long it will now take to produce one car? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

4x1 +2x(1/5) (4x1+2x5)/(4x5) (4x1)/(4+2x5) (4x2)/(4+2/5) 4x1/(4x1+2x(1/5))

10. A manufacturing plant has 4 assembly lines working at the same rate producing 1 car an hour. If the company adds 2 more assembly lines each working 5 times as fast as the original 4 lines, which formula indicates how many cars will be produced in one hour and 45 minutes? 1) 2) 3) 4) 5)

(2x1/4+1)x(1.45) (1/4+1/5)x(2+4)x(1+45/60) (1/4)x(1/5)x(2+4)x(1+45/60) [2x5/4+2]x(1.45) [1+2x5x(1/4)]x(1+45/60)

11. A wind turbine, which costs $1 500 000, can produce 660 MW of electricity that can be sold to the electric company. If a person erects a turbine she can expect to earn $1000 every day the turbine operates. If she is unable to operate her turbine 65 days a year because of a lack of wind, which formula calculates how long (in years) it will take her to earn back her initial investment? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

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1500000/[1000x(365-65)] 150000/[1000x(365-65)] 1500000x[1000x65] 1500000/[1000x65] 1000000/[1000x65]



12. If 8 bags of food can feed 7 dogs for half a year, which formula calculates how many bags are required yearly to feed 4 cats that eat one third less than the dogs. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

8/7x(1-1/3) 4x2x8/7x(1-1/3) 4x8/7x2/3 4x7/8x2/3 None of the above formula

13. A transport truck drives 100 km/hr on the highway and 50 km/hr in the city. If the truck has to go 315 km (290 km of highway driving and 25 km of city driving) which formula gives how long it will take to arrive? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

290x100+25x50 290/100+25/50 100/290+50/25 315/(100+50) 315/(100+50)x2

14. A mixture is to be made of flour, brown sugar and white sugar in a ratio of 10:2:1 by volume. Which formula can be used to determine the volume (in L) of mixture that can be made with 100 L of flour assuming unlimited quantities of both types of sugar? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

10x2x1 100x2x1 (10+2+1)x100 (10x2x1)x100 (10+2+1)x100/10

15. 20% of the population has attended university. If 2500 people have attended university that live in Apsley, which formula gives the total number of people that live in Apsley? (1) 2500x20% (2) 2500x(1+20%) (3) 2500/20% (4) 2500/(1+20%) (5) None of the above formulae 16. Five construction workers working at the same rate can build a house in 20 days. Which formula indicates how long it would take to build the house if there were 3 additional workers each capable of working twice as fast as the original 5 workers. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) FSECC SCESE

1/[5+3x2] (5+3x2)/(5x20) 20/(5+3x2) 5x20/(5+3x2) 5x20/(5+3) Suite 102 T: (613) 567-9229 404 Laurier East F: (613) 567-9098 Ottawa, Ontario K1N 6R2


17. An internet cafe charges $5 an hour for the first 2 hours of internet access and gives a 10% discount for every hour after the first 2 hours of continuous access. Given that the cafe is only open for 7 hours a day what formula gives the amount a customer would pay if the total internet access requirements are 11 hours? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

2x5+(11-2)x5x(1-10%) 4x5+(11-4)x5x(1-10%) 11x5 4x5+(11-4)x5x10% None of the above formulae

18. Thirty chairs were bought on layaway for $45 a chair. A deposit of 15% was paid at the time of purchase. One week later 1/3 of the remaining balance was paid. Two weeks after that half of the remaining balance was paid. Which formula gives how much is outstanding on the debt? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

30x45x(1-15%)x(1-1/3)x(1-1/2) 30x45x15%x1/3x1/2 30x45/(15%+1/3+1/2) 30x45x(1-15%x1/3x1/2) 30x45x[1-15%-15%x1/3-15%x1/3x1/2]

19. Ten city snowplows can each devote 15 hours a day to snow removal and 5 contractors can each devote 7 hours a day. If a storm dumps snow on a city requiring 200 hours of plowing to remove, which formula gives the number of days required to completely remove the snow from the streets? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

200-[15x10+5x7] 200x[15x10+5x7] 200/[15+7] 200/[15x10+5x7] None of the above formulae

20. A machine can wash 6 cars in one hour and 4 trucks in one hour. The car wash has to wash 12 cars and 4 trucks. Which formula gives the length of time the machine must run? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

FSECC SCESE

12x6x4 12/6+4 12/6+1 12x6+4*1 12/4+1



21. A credit card charges merchants 2% on sales up to $100 and 1.5% on sales over $100. If the merchant has sales of $75, $125 and $300 go through on the credit card company, which formula gives the amount the merchant has to pay the credit card company? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

