The Greenberg Rapid Review
�Thieme
The Greenberg Rapid Review A
Companion to the
gth
Edition
Leonard I. Kranzler, MD, JD, FACS, FAANS Clinical Professor of Surgery (Neurosurgery) University of Chicago Chicago, Illinois jonathan G. Hobbs, MD Resident Neurosurgeon University of Chicago Chicago, Illinois
Thieme New York
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Stuttgart
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Rio de Janeiro
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Library of Congress cataloging-in-Publication Data
Names: Kranzler, Leonard 1., author. I Hobbs, jonathan G., author. Title: The Greenberg rapid review: a companion to the 8th edition I Leonard I. Kranzler, MD, jD, RACS, FA ANS, Clinical Professor of Surgery (Neurosurgery), University of Chicago, Chicago, Illinois, jonathan G. Hobbs, MD, Resident Neurosurgeon, University of Chicago, Chicago, Illinois. Description: New York : Thieme, [2017]1 A companion to: Handbook of neurosurgery. 8th ed., c2017. I Includes bibliographical references and index. I Description based on print version record and CIP data provided by publisher; resource not viewed. Identifiers: LCCN 2016037898 (print) I LCCN 2016035166 (ebook) I ISBN 9781626232075 I ISBN 9781626232068 (pbk.) Subjects: LCSH: Nervous system-Surgery-Examinations, questions, etc. Classification: LCC RD593 (print) I LCC RD593 .G677 2017 Suppl. (ebook) I DOC 617.4l80076-dc23 LC record available at https:lllccn.loc.govl2016037898
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In appreciation for their example of scholarship, tradition, and love of family, this book is dedicated to the memory of: Mr. Morris Kranzler Mr. Louis Weinberg Mr. Max Goldstein Dr. K. jeffery Kranzler Mr. Charles Kranzler Dr. Gershon Kranzler Rabbi Alex Weisfogel Mr. Nate Blum Mr. Henry Kranzler Mr. Harvey Goldstein Mrs. Luiza Anghelo Mr. Yerachmiel Kranzler Mrs. Ruth Yudkofsky
Mr. Ben Teichner Dr. David Kranzler Mr. Alex Angheluta Mr. Milton Saltzman Mr. David Hurwitz Mr. Kurt Loebenberg Mr. joseph Kranzler Mr. Walter Rosenbush Mr. Steve Rotter Mr. Tobey Friedman Mr. Python Anghelo Mr. Arthur Kranzler
In appreciation of my parents, Lillian ( obm) and George Kranzler ( obm). And to my wife Uliana and children, jenelle, justin, and jared. Leonard I. Kranzler
Mrs. Mrs. Mrs. Mrs. Mrs. Mrs. Mrs. Mrs. Mrs. Mrs. Mrs. Mrs.
Eva Teichner Ada Rotter Rina Rosenbush Dina Weinberg Chana Kranzler Rose Hurwitz Ruth Kranzler Helen Goldstein Betty Blum Rosalie Goldstein Eveline Kranzler Miriam Saltzman
No accomplishment would be possible without the unwavering and selfless love of my family, allowing me to pursue my aspirations and dreams without limits. They are the ones who made this possible. My friends and mentors who provide guidance, support, and an often needed voice of reason; I am grateful for all that you do. It is for my family, friends, and the countless others who are yet to be named, that I strive to be a better physician and most importantly, a better person. Thank you all. jonathan G. Hobbs Below is a quote from Walden, a book that has provided inspiration, fostered self-reflection and a deeper understanding of what my family and friends mean to me, and how I want to approach life. It is my hope that these words will speak to you too, even in some minute way, that may give you hope and reason in those dark times we all face during our journey to become the person we want to be. "I went to the woods because I wished to live deliberately, to front only the essential facts of life, and see if I could not learn what it had to teach, and not, when I came to die, discover that I had not lived. I did not wish to live what was not life, living is so dear; nor did I wish to practice resignation, unless it was quite necessary. I wanted to live deep and suck out all the marrow of life, to live so sturdily and Spartan-like as to put to rout all that was not life, to cut a broad swath and shave close, to drive life into a corner, and reduce it to its lowest terms." - Henry David Thoreau, Walden: Or, Life in the Woods
Contents
Contents ............................................................................. viii Preface ................................................................................ xi Acknowledgments.................................................................... xiii Special Acknowledgment............................................................. xiv Part 1 2 3
1: Anatomy and Physiology Gross Anatomy, Cranial, and Spinal. Vascular Anatomy Neurophysiology and Regional Brain Syndromes
1 12 18
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Part 2: General and Neurology 4 Neuroanesthesia 5 Sodium Homeostasis and Osmolality 6 General Neurocritical Care 7 Sedatives, Paralytics, Analgesics 8 Endocrinology 9 Hematology 10 Neurology for Neurosurgeons 11 Neurovascular Disorders and Neurotoxicology
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28 31 36 38 44 48 53 64
Part 3: Imaging and Diagnostics 12 Plain Radiology and Contrast Agents 68 13 Imaging and Angiography..................................................................................... 73 14 Electrodiagnostics ................................................................................................ 78 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Part 15 16 17
4: Developmental Anomalies Primary Intracranial Anomalies Primary Spinal Anomalies Primary Craniospinal Anomalies
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Part 5: Coma and Brain Death 18 Coma 19 Brain Death and Organ Donation
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Part 6: Infection 20 Bacterial Infections of the Parenchyma and Meninges and Complex lnfections 21 Skull, Spine, and Post-Surgical Infections 22 Other Nonbacterial lnfections
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Part 23 24 25
7: Hydrocephalus and Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) Cerebrospinal Fluid Hydrocephalus - General Aspects Treatment of Hydrocephalus
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Part 8: Seizures 26 Seizure Classification and Anti-Convulsant Pharmacology 27 Special Types of Seizures
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Part 9: Pain 28 Pain
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Part 10: Peripheral Nerves 29 Peripheral Nerves ................................................................................................ 173 30 Entrapment Neuropathies 185 31 Non-Entrapment Peripheral Neuropathies.............................................................. 194 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Part 11: Neurophthalmology and Neurotology 32 Neurophthalmology 204 33 Neurotology........................................................................................................ 217 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Part 12: Primary Tumors of the Nervous and Related Systems: Tumors of Neuroepithelial Tissue 34 General Information, Classification and Tumor Markers .......................................... 223 35 Syndromes Involving Tumors 230 36 Astrocytomas 234 37 Other Astrocytic Tumors 239 38 Oligodendroglia! Tumors and Tumors of the Ependyma, Choroid Plexus, and Other Neuroepithelial Tumors 243 39 Neuronal and Mixed Neuronal-Glial Tumors........................................................... 248 40 Pineal Region and Embryonal Tumors ................................................................... 251 41 Tumors of Cranial, Spinal and Peripheral Nerves 256 42 Meningiomas 266 43 Other Tumors Related to the Meninges. . . .. .... .. . . ....... . .. .. . . . . .. .. . . 271 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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Part 13: Tumors Involving Non-Neural Origin: Metastases, Lymphomas, Chordomas 44 Lymphomas and Hematopoietic Neoplasms 275 45 Pituitary Tumors - General Information and Classification 278 46 Pituitary Adenomas - Evaluation and Nonsurgical Management 284 47 Pituitary Adenomas - Surgical Management, Outcome, and Recurrence Management 289 48 Cysts and Tumor-Like Lesions.... . . .. .... .. . . ....... . .. .. . . . . .. .. . . ..... . . 291 49 Pseudotumor Cerebri and Empty Sella Syndrome 294 50 Tumors and Tumor-Like Lesions of the Skull 295 51 Tumors of the Spine and Spinal Cord. .... .. . . ....... . . .. .... .. . . ....... . .. .. . . 297 52 Cerebral Metastases 299 53 Spinal Epidural Metastases 302 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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Part 14: Head Trauma 54 General Information, Grading, Initial Management.. . . .. .. . . . . .. .. . . ..... . . 305 55 Concussion, High Altitude Cerebral Edema, Cerebrovascular lnjuries 308 56 Neuromonitoring 314 57 Skull Fractures 320 58 Traumatic Hemorrhagic Conditions....... . .. .... . . . ..... . . .. .. . . . . .. .. . . 324 59 Gunshot Wounds and Non- Missile Penetrating Brain lnjuries 332 60 Pediatric Head Injury 334 61 Head Injury: Long-Term Management, Complications, Outcome 337 . . . .
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Part 15: Spine Trauma 62 General Information, Neurologic Assessment, Whiplash and Sports-Related Injuries, Pediatric Spine Injuries ... .. . . ....... . .. .... . . . ..... . . 340 63 Management of Spinal Cord Injury ....... . .. .... . . . ..... . . .. .. . . . . .. .. . . 349 64 Occipitoatlantoaxial Injuries (Occiput to C2 ) ..........................................................354 65 Subaxial (C3 through C7 ) Injuries I Fractures. .... . . . ..... . . .. .. . . . . .. .. . . 361 66 Thoracic, Lumbar and Sacral Spine Fractures . .... . . . ..... . . .. .. . . . . .. .. . . 366 67 Penetrating Spine Injuries and Long Term Management I Complications . .. .. . . 373 . . . .
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Part 16: Spine and Spinal Cord 68 Low Back Pain and Radiculopathy .........................................................................376 69 Lumbar and Thoracic Intervertebral Disk Herniation f Radiculopathy .......................383 70 Cervical Disc Herniation .......................................................................................393 71 Degenerative Cervical Disc Disease and Cervical Myelopathy ..................................397 72 Thoracic and Lumbar Degenerative Disc Disease ....................................................400 73 Adult Spinal Deformity and Degenerative Scoliosis .................................................404 74 Special Conditions Affecting the Spine ..................................................................407 75 Other Non-Spine Conditions with Spine Implications ..............................................412 76 Special Conditions Affecting the Spinal Cord .........................................................415 Part 17: SAH and Aneurysms 77 Introduction and General Information, Grading, Medical Management, Special Conditions ...............................................................................................419 78 Critical Care of Aneurysm Patients ........................................................................428 79 SAH from Cerebral Aneurysm Rupture ..................................................................432 80 Aneurysm Type by Location .................................................................................438 81 Special Aneurysms and Non-Aneurysmal SA H ....................................................... .444 Part 18: Vascular Malformations 82 Vascular Malformations ........................................................................................448 Part 19: Stroke and Occlusive Cerebrovascular Disease 83 General Information and Stroke Physiology ...........................................................454 84 Evaluation and Treatment for Stroke .....................................................................457 85 Special Conditions ...............................................................................................462 86 Cerebral Arterial Dissections .................................................................................468 Part 20: Intracerebral Hemorrhage 87 Intracerebral Hemorrhage ....................................................................................470 Part 21: Outcome Assessment 88 Outcome Assessment ..........................................................................................477 Part 22: Differential Diagnosis 89 Differential Diagnosis by Location or Radiographic Finding- Intracranial .................478 90 Differential Diagnosis by Location or Radiographic Finding - Spine .........................490 91 Differential Diagnosis (DDx) by Signs and Symptoms- Primarily lntracranial ............493 92 Differential Diagnosis (DDx) by Signs and Symptoms - Primarily Spine and Other 498 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Part 23: Procedures, Interventions, Operations 93 Procedures, Interventions, Operations: General lnformation ....................................509 94 Specific Craniotomies ..........................................................................................515 95 Spine, Cervical ....................................................................................................522 96 Spine, Thoracic and Lumbar .................................................................................527 97 Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures ........................................................................531 98 Functional Neurosurgery ......................................................................................534 99 Pain Procedures ..................................................................................................542 100 Seizure Surgery ...................................................................................................546 101 Radiation Therapy (XRT) .......................................................................................550 102 Endovascular Neurosurgery ..................................................................................555
Preface
This offering is a study and review aid. It is to
It is expected that the reader will review the
be used in conjunction with
material multiple times until
Neurosurgery, Eighth Edition,
Handbook of by Mark S.
success in
responding to the questions has been
Greenberg. It permits the user, after reading
achieved. The question formats take advan
a page, section, or chapter in Greenberg, to
tage of the established ideas in learning
test retention of the details of that portion.
theory:
Every question is directly referenced to Greenberg's text, where background infor mation and context is readily available. An effort has been made to highlight
the
important facts in neurosurgical practice by posing questions to the reader that forces active involvement in the learning and re
•
complex subjects broken into small bits
•
fill-in-the-gap exercises in sentences and
•
progressive withdrawal of cues forcing the
words user to recall more and more of the details •
view process. The purpose of this textbook is to make clinicians aware of what they should expect to know using a rapid review format. It will help identify for readers what they already
mnemonics or hints (some material has been arranged in "study charts" to aid mnemonic teaching techniques)
•
Humor
•
alternate arrangements of the material (the same facts presented in different formats)
•
repetition
know as well as what is not known and
Moreover, this study guide is designed with
provide a method by which an individual can
answers appearing directly after the ques
verify the fact that has been learned. The
tions (we recommend that users cover the
reader can also have confidence that what
answers in the outer page margin) so that
has been highlighted as valuable has been
time is not wasted searching for correct
identified by peers and by an editor who has
answers at the back of the book. This format
been involved in neurosurgical education as
should further facilitate rapid review.
coordinator of the Chicago Review Course in
Neurological Surgery since 1974. Many ques
Please note that literature references and the
tions were contributed by enrollees in the
index are present in the parent volume,
Chicago Review Course in Neurological Sur gery as well as by young neurosurgeons and neurologists. In a nutshell, individuals at all levels of neurosurgical and neurological sophistication have contributed to this book.
Handbook of Neurosurgery, Eighth Edition.
xii
Preface
Knowledge of this material demonstrated by
Note to the Reader
correct responses to the questions can give confidence to the reader that much of the
Please call to our attention any mistakes that
current scientific foundation of the specialty
you identify. Please suggest any additional
of neurosurgery has been mastered. This
mnemonic devices that might help others in
reassurance of a strong, up-to-date knowl
the field of neurosurgery. Be aware that
edge base should be helpful to the resident,
medical knowledge is ever changing and that
the instructor, the neurosurgeon, and those
some items and opinions conveyed in these
who are planning to take written, oral, or
pages are controversial.
recertification examinations. Leonard I. Kranzler jonathan G. Hobbs
Contact the authors at
[email protected] [email protected]
Acknowledgments
We acknowledge the cooperation and en
We also thank our contributors and the team
couragement of Dr. Mark S. Greenberg. Our
of Thieme who helped us so much.
generation of neurosurgeons is fortunate that Dr. Greenberg has collated the literature of our field and presented it to us in such a concise, authoritative, well-balanced, and wise manner.
Special Acknowledgment
It has been a pleasure to work with and have the collective experience of our contributors. They have been insightful in their choice of questions, prompt and efficient, and fully cooperative. We thank each of you. For more details on the specific work of our contributors, please contact
[email protected].
Uchenna Ajoku, MD
Ryan A. McDermott, MD
University of Port Harcourt Teaching Hospital
University of Texas at San Antonio
Port Harcourt, Nigeria
San Antonio, Texas
jason L. Choi, MD
jose M. Morales, MD MSc
University of Chicago
University of Chicago
Chicago, Illinois
Chicago, Illinois
Bhargav D. Desai, BS
Ramin A. Morshed, MD
University of Illinois-Chicago College of
University of California, San Francisco
Medicine
San Francisco, California
Chicago, Illinois
Andrew W. Platt, MD, MBA
j. Palmer Greene, BA
University of Chicago
University of Chicago Pritzker School of
Chicago, Illinois
Medicine Chicago, Illinois
Sean P. Polster, MD
University of Chicago Dominic A. Harris, MD
University of New Mexico Albuquerque, New Mexico
Chicago, Illinois Sophia F. Shalmr, MD
University of Chicago jordan Lebovic, BA
Chicago, Illinois
Harvard Medical School Boston, Massachusetts
jacob S. Young, BS
Yimo Lin, MD
Medicine
Oregon Health and Science University
Chicago, Illinois
University of Chicago Pritzker School of
Portland, Oregon Raisa C. Martinez Martinez, MD
University of Chicago Chicago, Illinois
1 Gross Anatomy, Cranial, and Spinal
•
Cortical Su rface Anatomy 1.
a. b.
Characterize the lateral cortical surface. T h e pre-centra l sulcus is not . The middle fronta l gyrus connects with the gyru s via a thin . The centra l sulcus is sepa rated from the sylvian fissu re _% of the time. The tissue separati ng them is ca l led the ___
___
c. d.
1 .1.1
complete precentra l , isth mus
__
e. The inferior and su perior pa rieta l lobules a re separated by the sulcus. f. The inferior pa rieta l lobule is com posed of i. the ii. and the g . The sylvian fissu re i. term i nates in the , ii. which is the Brod m a n n a rea #_ h . T h e su perior temporal gyrus i. term i nates in the , ii. which is the Brod m a n n a rea #_ _ _ __
__ __
___
__
98% su bcentra l gyrus intra pa rieta l
suprama rginal gyrus (SMG) a n g u l a r gyrus SMG 40 AG 39
2.
Complete the following regarding surface anatomy: a. The middle fronta l gyrus often connects with the b. The centra l sulcus joins the sylvia n fissu re i n on ly_%. c. A su b-centra l su lcus is present in_% of patients. d. The sylvia n fissu re term inates in the
supramarginal gyrus
e.
a n g u l a r gyrus
1 .1 .1
precentra l gyrus
__ __
The su perior tempora l sulcus is capped by the . ____
2 98
Part 1 : Anatomy and Physiology
2 3.
Matching. Match the following Brodmann cortical areas and their functional significance:
1 . 1 .2
Functional sign ifica nce:
CD primary motor cortex; 0 Broca 's a rea
a. b. c
d. e. f. g. h. 4.
a. b. c
d.
(motor speech); G) Wernicke's a rea in the dominant hemisphere; 0 pri mary a u d itory a rea; ® frontal eye fields; ® pri mary somatosensory a rea; (j) pre motor a rea; ® primary visual cortex Area : (a-h) below Area 3 , 1 , 2 Area 41 , 42 A�a 4 Area 6 Area 44 Area 1 7 Area 40, 39 Area 8
Complete the following regarding pars marginalis: Is t h e term inal part o f t h e sulcus. Is visible on axial view in_% of CTs and _% of M Ris. Is the of the middle paired g rooves straddling the midline. Extends into t h e hemispheres. On axial CT it is located just posterior to the widest It curves in lower slices. It cu rves i n higher slices. __
__
®
0 CD (j)
0 ® G) ®
1 . 1 .3
ci n g u l ate 95%, 97% most prom inent biparieta l diameter
_ __ _ _
e. f.
•
__
__
Central Sulcus on Axia l I maging 5 . Complete the following regarding central sulcus: a . Is visi ble in a l most_%. b. Does it reach the midli ne? Term inates in the c ___
•
posteriorly a nteriorly
1 .2
95% no paracentra l lobule
Surface Anatomy of the Cranium 6. True or False. The pterion is a region where each of the following bones comes together: a. frontal b. sphenoid (g reater wi ng) c pa rieta l d . tem pora l e. sphenoid (lesser wi ng)
1 .3 . 1
true true true true fa lse
Gross Anatomy, Cranial, and Spinal 7.
Matching. Match the bones/sutures that form t h e listed craniometric points. Bone/sutu re: CD l a m bdoid suture; 0 occi pitomastoid suture; ® pa rietomastoid suture; @ fronta l ; ® pa rieta l ; ® tem pora l ; (j) g reater wing sphenoid Cra n iometric point: a. asterion b. pterion True or False. The name of the junction o f lambdoid, occipitomastoid, and parietomastoid sutures is a . pterion b. asterion
1 .3 . 1
G),
8.
1 .3 . 1
c. l a m bda d. stephanion e. g l a bella f. opisthion
fa lse true (Asterion is the junction of the l a m bdoid, occi pitomastoid and pa rietomastoid sutu re.) fa lse fa lse fa lse fa lse
9. a. b.
tra nsverse sigmoid
The asterion junction overlies the s i n u s and the sinus.
---
Describe the visible landmarks of Taylor-Haughton lines. Bone/sutu re: CD Fra n kfu rt plane (AKA: baseline); 0 posterior ear line; ® condyla r line a . perpend icular t o t h e baseline th rough mastoid process b. perpend icular to the baseline th rough mandibular condyle c. inferior m a rg i n of orbit ->upper m a rg i n of the externa l a u d itory meatus
1 .3 . 1
1 0.
1 1 . The external landmark for the Sylvian fissure is a line from the lateral canthus to a spot three quarters of the way posterior along an arc running over the convexity in the to the midline from the --
1 .3.2
0 ®
CD nasion; i n ion
1 .3.2
3
Part 1 : Anatomy and Physiology
4
1 2. True or False. In relation to external landmarks the angular gyrus is a. one fi nger's breadth above the zygomatic a rch. b. just above the pinna.
c. d.
a th u m b's breadth behind the fronta l process of the zygomatic bone. at the junction of the l a m bdoid and sag itta l sutu re.
1 3. True or False. The motor strip of the motor cortex lies a . a t t h e level o f t h e coronal sutu re. b. within 2 em of the coronal sutu re. c. 3 to 4 em posterior to the coronal suture. d . 4 t o 5 .4 e m posterior t o t h e coronal suture. e. 2 em posterior to the mid-position of the nasion-inion a rc. f. 5 em straight u p from the externa l a u d itory m eatus. 1 4. True or False. In the nonhydrocephalic adult the lateral ventricles lie a . 2 t o 3 e m below t h e outer sku l l su rface. b. 3 to 4 em below the outer sku l l su rface. c. 4 to 5 em below the outer sku l l su rface. d. 5 to 6 em below the outer sku l l su rface. 1 5. True or False. In the nonhydrocephalic adult the anterior horns extend a . 1 t o 2 e m a nterior t o t h e fora men of Monro. b. 2.5 em a nterior to the fora men of Monro. c. 3 to 4 em a nterior to the fora men of Monro. 1 6. True or False. The fastigium is located at a. the mi dpoint of the Twining's line. b. the floor of the fou rth ventricle. c. the a pex of the fou rth ventricle with in the cerebe l l u m .
d.
1 t o 2 e m a nterior t o t h e coronal sutu re.
1 .3.2
fa lse true (The a n g u l a r gyrus is just a bove the pinna and im porta nt as part of Wernicke's a rea in the dominant hemisphere.) fa lse fa lse 1 .3.2
fa lse fa lse fa lse true true true 1 .3.3
fa lse fa lse true fa lse 1 .3.3
fa lse true fa lse 1 .3.3
fa lse fa lse true (The fastigium is the a pex o f t h e fou rth ventricle in the cerebe l l u m . ) fa lse
Gross Anatomy, Cranial, and Spinal 1 7.
a. b. c. d. 1 8.
list the surface landmarks of the following cervical levels: (3-4 C4-5 CS-6 (6-7 -- -----
----
-- --
Ta ble 1 .4
hyoid bone thyroid ca rti lage cricothyroid mem brane cricoid ca rti lage
Matching. Match the following surface landmarks and cervical levels:
1 .3.3
Surface landmark:
CD level of thyroid ca rti lage; @ cricoid
a. b. c. d. e. f.
•
carti lage; ® angle of mandible; @ cricothyroid mem brane; ® ca rotid tubercle; ® 1 em a bove thyroid cartilage (hyoid bone) Cervica l level: (a-f) below Cl -2 (3-4 C4-5 CS-6 C6 (6-7
® ®
CD @ ® @
Cranial Fora mina and their Contents 1 9.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h.
Matching. Match the foramen with contents (choices ma y b e used more than once). Contents: CD noth i n g ; @ middle meningeal a rtery; G) VII facia l ; @ V2 ; ® V3 ; @ Vl ; 0 IX, X, XI Foramen: (a-h) below su perior orbita l fissu re inferior orbita l fissure fora men laceru m fora men rotu n d u m fora men ova le fora men spinosum stylomastoid fora men j u g u l a r fora men
20. list the cranial nerves and the three branches o f o n e found within the superior orbital fissure (SOF). a. 0 b. t c. n d. f --
__
__
e. f.
a
1 .5.1
® @
CD
@ ® @ ® 0
1 .5.1
CN I l l ocu lomotor IV troch lear nasoci liary nerve fronta l nerve ophth a l m ic d ivision: a l l three bra n ches lacrimal nerve VI abducens nerve
5
Part 1 : Anatomy and Physiology
6 21 .
a. b. c. d. e.
list the other contents of the superior orbital fissure {SOF). s__ o v__ r__ m __ a __ which a rises from the I a rtery. o b of the m m a s p of the ICA ___
__
__
__
__
__
1 .5.1
su perior ophtha lmic vei n recu rrent meningeal a rtery lacri m a l orbita l branch o f t h e m i d d l e meningeal a rtery sym pathetic plexus of the ICA
22. Another name for the transverse crest is
crista fa lciformis
1 .5.2
23. Another name for the vertical crest is
Bill's bar
1 .5.2
_____ _
24.
Draw and label the nerves in the right porus acusticus.
1 .5.2
a. b. d e
c. d. e. f.
B i l l ' s bar Tra nsverse crest crista fa lciform is CN VII SV-su perior vestibular CN V I II IV-i nferior vestib u l a r
b
Fig. 1 . 1 25.
label the diagram of the right internal auditory canal. c
-------
1 .5.2
a. b.
F
D
A
B
Fig. 1 .2
E
c. d. e. f.
Tra nsverse crest Acoustic portion of CN VI I I CN V I I in facia l ca nal Su perior vesti bular nerve I nferior vestibular nerve Bill's bar-vertica l crest
Gross Anatomy, Cranial, and Spinal 26.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h.
•
Matching. Match the nerves of the lAC with the areas that they serve. Nerves: CD facia l n . ; @ nervus intermed ius; ® acoustic portion of VII I n . ; @ su perior branch of vestibular n.; ® inferior branch of vesti bular n. Areas served: (a-h) below facial m u scles hair fol l icles taste buds hearing utricle su perior semicircular ca nal latera l semicircu l a r ca nal saccu le
1 .5.2
CD
@ @ ® @ @ @ ®
I nternal Ca psule 27.
Most internal capsule lesions are caused by or . ___
throm bosis or hemorrhage
Name the vascular supply for the following components of the internal capsule: a . a nterior l i m b
28.
b.
posterior l i m b
c. ventra l posterior l i m b d. genu e. optic radiations
1 .6.2
latera l striate branches of MCA latera l striate branches of MCA a nterior choroidal di rect branches of ICA a nterior choroida l
29.
Name four thalamic peduncles and where their radiations go. ,f l a. a b. s ,p g c. p ,o &p a __
_
__
d.
i
__
,a
__
__
_
__
__
a
_
__
__
1 .6.1
___
__
1 .6.2
a nterior, fronta l lobe su perior, postcentra l gyrus posterior, occi pita l & pa rieta l a reas inferior, a u ditory a rea
7
Part 1 : Anatomy and Physiology
8 30.
Draw the internal capsule and label which blood vessel serves which area. H i nt: M I MA
1 .6.2
Anterior limb MCA lateral striate branches
Genu Internal carotid a branches Posterior MCA lateral striate branches and Anterior choroidal a.
oo Fig. 1 .3 31 .
Retro lenticular Anterior choroidal
a.
Matching. Match the area in the internal capsule with its function.
1 .6.2
Fig. 1 .4
Function: (a-d) below a. Movement of face b. Movement of foot c. Vision d. Hearing
C D F G
genu posterior l i m b latera l genicu late medial geniculate
Gross Anatomy, Cranial, and Spinal •
Occipitoatlantoaxiai-Complex Anatomy 32.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j. k.
Matching. Match the ligaments of the occipita-atlantoaxial complex with the statements below. Lig aments: CD apica l ; 0 alar; ® cruciate; 0 ascending portion ; ® descending portion; ® transverse portion; (f) posterior longitu d i n a l ; ® tectoria l ; ® anterior longitu d i n a l ; @) a nterior atla nta-occipita I Statements: (a-k) below Attaches t h e odontoid to t h e fora men magnum. Attaches the odontoid to the occipita l condyle. Attaches the odontoid to the latera l mass of Cl . Attaches Cl to t h e cl ivus and to C2. Attaches odontoid to clivus. Attaches Cl to C2. Tra ps t h e odontoid agai nst t h e atlas. Extends cephalad to become the tectori al. Is t h e cephalad extension o f t h e PLL. Extends cephalad t o become t h e anterior atlanta-occi pita l . The cephalad extension of the anterior longitudinal ligament.
The most important spinal ligaments in maintaining atlanta-occipital stability are the membrane a n d the a. b. liga ments.
1 .8
CD 0 0 ®
0
® ® (j) ® ® @)
33.
__
•
1 .8
tectorial alar
Spinal Cord Anatomy 34. The dentate ligament a . sepa rates __ b. from __ roots in the spinal nerves. 35. Which cranial nerve lies dorsal to the dentate ligament? 36.
a. b.
How is the lateral spinothalamic tract (LST) somatotopically organized? Cervica l i s Sacra l is
37. Which descending motor tract facilitates a . extensor tone? b. flexor tone?
1 .9 . 1
dorsa l ventra l CN XI spinal accessory
1 .9 . 1
Fig. 1 . 1 3
medial latera l Ta ble 1 . 7
vestibulospinal tract ru brospinal tract
9
Part 1 : Anatomy and Physiology
10
38. The very large ascending tract closest to the dentate ligament is the __
----
39.
a. b.
c. d. e.
f.
g.
h. i. 40.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j.
Matching. Match sensory function and anatomy. Sensory fu nction: CD pain and temperatu re: body; 0 fine touch, deep pressu re and proprioception : body; ® light (crude) touch: body Anatomy: (a-i) below Receptors i. Free nerve ending ii. Meissner's and Pacinian corpuscles Fi rst order neurons i. S m a l l ii. Heavily myelinated iii. Fi nely myelinated iv. Large Soma in dorsal root g a n g l ion Enter cord at i. zone of Lissa uer ii. ipsilatera l posterior col u m n s Syna pse in i. Rexed layer II ii. Rexed layer I l l and IV iii. Rexed layer VI and VII Second order neurons i. cross obliquely i n a nterior wh ite com m issure ii. form the intern a l a rcuate fibers and enter the i. latera l spino-thalamic tract. ii. medial lemniscus. iii. a nterior spi nothalamic tract. Second order neurons syna pse on the ventra l posterior latera l n ucleus of the thalamus. Third order neurons pass through IC to postcentra l gyrus. List the body area with the appropriate root. Nipple, root: U m iblicus, root: I n g u i n a l crease, root: Anterior thi g h , root: Posterior thig h , root: Latera l ca lf, root: Medial ca lf, root: Posterior calf, root: B i g toe, root: Little toe, root: ___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
latera l spi nothalamic tract ( LST) (for pain and tem peratu re from the opposite side of the body)
Ta ble 1 . 9
1 .9.2
CD 0-® CD 0-® CD 0 CD-0-® CD 0-® CD 0 ® CD-® 0 CD 0 ® CD-0-® CD-0-® Fig. 1 . 1 4
T4 T1 0 T1 2 L2-L3 51 L5 L4 51 L5 51
Gross Anatomy, Cranial, and Spinal k. Sole of foot, root: I. Latera l shoulder, root: m . Latera l forearm, root: n . T h u m b , root: o. Middle fi nger, root: p. Little finger, root: q . Medial forea rm, root:
_ __ _ __
__ _
_ _ _
__ _
_ __ _ __
41 . Complete the following regarding upper extremity vs. trunk dermatomes. Trunk sensory level is reported at T3 on a trauma patient. the clavicle. a. This is a l ittle b. You m u st check the dermatomes. to a re not c. Dermatomes represented on the tru nk.
51 C5 C6 C6 C7 C8 Tl Fig. 1 . 1 4
below a rm C5 to T2
11
2 Vascular Anatomy
•
Cerebra l Vascular Territories 1 . Cerebral vascular territories: a . Anterior cerebral a rtery: fronta l lobe a n d
ca udate
b.
tha l a m u s
Posterior cerebral a rtery: occipital lobe and c. Anterior choroidal a rtery: internal ca psule, medial g lobus pa llidus, and
d.
•
a rtery suppl ies
the rest.
Fig. 2 . 1
optic tract Middle cerebra l
Cerebra l Arterial Anatomy 2. Circle of Willis: a. I ntact in %. b. Hypoplasia of at least one of the posterior com m u n icati ng a rteries occu rs in %. c. Absent or hypoplastic A 1 occu rs in %. --
-
--
3. Segments of t h e ICA: a. Name the 7 seg ments of the ICA. (Hi nt: ca n Peter la ugh ca n Charlie only clap) i. c ii. p iii. I iv. c v. c vi . 0 vii . c
2.2.2
1 8% 22-32% 25% 2.2.3
cervica l petrous laceru m cavernous clinoid ophtha l m ic com m u nicating
Vascular Anatomy b.
Now also name the main branches of each seg ment. i. Cl c , no ii. C2 p iii. C3 1 iv. C4 c m t a m a v. cs c vi . C6 o a 0 h a s p a c a vii . C7 c into A M
c
a
a
d ivides
2 . 2 .4
cervica l , branches petrous lacerum cavernous meningohypophysea l tru nk a nterior meningeal a rtery clinoida l ophth a l m ic ophthalmic a rtery su perior hypophyseal artery posterior com m u nicati ng a rtery anterior choroida l a rtery com m u n icating a rtery ACA MCA
4.
Name the branches of the meningohypophyseal trunk: ( H int: dit) a. d b. i c. t
Complete the following: Occl usion o f t h e i a rtery resu lts i n h necrosis. b. This a rtery suppl ies the c. It is a branch of the d . Occl usion usually occu rs in patients.
2 . 2 .4
dorsal meningeal inferior hypophysea l tentorial a rtery (a rtery of Bernasconi and Cassi nari)
5. a.
2.2.4
inferior hypophysea l ; Sheehan's a rtery.
Complete the following about the ophthalmic artery: a . I t a rises from the segment of the ICA. b. % dista l to cavernous seg ment. c. % within cavernous seg ment. d . Shape on latera l an giogra m i s
posterior lobe of pitu ita ry meningohypophysea l post-partum
6.
2.2.4
6th 89% 8% bayonet-like kin k
13
Part 1 : Anatomy and Physiology
14 7.
Complete the following about the anterior choroidal artery: a . N a m e t h e 7 structu res that i t supplies. {Hint: gogou pl) p i. g ii. 0 t of i iii. g c iv. 0 v. u of vi . p i c vii . I g b b. Occl usion may prod uce {H int: 3Hs) , a nd
8. a.
b. c. d.
e.
Posterior communicating artery: segment enters supracorn u a l to recess of the su pply Orig in is proxi m a l to a rtery. Larger than a rtery. Anterior choroidal a rtery h a s h u m p , or , where it passes to enter through the Travels between cranial nerves and
9. Carotid siphon: a . Beg ins a t t h e posterior bend o f the ICA and ends at the ICA
b. 1 0. a.
b.
It includes 3 seg ments: ca op , and co External carotid artery: and It l ies to the I CA. Name its branches from proxi mal to dista l . {Hint: salfopsmax) i. s ii. a iii. I iv. f v. 0 vi . p vii . s viii. i m
2 . 2 .4
g lobus pa llidus optic tract g e n u ; internal ca psule optic radiations u ncus posterior l i m b ; intern a l ca psule latera l genicu late body hemiplegia, hemihypesthesia; homonymous hemianopsia 2 . 2 .4
Plexa l ; tem pora l horn ; choroid plexus anterior choroidal anterior choroidal plexa l point; choroidal fissure; ventricle II, Ill 2.2.4
cavernous; bifu rcation cavernous, ophthal mic; com m u n icating 2.2.4
anterior; latera l
su perior thyroid ascending pharyngeal l in g ua l facial occipita l posterior a u ricu l a r superficial tem pora l internal maxillary
Vascular Anatomy 1 1 . Recurrent artery of Heubner: a. Typica lly a rises in a rea of j u n ction. of c b. Suppl ies h p , and a c 1 2. a.
b.
2.2.4
Al /2 head ; ca udate; putamen; anterior internal ca psule
Posterior circulation: % of patients have a circulation where PCA is su pplied via system . instead of the
1 3. Vertebral artery: a. The fi rst seg ment enters the fora men tra nsversari u m . with in b . T h e second ascends the fora mina tra nsversaria. as it exits c. The second tu rns the axis. and d. The third cu rves
e. The fou rth pierces the f. Right and left vertebra l a rteries join at the level of the I p to form the a rtery. g . N a m e its 6 bra n ches. ( H i nt: A postma n puts postcards away) i. a m ii. p m iii. m s iv. p v. p s vi . a PICA: It a rises m m dista l to the poi nt where the vertebra l a rtery becomes intradu ra l . %. b . Has a n extra d u ra l origin in c. Name the 5 seg ments. i. a m ii. I m iii. t , conta ins loop iv. t , conta ins loop s v. c d . N a m e its 3 bra n ches. i. c ii. t iii. v
1 4. a.
__
__
2.2.4
1 5-35%; feta l p-comm; vertebrobasi lar 2.2.4
sixth vertica lly latera l ly posteriorly; medially d u ra lower pons; basilar
anterior meningeal posterior meningeal med u l l a ry posterior spinal PICA anterior spinal 2.2.4
l O mm 5-8% anterior med u l l a ry latera l med u l l a ry tonsillomed u l l a ry; ca udal telovelotonsi l l a ry; cranial cortical seg ments choroidal tonsillohemispheric inferior verm ian
15
Part 1 : Anatomy and Physiology
16
e. The choroidal poi nt on an giogra phy is where the a rtery enters the to su pply the
choroid a l ; 4th ventricle; choroid plexus
f. The copu l a r point on angiog raphy is where the artery inflects
inferior vermian; inferiorly
1 5. a.
Posterior cerebral artery: Name the 3 seg ments. i. Pl p ii. P2 a iii. P3 q b. The medial posterior choroidal a rtery or arises from the seg ment. c. The latera l posterior choroidal a rtery a rises from the seg ment. d. Artery of Percheron is a a natomic va riant where a tru n k a rises from PCA to su pply paramedian tha l a m i and rostra l mid bra i n .
1 6. Persistent fetal anastomoses: types. a. There a re b. They result from a fai l u re to , 0 c. They include t h , and p d . T h e most com mon type i s e. The first type to invol ute is •
2.2.4
peduncular am bient q u a d rigeminal Pl , P2 P2 rare; sol itary; one; bilatera l 2.2.4
4 invol ute trigeminal, otic, hypog lossa l , proatlanta l trigeminal otic
Cerebra l Venous Anatomy 1 7. a.
Cerebral venous anatomy: Domina nce: intern a l jugular vein i. The is usually domina nt. ii. The tra nsverse sinus is usually domina nt. iii. The vertebral a rtery is usually domina nt. iv. The vein of La bbe is usually domina nt. b. The main contri butors to the vein of vein , Galen a re p c vein of R , a nd b i vein . c c . T h e joining o f t h e septa l vein a n d thala mostriate vein with the internal cerebral vei n forms a n an giogra p h ic lan dmark ca lled the v a at the fora men of
2.3.1
right right left left precentra l cerebellar; basal vein of Rosenth a l ; intern a l cerebral venous angle; Mon ro
Vascular Anatomy 1 8. Cavernous sinus anatomy: a . T h e cavernous s i n u s is a
2.3.1
____
of
b.
Draw the right and left cavernous sinus coronal view. On you r d rawing label the fol lowing: 1 . Oculomotor ( I l l } ; 2. Trochlear ( IV}; 3 . Pa rki nson triangle; 4. Ophth a l m ic (Vl ); 5 . Maxi l l a ry (V2 }; 6. Abd ucent (VI }; 7 . Carotid .
c.
Name 6 major contents o f t h e cavernous sinus. is the only Cranial nerve nerve of the cavernous sinus that doesn't exit sku l l through ; it exits through
d.
_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
Fig. 2.1 CN Ill, CN IV, CN Vl , CN V2 , CN VI, ICA V2 ; su perior orbita l fissure; fora men rotu n d u m
_ _ _ _
____
Cranial nerve is the only nerve not attached to d u ra l wa l l . f. Parkinson triangle is bordered superiorly and and by inferiorly by and
e.
plexus; veins
____
VI; latera l CN I l l and IV; CN Vl and V2
_ _ __
•
Spinal Cord Vascu lature Spinal cord vasculature: Su pply o f t h e cervica l spinal cord comes from v a rtery, d c a rtery, and c t b. Artery of suppl ies spinal cord from T8 to conus. is located on the c. Artery of % a nd a rises between left in T9-L2 in %. d. region is considered a zone and is thus more to vascu lar insu lts.
1 9. a.
2.4
vertebra l deep cervica l ; costocervica l tru nk Ada m kiewicz Ada m kiewicz; 80%; 85% M idthoracic; watershed; suscepti ble
17
3 Neurophysiology and Regional Brain Syndromes
•
Neurophysiology 1 . Answer the following concerning the blood-brain barrier (BBB): a. What chemical opens the BBB? b. What chemical closes the BBB? c. Which sites have no BBB? ( H i nt: pppcta)
3.1 .1
2.
3.1 .1
M a n n itol Steroids Pituita ry, pinea l , preoptic recess, choroid plexus, tuber cinere um , a rea postrema d . What pathology inj u res BBB? ( H i nt: histt) Hepatic encepha lopathy, infections, stroke, tra u m a , tumor
a.
b.
Complete the following statements about cerebral edema: Cytotoxic i. occu rs with h ii. occu rs with h iii. shape is c iv. occu rs with C v. BBB is c Vasogenic i. shape is
ii. iii. iv. v.
occu rs with t occu rs with m treat with s with contrast it
vi .
BBB is o
and
Matching. Match the type of edema with the characteristics. Type of edema: CD cytotoxic; (I) vasogenic H i nt: cytotoxic-ea rly letters of alphabet vasogen ic-later letters of alphabet Cha racteristics: (a-1) below a . B B disru pted b. BBB closed c. Head inj u ry
head inj u ry hematoma circu l a r CVA closed V-sha ped (l ike fi ngers of wh ite matter edema) tu mors metastasis steroids enha nces on CT and M R open
3.
3.1 .1
0 CD CD
Neurophysiology and Regional Brain Syndromes d . Tumor e. Enhances f. Does not enha nce g . Not appropriate to u s e steroids h . Appropriate to u s e steroids i. Circu lar shape on MR j. V-sha ped finger like extensions on MR k. Occu rs with hematoma I . Occu rs with CVA
0 0 CD CD 0 CD 0 CD CD
4. True or False. Cytotoxic edema has: a . a disru pted B B B b. expansion of the extrace l l u l a r space c. enha ncement when contrast injected d. no protein extravasation
fa lse fa lse fa lse true
3.1 . 1
5. Study Sheet. a . Cytotoxic: i. Closed BBB ii. Head inj u ry iii. Hematoma iv. Circu l a r shape v. CVA vi . Cells swe l l then s h ri n k b . Vasogenic: i. Disru pted BBB ii. Tu mors iii. Metastasis iv. Steroids v. Protein extravasates vi . Enha nces on CT and MRI vii . Wide extrace l l u l a r space viii. Sta ble cells
3.1 . 1
h.
Fill in the blanks to complete the details of the Babinski reflex. (Hint: pcrstl pt) latera l sti m u lation originates as a a n d sti m u lates the dermatome in the that travel via the to the spi n a l cord seg ments n u mber ( l i m b) T h e efferent l i m b travels via the nerve to the
toe extensors
7. a. b. c. d.
Summarize the Babinski sign. receptor afferent l i m b cord efferent l i m b
Sl dermatome ti bial nerve L4-S2 peroneal nerve
6.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g.
3 . 1 .2
pla nta r cuta neous reflex receptors Sl tibial nerve L4-S2 ; afferent peroneal
3 . 1 .2
19
Part 1 : Anatomy and Physiology
20 8.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g.
Fill in the blanks to complete the details of eliciting the plantar reflex. Sti m u late t h e su rface and the in a movement that lasts __ seconds. Response consists of of the _ _ _ _ __
__ __ __ _ _ __ __ __
__
___
_______ _______
of the s m a l l toes is clinica l ly i m porta nt.
9. True or False. The Chaddock maneuver is described as a . scratching t h e latera l foot b. pinching the Achi l les tendon c. sliding kn uckles down shin d . momentarily squeezi ng lower gastrocnemius 1 0.
a. b.
Complete the following concerning Hoffman sign: letter H (from Hoffma n ) is the of the alphabet. If u n i l atera lly present, Hoffma n sign ind icates a lesion a bove
3.1 .2
latera l pla nta r tra nsverse a rch single 5 to 6 extension; g reat toe Fa nning not 3.1 .2
true fa lse fa lse fa lse 3.1 .2
eig hth C8
_ __
Complete the following concerning bladder physiology: a . T h e pri mary coord inating center for bladder fu nction is in the i. n I c. ii. of the p b. This center coord inates c (d i. b with (e ii. s s ).
11.
__ __ __ _
__ __ __ _
_ _ _
___
_ _ _
1 2. Voluntary cortical control a . i n h i bits t h e p c.
b.
It orig inates in the f i. a ii. and g ----.,. of the c and c c. travels via the p t d . to inhibit i. c of the and contraction ii. d s iii. of the e _____
nucleus locus coeruleus pons bladder contraction (detrusor) sphincter relaxation (external sphincter) 3 . 1 .3
_ __ ____
__
3 . 1 .3
__ __ , ___ _ _ _
ponti ne center-n ucleus locus coeru leus anterom edial fronta l lobes genu of the corpus ca l losum
_______
___
_ _ _
__ _
pyra m id a l tract contraction detrusor external sphincter
Neurophysiology and Regional Brain Syndromes 1 3.
Immaturity, infarct, or cortical lesions cause a . inability to s b. the m c. a n d resu lt in i
1 4. The efferents to the bladder portion a. travel in the d b. of the I c
1 7. Sympathetic nerve a. provides bladder neck b. travels via the i plexus.
3 . 1 .3
3 . 1 .3
contracts relaxes pelvic splanchnic 3 . 1 .3
contracts continence pudendal
nerve
3 . 1 .3
h
and
1 8. True or False. The detrusor muscle of the bladder contracts and the internal sphincter relaxes under a. PNS sti m u l ation
b. c. d.
suppress mictu rition reflex inconti nence dorsa l latera l col u m n s
1 5. Parasympathetic control a. detrusor b. intern a l sphincter s c. travels via the p nerves 1 6. Somatic nerve a. externa l sphincter b. maintains c c. travels via p
3 . 1 .3
somatic nerve sti m u l ation sympathetic nervous system sti m u l ation all of the a bove
1 9. True or False. The following can cause detrusor hyperreflexia: a . stroke b. spinal cord lesion (myelopathy) c. chronic bladder catheterization
d . m u lti ple sclerosis e. Parki nson disease f. hyd rocephalus g . dementia h. brain tumor 20. True or False. Interruption of the efferents results in a. atonic bladder b. overflow incontinence c. u n controllable voiding d . reflex bladder em ptyi ng e. voiding triggered by critical vol u m e
clos u re inferior hypog astric 3 . 1 .3
true (pa rasym pathetic nervous system sti m u l ation) fa lse fa lse fa lse 3 . 1 .3
true true fa lse (Detrusor hyperreflexia can result from interru ption of efferents a nywhere from cortex to sacra l cord . ) true true true true true 3 . 1 .3
fa lse-root lesion fa lse-root lesion true true true
21
Part 1 : Anatomy and Physiology
22 f. g. h. i. 21 .
true true fa lse-detrusor a reflexia fa lse-a utomatic neuropathy
prod uced by myelopathy prod uced b y head inj u ry prod uced b y certa in d rugs prod u ced by dia betes mellitus
pontine voiding reflex
loss of centrally mediated inhibition v r of the p is mediated by supraspinal lesions.
3 . 1 .3
_ _ _ _
22.
The s v c located in the c m and results from lesions above the spinal cord level, which vertebral correspond to bodies.
___
is
___
sacra l voiding center; con u s med u l l a ris; S1 ; T1 2 / L 1
23. After acute su prasacral spinal cord injuries, there may be s , and as a result d s a
spinal shock; detrusor a reflexia
24. When the spinal shock subsides, most develop
detrusor hyperreflexia
_ _ _ _
3 . 1 .3
3 . 1 .3
_ __
____ ,
3 . 1 .3
_ _ _ _ _ _ __
25. Match the injury to the etiology. I nj u ry: CD suprasacra l ; CD infrasacra l (below the 52 spinal cord level). Etiologies: (a-d) below a. ca uda equina b. conus med u l l a ris inj u ry c. tra nsverse myelitis d. peri pheral nerve inj u ries 26.
Interruption of the a r d a
p.____
____
may produce
3 . 1 .3
CD CD. CD CD CD peripheral reflex a rc; detrusor a reflexia
3 . 1 .3
_ _ _
27.
Spinal stenosis urologic symptoms vary (detrusor hyperactivity or detrusor underactivity) and depend on the spinal level involved and the type of involvement depending on whether there is compression of the i r t or m f involving the p
i n h i bitory reticulospinal tracts; myelopathy; posterior fu nicu l u s
Cauda equina syndrome usually r produces u although o may occur.
u rin a ry retention; overflow inconti nence
P n usually produce impaired detrusor activity.
peripheral neuropathies
3 . 1 .3
_ _ _
_ _ _
_ _ _
28.
_ __ _
29.
3 . 1 .3
3 . 1 .3
Neurophysiology and Regional Brain Syndromes 30.
N d patients have an areflexic bladder neck.
31 . True or False. Patients with multiple sclerosis develop voiding symptoms from demyelination primarily involving the a . posterior and latera l col u m n s o f l u m ba r spinal cord . b. latera l col u m n of cervica l spine. c. posterior col u m n of l u m ba r spine. d. latera l col u m n of l u m ba r spine. e. posterior and latera l col u m ns of cervical spinal cord . 32. True or False. Causes of urinary retention are a . u reth ra l strictu re b. prostatic enlargement c. d etrusor areflexia d . herpes zoster
neurospinal dysraphism
3 . 1 .3
3 . 1 .3
fa lse fa lse fa lse fa lse true ( posterior and latera l col u m n s of cervical spinal cord ) 3 . 1 .3
true true true true
33.
Evaluation of bladder function usually combines c or v with s m
cystometrog ra m ; videourodynamics; sphincter myelog ra phy
34.
Synthetic anticholinergics block s (m p a ) without blocking skeletal neuromuscular or autonomic ganglia (n ). j
postg a n g l ionic syna pses (m uscarinic action); nicoti nic junctions
35.
The most widely prescribed anticholinergic for detrusor , while hyperreflexia is 0 T is considered less effective.
Oxybutyn i n ; Tolterod ine
36.
B is indicated for post-op non-obstructive urinary retention and for neurogenic atony due to spinal cord injury or dysfunction.
Betha necol
3 . 1 .3
37.
Following acute cauda equina decompression, patients may start T to relieve urinary retention symptoms.
Ta msulosin
3 . 1 .3
3 . 1 .3
3 . 1 .3
3 . 1 .3
23
Part 1 : Anatomy and Physiology
24 •
Regional Brain Synd romes 38.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j. k. I. 39.
a. b. c. d. e.
Matching. Match region with deficit. Region: CD pre-fronta l lobes; 0 fronta l lobe; ® pa rieta l lobe-dominant; 0 pa rieta lnon dominant; ® occi pita l lobe; ® cerebe l l u m ; (j) brain ste m ; ® pinea l ; ® olfactory g roove Deficit: (a-1) below a pathy a b u l ia disorganized thoug hts contra latera l neglect language disorders a nosog nosia d ressing apraxia homonymous hemianopsia tru ncal ataxia ipsilatera l ataxia para lysis of u pward gaze poor planning unilatera l a nosmia Frontal eye fields for contra lateral gaze are located in the fronta l lobe. in Brod mann area With a destructive lesion there, the patient's eyes look the lesion. With a n irritative lesion there, the patient's eyes look the lesion. Usually the lesions a re
40. True or False. Gerstmann syndrome includes a . agraphia without a l exia b. left-rig ht confusion c. digit ag nosia d . tacti le ag nosia e. acalculia
3.2.1
0 CD ® or @ ®
0 0
® ® ® ® CD ®
3.2.1
posterior 8 towa rd ( H i nt: destructive=towa rd) away from ( H i nt: irritative=away) destructive 3.2.1
true true true fa lse true
41 . True or False. Gerstmann syndrome patients can read.
true
3.2.1
42. True or False. Gerstmann syndrome patients can write.
fa lse
3.2.1
43. True or False. Cortical sensory syndrome includes: a . loss o f position sense b. inability to loca l ize tacti le sti m u l i c. astereog nosis d . loss of pain and tem peratu re sense
3.2.2
true true true fa lse (Pain and temperatu re as wel l as vibration sense a re preserved.)
Neurophysiology and Regional Brain Syndromes 44. a. b. c. d.
True or False. Broca aphasia includes: dysa rthria lesion is in a rea 44 "apraxia" of motor sequencing similar to cond u ction aphasia
45. True or False. Wernicke's aphasia includes: a . fl uent a phasia b. lesion is in Brod mann a reas 41 and 42
c. speech devoid of meaning d . normal intonation 46. Alexia without agraphia a. means that the patient ca n b. but ca nnot c. Su rprisi ng ly, such patients can usually do what with n u m bers? d . Lesion is located i n the lobe. e. On which side? f. Serves to disconnect and g. h. also known as
i. This is contrasted with what synd rome? j. Where patient ca n k. but ca n't I . also known as 47.
a. b. c. d.
Matching. Match the numbered syndromes with the lettered phrases. Synd rome: CD Gerstm a n n ; 0 pure word blind ness Phase: (a-d) below alexia without agraphia agraphia without a l exia where patient can 't read where patient can 't write
48. True or False. Regarding FosterKennedy syndrome: a . usually from olfactory g roove or medial third sphenoid wing tu mor b. contra latera l a nosmia
3.2.2
true true true fa lse (Broca is a motor aphasia-fa lteri ng dysa rth ric speech. Conduction a phasia is fl uent speech with para phasias.) 3.2.2
true fa lse {The lesion is in Brod m a n n 39 and 40 .} true true 3.2.2
write read read and name them pa rietooccipita l dom inant left a n g u l a r gyrus occipital lobe p u re word blind ness Gerstmann's read write a g raphia without alexia 3.2.2
0 CD 0 CD 3.2.3
true fa lse { I psi latera l not contra latera l a nosmia is part of the classic triad.)
25
Part 1 : Anatomy and Physiology
26 c. d. e.
ipsilatera l centra l scotoma contra latera l papilledema contra latera l optic atrophy
f.
usually from meningioma
49. True or False. Regarding Weber syndrome: a . Weber synd rome incl udes CN I l l palsy with contra latera l hemiparesis. b. Weber synd rome incl udes CN VII palsy with contra latera l hemiparesis. c. Weber synd rome incl udes CN I l l palsy with ipsilatera l hemiparesis. d. Weber synd rome incl udes CN VI and VII palsy with contra latera l hemiparesis. e. Weber synd rome incl udes i. CN I l l palsy ii. contra latera l hemiparesis iii. a rm hyperki nesis iv. ataxia v. intention tremor 50. True or False. Benedict's syndrome is due to disruption of a . cerebra l ped u ncle b. issuing fibers of CN I l l c. red n ucleus 51 . True or False. Millard-Gubler syndrome is due to disruption of a . n ucleus o f VI I b. n ucleus of VI c. corticospinal tract 52. True or False. Regarding Parinaud syndrome: a . Parinaud's syn d rome includes downgaze palsy. b. Parinaud's synd rome includes lid retraction . c . Pa rinaud's synd rome includes nystagmus retractorius. d. When Parinaud's synd rome is com bined with downgaze palsy it is known as the synd rome of the
true true fa lse (ipsilatera l optic atrophy) true 3.2.4
true fa lse fa lse fa lse true true fa lse fa lse fa lse 3.2.4
true true true 3.2.4
true true true 3.2.5
fa lse true fa lse Sylvian aqueduct
Neurophysiology and Regional Brain Syndromes •
Jugular Foramen Synd romes 53. True or False. Regarding jugular foramen syndromes: a . tra nsverse sinus b. CN IX, X, a ndXI c. CN X, XI, and XII d. sig moid sinus e. petrosa l sinus f. branches from the ascending pharyngeal a rtery g . branches from the occipital a rtery Matching. Match the following numbered syndromes with the lettered lesions. Also indicate the nerves involved and the results of the lesion. Synd rome: CD Vernet's; 0 Col l et-Sica rd ; ® Vil l a ret's Lesion: (a-c) below a . Which j u g u l a r fora men synd rome i s most likely due to a n intracranial lesion?
3.3.1
fa lse true fa lse true true true true
54.
b. c.
extracranial lesion? retropharyngeal lesion?
55. True or False. A jugular foramen syndrome that spares CN IX is a. Vernet's b. Col l et-Sica rd c. Vi lla ret's d. Ta pia
3.3.2
CD involves CN, IX, X , XI taste, vocal cords and SCM (sternocleido mastoid muscle) 0 a bove plus XII tongue ® a bove plus Horner 3.3.2
fa lse fa lse fa lse true (Ta pia X, XII vocal cords and tongue )
27
4 Neuroanesthesia
•
General I nformation Provide general information on neuroanesthesia. a . N a m e t h e most potent cerebral vasod ilator b. Effect of hyperventi lation on: i. PaC02 ii. CBV iii. CBF iv. Goa l is end tida l C02 of ( ETC02) mmHg. v. Correlates with PaC02 of _ - _ mmHg. c. For every degree Celsius change i n tem perature, d. there is a change i n cerebral meta bolic rate of oxygen by %. e. Hyperg lycemia ca n __ ischemic deficits. f. Head of the bed elevation wil l have the i. a rterial blood flow ii. ICP iii. venous blood outflow
1.
4.1
C02 red uces decreases decreases 2 5-30 mm Hg
__
30 to 3 5 m m Hg
__
7%
__
•
worsen decrease red u ce decrease
Drugs Used in Neuroa nesthesia 2.
a. b. c. d. e.
Inhaled agents have the following effects on: cerebra l meta bolism cerebra l vessels cerebra l blood vol u m e ICP C02 reactivity
3. What anesthetic drug may come out of solution and aggravate pneumocephalus?
4.2.1
red uce dilate increase increase increase nitrous oxide
4.2.1
Neuroanesthesia 4. To reduce the risk of tension a. b. c.
4.2.1
pneumocephalus you would fil l any space with and turn off m i n utes before closing the d u ra . __
__
___
5. Complete the following regarding barbiturates: a . They produce dose-dependent EEG b. They cause peripheral vaso c. which may result in t h e CPP. d. and
__
__
___
6. Which barbiturate can decrease seizure threshold? 7. True or False. Etomidate a. has a n a lgesic properties. b. can prod uce myoclonic activity. c. ca n i m pair renal fu nction. d . may produce adrenal insufficiency. 8.
Ketamine is a antagonist.
__
receptor
9. True or False. Morphine a. significantly crosses BBB b. releases histamine which c. produces hypotension d . causes vasodilation e. increases ICP f. comprom ises CPP
fl uid agent 10 4.2.2
suppression d i latation hypotension red uce methohexita l
4.2.2
4.2.2
fa lse true true true N M DA
4.2.2
4.2.2
fa lse true true true true true
Characterize synthetic narcotics: Have the adva ntage that they don't cause h An exam ple is f
fentanyl
11.
Benzodiazepines are
GABA
4.2.3
1 2.
Dexmedetomidine ( Precedex) is an receptor agonist.
a l pha-2 adrenergic
4.2.3
1 0. a.
b.
__
agonists.
4.2.2
histamine release
1 3. What is the only depolarizing paralytic succinylchol ine agent?
4.2.4
29
Part 2: General and Neurology
30 •
Anesthetic Requirements for I ntra-Operative Evoked Potential Monitoring 1 4. Answer the following questions concerning anesthesia requirements for evoked potential monitoring: a . What tech nique is preferred? b. Second best is c. Are m u scle relaxa nts perm itted? _ ___
1 5.
•
How should fentanyl be infused?
4.3
tota l IV a nesthesia nitrous/na rcotic yes continuously, not interm ittently
4.3
Malig nant Hyperthermia 1 6. a.
Regarding malignant hyperthermia: Due to block o f re-entry into sarcoplasmic reticu l u m . i n end b . Earl iest possible s i g n is tidal pC02. c. Treatment with IV is u s u a l ly effective. shou ld be d . I n patients a t risk avoided . __
__
__
__
4.4. 1
ca lci u m
4.4.2
increase da ntrolene
4.4.3
succinylchol ine
4.4.4
5 Sodium Homeostasis and Osmolality
•
Serum Osmolality and Sodium Concentration is 1 . A serum osmolality of associated with risk of renal failure. __
•
>
320
Ta ble 5 . 1
Hyponatremia 2 . The diagnosis i s hyponatremia i f the serum sodium is less than mEq/l.
1 35
5.2.1
__
3. Two common etiologies for hyponatremia are a. s
5.2.1
SIADH
__
b.
c__
csw
4. Minimal work-up for hyponatremia should include: a. seru m b. seru m c. u rine d . assessment of e. u rine f. T
5.2.1
[ N a+] osmolal ity osmola l ity vol u m e status [ N a+] TSH
__
__
5. The syndrome is SIADH a . i f t h e seru m osmola l ity is less than mOsm/L b . and the u rine osmola lity is more than mOsm/L.
5.2.1
275
__
1 00
__
6.
Pseudohyponatremia occurs when active solutes draw from the cells and the water fraction of plasma and produce artificially values.
___
__
__
___
osmotical ly; water; red uce; low sod i u m
5.2.1
Part 2: General and Neurology
32 7.
a. b. c. d. 8.
9.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i.
Name osmotically active solutes that may cause pseudohyponatremia. g m h h _ __
_ _ _
_ _ _
Complete the equation to calculate serum osmolality Effective seru m osmolality = [BUN](mq/d l) measure d osmo I a l .t 1 y Matching. Match the symptoms with severity of hyponatremia. Hyponatremia: CD m i l d , < 1 30 m Eq/L: 0 severe, < 1 2 5 m Eq/L Sym ptoms: (a-i) below headache cerebral edema a norexia nausea vomiti ng muscle weakness m u scle twitching seizu res respi ratory a rrest difficu lty concentrati ng
1 0. SIADH is a . t h e release o f sti m u l i b. without c. resu lting in i. natremia ii. volemia iii. with ina ppropriately osmolality.
5.2.1
g l u cose mannitol hyperlipidemia hyperproteinemia 5.2.2
2.8
5.2.3
CD 0 CD 0 CD 0 0 0 CD 5.2.5
ADH osmotic
___
__
__
__
u rine
Complete the following regarding treatment of hyponatremia: a. Avoid correction . b. Avoid correction . m E q / L p e r hour. c . D o not exceed m Eq/L per 24 d. Do not exceed hours. e. Do not exceed m Eq/L per 48 hou rs.
hypo hyper high
11.
___
__
___
5.2.5
ra pid over 1 8 18
Sodium Homeostasis and Osmolality 1 2.
Matching. Diagnosis of SIADH depends on three diagnostic criteria. Match the laboratory value with the appropriate test. Hyponatremia: G) seru m N a ; @ seru m K; ® serum osmolal ity; @ u ri n ary osmolality; ® u ri n ary N a ; ® urinary K; 0 blood u rea nitrogen ( B U N ) creati nine
1 3.
a. b. c. d. e. f. 1 4. a. b. c.
Give the expected result for each test in the diagnosis of SIADH. seru m Na seru m osmol u ri n ary Na u ri n ary Na m a y b e as h i g h as serum B U N below seru m creatinine _ __
_ _ _
_ __
_ __
_ __
_ _ _
Central pontine myelinolysis (CPM) is a ka o d synd rome d u e to r c of hyponatremia a disorder of p w m Its symptoms are i. f q ii. m s changes abnormalities n iii. c iv. p appearance b ___
__
___
___
___
_ __
5.2.5
5.2.5
< 1 34 m Eq/L < 2 7 5 mOsm/L > 1 8 m Eq/L 50-1 50mEq/L 10 normal 5.2.5
osmotic demyel ination ra pid correction pontine wh ite matter
_ __
d.
__
_ _ _
___
___
flaccid quadriplegia menta l status cranial nerve pseudobulbar
1 5.
Features common in patients who develop CPM are a. r c c b. o for more than in c. d hours. d . increase in Na b y more than mEq/L within hours. __
_ __
__
_ __
___
__
__
5.2.5
ra pid correction over correction delay in diag nosis; 48 25; 48
1 6. Treatment of SIADH includes: a. f b. s
fl uid restriction salt
1 7. a. b. c. d.
ren a l ; Na intracranial hypo decrease
_ _
_ _ _
__
Cerebral salt wasting (CSW) is r loss of as a res u lt of i d isease prod ucing natremia and a in extrace l l u l a r fl uid vol ume. __
__
5.2.5
5.2.6
33
Part 2: General and Neurology
34 1 8.
a.
list the expected patient laboratory result when comparing SIADH with csw. Water: in SIADH , in CSW
b.
Na (seru m): in SIADH
c. d.
__
__
osmol (seru m ) : in SIADH
, in CSW
__
csw
osmol ( u rine): in SIADH
e.
Na ( u rine): in SIADH
f.
Hct: in SIADH
, in
, in CSW
__
___
, in
__
, i n CSW
csw__
1 9. What is the treatment of CSW? a . Hyd rate i. with _% saline ii. at ccf h r. b. Use furosemide (yes or no?) c. Avoid correction __
•
Ta ble 5 . 5
SIADH: hypervolemic, CSW: hypovolemic SIADH : low, CSW: low SIADH: low, CSW: high SIADH : high, CSW: high SIAD H : high, CSW: high SIAD H : low, CSW: high 5.2.6
0.9% normal 1 00-1 2 5 no ra pid
Hypernatremia 2 0 . In neurosurgical patients hypernatremia is seen in a. d i __ b. Defi ne hypernatremia
dia betes insipidus Na > 1 50 m Eq/L
21 . a. b. c. d. e.
ADH 200 1 .005 high high
5.3.1
_
Characterize diabetes insipidus Due t o low level of Urine output is < ccf h r. Specific g ravity of u rine is < Seru m osmola rity is normal or Serum sod i u m is ___
_ _ _ __ _
_ _ _
In diabetes insipidus is the following low or high? a. ADH is . b. Urine specific g ravity is c. Urine output is d . Seru m osmolality is _ e. Serum sod i u m is
5.3.2
22.
___
_ _ _
_ _
_ _ __
23. The etiology of diabetes insipidus can be a . Neu b. Nep _ _ _
_ _ _
5.3.2
low low high high high 5.3.2
neurogenic nephrogenic
Neurosurgery Books
Sodium Homeostasis and Osmolality 24.
a. b. c. d.
Diagnosis of diabetes insipidus occurs when u rine output is above u rine osmol is below specific g ravity is below adrenal fu nction is _ _ _
_ _ _
_ __
_ _ _ _
25. Treatment of diabetes insipidus in conscious ambulatory patient is to instruct patient to d only when
5.3.2
2 50ccf h r 200 mOsm/L 1 .003 normal d rink; thi rsty
5.3.2
___
26. Treatment of diabetes insipidus in comatose patient: a. IV fl uid management with at appropriate rate (75-1 OOccf h r). a bove base IV rate m l b. Replace for m l with -,-c. If unable to keep up with fl uid loss use i. v ii. d __ __
____
5.3.2
D5 1 /2 N S + 20 m Eq/L u rine output; 1 /2 NS vasopressin desmopressin
35
6 General Neurocritical Care
•
Parenteral Agents for Hypertension 1 . True or False. Nicardipine a . is a ca lci u m channel blocker. b. does not raise ICP. c. d ecreases heart rate.
true true fa lse
ICP. 2. Nitroglycerins can a. It is a vaso b. acts on v more than a c. which LV fi lling pressures.
ra ise di lator vei ns, a rteries decrease
6.1
__
--
--
__
3.
alpha- 1 ; beta
labetalol is a selective blocker and non selective blocker.
4. list the effects of labetalol on the a. b. c. d. e.
•
6.1
6.1
6.1
following: ICP pulse ca rdiac output coronary ischemia renal fa i l u re
no change decrease or no change no change no change no change
Hypotension {Shock) 5. What is the first sign of hypovolemic shock?
tachyca rd ia
6.2.1
6.
negative
6.2.1
constrictor
6.2.2
Septic shock is most often due to gram sepsis. __
7.
Dopamine is primarily a vaso
___
.
8. Characterize the effect of dopamine at these doses a . 0.5-2.0 meg/kg/min b. 2 - 1 0 meg/kg/min c . > 1 0 meg/kg/min
Ta ble 6 . 1
dopaminerg ic beta - 1 a l p h a , beta , dopami nergic
Acid Inhibitors 9. True or False. Dobutamine a. b. c.
1 0.
6.2.2
is prima rily a vasod ilator by beta - 1 . increases ca rdiac output by inotropy. may exacerbate myoca rd ial ischemia.
true true true
Phenylephrine blood pressure by SVR, and causes reflex in parasympathetic tone resulting in pulse.
elevates; increasin g ; increase; decreased
___
___
___
11.
For the listed pressors complete the following statements to describe the cautions required. a . Phenylephrine: avoid in s c i b. Dopa mine: may cause h . c. Dobuta m ine: may cause dysfu nction of p . ___
___
___
6.2.2
6.2.2
spinal cord i nj u ry hyperg lycemia platelets
__
•
Acid Inhibitors 1 2. True or False. Extra CNS risk factor that increase t h e odds o f stress ulcers are the following: a . bu rns covering > 2 5 % o f body su rface a rea b. hypotension c. ren a l fai l u re d . coa g u lopathies
6. 3 . 1
true true true true
1 3. When is the peak time for acid and pepsin production after head injury?
3-5 days after inj u ry
6. 3 . 1
1 4.
Should prophylactic use of H2 blocker be given when steroids are used?
no-usually not wa rra nted
6.3.2
1 5.
Gastric pH > 4 may risk of pneumonia from aspiration.
increase
6.3.3
1 6.
Omeprazole may the effectiveness of prednisone and the clearance of warfarin and phenytoin due to of hepatic P450 enzymes.
decrease; decrease; i n h ibition
__
___
6.3.5
__
1 7.
Sucralfate may the incidence of lower pneumonia and mortality more than agents that affect gastric pH. ___
6.3.6
37
7 Sedatives, Paralytics, Analgesics
•
Sedatives and Para lytics 1 . The Richmond Scale: RASS quantitates and levels. a. Positive n u m bers for b. N egative n u m bers for
ag itation and sedation
7. 1 . 1
____
__
2. True or False. Indicate whether the following statements are true or false: a . Methohexita l (Brevita l) is more potent and shorter acti ng than thiopenta l . b. Remifenta n i l ra pidly crosses B B B . c. Fentanyl causes dose-dependent respi ratory depression. d . Propofol has better neuroprotection than ba rbitu rates ( du ring aneurysm surgery). e. Precedex can be used to red uce shiveri ng.
ag itation sedation 7 . 1 .2, 7 . 1 .3
true true true fa lse (ba rbitu rates a re better) true
3 . True or False. T h e following sedatives may induce seizure: a. Thiopenta l b. Methohexita l c. Fentanyl d. Propofol e. Precedex
fa lse true fa lse fa lse fa lse
4. T
Thiopenta l
may cause necrosis when injected intraarterially.
5.
a.
Complete the following statements about propofol infusion syndrome: Cha racterized by i. ka lemia ii. megaly iii. m a iv. r v. r f f vi . m vii . h __ __
__
__
_ _ _ _
___
_ __
_ _ _
_ _ _ _
7 . 1 .3
7 . 1 .3
7 . 1 .3
hyperkalemia hepatomegaly metabolic acidosis rhabdomyolysis ren a l fai l u re myoca rd ial fa i l u re hypertrig lyceridemia
Sedatives, Paralytics, Analgesics 6.
a.
Complete the following statements about Precedex. Mechanism o f action
b. Acts in i. I c ii. d c. Has both properties. d . Side effects: h
and g
__
and
Succinylcholine
c.
Rocu ron i u m
d . Vecu roni u m
•
a l pha-2-adrenoreceptor agonist locus ceru leus dorsal root g a n g l ia sedative and ana lgesic hypotension, bradyca rdia
,b
7. Choose the correct order from longacting to short-acting for the following neuromuscular agents: a . Pa ncu ron i u m
b.
7 . 1 .3
Ta ble 7 . 2
Pa ncuron i u m : 60 to 1 80 m i n utes Vecuronium: 40 to 60 min utes Rocu roni u m : 40 to 60 m i n utes (but shorter onset) Succinylcholine: 20 min utes
Para lytics (Neuromuscular Blocking Agents) is always required in a 8. s conscious patient simultaneously with the use of a paralytic agent and as ventilation is being established.
9. True or False.
7.2.1
Ta ble 7.2
a . Pa ncu ron i u m is l o n g acti ng. b. Rocuronium is short acti ng. c. Succinylcholine is a com petitive blocker and is short acti ng.
d.
Sedation
Sedation is req u i red for conscious patients.
1 0. Which is the only depolarizing ganglionic blocker among the following paralytics: a . Succinylcholine b. Ra pacuronium c. M ivacuronium d . Rocuronoium
true true fa lse (Succinylcholine is noncom petitive blocker and is considered the only depolarizi ng gang lionic blocker. It has been l i n ked to malignant hyperthermia) true a. Succinylcholine
Neurosurgery Books
7.2.1
39
Part 2: General and Neurology
40 11.
a. b. c. d.
Complete the following regarding possible side effects of succinylcholine I ncreases seru m potassi u m b y . Ca uses severe hyperka lemia in patients with pathology. It is contraindicated in which acute phase i nju ries? M a y cause dysrhythmias, especi ally ___
7.2.1
0 . 5 mEq/mL neuronal or neurom uscu lar pathology Major bu rns, m u lti pletra u m a sinus bradyca rdia
--- ---
1 2. Which of the following paralytic is contraindicated in the acute phase of injury because of the risk of hyperkalemia? a . Succinylcholine b. Metocurine c. Doxacurium d. Pa ncuronium e. Vecuronium
a . Succinylcholine
7.2.1
1 3. Which of these is the shortest acting nondepolarzing blocking agent? a . M ivacuri u m b . Rocuronium c. Vecuronium d . Metocurine e. Doxacuri u m
c. Vecuronium
7.2.4
1 4. Which nondepolarzing paralytic does not affect ICP or CPP? a . Vecuronium b. Pa ncuronium c. Succinylcholine d. Ra pacuronium e. Rocu ron i u m
a. Vecu ron ium
7.2.4
d. Cistracuri u m does not 1 5. What is the main difference between cistracrium and its isomer atracurium? release histamine a . cost b. onset of action c. d u ration d . Cistracuri u m does not release hista m ine. e. none of the a bove 1 6.
a. b. c.
State if pancuronium increases or decreases the following: cardiac output pulse rate ICP
7.2.4
7.2.4
increases increases increases
Sedatives, Paralytics, Analgesics Complete the following statements about reversal of competitive muscle blockade: a. Reversa l is not attem pted u ntil patient has at least twitch t o sti m u lus. % m u scle b. A response of Y4 ind icates blockade. c. What medication is used for reversa l?
1 7.
7.2.5
1 twitch to tra i n of fou r
___ _
__
d . What medications c a n b e added to prevent bradyca rd ia? i. a _ _ _
ii.
•
g
__ _
90 neostigmine (2.5 m g to 5 mg IV) atropine (0.5 mg for each mg of neostigmine) g lycopyrrolate (0.2 mg for each mg of neostig mine)
Ana lgesics 1 8.
a. b. c. d.
Metastatic cancer pain can be desensitized by which of these analgesics? steroids aspirin nonsteroidal a nti-inflammatory d rugs aceta m inophen
1 9. How do NSAIDs work? a . They i n h i bit b. which thereby interferes with the synthesis of p c. a n d t d . This i n h i bits t h e fu nction o f e. and prolongs f. They may a lso cause __ _
a , b, c
7.3.3
7.3.4
cyclooxygenase prostaglandins
___ _
_ __
_ __
_ _ _ ___ _ ____ _
Complete the following concerning NSAIDS and platelet function: a. The N SAI D that resu lts in irreversible binding is b. Which N SAID resu lts in reversi ble i n h i bition of platelet fu nction? c. The N SAI D that does not interfere with platelet fu nction is
throm boxa nes platelets bleed ing time neph rotoxicity
20.
7.3.4
aspirin
_ _ _ _
most N SAI DS Relafen (nabu metone)
___
21 .
a.
List the doses of the following substances: N SAI D to use i. Naprosyn loa d i n g : then every to hours. ii. Motrin no loading: Sta rt dose to mg then times per day. ___
__
___
___
__
__
___
Ta ble 7 . 4
500 mg; then 250 mg; 6 to 8 400 to 800; then 4 times per day
41
Part 2: General and Neurology
42 b.
Opioid to use (moderate to severe pain) i. Percoda n no loading: Sta rt dose pill(s) every to hours. to ii. Vicod in no load i n g: Sta rt dose pill(s) every hours. Limit to every hours per day. Opioids use (mild to moderate pain) i. Codeine loading? Sta rt dose __ to __ mg at hours, to mg at hours to ___
___
___
c.