75x2%+(125+300)x1.5% (75+125+300)x1.5% 75x1.02+125x1.015+300x1.015 75x1.5%+125x2%+300x2% 75x2%+125x2%+300x1.5%

22. A company earns $40 from the sale of a food processor. If the mark up (amount the company increases the price by above the cost of producing the food processor) is 40% and there is a sales tax of 15% charged, which formula gives the amount paid by the consumer for the food processor? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

(40%+1+15%)x40 40/(40%+15%) 40x(1+15%)x40% 40/40%x(1+15%) None of the above formulae

23. A cosmopolitan contains 1.5 oz of vodka 0.5 oz of triple sec and 1 oz of cranberry juice. Which formula gives the quantity in oz of cosmopolitans that may be made with a 26 oz bottle of vodka a 26 oz bottle of triple sec and unlimited quantities of cranberry juice? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

(1.5+0.5+1)x26/1.5 26/1.5 (1.5+0.5+1)x26 (1.5x0.5x1)x26 (1.5+0.5)x26/1.5

23. The distance from Kirby to London is 400 km and Sallowtown is 100 km North of London. A train leaves Kirby for London at 2pm and another train leaves Sallowtown for Kirby at 4pm (The train passes through London). . If both trains travel at 120 km/hr which formula gives the distance the trains will be from Kirby when they meet? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

FSECC SCESE

(400+100)/2 (400+100-2x120)/2 (400-2x120)/2 (400+100-2x120)/2+2x120 (400-100-2x120)/120



24. The distance from Kirby to London is 400 km and Sallowtown is 100 km North of London. A train leaves Kirby for London at 2pm and another train leaves Sallowtown for Kirby at 4pm (The train passes through London). If both trains travel at 120 km/hr which formula gives the time of day the trains will pass each other? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

4+[(400+100-2x120)/2+2x120]/120 2+[(400+100-2x120)/2+2x120]/120 [(400+100-2x120)/2+2x120]/120 2+[400+100-2x120)/2]/120 None of the above formulae

25. One bag of dog food will feed 3 Newfoundland dogs for 3 weeks. Which formula gives how much longer a bag of dog food will last if it is feeding 2 Yorkies that eat 1/3 the amount of food the Newfoundlander's eat? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

3x3x3/2 3x3x3/2-1 3[1-3x3/2] 2/(3x3x3) None of the above formulae

26. Four medium dogs can pull a 500 kg dog sled 10 km in 1 hour. If 2 larger dogs are added that work twice as fast as the medium dogs (i.e. can pull a 500 kg dog sled 10 km in 1 hour), which formula gives the length of time to pull a 500kg dog sled 100 km? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

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10x1/2 4x10/4+2x2x10/4 100x1/2 1/2 4/[4x10+2x2x10]



GRT Answers: Arithmetic 1.

Solution: We need the distance the car will go on one tank of fuel. Break it down: To calculate this distance we need to know how far the car will go for the top ¾ of the tank and how far the car will go for the bottom ¼ of the tank. A. For the top ¾ of the tank: The car will go 60 km for each litre of fuel OR 60 km/L The tank contains 80 L of fuel so the top ¾ of the tank contains 80x3/4 L Multiplying these two values will give the distance the car will travel on the top ¾ of the tank 60x80x3/4 km {notice that the units cancel (km/L)xL = km this is a way of checking your answer} B. For the bottom ¼ of the tank: The car will go only 80% as far on one litre as for the top ¾ OR 0.8x60 km/L As above, the bottom ¼ of the tank contains 80x1/4 L Again multiplying these two values gives the distance the car will travel on the bottom ¼ of the tank 0.8x60x80x1/4 km{check units (km/L)xL = km} Adding the results from A and B give the total km traveled: 60x80x3/4 + 0.8x60x80x1/4 This doesn’t look like any of the choices. But if you notice that many of the possible solutions are multiplied by 80 try factoring 80 out of your answer: 80x[60x3/4 + 0.8+60+1/4] Therefore the answer is (1).

2.

Solution: First we need to know how much space a table and chair set will take up. The chairs each take up 0.5 m2 and there are 4 of them, so the space for the chairs is 0.5x4 m2 The table takes up 1.5 m2, so the space for the table is 1.5 m2 Adding these two values will give the space for the set 0.5x4 + 1.5 m2 Now to find how many chairs will fit in the back of the truck we divide the total space available by the space one set will take up: 35/(0.5x4+1.5) Therefore the answer is (3).

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3.

Solution: A. Start with the time it takes to see 15 regular patients: It takes the doctor 1 hour to see 3 patients so it will take the doctor 15/3 hours to see 15 patients {check units (# of patients)/(patients/hour) = hours} B. Now for the patients with blood work: As above it takes 1 hour to see 2 patients so it will take 8/2 hours to see 8 patients {units (# of patients)/(patients/hour) = hours} For the final result add A and B: 15/3 + 8/2 Therefore the answer is (5).

4.

Solution: Break it down A: Start with the donuts The rate at which donuts are produced is 4 dozen in 0.5 of an hour 4/0.5 dozen/hour {notice that ½ an hour is 30min/60minperhour = 0.5} To obtain the time to produce 8 dozen donuts divide the # of dozens required by the rate at which they are produced 8/(4/0.5) {units dozen/(dozen/hour =hours} B: Now for the croissants As above croissants are produced at 4 dozen in 1 hour 4/1 {dozen/hour} And the time to produce 4 dozen is 4/(4/1) {dozen/(dozen/hour) = hours} C: The total time to bake will be the sum of A and B 8/(4/0.5) + 4/(4/1) D: The time to start will be the time the baked goods are required (9am) minus the time it will take to bake them. 9 - [8/(4/0.5) + 4/(4/1)] E: Notice that none of the possible solutions have a number divided by a fraction so invert the fraction and multiply (the fraction in question is in italics under D). 9 – [8x(0.5/4) + 4x(1/4)] Therefore the answer is (3).

5.

Solution: First note that the question does not ask about the number of hotdogs needed, so the number of hotdogs in a package is extra information that is not needed to solve the problem. The total number of buns needed is 120 people at 3 buns each 120x3

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So dividing the number of buns needed by the number in a bag gives the number of bags required. 120x3/8 None of the formulae listed corresponds to the required formula. Therefore the answer is (5). 6.

Solution: The punch is made in a ratio of 1:4:8 (rum:fruit juice:gingerale in oz). This ratio means if she uses 26 oz of rum, she must also use 4 times as much fruit juice and 8 times as much gingerale. The total amount of rum is 26 oz The total amount of fruit juice is 26x4 oz The total amount of ginger ale is 26x8 oz So the total amount of liquid added to the punch is the rum plus the juice plus the ginger ale. 26 + 26x4 + 26x8 This does not match any of the answers but notice the 26 is common to all three terms in the sum so if we factor it out we get: 26x(1 + 4 + 8) Therefore the answer is (1).

7.

Solution: A percentage (%) sign is a fancy way of saying the number (usually a fraction) has been multiplied by 100 to make it look nice. To convert from a percentage to a fraction suitable for use in an equation the percentage must be divided by 100. The proportion of people who voted and voted Liberal is 40/100 The proportion of all people who voted is 60/100 To find a fraction of a population within a population1, you multiply the two fractions (40/100)x(60/100) The fraction just computed is a fraction not a percentage. To convert it to a percentage you must multiply it by 100. [(40/100)x(60/100)]x100 Therefore the answer is (3). Another way to understand the problem is to pick a random number of people eligible to vote, say 100. (You will divide by this number at the end to obtain the final answer so it does not matter what number you pick. 100 has been chosen because it is easy to

1

We are dealing with a fraction of people taken out of another fraction of people i.e. the total number of people eligible to vote includes the people who voted; and the people who voted includes the people who voted Liberal.

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manipulate; we could just have easily picked 48, and the calculations using 48 will be shown after the solution) 1. You can then say that 100x60% (100x60/100) = 60 people voted. 2. Of those 60 people 40% voted Liberal or 60x40% [(100x60/100)x40/100] = 24 people voted Liberal. 3. To obtain the fraction of people voting Liberal divide the 24 people voting Liberal by the total number of people eligible to vote [(100x60/100)x(40/100)]/100 4. Notice the 100 that was originally picked at random is divided out in the previous step and we are left with [(60/100)x(40/100)] 6) To convert to a percentage multiply by 100 [(60/100)x(40/100)]x100 For 48 1. (48x60/100) 2. [(48x60/100)x40/100] 3. [(48x60/100)x(40/100)]/48 (48 cancels out) 4. [(60/100)x(40/100)] 5. [(60/000)x40/100)]x100 8.

Solution: First determine how much money the company has donated to charity: (20 000+10 000+15 500) A percentage must be converted to a fraction (i.e. divided by 100) to be used in a Formula, so the fraction of income the company has donated is 12.5/100 = 0.125 There are two approaches to this problem: 1) (Company’s gross income X) multiplied by (the fraction of income donated to charity) = (the amount donated to charity) Xx0.125=(20 000+10 000+15 500) Dividing both sides by 0.125 gives X = (20 000+10 000+15 500)/0.125 Therefore the answer is (1). 2)

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The alternative is to memorize percentage rules 1. If you are given a percentage of a total number of items and asked to find the total number of items, you divide the number of items represented by the percentage. i.e. total # = (# of items)/(percentage they represent) 2. If you are given the total number of items and asked to find a percentage of them, multiply the total number of items by the given percentage. i.e. # within the percentage = (total # of items)x(percentage of items wanted)



9.