___
___
_ _ _
___
1 to 2 pills; 3 to 4 hours 1 pill; every 6 hours 8 pills every 24 hours no load i n g ; 30 t o 60 mg at 3 hours; 60 mg at 3 to 5 hours
___
22. a.
How much Tylenol is safe? Comes in dosages o f or mg. Safe u p t o mgfday mgfday Has a ceiling effect at Has hepatic toxicity a bove ,mgfday ___
Ta ble 7 . 3
650 or 1 000 mg
___
b. c. d.
4000 mgfday 1 300 mgfday 1 0,000 mgfday
___
23. A serious side effect of acetaminophen hepatotoxicity is
Ta ble 7 . 3
_____ ,
24.
Complete the following regarding ketorolac (Toradol). N SAI D approved for use i n a. Only p a i n control in t h e U.S. effect is more potent than its b. A effect. c. H a lf-l ife is hours ___
____
25. True or False. Regarding opioid analgesics: a . They have no ceiling effect. b. With chronic use, tolerance develops. c. Overdose is possi ble with severe respi ratory depression. d. Treatment of overdose includes admin istration of naloxone. e. Fl u m a nezil helps in treatment of overdose. 26. True or False. Regarding narcotics: a . Some opioids m a y cause seizu res. b. Physical and psychologica l tolera n ce develops with chronic use. c. There is a ceiling effect with increasing dosage. d. Overdose can cause respi ratory depression.
7.3.4
parentera l ana lgesic; a nti-infl a m matory 6 7.3.5
true true true true fa lse (Fi u m a nezi l is usefu l on treatment overdose from benzod iazepines.) 7.3.5
true true true true
Sedatives, Paralytics, Analgesics 27.
a. b.
Complete the following mnemonic about opioids: 0
p
c. d. e.
0
f. d 28. To what type of opioid receptor subtype does tramadol (Uitram) bind? 29.
a. b.
Ultram acts centrally to inhibit reuptake of n and s
30. True or False. OxyContin tablets should never be taken crushed, divided or chewed. 31 . What is the intramuscular:per os (IM:PO) potency ratio for morphine? a . single dose b. chronic dosing Indicate the following adjuvant medications' characteristic actions: a . Tricyclics b. Tryptophan c. Antihista m i nes d . Phenothiazine
7.3.5
overdose is possi ble potentia l for respiratory depression i ncrease dosage = increase effect - no ceiling effect small pupils - miosis intoxication - treat with N a rcan develops tolera n ce with chronic use 1-1-opioid receptor
7.3.5
norepinephrine serotonin true
34.
Chronic use of tryptophan may cause
Ta ble 7 . 6
Ta ble 7 . 7
1 :6 1 :2 to 3
32.
33. What craniofacial pain syndromes are responsive to carbamazepine? n a. t b. g n n c. p
7.3.5
7.3.6
blocks serotonin inta ke precursor of serotonin a nxiolytic tra n q u i l izing 7.3.6
trigeminal neuralgia g l ossopharyngea l neuralgia post-herpetic neuralgia Vita m i n B6 depletion
7.3.6
43
8 Endocrinology
•
Corticosteroids 1.
Cortisol is released by the a d renal glands; and i s stimulated by pitu ita ry; adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) hypothalamus which in turn is from the stimulated by corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) from the . __
8. 1 . 1
___
___ ,
__
2. True or False. The following has to be replaced in adrenal failure: a . M ineralocorticoids b. G l u cocorticoids 3. True or False. The following has to be replaced in pituitary failure: a . Mineralocorticoids b. G l u cocorticoids 4. True or False. The following medications have mineralocorticoid potency: a . Cortisone b. Cortisol c. Sol u-Cortef d . Prednisone e. Methyl pred nisolone f. Dexa m ethasone Hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal suppression can occur if a dose a . o f 4 0 mg o f pred nisone is g iven for __ days. b. is g iven for 7 to 1 4 days ta per over
8.1 .2
true true 8.1 .2
fa lse true Ta ble 8 . 1
true true true true fa lse fa lse
5.
c. After a month of steroids, H PA axis may be depressed for as long as .
8 . 1 .3
>7 1 -2 weeks 1 yea r
___
Neurosurgery Books
Endocrinology 6. When withdrawal problems develop a.
conservative steroid ta per includes small decrements eq u iva lent to mg of pred nisone every days.
8.1 .3
2 . 5-5
___
b.
___
7. list the possible deleterious effects of steroids in alphabetical order. a. a
b. c.
b c
d.
d
e. e f. f g.
g
h.
h
i. j. j k. k I. I m. m n.
n
0.
0
p.
p
q. r. s.
q r s
t. t u. u v. v w. w 8. What is the best way to test for hypocortisolism?
3-7 8.1 .4
a l ka losis, a menorrhea, avascular necrosis (hip) bone loss cushing noid featu res cata racts, com p ression fractures, chicken pox reactivation diverticu lar perforation, diabetes epid u ra l lipomatosis fu ngal infections, feta l adrenal hypoplasia g rowth s u ppression in children, G l bleed , g l a u coma hypertension, hypokalemia, hyper coa g u lopathy, hiccu ps, hirsutism, hyperlipidemia i m m u nosuppression lipomatosis menta l ag itation, m u scle wea kness, myopathy non-ketotic com a , nitrogen meta bolism is distu rbed obesity prog ressive m u ltifoca l leukoencephalopathy (PML), pseudotu mor cerebri, pancreatitis reactivation of TB sod i u m retention, steroid psychosis tissue plasminogen activator i n h ibition water retention 8 a . m . cortisol level
8.1 .5
45
Part 2: General and Neurology
46
9. What are the symptoms of Addisonian crisis? { H int: CLAW) a. c Confusion b. L Letha rgy c. A Ag itation Wea kness d. w
8.1 .5
--
--
--
1 0. What are the signs of Addisonian crisis? Sta rt you r answers with hypo- or hypera . blood pressu re b. g l u cose c. sod i u m d. tem peratu re e. potassi u m
•
8.1 .5
hypotension hypog lycemia hyponatremia hyperthermia hyperka lemia
Hypothyroidism 11.
levothyroxine is almost pure and contains no T3 because most T3 is from T4. produced __
T4; periphera l ly
8.2.3
___
1 2. Signs of myxedema coma include a. h b. h c. h d. h e. b f. s
•
8.2.3
hypotension hyponatremia hypog lycemia hypoventilation bradyca rd ia seizu res
Pituitary Embryology and Neuroendocrinology 1 3.
The posterior pituitary derives from the downward evagination of from the floor of the
__
-- --
neura l crest cells; third ventricle
8.3.1
--
--
The anterior pituitary gland develops from evagination of , which is also called
epithelial ectoderm Rath ke's pouch
1 5.
The pituitary gland is functionally the blood-brain barrier.
outside
1 6.
The pituitary gland releases hormones, from the anterior pituitary and from the posterior pituitary.
8; 6; 2
1 4.
__ __
__
__
__
8.3.1
8.3.1
8.3.2
Endocrinology 1 7.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. 1 8.
Match the hormone and the portion of the pituitary where it is produced CD a nterior; 0 posterior Thyrotropin releasing hormone CD Corticotropin releasing hormone CD Oxytocin 0 Antidiu retic hormone 0 Somatostati n CD Prolactin release inhibitory factor CD Gonadotropin releasing hormone CD Prolactin is the only pituitary hormone i n h ibitory predominantly under control from the hypothalamus.
Fig. 8 . 1
8.3.2
___
Describe the side effects of ADH. the permeabil ity of the dista l tubu les. b. __ rea bsorption of water. c. __ circu lating blood. u rine. d . Prod uces
1 9. a.
__
8.3.2
increases i ncreases d i l utes concentrated
20. What is the most powerful physiologic seru m osmolal ity stimulus for ADH release?
8.3.2
47
9 Hematology
•
Blood Component Therapy 1.
For a n adult, 1 unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) should raise the hematocrit by %.
3-4%
9.2.2
__
Complete the following concerning platelets: a . Normal platelet count is t o __ . b. Rega rding tra nsfusion of platelets: or i. Tra nsfu se if su rgery is ii. patient is on __ or and ca n 't wait _ to _ days. of iii. Usual tra nsfusion is platelets. iv. One u n it ra ises platelets by . v. Platelet count can be checked in hours. vi . Retra nsfusion wi l l be needed in __ days.
2.
__
__
__
__
Complete the following concerning fresh frozen plasma: a . O n e b a g eq uals __ cc. b. Risk of acq u i red i m m u n odeficiency synd rome (AI DS) or hepatitis is the same as c. Use to reverse Cou madin: i. Proth rom bin time (PT) g reater than
9.2.3
1 50 k-400 k/m m 3 u rgent ASA or Plavix; 5 to 7 an eight pack (=6- 1 0 U) 10 k 2 3-5
3.
ii.
I nternational normalized ratio ( I N R) g reater than __ . iii. Von Wi l lebrand 's d isease u n responsive to __ . iv. M u lti ple coa g u lation dysfu nction such as i n : h v D
9.2.4
200-2 50 a u n it of blood
1 8 seconds 1 .6 DDAVP
hepatic dysfu nction; vita m i n I< deficiency; DIC
Hematology 4. True or False. Regarding Prothrombin complex concentrate {PCC): a . Contains clotti ng factors I I , VI I , I X , X . b. Contains protein C & S. c. Pri mary ind ication is to be given for wa rfa rin reversa l . d . Req uires higher volume than FFP to work. 5.
a.
9.2.4
true true true fa lse (lower vol u m e)
In regard to the use of anticoagulation in a patient who has ok a n u n ru ptu red aneurysm < 4 m m , a nticoa g u lation is . Plavix a d rug el uti ng ca rd iac stent - continue
9.2.5
___
b.
c. At onset of SAH , we wou l d a nticoag ulation. d. Post-operative craniotomy may sta rt to days after surgery. __
reverse 3 to 5
__
6. Regarding anticoagulation in a.
9.2.5
preparation for surgery. If a patient has: a mechanical heart va lve i. stop wa rfa rin days before su rgery ii. and begin . chronic atrial fibril lation i. stop wa rfa rin days before su rgery. __
__
b.
__
3 Loven ox 4 to 5
Complete the following regarding anticoagulation: days a . M a y resume a nticoa g u lation 3 to 5 after craniotomy. b. An n u a l risk of com p lications while not anticoagulated for a patient with i. mechanical heart va lve is % per 6% yea r. ii. chronic atrial fibri l l ation is % per 4-6% yea r
9.2.5
Complete the following regarding neurosurgical procedures: a . PT should b e below seconds. b . I N R s h o u l d not b e above c. For emergencies g ive d. and
9.2.5
7.
__
__
__
8.
___
9.
Both Plavix and ASA inhibit platelet function for how long?
Plavix is more dangerous drug than ASA because it remains a. for u p to b. after the last dose and c. ca n i n h i bit even those g iven treatm ent.
< 1 3.5 1 .4 2 U FFP vita m i n K permanently
1 0.
__
--- ---
9.2.5
9.2.5
active severa l days tra nsfused platelets
Neurosurgery Books
49
Part 2: General and Neurology
50 11.
a. b. c. d.
Name the commonly used herbal products that may affect platelet aggregation. g g g f ___
__
___
_ __
9.2.5
garlic g i n kgo ginseng fish oil
1 2.
Complete the following concerning warfarin (Coumadin): a. Don 't sta rt Cou madin u ntil a has been ach ieved on heparin b. to red u ce the risk of c. For the first 3 days of Cou madin thera py patients a re actua l ly d . therefore patients should b e with or ___
9.2.5
thera peutic partial throm boplastin time {PTT) Cou madin necrosis hypercoagulable
_ _ _
_ __
___
1 3. Possible heparin side effects include a. t b. t c. These side effects a re due to in heparin induced i. throm bosis or ii. formed agai nst heparin platelet. _ _ _
__
1 4. low molecular weight heparins should a . have fewer com p l ications. b. have more predicta ble __ levels. biologic c. elimi nate the need to activity. d . have a longer l ife. e. req u i re __ doses per day. f. have a lower incidence of g. be more effective i n prophylaxis than wa rfarin. ___
___
___
____
___
"bridged"; Lovenox or heparin 9.2.5
throm bosis th rom bocytopen ia consum ption antibodies 9.2.5
hemorrhagic plasma monitor half fewer thrombocytopenia DVT
1 5. A serious side effect could be spinal
epid u ra l hematoma
1 6. a. b.
direct thrombin i n h ibitor ldaru cizu m a b
Regarding dabigatran (Pradaxa). It is a d t i Ca n be reversed with __
__
___
__ _
1 7. Regarding fondaparineux (Arixtra) a. It factor Xa i n h ibition b. without affecti ng Factor . c. U n l ike hepari n , it does not cause h t __
__
__
__
9.2.5
9.2.5
9.2.5
increases Factor lla (th rombin) heparin-i n d uced throm bocytopenia
Hematology 1 8.
a.
Complete the following concerning coagulopathy: To reverse Cou madin a nticoa g u l ation in a patient who is at the usual therapeutic level, use . For severely prolonged coag ulation use
9.2.5
2 to 3 u n its FFP
___
b.
c. To reverse PT from Cou madin use i. ii. Ad m i nistered by what route? iii. Ad ministration may be fata l if given iv. Why? _ h
6 u n its FFP vita m i n K aqua mephyton IM IV hypotension; ana phylaxis
__
a, ____
Matching. Use the numbers of the listed terms to complete the following statements. CD proth rombin complex concentrate; 0 protamine su lfate; G) vita min K; 0 Aq uaMephyton a . Cou madin is reversed by i. ii. iii. b. Heparin is reversed by
1 9.
9.2.5
__ _ ___
20. a.
b.
Regarding protamine sulfate. 1 mg o f protamine reverses __ of heparin. % of Lovenox can be reversed with 1 mg of prota mine for every mg of Loven ox with in the last hours.
__
9.2.5
1 00
u
60%; 8
21 .
Significantly elevated pre-op PTT is commonly due to d a. f a b. l __
__
22.
a. b.
__
__
Complete the following concerning thromboembolism: Risk o f embolism from calf-deep-vein throm bosis is _% Extends to proxi mal deep veins in %. Embolism from thigh veins is %. Morta l ity of DVT in legs is __%. DVTs in neurosurgical patients occur in %.
9.2.5
factor d eficiency l u pus a nticoa g u lant 9.2.5
1% 30 to 50%
___
c. d. e.
___
40 to 50% 9 to 50% 1 9-50%
___
23. Conditions that make neurosurgical patients prone to DVTs are a. c b. I c. o fd d . t. _ __ _ _ __
_
__ __
__ __
_ ___
_ ___ ___
9.2.5
concom ita nt sludging long-time immobility operating room/dehyd ration throm boplastin release
51
Part 2: General and Neurology
52
24. The best prophylaxis against DVT is a . PCB, which is t h e abbreviation for
b.
25.
a. b. c. d.
low
_ _ __
Matching. One can diagnose DVT with the following tests. Match the finding with its appropriate diagnostic value. CD gold sta ndard ; 0 associated with PE and DVT; G) only 50% accu rate; 0 99% specific Hot swollen tender calf with positive Homan sign Contrast venography Doppler u ltrasonog raphy D-d imer
9.2.5
G) CD 0 0
26. What is the treatment of DVT? a. b i leg b. e c. h or l. d . c. f e. Consider G f. a to days g . after h . wea r i. For how long?
bed rest elevate involved leg hepari n ; Lovenox Cou madin G reenfield filter a m b u l ate 7 to 1 0 a nti-embolic stockings indefi nitely
27. a.
1 0 to 1 4 days
_ ___
__
__
_ _ _
_ __
_ _ _
_ _ __
__
__
__
_ _ _ __ _ _ _ _
Regarding pulmonary embolism. Genera l ly occu rs __ to fol l owing s u rgery. b. Common findings include i. t. ii. t. iii. f iv. h c. Classic EKG finding is -e d. Test of choice is c c__ c
_ _ _ _
_ _ _ _ _ _
_ _ _
_ __
__
_
•
9.2.5
pneumatic compression boots dose heparin {5000 1 U su bcutaneous every t o 8 to 1 2 hours first postop day)
9.2.5
9.2.5
tachypnea tachyca rdia fever hypotension S 1 Q3T3 contrast-enha nced chest CT
_ _
Extramed u l lary Hematopoiesis 28.
a.
Extramedullary hematopoiesis can result in abnormal sku l l x-ray ca lled
hair on end
b.
spinal cord compression due to
vertebral body thickening
__
9.3 . 1
--- -- --
Extramedullary hematopoiesis can be treated with a. r a nd/or b. s
29.
9.3.3
radiothera py su rgery
10 Neurology for Neurosurgeons
•
Dementia 1 . What is the definition of dementia? a. Loss of i abil ities b. severe enough to interfere with __ fu nctioning. c. or o d _ d. Ca rdinal featu re is m e. plus at least one additional i f. Affects _ - _% of persons over 6 5 .
_
__
_ _
_ _ __
2 . True or False. T h e following are risk factors for dementia: a. Adva nced age b. Fa m i ly history c. Apolipoprotein E2 3. True or False. Regarding dementia vs. delirium: a . Patients with dementia a re a t increased risk of developing deliri u m . b . Fifty percent o f patients with deliri u m die with in 2 years. c. U n l ike dementia , deliri u m has acute onset.
•
1 0. 1
i ntel lectua l social occu pational memory deficit im pairment 3 to 1 1 % 1 0. 1
true true fa lse (apolipoprotein E4) 1 0. 1
true true true
Headache 4.
Regarding unilateral headache. If it persists a . for > 1 yea r a n is recommended b. beca use this is for migraine c. and may be a hint of an underlyi ng __ __
1 0. 2 . 1
M RI sca n atypical AVM
Part 2: General and Neurology
54 5.
a. b. c. d. e. f.
Matching. Match symptoms with category of migraine. Sym ptoms: CD episodic H/A; 0 N/V; ® photophobia; @ a u ra ; ® foca l neurologic deficit; (a) that resolves with in 24 hours; (b) slow march-like progression of deficit; (c) that resolves within 30 days; ® no headache; (j) mostly seen in childre n ; ® hemiplegia; ® mostly seen in adolescents; @ vertigo, ataxia , dysa rthria , severe H A Category o f migraine: (a-f) below Common migraine Classic migraine Com p l icated migraine Migraine equiva lent Hemiplegic migraine Basi lar artery migraine
1 0.2.2
CD-0-® CD-0-®-@-®-®a-®b ®-®c-®
0-@-(j) CD-® ®-@
6. True or False. Neurological deficits seen in classic migraine typically resolve within a. 1 hour b. 1 day c. 1 week d. 1 month e. They a re permanent 7. True or False. Regarding cluster headaches: a . M a y include partial Horner's synd rome and a utonomic (ptosis, m iosis, tea ri ng) symptoms, nasal stuffiness. b. Are more common in women. c. Occur a l m ost daily. d . Last 30 t o 9 0 mi n utes. e. Conti n u e for 6 to 9 month period. 8. Treatment of acute attacks of cluster headache includes: a. 0 b. e c. s d. s 9. True or false. Basilar artery migraines are essentially restricted to a . geriatric patients b. postmenopausal women c. adolescents d . men 1 0. True or False. Patients suffering from basilar artery migraine usual ly have a family history of migraine.
1 0.2.2
fa lse true fa lse fa lse fa lse 1 0.2.2
true fa lse (5 men to 1 woman) true true fa lse ( 1 to 3 months) 1 0.2.2
oxygen 1 00% by face mask ergota mine sumatri pta n SQ steroids 1 0.2.2
fa lse fa lse true fa lse true (Fa m i ly history of migraine is present in 86%.)
Neurosurgery Books
1 0.2.2
Neurology for Neurosurgeons •
Parkinsonism Matching. Match the symptoms with type of parkinsonism. Sym ptoms: CD g radual onset of bradykinesia; 0 asym metric tremor; G) responds wel l t o levodopa ; @ ra pid progression of symptoms; ® equ ivoca l response to levodopa; ® early midline sym ptoms (i.e., ataxia, gait, ba lance); 0 ea rly dementia ; ® orthostatic hypotension; ® extraocu lar movement abnormal ities Types of parkinsonism: (a-b) below a . Pri mary idiopathic pa ralysis agita ns ( I PA) b. Secondary parkinsonism
11.
In parkinsonism, degeneration of substantia nigra cells (pars compacta) results in a. in 02 dopamine receptors projecting to the globus pallidus interna (GPi) b. i n 0 1 receptors projecting to the globus pa llid us externa (GPe) and subthalamic n ucleus (STN )
1 0.3.2
CD-0-G:l @-®-®-0-®-®
1 2.
1 3.
a. b. c. 1 4.
a. b. c. d.
The effects noted in question 1 2 result in increased activity by ca using of the thalam us, which then suppresses activity i n the
___
The effects noted in question 1 3 increase activity by degeneration o f pigmented neurons of the pars compacta of the This red u ces the levels of in the neostriatu m ; that is the: i. c ii. p P,......,.- iii. g This red uces inhibitory 02 receptors to ___
_ _ _ _
____
_ _ _
_ _ _ ___
e. f.
and ca uses the loss of i n h ibitory 0 1 receptors t o and the s n i n activity The net resu lt is a n of G Pi has i n h ibitory projections to the t. I n h i biti ng the tha l a m u s also suppresses the s m c
1 0.3.2
decrease increase
1 0.3.2
GPi i n h ibition su pplementa l motor cortex 1 0.3.2
dopaminerg ic su bsta ntia nigra dopamine ca udate putamen globus pa llidus GPi GPe
_ __
g. h. i. j.
___
_ _ _
_ _ _
s u bthalamic nucleus increase G Pi tha l a m u s
_ _ _ _
k.
_ _ _
supplementa l motor cortex
55
Part 2: General and Neurology
56
1 5. A hallmark of Parkinson's disease a. a re b. which are i. e ii. h _ _ ____ __
_ _ _
_ _ _ _
a. b.
list secondary parkinsonism examples 4 {Hint: p secondary) p p
c. d.
p p
e.
s
f.
e
g. h.
c
i.
n
1 6.
0
j. d k. a I. r m. y 1 7.
a. b. c. 1 8.
a. b. c. 1 9.
a. b.
Multisystem atrophy (i.e., Shy-Drager syndrome) is parkinsonism plus
dysfu nction plus hypotension. Most don't respond to
_ ___
list the distinguishing features of the progressive supranuclear palsy triad (vertical gaze) dystonia palsy Characteristics of the early stage of progressive supranuclear palsy (PSP) include: Fa l l i n g due to palsy (ca n 't see the floor). Difficu lty eati ng due to and gaze palsy (ca n't see plate).
__
1 0.3.2
Lewy bodies eosi nophilic intraneuronal hyaline incl usions 1 0.3.3
phenothiazine a ntiemetics prog ressive su pran uclear palsy {PSP) poisoning CO, manga nese parkinson-dementia complex of Gua m strial nigra l degeneration, Shy-Drager synd rome post-encephaletic parkinsonism Com pazine olivo-ponto-cerebel lar degeneration neoplasms near su bsta ntia nigra dementia pugilistica a nti-psychotic d rugs Reg l a n , Reserpi ne H u nti ngton's Disease (young people) 1 0.3.3
a utonomic nervous system orthostatic d rug therapy 1 0.3.3
opth a l moplegia axial pseudobu lbar 1 0.3.3
downward gaze downward and vertical gaze
Neurology for Neurosurgeons 20.
a. b.
c.
d. e.
•
Regarding surgical treatment for Parkinson's disease. The ta rget site was True or Fa lse. The surgery worked better for i. bradyki nesia ii. tremor True or Fa lse. The more disabling symptom is i. bradyki nesia ii. tremor The procedure can not be done bi latera l ly beca use of risk of Cu rrent treatment site is the p ___
-- ---
57
1 0.3.3
ventrolatera l nucleus fa lse true true fa lse speech distu rba nce posteroventra l pa l l i d u m
M ultiple Sclerosis 21 .
a. b. 22. a. b. c.
Prevalence of multiple sclerosis { MS) per 1 00,000 is variable. N e a r t h e equ ator i t i s per 1 00,000. I n Ca nada and the northern Un ited States it is per 1 00,000. Multiple sclerosis. Study chart M
u
L
d. T e. I f.
p
g. h. i. j. k.
L E
I. m. n. 0.
p. q.
s
c
L
E R 0 s
s
23. The most common category is r -r
1 0 .4.2
<1 30-80 1 0 .4
(de)myelinating u rin a ry sym ptoms latitudes (northern latitudes affected) ti me and space dissemination inter-nuclear ophthal moplegia ( I N O} pa resthesias, peri-ventricu lar plaq ues lym phocytes enhancing lesions on MRI sca rs of the g l ia cortico spinal tracts involved Ia belle ind ifference (eu phoria) equator spared remissions optic atrophy sensory loss infl a m matory response, lgG elevated shower test (hot causes exacerbation) relapsing-rem itting
Il
1 0 .4.3
Part 2: General and Neurology
58 24.
Name the clinical categories of MS corresponding to their definition. a. r -r (acute episodes with recovery) b. s -p (gra d u a l deterioration) c. p p (continuous d eterioration) d. p -r (gra d u a l deterioration with su perim posed rela pses) e. Deficits persist if they remain > ___
___
__
a. b. c. d. e. f. 26.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g.
relapsing-rem itting secondary-prog ressive
___
primary-prog ressive
__
prog ressive-relapsing
__ _
25.
Ta ble 1 0. 2
Matching. Match the multiple sclerosis signs and symptoms with anatomic location. Sym ptoms: CD visual acu ity; 0 d i plopia; ® extremity wea kness; @ quadriplegia; ® spasticity; ® scanning speech; (!) loss of proprioception Anatomic location: (a-f) below optic nerve retro-bulbar region M LF pyramidal tract cerebe l l u m posterior col u m n s Matching. Match anatomic location with multiple sclerosis signs and symptoms. Anatomic location: CD optic nerve; 0 retro-b u l ba r reg ion; ® M LF; @ pyra m id a l tract; ® cerebe l l u m ; ® posterior col u m n s Anatomic location: ( a - g ) below visual acu ity di plopia extrem ity weakness q u a d riplegia spasticity scanning speech loss of proprioception
Provide the frequency of multiple sclerosis signs and symptoms. a . Visual sym ptoms a re among the presenti ng sym ptoms of m u lti ple sclerosis in % b. and occur in m u ltiple sclerosis patients d u ring the cou rse of i l l ness in approxi mately __%. c. In additio n , abdominal cutaneous reflexes a re lost in __%.
>
6 months
1 0.4.3 1 0.4.4
CD CD 0 ®-@-® ® 0 1 0.4.4
CD-0 ® @ @ @ ® ®
27.
1 0.4.4
1 5% 50% 70 to 80%
Neurology for Neurosurgeons 28. A multiple sclerosis plaque in the medial longitudinal fascicu lus {M LF) will cause a. , which wi l l resu lt i n
1 0.4.4
intern uclear ophthalmoplegia (INO) di plopia INO
b. c. This is im porta nt beca use rarely occurs in other diseases. 29.
Indicate the presence or absence of the following reflexes in MS: a . hyperactive m u scle stretch reflexes b. Babinski c. abdominal cutaneous reflexes
1 0.4.4
present present a bsent
30. Conditions found in the differential diagnosis of multiple sclerosis include a. __ __ __ , genera l ly monophasic and b. CNS
acute disseminated encephalomyelitis (AD EM) lym phoma
31 . True or False. In multiple sclerosis the more M RI Iesions, the higher the likelihood of a MS diagnosis.
true ( M RI is very specific for MS plaq ues; specificity is 94%.)
32. Provide M RI criteria for MS. a . Gadol i n i u m : acute lesions in dia meter b. Size: at least c . White matter abnorm a l ities: d. T2-weig hted image: e. Periventricu l a r lesions best seen on f. Criterion for dissemi nation is a
enha nce 3mm 80% lesions a re high sig n a l proton density new enhancing lesion
g.
1 0.4.5
1 0 .4.6
1 0 .4.6
%
or a
Il
new T2 WI lesion
33. True or False. Focal tumefactive demyelination lesions {TDL) can be mistaken for neoplasms because a . they enha nce b. they show perilesional edema c. they can be solita ry d . they can b e in patients known t o have MS e. they can be distinguished from MS f. a biopsy may be necessary g . a biopsy resu lts m a y be confusing Regarding CSF analysis for MS. I t should include q testing. b. I n 90% of MS patients the CSF high.
34. a.
59
1 0 .4.6
true true true true fa lse true true 1 0 .4.6
q u a litative lgG
__
is
lgG
Neurosurgery Books
Part 2: General and Neurology
60 •
Acute Disseminated Encepha lomyelitis 35. True or False. Regarding acute disseminated encephalitis. a . Associated with recent history of vacci nation. b. May demonstrate oligoclona l bands in CSF. c. Is genera l ly monophasic. d. Has good response to high dose IV corticosteroids.
•
1 0.5
true true true true
Motor Neuron Diseases 36.
a. b. c. d. e. f.
Complete the following regarding amyotrophic lateral sclerosis: a ka m n disease a ka L G disease a m ixed and d isease m n, degeneration of a h cells and c t__ in the cervica l spine and med u l l a _ _ _ _
____
___
1 0.6.2
motor neuron Lou Gehrig u pper and lower motor neuron anterior horn corticospinal tracts
37. True or False. Regarding clinical characteristics of ALS. a. There is no cog nitive, sensory, or true a utonomic dysfu nction. b. Spa res vol u nta ry eye m u scles and u ri n ary true sphincter. c. Presents i n itia lly with weakness and true atrophy of hands, spasticity and hyperreflexia . 38.
The common condition that must be distinguished from ALS is
cervica l myelopathy
R inhibits presynaptic release of g , and increases tracheostomy-free survival at and months.
Riluzole; g l uta mate; 9 and 1 2 months
1 0.6.2
1 0.6.2
__ _
39.
__
1 0.6.2
Neurology for Neurosurgeons •
Guillain-Ba rre Synd rome 40.
Regarding Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS}. onset o f peripheral a . I nvolves a neu ropathy with b. p m u scle wea kness with a days to _ c. Reaches maxi m u m over weeks. involvement. d . Little or no __
___
___
__
1 0. 7 . 1
acute prog ressive; a rreflexia 3 days to 3 weeks sensory (but paresthesias a re not u ncom mon)
41 . What is albuminocytologic dissociation?
Elevated CSF protein without pleocytosis
42. What infectious organism is commonly involved?
Ca m pylobacter jej u n i
43.
a. b. c. d. e. 44.
a.
Featu res casting doubt on the diagnosis asym metry o f dysfu nction of more than 50 in CSF any i n CSF sharp level ___
___
Complete the following about Miller Fisher variant of GBS: Describe the triad i. a ii. a iii. o iv. Seru m bioma rker: a ntia ntibodies _ __
_ __
_ _ _
__
45. Complete the following about Cl OP: a . Sta nds for c d P· _ _ _
_ _ _ __
----
b.
Symptoms m u st be present for more than Cranial nerves are usually Bala nce difficu lties a re Electrodiagnostic and nerve biopsy findings a re indicative of d CSF findings a re similar to Most respond to and _ _ _
_ __
weakness bladder monocytes PMNs sensory 1 0.7.3
ataxia arreflexia ophthal moplegia anti-GQ 1 b 1 0.7.4
chronic i m m u n e demyelinati ng polyradicu loneu ropathy 2 months spared common demyelination
__ _ _
f. g.
_ _ _ _
1 0. 7 . 1
1 0. 7 . 1
___ ___
c. d. e.
1 0. 7 . 1
GBS pred nisone and plasmapharesis
61
Part 2: General and Neurology
62 •
Myelitis 46. True or False. Regarding Acute Transverse Myelitis a . T h e most common sensory level in acute true (68% thoracic sensory tra nsverse myelitis is thoracic. level in ATM } true (66% reach maximal b . ATM prog resses ra pid ly. deficit by 24 hours) c. CSF ca n be normal in the acute phase. true (38%, remainder can have elevated protein or pleocytosis or both ) d . A n emergency M RI is the first test of true (if not available a choice myelogram with CT to fol low) True or False. Regarding treatment of ATM. a. No treatment has been studied in a ra ndom ized controlled tri al. b . High do s e IV methylprednisolone for 3-5 days can be administered . c. Plasma exchange can be given for those who do not respond to steroids.
47.
48. True or False. Regarding prognosis of ATM. a. There is 1 5% morta l ity. b. 62% of survivors a re a m bulatory. c. Recovery occu rs between 1 month to 2 yea rs d . No i mp rovement occu rs after 3 months.
•
1 0.8.3
1 0.8.5
true true true 1 0.8.6
true true fa lse ( 1 to 3 months) true
Neurosarcoidosis Regarding sarcoidosis. Complete the following: a . T h e most common man ifestation i s
dia betes insipidus
b. Treat with
corticosteroids
CNS sarcoidosis involves the I -e a. M may occur as wel l as b. b m may c. T ventricle and h a lso be involved .
leptomeninges
49.
50.
---
---
--
1 0 .9. 1
meningo-encephalitis basal meningitis Third ; hypotha l a m u s
1 0 .9. 1
Neurology for Neurosurgeons 51 .
a.
Complete the following statements about neurosarcoidosis Microscopica l ly w e see featu res of n g, Clinical findings include n p i. c n ii. p iii. m iv. h Dia betes insipidus from involvement of the
1 0.9.2, 1 0.9.4
non-caseating g ra n u lomas
__ __ __ _
b.
_____
______
______
_ _ _
_ _ _
c.
cranial nerve palsies peri phera l neu ropathy myopathy hyd rocephalus hypothalamus
___ _
52.
a. b. c. d. e.
Regarding laboratory findings in neurosarcoidosis. Seru m test that is positive in 8 3 % of cases is CSF test that is helpfu l is H ow frequently is it positive? CSF suggests ACE sta nds for ___
____ _
__ __ __ _ _ __
53. List the test performed with the results in sarcoidosis. a. Chest X-ray a i. H ii. M I n b. M RI i. Enha ncement of I ii. Enhancement of o n iii. Best seen on seq uence c. G a l l i u m sca n (nuclear medicine). Usefu l i n neurosu rgery for: i. s ii. c o v __ _
__ _
___ _ _____
_____
___
______
_ _ _
63
1 0.9.5
ACE ACE 55% meningitis ang iotensin converti ng enzyme 1 0.9.6
hilar adenopathy mediastinal lym ph nodes leptomeninges optic nerve FLAIR sarcoidosis chronic vertebral osteomyelitis
11 Neurovascular Disorders and Neurotoxicology
•
Posterior Reversible Encephalopathy Synd rome ( PRES) 1. a.
PRES: PRES sta nds for
Cha racterized by v e on CT or M RI b with some predomina nce in and regions. c. Associated conditions include h ,e s ' , a nd a d t d . Treatment involves control of and of underlyi ng ca use. b.
posterior reversi ble encephalopathy synd rome vasogenic brain edema ; pa rieta l ; occipita l hypertension, ecla m psia, sepsis, a utoi m m u n e disease, transpla ntation
1 1 .1 .1
1 1 . 1 .2
____
•
blood pressu re
1 1 . 1 .3
Vasculitis and Vascu lopathy 2. Giant cell arteritis: a. Also known as b. I nvolves branches of the a rtery. c. Seen a l m ost exclusively in older than , with a fema le:male ratio of d . T h e most common presenting sym ptom is e. Most serious conseq uence is % a nd is not which occu rs in
f. The wa rning sym ptom that precedes perma nent visual loss is , which occu rs in %. g . Giant cel l a rteritis is associated with which is disease. h. ESR >
times as l i kely in this m m / h r is suspicious.
1 1 .3 . 2
temporal a rteritis external ca rotid ca ucasians; 50; 2:1 headache blind ness; 7%; reversi ble a m a u rosis fugax; 44% thoracic aortic aneurysms; 1 7 times 40
Neurosurgery Books
Neurovascular Disorders and Neurotoxicology i. j. k. I.
m. n. 3.
a. b. c. d. e.
ESR > m m f h r is highly suggestive. ESR may be normal in % with giant cel l a rteritis. Diagnosed via biopsy. Optimal length o f STA biopsy i s em. branch Spare and of STA d u ring biopsy. for M a n a g e with months. ____
Behcet's syndrome consists of the following: (Hint: Behcet's) B. ____
e h c e
____ __ __
, c.____
___ _
f. t g.
s
, t.
___ _
____
,s
_ _ _ _
4. Fibromuscular dysplasia: a . T h e most common vessel involved is the r a rtery, %. b. The second most common vessel involved is the c a rtery. c. The incidence of aneurysms with FM D is %. d . Presenti ng symptoms include: i. H % in ii. u iii. ca n be mistaken for t m iv. s in % v. d u e to involvement of the s c changes in vi . T % vii . d u e t o involvement o f the a c syn d rome in viii. H %. or i ix. T in u p to %. e. Gold sta ndard for diagnosis is where the most common fi nding is " " a ppeara n ce. f. The recommended treatment is
80 22.5% tem poral artery 4-6 cm main tru nk; pa rieta l steroids; 6-24 months 1 1 .3 . 6
Behcet eye lesions headache cerebel l a r signs, CSF pleocytosis erosions of mouth and genita ls thro m bophlebitis, throm bosis of d u ra l sinuses skin lesions, seizu res 1 1 .3 . 9
ren a l , 85% ca rotid 20-50% headache; 78% unilatera l ly typical migraine syncope; 3 1 % ca rotid sinus T-wave; 33% coronary a rteries Horner's; 8% TIA; infarction; 50% DSA; "stri ng of pearls" aspirin
65
Part 2: General and Neurology
66 5. a.
CADASI L: CADASI L sta nds for
1 1 .3 . 6 _ _ __
____ ____ ____ ____ ____
•
and
with
_ _ _ _
b.
inherita nce pattern ma pped to chromosome
c.
M RI findings similar to m u ltiple su bcortica l infa rcts from hypertension, except there is no evidence of
Cerebra l a utosom a l dominant a rteriopathy with su bcortical infa rcts and leukoencephalopathy Autosom a l domina nt; 19 hypertension
Neu rotoxicology 6. Ethanol toxicity:
1 1 .4 . 1
a . T h e pri mary effect o f ethanol on t h e CNS is depression of n i e c ' and n r b. Mellanby effect: the severity of intoxication is g reater when blood alcohol level is c. Blood alcohol level of 2 5 mg/dl ca uses
neuronal excita bil ity, i m pu lse con d uction, neu rotra nsm itter release
d.
Blood a lcohol level o f 1 00 mg/dl causes
cerebel l a r dysfu nction
e.
Blood a lcohol level of 500 mg/dl causes
respiratory depression
f.
Lega l intoxication in most j u risdictions is a blood a lcohol level of may g . A s alcohol levels fa l l , occur as a compensation for the effects of chronic alcohol use. h. Mainstay of treatment for a lcohol withd rawa l synd rome a re h i. They red u ce a and or and may prevent s j. k. I.
m. n. 0.
For a lcohol withd rawa l a lso use for days and for seizu res. Deliri u m tremens occu rs within days of a lcohol withd rawa l . Sym ptoms i n c l u d e a c , and a i Morta l ity i s % if u ntreated . Treatm ent incl udes Classic triad of Wernicke's encephalopathy is e , and a 0
rising mild intoxication
1 00 mg/dl hyperactivity; CNS depressant Benzod iazepines a utonomic hyperactivity; seizures; deliri u m tremens Thiamine; 3 days; Dilantin 4 days ag itation, confusion, a utonomic insta bil ity 5 - 1 0% benzod iazepines encephalopathy, ophtha l m oplegia, ataxia
Neurovascular Disorders a n d Neurotoxicology p. q. r. s.
deficiency. Due to Eye signs occur i n %. Gait distu rbance occu rs in Memory d istu rba nce is ca lled synd rome and occu rs in %. t. Atrophy of the may be seen on M RI . u . It is a med ica l emergency and s h o u l d b e treated with mg daily for days. v. Thia mine administration i mproves but not synd rome.
7. a.
thiamine 96% 87% l< orsa koff' s; 80% m a m m i l l a ry bodies thiamine, 1 00 m g ; 5 days eye signs; Korsa koff's
Opioid toxicity: Opioids include h and d rugs. pupils. b . Prod uce c . Reversa l of toxicity is achieved with
heroi n ; prescri ption small Na loxone
8. a.
norepinephrine
1 1 .4 . 2
Cocaine: Prevents reu pta ke of the neu rotra nsm itter pupils. b . Prod uces c . Ca n be associated with
l a rge stroke
9. Amphetamines: a . Toxicity is similar to b . Their use can resu lt in stroke due to
cocaine vascu litis
1 0. Carbon monoxide poisoning: a . The largest source of death from poisoning i n the U.S. is from
b. c. d. e. f. g.
It poisons by binding to thereby displacing " color of blood occurs in %. In severe cases, CT sca n may show a I i n the g p % die. % have persistent seq uelae. % ma ke fu l l recovery.
1 1 .4.3
1 1 .4.4
1 1 .4 . 5
carbon monoxide hemog lobin; oxygen Cherry-red ; 6% low atten uation; globus pallidus 40% 1 0-30% 3 0-40%
67
12 Plain Radiology and Contrast Agents
•
C-Spine X-rays 1 . A lateral C-spine x-ray has four contour lines: a. along a nterior su rface of vertebral bodies: a m l_ b. along the back su rface of the vertebral bodies: p m l_ c. along the posterior marg i n of the spinal ca n a l : s l l_ d . a l o n g t h e posterior m a rg i n o f the spinous process: p s I_ ___
___
__
__
___
1 2. 1 . 1
a nterior m a rginal line posterior marginal line spino-laminar line
___
___
posterior spinous line
___
2.
Complete the following about spine films: a . Cervica l spine norm a l ca n a l diameter is mm. b . Stenosis is present when the anteroposterior diameter is less than mm.
3.
a. b. c.
Complete the following about normal prevertebral soft tissue: a nterior C1 mm anterior C2 , 3 ,4 mm a nterior C5-C6 mm ___
1 2 . 1 .4
1 7 +/- 5 m m 1 2 mm
1 2 . 1 .4
10 7 22
4 . Interspinous distances: a. Are a bnormal if it is times the adjacent level on AP fil m . b . True or fa lse. I f present they represent: i. fractu re ii. dislocation iii. liga ment disruption on latera l x-ray. c. This is ca lled
true true true fa nning
5 . Cl has how many ossification centers?
3
1 2. 1 .5
6. C2 has how many ossification centers? 4
1 2. 1 .5
1 2 . 1 .4
1 .5
Plain Radiology and Contrast Agents •
Lum bosacral ( LS) Spine X-rays Complete the following regarding lumbosacral spine films. a. The disc space with the g reatest height is at b. AP view. Look for "owl eyes." i. These correspond to the ii. Ca n be eroded in disease. c. Oblique views. Look for the neck of the scotty dog. i. It corresponds to the ii. Disconti n u ity occu rs in a
7.
•
1 2.2
L4-5 pedicles metastatic pars intera rticu laris fractu re
Sku l l X-rays Matching. Match the following skull film findings with their characteristics: CD enlarged sel l a ; 0 ]-sha ped sel l a ; ® symmetrica l ba llooni n g ; @ erosion of posterior clinoids a. cra n iopharyngioma b. pitu ita ry adenoma c. optic glioma d . em pty sella
8.
9.
a. b. c. d. e.
True or False. On a skull x-ray, erosion of the posterior clinoids would most often be seen in the setting of cra n iopharyngioma em pty sella synd rome pitu ita ry adenoma H u rler synd rome optic g l ioma
1 0. True or False. The most common congenital anomaly of the craniocervical junction is: a . Chiari ma lformation b. basi l a r i mpression c. os odontoideum d. incomplete a rch Cl e. Cl -C2 subl uxation 1 1 . What are the types of basilar invagination? a . Type 1 :
b. Type I I : 1 2. a.
b.
Regarding basilar invagination: I n Type I % ca n be red u ced with traction. I n Type II, f m d is appropriate. __
__
1 2.3.1
@ CD 0 ® 1 2.3.1
true fa lse fa lse fa lse fa lse 1 2.3.1
fa lse true fa lse fa lse fa lse 1 2.3.2
Bl without Chiari ma lformation Bl with Chiari ma lformation 1 2.3.2
85% fora men m a g n u m de com pression
Neurosurgery Books
69
Part 3: Imaging and Diagnostics
70
1 3. True or False. In the evaluation of basilar invagination, in the normal patient, no part of the odontoid should be above the McRae line. 1 4. True or False. A line used in the evaluation of the craniocervical junction is a . McRae line b. Cha m berlain line c. Wackenheim line d . Maginot line e. Fischgold line 1 5. True or False. Basilar invagination is seen in a . hypoparathyroidism b. Paget's d isease c. osteogenesis i m perfecta d. osteoma lacia e. hyperpa rathyroidism
•
true
1 2.3.2
1 2.3.2
true true true fa lse true 1 2.3.2
fa lse true true true true
Contrast Agents in Neuroradiology 1 6.
Characteristics of iodinated contrast agents a . m a y delay excretion of b. which is an agent c. used in d . and can be associated with I a e. and r f f. It should be held for hours before and after administration of contrast agent. ____
1 2 .4. 1
metformin oral hypog lycemic dia betes type 2 lactic acidosis
___
_ _ __
1 7. The primary approved agent for , trade name intrathecal use is
Use Omnipaque cautiously in patients who have a. s h �_ b. c -v d c. c a d. m s _ medications at least e. and stop hours before procedure.
ren a l fa i l u re 48
iohexo l ; Omnipaque
1 8.
__
___
__
___
___
___
1 2 .4. 1
1 2 .4. 1
seizu re history cardio-vascular disease chronic alcoholism mu ltiple sclerosis neuroleptic; 48
Plain Radiology and Contrast Agents 1 9.
a.
b.
c.
20.
a.
Complete the following regarding iodinated contrast allergy prep: Prednisone i. Pretest ti ming in hours
ii. Dose in mg iii. Route Benadryl i. Pretest ti ming in hours ii. Dose in mg iii. Route Cimetidine i. Pretest ti ming in hours ii. Dose in mg iii. Route may increase the risk of contrast media reactions and m a y m a s k manifestations of a reaction.
1 2 .4. 1
20 to 24 hours, 8 to 1 2 hours, 2 hours 50 PO 1 50 IM 1 300 PO or IV Beta blockers anaphylactoid
21 .
Describe some idiosyncratic reactions to contrast media. a. Anaphylactoid reaction i. h ii. t b. Vasovagal reaction i. h ii. b c. Facia l or l a ryngeal ang ioedema i. Treat with
ii.
•
If respi ratory distress, i
1 2 .4.2
1 2 .4.2
hypertension tachyca rdia hypotension bradyca rd ia epinephrine (0.3 - 0 . 5 ml of 1 : 1 000 SQ} i ntu bate
Radiation Safety for Neurosurgeons 2 2 . Characterize radiation safety. a. Rem is the a bsorbed dose in rads mu ltipl ied by . b. Q "is the q u a l ity factor": the Q of x-ray is
1 2.5.2
Q
__
cases of cancer in 1 rem causes every 1 million people. d. Spine x-rays with obliq ues is rem . rem . e . Cerebral ang iogram i s f. Cerebral embolization is rem . c.
23.
a. b.
Complete the following regarding occupational radiation exposure: It is advised t o keep below rem per yea r, averaged over a yea r period. ___
___
300
1 2.5.3
5 1 0 to 20 34 1 2.5.4
2 5
71
Part 3: Imaging and Diagnostics
72 24. a.
b. c.
Provide the precautions advised. I ncrease the from the rad iation source. Expos u re is proportional to the of the dista nce. Stay at least feet, prefera bly feet away. Dou ble the dista nce and get of the radiation . What is better: l e a d "doors" or lead aprons? ___
d. e.
1 2.5.4
d ista nce inverse sq uare 6· 10 1 /4 doors
13 Imaging and Angiography
•
CAT Sca n (AKA CT Scan) For measurement o n a CT scan Give Hounsfield u n its for i. air ii. water iii. bone iv. blood clot v. ca lcium vi . disc material vii . theca l sac b. Effect of anemia on a n acute subdura l hematoma ( S D H ) i n a patient with less than 23% HCT wi l l look 1. a.
1 3. 1 . 1
1 000 0 + 1 000 7 5-80 1 00-300 55-70 20-30 isodense
___
2.
a.
Indications for Non-contrast vs. IV contrast enhanced CT scan (CECT): Noncontrast: i . Excels in demonstrati ng a b ,f ,f b , p and h _ _ _
__
__
__
__
ii.
Weak in demonstrating a s and has poor signal quality in the p f . CECT: Excels in demonstrati ng n and v m _ __
_
b.
__
__
__
_
__
_ __
3. Abnormalities that can be demonstrated by CT perfusion (CTP): s s a. f i. decreased c _ & c_ ii. increased M and T_ __
__
__
b. s_: after A_ c
__
i. ii.
,
decreased c _ & c_ increased c c M __
__
t
__
&
1 3. 1 .2
acute blood, fractu res, foreign bod ies, pneumocephalus and hyd rocephalus acute stroke; posterior fossa neoplasms and vascu l a r ma lformations 1 3 . 1 .4
flow significa nt stenosis decreased CBV & CBF increased MTI (mean transit time) and TIP (time to peak) stea l : after ACZ (acetazolamide) challenge decreased CBV & CBF increased correspond ing contra latera l territory and MTI
Part 3: Imaging and Diagnostics
74 •
Magnetic Resonance I maging ( M RI ) Matching. Match the best completion for each of the following: CD short TE, short TR; 0 short TE, long TR; ® long TE, short TR; @ long TE, long TR a. T1 -weig hted MRI has , b. T2-weig hted image has ,
4.
__
__
__
___
Complete the following about magnetic resonance imaging (M RI): a. List the fou r materials that appear white on T1 -weig hted imaging (T1 WI) M R I . b. What color is pathology on T1 WI? c. What color is pathology on T2WI?
1 3.2.1
CD @
5.
1 3.2.2
fat, melanin, and su bacute blood (3- 1 4 days), Onyx low signal on T1 (dark) high sig nal on T2 (white)
6. Matching. Match the phrases with the appropriate signal. CD high signal (bright); (?) low signal (dark); ® intermed iate sig nal a . Fat on T1 i s b. Fat on T2 is c. 7- to 1 4-day-old blood on T2-weig hted M RI is d. 7- to 1 4-day-old blood on T1 -weig hted M RI is
7. Complete the following about M RI: a. The best seq uence for CVA is which sta nds for
b. c. d.
Cerebrospinal fl uid (CSF) is Most lesions appear seq uence. Most lesions a re more
i n this
1 3.2.2, 1 3.2.3
CD 0 CD CD On T1 both fat and 7 -to 1 4day-old blood a re high sig nal (white). On T2 fat d rops out (i.e., is dark); blood remains wh ite. 1 3.2.5
FLAIR; fl uid-atten u ated inversion recovery black bright conspicuous
8. The best M RI sequence for a . acute SAH i s b. old blood is
FLAI R g radient echo
9. Gradient echo: a. a ka b. aka c. CSF and flowi ng blood appear d . I n cervical spine prod uces a effect. e. I m p roves deli neation of
f. Also shows small old g. It is the most sensitive M RI seq uence for b
1 3.2.5 1 3.2.7 1 3.2.7
T2 sta r g rass white myelographic bone spurs hemorrhage intraparenchyma l blood
--
Neurosurgery Books
Imaging and Angiography 1 0. Complete the following about M RI: a. An M RI sequence that s u m mates Tl and T2 signals and causes fat to be suppressed is ca l l ed the seq uence. b. STI R sta nds for
c. 11. a.
Use it to see tissues that a reas of fat.
in
Name two contraindications to M RI. or Patients who contain
b. A relative contra indication to M RI is 1 2.
a. b. 1 3.
a. b. c. 1 4.
Complete the following regarding programmable valves and M RI: Ca n such patients have M RI studies? You may need to check the after the M R I .
a. b. c.
1 3.2.8
STI R
short tau inversion recovery (sum mates Tl and T2 images) enhance 1 3.2.9
ferro meta ls or cobalt (i.e., ca rdiac pacemaker, impla nted neurosti m u lators, coch lear im plants, ferromagnetic aneurysm clips, foreign bodies with a large component of iron or cobalt, meta l l i c fragments in the eye, placement of stent, coi l , or fi lter withi n past 6 weeks) claustrophobia 1 3.2.9
yes pressu re setti ng
Hemorrhage on M RI. Related to time.
1 3.2. 1 0
Tl .
H i nt: George Washington Bridge acute g su bacute w chronic b
g ray white black
Hemorrhage on MRI. Related to time.
1 3.2. 1 0
T2.
H i nt: layers of Oreo cookie a . acute b b. su bacute w c. chronic b 1 5.
75
Hemorrhage on MRI. Related to time. H i nt: i - baby, i - d i , bi - d i , ba - by, da - da hyper-acute i. Tl : i ii. T2 : b acute i. Tl : i ii. T2 : d su bacute ea rly i. Tl : b ii. T2 : d
black white black 1 3.2. 1 0
isodense bright isodense dark brig ht dark
1!1
Part 3: Imaging and Diagnostics
76 d.
su bacute late i. T1 : b ii. T2 : b chronic i. T1 : d ii. T2 : d
d a rk dark
1 6. a. b. c. d. e.
Age of hemorrhage hyper acute: acute: su bacute ea rly: su bacute late: chronic:
<24 hours 1 to 3 days 3 to 7 days 7 to 1 4 days > 1 4 days
1 7.
If M RI contrast is given to patients with severe renal failure, a rare condition called n s f may occur.
1 8.
Complete the following regarding diffusion weighted images (DWI): Its primary use is to detect i. MS p ii. and a It fi rst generates on map. On DWI , freely diffusible water is
e.
a. b. c.
d . Restricted diffusion i s e. Which is a bnormal?
brig ht bright
1 3.2. 1 0
nephrogenic systemic fibrosis
1 3.2. 1 3
ischemia active; plaq ues ADC dark bright restricted diffusion
Characterize DWI. Restricted perfusion usually ind icates
cel l death
b.
DWI abnorma l ly will be present for
1 month
c.
DWI abnorm a l ities can light u p withi n of ischemia.
m i n utes
1 9. a.
20. The most sensitive study for ischemia of the brain i s the DWI and PWI mismatch identifies penumbra. H i nt: DWI death PWI pen u m bra a . Which modal ity shows i rreversible cel l inj u ry (death)? b. Which modality shows reversi ble cel l inj u ry (penum bra)?
1 3.2. 1 3
PWI {Perfusion Weig hted Imaging)
21 .
22. The important peaks in MRS are: H i nt: li-la-N a-crea-chol a. li b. Ia c. N a d . crea e. chol
1 3.2.1 1
1 3.2. 1 3
1 3.2. 1 3
DWI PWI 1 3.2. 1 4
lipid lactate N acetyl aspartate creati ne choline
Imaging and Angiography 23. The significance of important peaks in M RS are a . hypoxia b. a cou plet pea k c. nerve and axons d . a reference for choline e. mem brane synthesis f. increased in tumor g. increased in developing bra i n h . red uced in CVA 24. The test that may help distinguish hemangiopericytoma a . from meningioma is the b. specifica lly the presence of a large peak. 25. The test that may help a surgeon avoid critical white matter a . tracts d u ring bra i n su rgery i s b . which sta nds for d t
•
1 3.2. 1 4
lactate lactate NAA creatinine choline choline choline choline 1 3.2. 1 4
M RS inositol 1 3.2. 1 5
DTI diffusor tensor imaging
Myelogra phy 26. True or False. The risk of postlumbar puncture headache is higher with a . water-sol uble contrast. b. non-water-soluble contrast.
1 3 .4
fa lse true
27.
Matching. Match each of the following two statements with answers G), @, @, or @. G) 1 0%; @ 3 5%; ® 65%; @ 90% a . I n l u m ba r d i s c d isease, what percentage 0 of free fragments move inferiorly? b. I n l u m ba r disc d isease, what percentage ® of free fragments move superiorly?
•
1 3 .4
Radionuclide Scanning 28. Applications for bone scans include: a. b. t__ c. d __ involvi ng a __ b__ m d . c. _ e. s__ or s__ f__ f. " I __ b__ p__ " __ _
29. Applications for Gallium scan are a . s__ b. c__ v__ o__
1 3.5.1
infection tumor diseases involvi ng abnormal bone meta bolism era n iosynostosis spine or sku l l fractu res " l ow back problems" 1 3.5.2
sarcoidosis chronic vertebral osteomyel itis
77
14 Electrod iag nosties
•
Electroencepha log ram ( EEG) 1 . True or False. Periodic epileptiform discharges (PLEDs) may b e produced by a . herpes simplex encephalitis b. bra i n a bscess c. e m bolic infa rct d . bra i n tumor e. any acute foca l cerebral insult
•
1 4. 1 . 1
true true true true true
2.
Matching. Match the following EEG patterns a n d their probable diagnostic pathology: (j) Creutzfeldt-jakob disease; 0 hepatic encephalopathy, post anoxia and hyponatremia; ® SS PE-su bacute sclerosing panencephalitis a . tri phasic waves 0 b. body jerks plus high-voltage period icity ® with 4-1 5 second sepa ration ; no change with pain c. myoclonic jerks, bilatera l sharp waves (j) 1 . 5-2/sec, react to painfu l sti m u lation
1 4. 1 . 1
3. What is the frequency of the following EEG rhythms? a . Delta b. Theta c. Alpha d . Beta
Ta ble 1 4. 1
0-3 Hz 4-7 Hz 8-1 3 Hz > 1 3 Hz
Evoked Potentials 4.
a.
Complete the following statements about evoked potentials: Evoked potentia ls offer lim ited usefu l ness in avoiding intraoperative i nj u ry beca use they a re __
1 4. 2 . 3
acute; delayed
Electrodiagnostics b.
Criteria for sign ificance: i. I ncreased latency of %. ii. Decreased a m plitude of %. __
__
5.
Intraoperative SSEP may localize the primary sensory cortex by potential across the central sulcus.
1 0% 50% phase reversa l
1 4. 2 . 3
___
6. When testing brainstem auditory a.
__
b.
_
7.
a. b. 8.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g.
___
_
Evoked potentials during spine surgery: M a y remain u nchanged b y inj u ry t o the cord but a re sensitive to inj u ry to the col u m n s of the cord .
___
True or false. Regarding transcranial (i.e., motor evoked) potentials: Too painfu l to do on the awake patient. Feedback is prom pt, a l m ost im mediate. Ca n't record conti n u ously beca use of m u scle contractions. Usefu l for cervical spine surgery. Usefu l for thoracic spine s u rgery. Usefu l for l u m ba r spine surgery. Have more special a nesthetic req u i rements.
9. Provide the SSEP deterioration plan. a. R b. R c. R d. s e. s f. s g. T h. A i. H j. E __ __
--
--
---
__
--
--
•
Ta ble 1 4. 5
evoked responses (BAER): Prolongation in peak 1-1 1 1 suggests lesion pons and inferior col licu l u s between p and i c Prolongation in peak 1 1 1-V suggests lesion lower p o n s and mid brain between I p and m 1 4. 2 . 3
a nterior posterior, dorsa l 1 4. 2 . 3
true true true true true fa lse true 1 4. 2 . 4
remove ha rdwa re reposition patient release retraction sixty Hz steroids stop surgery tem peratu re anemia hypotension electrode contact
NCS/ EMG 1 0.
Name the parts of the EMG examination. a. l a b. s a c. v a ___
__
___
___
__
_ _ _
1 4. 3 . 2
insertional activity sponta neous activity volitional activity
Neurosurgery Books
79
Part 3: Imaging and Diagnostics
80
How long following denervation of muscle after nerve injury do you want to see fibrillation potentials on electromyography { EMG)? a. The earliest is __ , but b. relia bly not u nti l c. Therefore, don't order EMG u ntil at least ___weeks after the inj u ry.
11.
_ _ _ _
1 2. a. b. c.
SNAP: a ka ___ action potenti al. Ganglion lies with in the Hern iated disc is preganglion; therefore, S NAP is
_ _ _ _ _ _ _
1 4. 3 . 2
1 0 days 3 to 4 weeks 4 weeks 1 4. 3 . 2
sensory nerve neura l foramen not affected
__ __
1 3. a.
b. 1 4. a.
b.
F wave: May b e___ in m u ltilevel radiculopathy. Most hel pfu l in eva l uating slowing.
___
1 4. 3 . 2
prolonged root
H reflex: Is practica l only rega rding t h e __ root. Has similar information to the
proxi m a l 1 4. 3 . 2
51 Ankle jerk
1 5. True or False. Regarding EMG: true a . Is low yield for radiculopathy. b. Best reserved for patients with wea kness. true true c. Pa in without wea kness, EMG has low yield.
1 4. 3 . 2
1 6. True or False. Radiculopathy EMG is: a. Reliable if negative
1 4. 3 . 2
b. 1 7.
Reliable if positive The earliest possible finding in EMG for radiculopathy is
red uced recruitment (2-3 days)
Findings with healing radiculopathy: potentia l s retu rn fi rst. If lost, retu rn last or may not retu rn.
Motor Sensory
_ _ _
1 8. a. b.
fa lse - EMG is not sensitive for radiculopathy true - when positive very specific.
___
___
1 4. 3 . 2
1 4. 3 . 2
15 Primary Intracranial Anomalies
•
Arachnoid Cysts, Intracranial 1.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g.
Characterize intracranial arachnoid cysts. Orig i n : c Arise from splitti ng o f a m Conta in fl uid identica l to Incidence p e r 1 000 a utopsies: More common in male or fema le? Most a re a I f sym ptomatic, typical sym ptoms a re: h i. i ii. s ---
2. True or False. Acute deterioration in patients with known arachnoid cysts usually signifies a . ra pid i ncrease in cyst size. b. posticta l state. c. ru ptu re into subd u ra l space. d. ru ptu re of bridging veins and cyst bleed . 3.
a. b. c. d.
Complete the following about arachnoid cysts: T h e location o f t h e only extra d u ra l type of a rachnoid cyst is in the __ cyst. A retrocerebellar a rachoid cyst might m1m1c a -___ synd rome. The most common location for an a rachnoid cyst is t h e __ ___ . T h e next most common location is the -- ---
e. They a re associated with ventricu lomegaly in __%. f. The best treatment is probably c___ s
1 5. 1 . 1
congenita l a rachnoid membrane CSF 5 male asym ptomatic intracranial hypertension seizures 1 5 . 1 .4
fa lse fa lse fa lse true
intrasellar
1 5. 1 .3
Dandy-Wa l ker Sylvian fissu re
Ta ble 1 5 . 1
cerebel lopontine angle 64%
1 5. 1 .5
cyst s h u nting
1 5. 1 .6
Part 4: Developmental Anomalies
82 •
Craniofacia l Development Complete the following about craniofacial development: a . T h e anterior fonta nelle closes b y age
2 . 5 years
b.
1 yea r
4.
1 5.2.1
Head size is 90% of a d u lt size at age
c. The head stops enlarging by age a t birth . d . T h e sku l l i s e. Diploe a ppears by the __ yea r and f. Reaches a maxi m u m at age . g . Diploic veins form a t age h. Air cel l s in the mastoid occur in year.
___
.
___
5. True or False. Craniosynostosis a. has been proven to occur after s h u nti ng. b. of one sutu re does not cause increased ICP.
7 yea rs u n ilaminar 4th 35 35 6th 1 5.2.2
fa lse fa lse ( 1 1 % have high ICP)
6. Complete the following about
1 5.2.2
craniofacial development: a . T h e most common cra n iosynostosis i s
b. The male to female ratio is c. The resu lti ng sku l l shape is Su rgery should be done within the age ra nge of e. The stri p cra n iectomy should be em wide.
d.
___
7.
a. b. 8.
a. b. c. d.
Complete the following regarding coronal synostosis Incidence o f patients with cra n iosynostosis who have coronal synostosis is __%. I n which is it more com mon, males or fema les? Complete the following regarding coronal suture synostosis {CSS ) : P l u s syndactyly is ca l l ed synd rome. Unilatera l CSS is ca l led CSS plus hypoplasia of the face is ca l led d isease. Plag iocephaly i. Forehead on affected side is or ii. Supraorbita l ridge has a marg i n . ___
___
9.
Regarding harlequin eye sign
sag itta l 80:20 dol ichocepha lic/ sca phocephalic/ boat shape 3 to 6 months 3 cm 1 5.2.2
1 8% females 1 5.2.2
Apert's synd rome plag iocephaly Crouzon 's disease flattened ; concave higher 1 5.2.2
Primary Intracranial Anomalies a.
Occu rs in u c___ sutu re closure b. seen on c. The abnormal bony structu re is the ___ ___
d . which is
than the normal side.
Complete the following about craniofacial development: a . What suture is closed t o prod uce trigonoceha ly? b. It is usually associated with an abnormality of the chromosome.
u n i latera l coronal anteroposterior sku l l X-ray supraorbita l marg i n higher
1 0.
1 5.2.2
metopic 19 p
_ __
1 1 . Characterize lambdoid synostosis. a . M a l e t o female ratio is b. Side involved most frequently is ___ . c. The frequency of involvement is ___ % rig ht. d . Does i t have a ridge or a n indentation to pal pation? 1 2. a.
Considering lambdoid synostosis: Differentiate from positional flattening by looking at the ears from the
b.
I n l a m bdoid synostosis you wi l l see the ipsilatera l ear In position a l flattening you wi l l see the ipsilatera l ear is __ ___ .
1 5.2.2
4:1 right side 70% indentation (Not a ridge like the sag itta l or coronal synostosis) 1 5.2.2
top of the head lags behind
__ ___
c.
1 3. Answer the following concerning lambdoid synostosis treatment: a . True or Fa lse. A l l req u i re surgery.
b.
True or Fa lse. Surgery is ind icated ea rly (i.e., 3 to 6 months).
c.
Ideal age for su rgery is to months. Early su rgery is ind icated for s d and e
d.
___
__
_ _ _
___
__ _
pushed forwa rd (If flat side of occipita l bone is same side as the posteriorly positioned ear it is a case of lam boid synostosis; if not it is a case of position a l flattening) 1 5.2.2
Fa lse ( 1 5% won't respond to repositioning.) Fa lse (one ca n observe for 3 to 6 months for im provement) 6 to 1 8 severe disfi g u rement and elevated intracranial pressure
P· ---
1 4.
a.
Complete the following about encephalocele: I ncidence o f basa l form o f encephalocele is %. May exit the sku l l via a defect in ___
b.
1 5.2.3
1 . 5%
83
Part 4: Developmental Anomalies
84
i. c ii. f iii. s
•
___
p c
_ _ _ _ ___
f
__ _
0
cribriform plate fora men cecum su perior orbita l fissu re
Da ndy Wa lker Malformation 1 5. To differentiate DWM from retrocerebellar arachnoid cyst observe for a. v a verm ian agenesis fou rth ventricle v b. cyst opens i nto f c. enlarged p f posterior fossa torcu l a r herophili d . elevation o f t h e t h
1 5.3.2
1 6. What is Dandy-Walker pathogenesis? a. D b. A c. N ( m ) d. D e. Y
1 5.3.3
_ _ _ _
___
_ _ _
___
___
_ _ _ _
1 7. Complete the following regarding Dandy-Walker malformation (DWM): of the f a. It is cau sed by a of M and L ___
___
b.
___
_ _ _
di lation of 4th ventricle agenesis of vermis mem brane of 4th ventricle dysembryo genesis hyd rocephalus
atresia of the fora m i n a ; M a g e n d i e and Lusch ka (old theory)
Resu lts i n verm is i. agenesis of ii. large which posterior fossa cyst comm u nicates with the fou rth ventricle; , which becomes iii. enlarged
1 5.3.5
1 5.3.3
___ ___
1 8. What is Dandy-Walker pathogenesis? a . Hyd rocephalus is present in % b. and __% of hyd rocephalus patients have DWS. c. A common associated abnormality is c i. a of the c
70 to 90% 2 to 4%
1 5.3.5
agenesis of the corpus ca llosum %. 1 7% ii. in ca rdiac abnormalities a and c If treatment is necessa ry, you m ust s h u nt cyst the ventricle, the cyst, or both? If aqueducta l stenosis you should s h u nt ventricle a lso. But shu nti ng the latera l ventricle alone i . is contraindicated ii. beca use it might cause u pwa rd herniation ___
1 5.3.3
___
___
d. e. f.
___
_ _ _ _
1 5.3.6
___
g.
___
___
h . To avoid herniation, a lone. i. you m u st not s h u nt the ___
1 9.
u pwa rd ventricle
What is the prognosis of DWM?
Neurosurgery Books
1 5.3.7
Primary Intracranial Anomalies a. b. c. •
Seizu res occur in Morta lity occu rs in Norma i iQ is
%. ___
%.
to
___
%
1 5% 1 2 to 50% 50%
Aqueductal Stenosis 20. True or False. Aqueductal stenosis is seen only in children. 21 . What are the causes of aqueductal stenosis? a. A b. Q c. E(i) d. c e. T f. A g. L 22. Complete the following concerning aqueductal stenosis: a . It is associated with congenita l hyd rocephalus in %. b. M RI may show a bsence of f in the v i. n ii. a of S c. M RI with contrast should be used to rule out d . Fol l ow- u p s h o u l d be for a t least e. I n order to ru le out
Fa lse (Ad u lts can present with sym ptoms as wel l . )
1 5 .4. 1
1 5 .4.2
astrocytoma o f brain stem quadrigeminal plate mass inflam mation infection congenital atresia tumor a rachnoid cyst l i poma 1 5 .4.3
70%
1 5 .4.4
___
___
___
_ __
23. True or False. A patient with aqueductal stenosis of adulthood may have the following symptoms: a . Headache b. Visu a l disturbances c. Decl ine of menta l fu nction d . Gait distu rbance e. Pa pilledema (sig n) f. Ataxia g . Urinary incontinence 24. What are the treatment options for aqueductal stenosis? a. Ventriculoperitoneal b. T c. ETV = _ __ _ _ _ _
___ ____ ___ _ __ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ __
•
normal flow void aqueduct of Sylvius tu mor 2 yea rs tumor 1 5 .4.4
true true true true true true true 1 5 .4.4
CSF shu nti ng Torki ldsen s h u nt in adu lts endoscopic third ventriculostomy
Agenesis of the Corpus Cal losum 2 5 . Agenesis o f the corpus callosum forms after conception and at age forms from to __ _
2 weeks; rostru m to splenium
1 5.5.1
85
Part 4: Developmental Anomalies
86
26. Complete the following concerning the bundles of Probst: a . They a re aborted beginnings o f the
b.
bulging into the
1 5.5.3
corpus ca llosum latera l ventricles
27. Complete the following regarding agenesis of the corpus callosum: a. Does it a lways have clinica l significance?
b.
•
1 5.5.4
No, it may be an incidenta l finding Underlyi ng cause may be a n abnormality chromosome of a
Absence of the Septum Pel l ucidum 28. One possible cause of absence of septum pellucidum is a. s -o d b. a ka of o c. which prod uces h n d . and o c as wel l as e. p __
_ _ _
_ _ _ _ _ _ __
__ _
1 5.6
septa-optic dysplasia de Morsier synd rome hypoplasia of optic nerve
_ _ _
___
____
•
___
-----
optic chiasm pitu ita ry infundibu l u m
I ntracranial Lipomas 29. lntracranial lipomas a. a re usually found in the
1 5.7.2 __ _
midsag itta l plane
b. especia lly in the c. They a re freq uently associated with
corpus ca llosum agenesis
d. of the e. They may less freq uently involve the i. t c ii. and the
corpus ca l losum
___ ___ _
___
___
30. True or False. Characteristics of intracranial lipomas include a bnormalities a . association with b. on CT they have a density. c. Differential diag nosis is c. i. d ii. t iii. g-,-----,-intensity on d . On M RI they have a Tl . intensity on e. On M RI they have a T2 .
tuber cinereum q u a d rigeminal plate 1 5.7.3
congenital low
___
dermoid cyst teratoma germinoma high
___
low
___ _
___ _
Primary Intracranial Anomalies 31 .
a. b. c. d.
•
Intracranial lipomas may present clinically with s h d. h m _ _ _
_ _ _
_ _ _
_ _ _
_ _ _
1 5.7.4
seizu res hypothalamic dysfu nction hyd rocephalus menta l reta rdation
Hypothalamic Hamartomas 32. Hypothalamic hamartomas a . a re freq uent or ra re? b. a re neoplastic or nonneoplastic? c. consist of a mass of d . that a rises from the h or i. in ii. t c 33. a.
b. c. d. e.
Hypothalamic hamartomas clinically may present with a special type of seizu re ca l led , which means seizure. may also have attacks. may also present with p p d u e t o release o f g h formed within the cells.
1 5.8.1
rare nonneoplastic neuronal tissues inferior hypothalamus tuber cinereum 1 5.8.2
gelastic; laughing rage precocious puberty gonadotropin releasing hormone hamartoma
87
16 Primary Spinal Anomalies
•
Spinal Dysraphism (Spina Bifida) 1 . Study sheet. Spinal bifida occulta a. B b. I c. F d. I e. D f. A g. 0 h. c i. c j. u k. L I. T m. A
1 6.2.2
bifid a incidental foot deformity in nocuous diastematomyelia atrophy of leg occu rs in 20 to 30% cutaneous stig mata clinical im porta nce nil u rin a ry incontinence lipoma leg wea kness tethered cord a bsent spinous process
2.
Complete the following regarding myelomeningocele (MM): a . T h e anterior neuropore closes a t gestational age d a y . b. The posterior neuropore closes at gestational age day .
1 6.2.3
25
__
28
__
3.
a.
Complete the following regarding myelomeningocele (MM): Incidence i f no previous c h i l d has M M eq uals % or p e r 1 000. One previous M M child: % or per l OOO. Two previous MM children: __% or __ per l OOO. Associated hyd rocephalus: incidence of %. Associated Chiari I I occurs in children with M M . __
b.
1 6.2.3
0 . 2 % or 2 %
__
__
2%, 20
__
c. d. e.
6%, 60 80% most
Primary Spinal Anomalies 4. Answer the following about myelomeningocele: a . What is t h e incidence o f meningocele o r myelomeningocele? b. Does the risk increase i n fa mi lies with one affected child?
c. Does the risk increase i n fa mi lies with two affected children?
89
1 6.2.3
1 t o 2 / 1 000 l ive births (0.2%) Yes (The risk does increases to 2 to 3% i n fa mil ies with one previous myelomeningocele child.) Yes (It fu rther increases to 6 to 8% in fa mil ies with two previous affected children.)
5. True or False. All children born with myelomeningocele have an associated Chiari I I malformation.
fa lse (Not a l l , but most, have Chiari I I . )
6. True or False. Closure of
true
1 6.2.3
latex
1 6.2.3
1 6.2.3
myelomeningocele may result in the need for CSF shunting. 7.
Meningomyelocele patients develop allergy to
8. True or False or Uncertain. Intrauterine closure of mm defect reduces a . Chiari I I defect b. hyd rocephalus c. neurological dysfu nction 9.
a. b. c.
Complete the following concerning myelomeningocele: (n I f ru ptu red , sta rt and g ). Perform surgery within to hours. Better fu nctional outcome occu rs if of children have sponta neous
d . D o m u ltiple anoma lies occur in myelomeningocele? Complete the following about myelomeningocele and early closure: a . True or Fa lse. Resu lts in i mprovement of neurolog ica l fu nctions. b. True or Fa lse. Resu lts in lower infection rate. c. Myelomeni ngocele should be closed with in 1 2 , 24, or 36 hou rs?
1 6.2.3
true u n certain fa lse 1 6.2.3
a ntibiotics (nafci l l i n and genta m icin) 24 to 36 hours movement of lower extremities Yes (average 2 to 2.5 additional anomalies in myelomeningocele)
1 0.
1 6.2.3
fa lse true 24 hours
Il Neurosurgery Books
Part 4: Developmental Anomalies
90 11.
a.
Considering late problems in myelomeningocele repair. Possible late problems include: bra i n :
b. cervicomed u l l a ry j u n ction: c. cord : d . ca uda: 1 2.
a.
Characterize myelomeningocele outcome without treatment and with treatment. S u rvive infa n cy without treatment _ _%; with treatment %. Normai iQ without treatment %; % with treatment Ambulatory without treatment %; with treatment % Conti nence without treatment with treatment %.
1 6.2.3
hyd rocephalus malfu n ctioning s h u nt Chiari I I com pressing med u l l a Syri nx tethered cord 1 6.2.3
1 5 to 30%; 85%
__
b. c. d. 1 3.
__
__
__
__
__
__
___ ,
a. b. c. d. e.
For each of the following, what are the facts to know concerning lipomeningocele? age for su rgery band conus d u ra epid u ra l fat versus
f. g. h.
placode neuro exa m sensory loss
i. j.
stigm ata u rologic exa m
_ _ _
1 4. True or False. Lipomyelomeningocele is associated with tethered cord. 1 5. a.