Solution: Find the rate at which the original 4 lines worked: (1car/4lines)/1hour = (1/4) cars/hour The new lines work 5 times as fast as the original: (original rate)x5 = (1/4)x5 cars/hour The new assembly line consists of 4 lines working at (1/4) cars/hour and 2 lines working at (1/4)x5 cars/hour so the rate the new line works at is [4x(1/4)+2x(1/4)x5] cars/hour Now we want the time to produce one car, so divide one car by the rate to produce the cars: 1/[4x(1/4)+2x(1/4)x5] hours This does not look like any of the answers, but notice that the (1/4) in the denominator looks messy; to get rid of it multiply the bottom and top of the equation by 4: 4x1/[4x1+2x5] Therefore the answer is (3) (notice that multiplying by 1 does not confuse the equation).

10.

Solution: Find the rate at which the original 4 lines worked: (1car/4lines)/1hour = (1/4) cars/hour The new lines work 5 times as fast as the original: (original rate)x5 = (1/4)x5 cars/hour The new assembly line consists of 4 lines working at (1/4) cars/hour and 2 lines working at (1/4)x5 cars/hour, so the rate the new line works at is [4x(1/4)+2x(1/4)x5] cars/hour Convert 1 hour and 45 minutes to just hours (1+45/60) hours To find the total number of cars produced multiply the rate by the time: [4x(1/4)+2x(1/4)x5]x(1+45/60) Notice that 4x(1/4) = 1 the simplified solution is: [1+2x(1/4)x5]x(1+45/60) Therefore the answer is (5).

11.

Solution: First note that the 660 MW of electricity is extra information not needed to solve the problem. Then determine the number of days a year she will be operating her turbine: (365 days/year – 65 days/year not operating) = (365–65) days/year Then multiply the operating days per year by the income per day to get the income per year: $1000x(365-65) dollars/year To determine how long it will take to pay back the initial investment, divide the initial investment by the income per year: 1500000/[1000x(365-65)] years Therefore the answer is (1).

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12.

Solution: First determine the rate at which dogs eat food by dividing the number of bags eaten, 8, by

the number of dogs fed, 7: 8/7 bags/dog in ½ a year,

Then multiply by 2 to get the amount eaten by one dog in one year: 2x8/7 bags/dog Then determine the amount cats eat compared to dogs: (1-1/3) dog/cat Then multiply the rate at which dogs eat food by the amount cats eat compared to dogs: 2x8/7x(1-1/3) bags/cat. Notice that dog cancels out [bags/dog x dog/cat = bags/cat] Finally multiply by the number of cats to determine how many bags are required: 4x2x8/7x(1-1/3) bags. Notice again that the units cancel [cats x bags/cat] Therefore the answer is (2). 13.

Solution: The time it takes to do the required highway driving is the distance to go divided by the rate at which the truck is driving on the highway: 290/100 hours. The time it takes to do the required city driving is the distance to go divided by the rate at which the truck is driving in the city: 25/50 hours. The total time is the sum of the two times: 290/100+25/50 hours. Therefore the solution is (2).

14.

Solution: Determine the total volume of a mixture containing 10 L of flour by adding the ratios together: (10+2+1) L produced. Then determine the number of mixtures containing 10 L of flour that can be made by dividing the total amount of flour by the amount of flour used for a 10 L mixture: 100/10 Then multiply the total volume using 10L of flour by the number of 10 L flour mixtures that can be produced to get the final volume: (10+2+1)x100/10 L Therefore the solution is (5).

15.

Solution: Since 20 % of the population is 2500 people, the total population is 2500/20%. This is because the 2500 people is obtained by Total Population x 20% = 2500, inverting and multiplying this equation gives: Total Population = 2500/20%. Therefore the solution is (3).

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16.

Solution: Determine the rate at which the original 5 workers worked: (1house/5workers)/20days = 1/(5x20) houses/day The three additional workers work twice as fast as the original 5: (original rate)x2 = 2x(1/(5x20)) houses/day The new work force is 5 workers working at 1/(5x20) houses/day and 3 workers working at 2/(5x20) houses/day so the rate the new line works as is 5x(1/(5x20))+3x(2/(5x20)) Now we want the time to build one house, so divide one house by the rate to produce a house: 1/[5/(5x20)+3x2/(5x20)] This does not look like any of the solutions but notice that the terms both have the common denominator of (5x20) so if we multiply the numerator and denominator by (5x20) we get: 5x20/[5+3x2] Therefore the solution is (4).