Study Chart. Lipomeningocele: Steps in surgical ma nagement (Co u rtesy of Dr. David Frim):
70%; 80% 50%; 40 to 85% ra re; 3 to 1 0% 1 6.2.4
2 months is appropriate thick fi brovascu lar band is split is deh iscent lipoma (is disti nct from epid u ra l fat) attached to neura l placode is normal in 50% most com mon neurological a bnormality cutaneous should be done pre-op true
1 6.2.4
1 6.2.4
1 . Untether the cord using Xomed CUSA and recording from a n a l sphincter 2. Free u p sides from attachment to d u ra . 3 . Red u ce t h e b ul k o f fat using CUSA in the midline. 4. Tie d u ra open to sides. 5 . Place bovine perica rd ia! g raft as d u ra l substitute.
Primary Spinal Anomalies 1 6. True or False. The most common location of a dermal sinus tract is the: a . occi pita l reg ion b. cervica l region c. thoracic reg ion d. l u m bosacra l reg ion 1 7. What is the most likely cause of dermal sinus? a . Fai l u re o f the ectoderm b. to -ectoderm c. from the d . a t t h e time of e. of the 1 8. a.
b.
Dermal sinus facts to know include: Most com monly located in the a rea. of of Resu lts from
c. from d . Appea rs as a i. Hair? ii. Midli ne? iii. Skin stigmata? e. Fi rst m a nifestation is f. Tract a lways cou rses l u m bosacra l a rea.
from
1 9. True or False. An epidermoid cyst contains hair follicles and sweat glands. 20. What is the major difference between epidermoid cyst and dermoid cyst? a . Epidermoid cyst i s s i. lined with s e ii. and contains only b. Dermoid cyst is i. lined with such ii. and contains as iii. hair fol licles? iv. sebaceous g l a nds? ---
21 . True or False. A dermal sinus tract is a potential pathway for intradural infection such as meningitis or abscess. 22. Radiologic evaluation of dermal sinus. a . I f seen a t births do b. If first seen later do _ _ _ _
1 6.2.5
fa lse fa lse fa lse true 1 6.2.5
cuta neous sepa rate neuro closure neura l g roove 1 6.2.5
l u m bosacra l fa i l u re of separation of cutea nous ectoderm neura l ectoderm d i m ple With or without Close to midline yes bladder dysfu nction cephalad fa lse
1 6.2.5
1 6.2.5
stratified squamous epithelium kerati n dermis skin appendages yes yes true
1 6.2.5
1 6.2.5
u ltrasound MRI
91
Part 4: Developmental Anomalies
92
23. Given the above, indicate whether the dermal sinus tract should be excised at the given locations. a. l u m ba r yes b. sacra l yes no c. coccygeal
1 6.2.5
24.
1 6.2.5
Complete the following concerning the cranial dermal sinus: a . T h e track extends b. If the dermal sinus tract enters the sku l l t o t h e torcu la. i t does s o _ __
•
ca u d a l ly ca udal
Klippei-Feil Synd rome 25. True or False. Klippei-Feil syndrome results from failure of a. pri m a ry neuru lation b. secondary neu ru lation c. dysj u n ction d. seg mentation 26. Klippei-Feil syndrome of a . Resu lts from fa i l u re of at gestational age of weeks. to b. c. Clinical triad i. Hairline is ii. N eck is iii. Motion is d . Lim itation o f ra nge o f motion o f the neck occu rs only if more than seg ments a re fused. e. True or fa lse. Other congen ita l abnormalities may a lso be present. f. True or fa lse. Klippei-Feil causes sym ptoms related to fused vertebrae. ___
_ __
_ _ _ _
1 6. 3 . 1
fa lse fa lse fa lse true 1 6. 3 . 1
seg mentation of cervical so m ites 3 to 8 weeks 1 6.3.2
low short l i m ited 3
_ __
27. True or False. Anomalies seen associated with Klippei-Feil include a. Sprengel deformity b. webbing of the neck c. basilar i m pression d . unilatera l a bsence o f t h e kidney 28.
a.
Possible systemic congenital abnormalities include g
b.
c.____
_ _ _ _
true fa lse 1 6.3.2
true true true true 1 6.3.2
genitourinary - a bsence of one kid ney ca rdiopulmonary
Primary Spinal Anomalies •
93
Tethered Cord Syndrome 29.
a. b. c. d. e. f.
List the six presenting signs and symptoms of tethered cord syndrome. c cutaneous {54%) s scoliosis {29%) b bladder {40%) s sensations {70%) g gait {93%) p pain {37%)
Ta ble 1 6. 2
30. True or False. Regarding tethered cord syndrome. a . Prog ressive scoliosis is not seen in fa lse conj u n ction with tethered cord synd rome. b. Early u ntethering may res u lt in true i mp rovement in scol iosis.
1 6 .4.4
31 . True or False. The following is associated with adult tethered cord syndrome: a . Foot deform ities b. Pain c. Leg wea kness d . U rological symptoms
1 6 .4.5
fa lse true true true
32. True or False. Urological symptoms are not common in the adult tethered cord syndrome.
fa lse
1 6 .4.5
33. True or False. A tethered conus lies distal to L2 on radiographic evaluation.
true
1 6 .4.5
Complete the following concerning tethered cord syndrome: a . N a m e two criteria. i. Conus below level ii. Thick fil u m g reater than b. A preop test that is strongly recomm ended is a
34.
35.
a. b.
Indicate the characteristics used to identify the filum. The vessel on the su rface is The color of the fi l u m is than nerve roots
--- ---
Complete the following outcome from tethered cord: a . I n meningomyelocele i t is usually to permanently b. Repeated u ntethering is advised til l patient stops
1 6 .4.5
L2 2 m m diameter cystometrogram
1 6 .4.6
1 6 .4.6
squiggly more wh ite
36.
1 6 .4.6
im possible; u ntether g rowing
Il
Part 4: Developmental Anomalies
94 37.
Symptoms of untethering are especially likely during the a g s
adolescent g rowth spurt
1 6 .4.6
__ _
___
38. a. b.
•
_ _ _
Surgical release in an adult is good for and poor for return of
__ __ _
1 6 .4.6
pain relief bladder fu nction
Split Cord Malformation 39. True or False. Diastematomyelia is fa lse (septu m is rig id) associated with nonrigid bony septum that separates two durally unsheathed hemicords. 40.
Complete the following concerning diastematomyelia: a . Cuta neous stigmata a re h tuft or hypertrichosis. b. True or fa lse. There are foot abnormalities, c. specifica l ly n h -a __ f __
__
1 6.5.2
1 6.5.2
hair true neurogenic high-arched foot
_ _ _
Neurosurgery Books
Ii
17 Primary Craniospinal Anomalies
•
Chiari Malformations 1. a.
Compare Chiari types I and II. med u l la-ca udal d islocation
b.
into cervical ca nal
c.
myelomeningocele
d.
hyd rocephalus
e.
med u l l a ry kink
f.
cervica l nerves
g . a g e a t presentation h.
sym ptoms
2.
Complete the following about Chiari malformation: Chiari I has how many a bnormal ities? List fou r names this abnorm a l ity has been ca lled. i. t h of c ii. c d
a. b.
iii. p iv. c 3. a. b.
e e
of t
Chiari I has how many deform ities? is known by the following names i. e ii. e iii. d iv. h
Ta ble 1 7 . 1
Chiari I, no; Chiari I I , yes Chiari I , tonsils; Chiari II, verm is, med u l l a , fou rth ventricle Chiari I , no; Chiari II, yes Chiari I , no; Chiari I I , yes Chiari I , no; Chiari II, 55% Chiari I, norm a l ; Chiari I I , u pwa rd Chiari I , a d u lt; Chiari I I , infa nt Chiari I , neck pain; Chiari II, hyd rocephalus, respiratory distress 1 7. 1 .2
1 -with many names tonsi l l a r hern iation ca udal displacement of cerebe l l u m peg like elongation of tonsil cerebellar ectopia 1 7. 1 .2
ectopia elongation displacement herniation
Part 4: Developmental Anomalies
96 c.
symptoms i. 0 ii. c
h p
occipita l headaches cervica l pain
4. What is the particular eye sign associated with Chiari I?
Downbeat nysta g m u s is considered a cha racteristic of this cond ition in 47%, but it ca n also occur in Chiari I I .
5. What percentage of Chiari I patients have hydrosyringomyelia?
20 to 30% of Chiari I patients have a syri nx.
6. Characterize the location of tonsils a.
b.
c. d. 7.
a. b. c. d.
8.
a. b. c. d. e.
and Chiari I. Normal ra nge related t o fora men magnum i. high ii. low iii. mean Chiari I ra nge is i. high ii. low iii. mean Sym ptoms can occur with tonsils at mm below. U s u a l level considered cutoff for diagnosis is m m below. Possible better correlation with symptoms of tonsillar herniation is the degree of brain stem compression a t the as seen on the T W1 M R I . T h e best resu lts from su rgery occur if treated withi n yea rs o f onset of symptoms. Complete the following concerning Chiari 1 : The most common postop complication is in %. Occurs within how m a ny days of surgery? Occu rs mostly at what time of day? Death can occur from s a Other risks of surgery include f I i. c ii. inj u ry to p a c of c iii. h h
1 7. 1 .2
1 7. 1 .2
Ta ble 1 7 .4
8 m m a bove 5 mm below 1 m m a bove 3 m m below 29 mm below 1 3 m m below 2 5 1 7. 1 .2
fora men m a g n u m axial 2 2
1 7. 1 .2
respi ratory depression i n 1 5% 5 night sleep a pnea cerebrospinal fl uid leak posterior inferior cerebel l a r artery (PICA) herniation of cerebel l a r hemispheres
Primary Craniospinal Anomalies 9.
Complete the following concerning Chiari 1 : a . Operative resu lts i . Main benefit m a y b e t o a p ii. Best resu lts in patients with synd rome iii. which consists of a t I a n d b. Which responds better: pain or weakness? ___
__ _
1 7. 1 .2
arrest progression cerebellar
___
__ _
__ _
__ _ __ _
1 0. Factors that correlate with a worse outcome are a. a b. s c. sym ptoms that a re lasting more than _ __
__ _
1 1 . Which Chiari malformation is associated with myelomeningocele? 1 2.
Study Chart. Chiari II anatomical abnormalities: A to Z.
tru nca l ataxia l i m b ataxia nystagmus dysarthria pain 1 7. 1 .2
atrophy scoliosis 2 yea rs Chiari I I atlas assi milation beaking of tectu m , bony a bnormalities cerebel lar folia poorly myelinated, cervica l med u l l a ry junction compression, cra niolacu nia, corpus ca llosum agenesis degenerated lower CN nuclei enlarged massa intermedia fa lx hypoplasia, fou rth ventricle trapped, fusion of cervica l vertebrae gyri min iatu rized hyd rocephalus, heterotopia, hyd romyelia Kl ippei-Feil deformity low attachm ent of tentori u m massa interm edia enlarged med u l l a oblongata "z" bend microgyria nuclei of lower CN degenerated platybasia, peg of cerebellar tonsils septu m pel l u cid u m a bsent, syringomyelia tectum bea king, tentori u m low attachment Z-sha ped bend of med u l la
1 7. 1 .3
1 7. 1 .3
97
Ii
Part 4: Developmental Anomalies
98 1 3.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g.
Findin � on presentation of Chiari II. H i nt: n chiari two n n c h i a r
h. i i. t j. w k. 0 1 4.
a.
Complete the following regarding Chiari II. The most common cause of morta l ity is
The mortal ity at 6 years follow- u p is %. c. Ra nge of morta l ity i. I nfa nts in poor cond ition (i.e., ca rdiopulmonary a rrest, vocal cord para lysis, and /or a rm weakness morta l ity) is %. d . I f there is g radual onset o f symptoms, morta l ity is %. e. The worst prog nostic factor for response to surgery is b v c p b.
•
1 7 . 1 .3
nystag m u s-down beat nasal reg u rgitation cya nosis hoa rseness im paired venti latory d rive a pneic spells, aspiration reg u rgitation, respi ratory a rrest inspiratory stridor tenth nerve (vag us) voca l cord para lysis wea k a rm-weak cry opisthotonus 1 7 . 1 .3
respi ratory arrest 40% 71%
23% bilatera l voca l cord para lysis
Neural Tube Defects 1 5.
With neural tube defects there are classification systems. Give examples of a . neuru lation defects i. a ii. m b. postneurulation defects i. m ii. h iii. h iv. I v. s c. spinal defects i. d ii. s
1 7.2.1
anencephaly myelomeningocele microcephaly hyd ranencephaly holoprosencephaly lissencephaly schizencephaly diastematomyelia syringomyelia
Primary Craniospinal Anomalies Complete the following about neural tube defects: a . Fai l u re t o fuse t h e a nterior neuropore resu lts in b. Fai l u re to fuse the posterior neuropore resu lts in c. The definition of microcephaly is head circu mference below the mean. d. I n hyd ra nencephaly the cortex is replaced by e. Fai l u re to cleave ca n result in
1 6.
Complete the following about neural tube defects: a . Give exa m ples o f neuru lation defects. i. a ii. c iii. m of b. These defects are due to the neura l tube.
1 7.2.1
anencephaly myelomeningocele 2 sta ndard deviations CSF holoprosencephaly
1 7.
Complete the following about neural tube defects: a . N a m e five postne u ru l ation defects. i. h ii. I iii. h of iv. a v. d b. Which is the most severe?
1 7.2.1
anencephaly era n iorach ischisis myelomeningocele nonclosure
1 8.
1 7.2.1
hyd ranencephaly lissencephaly (most severe) holoprosencephaly agenesis of corpus ca l losum diastematomyelia l issencephaly
b.
Complete the following regarding lissencephaly: I t is a n example o f a n a bnormality of neuronal It resu lts in a n abnormality of the
cortica l convol utions
c.
ca l led
a gyri a
1 9.
a.
20.
a.
___
Name the key features of schizencephaly. which com municates with
b. lined with c. Two types are i. 0 ii. c
1 7.2.1
migration
1 7.2.1
cleft; ventricle g ray matter open li pped close l i pped
21 .
Complete the following about neural tube defects: a . I n schizencepha ly, t h e cleft wa l l is lined with cortica l b. I n porencepha ly, the cystic lesion is lined or tissue. with
1 7.2.1
g ray matter connective or glial
Neurosurgery Books
99
Ii
Part 4: Developmental Anomalies
1 00 22. a. b. c. d.
Hydranencephaly is a defect. Cra n i u m is fi lled with Is there a small or large head? Most common etiology i s
e. Angiography i. of anterior circu lation shows ii.
of posterior circulation shows
1 7.2.2
post-neuru lation CSF l a rge (macrocrania) bilatera i iCA infa rcts no flow normal flow
23.
Complete the following about neural tube defects: a . What a re t h e th ree types of holoprosencepha ly? Please list in order of decreasing severity. i. a
ii. s iii. I b. They occur beca use of i. fa i l u re to ii. of the 24.
a. b. c.
list the risk factors for neural tube defects. B c D
d. f e. f f. h g.
a e
0
h. v
a
i. v 25. What are the tests for prenatal detection of neural tube defects? a . Seru m
b. u c. which ca n detect what % of spina bifida cases? d. a
1 7.2.2
alobar (single ventricle, most severe) semi lobar lobar (least severe) cleave telencephalic vesicle 1 7.2.3
B l 2 insufficiency cocaine-maternal use Depa kene-use d u ring preg nancy folic acid insufficiency fever i n first trimester heat exposu re-maternal hot tub, sa u n a obesity before and d u ring preg nancy va l proic acid use d u ring preg nancy vita mins-prenatal lack of folic acid and B l 2 1 7.2.4
a lfa fetoprotein (If high at 1 5 to 20 weeks be suspicious for neura l tube d efects. ) u ltrasonography 90% a m niocentesis
Primary Craniospinal Anomalies 26.
Regarding prenatal detection of neural tube defects. a . Test mother's seru m for alpha fetoprotein
•
b. which has a sensitivity rate for spina bifida % and for anencephaly %. c. Closed spinal dysraphism
9 1 %; 1 00%
d . A n overestimate o f gestational a g e wil l make us think that a high alpha fetoprotein level is e. Rea l-ti me imaging through f. Identifies % of s b g . Obtaining fl uid from the wom b is ca lled
normal
a m niocentesis
h.
6%
It ca rries a risk of feta l loss of %.
1 7.2.4
may be missed
u ltrasonography 90% of spinal bifida
Neurenteric Cysts 27.
Complete the following about neurenteric cysts: a . A neurenteric cyst is a centra l nervous system ( CNS ) cyst lined with b. resembling the or tract. c. Reg ions affected a re usually the or a reas. d. H istologica l ly, cyst lined with e -c c e . with m g -s c
1 7.3.1
endothelium gastrointesti nal or respi ratory cervica l or thoracic cu boidal-co l u m n a r epitheli u m muci n-secreti ng goblet cells
1 7.3.2
1 01
Ii
18 Coma
•
General I nformation 1 . Write out the Glascow Coma Scale (GCS) and indicate the score assigned to each point on the scale. a . Eyes i. e ii. y_ iii. e iv. s b. Verbal i. v_ ii. 0 iii. i iv. c v. e c. Motor i. m ii. 0 iii. v_ iv. i v. n vi . g_ -
-
-
-
-
-
-
1 8. 1
4 sponta neous 3 to speech 2 to pain 1 nil 5 oriented 4 confused 3 inappropriate 2 incoherent 1 nil 6 obeys 5 loca lizes 4 withd rawa l 3 decorticate 2 decerebrate 1 nil
2. True or False. A patient with a GCS score E2 Vl M2 (GCS 5) is in a coma.
fa lse (Whereas 9 0 % of patients with GCS < 8 a re in a com a , coma is defined as the inability to obey com mands, speak or open the eyes even to pain.)
3.
A GCS less than 8 is a genera l ly accepted operation a l defi n ition of com a .
Define coma.
4.
list the three locations of brain lesions that produce coma. u pper p o n s and midbra i n and m a. u __ p diencephalic b. d c. b__ c bi latera l cerebral hemisphere h __
___
_ _ _
_ __
1 8. 1
1 8. 1
1 8. 1
Coma •
Posturing 5.
Disinhibition by removal of the corticospinal pathways above the midbrain typically results in (f ) posturing.
decorticate (flexion)
1 8.2.2
decerebrate (extension)
1 8.2.3
__
__
6. Disinhibition by removal of the vestibulospinal tract and pontine reticular formation by removing inhibition of medullary reticular formation typically results in (e ) posturing.
_ _ _
7.
a.
Complete the following about coma in general: I n a decorticate postu ring . flexion i. the u pper extremities a re in ii. the lower extrem ities a re in extension
1 8.2.3
___
b.
•
I n decerebrate posturing i. the u pper extremities a re in ii. the lower extremities a re in
___
.
extension extension
Etiologies of Coma 8.
A patient is brought to the ER in a coma after being found down. Pupils are equal and reactive. Painful stimulus elicits no movement. No signs of trauma are evident. Studies show Na 1 30, K 4.9. C 1 -1 00, HC03 21 5, BUN 30, Cr 1 .2, Glu 440. The likely cause of coma is
dia betic ketoacidosis
1 8. 3 . 1
___ _ _ _
Indicate the effect of midline shift on level of consciousness. a. 0 to 3 mm: b. 3 to 4 m m : c. 6 to 8.5 mm: d. 8 to 13 mm:
9.
1 0. The three categories of disorders in the different diagnosis of pseudocoma are: -i s and v a. 1 p i b. p d ,c , and __
___
___
__
n g B
___
__
c.____
c.
___
___
__ _
w ,G s
____
_ _ _ ___
and m
__ _
Ta ble 1 8 . 3
alert d rowsy stu porous comatose 1 8.3.3
locked-in syn d rome; ventra l pontine infract psych iatric disorders, catatonia; conversion reaction neuromuscu l a r wea kness; myasthenia g ravis; G u i l lain Ba rre synd rome
1 03
1 04
Part 5: Coma and Brain Death
1 1 . A patient presents with coma. Your first move is to assess and secure the
airway
1 2.
Complete the following about approach to the comatose patient: a . What percentage o f patients with Wernicke's encephalopathy present with coma? b. You wou l d i n itia l ly treat those patients with
Matching. Match the respiratory pattern with the location of the lesion. CD med u l l a ry; 0 pontine; ® bilatera l cerebral hemisphere; 0 high med u l la or lower pons a. Cheyne-Stokes b. hyperventilation c. cluster breathing d . apneustic e. ataxic
1 8.3.4
3% thiamine
1 3.
1 8.3.4
® 0
0
0 CD
1 4. What is the significance of equal, reactive pupils in a comatose patient?
Indicates toxic metabolic ca use.
1 5. What is the most useful sign in distinguishing metabolic from structural coma?
the light reflex
1 6.
The only metabolic causes of fixed/dilated pupils are a. a e b. g t u c. a __
d.
b
t
p
1 7. In a third nerve palsy a. the pupil is b. and the eye looks __ and ___ . 1 8. True or False. The following ocular finding can be seen in comatose patients with pontine lesions: a . pin point pupils b. period ic a lternating gaze
c. ocu lar bobbing d . bilatera l conjugate d eviation t o cold caloric
1 8.3.4
1 8.3.4
1 8.3.4
1 8.3.4
a n oxic encephalopathy g l utethimide toxicity a nticholi nergic use (i.e., atropine) botu l i n toxin poison ing 1 8.3.4
dilated down and out 1 8.3.4
true fa lse (usually ind icates bilatera l cerebra l dysfu nction) true fa lse
Neurosurgery Books
Coma In frontal lobe lesions patient looks t h e side o f t h e destructive lesions that is __from the hemiparesis. from the side of the irritative b. lesions (seizu res) that is __ the jerki ng side.
1 9. a.
20.
In a pontine lesion the eyes deviate towards the side.
1 8.3.4
towa rd ; away away; towa rd hemiparetic
21 .
Name three causes of bilateral downward gaze deviation. a . t___ l l b. m __ p c. b. _ _ _
__
__
_ _ _
22.
a.
Complete the following concerning internuclear opthalmoplegia: Is d u e t o a lesion i n t h e
b.
Fibers a re interru pted that go to the
c.
Resu Its in i. loss of ii. of the ___ eye iii. on iv. or in response to
_ _ _ _ _ _
__ _
___ _ _ _ _ _ _ ___
v.
and convergence is
__ _ _ _ _
1 8.3.4
1 8.3.4
thalamic lesion mid bra i n pretecta l lesion ba rbitu rates 1 8.3.4
medial longitudinal fascicu l u s contra latera l 3 rd nerve nucleus add uction ipsi latera l sponta neous eye movement reflex movement (doll's, ca lories) not i m paired
Complete the following regarding oculo-vestibular reflex: a . A comatose patient with an intact tonic; towa rds brainstem wi l l have conjugate eye deviation the side of the cold sti m u lus, b. which may be delayed u p to mi n ute. No c. Will there be nystagm us?
23.
1 8.3.4
__
__
24.
In a normal ciliospinal reflex, the pupil to noxious cutaneous stimulus.
dilates
1 8.3.4
___
25.
True or False. The ciliospinal reflex is indicative of a. pa rasym pathetic pathways b. spinothalamic pathways c. i nteg rity of the periaqueducta l g ray d. sym pathetic pathway
1 8.3.4
fa lse fa lse fa lse true
1 05
1 06 •
Part 5: Coma and Brain Death
Herniation Synd romes 26. True or False. Subfalcine herniation is of concern because: a . Anterior cerebral a rtery territory infa rcts may occur. b. Tra nstentorial herniation may occur. c. There is no obvious concern.
true fa lse
27. True or False. Decreased consciousness occurs early in uncal herniation.
fa lse (It occurs l ate in u ncal and early in centra l herniation.)
28. True or False. Uncal herniation rarely gives rise to decorticate posturing.
true
1 8 .4.2
true
29. Upwards cerebellar herniation a . c a n occl ude the b. resu lti ng in infa rction
SCA cerebel l a r
30. Tonsillar herniation a . c a n compress t h e b. resu lti ng in
med u l la respiratory a rrest
31 . Central herniation a . c a n occl ude the b. resu lti ng in c. It can shear the basilar a rtery a n d cause D ___ hemorrhages.
PCA cortical blind ness perforators; Duret
__ ,
True or False. This stage of central herniation is reversible. a. med u l l a ry stage b. diencephalic stage c. lower pons d. u pper pons
1 8 .4.3
1 8 .4.4
1 8 .4.4
fa lse true fa lse fa lse
33.
__
__
34. True or False. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is prominent at the "lower pons" stage of central herniation.
1 8 .4.2
1 8 .4.3
32.
List the distinguishing features of pupils and respiratory rate in the following injuries. a . I nj u ry at t h e diencepha lon: i. Pupils to ii. Respi ratory pattern is ___ . b. I nj u ry at the mid bra i n : i. Pupils a re in ___ . ii. Respi ratory pattern is ___ . c. I nj u ry at the pons: i. Pupils ii. Respi ratory pattern is___ . d. I nj u ry at the med u l la oblongata : i. Pupils a re ___ . ii. Respi ratory pattern is
1 8 .4.2
1 8 .4.4
react to light Cheyne-Stokes mid position hyperventilation pin-point apneustic di lated , fixed ataxic fa lse (at the u pper pons stage)
1 8 .4.4
Coma 35. Why does injury to the pons result in pinpoint pupils?
Sym pathetics a re lost.
36. Why does injury of midbrain herniation result in moderately dilated, fixed pupils?
Sym pathetics and parasym pathetics a re lost.
37. What percentage of patients with central herniation symptoms had: a . good outcome? b. fu nctional outcome? c. died?
39. What shape is the suprasellar cistern?
pentagonal
1 8 .4.4
40.
c. ca using hemiplegia. d . Kernahan's phenomenon is desig nated as a __ loca lizing sign
•
1 8 .4.4
9% 1 8% 60%
fa lse true
During uncal herniation, Kernahan's phenomenon occurs a . when the cerebra l ped u ncle b. is com p ressed against the ___
1 8 .4.4
1 8 .4.4
38. True or False. Regarding uncal herniation: a . T h e earliest consistent s i g n i s i. i m pa i red consciousness ii. u n i l atera l dilated pupil
1 8 .4.4 1 8 .4.4
contra latera l tentoria l edge ipsilatera l fa lse
Hypoxic Coma 41 .
a. b.
Regarding the most vulnerable cells in anoxic encephalopathy. Cortex i. ___ cortical layer horn ii. Basal ganglia p i. g ii. c iii. p Cerebel l u m i. p ce lls ii. d n ucleus iii. i 0 What tissue is more sensitive t o a n oxia , g ray or white matter? Are steroids usefu l after ca rdiac a rrest? __
c.
d. e.
__
1 8.5
3 rd Ammon 's globus pallidus ca udate putamen Pu rkinje dentate inferior olive g ray (has g reater 0 2 req u i rement) no
1 07
1!1
19 Brain Death and Organ Donation
•
Brain Death in Adu lts 1 . True or False. According to the Uniform Determination of Death Act of 1 980, an individual is dead if they have sustained a . irreversible cessation o f circu latory a n d respiratory fu nctions. b. irreversible cessation of all fu nctions of the enti re brain, including bra i n stem.
•
1 9. 1
true true
Brain Death Criteria 2. The basic requirements and clinical findings that may be used in determining brain death include: . a . Core tem peratu re b. Systolic blood pressu re __ . c. Blood a lcohol level r d . Absence of b c p . e. No response to d f. Failed a c __
_ _ _
__
__
__
__
__ _
3. When testing oculovestibular reflex you should a. insti l l _ - _ m l of ice water into one ear b. with HOB at , c. wait _ m i n ute for response and d . > _ min utes before testing the opposite side. __
4. The apnea test: of m a . Assesses f b. to be va lid test for bra i n death, the PaC02 m u st reach __ without any respirations. c. This usually takes m i n utes. __
__
Ta ble 1 9. 1
> 36 C (96.8F} > 1 00 m m H g < 0.08 % brainstem reflexes deep centra l pain a pnea challenge 1 9.2.3
60- 1 00 30 degrees 1 5 1 9.2.3
fu nction of med u l l a > 60 mmHg 6
Brain Death and Organ Donation 5. True or False. The apnea test should be aborted if: a . t h e patient h a s chest or abdominal movement. b. SBP < 90 m m H g c . S a 0 2 d rops < 8 0 % for > 30 seconds.
1 9.2.3
true true true
6. True decerebrate or decorticate posturing or seizures are with the diagnosis of brain death.
incom patible
1 9.2.3
7.
com patible
1 9.2.3
___
Spinal cord mediated reflex with the movements are diagnosis of brain death.
Name five complicating conditions that must not be present to declare an adult brain dead. a. h
8.
_ _ _
b. c.
p
d. e.
s
9.
_ _ _ _
P· --_ _ _
Cerebral angiography is compatible with brain death when there is of intracranial flow at the level of the c b or the c of ___
1 9.2.3
hypothermia: core tem peratu re < 3 2 . 2 (90F) intoxication (i.e. para lytics, ba rbitu rates, benzod iazepines) post-resuscitation (i.e., cou l d be in shock, or atropine may have been used in resuscitation, ca using fixed dilated pupils) pentoba rbita l (> 1 0 u g f m l) shock (SBP < 90 m m H g ) a bsence; ca rotid bifu rcation; circle of Willis
1 9.2.5
__
w__
1 0. True or False. Regarding the use of EEG as an ancillary confirmatory test. a . I t is a b l e t o detect brainstem activity. b. It does not exclude the possibil ity of reversi ble coma. c. It req uires electro-cerebral silence. 1 1 . When performing a cerebral radionuclide angiogram for brain death confirmation, the finding of no uptake in brain parenchyma is also called h s p . __
__
1 9.2.5
fa lse true true (no electrica l activity > 2mcV) hol low sku l l phenomenon
__
Neurosurgery Books
1 9.2.5
1 09
110 •
Part 5: Coma and Brain Death
Brain Death in Children 1 2.
Current guidelines for diagnosis of brain death in children are not supported for infants week gestational age due to insufficient data.
< 37
1 9. 3 . 1
__
Recommended observation periods to declare brain death in children: a. Term newborn - 30 days of age b. I nfa nts and children
1 3.
•
1 9.3.2
24 hours 1 2 hours
Organ and Tissue Donation 1 4.
a. b. c.
Brain death can result in the following physiologic aberration: h h d
1 5. True or False. Candidates for organ donation by cardiac death: a . Are venti lator dependent. b. Their fa m i ly has decided to withd raw support. c. Further treatment wou l d improve outcome.
1 9 .4.3
hypotension hypothermia dia betes insipidus 1 9 . 4. 5
true true fa lse (it wou l d be futi le)
20 Bacterial Infections of the Parenchyma and Meninges and Complex Infections
•
Meningitis 1 . True o r false. Regarding meningitis. a . Com m u n ity acq u i red meningitis i s typica l ly more fu l m i n ant than meningitis fol lowing a neurosurgical procedure or tra u m a . b . Foca l neurological s i g n s a re common in acute meningitis 2. What syndrome describes large petechial hemorrhages i n the skin and mucous membranes, fever, septic shock, adrenal failure, and DIC in children with disseminated meningococcal infection? 3. a.
Regarding treatment of meningitis. What is empiric a ntibiotic coverage for post-neurosurgical proced u re meningitis?
b.
If the patient has a severe PCN allergy, what a ntibiotics can be used instead?
c. What a re the three phases of a ntifu n g a l treatment for cryptococca l meningitis?
20. 1 . 1
true
fa lse Waterhouse-Friderichsen synd rome
20. 1 . 1
20. 1 .2
Va ncomyci n (M RSA coverage), 1 5 mgfkg q 8 - 1 2 h rs to achieve a trough level of 1 5 - 20 mgfdl + cefepime 2 g m IV q 8 h rs Aztreonam 2gm IV q 6 - 8 h rs or Ciprofloxacin 400 mg IV q 8 h rs I n d u ction thera py: l i posoma l amphotericin B 3-4 mgfkg IV daily + fl ucytosine 2 5 mgfkg PO Q I D for at least two weeks followed by Consolidation therapy: fl uconazole 400mg PO daily for at least 8 weeks followed by Chronic mai ntena nce therapy: fl uconazole 200mg PO daily
112
Part 6: Infection
4. What are the most common causal organisms in post-neurosurgical procedure meningitis? a. c -n s __ _
b. c. d. e.
s__
E P P
a
__ __ __ __ __ ___
sp.
__ __ __ ____
In immunocompromised patients, what additional organisms must be considered in the differential diagnosis? n a. C b. M t a m c. H d. L m
20. 1 . 2
Coa g u lase-negative sta phylococci S. a u reus Enterobacteriaceae Pseudomonas sp. Pneumococci (usually with basilar sku l l fractu res and otorh inologic surgery)
5.
___ _
_ __
_____
_ __ __ __
__ _ _ _ _
6. True or false. Regarding post traumatic meningitis. a . Most cases wil l have a basal sku l l fractu re. b. Most patients have obvious CSF rhinorrhea . c. Most infections are from organisms i n digenous to the nasal cavity. d. Surgical treatment is preferred to conservative management. e. Ciprofloxacin or l m ipenem is the treatment for gram-negative orga nisms. f. Penici l l i n is the treatment of choice for g ram-positive orga nisms. g. Antibiotics should be contin ued for 1 week after CSF is sterilized. Patients with recurrent meningitis must be evaluated for the presence of the following etiologies of an abnormal communication between the environment and the intraspinal/intracranial compartment. a. d s b. C_ f c. n c
20. 1 . 2
Cryptococcus meningitis Mycobacteri u m tu berculosis HIV aseptic meningitis Listeria Monocytogenes 20. 1 .3
true true true fa lse true fa lse true
7.
__
__
__
______
8.
a. b. c. d. e.
_
Differential diagnosis for chronic meningitis: t. f n s m c _ _ _ ___
__
___
___ _ __
_ ___
_ _ _ _ _
2 0 . 1 .4
dermal sinus CSF fistula neu roenteric cyst 20. 1 . 5
tu bercu losis fu ngal infections neu rocysticercosis sarcoidosis meningeal ca rcionmatosis
Bacterial and Complex Infections list the favored antibiotic for each of the following organisms: a. S. pneumonia b. N . meningitidis c. H. infl uenza
9.
d. Group B Strep e. L. monocytogenes f. S. a u erus g. h. i.
•
aerobic g ra m negative baci l l i P. aeru g inosa Ca ndida spp.
20. 1 .6
PCN G PCN G a m pici l l i n (beta lacta mase neg) or ceftriaxone (beta lacta mase pos) am pici l l i n am pici l l i n ± IV genta micin oxaci l l i n (M SSA) or va ncomyci n ± rifampin (M RSA) ceftriaxone ceftazid ime or cefepime Liposomal a m photericin B + fl ucytosine
Cerebra l Abscess 1 0. True or false. Regarding brain abscesses. a . Are most commonly polymicrobia l . b . Sta phylococcus is t h e most common organism isolated. c. CRP is typica lly norma l . d . Sym ptoms a re similar o f other mass lesions by prog ress ra pid ly. 1 1 . The incidence of brain abscesses is in developing countries.
20.2.1
true fa lse fa lse true higher
20.2.2
__
1 2. What are the risk factors for a brain abscess? a. p a b. c c h d c. b e d. p h __ t s e. c f. o m g. h ____ __ __ _
___
__ __ __
_______
__ __ __ __ __
___
_____
__ __ __
___
______
1 3.
a. b. c. d. e.
__
Complete the following about sources of brain abscesses: For what percentage o f cerebral a bscesses is no source found? Where is the most common orig in for hematogenous spread? Eth moidal and fronta l sinu sitis leads to an a bscess in which lobe? Why a re infa nts less likely t o develop a bra i n a bscess fol lowi ng p u rulent sinusitis? After penetrati ng tra u m a , open surgical debridement is req u i red to _ _ _
20.2.3
pul monary a bnormalities congenita l cya notic heart disease bacteria l endocarditis penetrati ng head tra u m a chronic sinusitis otitis media i m m u n ocom p rom ised host 20.2.4
25% of cases chest fronta l lobe Lack of aerated sinuses and air cells. remove foreign matter and devita l ized tissue
113
B
1 14
Part 6: Infection
1 4.
Complete the following about causative pathogens of brain abscesses: a . What percentage o f cerebral a bscesses fai l to g row a n organism on cultu re? b. The most common organism is
20.2.5
25% Streptococcus
c. The most common orgamisms in fronta l- Streptococcus m i l leri and eth moid sinusitis a re and Streptococcus a n g i nosus --- ---
d . T h e most common organism in tra u m atic ca uses is
Streptococcus a u erus
e. The most common organisms in transplant patients are
fu ngal infections
f. The most common organisms fol lowing neurosurgical proced u res a re and g . T h e most common type o f organism i n infa nts is h . T h e most common organism from a dental source is i. The most common organisms in AIDS patients a re
Sta phylococcus epidermidis and Sta phylococcus a u reus
1 5.
The symptoms of a brain abscess in adults are largely the result of?
1 6.
Describe the four stages of a cerebral abscess. Stages i. stage 1 e c c ii. stage 2 I iii. stage 3 e c iv. stage 4 1 c N u m ber of days i. stage 1 ii. stage 2 iii. stage 3 iv. stage 4 H istologic cha racteristics i. stage 1 ii. stage 2 iii. stage 3
a.
b.
c.
d.
iv. stage 4 Resista nce to need le aspiration i. stag e 1 ii. stage 2 iii. stage 3 iv. stage 4
g ra m negative acti nomyces toxoplasmosis nocardia Edema surrounding the lesion ca using increased ICP (headache, nausea/vom iti ng, lethargy) and a ra pid progression of sym ptoms
20.2.6
20.2.7
ea rly cerebritis late cerebritis ea rly ca psule late ca psule 1 to 3 4 to 9 1 0 to 1 3 > 14 inflammation developing necrotic center neovascula rity, reticular network gliosis around collagen capsule intermed iate resista nce no resista nce no resista nce firm resista nce
Neurosurgery Books
Bacterial and Complex Infections 1 7.
a.
Indicate the value of the following diagnostic tests in the work up for a brain abscess? blood work
b.
l u m ba r puncture ( LP}
c. d.
com puted tomogra phy (CT} M RI
e.
M RS
f.
leu kocyte scan
g.
effect of ste ro i d s
1 8.
How long should antibiotics be used for treating brain abscesses?
Medical therapy alone is more successful for the treatment of abscesses if: a . i t is in t h e stage.
20.2.8
WBC may be normal or m i l d ly elevated ; blood cu ltu res should be obtained but a re often negative ; ESR may be normal or elevated ; CRP is typica lly elevated very d u bious and not routinely done - may cause herniation excel lent (sensitivity 1 00%} good for staging cerebral a bscesses presence of amino acids and either acetate or lactate a re diag nostic for a bscess excel lent a lthough infreq uently used tests become less positive may mislead "'
Often IV x 6-8 wks followed by oral x 4-8 wks, although d u ration should be g u ided by clinical and radiographic response (note: CT im p rovement may lag behind clinical im provement (neovascula rity remains) so it is okay to dfc antibiotics even if the CT a bnormalities persist.
1 9.
____
b. the a bscess is less than em in diameter. c. symptom d u ration is less than _ wks. 20. What antibiotics are used in AIDS patients with Toxoplasma gondii? 21 .
a. b. c. d.
General management of brain abscesses includes: b c e a a s _____
______
_____
____ __
__ __ __ __ __
__
20.2.9
20.2.9
cerebritis stage (before complete encapsu lation) 3 2 Su lfad iazine + pyrimethamine + leucovorin
20.2.9
20.2.9
blood cu ltu res empiric antibiotics a nticonvu lsa nts (optional) steroids (controversial)
115
116
Part 6: Infection
22. The surgical mainstay of treatment for a brain abscess is
need le aspiration
20.2.9
_ _ __
23.
Complete the following regarding outcomes for patients with brain abscesses? a . morta lity ( i n t h e C T era) b. neurologic disability c. late foca l or genera l ized seizu res d. hemiparesis e. morta lity for transplant patients with fu ngal a bscesses?
•
20.2. 1 0
0 - 1 0% 45% 27% 29% a pproaches 1 00%
Subdural Empyema 24. Why is a subdural empyema (SDE) typically more emergent than a brain abscess?
No a natomic ba rrier to spread of a SDE, no su rrou nding tissue reaction to conta in the infection, and poor a ntibiotic penetration into the space
25. Where are SDE typically located?
70-80% over the convexity, 1 0-20% a re parafa lcine
26.
a.
List the most common etiologies of SDE: p s (especia l ly f__) __
o m c. p d. t
b.
__
__
(usually c__ o__ ) (neuro or ENT)
__
__
s. ____
__
27. Causative organisms in SDE: a . Associated with sinusitis? a and a s b. Fol lowi ng tra u m a or procedures? s and g_-n c. Sterile cultures a re more common following
20.3 . 1
20.3.2
20.3.3
para nasal sinusitis (esp. fronta l ) otitis (usually chronic otitis media) post surgical tra u m a 20.3.4
aerobic and a naerobic strep
__
__
sta ph and g ram-negatives
__
previous a nti biotic exposu re
_ __
28. a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i.
Neurological findings in SDE include: f__ h m h a m __ s s s t. n /v h h ___
_ _ _ __
_ _ _ _
___
__
_ _ _ _
__
_ ___
__ _ _
20.3.5
fever headache meningismus hemiparesis a ltered mental status seizu res (usually occur late) sinus tenderness nausea/vomiting homonymous hemia nopsia
Bacterial and Complex Infections 29. True or False. Evaluating SDE with a LP true is potentially hazardous and rarely positive.
true 30. True or False. Burr holes are more effective for SDEs early in the course when the pus tends to be more fluid and fewer loculations have developed. 31 .
Fatal cases of SDE have been associated with v b . __
___
venous infa rction of the brain
20.3.6
20.3.7
20.3.8
of the
__
•
Neurologic I nvolvement in H IV/AI DS 32. Regarding patients with AIDS. a . What percentage wil l present initia l ly with a neurological com plaint? b. How many patients that die with AIDS have a normal bra i n at autopsy? 33. The most common conditions producing focal CNS lesions in AIDS are: a. t. C_ I b. p c. p m, I _ d . c. e. t. _ _ _ _ _ _
___
__
_ _ __
__ _ _
_ ____
____
Infection with HIV itself can have direct neurological involvement such as: a. A e
20.4. 1
33% 5% 20.4. 1
toxoplasmosis prim a ry CNS lym phoma prog ressive m u ltifoca l leukoencephalopathy (PML) cryptococcus tuberculoma (TB)
34.
__ _ _ _ _
__
d b. A c. a m d . c___ n
___
__
__ _ _
__ __ __ _
e. A f. p
___
35.
a. b. c. d.
-r
____
m
__ __ __ _
n, ___
Complete the following about CNS diseases in AI DS: Does C N S toxoplasmosis occur ea rly o r late in t h e cou rse o f H IV infection? What causes PML? What vi rus is associated with pri mary CNS lym phoma (PCNSL)? How q u ickly c a n AIDS patients develop neurosyphil is?
20.4. 1
AI DS encephalopathy (most common) AIDS dementia aseptic meningitis cranial neuropathies (e.g. Bell's palsy) AIDS-related myelopathy peripheral neuropathy 20.4. 1
late (typica l ly CD4 cou nts < 200 cellsf m m 3) JC vi rus EBV as little as 4 months followi ng infection
117
B
Part 6: Infection
118
36. Complete the following chart by listing the CT and M RI findings in each of the following: a. Toxo i. n u m ber ii. enha nce iii. location
iv. mass effect v. miscella neous b. PCN SL i. n u m ber ii. enha nce iii. location iv. mass effect v. miscella neous c. PM L i. n u m ber ii. enha nce iii. location iv. mass effect v. miscella neous 37.
a.
b. c. d.
Complete the following about the management of AIDS-related intracerebral lesions: Treatment for toxoplasmosis i. p ii. s iii. I How prom ptly should we see i mp rovement clinica lly and radiological ly? If successfu l , how long should toxoplasmosis be treated? biopsy should be considered i f there i s no response in . True or fa lse. Toxo can not be radiologica l ly disti n g u ished from i. PCNSL. ii. PM L. For diag nosis, check: i. for toxo ii. for lym phoma
20.4.2
> S lesions ring basa l ganglia and g rey-white j u n ction mild-moderate surrou nded by edema < S lesions homogenous su bependym a l mild may cross corpus ca llosum may be m u lti ple none wh ite-matter none-m inimal high sig nal on T2WI , low sig nal on Tl Wl 20.4.3
pyri metha mine su lfadiazine leucovorin 2 to 3 weeks Patients need l ifetime meds 3 weeks
___ ___
e.
f.
true usually seru m toxo titers OP of LP and cytology; PCR a m p l ification of EBV DNA
Bacterial and Complex Infections 38.
Considerations for performing a biopsy of a brain lesion in an H IV+ patient? a . I f toxo titers a re b. If no response to toxo meds in c. True or fa lse. Biopsy is equally va luable in lesions that enha nce or don't enha nce. _ _ _ _
_ _ _ _
d . Tech nique for biopsy: e. What two a reas should be sampled? f. Positive biopsy ca n be expected i n %
20.4.3
negative 3 weeks fa lse (m ore va luable in enha ncing lesions to differentiate toxo from lym phoma) stereotactic enha ncing ri m and center 96
__
Indicate the survival times for AIDS patients with the following conditions: a . C N S toxo b. PML c. lym phoma
39.
__ _
_ _ _
___ _
d.
lym phoma in nonimmu nosuppressed patients
20.4.4
1 5 months 1 5 months 3 months ( 1 month wfo treatment) 1 3 . 5 months
_ _ _ _
•
Lyme Disease - Neurologic Manifestations 40.
Lyme disease is caused by and transmitted by the
_ _ _ _
___
41 .
a. b.
Regarding clinical findings of Lyme disease. classic rash e___ c. m ___
__
clinical triad of neurolog ica l manifestations i. c n __
___
ii. m iii. r --,---- --,-,-----,neurolog ica l findings frequently m cardiac c___ d and m ----,----,-in the late stage: a ___ and c n s __ _
c.
Borrelia spirochetes; Ixodes
20.5.1
tick. 20.5.2
erythema chron icu m migrans ("bul ls-eye" rash) cranial neu ritis (bilatera l "Bell 's palsy") meningitis radiculopathy migrate
_ _ _ _
d. e.
__
__
__ _
42. True or false. Regarding diagnosis of Lyme disease. a . No test is indicative o f active infection. b. Antibodies can be seen on serology im med iately after initia l infection.
c. CSF stud ies may be com patible with aspectic meningitis or MS.
conduction defects; myoperica rditis a rth ritis; chronic neurological synd romes 20.5.3
true fa lse (typica l ly req u i res 2-3 weeks for a ntibodies to be detected in untreated patients) true (oligoclonal bands may be seen)
Neurosurgery Books
1 19
1 20 •
Part 6: Infection
Nocardia Brain Abscess 43.
a. b. c. 44.
Complete the following regarding Nocardia: I t a rises from the It is a Seen in patients with c___ d i_.
__
Nocardia is typically diagnosed with a b b. __
20.6. 1
soil bacteria (not a fu ngus) chronic debil itati ng i l l ness brain biopsy
20.6.2
_ _ _
45. The treatment regimen for Nocardia is: a. T_-S_ b. i c. D u ration? ___
20.6.3
TM P-SMX i m i penem > one yea r or l ife-long
21 Skul l, Spine, and Post-Surgical Infections
•
Shunt I nfection 1 . Regarding shunt infection. a . Accepta ble infection rate? b. Risk of ea rly infection after surgery? c. _% of Sta ph infections occur within 2 mos. d. Most common sou rce is
< 5 - 7% 7% 70% (> 50% within the first two weeks) patients' skin
2.
1 0 to 1 5%
___
3. a. b. c. 4. a.
Mortality ranges from to % for children after a shunt infection. _
_
Risk factors for shunt infection: a_ of p l of p _ o n t d
y__ __ __
2 1 . 1 .3
_ _
__
__
Causal pathogens of shunt infections: Ea rly infection i. S e (most common) ii. S. a iii. g_-n b iv. in neonates: E c_ and S h Late infection (> 6 months after procedure) i. risk? ii. most com mon orga nism? Fu ngal infections spp. i. most com mon: C __
__
__
__
b.
c.
__
5. What are the common characteristics of shunt nephritis? a. v v s h u nt l_ l infection b. c c. ___ c deposition i n g d. p and h __
__
___
2 1 . 1 .4
Sta ph. epidermidis Sta ph. a u reus g ra m-negative baci l l i E. c o l i and Strep. hemoliticus
2.7 - 3 1 % (typica l ly 6%) Sta p h . epidermidis Ca ndida 2 1 . 1 .5
ventriculovascular chronic low level i m m u n e complex; g lomeru li
___
_ _ _
2 1 . 1 .2
young age of patient length of proced u re open neura l tube defect
___
__
21.1.1
proteinuri a ; hematu ria
1 22 6.
a. b.
Part 6: Infection Gram negative bacillus (GNB) shunt infection compared with gram positive bacillus (GPB): morbid ity Fol lowing a shunt ta p i. G ram stains
ii. protein iii. g l u cose iv. neutrophils 7. True or False. Regarding treatment of shunt infections. a . Remove s h u nt. b. Treatment with a ntibiotics without s h u nt remova l is o n ly recommended when patients a re term inally i l l , is a poor anesthetic risk, or has ventricles that may be d ifficult to catheterize. c. Place EVD. d . Intraventricu l a r injection o f preservativefree a ntibiotics in addition to IV thera py is never indicated . e. Anti biotics should be contin ued 7 days after steril ization of the CSF. f. Patients with peritonitis and a VP s h u nt will often have ascending i nfection into the CNS. g. VP s h u nts must be im mediately removed fol lowing peritonitis.
•
2 1 . 1 .5
higher in G N B more than 90%+ G ram sta in (in contrast to only 50% in GPB) higher in G N B lower in G N B higher in G N B 2 1 . 1 .5
true true
true fa lse fa lse {1 0-1 4 days) fa lse fa lse
External Ventricular Drain ( EVD)-Related I nfection The diagnosis of an EVD-related infection is suggested by: a. h
8.
b. c. d.
c > p in t h e presence o f p c r
___
__
___
c_
___
c_
21 .2.1
hypog lycorrhea {CSF g l u cose/ blood g l u cose < 0.2) rising cel l index CSF pleocytosis > 1 000 positive CSF cu ltu res
___
9.
1 0.
a. b.
What is the formula for cell index?
Contamination in the context of EVDinfection is P CSF c and/or g s or s No attri butable s __
__
__
--
--
Cel l index = CS Fle!JkQ•�teslCS Fer�thrQ•�es Blood leukocytes / Biood erythrocytes
2 1 .2.2
2 1 .2.2
positive CSF cultu re and/or g ram stain No attri butable sym ptoms or signs
Skull, Spine, and Post-Surgical I nfections 11. a. b. c. d.
Risk factors for EVD infections: d of EVD s I b in CSF ( IVH and SAH) and f
1 2.
The usual organisms that cause EVD related infections are s f
a. b. c.
_ _ _
__
_ _ _
__
__
present in the h e May form a b that increases a ntim icrobial resista nce.
_ _ _ _
__
1 3. a.
Management of an EVD infection: empiric a nti biotics: + i. v ii. c or c. b. r -- catheter --:-: a c. add i d . b y clamping for mi n utes e. wait at least days after CSF steril izes to im plant new s h u nt ____
_ _ _ _
___
___
_ _ _ _
___
__
__
1 4. a. b.
c.
2 1 .2.3
d u ration site leakage blood irrigation and fl ushing 2 1 .2.4
skin flora (coagu lase-negative sta ph, P. acnes) hea lthcare environ ment biofi l m 2 1 .2.7
vancomyci n ceftazidime or cefepime remove (if it is safe to do so) intratheca l a ntibiotics EVD ; 1 5 - 60 min 7 - 1 0 days
Prevention of EVD infections. tunneling away from the burr hole > 5 em a c c a ntibiotic coated catheters (rifa m ipin+ minocycline) do NOT the catheter at day 5 i. e exchange a p ii. g ive p prolonged a ntibiotic prophylaxis
2 1 .2.7
__
___
__
___
___
•
__
_ _ __
Wound I nfections 1 5.
a.
laminectomy superficial wound infection management: H i nt: bcdefg h b. ___
b. c c. d d. e
__ ___ ___
e. f f. g
w use v
__ ___
+c
__ _ _ _ _ _
g.
h
_ _ _ _ _ _
_____ __
_ __
2 1 .3.1
bacitracin (ha lf-strength) followed by normal saline culture debride wound empirical ly; vancomyci n + cefepime fil l with iodoform Y4 inch g ra d u a l ly tri m 0 . 5 - 1 inch of packi ng with each d ressi ng change change q8 h rs for hospital ized patients, B I D for patients at home
1 23
llJ
1 24
Part 6: Infection
Regarding post-operative discitis. Sta ph a u reus is t h e most common pathogen. % present by 3 weeks post-op b. 80% at the site of the operation is back pain c. the most common sym pto m . d . Ma nagement includes: i. a analgesics + muscle relaxa nts +m ii. a a ntibiotics iii. a r activity restriction iv. c culture if radiographs a re suspicious
1 6. a.
2 1 .3.1
_
__ ___
---
---
___
•
Osteomyelitis of the Sku l l Complete the following concerning Pott's puffy tumor: a . Treatment i. f ii. d weeks. for iii. a ntibiotics for fi rst week iv. wait approx. months for cra n ioplasty b. Most common organism is
1 7.
__
__
•
2 1 .4.4
fla p remova l debridement 6 to 1 2 ; IV 6 Sta ph lococcus a u reus
2 1 .4.2
Spine I nfections 1 8. What are the main categories of spine infections? a. v o b. d a c. s e s e d. s e. m f. s c a ___ _
__
__
___
___
___ _
____
___
___
__
Describe a spinal epidural abscess. Most common site for spinal epid u ra l a bscess is t h e at % b. The next most common is at %, followed by at % c. Sym ptoms include: i. s t ii. f iii. b p d . Co-morbid cond itions i. d m a ii. I d iii. a, iv. c r f v. i c.
1 9. a.
___ ___
__
__
__
_ _ __
__ __
__
__ _
_ _ __
_
__
___
___
_ _ _ _
2 1 .5
vertebra l osteomyel itis discitis spinal epid u ra l a bscess spinal subdura l em pyema meningitis spinal cord a bscess 21 .5.1
thoracic leve l ; 50%
__
__
l u m ba r; 35%; cervica l ; 1 5% spine tenderness fever back pain dia betes mellitus IV d rug abuse alcoholism chronic ren a l fai l u re i m m u n e comprom ised
Neurosurgery Books
Skull, Spine, and Post-Surgical I nfections e.
is the most common organism cu ltu red. f. is the imaging study of choice. g . Treatment consists o f + __
___ _
_ _ _ _
____
20. Describe the pathophysiology of spinal cord dysfunction. a . Com p ression by i. m of a ii. b by c of o v b t b. I nfa rction by v c. Di rect spread to the cord can cause m __
__
___
__ _
__
__
____ _
Sta ph. a u reus M RI s u rgical evacuation + a ntibiotics 21 .5.1
mass of a bscess bone by colla pse of osteomyelitic vertebral body venous thrombophlebitis myelitis
21 .
Complete the following regarding causes of spinal epidural abscess: a . Hematogenous - most com monly from i. f -___,. a ii. IV d b. d e ___
_ _ _
c.
Spinal proced u res i. d
fu ru ncle IV d rug a buse d i rect extension (e.g. psoas a bscess) d iscectomy (incidence of SEA is 0.67%) needles (catheters)
__ _
ii.
21 .5.1
n
Cultures from spinal epidural abscess patients can be expected to show the following: a. Sta phlococcus a u reus: _% b. no g rowth: _ to _% c. Streptococcus (freq uency)
22.
d. e.
TB associated with d isease: _% m u ltiple orga nisms: _%
Complete the following regarding spinal epidural abscess (SEA): a . I f d u ring a spinal ta p you encou nter pus, what should you do? b. Empiric antibiotics for SEA i. c___
21 .5.1
50 - most common organism 3 0 to 50% second most common organism Pott's disease; 25% 1 0%
23.
21 .5.1
Stop adva ncing the need le and cu ltu re the pus.
iii. m iv. ±r_ .,--c. The length of time IV antibiotics shou ld be administered for SEA is d. Morta lity is % e. Recovery of severe neurologic deficit is
ceftriaxone or cefepime (if pseudomonas is a concern) vancomycin (u ntil M RSA ca n be ruled out) metronidazole rifa m pin PO min. 6 weeks with immobilization 4 to 3 1 % very rare
f. An exception to this ru le is i mp rove neurological ly.
Pott's d isease - 50% im p rove neurologica l ly
_
ii.
v
_
_ _
_ _ _ __ _ _
__
__
- _%
1 25
1 26
Part 6: Infection
24. Complete the following regarding vertebral osteomyelitis: a. Risk factors i. d ii. d iii. h iv. a b. What cond ition in ren a l patients ca n mimic infection on M RI? c. Sou rces of i nfection a re never found in %. __
d.
N e u rologic d eficits occur i n to % of Pott's disease patients How long does it take for plain x-rays to demonstrate changes? Best imaging test? __
2 1 .5.2
d rug abuse dia betes mel litus hemodia lysis advanced age destructive spondyloarth ropathy 37% (consider urinary tract infection (UTI; most common source), respiratory tract, teeth) 1 0 to 47%
__
e. f.
25. True or False. Regarding the treatment of vertebral osteomyelitis. a. Instru mented fu sion is contraind icated . b. It is perm itted even in pyogenic infections. c. 90% of cases ca n be successfu l ly managed nonoperatively. d. TLSO brace has no role in nonoperative management. One differentiates spinal destruction from a . infection: i the d the d b. metastases: m
2 to 8 weeks M RI with and without contrast 2 1 .5.2
fa lse true true fa lse
26.
__
__
___
__
27. What is the M RI triad of infection in discitis? p p a. a b. b m c. d s __
__
__
__
___ _
_ _ _ _
28. What is the CT triad of infection in discitis? p f a. e s b. p a c. p __
__ _
_ _ _ _ _ ___
Complete the following regarding discitis: a. Cultures a re positive %. i. from the disc space in %. ii. from the blood in b. The usual pathogen is c. Special staining is req u i red to d etect , and should be done in _ cases.
2 1 .5.3
involves the disc miss the d isc and i nvolve the vertebral body 2 1 .5.3
a n n u l u s posterior portion bone ma rrow disc space 2 1 .5.3
end plate fragmentation pa ravertebra l swelling pa ravertebral a bscess
29.
__
__
__ _
__
2 1 .5.3
60% 50% Sta phlococcus a u reus TB; all
Skull, Spine, and Post-Surgical I nfections 30. a.
b.
Complete the following about discitis: I n children, discitis m a nifests itself b y t h e child's refusal to or or Postop discitis is sugg ested when the and does not i. ESR is raised to c o m e down . ii. CRP is a bove _ mg/L at wks post-op. Interva l between s u rgery and radiological changes in d iscitis: weeks i. plain x-rays: ii. polytomography: _ weeks __
c.
__
31 . Regarding the treatment of discitis. a. a b. i c. Approaches for surgery (only needed in 2 5% of cases) i. a in the cervica l or thoracic reg ions in l u m ba r l ii. p reg ion __ _
_ _ _ _
___
___
____
32. Complete the following concerning psoas abscess: a. Psoas extends from to b. Psoas is the primary h i p c. innervated by . d . Pai n on h i p of psoas shadow e. CT shows f. inside the wi ng. __
___
_ _ _
__ __
wa l k or sta nd or sit
2 1 .5.3
2 1 .3.1
20 m m / h r 1 0; 2
1 2 ( 1 to 8 months ra nge) 3 to 8 weeks 2 1 .5.3
a ntibiotics im mobilization anterior posterior laminectomy 2 1 .5.4
T1 2 VB to LS VB flexor L2-4 flexion enlargement iliac
1 27
22 Other Nonbacterial lnfections
•
Viral Encepha litis 1.
a.
Complete the following regarding herpes simplex: H S E sta nds for
b. It has a pred ilection for the t I and I s c. Defi nitive diag nosis req u i res b and v b d . Treat prom ptly with b.
0
2. a. b.
22. 1 . 1
herpes simplex encephalitis tempora l , orbitofronta l lobes and l i m bic system brain biopsy and virus isolation Acyclovir
HSE has the following characteristics: CSF: EEG : p e discharges on electroencephalogra phy. I in t c. CT: e d . Hemorrhage o n means
leu kocytosis-monocytes period ic latera l izing epileptiform edema in tem pora l lobes CT; poorer prog nosis
e. f.
tra nssylvian sign HSE
M RI shows t s Significa nce: If bilatera l it is highly suggestive of
3. Transsylvian sign a . ind icates tem poral lobe e b. that extends across the s f General treatment for intracranial pressure (ICP) elevation involves the following: h a. e of b b. m c. h
22.1 .1
22.1 .1
edema Sylvian fissu re
4.
22.1 .1
elevate head of bed mannitol hyperventilate
Other Nonbacterial lnfections 5.
Complete the following concerning acyclovir treatment: a . T h e dose i s
22. 1 . 1
30 mg/kgfday ( i s divided every 8 hours) b. for a d u ration of days. 1 4 to 2 1 c. If you identify HSE before GCS d rops, you limit morta lity ca n l m _ _ _
Which inclusion body identifies VZV on brain biopsy? z a . VZV sta nds for v v
6.
___
Cowd ry type A
22. 1 .2
va ricella zoster virus
__ _
•
Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease 7.
a.
Complete the following about Creutzfeldt-jakob disease: CJ D sta nds for
_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
b. The prog nosis is c. The EEG shows
_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
_ _ _
d.
Prion sta nds for
e.
Classic histologic triad i. n I ii. a p s. iii. s Diag nostic triad i. d ii. E. iii. m
_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
inva ria bly fata l cha racteristic bilatera l sharp waves 0.5 to 2 . 0 per second proteinaceous infectious particles 22.2.8
_ _ _
_ _ _ _
22.2. 1 0
dementia EEG myoclonus
_ _ _
_ _ _ _ _ __
8.
Creutzfeldt-jakob d isease
neuronal loss astrocytic prol iferation status spongiosus
__ _
f.
22.2.1
Detection of protein in the CSF 1 4-3-3 ; has % sensitivity and specificity 96% for CJD among patients with dementia. ___
22.2. 1 0
__
9. What is the biopsy procedure in suspected CJD? a . Use a cranial saw b. to avoid of the infection. with the saw. c. Avoid cutting the d. Clea rly conta i ners. e. Fix in % phenolized form a l i n .
22.2. 1 0
manual aerosol ization d u ra label 1 5%
Neurosurgery Books
1 29
Part 6: Infection
1 30 •
Parasitic I nfections of the CNS 1 0. Regarding cysticercosis. a. Cau sed by which organism? b . A t which life cycle stage? c. The l ife cycle stages (4) include the followin g : i. e ii. a iii. e iv. I d . T h e cu rrent best test i s Complete the following statements about parasitic infections of the CNS: a . Cysticercosis is caused by t i. the p ii. T s b . Ech inococcus is caused by t i. the d g ii. E c. What is hydatid sand?
22.3.2
Taenia sol i u m l a rva l stage embryo a d u lt eggs l a rva enzyme-linked i m m u noelectrotra nsfer blot
11.
__
__
d.
Caution is advised d u ring remova l not to
1 2. a.
Describe the life cycle of cysticercosis. Pig contains in its flesh. with H u m a n s eat undercooked in it. Embryo matu res to a n The prod uces eggs. of the Eggs a re released in the human. The same or a different h u m a n the
b. c. d. e. f.
g . Eggs in this host release h . which bu rrow through the to i. La rva lands and develops a j. k.
a n d becomes a n in months.
22.3.2
pork ta peworm Taenia sol i u m 22.3.3
dog ta peworm Ech inococcus g ra n u losa germinating parasitic scoleces ru ptu re the Echinococcus cyst and conta m inate adjacent tissues 22.3.2
encysted embryo pork; embryo a d u lt a d u lt feces ingests t h e e g g s (from conta m i nated fi ngers, vegeta bles, or water) l a rvae small bowel wa l l to circu lation cyst wa l l encysted embryo 4
1 3. Answer the following concerning neurocysticercosis a . What is t h e perma nent host for t h e a d u lt h u m a n tapeworm? b. What is the intermed iate host? h u m a n or animal (pig)
22.3.2
Other Nonbacterial lnfections 1 4. Answer the following concerning neurocysticercosis a . What is t h e significa nce o f C T sca n with i. low-density cysts with eccentric punctate hig h-density spots in a n enha ncing ring? ii. a bove plus edema? iii. intra parenchymal punctate ca lcifications? b. What may soft tissue x-rays show?
c. What might M RI show? 1 5.
a. b.
Complete the following regarding CT in cysticercosis: Ri ng-enha ncing cysts suggest
l ntraparenchyma l punctate calcifications suggest Ring-enha ncing cyst with edema suggests or d i. r d with p ii.
22.3.2
livi ng cysticerci dyi ng cysticerci dead pa rasites calcifications in thigh or shoulder intraventricu l a r or cisternal cysts
l ivi ng cysticerci
22.3.2
dead parasites
___
c.
___
---
__
•
Fungal I nfections of the CNS 1 6. What organism can cause a cerebral abscess in an organ transplant patient? 1 7.
a. b.
Asperg i l l u s fu migatus
Name the most common fungal cryptococcosis infection of the CNS diagnosed in the living patient. Lumbar punctu re usually shows elevated, 75% open ing pressu re in % of patients. Seru m cryptococca l a ntigen is elevated with CNS involvement. ____
•
recently dead or dying pa rasite infl a m matory reaction
2 2 .4. 1
22.4.2
__
_ _ _
Amoebic I nfections of the CNS 1 8.
a. b. c. d. e. f.
Describe amoebic infections of the CNS. T h e only amoeba known t o cause infection is Infection occurs 5 days after exposu re in warm The amoeba gains entry to the CNS via m 0 9 5 % fata l with in due to Treat with
22.5.1
Naegleria fowleri freshwater olfactory mu cosa 1 week i iCP a m photericin B
1 31
23 Cerebrospinal Fluid
•
General I nformation 1 . The volume (ml) of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in a. a newborn is 5 b. an a d u lt is 1 50 2. What is the intracranial:spinal ratio of distribution of CSF in adults?
E •
50:50
Ta ble 2 3 . 1
Ta ble 2 3 . 1
Production 3. What percentage of CSF is produced in 80% t h e lateral ventricles? 4. Where is CSF produced other than in t h e choroid plexus? a. i s I of the v b. e
c.
d s
of n in s
5. The amount of CSF volume produced per day for a . a d u lts i s b. newborns is 6. What is the rate of CSF formation ml/min in adults? What is the CSF pressure in a patient in lateral decubitus position in the following age groups? a . newborn b. 1 to 1 0 yea rs old c. young a d u lt d. a d u lt
23.2 . 1
interstitia l space ependyma l lining of the ventricles d u ra of nerve root sleeves in spine 23.2.2
4 5 0 t o 750 m l/d 2 5 mL/d 0.3 to 0 . 5
7.
Complete the following concerning CSF: a . What is t h e rate o f CSF prod uction? b. That equals how m a ny m l per day?
23.2 . 1
23.2.2
Ta ble 2 3 . 1
9 to 1 2 em H20 < 15 < 1 8 to 20 < 1 8 (7 to 1 5 )
8.
23.2.2
0.3 to 0.5 ml/min 450 to 750
Cerebrospinal Fluid c.
d. e. f. g. 9.
•
Normal CSF has i. lym phocytes polymorphonuclear ii. leucocytes (PM N) iii. red blood cel l s ( RBCs) White blood cel l s (WBCs) a bove is suspicious. WBCs above is definitely abnorm a l . WBC for every Su btract RBCs. mg protein for every Su btract RBCs. Does intracranial pressure { ICP) have any effect on CSF formation?
0 to 5 0 0 5 to 1 0 1 0 WBCs per cubic m m 1 ; 700 1 ; 1 000 no (The rate of formation is pressu re except if the ICP is so high that it ca uses reduction in cerebra l blood flow [CBF) . )
Absorption 1 0.
Complete the following concerning CSF: a . True or Fa lse. CSF a bsorption is a pressu re-dependent phenomenon. b. Where does it take place? i. a, ____ v __ _
ii. c____ p iii. I
_ _ _ _
_ _ _
•
23.2.2
independen t of CSF
23.3
true a rachnoid vi l l i -+ d u ra l venous sinuses choroid plexus lym phatics
CSF Constituents 1 1 . True or False. The composition of CSF is exactly the same in the ventricles as in the lumbar subarachnoid space. 1 2. True or False. The following are normally found in CSF: a . lym phocytes b. mononuclear cells c. polymorphonuclear leucocytes d . RBCs 1 3. True or False. CSF osmolarity and plasma osmolarity are equal, with a ratio 1 :1 . What is the other constituent that is also equal among the following? a . Na b. K+ c. Cl d . lgG
fa lse (It d iffers slig htly. )
23.4. 1
23.4. 1
true true fa lse fa lse 23.4.2
true fa lse fa lse fa lse
1 33
1 34
Part 7: Hydrocephalus and Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF)
1 4. True or False. CSF proteins a . a re eq ual in a d u lts and children .
b.
in prematures a re - 60 mg/dl.
c.
i n newborn a re -40 mg/dl.
d.
norma lly rise - 1 mg/dl/yr o f a g e i n a d u lts.
2 3 .4.4
fa lse (30 mg/dl in a d u lts and 20 mg/dl in children) fa lse (in prematures 1 50 mg/dL) fa lse (a bout 80 mg/dl in newborn ) true
1 5.
How do you differentiate true leukocytosis from normal white blood cell count incl uded in the traumatic tap? a . ratio of to b. normal is c . or su btract 1 W B C for every
1 6. What conditions would affect the WBC:RBC ratio of 1 :700? a. a b. p
Ta ble 2 3 . 4
RBC to WBC 700 : 1 700 RBCs Ta ble 23.4
anemia periphera l leu kocytosis
1 7.
How would you estimate the correct protein in the CSF of a traumatic tap? mg of protein a . Su btract RBCsf mm3 . b. for every
1 8. Answer the following about subarachnoid hemorrhage: a . How l o n g does i t ta ke for R B C to disappear? b. How long does it ta ke for xa nthoch romia to d isappear?
•
Ta ble 2 3 . 4
1 1 000 Ta ble 23.4
2 weeks many weeks
Cranial CSF Fistula 1 9.
Rosenmuller's fossa is located just to the
inferior to the cavernous sinus ( Rose n m u l ler's fossa is located just inferior to the cavernous sinus exposed by drilling the anterior clinoid in a paraclinoid aneurysm . Upper latera l pharyngeal recess. Lim ited a bove by the sphenoid and occipita l bone com m u nicates with the nasal cavities.)
20. True or False. The following are characteristics of traumatic CSF fistula: a. They occur i n 2 to 3% of all patients with true head inj u ry. b. 60% a re noted with in days of tra u m a . true c. 95% occur within 3 months of tra u m a . true
Neurosurgery Books
23.5.2
23.5.3
Cerebrospinal Fluid d . < 5% o f cases o f CSF rhinorrhea stop within 1 week. e. Ad u lt:child ratio is 1 : 1 0. f. Occu rrence is common before age 2 years. g. Anosmia is com mon. h . Most C S F otorrhea ceases in 5 t o 1 0 days. 21 .
a. b.
Complete the following concerning posttraumatic CSF fistula: Rhinorrhea stops withi n week in %. Otorrhea stops with in to days in to %. __
__
fa lse (70% of cases stop within 1 week.) fa lse (adu lt:child ratio is 1 0: 1 ) fa lse (occu rrence u n common prior to 2 yea rs of age) true (78% have a nosm ia.) true 23.5.3
1 ; 70% 5 to 1 0; 80 to 85%
__
22. True or False. Regarding CSF fistulas. a . Anosmia is com mon i n tra u m atic leaks. b. Anosmia is com mon i n sponta neous leaks. 23. Study Chart. a . Regarding sponta neous CSF fistu la: ( H i nt: spontaneous fistula h)
23.5.3
true (78% in tra u m atic leaks) fa lse (ra re insponta neous leaks; approxi mately 5%} 23.5.3
sense of smell preserved pneumocephalus is not common otitis media neck stiffness tu mor-pitu ita ry-mening ioma allergic rh initis meningitis em pty sella synd rome otitis media may result in CSF leak undeveloped floor of anterior fossa sense of smell preserved cri briform plate agenesis sinusitis (paranasal sinusitis) foot plate of sta pes is dehiscent-CSF into eustachian tube facia l ca nal fistula i nto middle ear insidious, /CP is high interm ittent serous effusion tra nssphenoidal surgery conseq uence unable to hear d u e to M u nd in i dysplasia labyri nthine anomalies adenoma of pituita ry hyd rocepha I us
1 35
Part 7: Hydrocephalus and Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF)
1 36 •
Meningitis in CSF Fistula 24. The infection rate for a . penetrating inju ries and C S F fistu las i s %. b. penetrati ng inj u ries without fistula is %. 25.
a.
Complete the following concerning meningitis in CSF fistula: Posttra u m atic CSF leak has a n incidence of meningitis of to %. Does CSF leakage after surgery have a higher or lower incidence of meningitis? If the leakage site is not identified before su rgery, fai l u re to close CSF leaks is %. T h e most common pathogen i s and its percentage is %. __
b. c. d.
•
23.7
50% 4.6% 23.7
5 to 1 0%
__
higher 30% (recu rrent leak postop) Pneumococcus; 83%
Eval uation of the Patient with CSF Fistula 26. What are the characteristics of the fluid suggesting the presence of rhinorrhea or otorrhea resulting from a CSF fistula? a . CSF fl uid i s
b. True or Fa lse. Fluid ca uses excoriation. c. d.
Fluid tastes G l u cose is g reater than
e.
It contains a special chemical ca lled
mg %.
23.8.1
as clear as water ( u n less infected or blood present). fa lse (Fluid doesn't cause excoriation of the nose.) salty (in rhinorrhea). normal CSF g l u cose > 30 mg %. �rtra nsferrin (present i n CSF)
f. The special sign when it d rops on a sheet ring sign (An old but is ca lled a u n reliable sign. Described as a ring of blood surrounded by a larger concentric ring of clear fl uid [suggests the presence of CSF) seen when blood-tinged fl uid a l l owed to d rip onto linen [sheet or pillowcase] . ) 27.
Name five characteristics of fluid that suggest the presence of CSF fistula. H i nt: bcsfg a. B b. c c. s d. f e. g
23.8.1
�rtra nsferrin clear sa lty taste fl uid does not excoriated g l u cose
Cerebrospinal Fluid •
Treatment for CSF Fistula 28. True or False. The procedure of choice to localize the site of CSF fistula is a . mag netic resonance imaging b. iohexol cisternography c. computed tomography with intravenous contrast d . plain x-ray
•
23.9.2
fa lse true fa lse fa lse
I ntracranial Hypotension (Sponta neous) 29.
Spontaneous intracranial hypotension i s characterized by h a. 0 c p b. I e c. d p __
___
30. Characteristics on imaging that suggest intracranial hypotension ( H int: SEEPS) a. s b b. E
c. d. e.
E
v h f
p
s
31 . True or False. Epidural blood patch provides relief for the majority of patients. 32.
a. b. c. d. e.
Conservative management for intracranial hypotension incl udes b r h a c a b __
__
2 3 . 1 0. 1
orthostatic headache low CSF pressu re diffuse pachymeningial enha ncement 2 3 . 1 0. 1
sagging bra i n enha ncement (pachymeningeal) engorged vei ns pitu ita ry hyperemia subdura l fl uid true
2 3 . 1 0. 1
2 3 . 1 0. 1
bed rest hydration analgesics caffeine abdom i n a l binder
1 37
B
24 Hydrocephalus - General Aspects
•
Etiologies of Hyd rocephalus 1.
a. b. c.
Complete the following statements about hydrocephalus: Incidence of congenita l hyd rocepha l u s is %. Due to either CSF resorption or CSF ___
2. True or False. Indicate if the following are considered "true" hydrocephalus: a. hyd rocephalus ex vacuo b. obstructive hyd rocephalus c. com m u n icating hyd rocephalus Regarding the characteristics of the etiology of hydrocephalus. a. True or Fa lse. There is excess prod uction of CSF. b. True or Fa lse. There is impaired a bsorption of CSF. c. True or Fa lse. It is congenita l without myelomeningocele. d . Congenita l with myelomeningocele usually occu rs with e. Chiari I, if a cause, has
24.3 . 1
0.2% su bnorm a l overprod uction 24.3 . 1
fa lse true true
3.
f. Aq ueducta l stenosis presents sym ptom s in g . Secondary aqueducta l stenosis is d u e to , or h. Atresia of foramina of Luschka and Magendie is ca l led
24.3 . 2
true true true Chiari I I fou rth ventricle outlet obstruction infancy intrauteri ne infection, hemorrhage, or tumor Dandy-Wa l ker synd rome
Hydrocephalus - General Aspects 4.
Complete the following concerning etiologies of hydrocephalus: a. % of post-op pediatric postfossa tumor patients develop hyd rocephalus and need a s h u nt. b. This may be delayed for u p to c. Dandy-Wa l ker ma lformation occu rs in what percentage of patients with hyd rocephal us?