17.

Solution: Since the store is only open for 7 hours a day 2 days of access would be required. The discount does not carry over to the next day so 4 hours will be charged at the base rate and 11-4 hours will be charged at the discounted rate. The discounted rate is: 5-5x10% = 5x(1-10%) The total cost is 4 hours multiplied by $5/hour plus (11-4) hours multiplied by the discounted rate: 4x5+(11-4)x5x(1-10%) Therefore the solution is (2).

18.

Solution: First determine the total amount to be paid on the chairs: 30x45 Now determine the amount remaining after the 15% deposit was paid: 30x45x(1-15%) Now determine the amount remaining after the first payment (1/3) was made: 30x45x(1-15%)x(1-1/3) Finally determine the amount remaining after the last payment (1/2) was made: 30x40x(1-15%)x(1-1/3)x(1-1/2) Note that multiplying by 1-%% is what remains after the discount is applied; multiplying by the percentage gives the amount of the discount. Therefore the solution is (1).

19.

Solution: Determine the total number of hours per day that can be provided by the city plows: 15x10 hours/day Determine the total number of hours per day that can be provided by the contractors: 5x7 hours/day Determine the total number of hours per day that will be provided by adding the contractor hours to the city hours: 15x10+5x7 hours/day Divide the number of hours required by the number provided per day to determine the number of days required: 200/[15x10+5x7] Therefore the solution is (4).

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20.

Solution: The machine has to wash 12 cars at a rate of 6 an hour or 12/6 hours to wash the cars. The machine has to wash 4 trucks at a rate of 4 an hour or 4/4 hours to wash the trucks. So the total time taken will be the sum of the two times: 12/6+4/4. There is not a solution matching the above answer but 4/4 is 1: 12/6+1 Therefore the solution is (3).

21.

Solution: Determine the amount paid on the $75 sale by multiplying by 2%: 75x2% Determine the amount paid on the $125 sale by multiplying by 1.5%: 120x1.5% Determine the amount paid on the $300 sale by multiplying by 1.5%: 300x1.5% Add the three amounts paid to determine the total amount: 75x2%+120x1.5%+300x1.5% This does not look like any of the possible solutions, but if you notice that 1.5% is common to the last two terms you can collect terms and get: 75x2%+(125+300)x1.5% Therefore the solution is (1).

22.

Solution: Determine the price before tax of the food processor by dividing the $ amount of the mark up by the percentage of that mark up: $40/40% Then determine the sales tax charged by multiplying the price before tax by the rate of sales tax: (40/40%)x15% Then add the sales tax charge to the price before tax to obtain the amount the consumer pays: (40/40%) + (40/40%)x15% Notice that 40/40% is common to both terms in the sum so the solution can also be written as: 40/40%x(1+15%) Therefore the solution is (4).

23.

Solution: First recognize that the cosmopolitan requires more vodka than triple sec so the vodka is the limiting variable (i.e. the supply of triple sec may also be considered unlimited). So if all the vodka is used 26/1.5 cosmopolitans can be made. The amount of liquid in one cosmopolitan is the sum of its components: 1.5+0.5+1 oz/cosmopolitan. Multiplying the amount of liquid in one cosmopolitan by the number made gives the quantity that can be made: (1.5+0.5+1)x26/1.5 oz. Therefore the solution is (1).

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24.

Solution: Since both trains pass through London the total travelling distance between the two trains before they start is 400+100 km. When the train leaves Sallowtown the other train will have been travelling for 2 hours. The distance already covered by the first train leaving from Kirby is: 2x120 km. The remaining distance to be traveled is the total travelling distance minus the distance already traveled by the first train from Kirby: 400+100-2x120 km. Since both trains travel at the same rate they will meet at the halfway point between them when the second train begins moving or divide the distance by 2: (400+100-2x120)/2 km. However the previous calculation is the distance traveled after the second train left. It does not include the 2x120 km already traveled from Kirby, this distance must be added to obtain the total distance from Kirby: (400+100-2x120)/2+2x120 km. Therefore the solution is (4).

25.

Solution: As determined in question 12 the distance traveled from Kirby when the 2 trains meet is: (400 + 100 - 2x120)/2 + 2x120 km. The time taken to travel the distance from Kirby is the distance the train travels divided by the rate it is travelling at: [(400+100-2x120)/2+2x120]/120 hours So the time they will meet at is the time the train from Kirby left at, 2pm, plus the time taken to get to the half way point: 2+[(400+100-2x120)/2+2x120]/120 pm Alternatively the time can be figured out from the train leaving from Sallowtown. From the above question the distance the train from Sallowtown must travel is: [400+100-2x120]/2 km The time taken to travel this distance is: [400+100-2x120]/2/120 Add this to the time the train left at: 4+[400+100-2x120]/2/120 Notice that this can be expanded to: 2+[400+100-2x120]/2/120+2 2+[400+100-2x120]/2/120+2x120/120 2+[(400+100-2x120)/2+2x120]/120 Therefore the solution is (2).