_ _ _
•
1 39
24.3 . 2
20% 1 yea r 2 .4%
Sig ns and Symptoms of HCP 5.
a. b. c. d. e. f.
list the signs a n d symptoms o f active hydrocephalus in older children/adults with rigid cranial vault. h headache n nausea vom iting v gait; bladder control changes in g and b c p papilledema u g p u pwa rd gaze palsy ___
__
__
list signs and symptoms of hydrocephalus in young children. ( H i nt: hyd rocephal usss) a. h b. y c. d
6.
d. e.
0
f.
c
g. h.
e p
i. j.
h a
k. I. m. n. 0.
7.
24.4. 1
r
u s s s Occipital frontal circumference (OFC) in the normal child should equal the distance from crown to
24.4.2
hyd roceph a l u s young (children) di plopia (on latera l gaze; abd ucens palsy) respi ratory pattern (irreg u l a r) outwa rd protrusion of fontanelle cracked pot sou nd of Macewen enlargement of cra n i u m poor h e a d control, Parinaud synd rome hyperactive reflexes a pneic spells, abducens nerve palsy l a rge head u pward gaze palsy sca l p veins prominent setti ng s u n sign splaying of cranial sutu res (seen on plain sku l l x-rays) ru m p
Neurosurgery Books
24.4.2
FDI
B
1 40
Part 7: Hydrocephalus and Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF)
For the indicated ages give the expected normal head circumference pattern. { H int: At 33 weeks the circu mference is 33 em . In a child younger than 33 weeks the head circu mference is g reater in em than the age of the child in weeks old. After 33 weeks head circu mference g rowth slows so that at 40 weeks of age the head circu mference is 36 em.) a . Prematu re (ages in weeks) i. 28 ii. 29 iii. 3 0 iv. 3 1 v. 3 2 vi . 3 3 vii . 3 4 viii. 3 5 ix. 36 X. 37 xi . 3 8 xii. 3 9 xiii. 4 0 b. Fu l l term (ages in months) {Hint: Note the pattern; with each month head circu mference increases by 1 em.) i. 1 ii. 2 iii. 3 iv. 4 v. 5 vi . 6 c. What is the u pper limit of head circu mference for a ba by? i. 28 weeks gestational age ii. 3 3 weeks gestational age iii. 2 months old iv. 3 months old v. 4 months old vi . 6 months old
Fig. 24. 1
8.
a.
Blindness in hydrocephalus may be due to: {Hint: pop) p
b.
0
c
c
p
c
a
9.
c.
0
29 cm 30 cm 3 1 em 3 1 . 5 cm 32 e m 33 e m 33.5 em 34 cm 34.5 em 35 em 3 5 em 35.5 em 36 cm
40 cm 42 em 43 em 44 cm 45 em 46 cm 29 cm 33 em 42 em 43 em 44 cm 46 cm 24.4.3
papilledema (chronic-optic atrophy-damage to optic d isc) optic chiasm compression (due to dilation of third ventricle) posterior cerebral a rtery occlusion (compressed at tentorial edge d u e to downward herniation)
Hydrocephalus - General Aspects 1 0.
a.
b.
Types of blindness from hydrocephalus are and Cha racteristics for pre b n i. 0 a s ii. p -p iii. d u e to p ,h a Cha racteristics for post b n a i. 0 m ii. p -n or iii. d u e to
Cortical blindness may be associated with of a . Anton 's synd rome = d d v of b. Ridoch 's phenomenon = a m , but n_ 0 a of s 0
pregeniculate blind ness and postgeniculate blind ness
•
optic nerve atrophy-severe pupillary reflexes-poor pressure, hypotension, anemia postgeniculate blind ness optic nerve atrophy-m inimal pupillary reflexes-norm a l hypoxia or trauma (macular sparing in PCA occlusion, no macu lar sparing in tra u m a to occi put) 24.4.3
denial of visual deficit
FDI
appreciation of movi ng objects, but no appreciation of stationary objects
CT/ M RI Criteria for Hyd rocephalus 1 2. Hydrocephalus-radiologic criteria: mm. a . Tempora l horns' width is > b. Fronta l horns ballooning look l i ke M M c. Tra nsependymal d. Ratio of fronta l horns to internal dia meter of brain. e. Anteroposterior {AP) view shows
f. Third ventricle on AP view shows g. h. i.
•
24.4.3
pregeniculate blind ness
11.
---
Eva ns ratio > Corpus ca llosum is and shows
and
24. 5 . 2
2 mm Mickey Mouse edema 50% disproportion of ventricle size and cortical su lci bowing latera lly 0.3 thin/atrophic stretching and u pwa rd bowi ng
Chronic HCP 1 3. a. b. c.
Characteristics of chronic HCP: Inner ta ble shows Sella shows --,-Corpus callosum shows .
____ _ _ _ _
___
1 41
24.7
beaten copper cra n i u m erosion atrophy
1 42 •
Part 7: Hydrocephalus and Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF)
External Hyd rocephalus (AKA Benign External Hyd rocephalus) 1 4.
a. b. c. d. e. 1 5.
Complete the following about external hydrocephalus: Malignant or benign? spaces over the Enlarged s f poles in the f yea r o f life. Resolves by age . __
__
External hydrocephalus may be distinguished from subdural hematoma by the presence of c v s __
1 6.
24.8 . 1
benign subarachnoid frontal first 2 yea rs of age cortical vein sign
24.8 . 1
vei ns; inner ta ble
24.8 . 1
hyd rocephalus; inherited
24.9 . 1
__ __ _
The cortical vein sign shows extending from the brain to the i t of the skull on a or MRI.
__ __
__
•
X-linked Hydrocepha lus 1 7. X-linked hydrocephalus that is a. is a type of h
b.
occu rs in % of patients with hyd rocephalus. c. Gene is located on d . I t causes abnormality in m r and l e. prod uces classical synd romes ( H i nt: crash) h i. c c. ii. iii. a, t iv. s p v. h __ __
_ _ _
__
____
_____
_____
__ _ _
__ __
__ _ _
_ _ _
Complete the following regarding radiographic finding of l1 syndrome: a. Large i. p h ii. m iii. q p b. Small (hypoplastic) i. c c. ii. c v c. Rippled i. v w d . Which featu re is pathog nomon ic? i. r v w e. Available treatment for reta rdation?
2% Xq28 mem brane receptor and Ll CAM
24.9.2
24.9.3
corpus ca llosum hypoplasia reta rdation adducted th u m bs spastic pa ralysis hyd rocephalus
1 8.
_ _ _
_ _ _
__ _
_ __ _
___
_ __ _
___
__ _
__ _
_ _ _
24.9.3
posterior horn massa interm edia quadrigeminal plate corpus callosum cerebellar vermis ventricu lar wa l l ri ppled ventricu l a r wa l l none
Hydrocephalus - General Aspects •
"Arrested Hydrocephalus" 1 9. True or False. With regard to "arrested hydrocephalus": a. It is interchangeable with the term "u ncom pensated hyd rocephalus." b. Arrested hyd rocephalus satisfies the fol lowing criteria in the a bsence of a cerebrospinal fl uid (CSF} shu nt: i. ventriculomegaly nonprog ressive ii. normal head g rowth curve iii. contin ued psychomotor development 20. True or False. When deemed "arrested," no further follow-up is needed. 21 . True or False. Shunt dependency is likely in hydrocephalus due to a . aqueducta l stenosis b. spina bifida c. com m u n icating hyd rocephalus (i.e., secondary to arachnoidal ad hesions
24. 1 0. 1
fa lse
true true true fa lse (deterioration can sti l l occu r)
24. 1 0 . 2
24. 1 0 . 2
true true fa lse (shunt independence more l i kely to occur)
22. True or False. With respect to a disconnected or nonfunctioning shunt: a . A disconnected s h u nt m a y conti n u e to true fu nction by CSF flow through a su bcuta neous fibrous tract. b. If in doubt, better to watch, not s h u nt. fa lse c. Patients with a nonfu nctioning s h u nt fa lse should not be fol l owed with serial CT scans but possi bly with serial neuropsychological eva l uations.
•
1 43
24. 1 0.3
Entra pped Fourth Ventricle 23.
a. b. c. d.
Complete the following about entrapped fourth ventricle. Usually seen with c s of the I v Possibly d u e to a Occu rs in _ to _% of patients with shu nts. True or Fa lse. M a y b e treated with a sepa rate VP s h u nt or by l i n king into a n existing s h u nt.
chronic s h u nting of the latera l ventricles adhesions 2 to 3% true
24. 1 1 . 1
24. 1 1 . 3
FDI
1 44 •
Part 7: Hydrocephalus and Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF)
Normal Pressure Hyd rocepha lus ( N PH ) 24. What are the symptoms of normal pressure hydrocephal us? (Hint: dig) a. d b. c. g _ __
_ _ _ _
24. 1 2 . 1
dementia (wacky) incontinence of u rine (wet) gait distu rba nces (wobbly)
25. What is the etiology? (Hint: mista pa) a. m b. c. s d . t. e. a f. pg. A
meningitis id iopathic subarachnoid hemorrhage tra u m a aqueducta l stenosis posterior fossa surgery Alzheimer's disease
26.
In clinical triad, which symptom precedes the others?
gait distu rbance
27.
Note the clinical features of NPH as expected {+) or not expected {-). wide-based gait shuffling steps u nsteadiness on turning difficult in itiati ng steps feel g l u ed to the floor ataxia of l i m bs slowness of thought u nwitting u rinary incontinence papilledema seizu re headaches
24. 1 2 . 1
_ _ _ _
__ _
__ _
__ _
__ _
__ _
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j. k.
Ta ble 24.3
+ + + + +
+
28. What is the upper limit opening pressure suggested for the definition of NPH?
24 em H20
29. What is the tap test?
LP with remova l of CSF and assessment of response. 40 to 50 m l of CSF
a.
How m u c h C S F is withd rawn?
30. What is the procedure of choice for treatment of NPH? a. Com p l ication rates may be as high as %. b. Com p lications include: i. s h or h
VP shunt 35%
___
_ __
ii. s iii. i iv. s
i
h
_ _ _
_ _ _ _
24. 1 2 . 3
subdura l hematoma or hyg roma s h u nt infection intracerebral hemorrhage seizu res
Neurosurgery Books
24. 1 2 . 5
24. 1 2 . 5
24. 1 2 . 8
Hydrocephalus - General Aspects 31 .
a. b. c.
•
In NPH what is the sequence in which symptoms are likely to improve with shunting? H i nt: igd
g d
__ _ __ _
1 45
24. 1 2 . 9
incontinence gait dementia
Hyd rocephalus and Preg nancy 32.
a. b. c.
d. e. f. 33.
a. b.
34. a. b.
c. d.
Patients with shunt for hydrocephalus should, prior t o conception, or have u p-to-date have assessment of a ny m If prospective mother's hyd rocephalus is accom pan ied by a neura l tube defect (NTD), her child cou l d be born with a n to N T D incidence of %. have genetic c sta rt ta king v avoid excessive h If shunt malfunctions during pregnancy, shunt revision is performed in t h e first two trimesters using a
in the third trimester using a or a shu nt. During labor and delivery use p a If patient is asymptomatic, del ivery is performed . If patient is symptomatic, deliver via
I n li ght o f increased cranial pressu re avoid
24. 1 3 . 1
CT or M RI med ications 2 to 3%
cou nseling vita mins heat 24. 1 3 . 3
revised VP s h u nt ventriculo-atrial or ventriculopleura l 24. 1 3 . 4
prophylactic a ntibiotics vaginal cesa rea n epid u rals
FDI
25 Treatment of Hydrocephalus
•
Medical Treatment of Hyd rocephalus Answer the following about the treatment of hydrocephalus: a. True or Fa lse. Hyd rocepha l u s is a medica l ly treated condition . b. Diu retic thera py ca n include a and f c. Be sure to watch for the complication of 1.
__ _
_ _ _
d.
Role o f spinal ta ps in hyd rocephalus is to t. _ _ _
e.
•
Critica l protein level of CSF is
__ _
fa lse (mainly to be treated surgical ly) acetazolamide and fu rosemide electrolyte imbala nces tem porize ( Hyd rocepha l u s after intraventricu lar hemorrhage may be only tra nsient, and serial ta ps [ventricu lar or l u m bar] may tem porize until resorption resu mes, but l u m ba r taps ca n be performed only for com m u nicating hyd rocephalus.) 1 00 mg/dl (If rea bsorption does not resume when protein content of CSF is <1 00 mg/dl, then it is u n l i kely that sponta neous resorption wi l l occur and a shunt wi l l usually be necessa ry.)
25.1
25. 1 . 1
25.2
Spinal Taps 2.
a. b.
Complete the following concerning spinal taps and hydrocephalus: CSF wi l l not be Protein a bove a bsorbed. CSF may be Protein below a bsorbed. ___
25.2
1 00 mgfdL 1 00 mg/dl
Treatment of Hydrocephalus •
Endoscopic Third Ventricu lostomy Complete the following concerning surgery and hydrocephalus: a. Third ventriculostomy when looking into ventricle i. Where is thalamostriate vein? ii. Where is septa l vein? iii. Where is choroid plexus? b. Where is punctu re of third ventricle to occu r? c. I nto the d . Watch o u t for e. Success rate is % for a s f. but o n ly 20% for p p
3.
_ _ __
_ _ _
_ _ _ _
_ _ _
•
2 5 .4.3
latera l wa l l m e d i a l wa l l enters fora men o f Monro a nterior to m a m m i l l a ry bodies interped uncular cistern basilar a rtery approximately 56% for aqueducta l stenosis preexisti ng pathology
25.4.5
Shunts 4. Concerning shunts and hydrocephalus, what type of shunts do you know? (Hint: pal mt) a. v p -a b. v c. I d. m s
e. T
s
5. What is shunt usage priority? a . most often used: b. abdom i n a l a bnorm a l ity:
_ _ _ _ _ ___ ___ _
c.
pseudotu mor cerebri:
d. e.
a lternative: acq u i red obstructive hyd rocephalus:
_ _ _ _
_ _ _ __ _
25.5.1
ventriculoperitoneal ventricu lo-atrial l u m boperitoneal miscellaneous shu nts ventriculopleura l Torki ldsen s h u nt (ventricle cisterna magna) 25.5.1
ventriculoperitoneal s h u nt ventricu loatrial s h u nt; Su rgery; peritonitis; morbid obesity l u m boperitoneal s h u nt-sma l l ventricles miscella neous shu nts Torki ldsen s h u nt
1 47
Part 7: Hydrocephalus and Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF)
1 48
a. b.
Which are the miscellaneous shunts? H i nt: g u pc g u
c. d.
c.___
6.
7.
_ _ _ _ _ _ _
p
_ _ _ _
Name six possible shunt complications. H i nt: odesma
a . o. b. d c. e d. s
____ _ _ _
_ _ _
_ _ _
e. f.
m a
8.
a. b. c. d.
What are ventriculoperitoneal shunt complications? 2 H i nt: h alo3 mvps h h a I
e.
o.____
f.
o.___
g. h.
_ _ _ _
_ _ _
___ _ _ _ _
_ _ _
_ _ _
o m
___ _
i. v j. P· k. s
_ _ _
_ _ _ _ ---
_ __
25.5.1
ventricle to g a l l bladder s h u nt ventricle to u reter or bladder shunt ventriculopleura l s h u nt cyst s h u nt (arachnoid cyst or subdura l Hyg roma cavity to peritoneum) 25.5.2
obstruction d isconnection of s h u nt pa rts erosion through ski n seizu res-5 . 5 % fi rst yea r, 1 . 1 % after 3 yea rs metastases of tumor cel l s allergy t o sil icone 25.5.2
hernia-inguinal 1 7% hyd rocele CSF ascites lengthen catheter with g rowth (preventa ble) obstruction by omentum or debris, peritoneal cyst (infection or ta lc from surgical g l oves), severe peritoneal ad hesions, mal position of catheter tip, col la psed ventricu l a r wa l l , choroid obstruction or stra n g u lation of intestine overs h u nting migration of tip to: scrotum perforation of stomach, bladd er, diaphragm volvu l u s periton itis subdura l hematoma
Treatment of Hydrocephalus 9.
What are ventriculoatrial shunt complications? {Hint: l iverssh) I
a. b. c. v d. e. f.
e r s
g. h.
s h
1 0. What are lumboperitoneal shunt complications? (Hint: Ca rols) a. c
•
b. c.
a r
d.
0
e. f.
s
25.5.2
lengthening in children infection vascu lar perforation thro m bophlebitis p u l m onary microemboli s h u nt embolus retrograde blood flow su perior vena cava obstruction subdura l hematoma hypertension ( p u l m onary) 25.5.2
Chiari I malformation {70% made worse) a rachnoid itis and ad hesions radiculopathy (from tube hard to control) overs h u nting (sixth and seventh cranial nerve dysfu nction) leakage of CSF scoliosis due to l a m i nectomy { 1 4% in children)
Shunt Problems 1 1 . What are the two most common shunt problems? a. u b. 1 2. True or False. a. Radiographic s h u nt eva luation involves plain x-rays. b. "Shunt series" is used to ru le out disconnection or migration of tip. c. "Shu nt-o-g ra m " is used if s h u nt fu nction ca n not be reliably ascerta ined by other imaging. 1 3. When do you tap the shunt? a. To study CSF for i. i ii. c iii. b b. To assess fu nction: i. measure p ii. insti l l c iii. inject m
25.6.1
undersh u nting infection 25.6.3
true ("shunt series") true true
25.6.3
infection cytology blood press u re contrast medication
Neurosurgery Books
1 49
1 50
Part 7: Hydrocephalus and Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF)
1 4. When tapping a shunt, what is normal CSF pressure measured from the ventricle? 1 5. What are acute symptoms of undershunting? {Hint: salvadibh) a. s b. a c. I d. v e. a f. d g. i h. b i. h 1 6. What are signs of acute increase in intracranial pressure? 4 2 (Hint: p b ) a. p b. p c. p d. p e. b f. b 1 7. What are complications of overshunting? 4 {Hint: s i) a. s b. s c. s d. s
e. 1 8. Regarding intracranial hypotension. a. When patient is erect, col u m n of CSF e prod uces a s b. Diag nose by documenting a d rop in ICP when patient changes from to position. 1 9.
less than 1 5 em of CSF in relaxed recu m bent position
25.6.3
seizu res ataxia letha rgy vom iti ng a pnea diplopia irrita bil ity bradyca rd ia headache 25.6.3
Parinaud 's synd rome palsy of abd ucens papil ledema prominent sca l p vei ns blind ness or field cut bulging fonta nelle 25.6.6
slit ventricles 1 2% subdura l hem atoma/ hyg roma sylvia n aqueduct occlusion sku l l changescraniosynostosis or microcephaly intracranial hypotension 25.6.6
siphon effect supine to erect
Slit ventricles can be diagnosed by 0.2 frontal-occipital horn ratio of less than
Name categories of patients with slit ventricles. {Hint: pahms) a. p b. a c. h d. m e. s
Ta ble 2 5 . 2
20.
25.6.6
25.6.6
pseudotu mor cerebri asym ptomatic slit ventricles intracranial hypotension migraine slit ventricle synd rome
Treatment of Hydrocephalus 21 .
Complete the following concerning hydrocephalus and subdural hematomas (SDs): a . A cause o f SD in patients with shu nts i s of the bra i n and
b.
Risk factors i. b ii. I iii. n
a -s v
h p
--
25.6.8
col l a pse; tearing o f the bridging veins bra i n atrophy long-standing hyd rocephalus negative ventricu l a r pressu re
22.
If subdural hematoma develops as a shunt complication the subdural is located on a . t h e s a m e side as t h e s h u nt %. b. opposite side of the s h u nt %. c. bilatera l ly %.
23. Treatment for subdural hematoma that occurs due to shunting for hydrocephalus could include ( H int: bcdht) a. b b. c c. d
d. h e. t
•
25.6.8
32% 21% 47% 25.6.8
b u rr holes craniotomy d rainage-subdura l peritoneal s h u nt higher pressure s h u nt tie off s h u nt
Instructions to Patients 24. True or False. In VP shunt and laparoscopic surgery, abdominal insufflation can increase ICP. 25.
How often does the patient have to pump the shunt?
true
Patient m ust not touch the p u m p u n less instructed to do so.
25.9
25.9
1 51
26 Seizure Classification and Anti-Convulsant Pharmacology
•
Seizure Classification 1. a. b. c.
Seizure may be classified by t e e s __
__
__
__
2. list the major types of primarily generalized seizures. a. m b. a c. g d . c. e. a f. t. _ _ _
_ _ _ _ _ _ _
_ _ _
_ _ _
____
3. What are the major differences between primarily generalized and partial seizures? a. Pri mari ly general ized i. a reas involved ii. percent of seizu res iii. consciousness iv. significa nce
b.
Partial i. a reas involved ii. percent of seizu res iii. consciousness iv. significa nce
26. 1 . 1
type etiology epileptic synd rome 26. 1 . 1
myoclonic atonic (drop attacks) genera l ized (grand-mal) clonic a bsence (petit-mal) tonic 26. 1 . 1
bilatera l and sym metrica l 40% of a l l seizures loss of consciousness at onset does not suggest structu ra l lesion one hemisphere 57% of a l l seizures no loss of consciousness suggests structu ra l lesion
Seizure Classification and Anti-Convulsant Pharmacology 4.
a. b. c. d. 5.
a. b.
Matching. Match the type of seizure with its listed characteristic(s). More than one may apply. Cha racteristics: CD 3% of seizu res; 0 40% of seizures; G) 57% of seizures; @ consciousness lost from onset; ® ton ic-clonic motor activity; ® involves both hemispheres; 0 no posticta l confusion; ® spike and wave 3/s; ® represents a structura l lesion genera lized partial u nclassified a bsence The main difference is that simple partial seizures have of a n d complex partial seizu res have of
Briefly describe the following characteristics of absence seizures a . motor involvement b . posticta l state c . loss of consciousness d . characteristic eeg pattern e . effect of hyperventilation
26. 1 . 1
0. @ . ® . ® G) . ® CD 0. ® 26. 1 . 1
no loss of consciousness loss of consciousness
6.
26. 1 . 1
a bsent a bsent a bsent 3/s spike and wave induces seizures
7.
Briefly describe the following characteristics of uncinate seizures: a . Arise from b . Prod uce h a l l ucinations of c . Kakosmia is perception of where none exist. Complete the following about seizures: a . What is the most common cause of intracta ble tem pora l lobe epilepsy? b . due to c . treated by
26. 1 . 1
!I
u ncus-hippocampus odor bad odor
8.
9. True or False. Patients with mesial temporal lobe epilepsy have higher incidence of complicated febrile seizures than in other epilepsy types.
1 53
26. 1 . 1
mesia l tem poral sclerosis cel l loss in hi ppoca m pus medication u nti l refractory, then su rgery true
26. 1 . 1
1 54
Part 8: Seizures
Name factors that reduce seizure threshold. ( H i nt: seizu re history) a. s b. e c. d. Z. e. u f. r g. e
1 0.
_ __
__
_ _ _
_ _ _
_ _ _
_ __
h.
h
__ _
i. i j. s k. t. I. o m. r
_ _ _ _ _ __
_ _ _ _ _ _
_ _ _ _
n.
y___
1 1 . Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy is characterized by seizure types: a. m j predomina ntly after
26. 1 .3
stroke elevated tem peratu re, fever infection, intoxication "zzzs" lost (sleep deprivation) u remia repeated seizu res (kindling) electrolyte i m bala nce pH, Mg++, low N a , high Ca++ hyperventilation, hyponatremia, hypog lycemia, hyperca lcemia ischemia sti m u l ation (photic) tra u m a , tumor opioids remova l or withd rawa l of a lcohol or AEDs suddenly youth (birth asphyxia , congenita l centra l nervous system a bnormalities) 3
26. 1 .3
__
__
___
t -c b. g c. a d . Patients with J M E a re most responsive to __
__
_ _ _
___ _
1 2.
Infantile spasms in West syndrome usually have a dramatic response to or
____
1 3.
a. b. c. d.
myoclonic jerks after wa king genera l ized tonic-clonic a bsence Depa kote ACTH or corticosteroids
26. 1 .3
_ _ _
Complete the following about lennoxGastaut syndrome: Usually begins in childhood a s atonic seizu res (drop attacks) a s Seizu res a re usually d to . difficult to treat 50% of cases have red uced seizu res with va l proic acid
26. 1 .3
___ _
___
__
c c may red uce the n u m ber of atonic seizu res.
1 4. Describe Todd's paralysis. a . occu rs after b. causes c. resolves with d . another n a m e for i t is
corpus ca llosotomy 26. 1 .3
__ _
_ _ _
_ __
___ _ _ _
seizu re weakness ti me ( 1 /2 to 36 hours) posticta l para lysis
Neurosurgery Books
Seizure Classification and Anti-Convulsant Pharmacology •
1 55
Antiepileptic Drugs 1 5. What % of patients can achieve control o f seizures with medical therapy? 1 6. What AEDs interfere with platelet function and may increase the risk of bleeding complications? a. b. 1 7.
a. b. c. d. e.
Indicate the drug of choice for each type of seizure Genera l ized tonic-clonic i. ii. Absence i. ii. Myoclonic Tonic or atonic Pa rtia l i. ii.
75%
26.2 . 1
26.2.2
phenytoin va l proic acid 26.2.3
va l proic acid phenytoin va lproic acid ethosuximide lorazepam lorazepam carbamazepine phenytoin
1 8. True or False. Increase a given medication until seizures are controlled or side effects become intolerable, but do not rely soley on therapeutic levels which are only a range in which most patients have seizure control without side effects.
true
26.2.4
1 9. True or False. 80% of epileptics can be controlled on monotherapy.
true
26.2.4
20. True or False. Only 1 0% of epileptics benefit significantly from the addition of a second drug.
true
26.2.4
2 1 . True or False. If more than two AEDs are required, consider whether the patient might have nonepileptic seizures.
true
26.2.4
22.
5 ha lf-l ives
26.2.4
If a loading dose is not given, it takes half-lives to reach steady state.
__
23. a.
Give the characteristics of phenytoin. ha lf-l ife:
b.
oral loading dose:
c.
Ca n we use I M route?
26.2.4
24 hours, ra nge 9 to 1 40 hours 300 PO every 4 hours u ntil 1 7 mgfkg no
!I
B
1 56 d. e. f. 24. a. b.
c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j. k. I. m. n.
Part 8: Seizures rate b y IV: perm itted solution: How many days to reach steady state? Side effects of phenytoin a b
26.2.4
ataxia birth control pills less effective cog nitive dysfu nction d rug intercations, Prozac epidermal necrolysis gingiva l hyperplasia hirsutism l iver g ra n u lomas megaloblastic anemia newborn hemorrhage osetoma lacia papular rash rickets Steven-johnson synd rome/SLE teratogenic vita m i n D a ntagonism
c d e g h I m n 0
p r s
t p. v
0.
Describe carbamazepine Ind ication i. p s ii. t n b. Therapeutic levels c . S i d e effects i. a ii. a iii. a iv. b v. c vi . d vii . d viii. D ix. e X. f xi. g xii. xiii. s xiv. s
25. a.
26.2.4
partial seizu res trigeminal neuralgia 6 to 1 2 mcg f m l ataxia aplastic anemia a g ra n u locytosis blood dyscrasia cym etidine d rowsiness di plopia Darvon erythromycin fata l hepatitis G l u pset isoniazid Steven-johnson synd rome SIADH
26. Describe carbamazepine. a. Also known as b. Test for C ,p ,i c. Test accord ing to what sched ule i. time(s) per week for
___
ii.
ti me (s) per month for --- ---
not more than 50 mgfmin normal saline 7 to 2 1 days
26.2.4
Teg retol CBC, platelets, i ron 1 ; 3 months 1 ; 3 yea rs
Seizure Classification and Anti-Convulsant Pharmacology
1 57
d.
Disconti nue d rug if the levels of the following blood components fa l l below what level i. wbc ii. rbc iii. H ct iv. platelets v. reticu locytes vi . i ron rises pill per e. I ncrease dose as follows: per . __
___
4,000 3 , 000,000 32 1 00,000 0.3% higher than 1 50 meg% 1 pill per day per week
___
27. True or False. When used for treatment of trigeminal neuralgia or partial seizures with or without generalization, carbamazepine has a. erratic oral a bsorption although oral suspension is a bsorbed more readi ly. b. d ra m atic elevation levels with cimetidine, ison iazid , erythromycin , and Darvon d rug-d rug interaction. 28. True or False. Regarding oxcarbamazepine. a . U n l ike carbamazepine, there is no a uto induction. b . There is liver toxicity. c . There is no hematolog ic toxicity. d . Dosing is B I D. 29. Describe valproate. a . Also known as b . Ind ication to c . Thera peutic level is d . Side effects (l ist at least 5) __
26.2.4
true true
26.2.4
true fa lse true true 26.2.4
___
.
Depa kote general ized tonic-clonic 50 to 1 00 mcgfml confusion, d rowsiness, hair loss, l iver fa i l u re, neura l tube defects, hypera m monemia, platelet dysfu nction, teratogenic, tremor, weight gain
!I
30. True or False. Acetylsalicyclic acid displaces valproic acid from serum protein.
true
26.2.4
31 . True or False. Valproic acid causes neural tube defects in 1 to 2% of patients.
true
26.2.4
B
1 58
Part 8: Seizures
32. Describe phenobarbital. a. Ind ication b. Therapeutic level is to , steady state c. H a lf-l ife d . Side effects i. c ii. d iii. p h iv. h in n __
26.2.4 ___
.
___
genera l ized tonic-clonic 1 5 to 30 mcg/ml 5 days; 30 days cog nitive i m pairment d rowsiness paradoxica l hyperactivity hemorrhage in newborns if mother is on phenoba rbita l
True or False. Indicate whether the following statements about antiepileptic drugs are true or false: a . Phenobarbita l is a potent ind ucer of true hepatic enzymes that meta bolize other AEDs. b. Cog nitive im pairment may be s u btle and true may outlast admin istration of the d rug at least by severa l months. c. They may cause hemorrhage in newborn true if mother is on phenobarbita l .
33.
Caution is needed when using felbamate due to an unacceptably as a high rate of serious side effect. a . C a n i t b e used as a fi rst-line d rug?
34.
35. a.
b. c. 36. a.
Describe levetiracetam Ind ication
Drug-drug interaction? Side effects Describe topiramate. Ind ication
b.
Side effects
c.
In children it may cause o
37. What is the mechanism of action of lacosamide? a . Enhances slow inactivation of True or False. The following are characteristics of Diamox (acetazolamide): a. It red uces CSF prod uction. b. It may have a nti-epileptic effect either due to slight centra l nervous system acidosis or due to its direct i n h i bition of CNS carbonic a n hydrase.
aplastic anemia
26.2.4
26.2.4
No 26.2.4
myoclonic seizu re, tonicclonic, partial onset with secondary genera l ization none somnolence, d izzi ness 26.2.4
adjunct for refractory partial onset seizu res cog nitive impairment, weight loss, paresthesias renal stone oligohid rosis 26.2.4
voltage-gated Na channels
38.
26.2.4
true true
Seizure Classification a n d Anti-Convulsant Pharmacology 39. Describe withdrawal of AEDs. a . Ta per by . b . Role of EEG? __
c . Rela pse rate is d . over how long?
___
%.
40. True or False. These are important factors to predict freedom from recurrence after AED withdrawal: a . longer seizu re-free period b . use of only one AED c . tonic-clonic seizu re Complete the following about antiepileptic drugs: a . What effect do a ntiepileptic medications have on birth control pil ls? b . Why? i. AEDs induce l iver
26.2.5
1 u n it every 2 weeks if EEG shows epileptiform discharges, d iscourage withd rawa l 35% 8 months 26.2.5
true true fa lse (seizures other than tonic-clonic)
41 .
ii.
which degrades the
___ ___
26.2.6
They increase the fai l u re rate fou rfold microsomal cytoch rome P450 birth control med ication
42. True or False. Regarding complications during pregnancy. true a . Women with epilepsy have more complications. true b . > 90% pregna ncies have favora ble outcomes. true c . Status epilepticus poses serious risk to the mother and to the fetus. Considering seizures, AEDs, and birth defects, describe the following: a . Effect of seizu re history on incidence of fetal ma lformations. b . Phenobarbita l and ma lformations
43.
c . Teratogenic properties in i. Phenytoin ii. Ca rba mazepine iii. Va l p roate d . Therefore, d u ring preg nancy i. first choice is ii. second choice is iii. add iv. use
1 59
26.2.6
!I 26.2.6
double 4 to 5% the worst, 9. 1 % - hig hest rate of ma lformation feta l hydantoin syn d rome, low iQ neura l tube defects - ra re neura l tube defects 1 -2% carbamazepine (lowest dose possi ble) va l proic acid folate monotherapy
Neurosurgery Books
27 Special Types of Seizures
•
New Onset Seizu res 1.
Incidence of new-onset seizures per 1 00,000 person years is .
44
27.1 . 1
___
2.
a. b. c. d. e. 3.
Neurologic insults resulting in first time seizure include. s h t c i f b a
stroke head trauma CNS infection fever birth asphyxia
In patients with stroke, % had a seizure within days of a stroke.
4.2%; 14
__
__
__
__
__
__
__
__ _
__
__
4. What metabolic disturbances can cause first-time seizure? a. u b. natremia c. g lycemia _ __
__
5.
In pediatric patients the most common etiology of first-time seizure is
27. 1 .2
27. 1 .2
27. 1 .2
u remia hypo hypo febrile seizu res
27. 1 .2
_ _ __
6.
a. b.
In patients with new-onset unprovoked seizure, % had recu rrent seizu res d u ring follow-up. If seizu re-free for 3 years, had recu rrence.
___
__
For new-onset seizure in an adult what should be done? a. s w b. c c. M d. E i . If a l l studies negative, you should repeat study at ii. If two EEGs are norma l , the 2 yea r recu rrence rate is %.
27. 1 .2
27% none
7.
___
_ _ _
_ _ _
_ _ _
_ _ _
____ _
__
27. 1 .3
systemic work-up CT M RI EEG 6 and 1 2 (and possibly 24) months 1 2%
Special Types of Seizures •
Posttrau matic Seizures What are the two categories of posttraumatic seizure? a. within days after tra u m a . b. beyond .days after tra u m a .
8.
___
9. True or False. Regarding posttraumatic seizures. a . AEDs m a y be used t o prevent ea rly post tra umatic seizures in high risk patients. b. Prophylactic AEDs red uce the frequency of late posttra u m atic seizu res. c. AEDs ca n be d isconti n ued after 1 week. 1 0.
a. b. 11.
Incidence of seizures in early posttrauma period ( 1 to 7 days) is % i n severe head inj u ries % i n mild to moderate head inju ries.
___ ___
true fa lse true 27.2.2
30% 1% 1 0- 1 3%
The incidence of posttraumatic seizures is higher in head head injuries than with injuries. Occur in % of penetrati ng tra u m a cases fol lowed for 1 5 years.
penetrati n g ; closed
__
1 3. True or False. High risk criteria for posttraumatic seizures include: a. acute S D H , EDH, or ICH b. seizu re within 24 hours after i nj u ry c. G lasgow coma scale > 1 0 d . a lcohol a buse e. penetrati ng inj u ry 1 4.
27.2.1
27.2.3
_
___
a.
Early, within 7 days after tra u m a Late, beyond 7 days after tra u m a
Incidence of late seizures (> 7 days) is % over a 2-year period.
_
1 2.
27.2 . 1
27.2.4
50% Ta ble 2 7 . 1
true true fa lse (GCS < 1 0) true true
Phenytoin has adverse when given long-term as prophylaxis against posttraumatic seizures.
cogn itive effects
27.2.5
Using AEDs after head trauma can result in % reduction of early posttraumatic seizures.
73%
27.2.5
In appropriate patients AEDs should be tapered after except in: p b i I p s p s h
1 week
27.2.5
_ _ _ _
____
1 5.
__
1 6.
__ ,
a. b. c. d.
__
__
__
__
__
c.___
__
__
_ __
penetrati ng bra i n inj u ry late posttra u m atic seizu re prior seizu re history cra n iotomy
1 61
1 62
Part 8: Seizures
1 7.
In patients not meeting criteria to discontinue AEDs after 1 week, a . AEDs should b e mainta ined for _ _ months. b. should be done before disconti n u i n g .
•
27.2.5
6-1 2 months EEG
Alcohol Withd rawal Seizures 1 8. True or False. Ethanol withdrawal seizures are seen in % of habitual drinkers within to of stopping or reducing ethanol intake.
33%; 7 to 30 hours
27.3.1
__
_ ___
1 9.
Regarding alcohol withdrawal patients. a . What occu rs fi rst: deliri u m tremens o r seizu res? b. Risk of onset of seizu res lasts for c. Risk of onset of DTs lasts for d . Risk persists for _ to _ days. e. Are AEDs recommended: i . For prophylaxis? ii. For treatement?
20. True or False. The following patients should be admitted for observation for additional seizures or DT's: a . Those with their first EtOH withd rawa l seizu re b. Those with foca l fi ndings c. Those with more than 6 seizu res in 6 hours d . Those with evidence o f tra u m a 21 . True or False. Patients with ethanol withdrawal seizures should receive long-term anti epileptic drugs if they have: a . A history o f prior ethanol withd rawa l seizu res b. Recu rrent seizu res c. H istory of prior seizu re d isorder u n related to ethanol d . Risk factors for seizu res (e.g . , subdura l hematoma)
27.3.1
seizu res 48 hours 96 hours 1 to 3 days yes no, (because seizure is usually brief, and self-limited . AEDs a re not indicated once seizu res have occu rred . ) 27.3.2
true true true true 27.3.3
true true true true
Special Types of Seizures •
Nonepileptic Seizu res 22. Answer the following about nonepileptic seizures a . a ka pse b. a ka psy c. True or False i. They a re rea l events ii. The may not be under vol u nta ry control iii. They a re hel ped by AEDs 23. What are features suggestive of nonepileptic seizures? a . T h i s featu re is 9 0 % specific for N ES: a b. Another highly specific featu re is w c. Forced eye d . Bi latera l shaking with preserved
27.4.1
pseudoseizu res psychogenic true true fa lse 27.4.2
a rching back weeping
___
clos u re awa reness
e. Va riable f. Clonic U E or LE movements that a re
seizu re types out of phase
g. Pelvic h . Altered b y
thrust distraction
.
__
latera l tong u e laceration
24. A feature strongly suggestive of epileptic seizure is I t I 25. True or False. Which serum hormone may be used to confirm a true seizure versus nonepileptic seizures: a . TSH b. ACTH c. Cortisol d. GH e. Prolactin 26. Regarding serum prolactin a. Transient elevations occu r in genera l ized motor seizu res. b. Pea k levels a re reached in mi n utes.
27.4.2
fa lse fa lse fa lse fa lse true 27.4.2
--
-
27.
27.4.2
% of
-
Overall accuracy of prolactin levels in predicting true seizures is %. __
80% 1 5-20 72%
27.4.2
1 63
1 64 •
Part 8: Seizures
Febrile Seizures 28. True or False. The most common type of seizure is a. ethanol withd rawa l b. tumor induced c. posttra u matic d . febrile e. epileptic Regarding treatment of febrile seizures. a. Recurrence rate ca n be by b. administering c. every _ hours and hours after the d . conti n u ing until fever su bsides.
27.5.2
fa lse fa lse fa lse true fa lse
29.
_ _ __
__
•
27.5.3
red uced diazepa m (0.33 mgfkg ) 8 24
Status Epilepticus 30. Status epilepticus is defined as a. seizu re lasting more than b. or persistent seizu re after
27.6.1
__ _ __ _
5 m i n utes 1 st and 2nd line AEDs
31 . What is the most common etiology for low AED levels status epilepticus? Complete the following about status epilepticus a. The mean d u ration is hours. %. b. The morta l ity for SE is c. The morta l ity from underlying acute event is _ _%. d . I rreversible changes from repetitive electrical discharges beg in to a ppear in neurons as ea rly as m i n utes. e. Cel l death may occ u r after m i n utes.
32.
___
27.6. 1
27.6.5
1 .5 2% 1 0- 1 2% 20 min utes
__
___
For a patient in status epilepticus, the work-up includes the following a. a b. b c. c. d. e e. f.
60 m i n utes
33.
__ _
__ _
_ _ _ __
34.
a. b.
If a lumbar puncture is done after a seizure, w c , it may show e which may be b p p and should be treated as __
__
__
__
27.6.6
a i rway blood pressu re CPR EKG, EEG, electrolytes IV l u m ba r puncture 27.6.6
elevated wh ite cou nt benign posticta l pleocytosis
__ _
c.
__ _
infection (u ntil cultures negative)
Neurosurgery Books
Special Types of Seizures 35. What is the first line drug for status? 36.
If seizures persist after first dose of benzodiazepine, load with f or p Loading dose for fosphenytoin i s at Loading dose for phenytoin is at If no response to load ing dose, a n additiona l c a n be given after m i n ute.
benzodiazepine
27.6.6
fosphenytoin, phenytoin
27.6.6
_ __
__ _
a.
___
b.
1 5-20 mgfkg at 1 50 mg/min
__ __ ____
__ __ __ _
1 5-20 mgfkg at 50 mg/min
_ ___
c.
_____
1 0 mgfkg; 20 min utes
37. What medication should be avoided in status epilepticus? a. n na rcotics phenothiazines b. p b a c. n neurom uscu lar blocking agents
27.6.6
38. True or False. The drug of choice for myoclonic status is a. Lorazepam b. Benzodiazepine c. Dila nti n d . Phenoba rbita l e. Diazepa m
27.6.8
__ _ __
_ __
_____
39.
a. b. c. d. e.
___
__ __ __ _
True or False. The drug of choice for absence status is Va l p roic acid Benzodiazepine Dila nti n Phenoba rbita l Diazepa m
true fa lse fa lse fa lse fa lse 27.6.8
true fa lse fa lse fa lse fa lse
1 65
28 Pai n
•
General I nformation Complete the following statements about pain: a . T h e th ree types o f p a i n a re i. n ii. d iii. s m b. Two types of nociceptive pain a re: i. s ii. v
1.
_ _ _
_ __
__ _
__ _
_ __
•
nociceptive deafferentation sym pathetica l ly mediated somatic viscera l
Neuropathic Pain Synd romes 2. Answer the following about the use of tricyclics to treat neuropathic pain: a. Use is l i m ited by and effects, and by b. Which is more effective: serotonin reu ptake blockers, or norepinephrine reu ptake blockers? ___
•
28.1
___
28.2.2
a nticholinergic; centra l ; lim ited pain relief serotonin reu pta ke blockers
Craniofacia l Pain Syndromes 3 . Complete t h e following statements about craniofacial pain syndromes: a . Tic convu lsif is g neura l g ia plus spasm. h b. Ra msay H u nt synd rome is p n g c. Tolosa-Hunt synd rome is s f 0 d . Raeder neuralgia is p n
2 8 .3 . 1
geniculate; hemifacia l postherpetic gen icu late neuralgia su perior orbita l fissu re inflammation pa ratrigeminal neuralgia
Pain 4. Characterize the craniofacial pain a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i.
syndrome known as SUNCT s u n c t brief-a bout near the per day occu rs affects
2 8 .3 . 1
short lasting u n i latera l neura l g iform headache conj u n ctiva l i njection tea ring 2 min utes eye m u ltiple times males
Complete the following regarding primary otalgia: a . I t m a y have its orig in from which nerves? fifth, seventh , ninth, tenth , and occipita l nerves b. Coca in ization of the pharynx, prod ucing g lossopharyngeal neuralgia pain relief, suggests instead of primary otalgia. c. Treatment includes Teg reto l , Dilantin , and i. Medicines: T ,D baclofen and b ii. S u rgical proced u res: of m microvascular decompression or sectioning the (MVD); d i nervus intermed ius; n , the C N , and the u pper two ninth; fi bers of the CN tenth
5.
6.
a. b.
c.
Characterize trigeminal neuralgia (TGN}. The incidence is , but higher (2%) i n patients with It is pathophysiologica l ly caused by what?
Pathogenesis may be due to vascu l a r compression from what a rteries?
d . T h e neurologic exa m in a patient with trigeminal neuralgia should be Complete the following statements about treatment of trigeminal neuralgia: %. a . Teg retol provides p a i n rel ief i n b. What if Teg retol has no effect?
c. What is the second d rug of choice for trigeminal neuralgia? d . T h e two specia l preca utions needed with the use of this medication a re as follows: i. It may be ii. Don't
28.3.2
28.3.3
4/ 1 00,000; MS ephaptic transm ission from l a rge myeli nated A fibers to poorly myelinated A delta and C fibers su perior cerebel lar a rtery (SCA) , persistent prim itive trigeminal a rtery, or dolichoectatic basi l a r a rtery entirely norm a l , or with very m il d sensory loss
7.
__
1 67
FDI 28.3.3
69% The d iag nosis of trigeminal neuralgia is suspect. baclofen ( Lioresal)
teratogenic stop abru ptly
1 68 8.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j.
Part 9: Pain Medicines for trigeminal neuralgia include the following: ®) a (E (L ®) b ®) (B b ®) (Z c ®) (T c ®) (K c ®) (N g ®) I (L ®) (D p (T ®) o
28.3.3
a m itri ptyl ine; Elavi l® baclofen; Lioresal® botu l i n u m toxi n ; Botox® capsaici n ; Zostrix® carbamazepine; Teg retol® clonazepa m ; Klonopin® gabapenti n ; Neurontin® lamotrigine; Lam icta l® phenytoin; Dila nti n® oxca rbazepine; Trilepta l®
nociceptive fibers (A-delta 9. The basis upon which percutaneous trigeminal rhizotomy treats trigeminal a n d C fi bers); touch fi bers (A neuralgia is the destruction of alpha and A-beta) fibers and while preserving fibers.
28.3.3
____
1 0. When treating trigeminal neuralgia, percutaneous trigeminal rhizotomy (PTR) is recommended for whom? a . Patients with p r for genera l anesthesia. b. Patients who wish to avoid m , s c. have u t , d . have m s.____ e. have i h on the other side, I e f. or have I __
__
28.3.3
poor risk major surgery
___
_ _ _ _
_ _ _ _ _
___
___
11.
a. b. c. d. e.
__
_ _ _ _
State the considerations when choosing radiofrequency rhizotomy ( RFR) versus percutaneous microcompression (PMC) rhizolysis for trigeminal neuralgia. Recu rrence rates and incidence of dysesthesias a re across the va rious lesioning tech niq ues. Occu rrences of intraoperative hypertension a re with PMC than with radiofrequency. Bradyca rd ia occu rs reg u l a rly with . req u i res a patient who can cooperate; can be done with the patient asleep. Pa ra lysis of the ipsilatera l trigeminal motor root is more common with __
1 2. Answer the following concerning trigeminal neuralgia (TGN) and microvascular decompression (MVD): a. True or Fa lse. It is appropriate for patients with <5 yea rs expected s u rviva l .
u n resecta ble intracranial tumors m u lti ple sclerosis impaired hearing lim ited life expecta ncy 28.3.3
comparable less PMC RFR; PMC PMC 28.3.3
fa lse
Pain b. True or Fa lse. It may prod uce anesthesia dolorosa . c. It has a morta lity rate of d . I t h a s a major neurologic morbid ity of to %. to %. e. It has a fa i l u re rate of f. True or Fa lse. It is the procedure of choice in MS patients. _ _ __
__
Complete the following about TGN and the benefits of stereotactic radiosurgery: a . Complete pain relief is ach ieved in %. b. There is sig nifica nt pain red uction in an additional to %. c. M u st a nticoa g u lation be reversed to have SRS?
fa lse <1 % 1 to 1 0% 20 to 25% fa lse (MS patients do not respond to MVD and should be treated with a PTR.)
1 3.
28.3.3
65%
____
1 5 to 3 1 % (80 to 96% tota l)
__
1 4.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j. k. I. m. n. 1 5.
a. b. c. d. e. 1 6.
a. b. c.
d.
list some complications with percutaneous radiofrequency trigeminal rhizotomy. a d b d I h h s h i b k I c. w m m m p o c s _ ___
_ _ __
_
_ __
_ _ _ _
____
__
_ __
_ __
_ _ _ _
_ _ __ _ ___
___
_ _ _
Describe microvascular decompression (MVD) complications: morta l ity to % meningitis: aseptic _%, bacterial _% d eafness % m i l d facial sensory loss % success rate to % __
__
__
Complete the following about supraorbital and supratrochlear nerves: They a rise from the nerve. The l a rger of the two is the The supraorbita l nerve exits the orbit via the notch, usually located with in the third of the orbita l roof. Which nerve is most medial? _ _ _ _
No 28.3.3
a nesthesia dolorosa bradyca rd ia dysesthesias hearing loss herpes simplex hypotension intracranial bleed keratitis lacrimation changes masseter weakness meningitis morta lity ocu lomotor paresis salivation changes 28.3.3
0.22 to 2% aseptic 2%; bacterial 0.9% 1% 25% 7 5 to 80% 28.3.4
fronta l supraorbita l supraorbita l ; medial su pratroch lea r
Neurosurgery Books
1 69
1 70
Part 9: Pain
1 7. Answer the following about differential diagnosis of SON and STN: a . What are typical TG N featu res lacking in SON?
b. c.
If SON is suspected, but associated a utonomic activity is present, what conditions should be considered? Pa in of the medial u pper orbit exacerbated by supraduction of the eye a n d pal pation of the troch lea might lead one to suspect
28.3.4
SON lacks characteristic triggers and electric shock like pain cluster H/A or SUNCT troch leitis
_ __
1 8.
a.
Characterize glossopharyngeal neuralgia. Pain is located in i. base of t and ii. t. Other sym ptoms besides pain: i. h ii. s iii. c a _ _ __
b.
_ _ _
__ _
_ _ _
1 9. Describe glossopharyngeal neuralgia. as frequent as a . T h e incidence is trigeminal neuralgia. of b. Pain occu rs in t ,b t ,e , n. c. Treatment includes i. medicine: ii. su rgery: iii. nerve division: section of and u pper of _ _ _ _
_ _ _
_ ___ __
_ _ __
__ _
Complete the following concerning geniculate neuralgia: a. Pai n is located b. If there a re herpetic lesions, this is ca lled R H s. c. If com bined with hem ifacial spasm, it is ca l led t c d . Treatment i. medicine: mild cases may respond to c , sometimes in combination with p d ii. su rgery: m together with division of
28.3.5
tongue th roat hypotension syncope cardiac a rrest 28.3.5
1 /70 th roat, base of tongue, ea r, neck cocain ization microvascu lar decompression ninth and u pper third of tenth nerve
20.
__ _
_ __
28.3.6
deep in the ea r, eye, cheek Ra msay H u nt synd rome (RHS) tic convu lsif
_ _ _
ca rbamazepi ne; phenytoin
_ __
___ _
__ _
iii. What vessel is most often involved?
microvascular decompression ; nervus intermedius AICA-com pressing sensory and motor roots of seventh nerve
Pain •
Postherpetic Neuralgia 21 .
a. b. c. d. e.
Complete the following about herpes zoster: T h e etiologic agent is h v z v %. It involves the eye in Pa in usually resolves after to . Postherpetic neuralgia occu rs in % of HZ cases. Vesicles and pain run in the i. distri bution of the d ii. not the p n __
__
Complete the following about postherpetic neuralgia: a . With a n acute attack o f herpes zoster, you m a y treat with e or i i b. For acute treatment use i. a or ii. v iii. f c. Medical treatment of PHN is with a i. t ii. I p iii. +I s
28.4. 1
herpes va ricel la zoster virus 1 0% 2 to 4 weeks 1 0% dermatome peripheral nerve
22.
d.
•
iv. g v. 0 vi . c also may be used as a topica l treatment. Sta rt treatment with I p , which is better tolerated in the
epid u ra l ; intercosta l injection
28.4.5
acyclovir va l acyclovir fa mciclovir Ta ble 2 8 . 5
tricyclic a ntidepressa nts lidoca ine patch intratheca l steroids + lidocaine ga bapentin oxycodone capsaicin lidocaine patches; elderly
28.4.5
Com plex Regiona l Pain Synd rome (CRPS) 23. Complete the following statements about complex regional pain syndrome {CRPS): a . Formerly known as b. Triad to diag nose: d i. a ii. b p iii. t c. c. What is the cause of CRPS Type I I (AKA major causalgia)? __ _
_ __
___ _
_ _ _ _
ca usalgia a utonomic dysfu nction burning pain trophic changes nerve damage d u e to high velocity missile inj u ry or other penetrating tra u m a
28.5.1
1 71
1 72 d.
Part 9: Pain Signs of CRPS: i. tapered ii. v c
28.5.5
___ _ ___ _
iii. Touching causes pain induced by non-noxious sti m u lus, known as iv. 24.
a. b.
hands a re
and
Complete t h e following statements about treatments for CRPS: True or Fa lse. Med ica l thera py is usually effective. Medical treatment for CRPS uses
c . A com mon agent used for intravenous i njection for ca usalgia is d . Surgical sym pathectomy may relieve the pain of ca usalgia in %.
fi ngers vascu l a r changes, either vasodilator or vasoconstrictor a l lodyn ia
28.5.4
cold and moist 28.5.7
fa lse tricyclic a ntidepressa nts g u anethidine 90%
29 Peripheral Nerves
•
General I nformation 1 . Answer the following about motor and sensory classification of nerves. a . Which sensory and motor classification has the g reatest conduction velocity? b. All post-gang lionic a utonomic nerve fibers a re of what type? c. What types of sensory information a re ca rried by A-delta fi bers? d . Where c a n nerves o f type B b e found?
29 . 1 . 1
A-a lpha c
fine touch, pressu re, pain, and temperatu re pregang lionic a utonomic fi bers
2. Answer the following about grading muscle strength and muscle reflexes. a . A muscle with flicker or trace contraction wou l d score what on the M RC sca le? b. What does a n M RC score of 4- mean? active movement against slight resista nce c. What is a normal score for muscle 2+ stretch reflex?
29 . 1 . 2
True or False. Upper motor neuron paralysis includes a . clonus b. hyperactive reflexes c. m uscle spasms d . atrophy e. fascicu lations
29 . 1 . 3
3.
•
true true true fa lse fa lse (Choices d and e a re cha racteristic of lower motor neuron para lysis.)
FDI
Muscle I n nervation For the 1 1 muscles of the shoulder, list their nerves, roots, and action. a . tra pezi us i. nerve, s spinal accessory (CN XI) a ii. roots, C3,4 iii. action, elevate shoulders, abduct arm >90 deg rees
4.
Ta ble 2 9 . 5
B
Part 1 0: Peripheral Nerves
1 74 b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
serratus anterior i. nerve, I ii. roots, Ill. action, supraspinatus i. nerve, s ii. roots, Ill. action, infraspinatus i. nerve, s ii. roots, iii. action, rhomboids i. nerve, d ii. roots, Ill. action, pronator teres i. nerve, m ii. roots, Ill. action, pectora lis major i. nerve, p
long thoracic C5,6,7 forwa rd shoulder thrust
t
suprascapular C4, 5 , 6 abduct a rm 1 5-30 degrees suprascapular C5,6 exorotation of h u merus (backhand tennis shot) dorsal sca p u l a r C4,5 adduct and elevate scapulae
s
median C6,7 forea rm pronation lat. anterior thoracic and med. anterior thoracic (aka pectora l nerve) C5,6,7,8 adduct a rm and push a rm forward
ii. roots, iii. action, h.
i.
j.
k.
5.
latissimus dorsi i. nerve, t ii. roots, Ill. action, deltoid i. nerve, a ii. roots, Ill. action, brachia lis i. nerve, m ii. roots, Ill. action, biceps brachii i. nerve, m ii. roots, iii. action,
thoracodorsa I C5,6,7,8 adduct a rm (cl i m b ladder) axi l l a ry C5,6 abduct a rm 30-90 degrees muscu locuta neous C5,6 flex forea rm muscu locuta neous C5,6 flex and supinate forea rm
The suprascapular nerve innervates which two of the following muscles?
a . teres major b. teres minor c. i nfraspi natus d. supraspinatus
infraspinatus and supraspinatus (teres major innervated by su bsca p u l a r nerve; teres minor innervated by axi l l a ry nerve)
Neurosurgery Books
Ta ble 2 9 . 5
Peripheral Nerves 6. a.
Describe the latissimus dorsi muscle. fu nction:
b. c.
nerve: roots:
_ _ _
_ _ _ _ _ _
7. True or False. The deltoid muscle a . abducts t h e a rm 30 t o 90 degrees. b. abducts arm >90 degrees. c. is innervated by the axillary nerve. d . rotates the a rm out. 8. True or False. The abductor pollicis longus a. is innervated by the median nerve. b. is innervated by the posterior interosseous nerve. c. is innervated by the u l n a r nerve. d . is innervated b y t h e radial nerve.
9. True or False. The median nerve is responsible for the following movements of the thumb: a . adduction b. abduction c. extension d . flexion e. opposition Complete the following about the movements of the thumb: a. Plane of movement for the th u m b i. extension: ii. flexion: iii. adduction: iv. abduction: v. opposition: b. Action of nerves to the th u m b i. median nerve, H i nt: FAO F-action, f muscle, f p b root, A-action, a muscle, a p b root, 0-action, o p muscle, o root,
29.2 . 1
adductor-together with pectora lis thoracodorsal (5,6,7,8 29.2 . 1
true fa lse true fa lse (i nfraspinatus m u scle) 29.2 . 1
fa lse true fa lse true (The posterior interosseous nerve is a conti n uation of the radial nerve in the forea rm.) 29.2.2
fa lse ( u l n a r) true fa lse (rad ial) true true
1 0.
_ _ _
_ _ _
_ _ _ _
___
_ _ _
_ _ _
_ ___
___
_ _ _
_ _ _
___
_ _ _
_ _ _
29.2.2
plane of palm plane of palm perpendicu lar to pa l m perpendicu lar from palm across the pa l m flexion; flexor poll icis brevis; C8, Tl ; abduction; abductor poll icis brevis; C8, Tl ; opposition ; opponens pollicis; C8, Tl
1 75
B
1 76
Part 1 0: Peripheral Nerves ulnar nerve action, a m u scle, a root, iii. radial nerve action, e m u scle, e and I b root, ii.
___
p
___
p.___
___
Complete this list of the peripheral nerves of the lower extremities: H i nt: fosis pdstp (Follow our sig n . It says, "please don't spoil the plants. " ) a. f b. 0 c. s d. i e. s f. p g. d h. s i. t j. p
adduction; adductor pollicis; C8, Tl extension; extensor pollicis brevis and long us; C7, C8
11.
Now name the nerves of the lower extremities along with the roots that form them a. f b. 0 c. s d. i e. s f. d g. s h. t i. p
29.2.3
femora l obtu rator su perior g l uteal i nferior g l uteal sciatic (tru nk) peroneal (tru n k) deep peroneal su perficial peroneal tibial pudendal
1 2.
1 3.
a.
b.
Finally, name the nerves of the lower extremities along with the muscles and their function. nerve, f i. muscle, i ,q s f ' ii. fu nction,
nerve, o i. muscle, a 0
ii.
fu nction,
e
,g
29.2.3
femora l , L2 ,3,4 obtu rator, L2 ,3,4 su perior g l utea l , L4, 5 , Sl i nferior g l utea l , LS, S l ,2 sciatic, LS, S 1 ,2 deep peronea l , L4, 5 , Sl su perficial peronea l , LS, S l tibia l , L4, 5 , S l , 2 , 3 pudend a l , 52,3,4 29.2.3
femoral il iopsoas, quadriceps femoris, sartorius flex h i p and leg extension (quad riceps femoris) obtu rator adductor, g racilis, obtu rator extern us adduct thigh (all), and latera l rotation (obtu rator externus)
Peripheral Nerves c.
d. e.
nerve, s i. muscle, g f t p ii. fu nction,
nerve, i i. m u scle, g ii. fu nction, nerve, s i . muscle, b s ii.
f.
g.
h.
i.
m I
m
'
f
s
fu nction,
nerve, d i. muscle, t e e e ii. fu nction,
d h d
a I I b
nerve, s i. muscle, p b ii. fu nction, nerve, t i. muscle, p g f f f f ii. fu nction,
nerve, p i. muscle, p ii. fu nction,
and
t
,p h d d h
'
s
,s I I b b
___
,
1 77
su perior g l utea l g l uteus mediusf m i n i m u s , tensor fasciae lata, piriformis abduct thigh (gl uteus), thigh flexion (tensor fasciae lata), latera l thigh rotation (pi riformis) inferior g l uteal g l uteus maxim us thigh abduction sciatic tru n k biceps femoris, semitendi nosus, semimembra nosus leg flexion (and assist thigh extension) deep peroneal ti bialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, extensor hall ucis longus, extensor digitorum brevis foot dorsiflexion (all but EDB), foot supination (TA), extension toes 2-5 (EDL, EDB), extension g reat toe (EHL, EDB) su perficial peroneal peroneus longus and brevis pla nta rflex pronated foot and eversion ti bial posterior tibia lis, gastrocnemius, planta ris, soleus, flexor h a l l ucis longus, flexor digitorum longus, flexor digitoru m brevis, flexor hall ucis brevis pla nta rflex supinated foot (PA, FDL, FHL), pla nta rflex a n kle (gastroc, pla nta ris, soleus), inversion (PA), flex term inal phalanx toes 2-5 (FDL), flex terminal phalanx g reat toe (FHL ) , flex mid pha lanx toes 2-5 ( FDB ) , flex proxim a l phalanx g reat toe ( FHB ) , knee flexion (gastroc, pla ntaris) pudendal perinea l , sphincters vol u nta ry contraction of pelvic floor
FDI
1 78
Part 1 0: Peripheral Nerves
1 4. True or False. The gluteus maximus muscle a . abducts thigh
b.
adducts thigh
c.
medially rotates thigh
d. e.
latera l ly rotates thigh is innervated by su perior g l uteal nerve
1 5. True or False. The tibialis anterior muscle is responsible for foot a . dorsiflexion b. pla nta rflexion c. eversion
d.
supination
Complete the following about the function of peripheral nerves: a . T h e fu nction o f extension o f t h e g reat toe is served by h i. muscle, e I and e d b ii. root, b . T h e fu nction o f foot dorsiflexion i s served by a i. muscle, t e d and e h I ii. root,
29.2.3
true (abducts thigh in a prone position) fa lse (obtu rator externus and pecti neus) fa lse (gl uteus medius and g l uteus minimus) fa lse (obtu rator externus) fa lse (i nferior g l uteal nerve) 29.2.3
true fa lse (soleus, gastrocnemius) fa lse (peroneus longus and brevis) true
1 6.
c. Which is the best L5 m u scle to test clinica l ly? (Hint: E is the 5th letter of the a l p h a bet) 1 7. True or False. The extensor hallucis longus muscle a . extends g reat toe b. dorsiflexes foot c. is innervated by the deep peroneal nerve
B •
29.2.3
extensor h a l l ucis long us and extensor digitorum brevis L5 , S l ti bialis a nterior, EDL, and EHL
L4,5 (TA); L4, 5 , 51 (EDL and EHL) extensor h a l l ucis longus
29.2.3
true true true
Peripheral Nerve I njury/Surgery Complete the following regarding timing of surgical repair of nerves: a . I f t h e nerve must regenerate a long dista nce, repa ir should be done
1 8.
months of denervation, b. After most m uscles ca nnot recover.
29.3.3
ea rly 24
Peripheral Nerves 1 9. True or False. The brachial plexus is formed by the dorsal rami of C5-Tl .
20.
fa lse (It is formed by the ventra l ra m i of CS-Tl . The dorsa l ra mi innervate the paraspi nal m u scles.)
Draw a diagram of the brachial plexus.
1 79
29.3.4
29.3.4
Fig. 29.1 21 .
On your diagram of the brachial plexus, label the following: CD roots C4-T1 ; 0 organ ization RTDCN (roots, tru n ks, divisions, cords, nerves); Q) names of tru n ks-S M I (su perior, middle, inferior); @ add names of cords-LM P (latera l , medial, posterior)
29.3.4 D
N
Fig. 29.2 22. On your outline of the brachial plexus, add the nerves. Hint: Dona ld says somewhat loud ly, " M ickey Mouse, you a re rig ht to so sincerely love M i n n ie Mouse madly."
29.3.4
MC
"
A
Fig. 29.3
Neurosurgery Books
1 80 23.
Part 1 0: Peripheral Nerves Draw the left brachial plexus-outline.
29.3.4
Fig. 29.4 24. Complete the following about the brachial plexus: a. Name the roots (6). b. Name the seg ments (5). ( H i nt: Run to do Cindy's needs.) c. Name the nerves ( 1 6). ( H i nt: Dona ld says somewhat loudly Mickey Mouse you a re rig ht to so sincerely love M i n n ie Mouse mad ly)
d. e.
Name t h e tru n ks (3). Name the cords (3).
25. Trace, using the brachial plexus diagram, the theoretically possible root contribution to each nerve and then compare with the actual root contribution in each nerve. a . nerve, d ___ s___ i. theoretica l , __ ii. actu a l , __ b. nerve, s___ i. theoretica l , ___ ii. actu a l , ___ c. nerve, s___ i. theoretica l , ___ ii. actu a l , ___
29.3.4
C4, 5,6,7,8, Tl roots, tru n ks, divisions, cords, nerves dorsal sca p u l a r; su prascapular; su bclavi us; latera l pectora l ; muscu locuta neous; median; u l n a r; axillary; radia l ; thoracodorsal; su bsca p u l a r u pper; su bsca p u l a r lower; long thoracic; medial pectora l ; medial brach ial cutaneous; medial antebrach ial cutaneous su perior, middle, inferior latera l , media l , posterior (Without rote memorization, this wi l l g ive accu rate answers 83% of the time. Only 8 of 49 theoretica l root contributions a re not actua l ized . ) dorsal sca p u l a r C4, 5 C4, 5 su bsca p u l a r C4, 5,6 C4, 5,6 su bclavi us C6 C6
Fig. 29. 1
Peripheral Nerves d.
nerve, I i. theoretica l , ii. actu a l , nerve, m i. theoretica l , ii. actu a l , nerve, m i. theoretica l , ii. actu a l , nerve, u i. theoretica l , ii. actu a l , nerve, a i. theoretica l , ii. actu a l , nerve, r i. theoretica l , ii. actu a l , nerve, t i. theoretica l , ii. actu a l , nerve, s u i. theoretica l , ii. actu a l , nerve, s l i. theoretica l , ii. actu a l , nerve, I t i. theoretica l , ii. actu a l , nerve, m t i. theoretica l , ii. actu a l , nerve, m b i. theoretica l , ii. actu a l , nerve, m a i. theoretica l , ii. actu a l ,
___
___
e.
___
___
___
f.
___
___
___
g.
___
___
___
h.
___
___
___
i.
___
___
___
j.
___
___
___
k.
___
___
___
___
I.
___
___
___
___
m.
--
___
___
n.
___
___
___
0.
___
---
___
___
p.
___
___
___
latera l pectora l C4, 5 ,6,7 C4, 5,6,7 musculocuta neous C5,6,7 C5,6,7 median C5,6,7, Tl C5,6,7, Tl ulnar C8, Tl C7 , 8 , Tl axillary C4, 5,6,7,8, Tl C4, 5,6,7,8, Tl radial C4, 5,6,7,8, T1 C4, 5,6 thoracodorsa I C5,6,7,8, T1 C6,7,8 su bsca p u l a r upper C5,6, 7 ,8, T1 C5,6,7 su bsca p u l a r lower C5,6,7,8,T1 C5,6,7 long thoracic C5,6,7 C5,6,7 med ial thoracic ( pectora l ) C8, T1 not listed medial brachial C8, T1 not listed medial a ntebrachial C8, T1 not listed
26.
list the brachial plexus nerves (except for median, ulnar, and radial), the muscles they serve, and the action of the muscles. s a . nerve, d s i. muscle 1 , I ii. action, iii. m u scle 2 , r iv. action, b. nerve, s i. muscle 1 , s ii. action, iii. m u scle 2 , i iv. action,
29.3.4
dorsa l sca p u l a r levator sca pulae elevate sca pulae rhomboids adduct and elevate sca p u l a suprasca pular supraspinatus adduct a rm 1 5 to 30 degrees infraspinatus exorotation of h u merus
1 81
1 82
Part 1 0: Peripheral Nerves
nerve, m i. muscle 1 , ii. action, iii. m u scle 2 , iv. action, v. muscle 3 , vi . action, d . nerve, a i. muscle 1 , ii. action, iii. m u scle 2 , iv. action, c.
___ _
b
b
_ _ _ _
___ _
c
___ _
___ _
b
___ _
___ _
_ _ _ _
d
_ _ _ _
___ _
t
m, ____
___ _
e.
nerve, s. i. muscle 1 , ii. action, iii. m u scle 2 , iv. action, nerve, t i. muscle, ii. action, nerve, I i. m u scle, ii. action,
_ _ _ _ ___ _
___ _ ___ _
___ _
f.
_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
___ _
g.
t
_ _ _ _
_ _ _ _
___ _
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h.
list the branches of the radial nerve cascade in proper sequence. (H int: rest in peace, retbes in peeeeeae) r e t b e s i n
i. j. k.
p e e
I. m. n. o. p.
e e e a e
27.
__ _
__
_ _ _
__
_ _ _
__
___
__
___
__ __
__ _ _ _ _ _ _
__
28. True or False. The radial nerve a . is formed b y C5-8. b. innervates triceps. c. i n nervates supinator. d. innervates brachioradialis. e. contin u es into forearm as posterior interosseous nerve.
muscu locuta neous biceps brachii flex and supi nate forea rm coracobrachialis flex hu merus at shoulder brachia lis flex forea rm axi l l a ry deltoid abduct a rm 30 to 90 deg rees teres minor exorotate and adduct hu merus su bsca p u l a r teres major adduct a rm su bsca p u l a ris adduct a rm thoracodorsa I latissimus dorsi adduct a rm long thoracic serratus a nterior forwa rd shoulder thrust 29.3.4
radial extensor triceps brachioradialis extensor carpi radialis supi nator i n posterior interosseous nerve p extensor carpi u l n a ris extensor digitorum com m u n is extensor digiti m i n i m i extensor poll icis brevis extensor pollicis longus abductor pollicis longus extensor indicis 29.3.4
true true true true true
Peripheral Nerves 29. What muscle is innervated by the axillary nerve? list the branches of the median nerve cascade. {Hi nt: pfpf3 pfaol) a. p t b. f c I c. p d. f d s e. f p d
teres minor, deltoid
30.
f. f g. p h. f i. a j. 0 k. I
p q p p p
b b
Now list the function of the muscles of the median nerve cascade: (Hi nt: pfpf3 pfaol) a. pronator teres: fu nction b. flexor carpi radialis: fu nction c. palmaris longus: fu nction d. flexor digitoru m su perficial is: fu nction
f. flexor pollicis longus: fu nction g . flexor poll icis brevis: fu nction h.
abductor poll icis brevis: fu nction
i. opponens pollicis: fu nction j. l u m brica ls 1 and 2 : fu nction
32. Which muscles of the hand are innervated by the median nerve? H i nt: loaf a. I b. 0 p b c. a p b d. f p
29.3.4
29.3.4
pronator teres flexor carpi radialis pa l m a ris longus flexor digitoru m su perficia l is flexor digitoru m profu ndus I & II flexor pollicis longus pronator quadratus flexor pollicis brevis abductor pollicis brevis opponens pollicis l u m brica ls 1 and 2
31 .
e. flexor digitorum profu ndus: fu nction
1 83
29.3.4
forearm pronator radial flexion of hand wrist flexion flex middle phalanx fi ngers 2 to 5 , flex wrist flex dista l phalanx fi ngers 2 and 3 , flex wrist flex dista l phalanx of th u m b flexes proximal phalanx of th u m b abducts thumb metaca rpa l and radial wrist extension opposes th u m b metaca rpa l flex proxim a l phalanx and extend 2 dista l phala nges Dig 2-3 29.3.4
l u m brica ls 1 and 2 opponens pollicis abductor pollicis brevis flexor poll icis brevis
FDI
B
Part 1 0: Peripheral Nerves
1 84 33.
list the muscles served by the ulnar nerve cascade in proper order, as well as the function of the muscles. (H i nt: '' Ffafner I Love H i m )
29.3.4
"
a. b.
c. d.
e.
f.
g.
i. ii.
f c fu nction:
u
flexor carpi u l n a ris ulnar flexion of hand
i. ii.
f d fu nction:
p
flexor digitoru m profundus flex dista l phalanx of fi ngers 4 and 5
i. ii.
a fu nction:
i.
d e e p part of f b fu nction:
ii.
p
adductor pollicis th u m b adductor flexor poll icis brevis
p
flex proxi mal phalanx th u m b
i. i ii. fu nction (dorsa l): iii. fu nction (pa l m a r):
interossei abducts adducts, flex proxi mal phala nges at metacarpophalangeal joints
i. ii.
l u m brica ls 3 & 4 extends two dista l phala nges of fi ngers 3 and 4 at interphalangeal joints
fu nction:
hypothenar m uscles i. a d ii. fu nction: iii. f d iv. fu nction: v. 0 d vi . fu nction: b h. p
m m m
Complete the following about anatomic variants with Martin-Gruber anastomosis: and a . Con n ections between the nerves b . in the % o f cadavers. c. found i n
abductor digiti minimi abduction of little fi nger flexor digiti m i n i m i flex l ittle fi nger opponens digiti minimi opposition digit 5 palmaris brevis
34.
29.3.4
media n ; ulnar forearm 23
Neurosurgery Books
30 Entrapment Neuropathies
•
General I nformation 1.
a. b. c. d.
list medical etiologies of entrapment neuropathies. d m h a a
e. c f. p g. r h. g
•
r a
30.1
dia betes mel litus hypothyroidism acromegaly amyloidosis (primary or secondary) ca rci nomatosis polymya lgia rheu matica rheu matoid a rth ritis gout
Mecha nism of I njury myeli nated 2. Does brief compression primarily affect myelinated fibers, unmyelinated fibers, or both?
•
30.2
Occipital Nerve Entrapment 3. True or False. Occipital nerve entrapment a . is d u e t o compression o f a sensory branch of C3. b. presents pain in the occi put with a trigger point near the su perior nuchal line. c. is more common in men. 4. Answer the following about nonsurgical treatment of occipital nerve entrapment: a . G reater occipita l nerve block may provide rel ief lasting b. I nject at
30.3 . 1
fa lse (sensory branch of C2) true fa lse 30.3.4
1 month trigger point
Il
1 86 c. d.
Part 1 0: Peripheral Nerves If the case is disabling, and pain doesn't respond to medication, what else may be tried? Is a col l a r indicated?
5. Answer the following about surgical treatment of occipital nerve entrapment: nerve root a . decompression of b. Occi pita l neu rectomy ca n consist of avu lsion of the g reater occi pita l nerve as it exits between the and the m u scle. c. Another option is release of nerve within m u scle. the i. rel ief in % ii. im provement in %
•
surgery, a lcohol neurolysis no 30.3.4
C2 transverse process of C2 and inferior oblique m u scle trapezi us 46 36
Median Nerve Entrapment 6.
a. b.
Name the two most common syndromes of median nerve entrapment. t s c p t s
30.4. 1
carpa l tu nnel synd rome pronator teres synd rome
7.
Complete the following about the course of the median nerve: a . T h e median nerve passes u n d e r the
b. The motor branch either goes or the ligament m u scles, c. and serves the d . which consist of i. ii. iii. iv. 8.
a.
b.
Complete the following about the median nerve: Describe t h e sensory distribution o f the median nerve. i. thumb: aspect ii. fingers: , a nd half of iii. eminence and adjacent iv. pa l m Pa lmar cutaneous branch (PCB) crosses tra nsverse carpal ligament.
9. Answer the following about the transverse carpal ligament {TCL): a . T h e TCL extends how fa r beyond the dista l wrist crease?
30.4.2
tra nsverse carpal liga m ent u nder; pierces LOAF l u m brica ls 1 and 2 opponens poll icis abductor pollicis flexor poll icis brevis 30.4.2
pa l m a r index, middle, and half of ring thenar radial above 30.4.2
3 cm
Entrapment Neuropathies b. What is the name of the sensory nerve spared in carpal tunnel synd rome? c. This nerve a rises em proxi m a l t o t h e wrist, d. passes the tra nsverse carpa l ligament e. and serves the sensation. ___ _ _ _ _
1 0.
a. b.
Describe main trunk median nerve compression. above el bow d u e t o at el bow i. I f ____
_ _ _
ii. p t. b iii. s c. H oneymoon para lysis is due to -,-d . Bened iction hand is d u e t o wea kness in what m u scle? _ _ _ _
_ _ _
palmar cutaneous bra nch 5.5 above thenar emi nence 30.4.3
Struther's liga ment lacertus fibrosus (bicipital aponeurosis) pronator teres sublimis bridge external pressure flexor digitorum profu ndus I and I I
11.
Characterize pronator teres syndrome (PTS). a . It com p resses t h e nerve b. where it dives between the two heads of the c. Sym ptoms: i. Pa in in disti n gu ishes it from carpa l tu nnel synd rome ii. d u e to the bra nch exiti ng before the TCL. iii. Also presents with weakness i n the and and iv. paresthesias in the
30.4.3
median pronator teres
___ __ _
_ _ _ _ _ _
pa lm median pa l m a r cuta neous
___
g rip
___
____
v.
Noctu rnal exacerbation is
_ _ _
1 2. What are the key features of anterior interosseous neuropathy? a. Presents with i. loss of f ii. of the d p iii. of the iv. and b. d u e to i. weakness of the f d and the p ii. f p I c. No loss of d . Patient ca n't e. treatment i. e m __ _
__ _
_ _ _
_ _ _ _
_ _ _
th u m b and index fi nger a bsent 30.4.3
flexion dista l phala nges th u m b index finger flexor digitorum profundus
___
_ _ _
_ _ _
__ _
___
ii.
s
___
__ _
e
_ _ _ _
flexor poll icis longus sensation make "OK" sig n expecta nt management 8-1 2 weeks surgical exploration (if no improvement)
1 87
1 88
Part 1 0: Peripheral Nerves
1 3. Describe carpal tunnel syndrome. median nerve a . The entra pment neu ropathy. b. It is due to
c. Where? d . Usually occu rs in what popu lation? e. M ale/female ratio: f. Bi latera l in % of cases g . Worse in of h . Phalen s i g n performed by the wrist i. and is positive i n 1 4. Answer the following about carpal tunnel syndrome: a . What is t h e most sensitive electrod iagnostics test for carpal tu nnel synd rome? b. Which should be faster, median sensory conduction velocity or u l n a r sensory conduction velocity? c. By how much? Complete the following about carpal tunnel syndrome: a . Describe treatment. i. sp ii. st iii. su b. Incision should be slig htly to the s i d e o f t h e interthenar crease c. to avoid c b i. p a nd/or r ii. a t b m
30.4.4
most common compression of the median nerve distal to wrist crease middle-aged patients 4: 1 >50% dominant hand forced flexion 8 0 % o f cases 30.4.4
sensory latency nerve con d uction velocity (NCV) median sensory conduction velocity 4mfs
1 5.
•
30.4.4
splint steroids su rgery ulnar pa l m a r cutaneous branch anomalous recu rrent thenar motor branch
Ulnar Nerve Entrapment 1 6.
a. b.
c.
Complete the following about the ulnar nerve: N a m e t h e roots. Motor findings of entra pment a re: i. wasti ng of the ii. w sign iii. F sign deformity of hand iv.
30.5.1
C7 , 8 , Tl interossei Wa rtenberg ' s Froment's claw
i.
d istu rba nce of sensation in
little finger
ii.
and
u l n a r half of ring fi nger
Entrapment Neuropathies 1 7. Describe Wartenberg's sign. a . I t affects t h e b. which rests in c. due to weakness of the t. p i m d . Which nerve is involved?
30.5.1
_ _ _
_ _ _
___ _ _ _ _
1 8. Describe Froment's sign. a . Test b y havi ng t h e patient g b. using their t and i f nerve is wea k the c. If the b d . th u m b b e. beca use u l nar-innervated is weak; f. therefore, the body su bstitutes it for the stronger g . which is innervated b y the nerve. branch of the ___ _
___ _
little fi nger abduction third palmar i nterosseous muscle ulnar 30.5.1
g rasp a piece o f paper th u m b and index fi ngers
_ _ _
____
_ _ _
_ _ _
ulnar bends backwards adductor pollicis
____
flexor poll icis longus
_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ __ _ _ _
Describe injury to the ulnar nerve above the elbow. a . C a n be d u e t o inj u ry t o t h e cord of the brachial plexus. b. Ki n king may be ca used by the a of S c. which is a thin, flat
a nterior interosseous; median
1 9.
___ _
30.5.2
medial a rcade of Struthers
_ __
___ _ _ _
20. Answer the following about ulnar nerve entrapment at the elbow: a . May present as t u.
_ _ _ _
P· ---
mfs N CV is less than or there is a d rop of more than mfs between the AE and BE segments. d . Early symptoms may b e p u rely b. c.
___
motor
____
_ _ _ _
____
tardy ulnar palsy 50 10
____
___
30.5.3
_ _ _
21 . What are surgical options for treatment of ulnar compression at the elbow? a . nerve d without t. b. nerve d with e____ c. m of n. ____ d . Sometimes e and possibly j g may be req u i red. e. tra nsposition may be to , with in the , or a ____
aponeurotic band
__ _ __ _
_ _ _ _ __
30.5.3
decompression, tra nsposition decompression, tra nsposition medial epicondylectomy excision of neuroma; j u m p g raft su bcuta neous tissue, withi n t h e flexor carpi u l n a ris, or a submuscu lar position
Neurosurgery Books
1 89
1 90 22. a.
Part 1 0: Peripheral Nerves Describe the borders of Guyon's canal. roof f i. p ii. p b floor i. f of the p ii. p Below the floor lies the t. I c Contains only t h e and _ _ _
_ _ _ _
b.
_ _ _
___
c.
----
_ _ _ _
30.5.5
palmar fascia pa l m a ris brevis flexor retinacu l u m of the pa lm pisohamate ligament tra nsverse carpal liga ment
_ _ _
d.
___ ___
u l n a r nerve and u l n a r a rtery
23.
Describe the types of ulnar nerve lesions in Guyon's canal. a . Type I i. location of com pression
ii.
weakness
iii. sensory deficit b. Type I I i. location o f com pression ii. weakness
just proxi mal to or withi n Guyon 's ca nal a l l intrinsic hand m u scles innervated by u l n a r n. palmar u l n a r distri bution along deep branch muscles innervated by deep branch none
iii. sensory deficit c. Type l l l i. location o f compression ii. wea kness iii. sensory deficit
•
30.5.5
distal end of G uyon 's ca nal none palmar u l n a r distri bution
Radial Nerve I njuries 24.
a.
Complete the following regarding radial nerve injuries: Sensation loss in t h e web space o f the th u m b ind icates inj u ry in the Pain at the latera l epicondyle ind icates compression of the Wrist d rop ind icates inj u ry to , where the nerve is in the of the h u merus. Triceps plus a l l dista l m u scle weakness ind icates i nj u ry at the Weakness of the a bove, plus the deltoid and latissimus dorsi ind icates i nj u ry to the
30.6.3
hand
_ _ _ _
b.
supinator tunnel at the el bow
_ _ _ _
c.
__
-- __
mid-u pper arm; spira l g roove
____ ____
d.
axilla
_ _ _ _
e.
_ ___ _ _
posterior cord
Entrapment Neuropathies 25.
a.
Describe mid-upper or forearm radial nerve compression. Radial nerve compression in mid-u pper a rm prod uces i. w (w d ii. w n iii. beca use it compresses and I nj u ry to the posterior interosseous nerve of fingers. (PI N ) prod uces I nj u ry at the supi nator tu nnel prod uces but no ___
___
_ __
_ __
_ _ _
_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ __ _
b. c.
a. b. c.
weakness (wrist d rop) wrist n u m bness PI N ; superficia l radial nerve wea kness pain; wea kness
__ _
____
26.
30.6.3
Complete the following about radial nerve anatomy. P I N refers t o t h e _ ___ __
a conti n u ation of the which serves the of the fingers i. p ii. and the a I
nerve,
_ _ _
30.6.3
posterior interosseous nerve radial extensors abductor pol licis longus
_ _ _
27.
a.
Describe management of radial nerve injury. posterior i nterosseous syn d rome i. e _ __
c
ii.
_ _ _ _
b.
supinator tu nnel synd rome
c.
hand inj u ry of i. Clinical finding is loss at the d, w s of the th u m b i i . often caused b y __ __
___
_ _ _ _
_ _ _ _
•
30.6.3
exploration (if case doesn't respond to 4-8 weeks expecta nt management) lyse constrictions (including arcade of Frohse) Su rgery ra rely req u i red, but responds to nerve decompression. small a rea of sensory loss; dorsal web space of the th u m b handcuffs
Axillary Nerve I njuries 28. List possible etiologies of axillary nerve neuropathy. a. s d b. sleeping in the position with arms c. compression from a i- -d. i ---.,-e. entra pment in the ___ _
_ _ _ ___ __ ___ _ _ _
_ _ _ _
30.7
shoulder dislocation prone; abducted a bove the head thoracic ha rness injection inj u ry quadrilatera l space
1 91
1 92 •
Part 1 0: Peripheral Nerves
Suprascapular Nerve 29. a. b.
Describe suprascapular nerve injury. Nerve formed from roots Entra pped at s n beneath the ---- ----
30.8
C5,6 suprasca p u l a r notch beneath the tra nsverse sca p u l a r ligament c. Sensory symptoms: deep, poorly local ized (referred) shoulder pain d . Motor sym ptoms: weakness a n d atrophy supraspinatus and of and infraspinatus rotator cuff inj u ry e. May be d ifficult to disti n g u ish from inj u ry. f. Differentiate from CS cervica l rhomboid and deltoid radiculopathy and u pper brachial plexus lesion by testi ng and _ _ __
_ _ _ _
__ _
_ _ _
---- ----
•
Meralgia Paresthetica 30. Define meralgia paresthetica. a . Also known a s , or b. c . Hyperpathia located a t t h e I t u f d . Entra pment o f t h e I c nerve. e. True or Fa lse. I nvolves both motor and sensory fibers. 31 . Answer the following regarding differential diagnosis of meralgia paresthetica: a . Femoral neuropathy sensory changes tend to be more b. L2 or L3 radiculopathy: look for
___
c.
Nerve com pression by abdominal or pelvic tumor suspected if
Describe treatment options for meralgia paresthetica. a . Nonsurgical measu res achieve relief in % of cases. b. True or Fa lse. Centra l ly acting pain med ications are often effective. c. Neu rectomy may be (more/less) effective than decompression, but risks
30.9.2
Bern h a rdt-Roth synd rome "swashbuckler's disease" latera l u pper thigh (burning pain) latera l femoral cuta neous fa lse (sensory on ly) 30.9.4
a nteromed ial motor weakness (thigh flexion or knee extension) concomitant G l or GU sym ptom s
32.
d . I f neu rectomy instead o f neurolysis i s elected , what should b e d o n e prior to sectioning?
30.9.5
91 fa lse more; denervation pain electrical sti m u lation to ru le out a motor component
Entrapment Neuropathies •
1 93
Common Peronea l Nerve Palsy Complete the following about common peroneal nerve palsy: a . True or Fa lse. T h e peroneal nerve is the most com mon nerve to develop acute compression palsy. b. At what location?
33.
Describe the clinical findings in peroneal nerve palsy. a . True or Fa lse. T h e a nterior tibia lis is the most com monly involved m u scle in peroneal nerve palsy. b. Resu lts in i m pa i rment of i. motor fu nction : ii. sensory loss in
30. 1 2 . 1
true fi bular head
34.
30. 1 2.3
fa lse (EHL)
foot d rop, wea k foot eversion dorsum of foot and latera l calf superficial peroneal
c. The peroneus longus and brevis a re innervated by the bra nch of the common peroneal nerve. d . T h e d e e p peroneal bra n ch innervates the EHL, a nterior ti bialis, and EDL , a nd (extensor digitoru m longus) m u scles. ___ ___
35.
•
If EMG stimulation is absent, both above and below fibular head, prognosis is
poor
3 0 . 1 2 .4
Tarsa l Tu nnel 36. True or False. The posterior tibial nerve may be a . fou n d in t h e tarsal tu nnel. b. fou n d posterior and inferior to the medial m a l leolus. c. tra pped at the retinacu l a r ligament. d . classica l ly responsible for nocturnal pain and paresthesia at the heel. 37. Answer the following about clinical findings of posterior tibial nerve entrapment: a . Percussion o f t h e nerve a t prod uces paresthesias that radiate b. Exacerbated by
c.
Dorsiflexion-eversion test: Examiner maxi m a l ly everts and dorsiflexes the a n kle while for 5 - l 0 seconds.
30. 1 3. 1
true true true fa lse (heel is spared) 30. 1 3.2
medial m a l leolus; dista l ly maximal inversion and eversion of foot dorsiflexing the toes at MTP joi nts
Il
31 Non-Entrapment Peripheral Neuropathies
•
•
Definitions 1. a.
Define: peripheral neuropathy
b.
mononeuropathy
c.
mononeuropathy m u ltiplex
31.1
d iffuse lesions of periphera l nerves prod ucing wea kness, sensory d istu rba nce, and/or reflex changes d isorder of a single nerve, often due to tra u m a or entra pment involvement of 2 or more nerves, usually d u e to a systemic abnormality
Etiologies of Periphera l Neuropathy 2.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j. k.
list the etiologies of non-entrapment peripheral neuropathies. (Hint: G rand Thera pist) G R A N D T H E R A or A p or P or __
p
I. I m. s n. T
3 1 .2
G u i l lain-Barre Renal ( u remic neu ropathy) Alcoholism N utritional Diabetes Tra u m atic Hered ita ry Endocrine or Entra pment Radiation Amyloid or AIDS Psychiatric or Pa ra neoplastic or Pseudoneuropathy Infectious Sa rcoidosis Toxins
Neurosurgery Books
Non-Entrapment Peripheral Neuropathies •
Classification 3.
a.
Complete the following regarding peripheral neuropathy: The most common periphera l neu ropathy that is an inherited disorder is C -M -T Psychogenic somatoform disorders or malingeri ng with sym ptoms of pains, pa resthesias, hyperalgesia, wea kness, a n even objective changes in temperatu re are associated with p ___
b.
3 1 .3
Charcot-Ma rie-Tooth
___
pseudoneu ropathy
_ ____
•
Clinical Regarding peripheral neuropathy. Sym ptoms o f peripheral neuropathies include: of s i. I ii. p iii. w iv. i a v. d b. Work-up includes: i. H -A ii. T iii. E iv. v B v. E
4. a.
--
__
-
-
--
--
---
-
--
•
3 1 .4. 1
loss of sensation pain wea kness incoord ination difficu lty a m b u l ating 3 1 .4.2
Hg b-A 1 C TSH ESR Vita m i n B l 2 EMG
Synd romes of Peripheral Neuropathy 5. True or False. Regarding critical illness polyneuropathy (CIP). a. Most often affects proxim a l m u scles. b. Occu rs in the presence of sepsis or m u ltiorg a n fa i l u re. c. Abnorm a l EMG is seen. d . Serum CPK may b e norm a l . e. Treatment is supportive. f. Complete recovery ra rely occurs. 6. Which syndrome is associated with a pure sensory neuropathy? 7. True or False. Alcohol neuropathy includes: a . motor neuropathy b. sensory neu ropathy c. a bsent Achi l les reflex d . intense pain
3 1 .5.1
fa lse (d ista l m uscles) true true true true fa lse (occurs in 50% of patients) paraneoplastic synd rome (also associated with pyridoxine therapy)
3 1 .5.2
3 1 .5.3
fa lse true true fa lse
1 95
Part 1 0: Peripheral Nerves
1 96 8. a. b.
c. d. e. f. g.
Brachial neuritis: a ka P -T synd rome a ka i brach ial plexus neu ropathy Etiology: Prog nosis: Predominant sympto m : in Followed by: % Confined t o shoulder girdle in % __
True or False. The most important study in the diagnosis of lumbosacral plexus neuropathy is a . M RI b. CT c. EMG
3 1 .5.4
Parsonage-Tu rner id iopathic u nclear good pain wea kness in 96% 50%
9.
d.
ESR
3 1 .5.5
fa lse fa lse true (EMG in l u m bosacra l neuropathy - ru le out dia betic neuropathy) fa lse
EMG in lumbosacral neuropathy shows what in regards to: a . Fibri l l ation potentials in n u m ber decreased
1 0.
b.
Motor u n it potentials in n u m ber
decreased
c.
Motor u n it potentia ls i n a m plitude
increased
d.
Motor u n it potentia ls in d u ration
increased
e.
Motor u n it potentials that a re
polyphasic
f.
Have changes involving at least seg ments. t h e paraspi n a l muscles is highly
2
g.
Spari n g ; diag nostic
Complete the following about diabetic neuropathy: a . Dia betic patients show neu ropathy o r 50% EMG changes _%. neuropathy b. The fi rst symptom of dia betes may be
11.
c. 1 2.
a. b. c. d.
3 1 .5.5
3 1 .5.6
N e u ropathy might be red uced by control sugar of blood Complete the following about druginduced neuropathy: H i nt: CDEF c
D E F
3 1 .5.7
Chemothera py d rugs Dilantin (Phenytoin) Elavil (Am itri ptyl ine) Flagyl (Metronidazole)
Non-Entrapment Peripheral Neuropathies 1 3. True or False. Femoral neuropathy includes: a . weakness o f t h e q u a d riceps and il iopsoas b. patellar reflex - red u ced c. femoral stretch - positive d. sensation over latera l ca lf red uced
1 4. Answer the following regarding femoral neuropathy: a . N a m e t h e muscle responsible for i. knee extension ii. hip flexion b. To distinguish L4 radicu lopathy from femora l neuropathy, L4 radiculopathy wou l d not involve the c. Femoral neuropathy is caused by i. d ii. c
3 1 .5.8
true true true fa lse (femora l neu ropathy includes l sensation over a nterior thigh a n d medial calf.) 3 1 .5.8
q u a d riceps femoris il iopsoas i l iopsoas
dia betes compression
1 5. True or False. The most frequent cause of femoral neuropathy is fa lse a. intrabdominal tumor fa lse b. retroperitoneal hematoma c. dia betes true (Al l other options can cause femoral neuropathy. ) fa lse d . entra pment due t o i n g u i n a l hernia fa lse e. tra u m a
3 1 .5.8
1 6. True or False. Regarding AI DS neuropathy. a . I t u s u a l ly presents as proxi m a l sym metric polyneu ropathy. b. H IV+ only patients do not develop it. c. It never includes sensory elements.
3 1 .5.9
d . I t h a s a n infectious etiology. e. It may be caused by lym phomatous invasion of the meni nges or nerves. f. Drugs used to treat H IV can also cause neuropathies, most com monly N RTis and protease i n h ibitors.
fa lse (d ista l , sym metric polyneu ropathy) true fa lse (usually includes n u m bness and tingling) true true true
1 97
1 98 1 7.
a.
Part 1 0: Peripheral Nerves Complete the following about monoclonal gammopathy: Incl uded entities such a s i. m ii. Wa ldenstrom iii. M Responsible for % of neuropathies. Patient risk factors for anesthesia-related u l n a r neu ropathy include: g i. m ii. o r iii. prolonged post-op b ___ _
_____ _
b. c.
__
___
__
___
__
___
Complete the following about perioperative ulnar neuropathies: a . Avoid el bow flexion o f g reater than degrees. b. It tightens the retinacu l u m .
3 1 .5. 1 0
myeloma macrog lobulinemia MGUS 1 0% male gender obesity {BMI > 38} bed rest
1 8.
31 .5.1 1
1 10
__
_ _ __ ____
1 9.
a.
Complete the following about lower extremity neuropathy:
% i. common peroneal i n ii. risk is position Femoral neu ropathy where there is hemorrhage in the muscle. Meralgia pa resthetica i. tends to occur ii. in young slender iii. positioned hours iv. in operations lasting v. recovers in approxi mately ___
__
b. c.
_ _ __
___
_ __
___
__
20. What is the management of lower extremity neuropathy? a. Ca l l neurolog ist if not better in days. weeks. b. Do EMG not earlier than
__
21 .
a.
cu bita l tu nnel 31 .5.1 1
81 % l ithotomy psoas bilatera l ly males prone 6 to 1 0 6 months 31 .5.1 1
5 3
Complete the following about amyloid neuropathy and uremic neuropathy: Amyloid neu ropathy peri pheral nerves i. Amyloid can be deposited in
ii.
It prod uces a neu ropathy. iii. It can prod uce pressu re on nerves, i.e., Uremic neu ropathy i. occu rs in patients. ii. symptoms include and iii. ca n be relieved by _ _ __
sensory carpal tu nnel
_ _ _ __ _
b.
_ _ _ _ _ _
chronic renal fai l u re
___
_ _ _
____ ___ _
_ _ _
"Charlie horses" and " restless legs" dia lysis
3 1 .5. 1 2
Non-Entrapment Peripheral Neuropathies 22.
a. b.
•
Complete the following about postcardiac catheterization neuropathy: nerve. I t involves the It usually involves
3 1 .5. 1 2
femora l hematomas
Periphera l Nerve I njuries Describe the anatomy of the peripheral nerve. a . T h e connective tissue mem brane that surrounds individ ual axons is the
23.
surrounds g roups of axons (i.e. fascicles). su rrounds g roups of c. fascicles ( i . e . nerves).
b.
Complete the following regarding injury and regeneration of nerve: a . T h e regeneration rate = b. Su nderland system i. first deg ree: anatomy
3 1 .6.1
endoneurium Perineurium Epineuri u m
24.
ii.
second degree: axon con nective tiss ue is
___
iii. third-degree: axon and endoneurium d
25.
a.
Complete the following about peripheral neuropathies: Fou rth-deg ree axon inj u ry involves of a l l the elements but is intact.
Fifth-deg ree axon inj u ry: endo-, peri-, and epineurium is com pletely t c. Sixth-deg ree axon inj u ry: mixed thro u gh degree i nj u ries
b.
3 1 .6.1
1 m mfday (i.e. 1 inch/month) preserved ; cond uction block, compression, or ischemia inj u ried; endo-, peri-, epineuri u m intact (endoneuri u m provided tube for regeneration) disru pted (g rossly normal a ppearance, recovery related to the extent of intrafascicu l a r fibrosis) 3 1 .6.1
interru ption of a l l elements but epineurium is intact (nerve is i n d u rated and enlarged) tra nsected
____
first through fou rth
___
Describe injury classification of peripheral nerves and regeneration prognosis. a . Axon compressed
26.
Two classifications: Seddon and Su nderland Fi rst deg ree = Seddon neuropraxia; conduction block from com pression or ischemia, a n atomy preserved
Neurosurgery Books
3 1 .6.1
1 99
200
Part 1 0: Peripheral Nerves
b. Axon inj u red
c. Axon and endoneurium disrupted
d . Axon, endoneurium a n d perineurium disru pted e. Axon endo-, peri-, and epineurium disru pted
27.
What are the etiologies of brachial plexus injuries? H i nt: CPT
a. c b. P c. T
_ _ _
_ __
_ _ _ _
28.
a. b.
Second-deg ree = Seddon axonotmesis; inj u ry to axon and Wa lleria n degeneration ; endo-, peri-, epineurium intact; endoneurium provides "tu be" to optim ize successfu l rei nnervation of ta rget muscle Third degree = axon and endoneurium disrupted ; recovery inversely related to interfascicu l a r fibrosis; g ross normal a ppearance Fou rth-degree = i nterruption of axon, en do- and per neuri u m ; g ross reveals i n d u rated enlarged nerve Fifth-degree = Sed don neu rotmesis; complete tra nsection of axon, endo-, peri-, and epineuri u m 3 1 .6.2
com p ression penetration traction
Complete the following about traction (stretch) inju ries of the brachial plexus selectively: Spare the medial cord i. median nerve ii. I nj u re the posterior cord i. latera l cord ii.
Complete the following about the pre and post-ganglionic injuries: a . What nerve i nj u ry ca nnot b e repa ired? proxim a l to the dorsal root g a n g l ion (i.e. preganglionic) b. What is the evidence for such a n inj u ry? (Hint: prEH ms) pain i. p rhomboids ii. r EMG iii. E. Horner's synd rome iv. H v. m meningocele vi . s scapula
29.
_ _ __
_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
___ _
_ _ _ _
_ _ __
3 1 .6.2
3 1 .6.2
Non-Entrapment Peripheral Neuropathies Describe upper and lower brachial plexus injury. a . U pper brach ial plexus inj u ry i. E_-D palsy ii. C_-C_ iii. f s of h h from s iv. i a_ with e e or v. Com monly shoulder d m c vi . B t
30.
__
___
___
3 1 .6.2
__
__ _
___
___
__ _
Bellhop's tip, hand not affected
__
b.
Lower brachial plexus inj u ry: palsy i. a ka I< ii. C_-T_ iii. s a p of a t iv. f or P v. c h_ with w of s h m vi . s h __
__
__
in
__
__
__
__
__
31 .
a.
i. most com mon is ii. consisti ng of C5-C6 iii. C5, C6-C7 % % iv. lower C8-T1 Com bined is % % Bilatera l Sponta neous recovery is
__
% and
__
__
32.
a. b.
l
Complete the following about brachial plexus birth injuries: _ __
b. c. d.
Erb-Duchenne palsy C5-C6 forcefu l sepa ration of h u meral head from shoulder internally rotated a rm with extended el bow dystocia or motorcycle crash
___
__
%
Characterize upper brachial plexus injury - Erb's palsy. Roots i nvolved : __ _
Position of u pper extrem ity ( H i nt: erp) i. e ii. iii. p iv. looks like ___
___
__ _ ___ _ _ _ _
3 1 .6.2
u pper 50% 25% 2% 20% 4% 90% 3 1 .6.2
C5 (ABCDE) fifth letter of alpha bet, Erb palsy m a i n ly C5 and a lso C6, C7 extended rotated pronated Bellhop's tip position
201
202
Part 1 0: Peripheral Nerves
c. Weak muscles and their roots. i. d roots, ii. b roots, iii. r roots, iv. b roots, v. s roots, vi . i roots, d . Mechanism: e. From: i. b ii. m a
deltoid; CS, C6 biceps; CS, C6 rhom boids; C4, C5 brachioradialis; CS, C6 supraspinatus; C4, CS, C6 infraspinatus; CS, C6 shoulder sepa ration
___
___
___
___
___
__ _
_ ____ __ _
_ __ ___
__
birth inj u ries motorcycle accidents
__
__ _
Characterize lower brachial plexus injury - Kl umke's palsy. a . Roots i nvolved : b. Position of upper extrem ity ( H i nt: l
33.
___
_ _ _
_ __
_ _ __
_ _ _
_ _ __
d. e.
Mechanism: traction on From: i. f ii. b iii. P t ___
34.
a. b. c. d.
a rm
__
Complete the following regarding birth injury of brachial plexus: Incidence is i. u pper: _% ii. u pper plus C7 : _% mixed lower bilatera l _ _ _
35. True or False. The following are indications for early surgical exploration of the brachial plexus: a . a n y inj u ry needs repair
b.
prog ressive deficit
3 1 .6.2
C7 , CS, Tl claw hand (Simian hand) u l n a r claw median claw para lysis sma l l m u scles of hand Horner's synd rome if Tl involved abducted fa lls birth Pancoast tum ors 3 1 .6.2
0.3 to 2 / 1 000 births 50% (CS, C6) 25% (CS, C6, C7) 20% 2% C7, C8, Tl 4% 3 1 .6.2
fa lse (most i nj u ries will have maximal d eficit at onset then im p rove) true (prog ressive deficit likely vascu l a r inj u ry, explore im med iately)
Non-Entrapment Peripheral Neuropathies c.
d.
•
clean sharp inj u ry
true (clea n , sharp, fresh lacerati ng i nj u ries --> explore acutely and repa ir end-to end) g u nshot wound (GSW) to brach ial plexus fa lse (surgery is of little benefit)
Missile I njuries of Peripheral Nerves 36. a.
Regarding gunshot wounds: Most inju ries are t h e result o f s and c and not d n t. % wi l l recover with b. Approxi mately expecta nt management. c. H owever, if there is lack of improvement on EMG, intervention should occur about _ - _ months after the inj u ry to avoid fu rther nerve fibrosis and m u scle atrophy. __
__
__
3 1 .7
shock and cavitation; di rect nerve transection
_ __
__
•
70% 5-6 months
Thoracic Outlet Synd rome 37. True or False. Clinical presentation of thoracic outlet syndrome may include a . pallor a n d ischemia o f h a n d and fi ngers. b. arm swelling and edema. c. brach ial plexus lower tru n k dysfu nction. d . brach ial plexus median cord dysfu nction. 38.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g.
list the differential diagnosis for thoracic outlet syndrome. h c I t c -- --- ---
__ __
-- --
__ __ __ __ __ __ __
0
c
__ __ __
synd rome
3 1 .8.1
true true true true 3 1 .8.2
herniated cervical disc cervica l arthrosis l u n g cancer (Pancoast tum or) tardy u l n a r nerve palsy carpal tunnel synd rome orthopedic shoulder problems com p l ex reg ional pain synd rome (CPRS)
39. True of False. Regarding thoracic outlet syndrome, conservative treatment may be as effective as the surgical treatment.
true
3 1 .8.3
40. True or False. Scalenus syndrome is a well characterized and accepted cause of thoracic outlet syndrome.
fa lse
3 1 .8.4
203
32 Neurophthalmology
•
Nystagmus Complete the following about nystagmus: r a. What is nystagm us? i invol u nta ry rhythmic of the eyes osci l lation 0 jerk nystagmus b. What is the most common form? c. H ow is it d i rectionality defined? fast com ponent d . What is t h e a bnormal com ponent? slow component e. What is vertica l nystagmus indicative of? f i. p posterior fossa pathology p ii. s sedatives iii. a antiepileptic d rugs d 1.
32. 1 . 1
___
2. Seesaw nystagmus occurs with a lesion in the
diencephalon
3.
Nystagmus retractorius occurs with a lesion in the ; for example p
u pper midbrain teg mentu m ; pinealoma
4.
Ocular bobbing occurs with a lesion in the
pontine teg mentu m
5.
Matching. Match the form of nystagmus and the location of the lesion. Form: CD seesaw nytagmus; 0 convergence nystagmus; ® nystagmus retractori us; @ down beat nystagmus; ® upbeat nystagmus; ® a bd ucting nystagmus; (i) ocu l a r bobbing Location: (a-f) below diencephalon u pper mid brain teg mentum mid bra i n tectum pons medial longitudinal fascicu l u s (M LF) med u l la posterior-fossa - cervicomed u l l a ry j u n ction
a. b. c. d. e. f.
32. 1 .2
32. 1 .2
32. 1 .2
32. 1 .2
CD 0 ®
@ , (f) ® @
Neurosurgery Books
Neurophthalmology 6. Name the location of the lesion for the following forms of nystagmus: a. seesaw nystagmus b. nystagmus retractori us
•
c.
down beat nystagmus
d. e.
u pbeat nystagmus ocu lar bobbing
32. 1 .2
diencephalon u pper mid brain teg mentu m/pineal reg ion cervicomed u l l a ry junction (fora men m a g n um ) med u l l a pons
Papil ledema 7. Complete t h e following about papilledema: a . What is papilledema ca used by?
32.2.1
b. How long does it take to develop? c. What is the earliest it is seen? d . Does i t cause visual b l u rring? e. Does it cause visual field distortion? f.
Differentiate from optic neu ritis. i. fu nduscopy ii.
may look a l i ke
visual loss more with
iii. pain on pal pation more with
Thought to be ca used by axoplasmic stasis. Theory: 1 . I ncreased intracranial pressu re (ICP) transm itted to the optic disk via subarachnoid (SA) space. Reti nal venous pulsations obl iterated. 2 . Retin a l a rteria l : venous pressu re < 1 .5 : 1 . 24 to 48 hours 6 hours no ( u n less severe and prolonged) no ( u n less severe and prolonged)
optic neuritis ___
8. What is the differential diagnosis for unilateral papilledema? ( H int: FIOM) a. F b. I c. 0 d. M
optic neuritis 32.2.2
Foster-Ken n edy synd rome I nfla m m ation Optic glioma M u ltiple Sclerosis
205
206 •
Part 1 1 : Neurophthalmology and Neurotology
Visual Fields Complete the following concerning visual fields: a . Normal visual field extends approxi mately from : i. nasa l ly i n each eye ii. tem pora lly in each eye above and below the iii. horizonta l merid ian in each eye b. The normal blind spot is due to and is located to the side of the macu l a r visual a rea in each eye. c . Macular splitti ng occu rs with lesions or to the latera l geniculate body (LG B). d. Macu l a r sparing tends to occur with lesions to the LG B.
9.
__ 0
__ 0
-- o
•
3 2 .3 . 1
35 90 50 a bsence of light receptors in the optic disc where the retina is penetrated by the optic nerve; tempora l a nterior or posterior
32.3.2
posterior
Visual Field Deficits 1 0. a.
Regarding visual field deficits: Ca n be tested either at the with b. Visual field deficits depend on the location of the i nj u ry, for exam ple: i. rig ht optic nerve:
32.4
or
bedside; forma l perimetry
___ _ _ _ _
ii. optic chiasm : iii. rig ht Meyer's loop: with
biltem pora l hemia nopsia left su perior quadrantanopsia with macu lar sparing
iv. rig ht occipita l (visual cortex): with
left homonymous hemia nopsia with macular sparing
_ ___ __ ___
___
___
•
right monocu l a r blindness
Pu pillary Diameter Complete the following concerning the pupillodilator nerve fibers: a . First-order sym pathetic nerve fi bers i. orig i n : p h ii. desti nation: i cel l col u m n ) ( to iii. neu rotra nsm itter: a b. Second-order sym pathetic nerve fibers i. orig i n : i cel l col u m n ii. desti nation: s c g
11.
_ _ _
__
___ _
__
__
___
32.5.1
posterolatera l hypothalamus intermediolatera l (C8 to T2) Acetylcholine (ACh) interm ediolatera l su perior cervica l gang lion
Neurophthalmology c. Third-order sym pathetic nerve fi bers i. orig i n : s c g of m ii. desti nation: p g the eye, I M m iii. neurotra nsm itter: n ___
__
1 2.
How are pupillodilator muscles arranged?
1 3.
Describe the anatomy of sympathetic outflow to the eye. {Hint: hilsc) h
a. b. c.
1 4.
_ __
c
____ ___ _ __
The pupilloconstrictor (parasympathetic) are muscles arranged c as a s._____ .
su perior cervica l g a n g l ion pupil lodi lator muscle (long ciliary nerves); lacrimal g l a n d , M u l ler's m u scle norepi nephrine radially
32.5.1
32.5.1
hypothalamus intermediolatera l cel l col u m n latera l horn cells; ciliary gang lion Sym pathetic summary: fi rst order: posterolatera l (a) hypothalamus __, descend in midbra i n teg mentum u ncrossed to pons, med u l l a , s p i n a l cord {SC) t o t h e (b) intermediolatera l cel l col u m ns, C8-T2 (ci liospinal center of Budge) --> syna pse with (c) latera l horn cells acetylcholine and give off second-order neurons (a) (preg a n g l ionics). Second order: enter sym pathetic chain __, (b) su perior cervical ganglion. Third order: (a) (postg a n g l ionics): go u p with common ca rotid a rtery {CCA) (b), those that med iate sweat to face go up external ca rotid a rtery {ECA) , the rest go u p internal ca rotid a rtery {ICA). Some pass: = (d) Vl __, ciliary gang lion __, (e) pupillodilator norepinephrine = ICA __, (f) ophthalmic a rtery __, (g) lacrimal gland and the M u l l e r muscle. concentric as a sphincter
32.5.2
207
208 1 5.
a. b. c.
Part 1 1 : Neurophthalmology and Neurotology Describe the parasympathetic outflow to the eyes. {Hint: Ect) E _ _ _ _____
c.___
t.
__ _
32.5.2
Ed inger-Westphal ciliary g a n g l ion third nerve Pa rasym pathetics s u m m a ry: Prega n g l ionics a rise in the Ed inger-Westph a l nucleus at the level of the su perior col liculus syna pse in the ciliary ganglion. Postganglionics travel on the third nerve to (e) i n nervate sphincter pupillae and ciliary m u scle (th ickens lens ca using accommodation via relaxation).
1 6.
Describe the pupillary light reflex. ( H i nt: ropEtcs) a. r b. o c. p d. E e. t. f. c. g. s _ _ _ _
_ _ _ _ _ ___
___
_ _ _ _
_ _ _ _
___ _
32.5.3
retina optic nerve pretecta l Ed inger-Westphal third nerve ciliary gang lion sphincter light reflex S u m m a ry: Med iated by (a) rods and cones of retina. Transmit via axons to (b) optic nerve. Bypass latera l geniculate body ( u n like vision) syna pse in (c) pretecta l n uclear complex. Con nect to both (d) Edinger Westphal nuclei. Prega n g l ionics travel in (e) third nerve to (f) ciliary gangion, etc. Postg a n g l ionics via third nerve to pupillary sphi ncter. Ciliary m u scles thicken (relax) ca using accommodation.
Neurophthalmology 1 7.
Complete the following about Argyll Roberston pupil: {Hint: ALRP = Argyl l Robertson pupil = a bsent light response pupil) Key featu re is or ALRP. It occurs in Light-near d issociation means the pupil constricts when focusing on a n object
a bsent light response pupil
but the pupil does not react to
l ig ht
1 8.
Does afferent pupillary defect cause anisocoria?
no
1 9.
Complete the following about anisocoria: uneq u a l pupils with an afferent pupillary defect { Marcus-G u n n ) means there a re
a.
_ _ __ __
32.5.4
____ ____
b. c. d.
a.
_ _ _ _
syphilis near (i.e. convergence)
32.5.5
32.5.5
two lesions
Physiologic a n isocoria occu rs in __% 20% of people. 0.4 c . The difference is usually __ m m . d . Sudden onset o f a n isocoria is usually d u e d rugs to 1 to 2 e . Sym pathomimetics cause __ to mm of di lation and f. i. parasym patholytics cause __ 8 mm of di lation and the does not ii. eye __ ___ react to lig ht. b.
20. What is the differential diagnosis of anisocoria? H i nt: u tAp Hat a. u _ _ _ _
b.
t.
___ _
c. A
___ _
d.
P· ----
e.
H
f.
a
g . t.
____
__ __
____
32.5.5
uncal herniation (also has menta l status changes) tra u m a (tra u m atic iridoplegia myd riasis or m iosis) Adie's pupil (iris palsy i m pa i red postgang lionic pa rasympathetics) physiologic (less than 1 mm difference 20% of population) Horner's synd rome (im paired sym pathetics to pupillodilator muscle) aneurysm (posterior com m u nicating, basi l a r) third nerve palsy (pupil sparing-dia betes mellitus [DM 1 ] , EtO H , cavernous aneurysm) -
Neurosurgery Books
209
21 0
Part 1 1 : Neurophthalmology and Neurotology
2 1 . What is the differential diagnosis for Marcus-Gunn pupil? a . Location o f lesion: __ _
i.
-d i n (m -n s ,v ), or t Marcus Gunn is/are the third nerve intact? pa rasym pathetic nerves intact? _ ___
___
___ _
ii.
___
___
b.
In i. ii.
__
_ _ _
__ _
32.5.5
ipsilatera l to i m paired direct reflex a nterior to chiasm retina - detachment, infa rction nerve - neuritis ( m u lti ple sclerosis, vira l ) or tra u m a Yes Yes
22.
Complete the following about Adie's pupil: a. Dilated or constricted pupil? b. Due to impaired prega n glionic or postgang lionic fibers? c. Thought to be caused by a
vira l infection
d.
ciliary ganglion
_ __
23.
a. b. c. d.
of the Complete the following about third nerve compression: exa mple is most common is occasionally aneurysm usually t h e pupil ___ _
___ _ _ _ _
__ __ ___
Complete the following about Horner's syndrome: a . T h e abnormal p u p i l is b. Ptosis is on the side of the pupil.
32.5.5
dilated postgang lionic
32.5.5
aneurysm P-comm basilar bifu rcation does not spare
24.
___ _ _ __
32.5.6
smaller small
25. The ptosis is due to paralysis of the and muscles.
su perior and i nferior tarsal
32.5.6
26.
Is the ptosis complete or partial?
partial
32.5.6
27.
Enophthalmos is due to paralysis of M muscle, which is or is not involved in Horner's syndrome?
M u l ler's m u scle; is involved
32.5.6
____
___ ___
___
28.
Horner's syndrome is caused by interruption of sympathetics to the eye and face anywhere along their path. Name specific causes that affect the following: a . fi rst-order neurons (th ree causes) from v i. o ii. s n iii. _ _ _ _
_ _ _ _
___ _
_ _ _ _
32.5.6
infa rction from vascu l a r occlusion (usually PICA) syringobulbia intra parenchymal neoplasm
Neurophthalmology b.
second-order neurons (th ree causes) i. I s ii. s c t. n iii. a p {P t ) c. third-order neurons (five causes) i. n t. __ _
___
___
__ _
__
___
__
__
_ ___
ii. c iii. c iv. m
---
v
___
b
d
a
29. Trace the third-order neuron in the pupillodilationfsympathetic path. c a . neurons from t h e s g b. to the p m c. a n d M m
___
latera l sym pathectom ies sig nificant chest tra u m a apical pul monary neoplasms {Pancoast tumors) neck tra u m a (e.g. ca rotid dissections) ca rotid vascu l a r disease cervica l bony abnormalities migraine 32.5.6
su perior cervical g a n g l ion
__ _
___
___
_ _ _
_ __
pupillodi lator muscle M u l ler's muscle
30. True or False. Answer the following regarding Horner's syndrome: a . I n a patient with Horner's syn d rome a n d preserved sweati ng o f t h e face, the lesion is located i. in the first-order neuron ii. in the second-order neuron iii. in the third-order neuron
b.
32.5.6
fa lse fa lse true (inj u red fibers on ICA prod uce Horner, intact sweat fi bers to face on ECA). this is com pati ble with a Pancoast tumor. fa lse {Pa n coast tumor wou l d affect t h e sym pathetics between the spinal cord and su perior cervical g a n g l ion (i.e., second-order neurons] . The fibers to sweat glands wou l d be damaged beca use they had not yet sepa rated to travel with the ECA.)
Complete the following about Horner's syndrome: a . What medication is used i f diag nosis of Horner's synd rome is in dou bt? b. How does it work?
31 .
c. Therefore in Horner's synd rome the pupil wi l l with d.
I n a normal patient the pupil wil l
32.5.6
coca ine coca ine blocks norepinephrine ( N E) reu pta ke not di late with cocaine (no N E release) dilate norma lly
21 1
21 2 •
Part 1 1 : Neurophthalmology and Neurotology
Extraocu lar M uscle (EOM) System 32.
a. b. c. d. e. f.
Matching. From the list below identify the cranial nerve that innervates the muscle: Nerve: CD CN I l l ; CD CN IV; G) CN VI H i nt: L6 S04 M u scle: (a-f) below medial rectus inferior rectus i nferior oblique su perior rectus su perior oblique latera l rectus
32.6.1
CD CD CD CD CD G)
Complete the following regarding the frontal eye field: a. True or Fa lse. It moves eyes latera lly to the opposite side. b. It is located in the Brod m a n n area
true
c.
genu of the internal ca psule
33.
Its fibers go through the
__
of the
d.
It sends fibers to the ipsilatera l nucleus. e. It sends fi bers to the ipsilatera l n ucleus f. and the contra latera l nucleus g . via the
__
h . T h e rig ht para median pontine reticu lar formation (PPRF) controls latera l eye movements to the 34.
a.
Complete the following about the extraocular motor system: I nj u ry to the medial longitudinal fascicu l u s (M LF) is ca lled
b. c.
Convergence is If the rig ht M LF is inj u red the right eye wil l not d . T h e left eye when looki ng latera lly shows i. w on a ii. n on a e. The most common ca use of M LF ma lfu n ction is __
35. With third nerve palsy, if there is ptosis it will be on the side of the pupil. __
32.6.1
8
paramedian pontine reticular formation (PPRF) sixth third medial longitudinal fascicu l u s (M LF) rig ht
32.6.2
intern uclear ophthalmoplegia (INO) not im paired move medially (adduct) wea kness on abduction nystagmus on adduction mu ltiple sclerosis (MS) l a rge
32.6.3
Neurophthalmology 36.
a. b. c.
Complete the following about oculomotor neuropathy: Exa m ple is Usually the pupil. Usually resolved in . _ _ __
__
__ __
Name three causes of non-pupil sparing oculomotor palsy. (Hint: ta u ) a . t. b. a
32.6.3
dia betes spa res 8 weeks
37.
_ _ __
_ _ _
c.
u
32.6.3
tumor aneurysm (PCom m , Basi l a r tip) u n ca l herniation
38.
Name seven causes of pu pil-sparing oculomotor palsy. (Hint: m EtDacc) a. m b. E c. t. d. D e. a f. c. _ _ __
_ __ _
_ _ __
_ ___
_ __ _
_ _ _ _____ _ __ _ __
g. 39.
a.
c.____
_ _____ _ ___
32.6.3
myasthenia g ravis EtOH tem pora l a rteritis OM atherosclerosis chronic prog ressive ophthal moplegia cavernous sinus lesions
Complete the following about trochlear nerve palsy (CN IV):
i.
I n relation to the aqueduct the trochlear n ucleus lies at the level of the
32.6.4
ventra l
__ _
b.
ii.
i. The axons pass and ii. decussate It innervates the m u scle Su perior oblique m u scle i. Pri ma rily depresses the eye. ii. I n prima ry gaze it moves the eye and ___
c. d.
____ __ _ _
_ _ _
inferior col liculi dorsa l ly intern a l ly su perior oblique adducted down and out
a. b.
Complete the following about the unique features of the trochlear nerve: Nucleus is on the side of the opposite muscle it goes to: su perior oblique m u scle
c.
It is the only nerve to decussate
40.
___ _
intern a l ly
I t is t h e only nerve t o exit to the posterior brainstem. fa lse e. True or Fa lse. It passes through the a n n u l u s of Zinn. f. Pa lsy resu lts in eye deviation " and "up and i n "
d.
__
32.6.4
21 3
Part 1 1 : Neurophthalmology and Neurotology
21 4 g. h.
the Head is ti lted to the CN IV palsy. Diplopia is exacerbated with looking (i.e., ).
__
41 .
a. b. c. d.
u
e.
c.____
f.
e
g. h.
n s
a. b. c. d. e. f. g.
•
down; stairs
__
Name the causes of abducens palsy. H i nt: abd ucens a b. d
42.
side opposite
__ _
___
___ _
_ _ _ _
___ _
_ _ _ _
___ _
Matching. Match the syndrome with the nerves involved in multiple extraocular motor involvement disorders. Synd rome: CD cavernous sinus; @ su perior orbita l fissure; ® orbita l a pex Nerves involved: (a-g) below II Ill IV Vl V2 V3 VI
32.6.5
a rteritis, aneurysm s sixth nerve palsy dia betes, Dorello ca n a l {Gradenigo's synd rome) u n controlled ICP, pseudotumor, tra u m a , tumor cavernous sinus lesions, clivus, chordoma, or fractu re eye disease, thyroid, myasthenia g ravis neoplasms sphenoid sinusitis {Gradenigo's synd rome) 32.6.6
® CD. @ . ® CD. @ . ® CD. @ . ® CD CD. @ . ®
Neurophthal mologic Synd romes 43. a.
b.
Regarding Tolosa-Hunt Syndrome: Is t h e ophthal moplegia pai nfu l o r painless? Which nerve(s) is/are involved?
c. The pupil is usually d . How long do sym ptoms last? e. Can there be sponta neous rem ission? f. Can there be recu rrent attacks? g . Is there systemic involvement? h . How is i t treated? __ _
32.7.2
pai nfu l any nerve traversing the cavernous sinus spared days to weeks yes yes no systemic steroids = 60 to 80 mg of pred nisone by mouth daily (slow ta per)
Neurosurgery Books
Neurophthalmology i. The disease is thought to be a
nonspecific inflammation
j. The infl a m m ation is located at the
su perior orbita l fissu re
44.
a.
Complete the following about Raeder's paratrigeminal neuralgia: Name two components. p i. u 0
ii.
h
n
t
b. The pupil is c. True or Fa lse. The pain is continuous. d. The pain is located at the
45.
a. b. c.
d. e.
Complete the following regarding Gradenigo's syndrome: What is G radenigo's synd rome? I nvolves ca n a l . Name t h e classic triad . of i. p ii. p where? e iii. d Pai n is located a t the p a Featu res {H int: G radenigo) i. G ii. r iii. a
iv. v. vi . vii . viii. ix.
•
d e n i p 0
p
32.7.3
u n i latera l ocu losym pathetic paresis (thi n k Horner's synd rome - anhidrosis ± ptosis) homolatera l trig eminal nerve involvement { Horner's synd rome and tic-like pain) small fa lse {interm ittent, tic-like) trigeminal nerve Vl (ophth a l m ic d ivision) and sym pathetics 32.7.4
Apical petrositis Dorelia's ca n a l palsy; a bd ucens pain; retro-orbita l d raining ear petrous a pex
Gradenigo retro-orbita l pain apical petrositis - abducens palsy d raining ear - Dorelia's ca nal ear d raining neu ropathy of VI infl a m mation petrositis orbita l pain
Miscellaneous Neurophthal mologic Sig ns 46.
a. b. c.
Complete the following about ocular bobbing: T h e eyes move How many times per min ute? Ocu l a r bobbing is associated with bilatera l para lysis of ---,I t is seen with destruction of the _ _ _ _
_ _
d.
32.8
downward 2 to 1 2 horizonta l gaze
_ _ _ __
ponti ne teg mentu m
21 5
21 6 47.
Part 1 1 : Neurophthalmology and Neurotology compressive
Optic atrophy is due to a lesion.
48. Opsoclonus is
___ ,
-
• -
eye
ra pid, conjugate, i rreg u l a r, non-rhyth mic
32.8
32.8
movement. 49.
Oscillopsia is the visual sensation that or stationary objects are side-to-side.
______
vibrati ng or swaying
32.8
33 Neurotology
•
Dizziness and Vertigo 1 . The differential diagnosis for dizziness includes: a. n s b. d c. v d. I ______
__ __ __
___ _
__ _
_ ____
2. What is the definition of vertigo? a . Sensation o f b. from i. e d or ii. v d n, __ __ __ __
___
______
______
____ __ __
_ ____ __
______
3. True or False. Inner ear dysfunction presenting with vertigo includes the following: a. la byrinthitis b. tra u m a , i.e. e c. d rugs, i.e. a d . acoustic neuroma __ __ __ __ _
________ _
e. vertebrobasilar insufficiency
33.1 . 1
near syncope diseq u i l i bri u m vertigo lig htheadedness 33.1 . 1
movement (usually spinning) intern a l ear dysfu nction vesti bular nerve dysfu nction 33.1 . 1
true true (i.e. endolymphatic leak) true (i.e. a m inog lycosides) fa lse (acoustic neuroma does not cause inner ea r dysfu nction but may cause vertigo from compression of the vesti bular nerve) true (other causes of vertigo include inner causes: Meniere disease, benign/paroxysm a l positional vertigo, syphilis)
4.
Complete the following regarding cupulolithiasis: a . What is cupulolithiasis? c c in s c b. It is a lso known as b p p v c. Sym ptoms a re made man ifest by __ __ __
__ __ _
__ __ ___
___
d.
Patient is usually in
_____
.
33.1 . 1
Ca lci u m concentrations in semicircu l a r ca nal benign pa roxysmal positional vertigo head turning bed
21 8
Part 1 1 : Neurophthalmology and Neurotology
e. Is it self-limiti ng? f. For how long? Is hearing affected? 5.
a.
yes usually not for > 1 yea r no hearing loss
Describe indications and complications of selective vestibular neurectomy (SVN). Ind ications i. M d ii. p v Rationa le? _ __ _ ___
b.
c.
Com p l ications i. h ii. o
___
_ _ __
___
_ ___
iii. I d
in the of b with bilatera l SVN
____
6. Answer the following about the vestibular nerve: a . I n which h a l f o f t h e eig hth nerve complex? b. What color relative to the coch lear nerve? c. To preserve hearing what vessel m u st be preserved? 7. True or False. CN VII can be differentiated from CN VII I at the internal auditory canal (lAC) by all of the following: a. direct sti m u lation/recording b. lies a nterior/su perior to VI I I c . tra nsverse crest and B i l l bar d. darker color cfw CN VI I I e . Electromyographic (EMG) monitoring of CN VII d u ring manipu lation
•
33. 1 . 2
Men iere's d isease partial vestibular inj u ry I n disabling cases of vertigo, refractory to medical/nondestructive s u rgical treatment. SVN preserves heari n g ; is 90% (Meniere disease) and 80% (vertiginous spells) effective. hearing loss ( u n usual) oscil lopsia (Dandy's synd rome) loss of balance in the dark with bilatera l SVN (loss of vestibu le-ocular reflex) 33. 1 .2
su perior more g ray a rtery of the auditory ca n a l 33. 1 .2
true true true fa lse (CN VII is paler/wh iter) true
Meniere's Disease 8.
Meniere's disease is also known as e h
endolym phatic hyd rops
33.2 . 1
_ _ _
What is the clinical triad of Meniere's disease? a a. v v b. t. c. h I
9.
___
___
___
__
33.2.3
violent vertigo attacks ti n n itus "escaping stea m " hearing loss (fl uctuati ng, low frequency)
Neurotology 1 0.
a. b. c. d.
Diagnostic studies for patients with Meniere's disease include: E with b c s a B No findings on r _
---
1 1 . True or False. Treatment of Meniere's disease includes: a . middle e a r perfusion with genta m icin b. bilatera l vesti b u l a r neu rectomy
c. salt restriction d . vesti bular s u ppressa nts (e.g. Va l i u m , meclizine) e. endolymphatic shu nting f. d i u retics (e.g. Diamox)
•
33.2.3
ENG with bithermal caloric stim u l ation aud iogram BAER radiographic imaging 33.2.3
true fa lse (bilatera l ablative proced u re is to be avoided) true true true true
Facial Nerve Pa lsy 1 2. Answer the following about supranuclear facial palsy: a . Which part o f t h e face is involved? b. Emotional facial expression (e.g. smiling) is c. The lesion is the lowest part of the
d.
1 3.
a. b. c. d. e.
Part of the face is spared para lysis has beca use the Complete the following regarding nuclear facial palsy: I t ca uses para lysis o f a l l muscles. Plus sixth nerve palsy constitutes the synd rome. It ca n be caused by a particu lar tumor ca l led of Especi ally when i t the the True or Fa lse. N uclear facial palsy is due to damage to the motor nucleus at the pontomed u l l a ry junction. ___
1 4. True or False. Regarding CN VII anatomy: a . Enters superior-anterior portion o f lAC. b. External genu is genicu late ganglion. c. GSPN is first branch after the ganglion. d . Exits a t stylomastoid foramen.
33.3.2
lower only intact precentra l gyrus u pper face; bilatera l representation 33.3.2
ipsilatera l CN VII innervated M i l l a rd-Gubler med u l loblastoma invades the floor of the fou rth ventricle true
33.3.2
true true true true
Neurosurgery Books
21 9
Il
220
Part 1 1 : Neurophthalmology and Neurotology
1 5.
a.
Complete the following about the seventh nerve: It exits t h e brainstem at the
b. It enters the lAC at the c. The geniculate g a n g l ion is located in the bone. d . T h e fi rst branch is the
33.3.2
pontomed u l l a ry j u n ction su peroanterior portion tem poral
h. The next bra n ch is the
g reater s u perficia l petrosal nerve pterygopalatine g a n g l ion lacrimal g land and nasal muscosa- d ry eye and nasal mucosa if inj u red sta pedi u s m u scle - to ear hyperacusis chorda tym pa ni - taste
i.
stylomastoid fora men
e. which goes to the f. and innervates the and g . T h e next branch goes t o the
It then exits the s f j. a n d sends branches to the ___
Name the facial nerve branches within the temporal bone and their function. a. g
face
1 6.
b.
s
c.
c
d . fibers t o s
g
__
e. the nerve travels on to Name the facial nerve branches to the facial muscles cranial to caudal. a. t b. z c. b d. m e. c
33.3.2
g reater superficia l petrosa l nerve (GSPN) to pterygopalatine ganglion, innervates nasal and palatine m u cosa and lacri m a l gland bra nch to sta ped ius muscle, vol u m e reg u lation chorda tym pa ni, taste sensation from a nterior two thirds of the tongue saliva ry glands, submandibular, sublingual facia l m u scles
1 7.
Name the three most common causes of facial nerve palsy. a. B b. h c. t
33.3.2
tem pora l zygomatic buccal mandibular cervica l
1 8.
33.3.3
Bell's palsy herpes zoster oticus tra u m a / basal sku l l fractu re
Neurotology 1 9.
Provide the differential diag nosis for facial nerve palsy.
20. Describe seventh nerve palsy. a . T h e most common cause o f facia l palsy is b. Etiology: c. Probable etiology: v i p d d . Usually proceeded b y a _ _ _
___
_ _ _ _
_ _ _
__
e. f. g.
h.
It is caused by the virus. It prog resses to Meaning i. fi rst ii. then iii. and then iv. and then Percent that recover com pletely is % %; parti ally Manage with and S d is ra rely used . If herpetic vesicles a re present and VZV a ntibody titers rise, these patients a re diag nosed with h z and there is o f p a higher cha nce of f n d _ _ _ _ _ _ _
_ _ _ _
acoustic tumor Bel l ' s palsy congenital dia betes fractu re G u i l l a i n-Ba rre herpes zoster l
33.3.3
33.3.4
Bel l ' s palsy u n known vira l infl a m matory demyeli nating polyneu ritis vira l synd rome herpes simplex dista lly to proxi m a l ly facia l movements wea k loss of taste and salivation hyperacusis decreased tearing 7 5 to 80%; 1 0%
__
i. j.
_ _ _ _
___
___
EMG and steroids; S u rgical decompression herpes zoster oticus facia l pa ralysis; facia l nerve degeneration
33.3.5
___
__
_ __
___ _
21 . What are the considerations for facial nerve injury surgical repair? a . I f known t o b e interru pted , _ _ _ _
b.
Options for anastomosis include: , which creates some i. h t morbid ity a ii. s , which sacrifices some s m If known to be in conti nu ity, . Role o f electrical testi ng?
33.3.6
rea nastomose ea rly hypog lossa l ; tongue
__
___
____
___
c. d.
_ ___
___
spinal accessory; shoulder movement severa l months of observation serial electrica l testi ng after 1 week
221
222 •
Part 1 1 : Neurophthalmology and Neurotology
Hearing Loss a.
Describe the following about hearing loss: Con du ctive i. patient speech ii. Ri nne
b.
iii. Weber latera l izes to side. Sensorineura l i. patient speech ii. Ri nne
22.
33.4. 1
_ __
Normal or low vol u m e voice Ai r < bone = negative (i.e. abnormal) poor hearing
_ __
loud voice Ai r > bone = positive (i.e. normal) good hearing
___
iii. Weber latera l izes to side. ___
33.4.2
34 General Information, Classification and Tumor Markers
•
Classification of Nervous System Tu mors 1 . True or False. The following tumor is considered to be a World Health Organization (WHO) grade IV: a. anaplastic astrocytoma
b. g l iosarcoma c. fibri l l a ry astrocytoma d.
su bependym a l giant cel l astrocytoma
Ta ble 34.2
fa lse, anaplastic astrocytoma is g rade I l l true fa lse, fi bri l l a ry astrocytoma is g rade II fa lse, SEGA is g rade I I
2. True or False. Tumors o f mixed neuronal-glial origin include the following: a. g a n g l ioglioma true true b. centra l neu rocytoma c. prim itive neu roectodermal tumor {PNET) fa lse, PNET is listed under embryonal tumors d. desmoplastic infantile g a n g l iog lioma true {DIG) fa lse, listed under pinealocyte e. pineoblastoma tumor
Ta ble 34.2
3. Complete t h e following about medulloblastoma: a . Medulloblastoma is considered t o b e a n type of tumor. b. It is a lso known as
Ta ble 34.2
embryonal
___
__ _
4.
a. b.
Name the two types of craniopharyngiomas: a __ _
P·---
5. The following primary cancers commonly metastasize to the brain: a. I (especi ally s c_) b. b c. m d. r c c e. I f. g __
__
_ __
_ __
__
__
_ _ _
_ _ _ __
_ ____
P N ET Ta ble 34.2
adama nti nomatous papi l l a ry Ta ble 34.2
l u n g , small cel l breast melanoma ren a l cel l ca rci noma lym phoma gastrointestin a l
224 •
Part 1 2: Primary Tumors of the Nervous and Related Systems
Brain Tumors - General Clinical Aspects 6.
List the four most common presentations of brain tumors and their frequency. n d . % a. p __
___
b. c. d.
h m s
___
_
____
___
w
%
____
_
__
%
_
%
34. 2 . 1
prog ressive neurologic deficit: 68% headache: 54% motor wea kness: 45% seizure: 26%
tu mor 7. When encountering a first-time seizure in a patient older than 20 years of age, think until proven otherwise. 8.
Describe the characteristic "syndromes" of the following: ,d , a. Frontal lobe: a changes p or o b. Temporal lobe: a h a l l u cinations, m i m pairment, s c q c. Pa rieta l lobe: contra latera l m or s i m pa i rment, h h d . Occi pita l lobe: contra latera l v f deficits, a ___
___
___
_ __
_ _ _
__ _ _ _ _ _
_ _ _ _
___
_ _ __
__
___
9.
__
_
What are 5 common etiologies of headache in the setting of an intracranial tumor?
34. 2 . 2
abulia, dementia, personality changes aud itory or olfactory; memory impairment, contra latera l su perior quadra nta nopsia motor or sensory; homonymous hemia nopsia visual field deficits ; alexia 1 . I ncreased ICP due to mass effect or hyd rocephalus 2 . I nvasion of pain sensitive structu res including d u ra , blood vessels, or periosteum 3 . Secondary to difficu lty with vision 4. Hypertension secondary to increased ICP 5. Psychogenic due to stress from loss of fu nctional capacity
1 0.
Complete the following concerning a > 20-year-old patient presenting with a headache: a . T h e classical headache associated with a bra i n tumor is characterized by: i. worsening in the (A. M . vs. P.M.) ii. ( I n creased vs. Decreased) with cough iii. ( I n creased vs. Decreased) with bending forwa rd iv. associated with n and/or v __
34. 2 . 1
34.2.3
34.2.3
AM increased increased na usea ; vomiti ng
___ _
Neurosurgery Books
General Information, Classification and Tumor Markers b.
What percentage of patients have these "classic" headaches?
1 1 . The vomiting center.
____
is the so-called a rea postrema
1 2.
Cranial nerve has the longest intracranial course.
1 3.
Match the area of cerebellumfbrainstem with symptoms CD cerebeller hemisphere; (?) verm is; ® brainstem Sym ptoms: (a-g ) below ataxia of extremities broad-based gait tru ncal ataxia dysmetria intention tremor nysta g m u s cranial nerve dysfu nction
a. b. c. d. e. f. g.
8% (77% had headache similar to tension headache, 9% were similar to migraine, only 8% showed classic brain tumor headache; two thirds of these had high ICP)
_
1 4. What are the pros and cons of placing a shunt or external ventricular drain ( EVD) into a pediatric patient with a posterior fossa tumor and hydrocephalus? a. Pros: may possibly lower o i. m b. Cons: i. l s h u nt of peritoneum ii. s herniation iii. u of shunt iv. i v. d in defi nitive treatment
CN VI (abducens nerve)
34. 2 . 5
34. 2 . 5
34. 2 . 5
CD (?) (?) CD CD ® ® 34. 2 . 5
operative morta l ity
_ _ _
_ __
___
•
life-long seeding u pward tra nstentorial infection delay
Pediatric Brain Tumors 1 5.
Common pediatric brain tumors include: g p tumors
a. b. c. c. d . t. e. g f. P m
__
___
_ _ _ __
___ _ __
___
tu mors including
_ _ _ __
34.3.2
gliomas pineal tumors craniopharyngiomas teratomas g ra n u lomas PN ET; med u l loblastoma
225
226
Part 1 2: Primary Tumors of the Nervous and Related Systems
1 6.
Complete the following about infra vs. su pra-tentorial pediatric tumors: a. Ag e vs. % lnfratentori al: % i. 0-6 mos: ii. 6-1 2 mos: % iii. 1 2-24 mos: _% iv. 2 - 1 6 yea rs: _% b. are the most common supratentorial tumor in pediatrics as a whole. c. True or Fa lse? i. Bra i n tumors a re the second most common cancer in childhood. ii. They a re the most common solid tumors in child hood . d . I n neonates, 9 0 % o f bra i n tumors a re of n orig in with being the most com mon. __
__
Common presentations for pediatric tumors include: a. v of d b. a c. f to t d. s
Ta ble 34.3
27% 53% 74% 42% Astrocytomas
34.3 . 1
true true neu roectoderma l ; teratomas
1 7.
_ _ _ ___
_ _ __ _ _ _
___ _
•
34.3.3
34.3.4
34.3.4
vomiti ng a rrest of development fai l u re to th rive seizures
Medications for Brain Tumors 1 8.
The beneficial effects of steroids are greater for (metastatic vs. primary) tumors.
1 9.
In terms of prophylactic anticonvulsants with brain tu mors: There is Level evidence that AEDs (should/should not) be used routinely in patients with newly diag nosed brain tumors. There is Level evidence that in patients undergoing cra n iotomy for a brain tumors, prophylactic AEDs (can or ca nnot) be used .
a.
____
b.
___
metastatic tumors
34.4. 1
34.4.2
Level l ; should not Level I I ; can
General Information, Classification and Tumor Markers •
Chemothera py for Brain Tu mors Match the chemotherapeutic agent with its mechanism of action: CD DNA crosslinking; 0 DNA a l kylation; G) Microtu bule fu nction i n h ibitor; 0 Topoisomerase II i n h i bitor; ® Topoisomerase I i n h ibitor; ® PI
20.
____
Ta ble 3 4. 5
(j) G) ® 0 CD
21 .
Complete the following about Temozolomide: (ora l vs. IV) med ication a . I t is a n that works throug h DNA and b. It fu nctions as a p undergoes ra pid non-enzymatic conversion at physiologic pH to . c. M ITC a l kylation occurs pri m a rily at the _ a nd _ positions on but some tumors can repair this damage with that is coded by the gene. __
_ _ _ _
__
__
__
b
e.
d
ora l ; a l kylation prod rug; M ITC (monomethyltriazenoimidazo leca rboxa mide) 06; N7; guanine; AGT; MGMT
__
22. The following are tactics that can be used to circumvent the blood-brain barrier { BBB): a. I agent b. h_ d c. d of BBB
d.
34.5.2
BBB polymers
Complete the following about tumor imaging: a . The proper time to obta i n post-op imaging to check for bleed ing is typica l ly within hours. b. The proper time to obtain post-op imaging to check for resid ual tumor is either with in _ - _ days or after a bout _ days. c. An exception to this timing rule of t h u m b is for tumors.
34.5.4
lipophilic agent higher doses (of medication) disruption of BBB (e.g. with man nitol) bypass B B B (e.g. intratheca l methotrexate for primary lym phoma) directly i m p la nta ble polymers
23.
34. 5 . 5
6- 1 2 hours 2-3 days; 30 days
pitu ita ry
227
228 •
Part 1 2: Primary Tumors of the Nervous and Related Systems
Select Commonly Utilized Stains in Neuropathology 24. True or False. This tumor marker usually indicates astroglial origin. a. glial fi bri l l a ry acid protein (GFAP)
b. S-1 00 protein c. cytokeratin d. neuron specific enolase (NSE) e. human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
34. 7 . 2 , 34.7.3
true (GFAP is ra rely fou n d outside t h e C N S . T h u s , the presence of G FAP in a tumor found in the CNS is usually taken as good evidence for glial origin of the tumor) fa lse fa lse fa lse fa lse
25. True or False. This tumor marker may be helpful in differentiating metastatic tumor from primary CNS tumors. a . G FAP true ( I n d icates astrog lial orig i n ; u n usual for metastatic lesion to stain positive) b. S-1 00 protein true (Associated with metastatic melanomas) c. cytokeratin true (Associated with metastatic tumors as it stains epithelial cells) true (Associated with d. NSE metastatic small cel l l u n g ca ncer) true (Associated with cerebral e. hCG metastases from uteri ne or testicu l a r chorioca rci noma) f. a-fetoprotein true (Associated with ca ncers of ovary, stomach, l u n g , colon, and pancreas) g. ca rci noembryonic a ntigen (CEA) true h . CSF-CEA true (Associated with leptomeningeal spread of severa l cancer types)
34. 7 . 2 , 3 4 . 7 . 3
26. Complete the following about tumor marker MIB-1: a. Detects a ntigen. b. A high n u m ber ind icates m a c. It correlates with degree of m ,m d . I t is used for a I , and e tu mors
34.7.2
__
__
l
General Information, Classification and Tumor Markers (J-hCG is elevated in the following tumors: a . metastatic u or t choriocarcinoma or e b . pri mary c c c of pineal or suprasel l a r reg ion
27.
___
__
28. The tumor marker may rise after head trauma and may be elevated in Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
229
34.7.3
uterine, testicu l a r
Il
chorioca rci noma, embryonal cel l carcinoma S-1 00
Neurosurgery Books
34.7.3
35 Syndromes Involving Tumors
•
Neurocutaneous Tumors 1.
Most neurocutaneous disorders demonstrate an inheritance pattern.
2. True or False. The following are neurocutaneous disorders: a . Stu rge-Weber synd rome b. N e u rofi bromatosis c. Tu berous sclerosis d . Von H i ppei-Lindau d isease e. Foix-Aiajouanine synd rome
3.
Schwannomas tend to nerve fibers whereas neurofibromas a nerve of origin. tend to
4. True or False. The following is correct about differences between N F-1 and N F-2: a . Alternate n a m e for N F- 1 is von Reckl ingha usen 's synd rome. b. N F-2 has a g reater incidence and preva lence than N F- 1 .
c. d. e. f. g.
a utosomal dominant
35. 1 . 1
35. 1 . 1
true true true true fa lse (Foix-Aiajouanine synd rome, acute or su bacute neurologic deterioration in a patient with a spinal arteriovenous ma lformation without evidence of hemorrhage) displace; encapsulate
35. 1 . 2
Ta ble 3 5 . 1
true
fa lse ( N F- 1 represents >90% of cases of neu rofibromatosis) The inherita nce pattern of both NF-1 and true N F-2 is a utosomal dominant. true Bilatera l vestibular schwa n nomas a re commonly seen i n N F-2 but not N F- 1 . fa lse (associated with N F- 1 ) Lisch nodules a re associated with N F-2. Skeleta l anomalies a re common with true N F- 1 . true Cata racts a re common with N F-2.
Syndromes Involving Tumors h . G e n e prod uct o f N F-2 is neurofibromin.
i. An increased frequency of malignant tumors a re seen in both N F- 1 and N F-2. 5.
a. b. c. d. e. f.
Diagnostic criteria for N F-1 include 2 or more of the following: six or more c_ a _ I spots p n. _ h in the axillary or inguinal a reas o g n. Two or more L. Distinctive o abnormality _
__
__
__
___
_ _ _ _
g . _ first degree relative with N F- 1 6.
a. b. c. d. e.
Complete the following about genetics of NF-1 : genera l ly inherita nce pattern _ _% of cases a re d u e to new somatic mutations. % After age 5 , it has penetrance. It is on chromosome Gene prod uct is ____
___ _
___ _
Diagnostic criteria for N F-2 include: v Definite diag nosis i f b s on imaging b. Defi nite diag nosis if first degree relative with N F-2 AN D either u v s at age less than or a ny two of the followi ng: i. m ii. s iii. g s iv. p o
7. a.
___
__
fa lse { N F- 1 gene prod uct is neu rofi bromin, N F-2 gene prod uct is schwa n nomin (merlin).) true Ta ble 3 5 . 2
cafe au lait periphera l neu rofibromatosis hyperpigmentation optic g l iomas Lisch nod u l es osseous (e.g. sphenoid dysplasia} One 35. 1 . 2
a utosomal dominant 30-50% 1 00% 1 7q 1 1 .2 neurofibrom in Ta ble 3 5 . 3
bilatera l vesti bular schwa nnomas unilatera l vesti bular schwannoma; 30
__
_ _ _ _
___ _ __
____
___ _
__ _
8. What are clinical features of N F-2? a . mu ltiple i s t a re common b. Most N F-2 patients wi l l become ___
c. d.
__
R h Preg nancy may eight nerve tum ors.
____
__
the g rowth of
meningioma schwa nnoma g l ioma posterior su bca psu lar lens opacity 35. 1 .2
intra d u ra l spinal tumors deaf reti nal hamartomas accelerate
231
232 9.
a. b. c.
Part 1 2: Primary Tumors of the Nervous and Related Systems Complete the following about genetics of NF-2: Genera l ly inherita nce pattern It is on chromosome M utation leads to inactivation of
35. 1 . 2
a utosomal dominant
_ _ _ _ ___ _
22q 1 2 . 2 schwa n nomin (merlin), a tumor suppression peptide
___ _
list the key clinical features of tuberous sclerosis: a. s b. a s. c. m r d . This triad is seen in less tha n cases.
1 0.
35. 1 .3
_ _ _ __ ___
____
____
of
seizu res adenoma sebaceum mental reta rdation 1 /3
11.
Complete the following about tuberous sclerosis: a . Typical C N S fi nding: s n b. Common associated neoplasm is a g c_ a c. CT shows i c _ ___
35. 1 .3
su bependym a l nodules
_ _ _ _
giant cel l astrocytoma
___
__
__
Complete the following about genetics of tuberous sclerosis complex: a . T h e majority o f cases a re d u e to s m _ b. The two disti nct tumor suppressor genes that may be involved a re which codes for h and which codes for t c. If one affected child, _ - _% cha nce of recu rrence.
intracerebra l calcifications
1 2.
35. 1 .3
sponta neous mutation
_ _
__
_ _ _
___ _
1 3.
a.
Complete the following about the major diagnostic criteria for tuberous sclerosis: Cuta neous manifestations: i. f a, ii. u f iii. >3 h m p iv. s Brain and eye lesions: i. c t n ii. s iii. s g c_ a __
_ _ _ _
_ _ _
__ _
___
b.
___
__ _
__ _
____
_ _ _
__
iv. r n h, c. Tumors in other organs: i. c ii. iii. iv. r
__ _
_ _ _ _
_ _ _
_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
TSC1 ; hamarti n ; TSC2 ; tuberlin 1 -2% 35. 1 .3
facial ang iofi broma u n g u a l fibroma hypomelanotic macules shagreen patch cortical tu bers su bependyma l nod u l es su bependym a l giant cel l astrocytoma reti nal nod u l a r hamartomas cardiac rhabdomyoma lym phang ioleiomyomatosis ren a l ang iomyolipoma
Syndromes Involving Tumors 1 4.
a.
Complete the following about tuberous sclerosis: I n i nfa nts, t h e earliest fi ndings a re a which ca n be observed I m with a w exa m ination. M found in children is often replaced by s i n a d u lts. appear by 4 years. F a R h a re present in 50% of patients. in 97% CT demonstrates c of cases along I v or nea r f of M Enhancing su bependyma l lesions on M RI a re usually g c a __
__
b.
e. f.
ash leaf macules; wood 's l a m p
___
___
c. d.
35. 1 .3
__
__
Myoclonus; seizu res Facia l adenomas Retin a l hamartomas calcifications; latera l ventricles; foramina of Monro giant cel l astrocytomas
__
____ _
a.
list the key features of Stu rge-Weber syndrome. a
b.
b
c.
c
1 5.
__
m
__
3 5 . 1 .4
atrophy: local ized cerebra l cortical atrophy and calcification birth ma rie ipsilatera l port wine facia l nevus (usua l ly in distribution of trigeminal nerve) calcification: plain sku l l fi l m s classica lly show "tra m trackin g "
1 6.
Complete the following about neurocutaneous melanosis: a . Presence o f benign or malignant t of the I m b. Sometimes associated with S W synd rome and n c. >_% of patients die within 3 yea rs after fi rst neurologic manifestation. __
_____ __
__
•
_ _ _ _ _
35. 1 .5
melanocytic tumors of the leptomeninges Stu rge-Weber synd rome; neu rofibromatosis 1 >50%
Familial Tu mor Synd romes 1 7.
Match the familial syndrome and associated CNS tumor: CD von H i ppei-Li n d a u ; 0 Tu berous sclerosis; ® N F- 1 ; @ N F-2; ® Tu rcot synd rome; ® Li-Frau me n i ; 0 Cowd en a. Hemangioblastoma b. Bilatera l vesti b u l a r schwa n nomas c. Colorecta l neoplasms and neuroepithelial tumors of the CNS (e.g. med u l loblastom a , pineoblastoma) d. Su bependymal giant cel l astrocytoma e. Optic glioma
Ta b l e 3 5 . 5
CD @ ® 0 ®
233
36 Astrocytomas
•
Classification and Grading of Astrocytic Tu mors 1.
a. b. c. d. e.
For the following astrocytomas, the respective WHO grading are: Anaplastic astrocytom a : Glioblastoma : Diffuse astrocytom a : j uvenile pilocytic astrocytom a : Su bependym a l giant cel l astrocytoma: __
__
__
f. Pilomyxoid astrocytom a : g . G liosarcoma:
__
2. Complete the following about astrocytoma: a. g rade I % i. frequency ii. median surviva l yea rs b. g rade I I % i. frequency ii. median surviva l yea rs c. g rade I l l % i. frequency ii. median surviva l yea rs d . g rade IV % i. frequency ii. median surviva l yea r Complete the following on low-grade astrocytomas: a is a favorable a. Y prog nosticator. b. Mean time to dedifferentiation for patients diagnosed <45 yea rs is about _ months whereas for patients diag nosed �45 yea rs it is about _. c. Once dedifferentiation occurs, median su rviva l is _ - _ yea rs after.