26.

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Solution: Determine the rate at which the 3 Newfoundlander's eat: (1bag/3dogs)/3weeks = 1/(3x3) bags/week/Newfoundlander The Yorkies eat 1/3 what the Newfoundlander's eat: (original rate)x1/3 = 1/3x(1/(3x3)) bags/week/Yorkie Multiply the number of Yorkies by the rate at which they eat to get the number of bags required for the Yorkies per week: 2x[1/(3x3x3)] bags/week Now take 1 bag of food divided by the rate the Yorkies eat to determine the number of weeks the bag will last: 1bag/(bags/week) = 1/[2/(3x3x3) = 3x3x3/2 weeks Finally subtract the 3 weeks the food will last the Newfoundlanders from the length of time a bag will last the Yorkies: 3-3x3x3/2 weeks Therefore the solution is (5). Suite 102 T: (613) 567-9229 404 Laurier East F: (613) 567-9098 Ottawa, Ontario K1N 6R2


27.

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Solution: Notice that the 2 large dogs are equivalent to 4 medium dogs so essentially the team will work twice as fast and it will take 1/2 an hour to go 10 km and 10x10 km = 100 km so: 10x1/2 hour To go through the math: The rate the medium dogs pull at is: 10/4 km/hour/dog The rate the large dogs pull at is 2x the medium dogs: 2x10/4 km/hour/dog Now the new dog team is 4 dogs at 10/4 km/hour/dog and 2 dogs at 2x10/4 km/hour/dog, or: 4x10/4+2x2x10/4 km/hour Canceling out the 4/4 in the first term and the 2x2/4 in the second term we get: 10+10=2x10 km/hour The sled needs to go 100 km so divide the distance to go by the rate they are travelling at: 100/(2x10) This is mathematically equivalent to 10x1/2. Therefore the solution is (1).



GRT Sample Questions: Figure Analogy Instructions: Each figure analogy question consists of eight figures: figures X, Y and Z on the left –hand side of the page, and figures (1) to (5) on the right-hand side of the page. Figure X has been changed in some way to make figure Y. Figure Z has been changed in exactly the same way to make one of the five numbered figures on the right. (You may want to cover the solution when trying the questions.)

1.

X is to Y

as

Z

is to

(1)

(2)

2.

X is to Y

as

Z is to

(1)

(2)

3.

X is to Y

as

Z is to (1)

4.

X is to Y

5.

X is to Y as

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as

Z is to (1)

Z is to

(1)


(3)

(3)

(2)

(3)

(2)

(3)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(4)

(5)

(5)

(4)

(5)

(4)

(4)

(5)

(5)


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6.

X is to Y

as

7.

X is to Y

as

8.

X is to Y

9.

10. X

X

as

is to Y

X is to Y

12.

X is to Y

is to

Z

is to Y

11.

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Z

Z

as

as

as

(1)

(3)

(4)

(5)

is to (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

is to (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

Z is to (1)

(2)

Z is to (1)

Z is to (1)

as

(2)

Z is to (1)

(2)

(2)

(3)

(2)


(3)

(4)

(5)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(4)

(3)

(5)

(4)

(5)


13.

X is to Y as Z is to

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

14.

X is to Y as Z is to (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

15.


(2)

(4)

(5)

16.

X is to Y

as

Z is to (1)

(2)

17.

X is to Y as

Z is to (1)

18.

X is to Y

19.

as

X is to Y as

20.

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Z is to

(1)

(2)

(2)

Z is to (1)


(3)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(3)

(2)

(2)


(4)

(3)

(3)

(5)

(4)

(4)

(5)

(5)


21.

X is to Y

as Z is to

22.

X is to Y

as

23.

X is to Y as

24.

X is to Y

25.

X is to Y as

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as

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(4)

(5)

Z is to (1)

Z is to (1)

Z is to (1)

Z is to

(1)

(2)

(2)

(3)

(3)

(2)


(3)

(4)

(4)

(5)

(5)


GRT Answers: Figure Analogy 1.

Solution: Y is X flipped across a horizontal line. When Z is flipped across a horizontal line the figure is (1). Therefore the solution is (1)

2.