36.2 . 1
WHO I l l W H O IV WHO I I WHO I WHO I WHO I I W H O IV
0.7% 8-1 0
Ta ble 3 6. 1 0
1 6% 7-8
Ta ble 3 6. 1 0
1 7% 2-3
Ta ble 3 6. 1 0
65% <1
Ta ble 3 6. 1 0
3.
__
__
36.2.2
36.2.2
36.2.2
36.2.2
36.2.2
Young a g e 44.2 months; 7.5 months 2-3 yea rs
Neurosurgery Books
Astrocytomas 4. a. b. c. d. e. f. g. •
Histologic features of GBM include: c g a m p n a reas of n p
36.2.2
cel l u l a r gemistocytic astrocytes mitosis pleomorphism neovascu l a rization necrosis pseudopalisading
Molecular Genetics and Epigenetics 5. What are three major genetic pathways in the development of GBM? a. Inactivation of the and tumor p5 3; Rb suppressor pathways. PI3K, AKT; mTOR ,A , and b. Activation of P m , a n intrace l l u l a r sig naling pathway. EGF, VEGF, and PDGF c. Amplification and m utational activation of RTK genes including , , and __
3 6 .3 . 1
__
__
__
6.
a.
___
In terms of the genetics underlying GBMs: Loss o f expression ma kes a l kylati ng agents such as t more effective. M uta nt I D H l and I DH2 demonstrate the capacity to convert into
MG MT; temozolomide
36.3.2
a-KG ; 2-hyd roxyg luta rate
36.3.3
____ _
b.
__
lower-grade, c. These m utations a re associated with oligoden d rogliomas, and -g ,o 1 with secondary g liomas g and s better overa l l surviva l than g l ioblastomas that a re wild type for both genes. __
___
_ ______
7. True or False. The following are associated with secondary glioblastomas rather than primary glioblastomas: a. EGFR a m p lification
b. TP53 m utations c.
I D H 1 / I DH2 m utations
d.
PTEN m utations
36.3.4
fa lse, associated with prima ry GBMs true, s e e n in 6 0 % of secondary GB Ms true, s e e n in th e majority of secondary g liomas fa lse, more associated with primary G B M s
8. The four subclassifications of GBM based on gene expression analysis are: Classica l a. 1 Mesenchym a l b. I I Proneural c. I l l N e u ra l d . IV _ _ _ _ _ _ _
_ _____ _ ____ ___ _
36.3.5
235
236 •
Part 1 2: Primary Tumors of the Nervous and Related Systems
Neuroradiological Grading and Findings. Spread. M ultiple Gliomas 9.
a. b.
Describe the following features of low-grade gliomas on imaging: Usually a re (hypo vs. hyper dense) on CT. Most are (hypo vs. hyper intense) on Tl WI M RI but (hypo vs. hyper intense) on T2WI. Most (do vs. do not) enha nce on CT or M RI . Low-grade astrocytomas usually a ppear as (hypo vs. hyper metabolic) a reas on fl uorodeoxyg lucose PET sca ns.
36.5
hypodense hypointense; hyperintense
______
c. d.
1 0.
a. b.
Describe the following featu res of high-grade malignant gliomas: About % o f highly anaplastic astrocytomas do not enha nce on CT. The non-enha ncing center of ring enha ncement seen with GBM represents while the rim is c t Gliomas ca n spread by the fol lowing mecha nisms: T throug h or spread m w thro u gh the c p G is used to c describe a diffuse, infiltrating astrocytoma that invades a l m ost a l l of the cerebra l hemispheres. Meningeal gliomatosis occu rs in _% of high-g rade g l iomas at a utopsy. __
do not hypometa bolic
31%
36.5
necrosis; cel l u l a r tumor
____
c.
__ __ __
__
d.
e.
•
Track through white matter; CSF pathway
36.6
_ _ __
Gliomatosis cerebri
36.7
20%
Treatment Describe what should prompt consideration for surgical resection of a low-grade astrocytoma: a. e ad a b. presence of p c. evidence of h c f d . evidence o f 0 e. prevention of m t.
11.
__ _ _ __
_ _ _ _
__ __ __ __ __ ___ _
__ _ _ __
__ _ _ __
__
36.8 . 1
esta blish a diag nosis pilocytic astrocytoma hern iation obstructed CSF flow malignant transformation
Astrocytomas 1 2.
The standard of care for treatment of high-grade gliomas includes followed by s c e b r and t . Median survival with this regimen is months.
cytored uctive surgery; external beam radiation (60 Gy) ; temozolomide; 1 4.6 months
Use of 5-ALA for tumor resection leads to (lessfequalf more) resection which translates into (decreased/increased/no effect on) 6month progression free survival and (decreased/increased/no effect on) on overall survival.
more; increased ; no effect on
___
36.8.2
__
1 3.
__
_ _ _
36.8.2
___
Complete the following regarding stereotactic biopsy: a . I t underesti mates t h e occu rrence o f G B M by %. b. Some CNS m i m ic G B M radiographical ly. c. Yield of biopsy is highest when the fol lowing a re sampled: i. low density ii. enha ncing . d . If Karnofsky rati ng is h i g h e r t h a n
1 4.
_ _ _ _
_ _ _
__
1 5.
a. b.
Complete the following about radiation therapy for malignant gliomas: _ - _Gy Is whole brain x-ray treatment (XRT) va l u a ble?
36.8.2
25% lym phomas
center ri m 70 36.8.4
50-60 Gy No, it does not increase surviva l
1 6.
Complete the following about pseudoprogression: a . Occu rs i n u p to _ - _% o f patients after XRT and ternozolomide. b. Typica lly seen �- months after treatment. c. H istologica l ly resembles r n _ _ _ _ _
36.8.3
28-60% 3 months radiation necrosis
_ _ _ _
Complete the following about recurrent GBM: is approved for a. B prog ressive G B M followi ng prior treatment. is the mainstay of treatment b. S and is usually recommended on for patients with KPS �
1 7.
_.
36.8.4
Bevacizu mab Su rgery; 70
237
238 •
Part 1 2: Primary Tumors of the Nervous and Related Systems
Outcome
a.
The following are prognostic indicators for malignant astrocytomas: a
b. c. d.
h p M
1 8.
1 9.
__
____
__
m
featu res s status ___
How does MGMT methylation status affect median overall survival in malignant gliomas?
36.9
age, found to be the most significant prog nosticator histol ogica l featu res performance status M G MT methylation status Unmethylated - median OS 1 2 .2 months; Methylated median OS 1 8 .2 months
36.9
37 Other Astrocytic Tumors
•
Pilocytic Astrocytomas 1.
a. b. c. d. e. f.
Pilocytic astrocytomas can be found in the following locations: n 0 h c h b c s c ---
37. 1 .2
optic nerve hypotha m u s cerebral hemispheres brainstem cerebe l l u m s p i n a l cord
2.
Characteristic histologic findings in pilocytic astrocytomas are a. R f b. f cells c. m g d. e b e. typica l ly g rossly w_-d _ _ _
_ _ _ _ _
____
__
_ _ _
3.
a.
37. 1 .3
Rosentha l fibers fi bri l lated cel l s microcysts eosinophilic g ra n u la r bodies well-demarcated
Complete the following about the radiographic appearance of PCAs: Over 66% a re c with m cystic with m u ra l nodules n % enha nce with contrast. 94% _% a re periventricu l a r. 82% Are these tumors typica l ly su rrounded by no edema? Cyst wa l l enha ncement indicates . tumor ___
3 7 . 1 .4
_ _ _ _
_ _ _ _
b. c. d. e.
__
__
4.
Pilocytic astrocytomas typically occur within the decade of life.
5.
Complete the following about the treatment of PCAs: The main treatment of PCAs is I n tumors composed of a nod u l e with a true cyst, excision o f the is sufficient If the cyst wa l l enha nces, it (should vs. should not) be removed. Genera l ly, radiation thera py (is vs. is not) recom mended as a n additional treatment.
a. b. c. d.
2 n d (75% occur before age 20)
37. 1 . 5
37. 1 . 5
su rgery nod u l e should is not
Neurosurgery Books
Part 1 2: Primary Tumors of the Nervous and Related Systems
240
6. According to Collins' law, a patient's tumor is considered cured if it does not recur after a post-op period equal plus to the patient's 7.
a.
Complete the following about optic gliomas: G liomas in both optic nerves a re usually only seen in Often occur in conj u n ction with a glioma. P p is a n ea rly sign of a n optic nerve tum or, whereas a t u m o r of the chiasm may cause p or h d
age; 9 months
37. 1 .6
37. 1 .7
neurofibromatosis
_ _ _ __
b.
hypothalamic
_______
c.
___
___
Pa in less proptosis; pitu ita ry dysfu nction; hyd rocepha l u s
_ _ _ __
Complete the following about the treatments for optic gliomas: a . If t h e tumor involves a single optic nerve, spares the chiasm , and prod uces proptosis as wel l as visual loss, then of the should be performed . b. More posterior lesions with nonspecific visual defects and no proptosis, hypothalamic dysfu nction, pitu ita ry dysfu nction, or hyd rocephalus, it is likely a . This usually undergoes b and .
8.
___
a. c. b. h c. o -a d. e _t e. f f. h g. m h . Is u s u a l ly associated with g l i o m a in ____
_ ____
___ _
_ _ _ _ _ _
__
____ _
_ __ _ _ _
i. 1 0. a.
Usually affects
chiasma I lesion; biopsy; XRT
___
Describe the features of diencephalic syndrome:
__
excision o f t h e optic nerve (from g lobe back to the chiasm)
__ ___
____
9.
37. 1 .7
_ _ _ _ _
Characterize brainstem gliomas: Lower-g rade tumors tend to occur in the brainstem. Higher-grade tumors tend to occur in the brainstem . Ca n present with m u ltiple
37. 1 .8
cachexia hyperactivity over-a lertness euphoria fai l u re to th rive hypog lycemia macrocephaly a nterior hypothalamus children 37.1 . 1 0
u pper
____
b. c. d.
Most (are vs. a re not) s u rgical ca ndidates. ___
lower cranial nerve palsies a re not
Other Astrocytic Tumors 11.
Upper brainstem gliomas present with: a. signs b.
37. 1 . 1 0
cerebel l a r hyd rocepha l u s
1 2. a. b.
lower brainstem gliomas present with I n lower cranial nerve deficits c I signs long tract t
37. 1 . 1 0
1 3.
Characterize four M RI growth patterns of brainstem gliomas: Diffuse pons, med u l l a , spinal cord i. Location:
37. 1 . 1 0
a.
b.
c.
d.
ii. G rade (high vs low): iii. S u rgical Resection? Cervicomed u l l a ry i. Location: ii. G rade (high vs low): iii. S u rgical Resection? Foca l i. Location: i i . G rade ( h i g h v s low): iii. S u rgical Resection? Dorsa l ly Exophytic i. Location: ii.
__
high (1 00%) no
__
cervicomed u l l a ry low (72% a re low-grade astrocytomas) yes if exophitic
__
med u l l a low (66% a re low-grade astrocytomas) yes if exophitic med u l l a , spinal cord
G rade (high vs low):
iii. S u rgical Resection?
low (60% a re low-grade astrocytomas) yes if accessible
__
1 4. On M RI, brainstem gliomas appear: a . T1 : b. T2 : c. Enhancement?
37. 1 . 1 0
hypointense, homogeneous hyperintense, homogeneous highly va riable
1 5.
Surgery may be indicated in the treatment of brainstem gliomas i n the following circumstances: a . tumors with component b. some success with resecti ng _astrocytomas needed for h c. if s
___
---
1 6.
a. b.
Complete the following about the prognosis of brainstem gliomas: Prog nosis o f most patients is _ - _ months. S u bg ro u p of dorsa l ly exophytic pilocytic astrocytomas have a longer surviva l of up to years.
37. 1 . 1 0
dorsa l ly exophytic non-ma lignant s h u nti n g ; hyd rocephalus 37. 1 . 1 0
6 to 1 2 months 5 yea rs
241
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Part 1 2: Primary Tumors of the Nervous and Related Systems
1 7. These neurological findings are possible with a tectal glioma: a. P s b. a c. n d. d e. s _ f. More com monly presents with signs of __ ____
_ _ _ __ __ __ __ _
_ _
Characterize tecta I gliomas: Present prima rily in with a median age of symptom onset of _ - _ years. b. Pathology is usually _-
1 8. a.
37.1 . 1 1
Parinaud's synd rome ataxia nystagmus di plopia seizures hyd rocephalus 37.1 . 1 1
childhood; 6- 1 4 yea rs
c. d.
Diagnostic study of choice is Sym ptoms resolve with treatment o f the
low-g rade glioma (d iffuse astrocytoma, pilocytic astrocytoma, ependymoma, etc) M RI hyd rocephalus
e.
M RI appearance i. mass arising from the q
quadrigeminal plate
__ _ __ ____
__ __ __ _
ii. on T1 : iii. on T2 : iv. with gadol i n i u m :
____ __
_ _ _ _ _ _
_____
% enha nce
isointense iso- or hyperintense 1 8%
Complete the following about the treatment of tecta I gliomas: a. A m a y lead t o good ventriculo-peritoneal s h u nt long-term symptom control. b. An a lternative is endoscopic third ventriculostomy
1 9.
37.1 . 1 1
___ _____ ____
•
Pleomorphic Xanthoastrocytoma ( PXA) 20.
a. b.
Complete the following about pleomorphic xanthoastrocytomas: G rade (low vs. high): Location: >90% (su pra- vs. infratentorial) and typica l ly s Meninges involved in >_% of cases. Most have a com ponent. or Treatment: usually only considered for g rade I l l . 5-yea r surviva l with g ross or su btota l resection, with or without radiation and chemo is _%. __
__ __ __ _
c. d. e.
___
, _____
_____
low (typica l ly WHO I I ) su pratentoria I ; superficial; 67% cystic su rgery (maximal safe resection), XRT or chemo 80%
37.2 . 1
37.2.8
38 Oligodendrog lia I Tumors and Tumors of the Ependyma, Choroid Plexus, and Other Neuroepithelial Tumors
•
Oligodend rog lia! Tu mors 1.
a.
Characterize oligodendrogliomas (ODGs). Frequent presenti ng symptom i s in _%. >_% a re (supra- vs. infratentorial) . They have a pred ilection for which part of the CNS? Calcified on _ - _% o f sku l l x-rays a n d _% o f CT sca n . Oligodendroglioma cel l s in a tu mor suggest what sort of prog nosis for the patient?
seizu re; 50-80%
38. 1 .3
>90%; supratentoria l
Ta ble 3 8 . 1
fronta l lobe
38.1 . 1
30-60%; 90%
38.1 .4
___
b. c. d. e.
a better prog nosis
2.
Complete the following about the histologic findings of oligodendrogliomas (ODGs): a . T h e classic description o f t h e cytoplasm of ODG cel l s is a appearance. " characteristic vascu l a r b. A " pattern can be seen. c. The a bove (a & b) a re felt to be u n reliable findings. What a re more consistent findings? __ __
__ __
38. 1 . 5
fried egg appearance (perin uclear halos) "chicken-wire" cel l s with monotonous round nuclei with a n eccentric rim of eosinophilic cytoplasm lacking obvious cel l processes
3. Which of the following features are associated with low-grade vs. high grade oligodendrogliomas? (e.g. WHO II (low-grade) vs. WHO Ill (high grade)) a. Contrast enha ncement: WHO I l l b. Absence of astrocytic com ponent: WHO II
Ta ble 3 8 . 3
244
Part 1 2: Primary Tumors of the Nervous and Related Systems
c.
Endothelial prol iferation on histology:
WHO Ill
d.
Large va riability in nuclear and cytoplasmic size and shape:
WHO I l l
__
4.
Complete the following about the treatment of oligodendrogliomas: a . Fol lowing s u rgical resection, what genera l adjuvant thera py is preferred in the treatment of these lesions? b. P ,C ,v , a nd a re chemotherapy agents t used for oligodendrogliomas. c. I n dications for su rgery include: i. Tumors with significant m e rega rd l ess of g rade. -grade, su rgery is ii. lf lesions recommended for but not at the expense of neurological fu nctions. iii. Benefit of su rgery less clear with -grade tumors __
__
38. 1 .6
chemotherapy PCV (procarbazi ne, CCN U , vincristi ne) a n d temozolomide mass effect
___ __
low; accessible
high
__
5. Arrange the following from best to worst prognosis: a. mixed oligodendroglioma b. p u re astrocytoma c. p u re oligodendrog lioma 6.
a. b. c. d.
Complete the following about the prognosis of oligodendrogliomas (ODGs}: Chromosoma l 1 p/ 1 9q loss is associated with (shorter vs. longer) su rviva l . What is the 1 0-year surviva l of tumors that a re predomina ntly ODGs? Post-op median su rviva l is _ months. Calcification is thought t o convey a (better vs. worse) prog nosis.
3 8. 1 . 7
c, a , b
38. 1 .7
longer 1 0-30% 35 better
___
•
Ependymal Tumors Complete the following about ependymomas: and c a . Arise a long t h e v c of the s c b. 69% of ependymomas occur in (ad u lts vs. children). c. Account for _% of spinal cord gliomas
7.
__
__
___
__
_ _ _
3 8 .3 . 1
ventricles, centra l ca n a l , s p i n a l cord children 60% (most common primary intra med u l l a ry spinal cord glioma below the mid thoracic region)
Neurosurgery Books
Oligodendroglia I, Ependymal, Choroid Plexus, and Other Tumors d.
. In In a d u lts, tend to be children, frequently found in the
intraspina l , posterior fossa
e.
Have the potentia l to spread via form ing " ___ "
CSF; "drop mets"
___
___
8.
a.
Complete the following about histological findings in ependymomas: W H O I I g rade va ria nts include c p ,c c , and t. Myxopapillary ependymomas are WHO g rade _. Su bependymomas a re WHO g rade _. Anaplastic ependymomas a re WHO g rade _. The m su btype occu rs in the fil u m term inale. _ __
___
__
3 8 .3 . 1
cel l u l a r, pa pillary ("classic lesion"), clear cel l ; tanycytic
_ _ __
b. c. d. e.
9. Complete the following about ependymomas: a . Incidence a m ong intracranial tumors in a d u lts is _ _%. b. Incidence a m ong pediatric bra i n tumors is _%. c. It occu rs in children % of the time. d . Incidence among spinal cord g liomas is _%. e. Drop metastases occur in _% of patients. 1 0. When evaluating a patient with an intracranial ependymoma: a . Which pa rts o f t h e neu raxis should be imaged?
b. An a lternative to MRI for detecting d rop mets is c. Commonly occur in the floor of the so may present with as wel l as cranial nerve h and palsies. _ _ _ _ _ __
____
__
Complete the following about the treatment of ependymomas: a . 2 weeks post-op, should perform a to look for b. Ependymomas (are vs. a re not) rad iosensitive.
WHO I WHO I WHO I l l myxopapillary 3 8 .3 . 1
5-6% 9% 70% 60% 1 1% 3 8 .3 . 1
usually MRI of the brain as wel l as cervica l , thoracic, and l u m ba r spine to check for potential seed ing myelogra phy (with water sol uble contrast) fou rth ventricle; hyd rocephalus; CN VI (i nvolvement of n ucleus) & VII (i nvolvement of genu)
11.
__
___
c.
3 8 .3 . 1
l u m ba r puncture; d rop mets
_ _ _
Role of chemo is (im porta nt vs. l i m ited) in the treatment of these lesions. ___
a re (ra n k 2nd only to med u l loblastomas in radiosensitivity) l i mited
245
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Part 1 2: Primary Tumors of the Nervous and Related Systems
d.
With su rgery and , 5-yea r s u rviva l is esti mated at _ _% i n a d u lts. But in pediatric g roup, 5-yea r surviva l is esti mated at _ _%. e. Difficult to surgica l ly resect beca use they can invade the f. Cu rrent operative morta lity esti mated at - _% g . Is morta l ity higher in a d u lts or in children? 1 2.
___
If CSF after ependymoma resection demonstrates positive cytology, what should be done?
1 3. True or False. Regarding medulloblastomas and ependymomas: a . Although uncommon in med u l loblastomas, calcifications may be seen - 20% of the time. b. The "banana sig n " in the fou rth ventricle refers to med u lloblastomas rather than to ependymomas. c. Ependymomas ra n k second o n ly to med u l loblastomas in rad iosensitivity. d . Medul loblastomas a rise from t h e roof of the fou rth ventricle, the fastigium. e. Ependymomas a rise from the floor of the fou rth ventricle, the obex. f. Ependymomas a re the most common g l ioma of the spinal cord below the midthoracic reg ion •
XRT; 40-80% (ad u lts); 20-30% (pediatrics) obex 5-8% children Usually provide low dose XRT to entire spinal axis with a n increased dose t o a n y visible d rop m ets.
3 8 .3 . 1
3 8 .3 . 1
fa lse ( < 1 0%) true true true true true
Neuronal and Mixed Glial Tumors 1 4.
a. b.
Complete the following about central neurocytomas: G rade: Location: usually within the attached to s or with in the p _ _ _ _
_ _ _
____
38.4.2
WHO g rade I I latera l ventricles; septu m pell ucid u m ; third ventricle
_ _ _ _
c.
H istologica l ly, ca n mimic oligodendrog liomas as cells may have a " " appearance. d . Imaging findings: i. On CT, 2 5-50% show ii. M RI Tl : iii. M RI T2 : iv. Enha ncement? S u rgery (is vs. is not) potenti ally cu rative. _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
e.
__
"fried egg"
ca lcifications isointense hyperintense yes is
Oligodendroglia!, Ependymal, Choroid Plexus, and Other Tumors 1 5.
Complete the following about dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumors ( DNET) : a . Most common locations a re the lobes. ____ and b. G rade: ___ c. Age: Usua l ly presents in ____ or with s d . Imaging findings: i. Edema? ____ ____
3 8 .4.4
fronta l ; temporal WHO G rade I children; young a d u lts; seizu res
___ _
ii. On CT: iii. M RI T1 : iv. M RI T2 : v. PET:
_ _ _
_ _ _
e. What therapy is recommended for this tumor type? 1 6.
lhermitte-Dudos disease is a of the c g
_ _ _ _
•
typica l ly no su rrou nding edema hypodense hypointense hyperintense hypometa bolic (with 1 8-FDG and negative 1 1 (-meth ionine u ptake) Surgical resection - adj uva nt therapies with XRT or chemo do not benefit these patients. g a n g l iocytoma of the cerebe l l u m
38.4.5
Choroid Plexus Tumors 1 7. True or False. Regarding choroid plexus tumors: a . T h e majority o f choroid plexus tumors occur i n patients less than 2 yea rs old. b. Choroid plexus tum ors do not g row ra pid ly. c. They do not prod uce d rop mets.
d . They a re usually located infratentori ally in a d u lts. e. They a re usually located infratentorially in children. f. Hyd rocepha l u s with choroid plexus tum ors may result from overprod uction of CSF a lthough tu mor remova l does not a lways cure the problem .
a. b. c.
Imaging findings associated with choroid plexus tumors include: Location: Enhancement? Sha pe:
d.
Usually seen associated with
1 8.
_ _ _ _
_ _ __
_ _ _ _ _ _
_ _ _ _
true
38.5.2
fa lse (they may g row ra pid ly)
38.5.1
fa lse, they can prod uce d rop mets (WHO Ill g rade do so more common ly) true
38.5.2
fa lse, usually supratentoria l ly true
38.5.3
3 8 . 5 .4
i ntraventri cu Ia r densely enhancing mu lti-lobulated with projecti ng "fronds" hyd rocephalus
247
39 Neuronal and Mixed Neuronal-Glial Tumors
•
Ganglioglioma 1 . Answer the following about gangliogliomas: a . Peak incidence occurs a round years. b. Cha racterized by g rowth. c. H ave a tendency to c d . Two major classifications include: and
slow calcify ganglioneuromas and g a n g l iogliomas
e.
seizures
_____ _
______
Most common presenti ng symptom is s
11
39 . 1 . 2
39 . 1 . 1
39 . 1 .4
39 . 1 . 5
__ _
•
Paraganglioma 2.
a.
Provide t h e name o f paragangliomas based on location: Ca rotid bifu rcation:
b. Au ricu l a r bra nch of vagus: c.
Su perior vag a l ganglion:
d.
I nferior vag a l ganglion:
_ _ _
____
_ _ _ _
Ta ble 39. 1
ca rotid body tumors glomus tym panicum glomus j u g u lare glomus intravagale
e. Ad renal med u l l a & sym pathetic chain:
pheochromocytoma
3. a. b. c.
epinephrine norepi nephrine catechola m ines
4.
a. b. c.
Paragangliomas may secrete: e n _ _ _
_ _ _ _
c.____
Familial syndromes associated with pheochromocytomas include: v H -L disease M & n __
_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
39.2 . 1
39.2.2
von Hippei-Lindau disease MEN 2A & 2 B neu rofi bromatosis
Neuronal and Mixed Neuronal-Glial Tumors 5. a. b. c.
Resection of carotid body tumor has a: stroke risk of_ _%. 8-20% 33-44% cranial nerve inj u ry risk of _ - _ %. 5 - 1 3% morta lity of _ - _%.
6. The most common neoplasm of the middle ear is 7.
a. b. c.
Complete the following about glomus jugulare tumors: They a rise from Are they vascu lar or avascular? Receive vascu lar su pply from e c a branches including: p i. a a ii. p iii. o iv. i m ,-- ----,----,Receives vascu l a r su pply from portion of the _ _ _ _ _ _
__ _
___
_ _ _
_ _ _ _ _
___
_ _ _
_ _ _ _ _ _ __
39.2.4
glomus bodies very vascu lar external ca rotid a rtery ascending pharyngea l posterior a u ricu lar occipita l intern a l maxi l l a ry petrous; interna l ca rotid a rtery
8. Characterization of glomus tumors a. b. c.
include: Female-to-male ratio: Does it typica lly occur bilatera l ly? Typical presenting sym ptoms: i. h I ii. p t. Other clinica l exa m abnorm a l ities: due to CN VI I I i. V involvement ii. Loss of t of p t of t from CN IX involvement iii. v c pa ralysis from CNX involvement and s iv. T weakness from CN XI involvement v. I psilatera l t a from CN XII involvement _ _ _
_ __
_ _ _ _
d.
39.2.4
__
_ _ _
d.
glomus tym panicum
39.2.3
____
___
___
___
__ _ _
___
9. True or False. During surgical excision of a paraganglioma, the patient is noted to have abrupt onset of hypotension and respiratory distress. Is this most related to: a . intracranial pressu re (ICP) changes b. vasovagal response c. inadvertent compression of airway d. tumor manipu lation or e. due to r of h b. _ __
39.2.4
6:1 n o , a l m ost non-existent hearing loss pu lsatile ti n n itus Vertigo taste of posterior third of tongue Voca l cord Tra pezius and sternocleidomastoid tongue atrophy 39.2.4
fa lse fa lse fa lse true release of histamine or bradyki nin
Neurosurgery Books
249
250
Part 1 2: Primary Tumors of the Nervous and Related Systems
1 0. What is the major differential diagnosis for potential glomus tumors at the CPA?
vestibular schwa n noma
11.
Complete the following about glomus jugulare: a . Testi ng for v should be done. b. If elevated, indicative of secretion of
va n i l lyl mandelic acid {VMA)
c. which is similar to d. N ew clinical marker is
pheochromocytoma normetanephrine { N M N )
1 2.
39.2.4
catecholam ines
Complete the following about treatment of glomus jugulare: and a . Treat med ica l ly with alpha and beta blockers prior to surgery. ca n be used to i n h i bit Somatostati n b. s release of serotonin, bradykinin, and hista m ines. can lead to tumor swelling, Embol ization c. E which can compress brainstem or cerebe l l u m but can be used to red uce vascu la rity. d . Recu rrence after surgical resection may 1 /3 be as high as of cases. ___
39.2.4
39.2.4
40 Pineal Region and Embryonal Tumors
•
Pineal Region Tu mors 1 . True or False. Regarding pineal region tumors. a . T h e a bsence o f t h e B B B in t h e pineal gland makes this a rea susceptible to hematogenous metastasis. b. Nongerminomas include: i. embryonal ca rcinoma ii. chorioca rcinoma iii. teratoma iv. med u l loblastoma c. Germ cel l tumors ra rely give rise to tumor ma rkers. d . CSF tumor ma rkers a re more usefu l for following response to treatment than they a re for diag nosis. e. Obtaining a tissue diag nosis prior to treatment with a test dose of XRT is a g rowi ng trend. 2. True or False. Regarding pineal cysts. a . Pineal cysts a re a common incidenta l fi nding either on M RI or at a utopsy. b. Surgery should be performed for a l l pineal cysts to obtain a diag nosis. c. Su rgery can be performed to relieve symptoms should the cyst lead to hyd rocephalus. 3.
Pineocytoma and pineoblastoma are tumors that are both
40 . 1 . 1
true
true true true fa lse fa lse
!I
true true
40 . 1 . 2
true fa lse true
malignant; rad iosensitive
40. 1 . 3
---
4.
a. b. c.
Complete the following about germ cell tumors. I n t h e C N S they a rise in the I n males they are most likely in the region. In females they a re most likely in the region.
40. 1 . 3
midline pineal su prasellar
252
Part 1 2: Primary Tumors of the Nervous and Related Systems
d . Are germ cel l tumors benign o r maligna nt? e. They spread via the
malignant CSF
_ _ _
5. True or False. Regarding germ cell tumors. a . Germ cel l tumors and pineal cel l tumors true occur primarily i n childhood and young a d u lts (< 40 yea rs old). b. Cli nical featu res of pineal reg ion tumors true may include hyd rocephalus and Parinaud 's synd rome. c. Optimal ma nagement strategy for pineal true reg ion tum ors has yet to be determined.
fa lse - they a re sensitive to both
6. True or False. Germinomas are very sensitive to radiation but not to chemotherapy. 7.
a.
b.
Complete the following about surgery for pineal tumors:
i.
The most common a pproach is the
ii.
This ca nnot be used if the steep.
i.
Another com mon a pproach is the
___
•
__
40. 1 . 3
40. 1 . 3
infratentoria l supracerebellar is tentori u m
ii. which is best for lesions at iii. or to the tentoria l edge the vein of Galen. iv. or c. Anatomica l ly, i. the base of the pineal gland is the wa l l of the ventricle. ii. the surrounds both sides of the pineal g l a n d . c v are a major iii. d obstacle to operations i n this reg ion. __
40. 1 . 3
occi pita l tra nstentorial centered su perior above posterior; 3 rd tha l a m u s d e e p cerebra l veins
Embryonal Tumors 8.
a. b.
Complete the following about embryonal tumors: PNET sta nds for
These tumors include: i. p ii. n iii. e iv. r v. m _ _ _ _ _ _
_ _ _ __
_ _ _ _ __
_____ _
_____ _
c.
i. ii.
They a re ind isti n g u ishable but genetica l ly ___
___
40 . 2 . 1
prim itive neuroectodermal tumors pineoblastoma neuroblastoma esthesioneuroblastoma reti noblastoma med u l loblastoma histologica l ly disti nct
Pineal Region and Embryonal Tumors 9. Regarding embryonal tumors. a . T h e term prim itive neuroectodermal tumor (PNET) is entrenched, but the recommendation is to ca l l them tumors. b. A med u l loblastoma (MB) is more than just a PNET of the posterior fossa beca use m utations such as and seen in M B a re a bsent i n other PNETs. c. The most common location for a n em bryonal t u m o r is t h e ( h i nt: think a bout M B). . d. Embryonal tumors spread via the law for children with treated e. embryonal tumors states that the period of risk of recu rrence is eq ual to the age at diag nosis plus 9 months. f. Req u i re entire eva l u ation. g. i. Cranial rad iothera py is avoided before _ yea rs of age ii. to avoid i im pairment iii. and g rowth r
40 . 2 . 1
embryonal
____
beta-catenin; APC
_ _ ___
cerebellar vermis
___
__
__ _ ___
_ ___
Complete the following about supratentorial PNET {sPNETs}: a . They occur i n children u n d e r yea rs of age. in a d u lts. b. They occur to c. H istologica l ly, they a re med u l loblastoma. d. agg ressive than i. They a re med u l lobastomas. and they ii. S u rviva l is to thera py. iii. respond
CSF Col lins
spinal axis 3 intel lectua l reta rdation
1 0.
__ _
__
___
__
__
__
1 1 . True or False. Regarding medulloblastoma. a . I t accou nts for 1 5 t o 2 0 % o f a l l intracranial tu mors i n childre n . b. It is the most common malignant pediatric brain tumors. c. There is a sta ndard ized chemotherapy, including lomu lsti ne (CCNU) and vincristine.
d.
e.
Patients with resid u a l medul loblastoma post-resection and dissemination a re a poor risk, with only a 3 5 - 40% cha nce of being d isease free at 5 yea rs. MB a re WHO g rade _.
40 . 2 . 1
5 rarely identica l more worse poorly 40.2.2
true true fa lse (There is no sta ndardized reg imen; CCN U and vincristi ne a re usually used for recurrences.) true
IV
253
254 1 2.
a. b. c.
Part 1 2: Primary Tumors of the Nervous and Related Systems Complete the following about medulloblastoma: T h e clinical history is , typica l ly only to weeks. Their location of orgin pred isposes patients to Patients present with : i. h ii. n iii. a and to iv. seed ing of the axis in
40.2.2
brief 6 to 1 2 hyd rocephalus
__
__
__
___ _
d.
_ _ _
__
__
__
headache nausea ataxia % 1 0 to 3 5
1 3. True or False. Radiologically, medulloblastomas are a . cystic b. solid c. e n ha ncing d. on non-contrast CT they a re hyperdense 1 4.
a. b.
Complete the following about medulloblastoma location: Most a re in the --,-Latera l ly situated tumors a re more common in
40.2.2
fa lse true true true 40.2.2
midline a d u lts
_ ___
Complete the following about drop mets to the spine with medulloblastoma: a . T h e test that should b e is a
1 5.
_ _ __
b.
M RI wf contrast
or Staging should be done with in to weeks post-op.
pre-op; 2 to 3
Regarding the molecular biology of medulloblastoma, in 35 to 40% there is a deletion of
1 7p
__
1 6.
40.2.2
__
40.2.2
__ _
1 7.
Poor prognosticators for patients with MB include: a a. y d b. m to p g -t c. r- --,d . histological differentiation along g , e , or n l i nes ____
___
__
__
__
1 8.
a.
Regarding atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumors: and Occur prima rily in i
40.2.2
younger age metastatic disease inability to perform g ross tota l remova l g l i a l , ependym a l , or neuronal lines 40.2.4
infa nts and ch i l d ren
c.____
b. c.
Most patients die with year of diag nosis. Have a deletion or monosomy of chromosome __
22
Neurosurgery Books
Pineal Region and Embryonal Tumors 1 9. Complete the following about esthesioneuroblastoma: a . Are a ra re b . Are believed to a rise from the --- ---
g rading system should be c . The used to cha racterize the disease cou rse. yea rs. d . Median su rviva l is typically e . Pri mary treatment is controversial but typica l ly involves and __
__
40 . 2 . 5
nasal neoplasm olfactory neura l crest Hya ms approx. 7 yea rs chemorad iothera py; cra niofacial resection
255
41 Tumors of Cranial, Spinal and Peripheral Nerves
•
Vestibular Schwannoma 1 . True o r False. Vestibular Schwannaoms (VS) usually arise from which nerve? a. facia l nerve b. cochlear nerve c. nervus intermedius d. vesti bular nerve, inferior division e. vestibular nerve, su perior division 2. Vestibular schwannomas arise from the junction a . of the myelin and ca l led b. the zone Complete the following about vestibular schwannomas: a . What is t h e Obersteiner-Red lich zone?
41 . 1 . 1
fa lse fa lse fa lse true true 41 . 1 . 1
centra l and periphera l Obersteiner- Redlich
3.
b. Where is it located? c. From what cells do acoustic tumors a rise? d . On what structu re do they arise? e. Therefore, a re they schwan nomas or neuromas? f. They are the res u lt of a chromosomal defect that leads to i . loss of t s gene on the ii. I a rm of c. # iii. If this defect is inherited the patient has _ _ _ _ _
__ _ _ _
41 . 1 . 1
site of junction of centra l and periphera l myelin 8 to 1 2 m m from brain stem the neurilemmal sheath su perior d ivision of vestibular nerve schwa nnomas
tu mor suppressor long a rm of chromosome 22
_
_ _ _ _ _ _ __ _
neu rofibromatosis Type 2
Tumors of Cranial, Spinal and Peripheral Nerves 4.
a.
Pathologically, what fibers constitute vestibular schwannomas? A n e b f A f _ _ _
___ _
b.
_ ___ _ ___
____
__ _
5. list the common triad of symptoms seen with vestibular schwannomas. a. h I % % b. t % c. d __
__
__
6. A patient with good hearing has an M RI study that shows a cerebellopontine angle mass. a . Is this com patible with a vesti bular schwa nnoma?
b. When hearing is involved in VS, what is lost? i. low frequencies? ii. high freq uencies? iii. word discri m ination? 7. What cranial nerve deficits, other than CN VIII, occur with VS? ,f ;o a . CN c n , and t ;f b. CN w , , ;h c. CN and d _ _ _
__
__ _ _
_
_ _ _ _
4 1 . 1 .3
Antoni A na rrow elongated bipolar fibers Antoni B loose reticulated fi bers 4 1 . 1 .4
hearing loss - 98% ti n n itus - 70% diseq u i l ibri u m - 70% (insidious, prog ressive, 70% have hig h-frequency loss, word discrimination difficu lties) 4 1 . 1 .4
no (at the time of diag nosis virtually all VS have otological sym ptoms) no yes (70% have a high freq uency loss pattern) yes (e.g. telephone conversation) 4 1 . 1 .4
CN V; otalgia, facial n u m bness, and taste changes CN VI I , facial wea kness
______ _
__ __ __
____ _
____
8. Answer the following about VS: a . A s tumor increases in size t h e following occur i n what seq uence? i. facia l wea kness ii. facial n u m b ness iii. i m pa ired hearing
b. What size of tumor causes CN V and CN VII compression?
CN IX, X, XI I ; horseness and dysphagia 4 1 . 1 .4
iii, ii, i (facial n u m bness occu rs earlier than weakness even though CN V is only slig htly com p ressed and CN VII is severely compressed - a pa radox beca use of d ifferential resi lience of motor nerves relative to sensory nerves. ) > 2 em
257
258 9.
a. b. c. d.
Part 1 2: Primary Tumors of the Nervous and Related Systems Complete the following about vestibular schwannomas: What percentage have no abnormal physica l fi ndings except for hearing loss? The Weber test latera lizes to the side. Is t h e Ri nne test positive or negative i f hearing is preserved? What is normal for t h e Rinne test?
1 0. Regarding vestibular schwannomas. a . What causes nystagm us? b. Vesti bular involvement also causes an with abnormal s c c. What is the g rowth rate for VS? d . What is t h e proper fol l ow-u p protocol , if no su rgery is done?
e.
Recommend surgery if: i. size changes by ii. or sym ptoms
4 1 . 1 .4
66% u n i nvolved (hearing loss is sensorineura l ) positive air cond uction > bone con d uction = positive means normal ( N ote: An A is better than a B.) 4 1 . 1 .4
vestibular involvement electronystagmography (ENG); caloric sti m u lation 1 to 1 0 mmfyea r repeat sca n at 6 month interva ls for 2 years then once each year > 2 m mfyea r prog ress
1 1 . Answer the following about the House and Brackmann scale? facia l nerve fu nction a . What does t h e House-Brackm a n n sca le measu re? norm a l , m i l d , moderate, b. What are the categ ories? moderate-severe, severe, tota l para lysis c. Syn kinesis is defined as i involunta ry movement; m accom pa nyi ng a vol u nta ry movement v m
meningioma vs. vesti bular schwa nnoma vs. neuroma of adjacent cranial nerve (e.g. CN V).
1 2. What is the major differential diagnosis for a CPA lesion?
1 3.
a. b.
Describe the audiometric findings for "useful" hearing in vestibular schwannomas. pu re-tone aud iog ram threshold: speech discrimination of: __
4 1 . 1 .4
4 1 . 1 .4
41 . 1 .5
< 50 d B <: 50%
Tumors of Cranial, Spinal and Peripheral Nerves 1 4.
a.
Complete the following regarding the modified Gardener-Robertson system: System is used t o g rade h _ _ _ _
41 . 1 .5
hearing preservation
p, _____
p u re tones (decibels ( d B ) ) (if patient hears dB 0 to 30 excellent heari n g ; 3 1 to 50 d B - servicea ble; 50 t o 90 d B nonservicea ble; 90 d B max poor; not testable - none) speech d iscrimi nation c. Eva l u ating patient ability to understa nd spoken words is ca l led (understa nds words spoken correctly 1 00 to 80% excellent; 70 to 50% servicea ble; 50 to 5% nonservicea ble) d . Usefu l hearing is judged t o b e present u p 50/50-patient ca n hea r at 50 t o a cutoff point o f dB or less and understa nds at least 50% of words spoken to him/her b.
It consists of testi ng patient with of increasing loud ness.
___ ___
_ _ _ _
_ _ _ _ _ _ _
1 5.
Name the findings for the following tests in vestibular schwannomas: a. pu re-tone a u d iogram
b.
speech discrimination
c.
brainstem aud itory evoked response (BSAER) or a u d itory brainstem response (ABR)
d.
electronystagmogra phy (ENG}
e. vesti bular evoked myogenic potentia l (VEMP} f.
M RI
Complete the following concerning vestibular schwannoma: a . I t ca uses what kind o f hearing loss?
41 . 1 .5
hearing difference between each ear > 1 0 to 1 5 d B 4 t o 8 % score (normal i s 9 2 to 1 00%} prolonged 1 - 1 1 1 and 1-V interpeak latencies (not used for diagnostic pu rposes but good for prog nostication) abnormal if there is >20% difference between the two sides (norm a l ly, 50% of response is from each ear.) assess inferior vestibular nerve independent of hearing (can be used even with deafness present). diag nostic proced u re of choice; rou n d , enha ncing tumor centered on lAC
1 6.
b.
This is the same as the loss from i. o a ii. l n e c. Think tu mor if the difference between the ears on a u diogra m is more than dB. __
___
_ _ _
___
_ _ _ _ _ _
41 . 1 .5
sensorineura l loss of high tones old age loud noise exposu re 1 0 to 1 5
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Part 1 2: Primary Tumors of the Nervous and Related Systems
1 7. True or False. A 55 year old male is referred for evaluation of a 4.0 em right cerebellopontine angle (CPA) mass. You conclude it is a vestibular schwannoma. Which of the following is least likely to be a factor in your treatment? Give a rationale for each. a . pu re-tone a u diogram score o f 95 d B
b.
effacement of the fou rth ventricle with modest ventricu lomeg a ly
c.
stereotactic surgery 2 years previously
d.
contra latera l (left) vesti bular schwannoma, 1 .0 em in diameter
e.
ang iogram showing absence of right tra nsverse sinus
1 8. True or False. Possible treatments for vestibular schwannomas include: a . expecta nt observation, following symptoms, hearing testi n g , serial CT or MRI b. rad iation therapy, externa l beam rad iation thera py (EBRT) c. rad iation therapy, stereotactic radiosu rgery (SRS), single dose d . rad iation therapy, stereotactic radiothera py, fractionated (SRT) e. retrosigmoid (su boccipita l ) resection f. translabyrinthine resection g. extra d u ra l s u btem poral (middle fossa approach) resection
41 . 1 .6
fa lse - aud iogra m with hearing threshold < 50 d B may a l low consideration of hearing-sparing procedure, but with a score of 95 d B hearing-saving proced u re i s not a n option fa lse - evidence of hyd rocephalus wa rra nts CSF d iversion - needs a s h u nt true - stereotactic radiosu rgery 2 yea rs previously is long enough for SRS effect to be over. Su rgery should be avoided d u ring the interva l 6 to 1 8 months after SRS beca use this is the time of maxi m u m damage from radiation fa lse - bilatera l VS unable to preserve rig ht hearing (95 dB], wi l l need to plan for second proced u re to address left-sided lesion. Chance of preservi ng left hearing is 3 5 7 1 % for a 1 em tumor fa lse - atretic/obstructed rig ht transverse sinus a l l ows consideration of translabyrinthine and su bocci pita l approach as a com bined procedure 41 . 1 .6
true true true true true true true
Tumors of Cranial, Spinal and Peripheral Nerves 1 9. Answer the following about vestibular schwannomas: a . What is t h e g rowth rate o f VSs? slow (1 to 1 0 m m fyea r) yes (6%) b. Do some s h ri n k? yes c. Ca n they remain sta ble? yes (2 to 3 em/yea r) d . C a n they g row faster? e. If fol l owed most wi l l show in 3 enlargement years.
41 . 1 .6
20.
41 . 1 .6
a. b. c. d. e.
Complete the following about vestibular schwannoma treatment: U n d e r 2 5 m m with perfect hearing can be Protocol is to retest at 6, 1 2 , 1 8 , 24, 36, 48, 60, 84, 1 08, and 1 68 G rowth of more than mm between stud ies deserves treatment. Tumors l a rger than 1 5 t o 20 m m should be Tum ors with cysts ca n
21 . a. b.
Comparing microsurgery and SRS: Better outcome for hearing? Better outcome for trigeminal neu ropathy and tumor control? c. No difference for preservation of f f n d . Qu icker i m provement o f vertigo?
22.
Classically, vestibular schwannomas push the facial nerve in which direction?
Complete the following about vestibular schwannomas: a . S m a l l , latera l ly located i ntraca nalicu lar VSs can be removed by what surgical approach? b. A disadva ntage is that the seventh nerve may be at the ganglion. c. An adva ntag e is that hearing fu nction may be
observed months 2 treated g row d ramatica l ly 41 . 1 .6
SRS m icrosu rgery facial nerve fu nction microsu rgery forwa rd and su periorly in 75% of cases
23.
__
41 . 1 .7
41 . 1 .7
s u btem poral extra d u ra l (also known an middle fossa a pproach) inj u red at the genicu late
___
24. What is the size vestibular schwannomas should be considered for hearing and CN VII preservation procedu res?
preserved < 2 to 2.5 em
41 . 1 .7
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Part 1 2: Primary Tumors of the Nervous and Related Systems
25.
What are the advantages of translabyrinthine approach for resecting vestibular schwannomas? a . ea rly identification o f t h e b. less risk to and
___ ___
c. d.
patients do not get " i l l " from in best for V S that a re located
41 . 1 .7
facia l nerve cerebe l l u m ; lower cranial nerves blood in cisterna magna intra-ca n a l icular
26. What are the disadvantages of the translabyrinthine approach for resecting vestibular schwannomas? a . Hearing i s b. Expos u re is c. May take d. CSF leak is Complete the following about vestibular schwannomas: a . what a re t h e disadva ntages of su bocci pita l a pproach (also known as retrosigmoid) for VSs? i. Higher when compared with the translabyrinthine a pproach. ii. S m a l l tumors a re
41 . 1 .7
sacrificed l i m ited longer more common
27.
iii. b.
Facia l nerve is located
the adva ntage is the possibility of h p
Complete the following about localizing the CN VII origin: a. The seventh nerve orig inates in the sulcus. b. Is a nterior to the eig hth nerve by mm. c . It l i e s just a nterior t o t h e fora men of
41 . 1 .7
morbid ity (H/A more common) difficult to remove in latera l recess of internal a u d itory ca nal (lAC) on blind side deep to the tu mor hearing preservation
28.
__
d. e.
and a nterior t o a tuft of It orig inates m m cephalad to the IX nerve. ___
How do you treat posteroperative facial nerve weakness after a vestibular schwannoma resection? a. n t
41 . 1 .7
pontomed u l l a ry 1 -2 Luschka choroid 4
29.
b. c. t
41 . 1 .7
natura l tea rs (2 d rops in each eye every 2 hours as needed) lacri l u be (to eye and tape eye at bedtime) tarsorrhaphy within a few days if there is a com plete CN VI I palsy
Tumors of Cranial, Spinal and Peripheral Nerves d . Anastomose b y attaching a portion of the nerve to the nerve. e. When there is no CN VII fu nction and i . nerve is known t o be divided, you may anastomose in ii. nerve is known to be intact, you may anastomose in _ _ _ _
hypoglossa l ; facia l (facial re a n imation) 2 months
_ _ _
1 yea r
_ _ _ _ _
30. True or False. The following symptoms of brainstem compression from a vestibular schwannoma if present post-op is not likely to improve a . nausea b. vom iting c. balance d ifficu lties d. ataxia 31 . True or False. The routes of CSF leakage after vestibular schwannoma resection can be via the a. apical cel l s
b. vesti bule c.
peri labyrinthine cells
d.
mastoid air cel l s
3 2 . With vestibular schwannoma, postoperative routes for rhinorrhea are: H i nt: avpa m a. a ___ _
b. v
_ ____
41 . 1 .7
fa lse (resolves with time) fa lse (resolves with time) fa lse (clear ra pid ly) true (may be permanent) 41 . 1 .7
true (to tym pa nic cavities or Eustachian tu be - most com mon) true (posterior s e c is usually entered by drilling - via the ova l wi ndow) true (and tracks to mastoid a ntru m ) true ( a t cra n iotomy site) 41 . 1 .7
apical cel l s to tym panic cavity and down the Eustachian tube vestibule of the horizontal sec
c.
p
d.
a
e.
m
____ _
____ _
_____
posterior sec ( most common a rea entered with drilling) to a ntru m of mastoid via the perilabyrinthine cells mastoid air cel l s at site of cra n iotomy
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33. What are treatment strategies for CSF leakage after vestibular schwannoma resection? a . What percentage stop sponta neously? b. Do what with the head of the bed? c. Place a d ra i n where? d . i f hyd rocephalus is present place a __
e.
If leak persists
34. What are common complications of vestibular schwannoma surgery? a . CSF l e a k in % b. infection in % c. stroke in % % d . C N V I I palsy i n e. hearing loss in _ % [ death in % __
__
__
35.
a. b. c.
2 5 - 35% elevate l u m ba r C S F s h u nt re-explore s u rg ical site to pack with tissue or apply bone wax
_ ___
__
41 . 1 .7
Complete the following concerning hearing loss and CN VII weakness after suboccipital removal of VS? Tumor < 1 em i. CN VII preserved , _ - _% % ii. CN VI I I preserved, Tumor 1 to 2 em i. CN VII preserved , _ - _% % ii. CN VI I I preserved, Tumor > 2cm i. CN VII preserved , _ - _% % ii. CN VI I I preserved,
41 . 1 .7
4 - 27% 5.7% 0.7% 0 - 50% 34 - 43% 1% 41 . 1 .7
___
95 - 1 00% 57%
___
80 - 92% 33%
___
50 - 76% 6%
Complete the following concerning hearing loss after suboccipital removal of VS: a . hearing preserved % with 35 to 7 1 % tumors < 1 . 5 em b. after SRS hearing preserved % with 26% tumors < 3 em
36.
_
41 . 1 .7
__
__
37.
Concerning acoustic neuroma, recurrence following microsurgery is a. % after b. yea rs fol low-up c. with a su btota l resection of a bout % _
_
_
_
41 . 1 .7
7-1 1 % 3-1 6 20%
__
38.
a. b.
Complete the following concerning SRS for vestibular schwannoma: Dose recom mended is Loca l control ach ieved is %. _ _ _ _ ___
41 . 1 .7
1 4 Gy 94%
Neurosurgery Books
Tumors of Cranial, Spinal and Peripheral Nerves 39. For vestibular schwannoma, what are a. b.
short-term local control rates for? microsurgery SRS
40. When is the time of maximal damage (possible tumor enlargement) from radiation to vestibular schwannomas? a. from months to b. This is im porta nt to know beca use it ca n prod uce a fa lse a ppearance of tu mor
•
41 . 1 .7
97% 94% 41 . 1 .7
6 to 1 8 months enlargement {Su rgery should be avoided d u ring the interva l 6 to 1 8 months after SRS beca use of damage from rad iation and the appeara n ce of tumor enlargement.)
Tumors of Peripheral Nerves: Perineurioma 41 .
a.
Regarding tumors of peripheral nerves: I ntraneura l perineurioma: i. Lesion is usually found in or ii. M itotic activity is . iii. M I B- 1 labeling is . iv. Treatment is ______
______ ____ __ _ ____
____
____ __ _
b.
Soft tissue perineurioma: i. a l m ost exclu sively ii. more common i n iii. is _ encapsulated iv. Treatment is
_
__ _
______
_ __ ____
41 .2
ad olescents ; young adu lts rare low conservative sampling of lesion (not resection) benign females not g ross tota l resection
265
42 Meningiomas
•
General information. Common Locations 1 . Characterize meningiomas: a . They a rise from what cel l o f orig in? b. What percentage of mening iomas occur at the fa lx (incl udes parasag itta l)? c. With contra latera l foot d rop plus hypereflexia , think d . Olfactory g roove meningiomas i . ca n prod uce what synd rome? ,i ii. Consisting of a o a , and c p iii. What other synd rome? iv. Consisting of a,
Arachnoid ca p cel l s 60 t o 70% parasag itta l meningioma
42 . 1 42.3 . 1
42.3.3
_ _ _ ___ _
__ _
__
_ _ _ _
_ _ _
_ _ _ _
2. List the most common locations for adult meningiomas.
3. Abulia a. is l o w b. is cha racteristic of damage to f I c. ca n occur with a meningioma of the g 0 __ _
__
42.3.4
Foster Kennedy synd rome anosmia, ipsilatera l optic atrophy, and contra latera l papilledema fronta l lobe a pathy, incontinence Parasag itta l (20. 8%) g rou ped as either a nterior, middle, or posterior; u p to 50% invade the su perior sag itta l sinus (SSS); Convexity ( 1 5 . 8%); Tubercu l u m sellae ( 1 2 . 8%); Sphenoidal ridge ( 1 1 .9%) three basic categories: latera l spenoid win g , middle third , and media l ; Olfactory g roove (9.8%); Falx (8%); Latera l ventricle (4.2%)
42.3.4
lack of wi l l power fronta l lobes
___
_ _ _
Ta ble 42 . 1
olfactory g roove
Meningiomas •
267
Pathology 4.
a.
Regarding the pathology of meningiomas. List t h e fou r histopathologica l varia bles.
WHO g rades. b. There are c . A s t h e W H O g rade increases, there i s i ncreased risk of and an i ncrease in the (i.e. K_-6_). __
5. The presence of brain invasion increases the likelihood of to levels similar to atypical meningiomas, but it is not an indicator of 6. True or False. Regarding meningiomas. a . They commonly m etastasize outside of the CNS. b. The most common site of metastatis is the adrenal g l a n d .
42 . 4
G rade, histological su btype, proliferation ind ices, and brain invasion 3 {1, II, I l l ) recu rrence; proliferative index; Ki-67 recu rrence; malignant g rade
42.4. 1
42.4.2
fa lse
fa lse - most com mon sites i n c l u d e t h e liver, l u n g , L N s and heart c. The angioblastic and malig nant su btypes true most com monly metastasize.
7.
a.
Complete the following regarding meningiomas: I f you see m u ltiple meningiomas, it suggests . ca n mimic menigiomas since they may have a d u ra l ta i l . Massive pain less lym phadenopathy with sinus histiocytosis that has M RI signal characteristics similar to a meningioma is typical of -
42.4.3
Il
N F2
___
b. c.
___ ___
Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma {PXA) Rosai-Dorfman d isease
___
•
Presentation 8. Give a description of asymptomatic meningiomas. a. The most common pri mary intracra nial tumor is b. Percent of pri mary brain tumors that a re mening iomas: % c. Percent that a re sta ble in size over 2 . 5 yea rs: % d . Percent that increase in size when observed for 2.5 yea rs:
42.5
meningioma
_ _ _
32%
__
66%
__
_ _ _
33%
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Part 1 2: Primary Tumors of the Nervous and Related Systems
e. What does ca lcification tel l us about rate slower of g rowth? f. Operative morbid ity in patients under 70 3.5% is % a nd g . above 70 i t i s 23% % h . classic histological finding is the psammoma body p b --
--
•
Eval uation 9. Complete the following about M RI and meningioma: a . Meningioma on Tl Wl and T2Wl m a y be isointense
b. With contrast most wi l l c. Accurately pred icts sinus involvement in %. d . A common fi nding is a d t
42.6. 1
enha nce 90% d u ra l tai l
__
1 0. What metastatic cancer can mimic meningioma in the bone of M RI?
prostate ca ncer
11.
Olfactory groove meningiomas tend to be fed by the a. a rteries, b. which are branches of the artery; c. compared to other meningiomas, which a re suppl ied by feeders from the
42.6.2
42.6.3
eth moidal ophth a l m ic external ca rotid a rtery
___
d.
Classical ly, mening iomas " angiogra phy.
1 2.
___
" on
The artery of B and is enlarged in lesions involving the tentorium (i.e. tentorial meningiomas).
c
"comes ea rly, stays late"
Bernasconi and Cassinari (a branch of the meningohypophysea l tru n k, the " Ita lian a rtery")
1 3. True or False. The artery most likely to be enlarged on an angiogram depicting a tentorial meningioma is the a . s u perificia l tempora l a rtery fa lse b. artery of Bernasconi and Cassi nari true c. occipita l a rtery fa lse d. posterior i nferior cerebel l a r a rtery fa lse e. a nterior choroidal artery fa lse
42.6.3
42.6.3
Meningiomas 1 4.
Regarding meningiomas and plain xrays, the plain x-rays may show b.
a. b. c. c. d
_ _ _ ____ _ _ _ _ _
___ ____ _ _ _ _ _
d. e e. f
____ -----
_ _ _ _ ____ _ _ _ __
___ ___ _ _ _ __
•
42.6.4
bl istering of bone ca lcification in tumor 1 0% density changes hyperostosis enlarged vascular g rooves fronta l fossa hyperostosis
Treatment 1 5.
a. b. c. d. e. f.
Complete the following regarding sinus involvement. Occl usion o f t h e middle third o f t h e SSS is Morbid ity/ mortal ity rate is % , due to v i T h e sinus may b e divided safely anterior to the Posterior to this site the sinus be d ivided. If tumor is attached , it is best to leave __
__
g . True or Fa lse. I t is safe t o occl ude the dominant transverse sinus.
42.7.2
treacherous 8/3% venous infa rction coronal sutu re must not residual tumor fa lse
Complete the following about removal of meningiomas: a . T h e Sim pson g rading system g rades the meningiomas degree of remova l of b. It is im porta nt beca use it correlates with recu rrence rate
1 6.
c. What is the most i m porta nt factor?
d.
Components o f the system a re i. s , b. ii. p r iii. c d iv. c v. r d --- and ___, b and s correlates with g rade i. ii. iii. iv. v.
_ _ _ _
____
----
_ _ _ _ _ _ _
e.
_ _ _
extent of tumor remova l ; in order o f complexity, from minimal su rgery to complete remova l small remova l , biopsy partial rem ova l complete remova l coa g u late d u ra remove d u ra and bone and sinus v
IV Ill II I
Neurosurgery Books
42.7.2
269
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Part 1 2: Primary Tumors of the Nervous and Related Systems
1 7. True or False. Complete the following about radiation therapy {XRT) for meningiomas: a . XRT is effective as a prima ry modal ity for treatment. b. XRT is often used for "benig n " lesions. c. XRT ca n be used for invasive, aggressive, recu rrent, or non-resecta ble meningiomas. d . XRT may be beneficial in preventing recu rrence for meningiomas that a re parti ally resected.
•
42.7.3
fa lse fa lse true true
Outcome 1 8.
Five year survival for patients with %. meningioma is
9 1 .3%
42.8
1 9.
The most important factor in for preventing recurrence is the
extent of surgical remova l
42.8
43 Other Tumors Related to the Meninges
•
Mesenchymal, Non-meningothelial Tumors 1 . True or False. Complete the following about hemangiopericytoma: a. Sarcoma that a rises from b. May mimic on CT or M RI . _ _ _ _
c. •
Pri mary treatment is
__
.
pericytes meningioma ( M RS demonstrating a high inositol peak may help d isti n g u ish) su rgery
Primary Melanocytic Lesions 2. Where does primary CNS melanoma arise? 3.
•
43 . 1 . 1
In what decade of life does primary CNS melanoma peak?
probably from melanocytes in the leptomeninges 4th decade (compared to the 7th decade for primary cuta neous melanoma)
43 . 2
43.2
Hemangioblastoma 4. Characterize hemangioblastoma ( HGB). a. i. It ca n be associated with
ii. in %. Surgica l ly treat it like a n __
b.
__
.
5. Answer the following about hemangioblastoma: a . What is t h e most common primary intraaxial tumor in the a d u lt posterior fossa? b. Ca n also be located in the r c. What blood paraneoplastic synd rome is associated? i. p due to ii. e d . H istologica l ly, they a re tumors. _ _ _ _
__
43 . 3 . 2
von H i ppei-Landau 20% AVM 43 . 3 . 2
hemangioblastoma retina polycythemia erythropoietin benign
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6. Regarding hemangioblastoma: a. They present with typica l p-fossa mass symptoms: i. h /v ii. n iii. c f b. Ca rdinal pathological featu re? c. Most common cyst pattern seen? d . p-fossa HGB should b e eva l uated with _ _ _ _
__
__ _
_ _ _
e. Vertebra l ang iog ra p hy usually demonstrates f. Check a to identify polycythem ia.
43 . 3 . 2
headache nausea/vomiting cerebellar findings n u merous capi l l a ry channels peritu moral cyst alone M RI of entire neuroaxis (possibil ity of spinal HGB} intense vascu la rity
_ _ ___
__
7. Complete the following about surgery on a solitary HGB: a. It may be in sporadic H G B b. b u t not in may help red uce c. vascu la rity. ___
____ ___
Complete the following about surgery on HGB: a. Avoid remova l , b . work along t h e c. and the blood supply d . using the same tech nique as for a n
CBC 43 . 3 . 2
cu rative VHL Pre-op em bol ization
8.
___
_ _ _
__
43 . 3 . 2
piecemeal marg i n devascu larize AVM
Complete the following about von Hippei-Landau (VHL) disease: a . H a s hemang ioblastoma tu mors or cyst in the fol l owing sites i. c ii. r s iii. b iv. s c v. p vi . c in the k. b. Most common location is the c. Second most common location is the
cerebe l l u m reti na brainstem spi n a l cord phemochromocytoma cysts in the kid ney cerebe l l u m reti na
. d. Always m a n ifests before age persons. e. I n cidence is 1 in every f. The mode of i n herita nce is
60 3 5 ,000 a utosomal dominant
g . T h e V H L gene is on chromosome _.
3
9.
____
_ _ _ __
__
__
_ _ _ _ _ _
_ _ _
_ _ _ _
__
__
__ _
1 0. What is the diagnostic criteria for VHL? a. i. One lesion of VH L is necessa ry if there is a ii. It wi l l be present in %. b. Two lesions of VHL a re req u i red to make m utation . it a
43.3.3
43.3.3
fa mily history
_ _ _ _ __ __
80% de novo
Other Tumors Related to the Meninges 11.
a.
Complete the following about tumors associated with VH L? Occur in younger persons i f patient has
b. True or Fa lse. Cysts a re associated with HGBs. c. Cerebel l a r HGBs a re located in the i. s ii. p half of the hemisphere iii. s d. % of cerebel l a r HGBs were found in the ___
_ _ _ _
__
1 2.
a. b. c. d. 1 3.
Complete the following about spinal cord hemangioblastoma: % a re in the cervica l and thoracic cord . % a re located in the posterior cord . % of spinal HGBs a re associated with VHL. % sym ptoms a re associated with syringomyelia. __
43.3.3
VHL true su perficia l posterior su perior 7%; verm is 43.3.3
90%
__
96% 90%
__
95%
__
The only disease with bilateral endolympathic sac tumors is
__
VHL
43.3.3
.
Complete the following about VHL: Retin a l hemangioblastomas occur in %. . b. Typica lly located i n the c. Freq uently there a re . d . Treat with laser
1 4. a.
43.3.3
50%
__
__
___
_ ___
Complete the following about renal cell carcinoma ( RCC}: a . Which is t h e most common malignant tumor in VHL? b. Usually it is a c. It is the cause of death in to _% of VHL patients.
periphery m u lti ple photocoagu lation
1 5.
-- -- ----
1 6.
a. b.
Complete the following about surgical treatment of HGB: reserved u ntil treatment of choice for HGBs True or Fa lse. The wa l l must be removed. The m u st be removed. _ _ _ _
_ _ _
43.3.3
RCC clear cel l ca rcinoma 1 5 to 50% 43.3.3
sym ptomatic accessible cystic
___
c. d.
fa lse m u ra l nod u l e
1 7. Regarding renal cysts in VHL: a . True or Fa lse. They usually cause fa lse significant renal i m pa i rment. b. True or Fa lse. They a re more problematic fa lse than polycystic kid ney d isease.
43.3.3
273
274 1 8.
a. b. c.
Part 1 2: Primary Tumors of the Nervous and Related Systems Complete the following regarding pancreatic lesions in patients with VHL: to % of patients with VHL 3 5 to 70% develop a pancreatic endocrine tumor or cyst. and m u ltiple and asym ptomatic Pancreatic cysts a re often
__
__
Most neuroendocri ne tumors a re a n d only % a re malignant. _
nonfu nctional; 8%
Neurosurgery Books
43.3.3
44 Lymphomas and Hematopoietic Neoplasms
•
CNS Lym phoma Complete the following about CNS lymphoma: a . Associated with a n eye cond ition ca lled
1.
uveitis 1 to 2% of a l l brain tumors u p close to ventricles
b. How frequently does it occu r? c. What relationship does CNS lym phoma have with the ventricles? d . What form o f rad iation thera py is g iven?
whole bra i n
2. a.
identica l
b.
Regarding secondary CNS lymphoma. to pri m a ry It is patholog ica l ly CNS lym phoma. Systemic lym phoma spread to the cerebra l parenchyma occu rs in % of cases at autopsy.
44. 1 . 1
44. 1 . 3 44. 1 . 5
44. 1 . 9 44. 1 . 2
1 to 7%
__
3. The incidence of primary CNS relative to other lymphoma is brain lesions. 4. The following increase the risk of primary CNS lymphoma: v a. c d b. i B v c. E ___
__
__
5. True or False. Regarding primary CNS lymphoma. a . B-ce l l lym phomas a re more common than T-cel l . b. Painfu l skin nodu les/ plaq ues occur in approx. 1 0% of patients. c. I ntravascu l a r lym phomatosis ra rely i nvolves the CNS.
rising
44. 1 . 3
44. 1 .4
collagen vascu l a r disease i m m u n os u ppression Epstein-Barr virus 44. 1 . 5
true true fa lse
a
276
Part 1 3: Tumors Involving Non-Neural Origin
Regarding the presentation of CNS lymphoma. a . T h e two most common m a nifestations a re s c c and m c b. Most patients present with n_-f n symptoms.
6.
__
__
___
7.
a.
Regarding diagnosis of CNS lymphoma. CT characteristics i. plain CT tumor is ii. contrast CT tumor iii. remin iscent of
_ ___ _ _ __
b. c.
Reaction to steroids CSF is positive for lym phoma cel l s in %. _ _ _ _ _
44. 1 . 6
spinal cord com pression; ca rcinomatous meningitis non-foca l neurolog ica l 44. 1 . 8
hyperdense to brain enha nces homogenously "fl uffy cotton balls" may com pletely resolve only 1 0%
__
True or False. A 70-year-old male with a homogenously enhancing lesion in the central gray matter and corpus callosum is suspected of having CNS lymphoma. What would make this diagnosis more likely and how is it properly diagnosed? a. hyd rocephalus b. cafe a u lait spots c. uveitis
8.
d.
proxim a l m u scle wea kness
9. A 73-year-old male with a history of recently diagnosed CNS lymphoma by biopsy presents to the ER with stupor and progressively deteriorating mental status. CT of the brain reveals the mass but no other abnormalities. a. True or Fa lse. i. emergent surgical excision ii. rad iation thera py
iii. chemothera py iv. steroids b. followed by
__ _
Regarding the prognosis of CNS lymphoma: a . With no treatment, median surviva l is to b. With rad iation therapy, median s u rviva l is c. With intraventricu l a r meth rotrexate, the time to recu rrence was months.
44. 1 8
fa lse fa lse true (diagnosed with slit lamp) fa lse 44. 1 . 9
fa lse true (CNS lym phomas a re very sensitive to rad iation) fa lse fa lse chemotherapy
1 0.
44. 1 . 1 0
1 . 8 to 3.3 months 1 0 months
_ _ _
4 1 months
Lymphomas and Hematopoietic Neoplasms •
M ultiple Myeloma 11.
a. b.
Complete the following about mu ltiple myeloma (MM): It is a neoplasm of that prod uces __ __
_ _ _ _
a.
The characteristic presentation for MM includes: to i s
b. c. d. e.
a h b_ p_ r f
1 2.
1 3.
a.
___
___
__ _ _ _
__
_ _ _ _ _
__
__
The evaluation for patients with MM includes: s s __
___
__
b. c_ c. s d . A u rine test for M M is done t o identify i. k B -J p. ii. found in % of cases. e. The most definitive test is b m b __
__
__
__
___
__
__
__
1 4. a.
b. c. d.
44. 2 . 1
plasma cells M-protein (monoclonal lgG or lgA) 44. 2 . 3
increased suscepti bil ity to infection anemia hyperca lcemia bone pain ren a l fai l u re 44. 2 . 4
skeleta l radiological su rvey (for "pu nched out" lesions) CBC SPEP kappa Bence-jones protein 75% bone ma rrow biopsy
__
The treatment of MM includes:
b m Some lesions may benefit from k e. The median surviva l for untreated M M is months. ___ _ ___
XRT ( M M is very radiosensitive) bisphosphonates mobil ization kyphoplasty
44. 2 . 5
_ ___
•
6 months
44. 2 . 6
plasmacytoma
44.3 . 1
Plasmacytoma 1 5. a.
Regarding plasmacytoma. I f a single lesion consistent with M M i s fou n d , i t is ca lled p b. I n 70 to 80% this wi l l prog ress to i. m m in ii. years. ___
___
__
mu lti ple myeloma 10
277
45 Pituitary Tumors - General Information and Classification
•
General Tumor Types 1.
Most pituitary tumors are benign tumors that arise from the a
2. Answer the following about pituitary tumors: a . B y definition what i s t h e maximal size of a pitu ita ry m icroadenoma? b. La rger tumors a re ca l l ed c. 50% of pitu ita ry tumors a re less than mm. 3.
a. b. c. d. e. f.
Complete the following about pituitary carcinoma: Occurence i s They are usually i They a re usually s T h e most common hormones are i. A ii. p True or fa lse. They can metastasize. Prog nosis of 1 -yea r morta l ity is %.
Neurohypophyseal tumors are tumors of the pituitary a . Occu rrence i s
4.
•
adenohypophysis
45 . 2 . 1
45 . 2 . 1
1 cm macroadenomas S mm 45.2.2
ra re invasive secretory ACTH PRL True 66% posterior
45.2.3
rare
Epidemiology 5. a.
Epidemiology Pitu ita ry tumors represent approximately % of intracranial tumors. They are most common in the decades of l ife.
45.3
1 0%
__
b.
__
3 rd and 4th
Pituitary Tumors - General Information and Classification
c. True or fa lse. The incidence is higher a m ong fema les. d. Incidence is increased in M EA or M E N , especia l ly type _. i. This has an inherita nce with penetra nce. tumors and ii. Also involves p h iii. True or Fa lse. Pitu ita ry tumors in this synd rome are usually nonsecretory.
fa lse type I a utosomal dominant; high
__
•
pancreatic islet cel l tumors; hyperpa rathyroidism true
Clinical Presentation of Pituitary Tumors 6.
a.
Complete the following about clinical presentation of pituitary tumors: Hormone hypersecretion i. % of adenomas secrete active hormone. % ii. prolactin % iii. g rowth hormone iv. ACTH % v. thyroid-stim u lati ng hormone (TSH) % Prolactin can cause in synd rome in females and ma les. Etiologies for increased prolactin include: , which is neoplasia of i. P pitu ita ry ii. S effect, which may red uce control over PRL secretion. iii. With tumors that secrete prolactin , levels are usually > G rowth hormone i. If elevated it is d u e to a p
45.5.2
65% 48% 1 0% 6% 1%
___
b.
_ ___
___
amenorrhea-galactorrhea; im potence prolactinoma; lactotrophs sta l k effect; in h ibitory 1 000 ngfml
___
c.
___
pitu ita ry adenoma
a, ____
ii. more than iii. Causes ___
d.
% of the time. in a d u lts and i n prepu berta l children.
Corticotropin i. a ka ii. excess causes iii. Nelson synd rome can develop only in patients who have had ___
_ _ _ _ _ _
e. Thyrotropin (TSH ) ca uses hyperthyroid ism.
_ _ _
95% acrom ega ly; giga ntism ACTH Cush ing's disease adrenalectomy secondary (centra l)
Neurosurgery Books
279
280
Part 1 3: Tumors Involving Non-Neural Origin
7. Complete the following about hormone hyposecretion: of the normal pitu ita ry. a . Due to b. I n order of sensitivity to com pression {Hint: go look for the ad enoma) i. G ii. L iii. F iv. T v. A c. Most common symptoms include o h and e f d . Selective loss o f o n e hormone, consider a h e. If dia betes insipidus is seen pre operatively, other etiolog ies should be sought including i. a h ii. h g iii. s g c t. ___ _
_ ___
___ _
___ _
_ ___
__ _
45.5.2
com p ression GH LH FSH TS H ACTH orthostatic hypotension; easy fatigabil ity
___ ,
a utoi m m u n e hypophysitis
__ _
___
___
____
___
a utoi m m u n e hypophysitis hypotha l a m ic glioma suprasel lar germ cel l tumor
___
Complete the following about mass effect: a . T h e pitu ita ry tumor that g a i n s the g reatest size i. is non secreti ng (true or fa lse) ii. of the secreting type is the
8.
b. The tumor that is usually the smal lest is the tumor. c. Structu res com monly compressed : i. Optic chiasm classica l ly ca using ii.
Third ventricle, which ca n cause
iii. Cavernous sinus with pressu re on the cranial nerves ca using: p f d _ _ _
_ _ _ __ _ _ _ _
9.
a.
Patient presents with sudden onset of headache, visual disturbance, ophthalmoplegia, and reduced mental status. Complete the following: Consider diagnosis o f p a _ __
_ _ _
b. This may occur i n macroadenomas in as many as %
45.5.2
true prolactinoma ACTH bitem pora l hemianopsia obstru ctive hyd rocephalus Ill, IV, Vl , V2 , VI ptosis; facia l pain; diplopia 45.5.2
pitu ita ry a poplexy (due to expa nding mass in sella tu rcica resulting from hemorrhage or necrosis) 3 to 1 7%
Pituitary Tumors - General Information and Classification 1 0.
a.
Complete the following about primary brain tumors: What a re the ind ications for ra pid decompression after pitu ita ry a poplexy? visual fields i. severe constriction of
ii.
severe deterioration of
iii. mental status changes due to b . True or Fa lse. It is necessa ry to remove the entire tumor. c . What else needs to be done?
•
281
45.5.2
visual acu ity hyd rocephalus true treat with corticosteroids
Specific Types of Pituitary Tu mors 11.
a. b.
Complete the following about the anatomic classification of pituitary adenoma: system Na med the Su prasellar extension i. 0: ii. A: expa nding i nto the cistern iii. B: anterior recesses of third ventricle __
iv. C: c. d.
1 2.
a. b.
c. d.
of third ventricle
Floor of sella i. 1 : intact or ii. II: sella Sphenoid extension i. I l l : loca l ized ii. IV: diffuse
45.6.1
H a rdy none suprasellar obliterated floor; displaced foca lly expa nded enlarged
of sella floor of sella floor
Complete the following about functional pituitary tumors: What is t h e most common fu nctional pituita ry tu mor? What a re its most common symptoms? i. I n fema les: ii. ca lled the syndrome iii. I n ma les: It a rises from a nterior pitu ita ry I T h e most common cause o f amenorrhea is p
perforation destruction 45.6.2
prolacti noma amenorrhea-galactorrhea Forbes-Al bright synd rome im potence lactotrophs preg nancy
B
282
Part 1 3: Tumors Involving Non-Neural Origin
1 3. Answer the following about Cushing's syndrome: a. Which hormone? b. Hypersecretion is ca l led ___ ___ . % of pitu ita ry c. Accou nts for adenomas. d. Other causes of hypercortisolism a re known as e. List the clinica l findings in Cushing's synd rome: H i nt: steroids i. s ii. t iii. e iv. r v. o vi . i , vii . d viii. s _
_
45.6.2
ACTH Cush ing's disease 1 0- 1 2% Cushing's synd rome
_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
_ _ _ _
_ _ __ _ _ _ _ _
_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
___
_ _ _ ___
_ _ _ _
_ _ _ __
1 4.
a.
Complete the following about Nelson Syndrome: in Follows bilatera l a % of cases. Classic triad includes i. h ii. increase in and iii. enlargement of the p tumor. iv. Usually occu rs _ to yea rs after adrenalectomy. Hyperpig m entation is due to crossreactivity of m ___ s and h The earliest signs include i. I n ii. midline pigmentation from the p u bis to u iii. and hyperpigmentation of s ,g and a reolae. Has a n ACTH level g reater than N g / 1 . The normal being less than Ng/1
_
b.
______
_____
_
c.
___ _
striae thin skin ecchymosis red uced l i bido obesity im potence, i ncreased BP dia betes skin hyperpigmentation 45.6.2
adrena lectomy; 1 0-30% hyperpigmentation ACTH pitu ita ry 1 to 4 yea rs melanocyte-sti m u l ati ng hormone; ACTH
_ _ _ _ _
d.
_ _ _ _
li nea nigra um bilicus
_ _ _ _
e.
___
1 5. Answer the following about acromegaly: a. > % o f cases o f excess G H result from pitu ita ry adenoma. b. Ectopic G H secretion may u n commonly occur with : i. c t. ii. I -c iii. p t. __
___
_____
_ _ _ _
__ _ _ _ ____
_ __ _
__
_ _ _
scars; gingivae 200 54 45.6.2
95%; somatotroph ca rci noid tumor lym phoma pancreatic islet-cell tu mor
Pituitary Tumors - General Information a n d Classification c. d. e. f. g.
with 25% of acromegal ies have normal thyroid studies. Hypothalamus prod uces which causes t h e pituitary t o m a ke secretion from Excess G H induces the l iver, also known as What medication ca n suppress G H release? Morta l ity rates a re to times the expected rate due to: i. c ii. c iii. d iv. h v. i vi . n __
___
1 6. Answer the following regarding TSHsecreting adenomas: a . Com p rise of _ to _% of pitu ita ry tumors. hyperthyroidism b . Prod uces levels with and c . Elevated elevated or inappropriately normal
d . True or Fa lse. Most of these tumors a re invasive and large enough to prod uce mass effect. e . Sym ptoms of hyperthyroidism include i. a ii. p iii. h iv. h v. w 1 7. Answer the following regarding pathology of pituitary tumors: a . Chromophobes a re most com mon. May prod uce , , or . b . Acidophils prod uce ___
c.
Basophils prod uce • -- • ---
283
thyromegaly GHRH; GH IGF- 1 ; somatomedin-C somatostatin 2 to 3 times ca ncer cardiomyopathy dia betes hypertension infection neura l entrapment 45.6.2
0 . 5 to l % centra l (secondary) T3 and T4; TSH true
a nxiety pal pitations (due to a-fib) heat intolerance hyperhidrosis weight loss 45.6.2
prolacti n , GH, or TSH
___
disease
Complete the following about tumors of the neurohypophysis and infundibulum: a . The most common tu mor in the posterior pituitary is b . The most common primary tumor is the with a pred ilection for the c . If this tumor is suspected, operative approach is preferred over
prolacti n , TSH , GH gonadotropins, �-lipotropin, ACTH ; Cushing's disease
1 8.
45.6.3
metastatic g ra n u l a r cel l tu mor (GCT) sta l k tra nscranial preferred over tra nsphenoidal
B
46 Pituitary Adenomas - Evaluation and Nonsurgical Management
•
Eval uation 1 . Answer the following regarding visual field deficit patterns: a . T h e chiasm is located i. a bove the sella in % ii. posterior to the sella in % iii. a nterior to the sel la in % b. Classic visual field deficit is b h c. Optic nerve compression is more l i kely chiasm. with a p i. Loss of vision in eye. ii. There is usually a in the eye resu lting from compression of the __
__
___
___
_ _ _ _
____
d.
__
Com p ression of the optic tract may occur with chiasm, prod ucing __
46 . 1 . 2
79% 4% (postfixed chiasm) 5% (prefixed chiasm) bitem pora l hemianopsia postfixed ipsilatera l su perior (tem pora l ) quadra ntanopsia; contra latera l ; a nterior knee of Wi lbra n d . prefixed; homonymous hemia nopsia
2. Answer the following regarding adrenal axis screening: a . Cortisol levels norm a l ly peak between _ 7 - 8 AM AM. 8 AM ; b. AM cortisol better for detecti ng hypocortisolism 6 mcg/ 1 00 ml c. Levels < suggestive of adrenal insufficiency. 6 and 14 mcg/ 1 00 ml d. Levels between and a re nondiag nostic. __
__
Neurosurgery Books
46 . 1 . 2
Pituitary Adenomas - Evaluation and Nonsurgical Management e. f.
____
is more accu rate for
_ __
Normal ly, dose dexa methasone suppresses release of through negative feedback. rules out i. 8 AM cortisol < Cushi ng's synd rome i n most patients. ii. Cushing's synd rome is probably present with cortisol > . iii. tumors and most cases of ectopic ACTH prod uction wi l l not suppress even with dose dexa methasone. __
24 hr u rine free cortisol; hypercortisolism low dose; ACTH 1 . 8 mcgfdl 1 0 mcgfdl
__
Ad renal; high dose
__
3. Thyroid axis: a . Check (tota l or free) a n d . b. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) sti m u lation test is ind icated if or borderline. may prod u ce c. Chronic secondary pitu ita ry hyperplasia ind isti n g u ishable from adenoma. feedback d. This is d u e to loss of from ca using increase in release of from the e. Red u ced response to TRH stim u l ation test ind icates f. Etiologies for pri mary hyperthyroidism include i. loca lized hyperactive ii. circu lating that sti m u l ate the thyroid iii. (AKA ophth a l m ic hyperthyroidism) __
__
46 . 1 . 2
T4; TSH T4
_ _ _
___ ___
___ ___
_ _ _ __ _
__ _
__
__ __
4. a. b.
c. d.
Hormone evaluation in acromegaly: is t h e recommended i n itial test. Checki ng a single ra ndom may not be a reliable indicator and is therefore not recommended. Normal basa l fasting G H level is < Oral g l u cose suppression test (OGST): i. Give _ ora l g l u cose load and measure nadir is not < , the ii. If patient has acromegaly. iii. G H suppression may be a bsent with __
__
__
__
primary hypothyroidism negative; thyroid hormone; TRH; hypotha lamus secondary (pituitary) hypothyroidism thyroid nod u l e antibodies diffuse thyroid hyperplasia 46 . 1 . 2
I G F- 1 GH 5 ngfml 75 gm; GH G H ; 1 ngfml liver disease, u n controlled D M , and renal fai l u re
285
Part 1 3: Tumors Involving Non-Neural Origin
286 5.
Inferior petrosal sinus sampling uses a microcatheter to measure levels at baseline then at 2, 5, and 1 0 minutes after stimulation with IV --
Baseline I PS ACTH t o peri pheral ACTH ratio is consistent with pri m a ry Cushing's d isease. b. Post CRH ratio > is also consistent with pri mary Cushing's disease. % including c. Com p l ication rate is pu nctu re of sinus wa l l . a.
ACTH; CRH
46. 1 . 2
1 .4: 1
__
__
3 1 -2%
can cosyntropin 6. A potent AITH analogue be used to assess cortisol reserve. a . Give and check cortisol levels at cosyntropin; 60 mins. Normal response is peak level > 1 8 mcg f d l ; 7 mcgfd l ; _ AN D a n increment > or pea k 20 mcgfdl > rega rd less of i ncrement. b. Su bnorm a l response indicates a d renal insufficiency ___
46. 1 . 2
__
__
c.
Response may be normal in mild cases of red uced pituita ry ACTH; or ea rly after pituita ry su rgery; adrenal where atrophy has not occu rred .
7.
Complete the following about the insulin tolerance test: Insulin I V wi l l prom ptly lower Hypog lycemia is a In response, the body prod uces c A n increment in baseline more than to a peak of mgfdl is norma l . Peak cortisol = : Steroids needed only for stress : G l u cocorticoid Peak cortisol < replacement is needed. Cushing's synd rome: I ncrement <
a. b. c. d. e. f. g.
__
8. Characterize the neurohypophysis on MRI. a. Norm a l ly on T1 WI is b. possibly beca use it contains p c. Absence of this sign suggests d 9. For pituitary tumors, what is the benefit of coronal CT slices? a . sphenoid series ___
b.
sel la floor
46. 1 . 2
blood g l u cose stressor cortisol 6 mgfd l ; 20 mgfdl 1 6-20 mgfdl 1 6 mgfdl 6 mg/dl 46. 1 . 2
high sig n a l phospholipids dia betes insipidus 46. 1 . 2
midline (can be identified by anatomy of sphenoid sinus septa ) erosion (ind icate presence of tumor on one side)
Pituitary Adenomas - Evaluation and Nonsurgical Management
•
287
Ma nagement/Treatment Recommendations 1 0. What is the medical treatment for the following? a . g rowth hormone-secreting tumors b. ACTH-secreti ng tumors c. prolactin-secreti ng tumors d . TSH-secreti ng tumors
octreotide ketoconazole bromocri pti ne octreotide
Complete the following about pituitary adenomas: or a . U s u a l treatment i s
su rgery or radiation
b.
20%
11.
nonsecreting
Bromocriptine may red u ce tumor size in only % of patients Poor resu lts a re due to the paucity of receptors. Octreotide red uces the tumor size in %. Fol low-up by M RI at , a nd years.
46 . 2 . 5 46.2.6 46.2.4 46.2.7 46.2.3
__
c. d. e. 1 2.
a. b. c. d. e.
Complete the following on management of prolactinomas: Prolactin level < in tumors not extensively i nvasive. Levels m a y be normal ized with su rgery. Prolactin level > : Chances of normalizing with su rgery a re very low. Medical ma nagement with These d rugs work b y binding receptors i n h ibiting synthesis and secretion of Bromocri pti ne affects both and receptors. is a selective agonist. I f response is satisfactory, i t i s recommended to treat for to yea rs for microadenomas and check yearly. If prolactin level remains > , consider surgery. ___
__
dopaminerg ic 1 0% 0 . 5 , 1 , 2 , and 5 yea rs 46.2.4
500 ng f m l 500 ng f m l dopa mine agonists dopa m ine; prolactin 0 1 and 02
__
f. g.
__
h. 1 3. a.
b. c.
_
Management of acromegaly: is cu rrently the best i n itia l thera py. a re used for i n itial medical therapy. which is a GH a ntagonist may be used.
___
Cabergoline; 02 1 t o 4 yea rs; prolactin 50 ng f m l 46 . 2 . 5
Su rgery Somatostati n analogues Pegvisomant
B
288 1 4. a.
b. c. d.
e. 1 5.
a.
Part 1 3: Tumors Involving Non-Neural Origin Management of Cushing's desease: is t h e treatment choice for most. Cure rates a re for microadenomas b u t lower for l a rger tumors. is a n For m ed ica l thera py, that blocks adrenal steroid synthesis. What a re the indications for tota l bilatera l adrenalectomy? (4)
Fol low-up after bilatera l adrenalectomy synd rome. to rule out Management of TSH-secreting adenomas: First-line treatment i s
b. The tumor may be difficult to remove and c. Medical treatment is with the same agent as for namely,
•
46 . 2 . 6
Transphenoidal surgery -85% ketoconazole; a ntifungal agent non-resecta ble pitu ita ry adenoma; fai l u re of medical thera py/surgery; lifethreatening Cushing's d isease; Cushing's disease with no evidence of pitu ita ry tumor. Nelson's synd rome 46 . 2 . 7
tra nsphenoidal su rgery fi brous acromega ly; octreotid e
Radiation Therapy for Pituitary Adenomas 1 6. True or False. Radiation therapy should be routinely used following surgical removal.
fa lse
46.3.3
47 Pituitary Adenomas - Surgical Management, Outcome, and Recurrence Management
•
Surgica l Treatment for Pituita ry Adenomas 1 . What is the medical preparation for surgery? a. Steroids dose b. Hypothyroid patients idea l ly to be treated before surgery for weeks. c. H owever, do not replace is u ntil the assessed. Doing so may preci pitate
47 . 1 . 1
stress 4 weeks
__
__
___
2.
Intraoperative disasters during transphenoidal surgery are usually of related to a . This may include inj u ry o f c typica l ly inj u red i n latera l aspect of open i n g. may cause b. Open ing through the c erroneous biopsy of the p . c. Opening through floor of may cause inj u ry to with entry i nto
thyroid hormone; a d renal axis; a d renal crisis loss of landmarks
_ _ _
__
ca rotid a rtery
47. 1 . 3
___
__
clivus; pons
__
__
__
___ ___
_ __ _
d . T h e incidence o f CSF rh inorrhea (fistula) is _% Answer the following regarding post operative management: , which can cause a. Avoid negative pressure on sphenoid sinus and agg ravate . b. What a re diagnostic criteria for dia betes insi pid us? c. Tra nsient Dl typica lly lasts _ to _ post-op then normalizes.
fronta l fossa ; olfactory nerves; inferior fronta l lobes 3.5%
3.
47. 1 .4
47. 1 . 6
incentive spirometry; CSF leak
__ __
u rine output > 2 5 0 for 1 -2 h rs and SG < 1 .005 - 1 2 to 36 hours
Neurosurgery Books
290
Part 1 3: Tumors Involving Non-Neural Origin
d. Triphasic response involves the fol lowing th ree stages: i. due to inj u ry to pitu ita ry ii. or due to release of from neuron endings from hypothalamus iii. e. Ta per and stop hyd rocortisone _ - _ h rs post-op. Then check AM cortisol. f. Cortisol level < suggests deficient. g. Cortisol level > is norma l . __
__
Dl (short d u ration); posterior Normal ization or SIAD H ; ADH
__
Dl (long-term) 24-48 hours; 6 AM
__
__
•
__
3 mcgfd l ; ACTH 9 mcgfdl
Outcome Fol lowing Transsphenoidal Surgery 4.
Characterize the good outcomes of transphenoidal surgery: a. Vision is b. Cure atta ined in _% of prolactinomas. % of all acrom egalies had a c. Overa l l , biochemical cure. d. Cure rate among Cushing's disease with microadenomas is %. e. Recu rrence incidence is % with most recurring _ - _ yea rs post-op. _ ___ __
__
significa ntly im proved 2 5% 50% 85%
__
1 2%; 4 to 8 years
47 . 2 . 2 47 . 2 . 3
48 Cysts and Tumor-like Lesions
•
Rathke's Cleft Cyst 1 . Describe Rathke's cleft cyst ( RCC) a . Where a re t h e lesions located? b. How common a re they?
Do you fi nd RCC together with pitu ita ry adenomas? d . Why? c.
e. Appearance on CT i. cystic? ii. density? iii. enhancement? Cel l lining is described as s l e c g . Cyst wa l l is h. What is the surgical treatment? f.
__
__
_ _ _
_ _ _
•
48. 1
intrasel lar-pars interm edia incidenta l fi nding in 1 3-23% of a utopsies no RCCs have a similar lineage to pitu ita ry adenomas and a re ra rely found together. yes low density may have capsu l a r enha ncement single layer cuboidal epithelium thin partial excision and d rainage
Col loid Cyst 2.
Complete the following regarding Colloid cyst: a . U s u a l a g e o f diag nosis is yea rs. b. Most com m only found in in the reg ion of of c. Pathog nomonic hyd rocephalus involving o n ly ventricles. d . On MRI, usually on Tl and on T2 . e. Sym ptomatic patients may be more likely to display T2 cysts, ind icating high content, which may reflect a propensity for cyst expa nsion. prior to the f. LPs a re placement of s h u nt due to risks of _
_
_ _ __ _ _ _
20-50 yea rs third ventricle; fora men of Monro latera l hyperintense; hypointense hyperintense; water
contraind icated ; herniation
48 . 2 . 1 48.2.2
48.2.4
292
Part 1 3: Tumors Involving Non-Neural Origin
3. Treatment for Colloid cysts: a . T h e natu re o f t h e obstruction req u i res b ventricu lar s h u nting. Alternatively, o n e c a n u s e u s h u nt with f of the s p b. Tra nsca l losa l approach has higher infa rction or incidence of v f i nj u ry. c. True or Fa lse. Tra nsca llosal approach depends on dilated ventricles. d. Tra nscortical approach has higher s incidence of p e. What are featu res of colloid cysts that correlate with u nsu ccessfu l stereotactic aspiration? which correlates i. high with on CT. of the cyst from tip ii. d of aspirating needed due to
•
48.2 . 5
bilatera l ; u n i latera l ; fenestration; septu m pell ucid u m venous; forniceal fa lse post-op seizu res
viscosity; hyperdensity deflection; small size
Epidermoid and Dermoid Tu mors 4.
Complete the following regarding epidermoid and dermoid cysts: a . Both a re d __ , b__ tumors that may a rise when reta ined __ im plants a re tra pped by two fusing surfaces. b. G rowth rate is I___ rather than e___ as with neoplastic tumors. c. Most common intracranial sites include i. s , which com monly prod uces b and o a ii. s___ f , which may present with , which can prod uce iii. C. especi ally in -- patients. .,...-iv. b -p __ ___ , which ca n prod uce I c__ n __ findings or _ _ _ _
_ _ _
___
_ _ _ _ _
_____
____ ____
_ _ __
v.
With in the system , particula rly t h e d . With in t h e spinal ca n a l , most arise in the following locations: i. ii. _ _ _
48.3 . 1
developmenta l , benig n ; ectoderma l ; ectodermal linear; exponentia l Suprasel lar; bitem pora l hemia nopsia; optic atrophy Sylvian fissure ; seizures CPA (Cerebellopontine ang le); trig eminal neuralgia; you n g basi lar-posterior fossa ; lower cranial nerve; cerebellar dysfu nction ventricu lar; 4th ventricle thoracic spine u pper l u m ba r spine
Cysts and Tumor-Like Lesions e. Epidermoids may occur iatrogenically fol lowi ng f. Dermoids of the spinal ca nal a re usually associated with a d s t , which ca n prod uce recu rrent bouts of spinal
l u m ba r puncture dermal sinus tract; meningitis
___
5. Complete the following regarding epidermoid cysts: a . Usually a rise from e tra pped within the b. Also known as c , which is most often used to describe the lesion in where entra pped epithelium a rises from chronic i m e c. Epidermoids a re lined by epithelium and conta i n : i. ii. iii. d . Epidermoid cysts are someti mes mistaken for c g which usually occur following c i e. Ru ptu re of cyst contents may cause recu rrent episodes of , which may a lso lead to __
f.
•
ectoderm ; CNS cholesteatoma; middle ear; middle ear infections
__
is a ra re which includes the in the CSF.
M va riant of finding of
48.3.3
stratified squamous keratin cel l u l a r debris cholesterol cholesterol g ra n u lomas; chronic inflam mation aseptic meni ngitis; hyd rocephalus Mollaret's meningitis; meningitis; large cel l s
Craniopharyngioma 6.
a.
b. c.
Complete the following regarding craniopharyngiomas: Usually develop from residual cel l s of and tend to a rise from marg i n of the p Some may arise primarily with in the ventricle. Fluid in the cysts usually contain c c Peak incidence occu rs d u ring age -
48.4. 1
Rath ke's pouch; a nterior su perior; pitu ita ry third cholesterol crysta ls
___
d.
_
5 to 1 0 yea rs
293
49 Pseudotumor Cerebri and Empty Sella Syndrome
•
Pseudotu mor Cerebri 1.
a.
b. c.
Complete the following regarding pseudotumor cerebri: Diagnostic criteria : i. CSF pressu re a bove ii. CSF com position
49 . 1 . 1
iii. Symptoms and signs iv. Radiologic studies Severe visu a l defects occur in to _% Best test to fol l ow vision is __ _
_
Describe pseudotumor cerebri treatment. a . Withd raw patient from b. Med ications for treatment include: i. D ii. L _ iii. D c. Procedures to consider include i. serial L ii. I iii. 0
20 to 2 5 em H20 normal protein, g l u cose, and cel l count increased pressu re normal CT and M RI 4 to 1 2% peri metry
2.
___ _
_ _ _
__
_ _ _
--
•
49. 1 . 9
OCPs (oral contraception pills) Dia mox La six Dexa methasone LPs ! u m bo-peritoneal shunt optic sheath fenestration
Empty Sella Synd rome 3 . Complete the following regarding empty sella syndrome: a . Herniation of the into a rachnoid mem brane; ca n act as a mass, sella tu rcica ; the probably as a result for repeated CSF pu lsation
b. Female:male ratio is c. Associated with _ and d . S u rgical treatment is usually except in cases of e. Secondary causes include: i. t. t__ ii. r of p iii. increased i _ _ _ _
_ _
_ _ _
_ _ _ _ _
_____
_
__
_ _ _ _ __
49 . 2 . 2
5:1 obesity a n d hypertension not ind icated ; (CSF) rhinorrhea 49 . 2 . 3
tra u m a remova l o f pituita ry tumor intracranial pressu re
Neurosurgery Books
50 Tumors and Tumor-li ke Lesions of the Skull
•
Sku l l Tumors 1 . The most common primary bone tumor of the calvaria a . is t h e o. b. It u s u a l ly involves only the o t c. Lesions with in may present with recu rrent _ d . The triad o f Gardner's syn d rome: i. ii. iii. _ _ _ _
__ _
__
___ ___ _ _
2. Complete the following regarding hemangiomas: % o f sku l l tumors. a . They comprise (most b. The two types are c (rare) common) and c c. Accessible lesions may be cured by e_ b e or c. ___
__
3.
a.
__
_ _ _ _
Complete the following regarding Langerhans cell histiocytosis: Most com mon presenting symptom i s --- · --- ---- ----
bone. b. Most common site is the c. True or Fa lse. I nvolves both inner and outer ta bles. d. Ca n differentiate from hemangioma by a bscess of appearance. 4. Complete the following on chordomas: a . Chordomas a re tumors usually or s arising from c b. Derived from remna nts of the n which norma l ly p differentiates into the of i d, ___
_ ___
_ _ _ _
___
_ ___
50 . 1 . 2
osteoma outer ta ble air sin uses; sinusitis mu lti ple cranial osteomas colonic polyposis soft-tissue tumors 50 . 1 . 3
7% cavernous; ca pillary en bloc excision; cu rettage 50 . 1 . 5
tender, enlarging sku l l mass pa rieta l true s u n b u rst 50 . 1 . 6
malignant; clivus or sacru m prim itive notochord ; nucleus p u l posus; intervertebral disks
296 c.
Part 1 3: Tumors Involving Non-Neural Origin Peak age of cranial chordomas is years. Differential d iag nosis of fora men magnum reg ion tumors include: i. ii.
__
to
50 to 60 years
__
d.
•
chondrosarcomas chondromas
Non-neoplastic Sku l l Lesions 5 . Complete the following regarding hyperostosis frontalis interna: a . It's a benign irreg u l a r nod u l a r thickening of the of the that is a l m ost a lways ___
Associated with Morgagni 's synd rome which includes: i. h ii. 0 iii. v iv. n c. Endocrinologic abnormalities include: i. a ii. h d . Meta bolic a bnormalities include: i. h ii. 0
50.2.2
inner ta ble; fronta l bone; bilatera l
b.
6.
a.
Complete the following regarding fibrous dysplasia: It is a benign cond ition in which normal bone is replaced by
headache obesity virilism neu ropsych iatric disorders acromegaly hyperprolacti nemia hyperphosphatemia obesity 50.2.3
fi brous con nective tissue
b.
Most lesions occur in or cra niofacial bones, especia lly the
ri bs; maxil l a
c.
Ca n be part of synd rome.
McCu ne-Al bright synd rome
___
-
51 Tumors of the Spine and Spinal Cord
•
Compa rtmental Locations of Spinal Tu mors Compartment locations of spinal tumors and their incidence are % a . extra d u ra l in % b. intra d u ra l extramed u l l a ry in c. i ntramedullary in % d . Most metastases a re 1.
__
__
__
___ _
•
5 1 .2
55% 40% 5% extra d u ra l
5 1 .5.3
Differential Diag nosis: Spine and Spinal Cord Tu mors Complete the following regarding extradural spinal cord tumors: a . Arise in or tissue. b. Osteoblastic tumors indicate in men and in women.
2.
_ _ _
_ _ _
_ _ __
___
3. Aneurysmal bone cyst i s lesion consisti ng o f a a. an highly vascu lar honeycom b of bloodfil led cavities sepa rated by septa and s u rrou nded by thin which may expa nd.
_ _ _ _
5 1 .3.2
vertebra l body; epid u ra l prostate m etastases; breast cancer metastases 5 1 .3.2
osteolytic; connective tissue; cortical bone
__
4.
a. b.
•
Most common intradural extramedullary tumors: m n _ _ _ _
__ _ _
5 1 .3.4
meningiomas neu rofi bromas
I ntradura l Extra med u l lary Spinal Cord Tu mors 5. Characterize spinal meningiomas. years. a . Peak a g e is b. The female:male ratio is c. Main sym ptom is _ _ _
_
_ _ _
_ _
5 1 .4. 1
40-70 yea rs 4: 1 local or radicu l a r pain
298
Part 1 3: Tumors Involving Non-Neural Origin
6. Characterize spinal schwannomas. a. tumors. b. 75% a rise from c. Ea rly symptoms a re _ _ _ _
_ _ _ _
•
•
5 1 .4.2
Slow-g rowin g , benign dorsal rootlets radicular
I ntramed u l la ry Spina l Cord Tu mors 7. The most common glioma of the lower cord, conus, and filum is
ependymoma
a. These tumors of the conus and fi l u m a re usually of the su btype.
myxopapillary
5 1 .5.3
Primary Bone Tumors of the Spine 8.
a. b. c. d.
True or False. Regarding osteoid osteomas: They a re benign lesions presenti ng less than 1 em in size. Osteoid osteomas often degenerate into osteoblastomas. Osteoid osteomas occur more commonly i n the pedicle than osteoblastomas. They a re expa nsile destructive lesions.
9. The most common primary bone cancer is a . More common in b. I n the spine, usually occu rs i n reg ion in males in their the a rea. c. Biopsy need le tract d . Surviva l i s months. ___
1 0. True or False. Vertebral hemangiomas a . a re ra re tumors. b. May be malig nant. c. a re often sym ptom atic. d. a re rad iosensitive.
e. X-rays show v f. or h 11. a. a.
s appearance.
Giant cell tumors of bone a rise from in t h e s a m e category a s --- ---
with b. Almost a lways b behavior. p c. Radiation is controversial beca use of possi bil ity of m d ___
5 1 .6.2
true fa lse fa lse fa lse (Osteoblastomas a re expa nsile destructive lesions.) osteosa rcoma
5 1 .6.3
children l u m bosacra l ; 40s conta m i nates 10 5 1 .6.4
fa lse (occu rs in 9-1 2%) fa lse fa lse true (used for the u ncom mon pai nfu l lesion that ca n't be treated by excision or vertebroplasty) vertica l striations honeycomb 5 1 .6.5
osteoclasts aneurysmal bone cysts benig n ; pseudomalignant malignant degeneration
52 Cerebral Metastases
•
Metastases to the Brain 1.
a.
Complete the following about cerebral metastases: cerebral metastases The most common brain tumor is
b. c.
It wi l l be mu ltiple in % on M RI . I n patients with no cancer history, cerebra l metastases are the presenting symptom in % d . T h e route o f metastatic spread t o the brain is usually h a lthough I e ca n occur. e. The hig hest incidence of parenchyma l metastases i s t o t h e Sylvia n fissure, likely d u e t o embolic spread to term inal branches.
52.2
70% 1 5%
__
•
hematogenous; loca l extension posterior; MCA
52.4
Metastases of Primary CNS Tumors. Location of Cerebral Metastases: Clinical Presentation 2.
Complete the following about brain tumors: a . Which primary C N S tumors spread via t h e CSF? i. g ii. e iii. p iv. p b. The most common primary bra i n tumor responsible for extra neura l spread is m c. Sol ita ry brain metastases a re the most common p f tumor i n a d u lts.
5 2 .3 . 1
glioma ependymoma PNET pineal tumors med u l loblastoma
52.3.2
posterior fossa
52.4
Neurosurgery Books
300 d.
Part 1 3: Tumors Involving Non-Neural Origin Spread to this location may be via plexus and v v Hemorrhage occu rs in i. m ii. c iii. r ____ ___
_ _ _
e.
___ _
_ ___
___ _
•
epid u ra l venous plexus (Batson's plexus); vertebral vei ns 52.6
melanoma chorioca rci noma renal cel l ca rcinoma
Primary Cancers in Patients with Cerebral Metastases 3. a. b. c.
Sources of cerebral mets in children: n r
w
4. Where do brain metastases come from? a. I b. b c. r d. t e. m 5.
a. b. c. d.
Complete the following about small cell lung cancer: a ka o cancer c Strongly associated with Reaction to radiation is very T h e most common type o f non-small cel l lung cancer is
6. Complete the following about metastatic melanoma: a. Longevity after detected i n the bra i n is days. b. U n less it is a single mela noma metastasis, then patient may l ive years. c. True or Fa lse. Melanoma is responsive to chemothera py and radiation. d. With chemothera py for melanoma, the gold sta ndard is d e. I m m u n otherapy that is as effective as chemotherapy is a vacci ne: M f. Patients with Karnofsky performance sca le (KPS) score < a re l i kely to be poor surgical ca ndidates.
52.5.1
neuroblastoma rhabdomyosa rcoma Wi l m ' s tumor 52.5.1
l u n g (44%) breast ( 1 0%) ren a l (7%) intesti nal tract (6%) melanoma (3%) 52.5.2
oat cel l smoking (tobacco) sensitive adenoca rci noma 52.5.3
1 13
__
3 yea rs
__
___
fa lse daca rbazine Melacine 70
Cerebral Metastases •
Ma nagement 7.
a. b. c. d. e. 8.
a. b. c. d. e.
Highly radiosensitive brain metastases include: small-cel l l u n g Ca s germ-cell tum ors g I lym phoma I leukemia m mu ltiple myeloma
52.8.5
Metastatic tumors highly resistant to radiation therapy include: t. r m s a
52.8.5
_ _ _ _ ____
_ _ _ _ ____
____ _ _ ___
_ _ _ _
_ _ _ _
_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
_ _ _ _
_ _ _ _
thyroid rena l cel l melanoma sarcoma adenoca rci noma
Complete the following regarding radiation therapy for cerebral metastases: a . T h e sta ndard dose i s i. Gy in 30 ii. fractions over 10 iii. weeks. 2 b. After the usual dose of radiation thera py, what percentage of patients develop dementia at 1 1% % i. 1 yea r: ii. 2 years: 50% %
9.
52.8.5
___
___ __
•
Carcinomatous Meningitis 1 0.
a.
Complete the following about carcinomatous meningitis: Sym ptoms include and dysfu nction . CSF is eventua l ly abnormal in %. What size sample of CSF is needed? Surviva l is months without treatment and to months with treatment. Always include I m i n the differential diag nosis. ___
____ ___
b. c. d. e.
__
__ _ _ _
headache; cranial nerve 95% at least 1 0 cc of CSF 2 months; 5 to 8 months lym phomatous meningitis
52.1 0.2
5 2 . 1 0.3
5 2 . 1 0.4
5 2 . 1 0. 1
301
53 Spinal E pid u ra l Metastases
•
General I nformation 1.
a. b.
Complete the following regarding spinal epidural metastasis (SEM): It occurs i n % of all cancer patients. It most commonly a rises from i. I ii. b iii. p iv. m v. I One route of metastasis to the spine is by B p, to T h e site o f metastasis is p the length of the segment of spine. Fi rst symptom is usually which is i. p ii. worse in r __
_ _ _
_ __
____ _ ___ _
_ _ _ _ _ _ _
c. d. e.
___
__
___ _
•
53.1
1 0% lung breast prostate myeloma lym phoma Batson's plexus (spinal epi d u ra l veins) proportional pain recum bency
Evaluation and Management of Epidural Spinal Metastases 2.
Complete the following regarding conus medullaris SEM and cauda equina lesions: a . Con u s med u l l a ris lesions i. spontaneous pain ii. sensory deficit iii. motor loss iv. a utonomic sym ptoms v. reflexes vi . onset b. Ca uda equina lesions i. sponta neous pain ii. sensory deficit iii. motor loss iv. a utonomic sym ptoms v. reflexes
vi . onset
Ta ble 53.2
ra re saddle, bilatera l sym metric promi nent ea rly only a n kle jerk a bsent sudden and bi latera l severe, radicu lar saddle, may be u n i latera l asym metric late a n kle and knee jerk may be a bsent g ra d u a l and unilatera l
Spinal Epidural Metastases 3. Complete the following regarding a. b.
SEM: Outcome depends on p n s G rade i. mi ld ii. moderate
iii. severe iv. complete c. Treatment for patient with new sym ptoms consists of i. d ii. s iii. r 4. Complete the following about M RI scans in SEM: a . They detect m u lti ple sites o f cord compression i n %. on Tl WI. b. They are c. They a re on T2WI.
presenting neurological status
53.4.2
Ta ble 5 3 . 3
patient can wa l k can move legs, but not antig ravity slight resid u a l motor and sensory fu nction no motor, sensory, or sphincter fu nction below level of lesion 53.4.4
decadron su rgery radiation 53.4.3
20%
__
__
__
5. True or False. Regarding diagnostic imaging: a. M RI i. is the diag nostic test of choice. ii. Tumor extension into the spinal ca n a l is common when the patient presents with local back pa i n . b . P l a i n x-ray i. Most spinal mets a re osteolytic. ii. Plain x-rays a re a bnormal as soon as there is bone erosion. c. CT-myelo i. ca n obta in CSF. ii. is invasive. iii. wil l demonstrate paraspi nal lesions. iv. may req u i re Cl -C2 puncture. 6. a.
b.
Regarding the management of SEM: Group I i. Signs/sym ptoms?
ii. When do you eva l uate? G roup II i. Signs/sym ptoms? ii. When do you eva l uate?
hypointense hyperi ntense 53.4.3
true fa lse
true fa lse true true fa lse true 53.4.4
ra pid progression or severe deficit im med iately m il d and stable a d m it and eva l uate within 24 h rs
303
304 c.
Part 1 3: Tumors Involving Non-Neural Origin G roup I l l i. Signs/sym ptoms? ii.
pain without neurologic involvement as an outpatient over severa l days
When do you eva l uate?
7. What is the treatment for SEM? i neffective a. Chemotherapy is b. Vertebroplastyf kyphoplasty red uces pain 84% by %. c. radiation treatment i. H ow soon after diag nosis? within 24 hours within 2 weeks ii. After s u rgery? d . pre-op embolization i. appropriate for highly vascu lar tumors renal cel l ii. such as r c thyroid iii. t. iv. h hepatocel l u l a r
53.4.5
__
__ _
_____
__
__
_ _ _
____ _
8. a.
Regarding surgery for SEM: relative contraind ications: i. t. p > hours ii. t iii. expected s u rviva l : < m iv. m at m ind ication for surgery: % block i. g reater than ii. r P· other ind ications: i. u p -r ii. r t _ _ _
___
_ - _
53.4.5
radiosensitive tumors tota l pa ralysis > 8 hours <3-4 months
_ _ _ _
____
_ _ _
b.
____
_ _ _ _
____
__
c.
----
_ _ __
___
9. a. b. c. d.
___
Characterize surgical treatment: La m i nectomy is a treatment beca use it the spine. it is better to do su rgery and a d d __
__ _ _ _ _
_ __ _ _ _
mu ltiple lesions at mu lti ple levels 80% ra pid progression u n known primary radio-resistant tu mors 53.4.5
poor destabilizes a nteriorly instru mentation
Neurosurgery Books
54 General Information, Grading, Initial Management
•
General I nformation 1 . I n GCS <8, surgical lesions make up _. With significant head injury, be weary of _ spine fractures. 2.
With significant head injury, delayed deterioration occurs in %. 75% of these will have an i h __ __
•
1 5%; intracranial hematoma
54. 1 . 1
54. 1 . 2
_
Grading 3 . Match with mild-moderate-severe a. GCS 1 4 b. Foca l N e u rological defect c. GCS 1 5 + I m paired Alertness or memory d . GCS 5-8 e. LOC > S m i n f. GCS 1 5 + Brief LOC
•
25%; C1 -C3
54.2
mild moderate m il d severe moderate mild
Ma nagement in E/ R 4.
Hypotension (defined as ) and SBP <90 m m Hg; hypoxia (defined as apnea, cyanosis or Pa02 <60 m m H g ; tri ple Pa02 ), can the risk of bad outcome. __
__
__
5.
Decerebrate or decorticate posturing will usually be __ to the blown pupil.
contra latera l
6.
Sedatives and paralytics should be used for i h ,i ,t .
intracranial hypertension , intu bation, transport
__
54.4. 1
__
__
__
7. Trauma intubation practice guidelines GCS _
GCS<8
Ta ble 54.2
54.4. 1
54.4. 1
306 8. a.
b.
9. 1 0.
Part 1 4: Head Trauma True or False. Peri-proced ural a ntibiotics red uce risk of pneumonia and decreases length of stay or morta lity. Hyperventilation should be used prophylactica l ly for severe head tra u m a patients. Ideal PaC02 should be
__
54.4 . 1
fa lse (does not a lter length of stay or morta lity) fa lse
30-3 5 m m Hg
.
Hyperventilation can cause (increase or decrease) protein binding of calcium and develop (hyper or hypo) calcemia with tetany. ___
increase; hypoca lcemia
54.4 . 1 54.4 . 1
__
11. a.
b.
Regarding mannitol use. Contraindication to m a n n itol is h or h I n patients with CHF, consider pretreati ng with due to tra nsient (increase or decrease) of intravascu lar vol u me.
--
54.4 . 1
hypotension or hypovolemia fu rosemide; increase
__
___
1 2. True or False. a. AEDs a re effective in decreasing ea rly and late post-tra u matic seizu res. 1 3. True or False. The following conditions have an increased risk of posttraumatic seizures (PTS): a . penetrating brain i nj u ries b. intracranial bleed ing c. GCS > 1 3 d. alcohol abuse e. s u bga leal bleed 1 4.
a.
Name the condition associated with the following signs: posta u ricu l a r ecchymosis: b s f bruit over g lobe of eye: c c f insta bil ity of the zygomatic a rch : f f bruit over ca rotid a rtery: c d __
__
54.4 . 1
fa lse (only ea rly) Ta ble 54.3
true true fa lse (GCS < 1 0) true fa lse 54.4.2
basal sku l l fractu re
__
b.
__
___
ca rotid cavernous fistula
_
c.
__
facial fractu re (LeFort)
__
ca rotid dissection
_
d. 1 5.
__
CN _ palsy occurs with increased ICP VI (Abd ucens) and clival fractures.
1 6. Which has higher risk of intracranial injury? a . frontal or occipita l fractu res? b. u pper or lower facial fractu res?
54.4.2
54.4.3
occipita l u pper
General Information, Grading, Initial Management •
Radiogra phic Eva luation 1 7. a.
G findings Subdurals a re usually in shape, and (do or do not) cross sutu re lines. b. Pneumocephalus ind icates l i kely underlyi ng s . c. Tra u m atic SAH has blood thickest in (circle of Will is/Convexity) and aneurysmal has blood thickest in (circle of Willis/convexity) __
__
54. 5 . 1
crescentic; do not sku l l fracture
__ __
__
Convexity; Circle of Wi llis
__
•
Patients with Associated Severe Systemic I njuries 1 8.
Patients with multi-system injuries should receive or before receiving a a scan of the head. __ __ __
diag nostic peritoneal lavage or FAST sca n
54. 7 . 1
__
1 9. a. b. c.
Fat embolism clinicial triad: a r f g n_ d p r __
__
__
__
__
__
__
20. What are the four segments of the optic nerve and their relative length (in mm)? a. , _ mm b. , _ _ mm c. , _ mm d. , _ mm ______ _____ ______
______
2 1 . Which i s optic nerve segment i s most commonly damaged?
•
54. 7 . 2
acute respiratory fa i l u re global neurologic dysfu nction petechial rash 54.7.3
intraocu l a r, 1 m m intraorbita l , 2 5-30 m m intraca nalicu lar, 1 0 m m intracra n i a l , 1 0 m m intraca nalicular
54.7.3
ipsilatera l
54. 8 . 1
Exploratory Burr Holes 22. Placement of an emergency burr hole (ipsilateral or should be contralateral) to the blown pupil.
307
55 Concussion, Hig h Altitude Cerebral Edema, Cerebrovascular Injuries
•
Concussion 1.
By definition, a concussion typically has imaging studies.
normal
5 5 . 1 .4
__
2. True or False. The determination of concussion requires a. loss of consciousness from closed head inj u ry. b. brain swelling on com puted tomography (CT) of the head. c. a ltered consciousness as a result of a closed head inj u ry. d. nausea and vomiting after being hit in the hea d . 3 . fMRI may b e useful in mTBI, by showing dysfunction in f I compared to control patients. __
4.
a. b. c. d.
55. 1 .7
fa lse fa lse true fa lse fronta l lobe
55. 1 .8
__
Complete the following about concussion: I n concussion, what brain chemical changes in concentration? Does it go u p or down? What mechanism becomes i m pa i red? I t may pred ispose to m c e and m a ke the patient suscepti ble to s s _ _ _ _
55. 1 .9
g l uta mate up cerebral a utoreg u l ation malignant cerebral edema
_ _ _ _
e.
___
5.
___
Impaired metabolic state from a concussion can last days after injury.
7 - 1 0 days
Post concussive syndrome occurs in _ - _% of cases, and often occurs within _ weeks of injury, and remains after onset of symptoms.
1 0- 1 5% 4 >1 month
_
6.
second im pact synd rome
__ _
55. 1 .9
_
55. 1 . 1 0
Concussion, High Altitude Cerebral Edema, Cerebrovascular Injuries 7. True or False. When should a player return to the game after a mild concussion? a . t h e same day b. only after resol ution of sym ptom s c. o n ly after CT shows no inj u ry d. only after being able to wa l k or run without difficulty
e.
Steroids should be the primary pharmacologic treatment in PCS.
8. True or False. The second impact syndrome {SIS) a. is ra re. b. req u i res two head inju ries. c. resu lts from cerebra l edema. d . is responsible for t h e policy that " n o sym ptomatic player plays." e. can have severe conseq uences. 9. a.
Complete the following regarding SIS SIS has a morta lity of _ t o %. __
b. What treatment is effective for SIS?
•
55.1 . 1 2
fa lse true fa lse fa lse (A symptomatic patient should not retu rn to com petition . ) fa lse 55. 1 . 1 3
true true true true true 55. 1 . 1 3
50 t o 1 0 0 % (Second im pact synd rome (SIS] morta l ity occurs in ath letes who susta i n a second h e a d inj u ry while sti l l sym ptomatic from a n earlier inj u ry. They usually wa l k off the fiel d , then deteriorate i nto a coma with in m i n utes.) none-cond ition may be refractory to all treatment
Other TBI Definitions 1 0. a.
Regarding contusion. Low attenuation a reas in a T B I in contusions represent e . High attenuation areas represent h
55.2 . 1
edema
__
b. 11.
In posttraumatic brain swelling, increased cerebral blood volume occurs from loss of c_ v_ a_, and has a mortality rate near %.
hemorrhage cerebra l vascu lar a utoreg u lation; 1 00%
55.2.3
__
1 2.
Match symptoms mild-moderatesevere for diffuse axonal injury {DAI). a . Coma 2 hours b. Coma 30 hours c. flexor and extensor postu ri ng with coma for months d. coma with dysa utonomia
Ta ble 5 5 . 6
none moderate severe severe
Neurosurgery Books
309
31 0 •
Part 1 4: Head Trauma
High-Altitude Cerebra l Edema In your last trip to Machu Picchu in the high Andes you notice that the passenger sitting beside you in the train starts gasping for air and complains of severe headaches. Within minutes he becomes confused and minutes later becomes paralyzed. You suspect high altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE) with or without cerebral edema ( HACE). a . You p u l l o u t you r handy ophthalmoscope and fi nd in the fu ndus: i. p ii. r h iii. nerve fiber layer i iv. vitreous h b. This is compatible with the diag nosis of h a c e
1 3.
___ _
___ _
_ _ _ _
_ _ _
___ _
_ _ _
c.
Prevention i. g a + h ii. Avoiding E d . Treating cerebra l edema i. i d ii. o iii. s _ _ _
__ _
___
_ _ _
_ _ _
1 4. At the upcoming neurosurgical meeting in the Rockies, one of your colleagues presents with acute onset of inappropriate behavior, hallucinations, ataxia, and reduced mental status. If the breathalyzer is negative, what diagnosis should you consider? a . At 7000 ft you wou l d b e correct % of the time. b. At 1 5 ,000 ft you wou l d be correct % of the time.
55.3
papilledema retin a l hemorrhages infa rction hemorrhage HACE-high a ltitu de cerebral edema (A milder case of acute high a ltitude sickness [AHAS] that presents without ocu lar findings is ca lled HAPE.) g radual ascent ETOH + hypnotics immed iate descent 6-1 2 L/ min 02 steroids may be of use Hig h a ltitude cerebral edema
25%
____
___
50%
55.3
Concussion, High Altitude Cerebral Edema, Cerebrovascular Injuries •
Traumatic Cervical Artery Dissections 1 5. Your family medicine colleague called you after his visit to the chiropractor, and he complains of expanding neck, a whooshing sound in the neck, and some left hemiparesis. cervica l a rtery dissection a. What a re you concerned a bout? c_ a_ d_ therapeutic spinal b. How did this occur? t_ s_ m_ manipu lation CT Angiogra m , within 1 2 c. What test should you order and within what time fra me? hours (if presence of BCVI would a lter thera py, and no contraind ication to heparin) catheter angiogra m d . Which test is tech nica l ly t h e gold standard? 1 6.
a. b. c. d. e.
Complete the following about blunt cerebrovascular inju ries (BCVI): T h e u s u a l inj u ry i s It occu rs in _ - _% of BCVI patients. Mortal ity occurs i n %. Which is a better test: M RI or CTA? or Treatm ent is with h occasiona l ly with e tech niques. ___
1 7. Traumatic fractures for blunt cerebrovascular injury (BCVI ): a . L_ f b. b_ s_ f_ c. cervica l fractu res involving _
a. b. c. d. e.
55.4.2 55.4. 1 55.4.5 55.4.6
Leforte fractu re II or I l l basilar sku l l fractu re C1 -C3
Carotid artery dissection occurs in _% of blunt trauma patients, and has a _% mortality rate, and about are untreatable. __
1 9.
55.4. 1
Ta ble 5 5 . 7
__
1 8.
dissection 1 -2% 1 3% CTA hepari n ; endovascular
55.4. 1
Denver grading scale for BCVI. Match description with appropriate grade. pseudoaneurysm tra nsection with free extravasation l u m inal irreg ula rity with <25% stenosis intra l u m i n a l thrombus or ra ised inti m a l flap, > 2 5 % l u m i n a l stenosis occlusion
20. Match the treatment with the grade. a. endovascular occlusion b. ASA or Heparin c. Heparin and repeat M DCTA or catheter ang iogra m in _ - _ days d . u rgent surgical repair i f accessible
1 -2%; 1 3%; 1 /3
55.4.2
Ta ble 5 5 . 9
Ill V I II
IV 55.4.6
IV I or I I I l l , 7 - 1 0 days v
31 1
31 2
Part 1 4: Head Trauma
21 .
In grade V BCVI dissections, if lesion is inaccessible, treatment should be a . for com plete tra nsections: or e b. for incomplete tra nsection s __
_ _ _
_ _ _
55.4.6
ligate or occl ude endovascu larly stenting (possible endovascular stenting with concu rrent a ntithrom botics)
22.
Post-injury CTA for grade Ill was assessed, and the lesion was found to be healed. What is the next step?
discontinue a nticoa g u lation
23.
If a post-injury CTA shows incomplete lesion, consider _ (continuing heparin or transitioning to ASA) and do a repeat imaging in _ months.
tra nsitioning to ASA; 3 months
PTT goal for heparinization should be _ - _ seconds. After trauma, contra indications to anticoagulation are h a. i and s inj u ries b. I c. p f
24.
__
__
_
__
25.
__
__
Carotid artery dissections occur most commonly in , and the mechanism involves both h and I r of the neck. __
__
__
__
26. True or False. Regarding carotid dissections. a . Most ca rotid dissections occur at the ICA/ ECA orig i n . b . I ntern a l bleeding is t h e most common sympto m . c . Pseudoa neurysm tends t o be more favora ble tha n a n incomplete stenosis i n patients with ICA dissection. 27. What is the odds ratio for vertebral artery dissection caused by spinal manipulation? 28.
a. b. c. d.
Fractures/injuries often associated with blunt vertebral artery injuries are f t fractu res fractures-d islocation of the v s a n y type o f c s inj u ry __
___
___
___
__
__
40-50 seconds
55.4.6
55.4.6
55.4.6
intracerebra l hemorrhage liver and spleen inj u ries pelvic fractu res MVA (motor vehicle accidents); hyperextension; latera l rotation
55.4.7
55.4.7
fa lse: often 2cm dista l to the ICA orig in fa lse: ischemic sym ptoms a re the most common fa lse: pseudoaneurysm stroke risk is 44% and most will persist despite heparin thera py 6.62R
55.4.7
55.4.8
fora men tra nsversari u m facet vertebra l subl uxation cervica l spine
Concussion, High Altitude Cerebral Edema, Cerebrovascular Injuries 29.
Complete the following regarding blunt vertebral artery injury: a . Most common etiology is b. Treatment to strongly consider is
motor vehicle accident heparin
c.
more frequent
_ _ _ _
d. e. f. g.
beca use strokes were in those patients not treated. I ncidence is % but increases to % if cervical fractu re or ligament inj u ry. Is there a wa rning "TIA''? Ca n occur from hours to days. Is a ny cervical fractu re pattern a predictor of b l u nt vertebral inj u ry? Overa l l morta lity was % Bilatera l VA dissection is highly __
__
55.4.8
0.5-0.7% 6% no 8 hours to 1 2 days
____
h. i. j.
30. Vertebral artery dissection time from injury to stroke ranges from _ hours to _ days. 31 .
Treat all blunt vertebral injuries with and restudy chronic occl usion in months.
_,
no 1 6% fata l 8 hours to 1 2 days
ASA; 3 months
55.4.8
55.4.8
31 3
56 Neuromonitoring
•
I ntracranial Pressure ( ICP) 1 . The critical parameter for brain function is adequate c_ b_ f to meet C demands.
__
cerebra l blood flow; CM R02 demands
56.2.2
-
2.
CPP formula is CPP =
3.
and would have Normal CPP is to drop below in a normal brain before CBF is impaired.
>50mm Hg <40m m Hg
4.
If your computer does not give you mean arterial pressure ( MAP) how can you calculate it? ( H i nt: dds/3)
* MAP = [systol ic + (d iastolic x 2)] / 3
5.
If CPP is kept in good range, is ICP above 20 mm Hg well tolerated?
No, it is detrim enta l
56.2.2
CPP = MAP - ICP __
6. Complete the following: a . T h e mod ified hypothesis states that b. the sum of the i ntracranial vol u mes of , a nd c. and other components is d . A n increase in a n y o n e must be
e. by a n eq ual in another f. or else wi l l rise. g . Pressu re i s throug hout the i ntracra nial cavity. Increased muscle tone and valsalva lead to an (increase or decrease) i n ICP, by a. b. (increased or decreased) intrathoracic pressure, leading to c. (increased or decreased) j u g u l a r venous pressure, leading to d. (increased or decreased) venous outflow from hea d .
56.2.2
56.2.2
56.2.3
Monroe-Kellie blood , brain, and CSF consta nt offset decrease pressu re d istri buted evenly
7.
56.2.5
___
i ncrease increased
___
increased
___
decreased
___
56.2.2
Neurosurgery Books
Neuromonitoring 8.
a.
Complete the following regarding intracranial hypertension: What is Cushing's triad? i. h ii. b iii. r i Risk factors for IC-HTN with a norm a l CT: i. age ii. SBP iii. motor exa m shows ---
__
b.
___
__
c.
N e u rologic Indications for ICP monitori ng: GCS of _ and
__
or
Ta ble 56.2
hypertension bradyca rd ia respi ratory i rreg u l a rity Ta ble 5 6 . 3
age >40 SBP <90 decerebrate or decorticate postu ring GCS < 8 and abnormal CTH or > risk factors for IC-HTN
9. An important non-traumatic indication for some centers to choose f to monitor ICP is a l f with I N R a n d Grade I l l o f I V coma.
acute fu l m i n a nt l iver fa i l u re; INR > 1 .5
1 0. These patients frequently require prior to administration of subarachnoid bolt. Bolt placement should occur no more than hours after administration.
factor Vll 40 meg/kg IV over 1 -2 m i n ; 2 hours
1 1 . A criterion for discontinuing ICP monitoring is normai iCP for to hours.
48 to 72 hours
_
_
31 5
56.2.6
56.2.6
_
_
___
1 2.
Delayed onset IC-HTN may often start on day with a second peak at days _
-
day 2-3 ; day 9- 1 1 - especia l ly in peds
56.2.6
56.2.6
56.2.6
-
1 3. True or False. In regard to ICP monitoring, it is permissible to a . u s e a ntibiotics b. not use a ntibiotics c. place monitor i n ICU d. place monitor in OR e. Percentage of patients who develop hemorrhage while ICP is being placed is 1 .4%. 1 4. True or False. a. EVDs should be changed every 5 days to red u ce rate of infection . b. Subarachnoid bolts a re more accu rate with higher pressures.
56.2.6
true true true true true
56.2.6
fa lse - Does not red uce infection rate fa lse - Surface of brain may occlude lumen, which often show lower than actua i iCP, and possible normal waveform .
El
31 6 1 5.
a. b. c. d.
Part 1 4: Head Trauma Complete the following regarding conversion of mm Hg and em H20: C a n o n ly work i f t h e A F is concave with the infa nt u p rig ht, and convex when head is flat. Req u i res the patient to be in supine position. When the a nterior fonta nelle is flat, the ICP equals atmospheric pressu re. T h e I C P c a n b e esti mated in m m H g a s the dista nce from the AF to the point where venous pressu re is 0.
Complete the following regarding conversion of mm Hg and em H20: a . 1 m m Hg equals em of H20 b. 1 em H20 equals m m of Hg c . Externa l a u ditory ca nal correlates with what i ntracra nial structu re?
56.2.6
true true true fa lse (em H20)
1 6.
1 7.
Maximum output from a ventriculostomy would be _ - _ml per day, where none of the CSF is absorbed.
1 8. True or False. If an external ventricular catheter no longer functions, the following can be performed safely: a . lower d ri p nozzle b. verify clamps a re open and air filter is d ry c. fl ush dista l tubing with sa line d . fl ush IVC with u p to 5 m l o f saline under gentle pressu re 1 9. True or False. Possible causes of an ICP wave form that is dampened include the following: a . occlusion o f t h e catheter proxi mal t o the transducer b. catheter p u l led out of ventricle c. colla psed ventricle d. air i n the system e. intracranial hypertension 20.
ICP waveform in a patient with a decompressive craniectomy should appear __.
56.2.6
1 .36 em .735mm fora men of Monro 450-700m l
56.2.6
56.2.6
true true true fa lse ( u p to 1 . 5 m l of preservative-free saline can be used) 56.2.6
true true true fa lse fa lse d a m pened
56.2.6
Neuromonitoring 21 . a.
Regarding normai iCP waveforms. Blood Pressure va riations i. Large ( 1 -2mm Hg) peak corresponds to the a s_ p_ w_ with smaller and less distinct peaks ii. followed by a pea k corresponding to the c v_ a from the rig ht atri u m . Respi ratory variations i. During expi ration, pressure in su perior vena cava (increases or decreases), which (increases or decreases) venous outflow.
56.2.6
arteria l systolic pressu re wave
__
__
b.
__
__ _
•
centra l venous "A" wave
__
increases; decreases (Expi ration causes a n increase in SVC pressure which decreases venous outflow leading to increased ICP.)
22. a. b. c.
lundberg A waves are defined by ICP of d u ration of plus
>50mm Hg 5-20 min increase in MAP
23. a. b. c.
lundberg B waves are defined by ICP of - -,d u ration of plus
1 0-20mm Hg 30 sees to 2 m in utes period ic respiration
_ _ _
_ _ _ _
_ _ _
_ _ _ _
_ _ _
56.2.6
56.2.6
Adjuncts to ICP Monitoring 24. An indication for jugular venous oxygen (SjV02) or brain tissue oxygen tension monitoring (pBt02) is .
hyperventilation (pC02 25)
25. Jugular venous pressure is representative of g oxygen content and is insensitive to f pathology.
globa l ; foca l
26.
Normal jugular venous oxygen saturation (SjV02) is and desaturations to suggest ischemia.
> 60%; < 50%
Brain tissue oxygen tension monitoring shows death increases with sustained pBt02 of or brief drop to _ mmHg.
pBt02 < 1 5 m m H g ; pBt02 < 6 m m Hg
=
20-
56.3 . 1
___
__
56.3 . 1
__
__
56.3 . 1
__
27.
56.3.2
__
28. Goal is to maintain pBt02 above _.
pBt02 >25mm Hg
29.
pBt02 probe placement. Name the correct diagnosis for the following techniques: a . fronta l (2-3cm o ff midli ne)
b. c. d. e.
near the site of hemorrhage least i nj u red side 3cm latera l to midline 4.5-5.5 em off midline
56.3.2 56.3.2
ACA or A-comm aneurysm (near the vasospasm risk) ICH TBI ACA- MCA watershed MCA
31 7
31 8
Part 1 4: Head Trauma
30. Treatment tier based on low pBt02 a. Tier 1 i. keep body tem p C ii. increase CPP to _ m m H g b. Tier 2 % i. increase FI02 to ii. increase PaC02 to mmHg iii. tra nsfuse RBC u ntil H g b gfdl c. Tier 3 % i. increase FI02 to ii. decrease ICP to _ mmHg iii. consider increase in_ if FI02 @ 1 00% __
__
__
__
__
31 .
Bedside monitoring of regional CBF can be limited if patient has a f .
56.3.2
tem p <37 . 5 C increase CPP to >60mm Hg FI02 to 60% PaC02 45-50mm Hg Hgb > 1 0g/dl FI02 1 00% ICP < 1 0 m m Hg PEEP fever
56.3.3
__
•
Treatment Measu res for Elevated ICP 32. Acute ICP crisis - Measures a. a _ b_ c_ b. e h of b___ m c. n d . d _ C_ i f IVC present 1 gfkg bol us or 1 0e. m 2 0 ml f. h ___ g . sedation with p or t __
__
__
__
__
Ta ble 5 6 . 6
airway breathing circu lation elevate head of bed neck midline d rain CSF mannitol or 23% saline hyperventilate pentoba rbita l or thiopental
Patients with hemorrhagic contusion with progressive deterioration may benefit from s e
surgical excision
Cushing ulcers are caused by s_ h_ i and increased I_
severe head inj u ry; increased ICP
35.
Fluid volume goal is e with mannitol.
euvolemic
5 6 . 4. 4
36.
If ICP remains refractory to mannitol consider h s.
hypertonic sa line
5 6 . 4. 4
Avoid aggressive hyperventilation, with goal PaC02 at_, and avoid in the first hours after injury if possible.
PaC02 goal 30-3 5 ; 24 hours
Before proceeding with "second tier" therapy, consider repeating a H , and possible E to rule out e s.____ s.
repeat head CT; EEG to ru le out subclinica l status epilepticus
Decompressive craniectomy should have a flap at least _em in diameter, and d is mandatory.
1 2 em; d u raplasty
33.
___
34.
5 6 . 4. 4
__
__
___
, even
5 6 . 4. 4
_ _ __
37.
5 6 . 4. 4
__
38.
__
__
____
39.
__
5 6 . 4. 4
_ _ _ _
5 6 . 4. 4
Neuromonitoring < 1 0 em H20; frequency
40.
PEEP of < _ does not cause clinically significant increases in ICP. If needed for oxygenation, consider increasing the f__ of ventilation.
41 .
32-35(; Prophylactic hypothermia. If used, target temperature is _ - __ C, and morta l ity; a non-significant decrease in m__ if >48 hours hours. maintained
42.
In the first 24 hours of head injury, CBF (cerebral blood flow) ; C__ is already about h_ of normal. half
43. Hyperventilation a . Avoid u s e in t h e first _ days, and a t least in t h e first hours. b. Do not use H PV p_ _ c. If used in IC-HTN, you r PaC02 goal should be _ _ d . I f prolonged H PV deemed necessa ry, consider monitoring of 5_, A_, and ofr C_ is recommended. e. Do not red u ce below _
44. a.
b.
c.
Mannitol First red u ces IC HTN b y r___ , by red ucing h __ and b__ v__ then by its o__ e__ . When dosing mannitol , it's im porta nt to use the s__ e__ d __ as it red uces effectiveness of su bsequent doses. M a n nitol ca n be enha nced using f__ as it may red uce c__ e__ and slow p__ of C__
45. Hypertonic saline a . C a n be given as a __ continuous infusion or _ - _ bolus thro u gh a centra l line. b. Hold if seru m osmola rity is __ . 46. a.
Steroids Not effective in c__ edema seen i n tra u m a , b u t red uces v__ edema seen in brain tu mors.
47.
Barbiturate therapy is recommended only if IC-HTN is refractory to maximal m_ and s_ ICP lowering therapy. a . M a i n limiting factor is h ,-b. True ba rbitu rate coma req u i res b__ s on E_ _ _ _
56.4.4
56.4.4
56.4.4
56.4.4
5 days, and at least in the fi rst 24 hours prophylactica l ly 30-35
< 2 5cc 56.4.4
rheology; hematocrit and blood viscosity; osmotic effect smallest effective dose
fu rosemide; cerebral edema; slow prod uction of CSF 56.4.4
3%; 7 . 5 -23 .4% >320 mOSm/L 56.4.4
cytotoxic edema; vasogenic edema med ica l and surgical hypotension b u rst suppression on EEG
Neurosurgery Books
56.4.4
31 9
57 Skull Fractures
•
Depressed Skull Fractures 1.
a.
Indications for surgery i n open skull fractures: Depressed sku l l fractu re that causes a n d c s f l i p i f depression is g reater than _ e m or i s g reater than the I nvolvement of the f s c d
5 7 .3 . 1
neurological deficit
__
b. c. d.
__
__
___
_
__
__
_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
e. f. 2.
a.
__
__
Indications for surgery in depressed skull fractures: Depression g reater t h a n em o r g reater t h a n t h e t of c i or g c _
__
b. 3.
__
__
__
__
57.3.2
1 em ; thickness of calvaria infection or g ross conta m i nation
For contaminated fractures, when excision of depressed bone is necessary, it is recommended to soak fragment in p i .
povidone iodine
57.3.2
The superior sagittal sinus is often to the of the sagittal suture.
rig ht
57.3.2
__
4.
_
__
cerebra l spinal fl uid leak i ntra d u ra l pneumocepha l u s 1 em; thickness o f the calvari u m frontal sinus cosmetic deform ity
_
__
•
Basal Skull Fractures 5. Temporal bone fracture considerations: a . More common temporal bone fractu re i s longitudinal fracture; petro squamosal sutu re the I fractu re, through the p -s suture and parallel to and through the EAC. transverse petrous fractu re; b. Periphera l facia l nerve palsy may be associated with t p fractu re geniculate gang lion d u e to stretching of the g g __
__
__
__
_ _ _
__
57.4.2
Skull Fractures c. Which fracture damages hearing?
tra nsverse fractu re (horizonta l )
6.
72 hours
Facial EMG's after posttraumatic unilateral peripheral facial nerve palsy often takes hours to become abnormal.
7. True or False. Glucocorticoids have fa lse been proven to improve the functional outcome of traumatic facial nerve palsy. 8. Clival fracture considerations: a c a n occur with basa l sku l l a. T fractu res involving t h e clivus. c vessels may be affected in b. A __
__
c. d. e. f. 9.
__
__
Cranial nerve deficits _ thro u gh _ h and b Pituita ry s h e a r d a m a g e associated with d ___
__
c__
b.
__
---
____
' ----
Most sensitive test for detecting skull base fractures is
57.4.2
57.4.2
57.4.2
Tra u m atic aneurysms Anterior circu lation, transverse fractures CN I l l thro ug h VI; bitem pora l hemianopsia dia betes insipid us CSF leak brainstem infa rctions CT sca n
57.4.3
true
57.4.3
Battle's sign
57.4.4
__
1 0.
Complete the following regarding basal skull fractures: a . True or Fa lse. Pneumocephalus m a y be seen on plain sku l l x-rays. b. Posta u ricu lar ecchym osis is ca lled
c. True or Fa lse. Anosmia ca n be associated with tem poral bone fractures. d. Sixth nerve palsy can occur with fractu re.
fa lse (with fronta l bone fractu re) cliva l
____
1 1 . True or False. The following are clinical signs of basal skull fracture: a . CSF otorrhea or rhinorrhea b. hemotym panum c. depressed level of consciousness d . Battle's sign e. inj u ry to cranial nerve VII
57.4.4
true true fa lse true true
321
322 1 2. a.
Part 1 4: Head Trauma Management considerations: D o NOT place n _ t_, which c a n be fata l in % of cases if passed intracra n i a l ly. Surgery should be considered for i. t a_ ii. posttra u m atic c c f __
b.
__
__
__
__
iii. CSF f iv. c d v. posttra u m atic f_ p_ __
___
•
_ _ _
57.4.5
nasogastric tube; 64% tra umatic aneurysms posttra u m atic cavernous ca rotid fistula CSF fistula cosmetic deform ities posttra u matic facia l palsy
Craniofacial Fractu res 1 3. Frontal sinus fractures a . Anesthesia o f t h e forehead m a y b e d u e nerve to s and/or s involvement. b. M u cocele formation is due to obstruction of the f d or chronic infla m mation. c. O n ly packing the sinus increases the risk of i or m formation ___
57.5.1
supratrochlear and/or supraorbita l nerve frontonasal d u ct infection or m ucocele formation
1 4.
Matching. Match the type of LeFort fracture with the structures involved. Type of fracture: G) LeFort I ; 0 LeFort I I ; @ LeFort I l l Structu res involved : (a-g) below a. maxilla b. inferior orbita l ri m c. orbita l floor d. nasofronta l sutu re e. zygomatic a rches f. zygomaticofronta l suture g . pterygoid plates
•
57.5.2
Pneumocephalus 1 5.
a. b. c. d. e. 1 6.
Compartments where pneumocephalus can be located in: e s s __
__
__
57.6.2
epid u ra l subdura l su barachnoid intraparenchymal i ntrave ntricu Ia r
Craniotomy: risk is higher when sitti ng patient is operated with surgery in the s position. __
57.6.2
Skull Fractures 1 7.
Congenital skull defects may result in pneumocephalus especially if the defect includes the t t __
1 9. True or False. The presence of intracranial air may produce a characteristic sign known as a . em pty delta sign b. Mt. Hashimoto sign c. Dawson sign d. Mt. Fuji sign e. gas gap 20. Treatment of pneumocephalus. %0 for significa nt or a. symptomatic post-op pneumocephalus b. e of tension pneumocepha l u s __
__
57.6.2
__
1 8. Tension pneumocephalus might occur if a. n a nesthetic is 0 used. b. c a i r is tra pped . v c. b opening occurs. organisms a re d. g -p present.
__
teg men tym pani
57.6.5
nitrous oxide cool ba l l va lve gas-prod ucing 57.6.6
fa lse fa lse fa lse true fa lse 57.6.7
1 00% 02 evacuation
323
58 Traumatic Hemorrhagic Conditions
•
Posttrau matic Parenchymal I njuries 1.
Bifrontal decompressive craniectomy within hours of injury is a treatment option with diffuse, medically refractory posttraumatic cerebral edema and associated ICHTN.
48 hours
58. 1 . 1
__
•
Hemorrhagic Contusion 2. Surgical evacuation indications: r IC-HTN or mass effect a. m b. TICH vol u m e ml , with f or t c. GCS contusions with m m M LS and or c b c __
__
__
__
__
___
__
58.2.2
medica l ly refractory SOml 6-8; fronta l or tempora l ; > 5 ; compressed basal cisterns
__
3. True or False. Regarding delayed traumatic intracerebral hemorrhage (DTICH}. a. The patient typica l ly has GCS � 8. b. Incidence is "' 1 0%. c. Most DTICHs occur within 72 hours of tra u m a . d . Some patients initia l ly a ppear wel l a n d then deteriorate. e. Coa g u lopathy contributes to DTICH. 4. The following factors contribute to formation of delayed traumatic intracerebral hemorrhage: a. systemic b. hemorrhage i nto a n a rea of n __ b_ c. coalescence of extravasated m __ _
__
58.2.3
true true true true true 58.2.3
coag u lopathy necrotic brain m icrohem atomas
Neurosurgery Books
Traumatic Hemorrhagic Conditions •
325
Epidura l Hematoma 5. a.
Complete the following: Incidence o f epid u ra l hematoma i s % of a l l head inj u ries. b. Incidence of subdura l hematoma is % of a l l head inj u ries. c. Epid u ra l hematoma male to female ratio is d. Epid u ra l hematoma a rise from a rteria l bleeding i n %. e. Epidural hematoma patients develop a dilated pupil in %. f. % a re ipsilatera l . % h a d no loss o f consciousness. g. % had no lucid intern a l . h. i. Morta l ity of epid u ra l hematoma is __
6. True or False. Regarding epidural hematomas ( EDHs). a. The sou rce of bleed ing is a rterial 99% of the ti me. b. Women a re more commonly affected.
c.
EDHs a re rare before age 2.
d. The anterior meningeal a rtery is the most com mon cause of the bleeding. e. Patients with epid u ra l hematomas can present with a n ipsilatera l hemiparesis. 7. What is Kernohan notch phenomenon? a . Com p ression of the b. cerebral ped u ncle on the c. which ca n prod uce hemiparesis to the intracranial mass lesion . 8.
a. b. c. d. e.
True or False. Concerning epidural hematomas. A dilated p u p i l is not a good loca l izing sign as to the hematoma location. It occu rs in more than 1 5% of head tra u m a adm issions. No i n itial loss of consciousness occu rs in 60%. No l u cid interva l occu rs i n 20%. I n pediatric head tra u m a , EDH should be suspected if there is a 1 0% d rop in hematocrit after admission.
58.3 . 1
1% 2% 4: 1 85% 60% 85% 60% 20% 20-55% 58.3.2
fa lse (85% of the time) fa lse (Men a re more com monly affected-4: 1 .) true (EDHs are ra re before yea rs or g reater than 60 yea rs.) fa lse (middle meningeal a rtery) true 58.3.2
contra latera l tentorial notch ipsilatera l hemipa resis
fa lse (It is a good sig n . )
58.3.2
fa lse 1 %
58.3 . 1
true
58.3.2
true true
g
Part 1 4: Head Trauma
326
9. True or False. A 5-year-old girl presents to the emergency room ( ER) with a chief complaint of brief posttraumatic loss of consciousness after several hours of playing with her siblings. While she is being worked up in the ER, you get a call from your frantic intern who reports that the patient is now obtunded. You would expect the following signs and symptoms and would include the following statistics in your presumed diagnosis: a. ea rly bradyca rdia
b.
Kernahan 's notch phenomenon
c.
85% occu rrence of associated ipsilatera l pupillary dilation
d.
a crescent-sha ped h i g h density lesion o n CT
1 0.
What is the mortality rate of EDH?
11. a.
Nonsurgical treatment: is possi ble i f size is less t h a n and patient's sym ptoms a re What may ha ppen between days 5 a n d 1 6? A n epid u ra l hematoma thicker than em should have surgery. To document resol ution repeat CT in _ months. to A vol u m e of less than cc.
b. c. d.
_ _ __
_ _ _
58.3.2
fa lse (Ea rly bradyca rd ia is included in the d ifferential diag nosis of posttra u m atic disorder described by Den ny Brown . Late bradyca rd ia may be seen in you r presumed diag nosis, epid u ra l hematoma.) true { I psilatera l hemiparesis has been described in EDH.) true (60% of patients with EDH have a dilated pupil and 85% wi l l be ipsilatera l to the hematoma.) true
58.3.4
20 to 55%
58.3.5 58.3.6
1 em mild increase in size of the hematoma 1 cm
____
e. f.
1 to 3 30
1 2.
Complete the following about delayed epidural traumatic hematoma (DEPTH): a. It may occur in as many as _ % of epid u ra l hematomas. b. It may be related to increasing the patient's - -,-c. or red ucing the patients d . especi ally fol lowi ng s u rgical remova l of another e. is a n other pred isposing factor. __
__ _
58.3.7
9-1 0% BP ICP epid u ra l
_ _ _ _
____
Coa g u lopathy
Traumatic Hemorrhagic Conditions 1 3. True or False. Regarding posterior fossa epidural hematoma. a. Nea rly 85% wi l l have an occi pita l sku l l fractu re in a d u lts. b. D u ra l sinus tea rs a re com mon. c. Abnormal cerebel lar signs are com mon. d . Overa l l morta l ity is over 2 5%. e. They represent - 5% of EDH.
•
58.3.7
true true fa lse true true
Acute Subd u ral Hematoma 1 4.
Regarding acute subdural hematomas (ASDH). a . There is more l i kely to be a n underlying brain inj u ry with a n ASDH than with an EDH. b. On CT, a n ASDH typica l ly a ppears crescentic in shape. c. One ca use of ASDH is the accu m u lation of blood around a parenchymal laceration. d . A " l ucid interva l " may be present.
1 5.
a.
Complete the following about acute subdural hematomas: Patient on a nticoa g u lation thera py has a g reater cha nce of ASDH fold i. if the patient is male: fold ii. if the patient is female: iii. H ow many days u ntil the subdura l mem brane begins t o form? __
__
1 6. a. b. c. d.
a scan in ASDH and time frame acute: - _ - _ days su bacute: -- days to _ - _ wks chron ic: wks to _ _ months lenticular shaped: _ - _ months
1 7. a.
SDH Treatment Surgical ind ications i. ASDH thickness m m or M LS ii. Do a c not a b_ h_ b. Surgical ind ications for smaller ASDH i. GCS d rops by or fixed and ii. a nd/or pupils a re dilated . iii. ICP is c. Timing of Su rgery i. Ideally should be operated on with in hours. __
__
58.4. 1
true true true true 58.4.2
7 26 4 Ta b l e 5 8 . 1
1 -3 days 4 days to 2-3 weeks > 3 weeks and <3-4 months 1 -2 months 58.4.3
> 1 0m m or >5 cra n iotomy not a b u rr hole 2 poi nts asym metric > 20 4 hours
327
328
Part 1 4: Head Trauma
1 8. True or False. Regarding mortality from ASDH. a. Morta l ity from a n acute subdura l hematoma (AS DH ) ra nges from 50 to 90%. b. Morta l ity is from the
c.
Mortal ity is higher i n young people.
d.
Med ication that i ncreases morta l ity is
1 9. a. b.
Interhemispheric subdural hematomas I n children, consider c a . I n a d u lts, usually due to t and can also occur with r a c. What is fa lx synd rome? __
__
__
__
___
d . What sym ptoms c a n i t man ifest? (Hint: psadlo) i. p ii. s iii. a iv. d d ifficu lties v. I vi . 0 palsies
true underlyi ng brain inj u ry (and not from the extraaxial bleed ) fa lse (Morta l ity thought to be higher in elderly patients.) a nticoagula nts 58.4.5
child abuse tra u m a ; ru ptu red aneurysms paresis or focal seizu res contra latera l to the hematoma paresis seizu res ataxia dementia language ocu lomotor
20. True or False. Regarding infantile acute subdural hematoma. a . Often involves loss o f consciousness with fa lse initia l inj u ry. fa lse b. Sku l l fractures are often seen. c. Often presents with g s after general ized seizu re i nj u ry.
58.4.5
21 . Treatment of IASDH a . For mi n i m i mally symptomatic cases, you can consider p s t .
58.4.5
__
___
•
58.4.4
__
__
percuta neous subdura l ta p
__
Chronic Subdural Hematoma 22. What are the risk factors for chronic SDH? (Hi nt: catss fa lls) a. c b. a c. t d. s e. s f. f
58.5.1
coa g u lopathies a lcohol abuse tra u m a shu nts seizu res fa l l s
Traumatic Hemorrhagic Conditions 23. Techniques that promote continued drainage after immediate procedure and prevent re-accumulation: a. Lay the patient f . b. Place generous b u rr hole under the t m d c. Use of a s d . Possi ble I s __
__
58.5.4
flat tem pora lis m u scle
__
__
__
___
subdura l d rain l u m ba r subarach noid infusion
24.
For twist drill craniotomies for chronic subdurals, a. a ventricu l a r catheter is placed into the s space. b. ventriculostomy bag is placed below the c. Catheter is removed when at least of col lection is d rained and when patient shows signs of improvement which occurs within days.