Solution: The parts in X that were black are white in Y, and the parts that were white in X are black in Y. So the parts in Z that are black must be white in the answer, and the parts in Z that are black must be white in the answer. Therefore the solution is (3).

3.

Solution: Y is the same as X but is stretched by twice its original width. So the solution must be a circle stretched by two in its width but with the same height. The shape that fits these criteria is the oval Therefore the solution is (2).

4.

Solution: In X the square is white and the circle is black, and in Y the triangle is black and the circle is white. Z is white with a black circle so we are looking for a black shape with a white circle in it. This eliminates (2), (3), and (5). In X the circle is in the bottom right corner and in Y it is in the centre. Z’s circle is in the bottom right corner so we are looking for a circle in the centre of the object. This eliminates (1). Therefore the answer is (4).

5.

Solution: X has 6 dominos and Y has 3. Since Z has 6 dominos we are looking for an object with three dominos. This eliminates (5). X has dominos on the right hand side and so does Y. Z has dominos on the left hand side which means we need an object with dominos on the left hand side. This eliminates (1), (2) and (4). Alternatively, notice that Y is flipped across a horizontal line with 3 dominos removed. Do the same operation to Z to get the solution. Therefore the answer is (3).

6.

Solution: X is a segment of the circle Y so Z must be a segment of the shape we are looking for The only shape that fits the geometry of Z is the triangle. Therefore the answer is (5).

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7.

Solution: X is half black and half white, and Y is all white. Z is half black and half white so the solution should be all white. This eliminates (2), (3), and (4). ¼ of X has been removed to obtain Y, so the solution should have ¼ of Z removed. This eliminates (5). Therefore the answer is (1).

8.

Solution: X is flipped vertically to get Y, so Z must be flipped vertically to get the solution. This eliminates (1), (3), and (5). X is all white and Y has two areas of black (or a black background shape). Given that the choice is between (2) and (4), (4) appears to have more background black. Therefore the answer is (4).

9.

Solution: X is vertical and Y is horizontal, so since Z is vertical the solution should be horizontal. Eliminate the shapes with the wrong orientation: (2) and (4). X is flipped across a vertical line and rotated clockwise once to obtain Y, and none of the dominos changed. Eliminate the shapes where the dominos are not 2 by 2 as in Z: (3) and (5). Therefore the solution is (1).

10.

Solution: In Y all the black parts of X have been removed. So the solution should have all Z’s, black parts removed. Therefore the solution is (5).

11.

Solution: The dots in figure X are black and in figure Y they are white. Since the dots in figure Z are black the dots in the solution must be white. This rules out figure (2). Figure Y is the same width as figure X but half its height, therefore the solution must be half the height of figure Z but the same width. This rules out figures (3) and (5). The dots in figure Y are in the same position as the dots in figure X (i.e. top right corner). Since the dots in figure Z are in the bottom right corner the answer must have dots in the bottom right corner. Therefore the answer is (1).

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12.

Solution: In X the outer shape is a circle and in Y the inner shapes are circles. Since Z's outer shape is a triangle the inner shapes of the solution must be triangles. The only figures that have inner triangles are (2) and (4). The inner shapes in X are squares and the outer shape in Y is also a square. Since the inner shapes in Z are circles the outer shape in the solution must be a circle. Therefore the solution is (2).

13.

Solution: All the parts that are white in X are black in Y and all the parts that are black in X are white in Y. So the solution needs identical to Z but with a reverse colour scheme. Therefore the solution is (5).

14.

Solution: Y is X but with the outer circle from X moved inside the star. So the solution should be Z but with the outer square moved inside the triangle. Therefore the solution is (1).

15.

Solution: Figure Y is figure X rotated 90 degrees counterclockwise. The solution must be Figure Z rotated 90 degrees counterclockwise. Therefore the solution is (4).

16.

Solution: Y is X but with the star moved to the front and coloured black. The solution must then be Z but with the square moved to the front and coloured black. Therefore the solution is (5).

17.

Solution: Y is X but with the outer square removed. The solution should thereby be Z but with the outer circle removed. (Notice that figure 2 has also been rotated so it may be eliminated). Therefore the solution is (4).

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18.

Solution: Figure Y is figure X mirrored across the vertical and rotated 90 degrees counterclockwise. This means that the solution must be Z mirrored across the vertical and rotated 90 degrees counterclockwise; this corresponds to figure (3). Another way to solve the problem is to notice the placement of the dots: Since X and Y are both missing the dot in the corner and Z is not the solution must have a dot in the corner. This eliminates figures (2) and (5). Since Y is aligned horizontally while X is aligned vertically and Z is aligned horizontally the solution must be aligned horizontally. This eliminates figures (1) and (4). Therefore the solution is (3).

19.

Solution: Y is X rotated 90 degrees clockwise with the middle part erased. The only possible solutions that have been rotated 90 degrees clockwise are (3) and (5). Given that the centre portions of X were erased it is more likely that the lip on the G in figure Z should be erased to obtain the solution. Therefore the solution is (3).

20.

Solution: At first glance Y appears to be X rotated 90 degrees counterclockwise, however there isn't a solution that is the same as Z only rotated so the solution must be more complex. Figures (2) and (3) don't follow any pattern from Z so they may be ignored as possible solutions. Looking at the remaining figures, (1), (4), and (5), they are the reverse colour scheme from Z. This means that Y must be the reverse colour scheme from X. If Y is the reverse colour scheme from X than it must have been rotated 90 degrees clockwise to obtain the shape shown: Therefore the solution is (4).

21.

Solution: X is a portion of the shape Y, so Z must be a portion of the solution. Notice that figure 1 has two lines where Z only has one. Therefore the solution is (5).

22.

Solution: Y is the reverse colour scheme of X and it is the mirror image of Y across the horizontal. The solution must then be the reverse colour scheme of Z. Therefore the solution is (2).

23.

Solution: Y is the rear view of X, so the solution must be the rear view of Z. Therefore the solution is (2).

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24.

Solution: In X the outer shape is a circle and in Y the inner shapes are circles. Since Z's outer shape is a triangle the inner shapes of the solution must be triangles. Figure (2) has inner circles so it may be eliminated. Figure X has two inner shapes and so does figure Z. Figure Y has three inner shapes so the solution should also have three inner shapes. This leaves only figures (1) and (5). The inner shapes in figure X are black and the inner shapes in Y are white. Since the inner shapes in Z are white the solution must have black inner shapes. Therefore the solution is (5).

25.

Solution: Y is X rotated 180 degrees and missing the upper and right hand lines of the outer square. This means that the solution is rotated 180 degrees and missing the upper and right hand lines of the outer shape. This eliminates figures (4) and (5). Notice that figure (1) is missing part of the inner shape and figure (2) is missing the lower and left hand lines of the outer shape. Therefore the solution is (3).

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SECTION X – ADDITIONAL GOVERNMENT / OTHER CAREERS INFO

i.

Information on Government Departments/Agencies Hiring Candidates

ii.

Our Other Services

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i. Information on Government Departments/Agencies Hiring Candidates There is an abundance of material available online and elsewhere with information about the various government departments and agencies which participate in the Post-Secondary Recruitment Campaign to hire candidates. What you need to know, however, is what to look at to find out information related to the job(s) to which you are applying. Most government web and print material is “managed” information, i.e. information that promotes government viewpoints. This is seldom useful in finding out “real” details on what the place you are seeking employment in actually does vis-à-vis the type of job you want. Because you are likely limited to using the internet (and not the internal intranet open to government employees), your best research sources are the following. First, find on the internet or in hard-copy the latest Estimates document for the department or agency where you are applying. Such documents are filed annually, and you can scroll or thumb through them to pick out functional details related to the kind of work you are pursuing. Second, skim through all the media releases and Minister’s speeches made within the past year to see what, if anything, was said about topics related to your prospective field of work. Third, if you can access the intranet (perhaps by visiting the public area or library of the government department or agency you are interested in), go through the internal departmental or agency newsletters over the past year to find possible mention of topics involving staff in your prospective job category. This third alternative is the best option to use if accessible to you. All three of these approaches work and will help you separate the wheat from the chaff in government information as related to your career interests. N.B.

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Unless departmental/agency information is essential to help you do a better application and resumé or personal “statement of interest,” stay focused on preparing for the tests until they are over. Then you can turn to ancillary research to satisfy your job-related interests.



ii.

Our Other Services

Our Other Counselling Services To Help You All our services to assist clients seeking government or other careers, whether in Canada or abroad, are shown in detail on our website. As a quick reminder here, the areas we can help in, beyond this Study Kit, are:

For Public Service/Foreign Service Careers

For Careers in Other Sectors

•

Resumé Preparation

•

Resumé Preparation

•

Statement of Interest Preparation

•

Personal Interview Counselling

•

Personal Exam Tutoring

•

International Careers

•

Personal Interview Counselling

•

Presentation Skills

•

Presentation Skills

•

General Career Search

If you, a family member, friend or colleague want experienced, practical and personal career coaching, please look over our website and then call our office at (613) 567- 9229 to discuss your needs and how we can assist you. Best wishes, Barry Yeates President

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Suite 102 T: (613) 567-9229 404 Laurier East F: (613) 567-9098 secondaryrecruitmentexamprep.com Ottawa, Ontario K1N 6R2

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