58.5.4
subdura l
__
__
_ _ _ _ __
20 em ; craniotomy site - 20%; 1 -7 days
__
25.
Complete the following regarding chronic subdurals: a. Repeat surgery is needed in %. b. Is the use of a d ra i n recommended? c. With a d rain the need to repeat su rgery is red uced to %.
26.
a. b. c. d.
Complete the following about chronic subdural hematoma outcomes: % Persistent fl uid at 1 0 days: % Persistent fl uid at 40 days: H ow long ti l l fu l l resol ution? O n e operation is successfu l i n % of patients Two operations a re successfu l in % of patients.
58.5.4
1 9% Yes 1 0% 58.5.5
78% 1 5% May ta ke 6 months 80%
____
e.
90%
____
27. What are the complications of surgical treatment of chronic SDH? (Hint: hherps) hemorrhage a. h hyperemia b. h e m pyema c. e reexpa nsion fa i l u re d. r pneumocephalus e. P· seizu res f. s _ _ _
___
_ _ _
_ _ _ _
---
_ _ _
Neurosurgery Books
58.5.5
329
Part 1 4: Head Trauma
330 •
Spontaneous Subdural Hematoma 28. What are the risk factors for spontaneous subdural hematomas? a. h b. v m c. n d. a e. s f. h g. c h h. i __
__
__
__
__
_ _ _
_ _ _
_ _ _
__
29.
_ _ _
In spontaneous SDH, bleeding sites were often a , often involving c branch of _ __
58.6. 1
hypertension vascu l a r ma lformations neoplasms infection su bsta nce a buse hypovita m inosis coa g u lopathies intracranial hypotension a rteri a l ; cortical bra nch o f MCA
58.6.3
__
•
Traumatic Subdural Hygroma 30.
a. b. c. d. e.
Complete the following regarding formation of subdural hygromas: Are they associated with trauma? Do sku l l fractu res occu r? Do they have membranes? Fluid on CT is similar t o They are created by t and i. a ii. b v f Can be associated post-meningitis often by (species). Recurrent subdura l hyg romas may benefit from a s p s . __ _
_ _ _
__
__
__
f.
__
__
__
g.
__
•
__
yes yes; 39% no CSF
58.7 . 1
58.7.4 58.7.2
arachnoid tea r ba l l va lve fla p haemophi l u s influenzae meningitis effusion subdural-peritoneal s h u nt
58.7.5
__
Extraaxial Fluid Collections in Children a.
list the differential diagnosis of extraaxial fluid collections in children. a s
b.
b
s
c.
c
s
d.
c
a
e. f.
c e
d h
31 .
32. What is the mean age of presentation of extraaxial fluid collections of infancy?
58.8. 1
acute SDH in a child with low Hct benign subdura l (extraaxial) collections of infancy chronic sym ptomatic extraaxial fl uid col lections cerebral atrophy external hyd rocephalus (EH) cra niocerebra l disproportion external hyd rocephalus 4 months
58.8.2
Traumatic Hemorrhagic Conditions 33. What is the treatment of benign extraaxial fluid collections of infancy? a. o _ _ _ _
b.
p.___
p
c.
h
c
d. e.
Most wi l l by
____
__
e. ___
__ _
_ _ _ _
_ __
34. What are the treatment options for symptomatic chronic extra-axial fluid collections in children? ( H int: otb sp) a. o _ _ _ _
•
b.
t.
c.
b- ___
d.
s
_ _ _
___
p
___
s __
_
58.8.2
observation ( Most cases resolve sponta neously withi n 8 t o 9 months and req u i re no treatment.) periodic physica l exa m i nation ( Repeat physica l exa m to identify development of symptoms.) head circu mference every 3 to 6 months (Orbita l-fronta l head circu mference [OFC) should be done at 3- to 6month interva ls to monitor head g rowth that should parallel normal g rowth and approach normal at 1 to 2 years. resolve 1 -2 yea rs 58.8.3
observation with serial orbita l fronta l head circu mferences, u ltrasound at least one percuta neous ta p should be done to rule out infection bu rr-hole d rainage ± externa l d rainage s u bd u ra l to peritoneal s h u nt (unilatera l with extremely low pressure va lve)
Traumatic Posterior Fossa Mass Lesions 35.
a. b. c. d.
Complete the following about traumatic posterior fossa mass lesions: Head inj u ry that involves t h e posterior fossa is less than %. h The majority a re e Parenchym a l hemorrhages can be ma naged nonsu rgica l ly if they a re less than em in dia meter. Posterior fossa lesions meeti ng surgical criteria should be evacuated
58.9
3% epid u ra l hematoma 3 asap
331
59 Gunshot Wounds and Non-Missile Penetrating Brain Injuries
•
Gunshot Wounds to the Head 1 . True or False. Regarding gunshot wounds (GSWs). a . GSWs represent 3 5 % o f a l l deaths from brain inj u ry i n the older population (> 45). b. GSWs a re the most leth a l type of head inj u ry; one fou rth die at the scene. c. 90% of victi ms die.
59 . 1 . 1
fa lse (35% under 45 die) fa lse (2/3 die) true
2.
For GSWs to the head, the mechanisms of injury include (Hint: Capone g a n g shooti ngs l a n d in the East River) a. c cavitation, cou p-contrecoup b. g gas shock waves c. s d. I low pressu re e. i im pact f. e explosive g. r ricochet
3.
Cerebral abscess from penetrating wounds can occur from r c m and p c with n s __
__
__
__
__ __
__
4.
General initial management in penetrating head injuries
a. c b. eva luation for a c. s i p r d. f __
_ _
__
__
5.
__
__
__
__
Patients with little CNS function in absence of s are unlikely to benefit from craniotomy. __
reta ined conta m inated materia l , persistent com m u nications with nasal sin uses
59. 1 . 2
59. 1 . 4
59 . 1 . 6
CPR additional inju ries spine inj u ry preca utions fl uid resuscitation shock
59 . 1 . 6
Gunshot Wounds and Non-Missile Penetrating Brain Injuries If surgical intervention is necessitated, devita l ized tissue a round entry and exit wou n d should be e . b. air sinuses should have mucosa e c . c. ensure tight d d . cra n ioplasty should b e delayed _ - _ months.
6. a.
59 . 1 . 6
excised
__
exenterated
___
__
•
__
d u ra l clos u re 6-1 2 months
Non-Missile Penetrating Tra u ma 7. True or False. a . I t is appropriate t o remove the protruding foreig n body as soon as possi ble. b. Consider pre-op ang iography if object passes near a large named artery or the d u ra l sin uses. c. They have a higher risk of contamination than missile i nj u ries. d. Prophylactic a ntibiotics a re recommended. e. Post-operative a rteriog ra ms are recom mended .
59.2.3
fa lse (sta bilize object and only consider remova l i n the O R) true true true true (to ru le out tra u m atic aneurysm)
333
60 Pediatric Head Injury
•
General I nformation Complete the following regarding children hospitalized for trauma: 75% a . What percentage have head inj u ry? 1 0- 1 3% b. The overa l l morta l ity is _ - _%. c. If presenti ng with decerebrate postu rin g , 7 1 % morta lity is %.
1.
•
60. 1
Home Observation 2. A child with a GCS 1 4, who is neurologically stable with a negative a, may be appropriate for h o .
home observation
60.2.2
__
__
•
Cephalhematoma 3.
a. b. c. d.
Indicate i f cephalohematoma is more consistent with subgaleal hematoma or subperiosteal hematoma. Bleeding is l i mited b y sutu res. Do not calcify. May lead to significa nt loss of circu lati ng blood vol u me. More com monly seen in a newborn , associated with partu rition .
60.4. 1
su bperiosteal hematoma subga leal hematoma subgaleal hematoma su bperiosteal hematoma
Neurosurgery Books
Pediatric Head Injury 4. True or False. A mother brings a 5-dayold baby, born via vaginal delivery, with a large, right-sided, soft scalp swelling that stops at the suture. You should a . percutaneously aspirate the lesion . fa lse (Cephalohematoma is most com monly seen associated with partu rition. 80% resorb usually with in 2 to 3 weeks. Avoid the tem ptation of puncturing the lesions beca use the risk of infection exceeds cosmetic benefits.) b. tel l the mother that 50% of these calcify. fa lse
c. tel l the mother that the baby may develop jaund ice as late as age 1 0 days.
d.
surgica l ly excise t h e lesion.
e.
consider child a buse.
f. treat this differently if the soft a rea crosses sutu res.
•
60.4. 1
true (I nfants may develop hyperbilirubinemia and jaundice as blood is resorbed from this cephalohematoma [subperiostea l hematoma] as late as 1 0 days after onset. ) fa lse (Surgery is considered only after 6 weeks if a CT demonstrates ca lcifications.) true (Child a buse needs to be considered a lways.) fa lse (ca lled subgaleal hematoma)
Sku l l Fractures in Pediatric Patients Complete the following regarding growing skull fracture: a . Leptom eningeal cysts result from a combination of two inju ries: i. s f ii. d t. b. Why does it g row?
5.
_ _ _ _
_ _ _ _
c.
If ea rly g rowth of a fractu re line with no subgaleal mass, do in _ - _ f___ months to rule out p d . What is a treatment for true PTLMC? __
What are the surgical indications for pediatric simple depressed skull fracture? p a. d b. c d n d c. f
60.5.2
sku l l fractu re d u ra l tea r intact a rachnoid pulsates and eventua l ly expands X-ray; 1 -2 months; pseudo-g rowi ng fractu re surgery
6.
__
__
__
__
__
__
__
60.5.3
d u ra l penetration cosmetic defect foca l neurologic deficit consistent with the site of fractu re
335
336 7.
a. b.
•
Part 1 4: Head Trauma Fill in the blank regarding ping pong ball fractures Usually seen in . newborns Often no treatment necessa ry in a bsence tem poropa rieta l region of underlyi ng bra i n inj u ry when it occu rs reg ion in the t
60.5.3
__
Nonaccidental Trauma ( NAT) Answer the following regarding child abuse: a . True or Fa lse. There a re pathog nomonic findings in child abuse. b. Suspicious findings a re i. r h ii. b c s h iii. s f
8.
___ _
___ _
_ _ _
_ _ __
9.
a. b.
Retinal hemorrhage differential diagnosis: c_ a b s e___ in ----:i a h a s a increase i n I P r ____
_ _
c. d. e. 1 0.
__
__
____
_
__
__
__
_ _ _
In skull fractures, the most common bone affected is the p bone, and can be missed in clinical exam due to o h __
__
__
60. 6 . 1
fa lse reti nal hemorrhage bi latera l chronic subdura l hematomas sku l l fractu res 60.6.3
child abuse benign subdura l effusion in infa nts acute high a ltitude sickness acute increase in ICP Purtscher's retinopathy pa rieta l bone; overlying hematoma
60.6.4
61 Head Injury: Long-Term Management, Complications, Outcome
•
Airway Management 1.
Early tracheostomy can reduce the days of m v but does not reduce m,
mechanical venti lation; morta lity
61 .1
_ _ _
•
Deep-Vein Throm bosis ( DVT) Prophylaxis 2. The risk of developing DVT in untreated severe TBI is %.
20%
61 .2
__
•
N utrition in the Head-Injured Patient 3.
Nutritional replacement should begin within hours of post-trauma patients with full caloric replacement by .
72 hours; by day 7
IV nutrition has increased risk of and i h compared to enteral nutrition.
hyperg lycemia and infection
61 .3.3
1 2%
6 1 .4. 1
__
61 .3.1
__
4.
•
Posttrau matic Hyd rocephalus 5. What is the incidence of clinically symptomatic hydrocephalus after traumatic SAH? 6.
Hydrocephalus ex vacuo is v e due to atrophy secondary to in TBI patients. __
__
__ ___ __
ventricu l a r enlargement; diffuse axonal inj u ry
6 1 . 4. 2
338
Part 1 4: Head Trauma
7. When should a shunt be considered in posttraumatic hydrocephalus? a. e p on 1 or more LPs b. p c. t a __
__
__
___
•
_ __
elevated press u re papilledema transependymal a bsorption
Outcome from Head Trauma 8.
The basal cisterns is evaluated on axial a scan at the level of the m , and 3 limbs, which are
midbra i n ; quadrigeminal cistern, 2 latera l l i m bs (posterior portion of the am bient cisterns)
Compression of the basal cisterns is associated with a fold risk of
3 fold risk; increased ICP
Midline shift measurements are done at the level of the f of M .
fora men of Monro
___
___.
9.
1 0.
___
61 .5.2
61 .5.2
61 .5.2
__
1 1 . Complete the following: a . What is t h e genotype associated with head inj u ry? b. It is also a risk factor for A d __
•
6 1 .4.3
__
61 .5.2
apoli poprotein E4 a l lele Alzheimer's disease
Late Complications from Trau matic Brain I njury 1 2.
a. b. c.
The three most common symptoms associated with postconcussive syndrome are: h d m d __
__
6 1 .6.2
headache dizzi ness memory difficu lty su pportive
1 3. Treatment for postconcussive syndrome is generally s .
6 1 .6.2
__
Neuropathology in chronic traumatic encephalopathy shows a. n and t b. a a c. These changes a re similar to A. d isease, however the n t in CTE. a re more s
1 4.
_ _ ___
_ _ ___ _ _ _
6 1 .6.3
neu rofibri l l a ry ta ngles a myloid angiopathy Alzheimer's d isease; neu rofibri l l a ry ta ngles; su perficia l
Head Injury: Long-Term Management, Complications, Outcome 1 5. True or False. Chronic traumatic encephalopathy is more likely in boxers who a . have more t h a n 20 fig hts. b. fig ht for more than 1 0 yea rs. c. have the apolipoprotein E4 a l lele d . have cerebral atrophy. e. have cavu m septu m pel l u cid u m .
f.
It is also known as d
_ _ _ _
6 1 .6.3
true true true true true { 1 3%, may be acq u i red condition) dementia pugil istica
P· ---
Neurosurgery Books
339
62 General Information, Neurologic Assessment, Whiplash and Sports-Related Injuries, Pediatric Spine Injuries
•
I ntroduction 1. a.
b.
•
Complete the following: What m u st you look for in a patient with a major spinal inj u ry? It occurs in %.
62.1
a second spinal inj u ry 20%
Terminology 2. a.
b.
Complete the following: I n spinal cord i nj u ry, a ny residual motor or sensory fu nction more than three seg ments below the level of inj u ry represents an lesion. Signs of this being the case include i. s __ _
ii.
v
___
m, ___
s
___
s, ___
c. Types of this lesion include these synd romes: i. c c -S ii. B iii. a c iv. p c
62.2.3
incomplete
sensation (include position sense) vol u nta ry movement in the lower extrem ities; sacra l sparing (Preserved sacra l reflexes alone do not q u a lify as incomplete inj u ry. Also req u i res preserved sensation around the a n us or vol u nta ry recta l sphincter contraction, or vol u nta ry toe flexion . ) centra l cord synd rome Brown-Seq u a rd synd rome anterior cord synd rome posterior cord synd rome
Neurologic Assessment, Whiplash, Sports-Related Injuries, Pediatrics 341 3. A complete spinal cord lesion a . is defined as n o or i. m ii. s fu nction iii. t levels below lesion. b. What percentage of patients with no fu nction on i n itia l exa m wil l develop some recovery with in 24 hou rs? c. A complete spinal cord inj u ry that persists for 72 hours ind icates what? 4.
a.
b. c.
Complete the following regarding spinal shock: hypotension: i. interru ption of s a ii. loss of v t iii. im plies inj u ry a bove which level? bradyca rd ia: u n opposed p activity relative hypovolemia: i. loss of
ii. res u lting in d . true hypovolemia: loss of e. neurogenic spinal shock is: i. tra nsient loss of ii. res u lting in iii. loss of •
reflex
62.2.3
motor sensory th ree 3% No dista l recovery wil l occur. 62.2.3
sym pathetic activity vascu lar tone Tl pa rasym pathetic muscle skeleta l tone below inj u ry venous pooling blood neurological fu nction flaccid para lysis, loss of reflexes bul bocavernosus
Whiplash-Associated Disorders 5.
What is the most common nonfatal automobile injury?
6.
Describe the five grades of whiplash associated disorders and clinical evaluation of each. G rade 0 i. clinica l ii. radiological studies iii. treatment G rade 1 i. clinica l ii. radiological stud ies iii. treatment
a.
b.
c.
G rade 2 i. clinica l ii. radiological stud ies iii. treatment
whiplash
6 2 .3 . 1
Ta ble 62 . 1 , Ta ble 6 2 . 2 , Ta ble 6 2 . 3 .
no com plaint none req uired none neck pain no x-rays optional col l a r/ rest (not more tha n 72 hours) red u ced ROM/ point tenderness flexion-extension x-rays optional col l a r/ rest (not more tha n 96 hours)
g
a
342
Part 1 5: Spine Trauma
d.
G rade 3 i. clinica l ii. radiological studies iii. treatment e. G rade 4 i. clinica l ii. radiological studies iii. treatment f. What percentage of whiplash inju ries recover with in 1 year?
•
neurological deficits CT/ M R treatment as SCI fractu re/d islocation CT/ M R treatment as SCI 76%
Ta ble 6 2 . 4
Pediatric Spine I njuries 7.
a.
b. c.
Complete the following about pediatric spine injuries: Due t o ligamentous laxity together with ligamentous i mmatu rity of paraspi nal m u scles and underdeveloped u n cinate processes, ped iatric spinal inj u ry tends to involve inju ries. I n the age g roup ::;; 9 yea rs, the cervica l spine is the most vu l nerable seg m ent. Of all cervical spine inj u ries in the u pper 3 pediatric popu lation, 67% occur in the seg ments of the cervica l spine.
8. Complete the following about pediatric spine injuries: a . "Pseudospread o f t h e atlas" is a phenomenon occu rri ng in children - but it cou l d be confused with what kind of fractu re? b. Normal tota l offset of the tota l overlap of 2 C1 latera l masses on C2 on AP open mouth view is i. m m at 1 yea r of age ii. m m at 2 yea rs of age iii. m m at 3 yea rs of age iv. and should never be more than mm __
__
__
9 . Answer the following about Jefferson fractures: a . True or Fa lse. jefferson fractu res a re common in pediatric cervica l spine inj u ry. b. They are more com mon d u ring the years.
62.4. 1
62.4.3
62.4.3
jefferson fractu re
2 4 6 8 62.4.3
fa lse teenage
Neurologic Assessment, Whiplash, Sports-Related Injuries, Pediatrics 343 •
Sports-Related Cervical Spine I nju ries Complete the following about football-related cervical spine injuries: a . sti nger i. involves ii. represents b. burning hands i. involves ii. represents c. neuropraxia i. involves ii. represents iii. m u st ru le out iv. by performing an
1 0.
1 1 . Complete the following: a. A football player who uses his helmet as a battering ra m is ca lled a b. What evidence may be present on his spine x-rays? i. loss of ii. evidence of i i i . presence of c. When may the ath lete resu me play? 1 2. True or False. Contact sports are permitted in a. Klippei-Feil with symptoms b. Klippei-Feil without symptoms c. spina bifida d. status post-a nterior cervical d iscectomy and fusion (ACDF) 1 level e. status post-ACDF 2 levels f. status post-ACDF 3 levels
•
62.7.2
one extremity compression of root bi latera l u pper extrem ities mild centra l cord synd rome a l l fou r extrem ities cervica l cord inj u ry cervical stensosis M RI 62.7.2
spea r tackler
lordosis prior tra u m a cervica l spinal stenosis when lordosis returns Ta ble 6 2 . 7
fa lse true true true fa lse fa lse
Neurologica l Assessment 1 3. a.
b. c.
Complete the following: Cervica l nerves exit their liken u m bered vertebra. Thoracic and l u m ba r nerves exit their like-n u m bered vertebra . For a segment of cord that lies under a g iven vertebra , T2 to T1 0 add
62.8 . 1
above below two cord levels
d . U n d e r T1 1 , T1 2 , L 1 lie the
lowest 1 1 spinal seg ments
e. The con u s lies at
Ll -2
g
a
344 1 4.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j. k. I. m. n. 0.
p. q. r. s. 1 5.
a.
b. c. d.
e.
Part 1 5: Spine Trauma Give the location of the key sensory landmarks. occi pita l protu bera nce supraclavicu l a r fossa shoulders latera l s i d e o f antecu bita l fossa th u m b middle finger little fi nger medial side of a ntecubital fossa nipples xyphoid u m bilicus inguinal ligament medial femoral condyle medial maleolus g reat toe latera l maleolus popliteal fossa in midline ischial tuberosity peria nal a rea Write out the American Spinal Injury Association (ASIA} motor scoring system-upper extremity-for the indicated root, muscle, and action to test. root C 5 or b i. m u scle: d a or ii. action: s e f root C6 e i. m u scle: w ii. action: e w root C7 i. m u scle: t e ii. action: e root C8 d i. muscle: f p ii. action: s h root Tl i. muscle: h i I ii. action: a f
Ta ble 62 . 1 1
C2 C3 C4 C5 C6 C7 C8 Tl T4 T6 Tl O T1 2 L3 L4 L5 51 52 53 54-5 Ta ble 62 . 1 0
deltoid or biceps shoulder abduction; el bow flexion wrist extension extend wrist triceps extend el bow flexor digitorum profundus squeeze hand hand intri nsics abduct little finger
Neurosurgery Books
Neurologic Assessment, Whiplash, Sports-Related Injuries, Pediatrics 345 Write out the American Spinal Injury Association {ASIA) motor scoring system-lower extremity-for the indicated root, muscle, and action to test. a . root L2 i. muscle: i ii. action: f h b. root L3 i. m u scle: q k ii. action: s c. root L4 i. muscle: t a f ii. action: d d. root L5 i. muscle: e h I ii. action: d g t e. root Sl i. muscle: g f ii. action: p f
1 6.
Name the main nerve root responsible for the following motor action: a. g reat toe extension b. a n kle dorsiflexion c. knee extension d. a n kle pla nta r flexion
Ta ble 62 . 1 0
i l iopsoas flex hip quadriceps straight knee tiba lis a nterior dorsiflexion extensor h a l l ucis longus dorsiflex g reat toe gastrocnemius pla nta r flex foot
1 7.
1 8.
a. b.
Complete the following regarding Beevor's sign: It tests the level of spinal cord inj u ry at about T It is performed by i. flexi ng the
ii.
Note that the cepha lad.
moves
Complete the following regarding the abdominal cutaneous reflex: a . What is it?
Ta ble 62 . 1 0
L5 L4 L3 Sl Ta ble 62 . 1 0
T9 neck - patient activates rectus abdom i n u s um bilicus
1 9.
Ta ble 62 . 1 0
b . T h e u p p e r quadrant is served by
Stroking q u a d ra nts of a bdomen causes abdominal m u scle contraction, u m bilicus deviation towa rds q u a d rant of sti m u l u s T8-9
c. The lower quadra nt is served by
Tl 0-1 2
d.
spinal cord
Its presence indicates ( a t least some) fu nction of the
g
346
Part 1 5: Spine Trauma
e. There is inj u ry f. beca use the reflex and then abdominal m u scles.
___ ___
___
____
spinal cord
no complete
to the to the
ascends to the cortex and descends
20. There is a sensory region that is not represented on the trunk. a . I t j u m ps from C to T b. These levels a re distributed exclusively e on the u
__ _
62.8.3
C4 to T2 u pper extrem ity
_ _ __
21 .
a. b.
c.
d.
e.
•
Give the motor and sensory descriptions for each class in the ASIA impairment scale as modified from the Frankel neurologic performance scale. class A Com p l ete cord inj u ry: no motor or sensory fu nction preserved class B I ncomplete cord inj u ry: sensory but no motor fu nction preserved below the neurological level (includes sacral seg ments 54-5) I ncomplete cord i nj u ry: motor class C fu nction preserved below the neurologic level (more than half of key m u scles below the neurologic level have a muscle strength g rade <3) class D I ncomplete cord inj u ry: motor fu nction preserved below the neurologic level (more than half of key m u scles below the neurologic level have a muscle strength g rade � 3) class E Norm a l : sensory and motor fu nction normal
Ta ble 62 . 1 3
Spinal Cord I njuries 22. True or False. Regarding central cord injuries. a . They usually resu lt from a hyperflexion inj u ry. b. Motor deficit is g reater in the a rms than legs. c. Hyperpath ia is u ncom monly seen.
d.
It's t h e most common type of incomplete spinal i nj u ry. e. The cord 's centermost reg ion is a watershed zone.
62.9.3
fa lse (hyperextension) true fa lse (hyperpathia is com mon) true true
Neurologic Assessment, Whiplash, Sports-Related Injuries, Pediatrics 347 f.
Somatotopic organ ization places fi bers to lower extrem ities more media l . g . BP m u st b e maintained a t a n MAP o f 85 to 90 for at least 1 week. h. Prompt su rgery for decompression is advised. 23. A 45-year-old alcoholic male trips and falls, briefly losing consciousness. He was unable to move for 1 5 minutes, but currently complains only of weakness of both hands. He has an abrasion of his forehead. Computed tomographic {CT) scan of his head was negative. X-ray of C-spine reveals only spondylosis. True or False. Regarding this lesion. a . I t h a s t h e best prog nosis o f a l l incomplete spinal cord inju ries. b. There may be sparing of sensation around the anus with a n intact vol u nta ry a n a l sphincter. c. I m m ed iate surgery is recommended even for patients without spinal insta bil ity. d . Urinary catheterization is recom mended for patients i n spinal shock. 24. Complete the following about surgical intervention in patients who have had a central spinal cord injury: a . Indications for surgical intervention a re i. spine ii. continued spinal cord com p ression or in a patient who fails to
b. What surgery should be done? 25. What is the prognosis in patients with central cord injury? a. % wi l l recover enough to a m b u l ate. b. Bowel and bladder function c. Upper extremities (do/don 't) recover wel l . d . Elderly patients (do/do n 't) recover wel l .
fa lse (more latera l) true fa lse 62.9.3
fa lse (Brown-Seq u a rd is the best) true fa lse true 62.9.3
insta bil ity improve; prog ressively worsens decompressive laminectomy + fusion 62.9.3
50% recover don't don't
g
348
Part 1 5: Spine Trauma
26. Answer the following about anterior cord syndrome: a . True or Fa lse. Motor findings a re those of fa lse (para plegia) hemiplegia below the lesion . b. True or Fa lse. There is loss of pain true sensation, with preservation of deep pressu re sensation. occlusion of a nterior spinal c. It may resu lt from a rtery d . Sensory pattern is termed "dissociated" because there is loss of i. spinal thalamic tract and preservation of dorsal col u m n s ii.
62.9.3
27. Answer the following about a BrownSequard syndrome: a . True or Fa lse. There is contra latera l pain loss beginning 1 to 2 levels a bove the lesion. b. True or Fa lse. Contra latera l position sense is preserved. c. Prognosis compared with all other incomplete cord lesions is
62.9.3
d . What % wi l l eventua l ly wa l k?
fa lse ( 1 -2 levels below lesion) true best of all incomplete cord inj u ries 90%
63 Management of Spinal Cord Injury
•
General I nformation 1. a.
Complete the following: The major causes of death in spinal cord inj u ry a re i. and b. Associated findings suggestive of spinal cord i nj u ry include i. breathing and ii.
•
63 . 1
aspiration and shock abdom i n a l priapism (a utonomic dysfu nction)
Ma nagement in the Field fa lse 2 . True or False. In caring for an injured athlete, prompt removal of the helmet is recommended. 3. a.
Complete the following: I n spinal cord i nj u ry with hypotension in the field, the agent of choice is
b. Avoid
63.2
dopamine phenylephrine noninotropic, possible reflex bradyca rd ia
_ __
4.
In evaluating spinal cord injury in the field, hypopnea may be related to three conditions: a. para lyzed i m b. para lyzed d c. depressed __ _
__ _
__ _
•
63.2
63.2
intercosta l m u scles diaphragm LOC
Ma nagement in the Hospita l 5. a.
Complete the following: True or Fa lse. Spinal cord inj u ry ca n cause loss of tem peratu re reg u l ation. b. This is ca l led p p c. a n d is caused by v __ _
__ _
63.3 . 1
true poikilothermy vasomotor para lysis
Neurosurgery Books
350
Part 1 5: Spine Trauma
Complete the following about initial management o f spinal cord injuries: a . True or Fa lse. Spinal cord inj u ry ca n cause electrolyte distu rbances b. due to what changes to blood pressure and vol u me? c. which cause an increase in what plasma hormone? d. which leads to what electrolyte changes?
6.
63.3 . 1
true hypotension & hypovolemia aldosterone hypokalemia
7.
Should methylprednisolone be given for the treatment of acute SCI?
no
63.3.3
8.
Should GM-1 ganglioside (sygen) be given for the treatment of acute SCI?
no
63.3.3
9. True or False. Methylprednisolone protocol has been shown to be useful for patients with a . ca uda equina synd rome b. g u n shot wounds to the spine c. children d. preg nant women
63.3.3
fa lse fa lse fa lse fa lse
1 0. True or False. Regarding deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in spinal cord injury (SCI ): a. Heparin 5000 U su bcutaneous (SQ) twice fa lse - better to titrate to a day is more effective than SQ heparin 1 . 5x PTI to titrate partial thromboplastin time (PTI) to 1 . 5 times norm a l . b . Pneu matic boots s h o u l d be u s e d i n itial ly. true Complete the following about spinal cord injury and deep vein thrombosis: % a . incidence: b. morta l ity: % c. What med ication ca n cause throm bocytopenia and osteoporosis?
11.
•
63.3 . 5
63.3 . 5
1 00% 9% heparin
Radiographic Eva luation and Initial C-Spine I m mobilization 1 2.
Matching. In assessing C-spine in these categories of trauma patient, perform the following tests: CD none needed ; (l) CT from occi put to T1 ; ® plain C -spine x-rays ; @ flexion extension ; ® MRI Category of tra u m a patient: (a-e) below a . alert, den ies neck pain b. alert, com plains of neck pain c. obtu nded or inebriated d. abnormal CT e. neurological deficit
63.4.3
CD (l) (l) ® (l) and ®
Management of Spinal Cord Injury 1 3. When do we do plain 3-view (-spine x-ray? a. If is not availa ble. b. Flexion extension views i. in an patient ii. who com plains of _ _ _ _
iii. and in whom is normal iv. and is not available. ___
1 4.
a. b. 1 5.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g.
63.4.3
CT awake neck pain CT M RI
Factors associated with increased risk of failing to recognize spinal injuries during radiographic evaluation include of level of consciousness decreased inj u ries mu ltiple
63.4.3
Radiographic signs of C-spine trauma include retropharyngeal space > mm retrotracheal space > m m in a d u lt or > mm i n pediatrics atla ntodenta l interva l (AD I ) > mm in a d u lt > mm in pediatrics In the neurologica l ly intact patient, mm may be subl uxation up to norm a l . T o prove i t is normal do
Ta ble 6 3 . 2
__ _
__ _
7mm 1 4 mm 22 m m 3mm 4mm 3.5 mm flexion-extension views
1 6. When should we order anteroposterior (AP) and lateral views of the thoracic and lumbosacral spine? back pain a. clinical sym ptoms? b. mechanism of inj u ry? high g rade: MVA, fa l l > 6 feet, LOC
63.4.3
1 7. a.
63.4.3
Complete the following: How ca n w e tel l a n o l d i nj u ry from a n acute one? and b. We should test between days. c. Test wi l l remain abnormal for
bone scan 2 and 2 1
___
__ _
1 8.
a. b. c. d.
During evaluation of occult cervical spine trauma, what are the contra indications for flexion-extension cervical spine x-rays? patient who is not im pairment patient who has subl uxation of mm or more neurologic deficit o f _ _ _ _
_ _ _ _
1 yea r 63.4.3
cooperative/awake cog n itive 3.5 a ny deg ree
351
352
Part 1 5: Spine Trauma
1 9. True or False. A normal flexiontrue extension of the cervical spine x-ray may demonstrate slight anterior subluxation distributed over all cervical levels with preservation of the normal contour lines. Complete the following: Lumbar puncture (for myleog ra m ) i s dangerous in complete spinal block and may cause deterioration in %. b. Avoid this with a or
20. a.
Indications for emergent myelogram or magnetic resonance imaging (M RI) in spinal cord injury includes neurologic deficit a . that is not b. after closed c. after surgery.
63.4.3
1 4% latera l cervica l punctu re or MRI
21 .
22. Complete the following about M RI in spine: a. It is appropriate when i. CT of spine is ii. patient has neurological b. It shou ld be done with in hours. c. Most usefu l seq uences a re and i. ii. •
63.4.3
63.4.3
explained red uction spinal 63.4.3
inconclusive deficits 48-72 T2 STI R
Traction / Red uction of Cervical Spine I njuries 23.
Contraindications to traction/reduction of cervical spine injuries include a. atla nta-occipita l disassociation or type I IA or I l l hangman 's b. types of axis fractu res ca l led fractu res c. a defect in the sku l l at pin site d . the patient is less than yea rs o f age. 3
63 . 5 . 1
__
24. Complete the following: a . After placing t h e patient in tongs we must obtain a b. and measure the d ista nce between the and the i . which s h o u l d be less t h a n m m in a d u lts ii. and less than mm in children.
63.5.2
latera l c-spine x-ray
___ _
____
basion; odontoid
__ _
_ _ _ _
___
1 2mm 1 Omm ( u n reliable < 1 3 yrs beca use of va riable ossification/fusion of odontoid tip)
Ta ble 64. 1
Management of Spinal Cord Injury 25. What is considered proper pin care? a . Clean with
_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
b. Apply c. This may red uce the incidence of ___
26. a.
Complete the following: Closed red u ction o f cervical dislocations may be associated with neurologic deterioration, and this may be d u e to a r c d If neurologic deterioration occurs after closed red uction what tests m ust you do im med iately?
63.5.2
half strength hyd rogen peroxide povidone-iod ine osteomyel itis 63.5.2
retropulsed cervica l disc
__ _
b.
•
M RI
Indications for Emergency Decompressive Surgery 27. Complete the following: a . True or Fa lse. Patient with recent onset of loss of fu nction due to spinal cord inj u ry should have a decompressive laminectomy. b. If su rgery is done, it is usually com bined with Contraindications to emergent operation for acute spinal cord injury include: a . complete for more than 24 hours without evidence of b. u nsta ble c. centra l
63.6. 1
fa lse (May worsen inj u ry.)
sta bil ization procedure
28.
--- ---
63.6. 1
spinal cord i nj u ry; spinal shock med ica lly cord synd rome (controversial)
353
a
64 Occipitoatlantoaxial lnjuries (Occiput to C2)
•
Atlanta-Occipital Dislocation Complete the following: Incidence in spinal inj u ry i s approxi mately %. b. Are they more common in pediatrics or in a d u lts? c. Mortal ity resu lts from
1. a.
64. 1 . 1
1%
__
d . They m a y demonstrate what type of para lysis?
pediatrics respi ratory a rrest (bulbar cervica l disassociation) cruciate
2.
Complete the following about the three types of atlanto-occipital dislocation: a . Type 1 : occiput in relation t o atlas i s dislocated b. Type I I : occiput in relation to atlas is dislocated c. Type I l l : occiput in relation to atlas is dislocated
3.
a.
Name the ligaments at the following sites: atlas t o occiput a i. a -0 m ii. p a -0 m iii. a (of c b I ) axis to occi put (via dens) i. t m ii. a I iii. a I atlas to axis i. t __
__
b.
c.
ii. a iii. d I
__
)
I b
(of c
__
64. 1 . 1
a nteriorly su periorly posteriorly 1 .8
anterior atla nta-occipital mem brane (ALL) posterior atla nta-occi pita l mem brane ascending band (cruciate ligament) tectorial mem brane a l a r ligaments a pical ligament tra nsverse liga ment (part of cruciate) alar liga ment descending band (cruciate ligament)
Neurosurgery Books
Occipitoatlantoaxial lnjuries (Occiput to C2) 4. Complete the following:
1 .8
a . What structu re is t h e cephalad extension of the i. a nterior longitudinal ligament? a nterior atla nta-occipita l mem brane ii. posterior longitudinal ligament? tectoria l mem brane b. Which structures a re most im porta nt in maintaining atla nta-occipita l sta bil ity? i. t m tectorial mem brane I ii. a a l a r ligaments Complete the following: N a m e t h e horizonta l component o f the cruciate ligament. b. What does it hold together? c. What is the strongest liga m ent in the spine?
5. a.
Complete the following: What is the best method by which to measure AOD? b. It is considered normal if each is less than mm. c . Another method is ca l l ed the
6. a.
d . Traction m a y b e used but patients deteriorate.
It is considered normal if below It is definitely a bnormal if above
8.
Power's ratio greater than diagnostic of atlanta-occipital dislocation.
% of
9. AOD is suspected if a . t h e atla nta-occipital interva l is g reater than m m and/or b. there is blood in the
64. 1 . 3
12 Powers' ratio
64. 1 .4
1 0%
64. 1 . 5
Power's ratio
64. 1 .4
posterior arch of the atlas
by dista nce from opisth ion to
b. c.
odontoid and atlas transverse liga ment
BAI-BDI
7. Complete the following: a. A measurement used in eva l uati ng atla nta-occipita l dislocation (AOD) is ca l led i. d ivide dista nce from basion to
ii.
1 .8
transverse liga ment
anterior arch of the atlas 0.9 1 is
Ta ble 64.2
Ta ble 64.2
2 mm
Ta ble 64. 1
basilar cistern
64. 1 . 3
355
a
356 •
Part 1 5: Spine Trauma
Occipital Condyle Fractu res 1 0. Complete the following: a . C a n they involve t h e hypog lossa l nerve? b. List the types. i. I is a fractu re. ii. II has a fractu re.
iii. I l l has an fractu re. c. Treatment is with d . What are the indications for h a l o o r fusion? e. I n cidence in tra u m a patients is %. __ _
yes
64. 2 . 1 Ta ble 64.4
com min uted (axial loading) linear (extension of basi lar sku l l fracture) avu lsion (traction) col lar craniocervica l misalign ment, occi put-Cl interva l > 2 m m 0.4%
64. 2 . 1
____
•
Atlantoaxial Subluxation/ Dislocation 1 1 . Answer the following about atlantoaxial dislocation: a. True or Fa lse. It has less morbid ity and morta l ity tha n atla nta-occipita l dislocation. b. Name and describe the three types. i. rotatory atla nto-axia l dislocation type I tra nsverse liga ment facet capsule treatment type I I tra nsverse liga ment facet capsule treatment type I l l tra nsverse liga ment facet capsule treatment ii. a nterior atla nto-axial dislocation f 0 c h d of t 1 2.
a.
b.
Complete the following regarding atlanto-axial rotatory subluxation: N a m e fou r causes. H i nt: stu r i. s ii. t iii. u
iv. r Com petence of the m ust be assessed.
true
64.3 . 1
rotatory, anterior, posterior
Ta ble 64.5
intact bilatera l inj u red soft col l a r inj u red unilatera l inj u ry fusion, halo inj u red bilatera l inj u ry fusion, halo odontoid fractu re congenita l hypoplasia disruption of transverse ligament 64.3 . 2
spontaneous tra u m a u pper respi ratory tract infection {Grisel synd rome) rheumatoid a rth ritis transverse liga ment
Occipitoatlantoaxial lnjuries (Occiput to C2) c. What is the cha racteristic head position?
d. e.
Patients a re usually It can occl ude the
arteries.
"cock robi n " (20 deg rees latera l tilt, 20 deg rees rotation opposite, slight flexion) you n g vertebra l
1 3.
Complete the following regarding the rule of Spence: a . I t is designed t o determ ine i f the tra nsverse liga ment b. If disru pted what effect does it have on treatment?
c. It is performed by studyi ng what view? d . T o assess what structu res? e. The critica l reference n u m ber is sum o f both sides.
•
mm
is disru pted req uires immobil ization (surg ica l , halo, or col l a r, based on type of disruption) open-mouthed AP latera l masses of C 1 -C2 overhang 7mm
Atlas (Cl ) Fractures 1 4. a. b. c. d.
Complete the following: isolated fractu re: % com bined with C2 fractu re: additional spine fractu re: combined with head inj u ry:
64.4 . 1
%
% %
1 5. True or False. Regarding a jefferson fracture: a . I t involves a single fractu re through the ring of C1 . b. It is genera l ly a sta ble fracture.
c. "Rule of Spence" assesses displacement. d. Treatment is genera l ly s u rgical (fusion).
•
64.3 . 3
56% 44% 9% 21% 64.4.3
fa lse (at least 2 fractu re sites) fa lse (But without neurologic deficit.) fa lse fa lse (usua l ly col l a r/halo)
Axis (C2) Fractures 1 6.
Complete the following about acute fractures of the axis: a . Represent % of cervical fractu res. %. b. N e u rologic deficit occurs in
64. 5 . 1
20% 1 0%
357
a
358
Part 1 5: Spine Trauma
1 7. Complete the following: a. True or Fa lse. Regarding hangman's fractu re: In contrast to jud icial hanging, i. modern-day hangman's fractu res result from hyperextension and distraction. ii. This is usually a sta ble fractu re. b. There is a common occu rrence of nonunion, hence the need for surgery. c. Hangman's fractu re resu lts in a fractu re . It is also known thro u gh the as
64. 5 . 3
fa lse - hyperflexion, axial load ing true fa lse (usually heal with col l a r) pars of C2; tra u m atic spondylolisthesis of the axis
Complete the following regarding hangman's fracture: a . Subl uxation o f C 2 on C 3 b y more than 3 ; disc m m indicates disruption . and usually insta bil ity; su rgery b. This is a marker for req u i res
1 8.
1 9. Classify hangman's fractures a . Type 1 : i. subl uxation: ii. a n g u lation: iii. treatment b. Type lA: i. subl uxation: ii. a n g u lation: iii. treatment c. Type II:
i. subl uxation: ii. a n g u lation: iii. treatment d . Type I IA: i. subl uxation: ii. a n g u lation: iii. treatment e. Type I l l : i. subl uxation: ii. a n g u lation: iii. treatment f. A special caution for Type I lA and I l l fractu res is to avoid the use of g. What is the name of the classification system? 20. a. b.
Most hangman's fracture patients present neurologica l ly and need MRI to assess d isc.
64. 5 . 3
Ta ble 64.7
vertical pars fractu res <3 m m 0 col lar nonparallel fractu res 2-3 m m 0 col lar vertica l fractu re through pars with disruption of C2/3 disc and PLL >3 m m sign ifica nt traction/halo vs surgery type II with oblique fractures >3 m m > 1 5 deg NO TRACTIO N . Halo. type I I + bilat C2-3 facets disru pted yes facets locked NO TRACTION. S u rgery traction Effendi 64. 5 . 3
i ntact C2-3
Occipitoatlantoaxial lnjuries (Occiput to C2) It can be treated with weeks. d. Average time to heal is c.
___
for
___
weeks
immobilization; 1 2 1 1 .5
21 .
Describe the radiologic criteria of good fusion. a . Across t h e fractu re site w e should see
tra becu lations
b.
movement
Flexion-extension radiographs should show no
64. 5 . 3
_ _ _
22.
Complete the following about odontoid fractures: a. Odontoid fractu res represent approxi mately % of a l l cervica l s p i n e fractures. b. Mechanism of inj u ry is usually %. c. They a re fata l in about d. Major deficits in type II is %. e. I n Type I l l it is to have neurologic deficit. f. A displacement mm i. of ii. resu lts in a nonu nion rate of %. iii. Therefore, the treatment advised is __
64. 5 . 4
1 0- 1 5%
__
__
__
flexion 2 5 -40% 1 0% rare 6mm 70%
___
23. True or False. Regarding odontoid fractures: a. They a re a hyperflexion inj u ry in most insta nces. b. Most patients have presenting neurolog ica l d eficit. c. N eck pain is infrequent. 24. Complete the following: a. Regarding odontoid fractu res: i. Type I is fractu re through the
64. 5 . 4
true fa lse fa lse Ta ble 64.9
__
Type I I is fractu re through the of iii. Type Ill is fractu re through the of b. True or Fa lse. The spinal cord occu pies 50% of the ca nal at C1 . c. True or Fa lse. The ossicu l u m term inale resu lts from posttra u matic fractu re of the a pica l dens. ii.
surgical
__
apical dens base of dens body of C2 fa lse ( 1 /3) fa lse - from nonunion
Neurosurgery Books
64. 5 . 4
359
a
Part 1 5: Spine Trauma
360
25. Complete the following: a. List indications for s u rgical treatment of Type II odontoid fractu res. i. displacement of dens more than mm ii. despite halo there is iii. despite immobilization there is
iv. patient is older than v. disruption of the b. True or False. Most odontoid type I l l fractures should be treated surgica l ly d u e to low u n ion rate by rigid externa l immobilization (halo). 26. The appearance of os odontoideum is a. a bone borders b. with odontoid peg . c. near a d . I t m a y fuse with the e. It may mimic a fractu re. 27.
a. b. c. d. e. f.
•
Complete the following about os odontoideum: Postu lated etiolog ies i. c ii. a Does treatment depend on the etiology? Myelopathy correlates with an AP ca n a l dia meter o f less than mm. Wi l l im mobilization result in fusion? Treatment i. p w ii. t s Do we need a halo with each of these procedu res?
64. 5 . 4
5mm insta bil ity nonunion 50 tra nsverse liga ment fa lse
-
90% heal
64. 5 . 4
sepa rate smooth short clivus type II odontoid 64. 5 . 4
congenita l avu lsion of a l a r liga ment no 1 3 mm no posterior wiring transarticu l a r screw Not with transarticu lar screws
Combination Cl -2 I njuries 28. Complete the following about combined C1 and C2 fractures: a . Treatment is d ecided based on type of fractu re. b. An odontoid fractu re type I I that is m m is displaced more than considered c. Treatment is
C2 5mm; u nsta ble posterior fusion
64. 6 . 2
Ta ble 64. 1 3
65 Subaxial (C3 throug h C7 ) Injuries I Fractures
•
Classification Systems 1.
a. b. c. d. 2.
a. b.
Matching. For the following conditions, choose the most appropriate mechanism producing the cervical fracture. Mechanism: CD hyperextension; 0 vertical compression ; ® hyperflexion; @ flexion plus rotation bu rst fractu re unilatera l locked facet bilatera l locked facet laminar fractu re Guidelines for determining clinical instability include: Com p rom ise o f t h e anterior elements prod uces more i nsta bil ity in Com p rom ise of the posterior elements prod uces more i nstabil ity in
3. Give radiographic criteria for clinical instability. a . a sag itta l p l a n e displacement of m m and b. relative sag itta l plane an gu lation of degrees(on neutra l position latera l C-spine fi lms)
•
Ta ble 65.3
0 @ ® CD 6 5 . 1 .4
extension flexion Ta ble 6 5 . 4
>3 . 5 m m >1 1
Clay Shoveler's Fracture 4.
Clay shoveler's fracture usually involves the spinous process of
C7
65.2
a
Part 1 5: Spine Trauma
362 •
Flexion I njuries of the Subaxial Cervica l Spine 5 . True or False. The following i s true of teardrop fractures: a . They usually result from i. hyperflexion inju ries ii. compression flexion inj u ry iii. hyperextension inj u ry b. They are sta ble fractu res. c. The fractu red vertebra is usually displaced posteriorly into the spinal ca n a l . d . They a re often associated with a fractu re through the sag itta l plane of the vertebral body. e. The patient is often quadripleg ic. f. A "tea rd rop" chip of bone is at the a nterior-su perior edge of the vertebral body. 6. Complete the following: a. A teardrop fractu re m u st be disti n g u ished from a n
i.
req u i res
is u nsta ble and
ii. is sta ble. How ca n we disti n g u ish them? A teardrop will have: i. size of fractu re ii. a l i g n ment iii. neurological iv. soft tissue v. fractu re vi . height of disc vii . height o f vertebral body c. If i n dou bt, perform views. in d. If negative, repeat _ days. e. The fractu red vertebra is displaced b.
___
f. True teardrop fractu res should be treated with c a and f p Quadrangular fractures have four features. a . Featu re 1 : a n fracture i. from ii. to b. Featu re 2: subl uxation of su perior vertebral body (VB) on the i nferior VB
65.4.3
true true fa lse fa lse true true true fa lse - anterior-inferior
65.4.3
avu lsion fracture Tea rd rop fracture; su rgery avu lsion fractu re small chip displaced deficits swelling through vertebra red u ced red uced/wedged flexion-extension flexion-extension; 4-7 days posteriorly combined anterior and posterior fusions.
7.
c.
Featu re 3 : with a n g u l a r
65.4.5
oblique anterior-su perior inferior end plate posteriorly kyphosis
Subaxial (C3 through C7) Injuries I Fractures d.
Featu re 4: disruption of i. ii. iii. e. Treat with
___ _ _ _ __ _
•
disc ALL PLL com bined anterior and posterior fusions.
Distraction Flexion I njuries 8. a.
Describe distraction flexion injuries. Flexion inju ries include
b. Which liga ment is inj u red ea rly? c. X-rays demonstrate this by showing d. We may need to test by perform ing If sym ptoms persist 1 to 2 weeks we should f. Lig amentous insta bil ity is confirmed if there is a m m or i. subl uxation of a n g u lation of ii. degrees.
e.
9. Describe locked (aka jumped) facets. a . Norm a l ly t h e inferior facet o f t h e level above is to the su perior facet of the level below. of the b. I n locked facets there is facet c. Flexion and rotation prod uces d.
Hyperflexion prod uces
stra i n , subl uxation, locked facets posterior ligamentous com plex widening of interspinous dista nce flexion-extension views or M RI repeat flexion-extension views
65.5.1
65.5.2
65.5.3
3.5 11 65.5.4
posterior d isru ption; ca psule unilatera l locked facets bilatera l locked facets
e.
N e u rological inj u ry is for cord freq uent and/or root i nj u ry. f. In patients with locked facets the inferior anterior facet of the level above is to the su perior facet of the level below.
1 0.
Describe evidence of locked facets on x-ray. a . I n u n i latera l locked facets t h e spinous process is rotated to the side of the
b. Facets look l i ke a c. I nterspinous space is d. N e u ra l fora men is e. Articu lar surfaces of the facets a re
65.5.4
locked facet bow tie widened blocked on the wrong side
363
Part 1 5: Spine Trauma
364
a
11.
a.
Complete the following regarding locked facets: When t h e a rticu lating s u rfaces o f the facets a re on the wrong side, this is sig n . " ca l led the " I n bilatera l locked facets tra u matic disc herniation is fou n d in %. Attem pt at closed red uction of locked facets by traction m u st not exceed l b per vertebral leve l . Disc space height m u st not exceed mm. If neurologic worsening occu rs, you and should suspect plan for u ntil M RI Closed red u ction is assesses for
65.5.4
na ked facet
___ ___
b. c.
80% 10
__
d. e. f.
1 2. Answer the following about locked facets: a . True or Fa lse. Sta bil ization is more l i kely to be successfu l in halo if there a re i. m u ltiple fractu res of the facets. ii. no fractu res of the facets. b. Halo alone is successfu l for good anatom ica l resu lt in %. c. Fa i l u re of good anatomical resu lt occu rs in %. d . True or Fa lse. Surgical fusion is therefore clea rly ind icated in cases without facet fractu re fragments. -
•
10 disc hernation; su rgery contraind icated ; disc hernation 65.5.4
true fa lse 23% 77% true
Extension I njuries of the Subaxia l Cervical Spine Complete the following about subaxial (C3 - C7) injuries/fractures: a . Extension inju ries c a n prod uce i. in a d u lts and in children. ii. b. The liga ment that is most often inj u red in extension inju ries is the c. Is disc inj u ry possible? d. What vascu l a r inj u ry can occu r?
1 3.
___ ___ ___
65.6. 1
centra l cord synd rome SCIWORA ALL
__ _
yes ca rotid a rtery dissection
Neurosurgery Books
Subaxial (C3 through C7) Injuries I Fractures •
Treatment of Su baxia l Cervical Spine Fractures 1 4. a.
Complete the following: When combined a nterior and posterior a nterior cervica l fusion is needed which should be done fi rst? b. When the mechanism of inj u ry is flexion posterior fusion what is the procedure of choice? c. When the mechanism of inj u ry is extension what is the proced u re of choice for i. tea rd rop fractu re com bined a nterior/posterior fusion ii. b u rst fractu re com bined a nterior/posterior fusion
65.7.3
Complete the following about cervical carpectomy: a . Decompression of the cord usually req u i res carpectomy that is at least ___ m m wide. b. It is advised to note position of .
65.7.3
1 5.
•
1 6m m vertebral a rteries
Spinal Cord I njury Without Radiogra phic Abnormality (SCIWORA) 1 6. True or False. Answer the following about SCIWORA {spinal cord injury without radiographic abnormality): a . There is a higher incidence in a g e ::; 9 years. b. There is a risk of SCIWORA among young children with asym ptomatic Chiari I. c. Dynamic flexion/extension films a re norm a l . d . 54% o f children have a delay between inj u ry and the onset of objective sensori m otor dysfu nction.
65.8 . 1
true true true true
365
-'-! �
66 Thoracic, Lumbar and Sacral Spine Fractures
•
Assessment and Management of Thoracolumba r Fractures 1.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j. k. I. m.
Matching. Match the following structures with the appropriate Denis column: CD a nterior; 0 middle; ® posterior a nterior half of disc posterior half of disc posterior a rch a nterior half o f vertebra l body posterior half of vertebra l body facet joi nts and ca psule a nterior a n u l u s fi brosus posterior a n u lus fi brosus interspinous ligament supraspinous liga ment a nterior longitudinal liga ment posterior longitudinal liga ment ligamentu m flavu m
2. True or False. The following are considered minor fractures of the lumbar spine: a . fractu re o f transverse process b. fractu re of spinous process c. fractu re of su perior a rticu l a r process d . fractu re o f i nferior a rticu l a r process e. fractu re of su perior end plate of vertebral body 3. True or False. Major injuries of the spine include: a . compression fracture b. b u rst fractu re c. seat belt fractu re d . fractu re o f a rticu l a r process e. fractu re dislocation
66 . 1 . 2
CD 0 ® CD 0 ® CD 0 ® ® CD 0 ® 66. 1 . 2
true true true true fa lse 66. 1 . 2
true true true fa lse true
Thoracic, Lumbar and Sacral Spine Fractures 4. True or False. Subtypes of burst fracture include the following: a. fractu re of both end plates b. fractu re of su perior end plate c. fractu re of inferior end plate d . fractu re o f pars i ntera rticu l a ris e. bu rst rotation 5. True or False. Regarding burst fracture. a . I t occurs mainly at thoraco l u m ba r j u n ction. b. Mecha nism-axial load c. Mechanism-flexion and compression d . I t is a consequence o f fractu re o f the a nterior and middle col u m n . e . T h e most common su btype is fractu re of the su perior end plate. 6. True or False. Radiographic evaluation of burst fracture might show the following: a. latera l x-ray-cortica l fractu re of posterior vertebral wa l l b . AP x-ray-i ncrease in interped icu l a r dista nce c. latera l x-ray-loss of posterior vertebral height d. CT-fractu re posterior wa l l with retropulsed bone e. myelogram-large centra l defect 7. True or False. Seat belt fracture has all of the following subtypes: a . cha nce fractu re, one-level throug h bone b. one-level throug h ligaments c. two-leve l , bone in middle col u m n , ligaments in a nterior and posterior col u m n s d . pedicle fractu re e. two-level thro u gh ligaments in a l l th ree col u m ns State which of the following are stable or unstable fractures of the spine: a . th ree or more consecutive compression fractu res b. a single compression fractu re with loss of > 50% of height with a n g u lation c. kyphotic a n g u lation > 40 degrees at one level or > 2 5% d . prog ressive kyphosis
367
66. 1 . 2
true true true fa lse true
B 66. 1 . 2
true true fa lse - usually p u re axial load true true 66. 1 . 2
true true true true true 66 . 1 . 2
true true true fa lse true
8.
66 . 1 . 2
u n sta ble u nsta ble u n sta ble u nsta ble
a
368
Part 1 5: Spine Trauma
9. State whether the following are stable or unstable fractures of the spine: a . middle col u m n fractu re above T 8 below sta ble Tl if ribs and stern u m intact b. middle col u m n fractu re below L4 if sta ble posterior col u m n is intact c. posterior col u m n fractu re sta ble acutely, as long as middle col u m n intact d . com pression fractu re in three u n sta ble consecutive seg ments 1 0. True or False. Regarding burst fractures. a . Surgical treatment is recommended if a n g u l a r deformity > 20 deg rees. b. Surgical treatment is recommended for patients with neurologic deficit. c. S u rgical treatment is recommended for a nterior body height red uction
Burst fractures are unstable if K-Kyphosis is more than 1-l nterpendicu l a r dista nce is P-Prog ressive occurs. H-Height of a nterior body is less % posteriorly. than status. e. D-Deficit in n
1 2. True or False. Regarding LS burst fractures. a . They a re very com mon. b. It is d ifficult for instru mentation to maintain align ment at this level. c. Patients wi l l lose - 1 5 deg rees of lordosis between L4 and 51 even with instru mentation. d. If treatment is nonsurgica l , a thoraco l u m ba r-sacra l orthosis (TLSO) brace is recommended for 4 to 6 months. e. If treatm ent is surgical a posterior approach with fusion and fixation L5-S l is recommended. f. If "ligamentotaxis" is expected, distraction should b e d o n e withi n hours.
66. 1 . 2
66. 1 . 2
true true true
true fa lse - posterior recommended 66 . 1 . 2
20% increased kyphosis 50% neurological
fa lse true
66 . 1 . 2
true true
true 48
66.2 . 1
Thoracic, Lumbar and Sacral Spine Fractures •
Surgica l Treatment 1 3.
a. b. c. d.
Complete the following about postspinal fusion wound infections: They a re usually d u e t o They may respond to a lone. Rarely may be necessa ry. Only occasionally m u st instru mentation be _ _ _ _ _
66.2 . 5
sta ph a u reus a ntibiotics debridement rem oved
_ _ _ _
•
Osteoporotic Spine Fractu res 1 4.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g.
Complete the following regarding demographics of osteoporotic spine fractures: True or False. There a re - 700,000 osteoporotic fractu res per yea r i n the Un ited States. True or Fa lse. Risk factors include weig ht. There is a risk with the use of which a nticonvu lsa nt? There is a risk with t h e u s e o f which a nticoa g u l a nt? There is a risk with consum ption of which beverage? There is a risk with the use of c There is a risk with t h e u s e o f which a ntiinflammatory d rug?
Complete the following regarding osteoporotic spine fractures: a . T h e most likely population i s
true true - weight < 58 kg phenytoin
66. 3 . 1
66.3.2
wa rfarin alcohol ciga rettes steroids
1 5.
b.
Ca n these fractu res occur in premenopausal women? c. The l ifeti me risk for women is %. d . T h e l ifeti me risk for m e n i s %. e. The best pred ictor of fractu res is test measured at the --
___
1 6. True or False. Regarding bone mineral density (BMD). a. It is not the correct pred ictor of bone fragil ity. b. It is measured by DEXA Scan at the proxim a l fem u r. c. The AP view of the l u m bosacra l spine underesti mates BMD. d . T h e T-score o f B M D compares t o normal s u bjects. e. The Z-score defines osteoporosis compared with subjects of the same age and sex.
elderly white and Asia n fema les yes 16 5 bone m i neral density; fem u r
66.3.1
66.3.3
66.3.3
fa lse true fa lse- overestimates true true
Neurosurgery Books
369
a
370
Part 1 5: Spine Trauma
1 7. True or False. Regarding sodium fluoride. a . 7 5 m g / d i ncreases b o n e mass. b. 7 5 mg/d decreases fractu re rate. c. 25 mg PO BID (slow fl u oride) increases the fragility of the bone. d. Fluoride increases the demand for Ca. e. If you use fl uoride a lso use Ca and vita min D. 1 8. True or False. The following drugs reduce bone resorption: a. estrogen b. ca lci u m c. vita min D d. ca lcitonin 1 9.
Calcitonin is derived from
20. How do the bisphosphonates work? a. They i n h i bit b. by destroyi ng 21 . True or False. The following are bisphosphonates that inhibit bone resorption: a. etid ronate (Did ronel) b. alendronate (Fosamax) c. rised ronate (Actonel) 22. True or False. Recommended treatment for osteoporotic vertebral body fracture: a . sufficient p a i n med ications b. bed rest for 3 to 4 weeks c. DVT prophylaxis is contraind icated. d. Sta rt physica l thera py in 7 to 1 0 days. e. l u m ba r brace for pain control and comfort 23. True or False. Regarding PVP. a. PVP sta nds for percuta neous vertebroplasty. b. It involves i njection of polymethyl methacrylate (PM MA) i nto com p ressed bone. c. Goals include prevention of prog ression of kyphosis. d. Goals include correction of kyphosis. e. Goals include shortened d u ration of pain. f. PMMA i njection is FDA approved for treatment of compression fractu res due to tumor, osteoporosis and tra u m a .
66.3.4
true fa lse true true true 66.3.4
true true true true sa lmon
66.3.4 66.3.4
bone resorption osteocl a sts 66.3.4
true true true 66.3.4
true fa lse (7 to 1 0 days on ly) fa lse true true 66.3.4
true true true fa lse true fa lse - not for tra u m a , PM MA may i n h i bit healing
Thoracic, Lumbar and Sacral Spine Fractures 24. True or False. Indications for PVP include the following: a. severe pain that interferes with activity b. painfu l osteoporotic compression fractu re with < 1 0% of height red uction c. fa i l u re to control pain with pain med ications d. prog ressive vertebral hema ngioma e. pedicle screw salvage 25. True or False. Vertebroplasty contraindications include a. coa g u lopathy b. chronic i nj u ry c. active infection d. b u rst fractu re Matching. Match the complications of PVP with the order in which they are more likely to occur. CD highest; 0 second highest; ® least Complications: (a-c) below a . vertebral hemangiomas b. pathologic fractu res c. osteoporotic compression fractu res
66.3.4
true fa lse
28. True or False. Post-PVP recommendations include the following: a. d ischarge home the same day
b. watch for chest pain c. watch for fever d . watch for neurologic deficit e. g radual mobil ization after 2 hours
B
true true true 66.3.4
true true true true - concern for PM MA leakage
26.
27. True or False. Complications of PVP include a. PMMA leak b. pedicle fractu re c. transverse process fractu re d. spinous process fractu re e. ri b fractu re
371
66.3.4
0 CD ® 66.3.4
true true true fa lse true 66.3.4
fa lse - usually admitted overnight true true true true
Part 1 5: Spine Trauma
372 •
Sacral Fractures 29. a.
Complete the following: Look for in patients who have fractu res % wil l also have i. beca use sacra l fractu res accompanied in % by neurologic d eficits. Sacral fractu res are divided into zones. i . I involves ii. I I involves iii. l l l involves T h e fractu res that involve neurologic deficits a re those involvi ng zones and Which fractu re c a n cause bowel a n d bladder inconti nence? Which fractu re can cause LS root inj u ry? _ _ _
___
b. c.
pelvic
66.4. 1
1 7% 20-60 3
Ta ble 6 6 . 6
ala only sacra l foramina neura l ca nal I I and I l l
66.4.3
___
_ _ _ _ _ _ __
_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
_ ___ _ _
d.
__
e. f.
Ill
67 Penetrating Spine Injuries and long Term Management I Complications
•
Gunshot Wounds to the Spine 1 . True or False. Indications for surgery in gunshot wounds to the spine include the following: a. inj u ry to ca uda equina if root compression is demonstrated b. to remove copper-jacketed bullets from the spine c. CSF leak d . compression o f nerve root e. vascu lar inj u ry f. to i mp rove spinal cord fu nction g. spinal insta bil ity
•
67 . 1 . 2
true true - cause local reaction true true true fa lse true
Penetrating Tra u ma to the Neck 2. True or False. Regarding vascular injuries of the neck: a . Venous inju ries occur in "" 30% of penetrating neck tra u m a . b. Arterial inju ries occur in "" 1 2% of penetrating neck tra u m a . c . 72% o f vertebra l artery inju ries had no neurological deficits on exa m . d . Common ca rotid a rtery inj u ry is t h e most common vascu l a r inj u ry. 3.
a. b. c. d. e.
Matching. Penetrating wounds of the neck are divided into three zones by anatomical boundaries. Zone: CD zone I ; 0 zone I I ; ® zone I l l Anatom ical boundaries: (a-e) below clavicle angle of mandible head of clavicle thoracic outlet base of sku l l
67.2.2
fa lse - 1 8% true true true 67.2.3
0 0-® CD CD ®
374
Part 1 5: Spine Trauma
4. True or False. Treatment of penetrating trauma to the neck includes the following: a . immediate prophylactic i ntu bation to protect a i rway b. cricothyroidotomy if apparent mechanical instability of the neck c. S u rgical exploration is recommended for all wou nds piercing the platysma and enteri ng the a nterior triangle of the neck. d . Patients in coma a re poor ca ndidates for surgical vascu l a r reconstruction.
a
Complete the following regarding vertebral artery (VA) trauma: a. It is more com mon to treat by than by di rect repair. i. What m u st you know a bout other vessels before you decide on treatment of VA inj u ry? ii. Which vessels? b. What minimally invasive treatment is availa ble? c. Is a rterial bypass ever indicated?
67.2.5
fa lse true true
true - high morta lity
5.
•
67.2.5
ligation patency contra latera l VA, PICA covered stent placement no
Delayed Cervical Instability 6.
Delayed cervical instability is defined as instability identified after days.
20
67.3 . 1
_
•
Chronic Ma nagement Issues with Spinal Cord I njuries 7. True or False. Syndromes associated with spinal cord injuries include all of the following: a . a utonomic hyporeflexia b. DVT c. syringomyelia d. spasticity e. osteoporosis f. shoulder-hand synd rome True or False. In autonomic hyperreflexia the following is found: a. exaggerated a utonomic response to sti m u l i b . only in patients with lesion above T6 c. complaints of headache, fl ushing, and diaphoresis d. extreme hypertension e. epinephrine is released ca using this synd rome
67 . 5 . 1
fa lse - hyperreflexia true true true true true
8.
67.5.3
true true true true fa lse - norepinephrine
Neurosurgery Books
Penetrating Spine Injuries and Long Term Management f Complications 375 9. True or False. Regarding autonomic a. b. c. d. e.
hyperreflexia in SCI. It occu rs only in patients with SCI below T6. Patients complain of pou nding headache. It ca n be life threatening. I t occurs i n "' 3 0 % o f q u a d riplegic patients. There is a lag time of 3 to 4 months.
1 0. True or False. Regarding autonomic dysreflexia in SCI. a. It often occu rs in the first 3 to 4 months after SCI. b. Bladder distension may cause onset. c. Colorecta l distension may cause onset. d . DVT may cause onset. 1 1 . True or False. Presentation of autonomic hyperreflexia in SCI includes a . pa roxysm a l hypertension b. anxiety c. m iosis d. penile erection e. Horner's synd rome Complete the following about autonomic hyperreflexia: a . What is t h e triad o f presenti ng symptoms? i. h ii. s iii. facia l f b. It cou l d be confused with
67.5.3
fa lse - above T6 true true true
g
true 67.5.3
fa lse - occu rs after fi rst 3-4 mos. true true true 67.5.3
true true fa lse - myd riasis true true
1 2.
67.5.3
headache sweati ng facial fl ushing pheoch romocytoma
68 Low Back Pain and Radiculopathy
•
General I nformation Complete the following about low back pain and radiculopathy: a . True or Fa lse. Bed rest beyond 4 days i s more helpfu l t h a n ha rmfu l for patients with low back pai n . b . True or False. 60% o f patients with low back pain wi l l i mprove clinica l ly with in 1 month even without treatment. 1.
c.
Pure radicu l a r sym ptoms wil l include u pper motor neuron (UMN) signs or lower motor neuron ( L M N ) signs?
2. True or False. The percentage of low risk back pain patients who will improve without treatment in 1 month's time is a . 1 0% b. 20% c. 90%
d.
•
0%
68. 1
fa lse (Bed rest beyond 4 days may be more ha rmfu l than helpfu l . ) fa lse (89-90% wi l l im prove with in 1 month without treatment, including patients with sciatica from disc herniation.) LMN signs ( Rad icu lopathy wil l { may show associated decreased reflexes, wea kness, and atrophy.) 68.1
fa lse fa lse true (Most low back patients wil l resolve and no specific diag nosis ca n be made in 85% despite aggressive worku p.) fa lse
I ntervertebral Disc 3. The nucleus pulposus is a remnant of the embryonic ___ _
notocord
68.2.2
Low Back Pain and Radiculopathy •
Nomenclatu re for Disc Pathology 4. True or False. The following may be considered a non-pathological condition: a. degenerated disc b. a n n u l a r fissure c. bulging disc generalized > 50%
d. foca l herniation e. protruding disc 5. True or False. Gas in the disc usually is a sign of a . disc infection b. disc degeneration c. AKA v d __
68.3
fa lse fa lse true {Bulging disc is a circu mferential sym metrica l extension of the disc beyond the end plates. I n cidence increases with age.) fa lse fa lse
7.
a. b. c.
fa lse true vacu u m disc
-- --
Ta ble 68. 1
Ta ble 68. 1
extruded conti n u ity; orig in free frag ment
Vertebra l Body Ma rrow Changes 8.
a.
Provide the Modic's classification of vertebral body marrow changes: Type l : Tl WI _, T2WI _
b. Type 2 : T1 WI
__
, T2WI
__
Type 3 : Tl WI
__
, T2WI
__
c.
•
Give the definition of a sequestered disc. disc loss of with its disc of a lso known as a
g Ta ble 68. 1
sequ estered 6. An extruded disc where the free fragment is contained by the posterior longitudinal ligament is called a disc.
•
377
Ta ble 6 8 . 2
t i (bone ma rrow edema associated with acute or su bacute infl a m mation) i i (chronic change- bone ma rrow replaced by fat) t i (chronic- reactive osteosclerosis)
Disa bility, Pain and Outcome Determinations 9. Oswestry disability index a . Is a scale used for b. A score of % is essenti ally tota l ly disabled. c. A fu nctional score is below %. _ _ _ _
__
__
Ta ble 6 8 . 3
back pain 45% 20%
a
378 •
Part 1 6: Spine and Spinal Cord
Initial Assessment of the Patient with Back Pain 1 0. True or False. Cauda equina syndrome may include the following: a . bladder dysfu nction (incontinence o r retention) b. Fa ber sign or Patrick-Fa ber sign (flexion abduction external rotation)
c. saddle a nesthesia d . unilatera l / bi latera l l e g wea kness or pain e. feca l incontinence 11.
a. b. c. d. e. f. 1 2.
Name the associated nerve root for each of the following: g reat toe strength dorsal foot sensation latera l foot sensation medial foot sensation pla nta r foot sensation achil les reflex For patients with low back pain, red flags for a serious underlying pathology would include signs consistent with what conditions? ( H int: CI5C)
a. c b. I c. 5 d. c
---
1 3.
a. b.
---
Signs of cauda equina syndrome include
c. d. e. 1 4.
68.8.2
true fa lse (Positive i n hip joint d isease and does not exacerbate true nerve root com p ression.) true true true 68.8.3
L5 and some L4 L5 51 L4 51 51 68.8.4
ca uda equina synd rome infection spinal fractu re cancer Ta ble 6 8 . 5
saddle a nesthesia bladder overflow incontinence or retention feca l incontinence or loss of a n a l sphincter tone leg pain ( u n i lateral/bilatera l ) leg weakness ( unilatera lf bilatera I)
Electromyography ( EMG) is not helpful 3 to 4 (resu lts are va riable to evaluate for myelopathy, before this time) myopathy, or nerve root dysfunction unless the symptoms have been present for at least weeks. _ - _
68.8.5
Low Back Pain and Radiculopathy •
379
Radiogra phic Eva luation 1 5. True or False. Regarding plain lumbosacral spine x-rays. a . Are recommended for routi ne eva luation of back pain. b. When indicated , AP and Latera l views a re usually adeq uate. c. Unexpected findings occur frequently. d. Gonadal radiation is insignifica nt. e. Appropriate in patients who have "red flags." 1 6. True or False. Red flags include a . patients u n d e r age 20 b. patients over age 50 c. d rug users d . dia betics e. post-op u ri n ary tract patients f. persistent pain for more than 1 week 1 7.
a.
b.
c.
Complete the following about low back pain and radiculopathy: Signs on M RI that ind icate disc degeneration include i. increase or decrease of sig nal intensity on T2-weig hted imaging (T2WI}? ii. increase or decrease of disc heig ht? Signs on com puted tomography (CT} that ind icate d isc hern iation include i. increase or decrease of the normal epid u ra l fat ii. of the theca l sac CT wi l l show loss of (concavity/convexity) of the theca l sac?
68.9.2
fa lse true fa lse fa lse true 68.9.2
true fa lse (> 70} true true true fa lse (>4 weeks) 68.9.3
decrease decrease decrease indentation convexity
1 8.
Other useful tests include the following: a . Myelogra m-CT: Identifies contribution to cause of pressu re by . b. I n terms of discog ra phy i. reliabil ity? ii. interpretation? iii. fa lse positives? iv. May help in cases of m u lti ple discs when?
68.9.4
68.9.5
bone
___
controversial equ ivoca l high one prod uces pain
Neurosurgery Books
g
380 •
Part 1 6: Spine and Spinal Cord
Psychosocial Factors 1 9.
a. b.
List five signs of psychosocial distress in back pain, remembering that inappropriate response to any three suggests psychological distress is present. (Hint: PIAMP) p* I*
c. A * d. M e.
•
p
68 . 1 3
physical exa m over reaction inconsistent performance (straight leg test changes from sitting to standing, etc.) axial loading prod uces pain motor/sensory exa m inconsistent with anatomy pain on superficia l pal pation
Treatment a. b.
Clear indications for urgent lumbar surgery include c e p n d
c.
p
20.
__
__
__
__
__
__
w
__
21 . True or False. The following conservative therapy treatments have proven beneficial for patients with back pain: a. epid u ra l steroids b. tra nscuta neous electrica l nerve sti m u lation (TENS) c. traction d . oral steroids e. spinal manipu lation f. m u scle relaxants
6 8 . 1 4. 1
ca uda equina synd rome prog ressive neurological deficit profound wea kness (motor) 68.1 4.2
fa lse fa lse fa lse fa lse fa lse fa lse
22.
Is there a risk to the use of Parafon Forte? If so, what is the risk?
yes; fatal hepatotoxicity
23.
Is lumbar fusion for LBP without stenosis or spondylolisthesis ever recommended?
yes, for patients with LBP d u e t o 1 or 2 level DDD for <: 2 yea rs who fa iled med ica l therapy, with d isease at L4- L5 a nd/or LS-5 1
24. When is lumbar spinal fusion indicated according to current practice guidelines? a. fractu re/dislocation b. insta bility d u e to tumor or infection c. following disc excision for HLD or 1 st time recu rrence
68.1 4.2
6 8 . 1 4.3
6 8 . 1 4.3
yes yes no
Low Back Pain and Radiculopathy d. e.
as potential adjunct to discectomy in HLD with preoperative deform ity or insta bility Pai n associated with Modic type 1 changes? Modic type 2 or 3?
25. True or False. Standard discectomy and microdiscectomy are of similar efficacy.
•
___
___
___
true
Ta ble 6 8 . 6
Ta ble 6 8 . 7
50% 20% < 5%
Coccydynia 27. True or False. Coccydynia is related to the following: a . Is worse when standing.
b. c. d.
•
yes; no
Chronic Low Back Pain 26. The patient's chances of returning to work if off for % a . 6 months is % b. 1 yea r is c. 2 yea rs is %
•
yes
Is most common in fema les. Differential involves loca l tra u m a , neoplasms, and prostatitis. Needs nuclear bone sca n for workup.
fa lse (worse when sitti ng or rising from sitti ng) true true fa lse (CT for bony pathology, and M RI for detecting soft tissue masses)
68 . 1 6. 1
68. 1 6. 2
68. 1 6.3
Failed Back Surgery Synd rome 28.
Failure rate for lumbar discectomy to provide long-term pain relief is %
8-25%
68 . 1 7 . 1
_
_
29.
a.
Common etiologies of failed back surgery syndrome include but are not limited to: incorrect i n itial diagnosis
b.
contin ued nerve root compression
68. 1 7 . 2
true (clinical findings not correlating with imaging abnormality, imaging consistent but actua l ly sym ptomatic from other diag nosis (e.g. trocha nteric b u rsitis, dia betic a myotrophy, etc.)) true (resid ual compression, recu rrent pathology, adjacent pathology, perid u ra l scar, epid u ra l hematoma, etc.)
381
a
382
Part 1 6: Spine and Spinal Cord fa lse (associated with permanent inj u ry from orig inal com pression)
c. tempora ry nerve root i nj u ry
30.
Discitis usually produces back pain weeks post-op.
_
2-4
68. 1 7 . 2
_
31 . Arachnoiditis: a. Also known as a rachnoid itis. b. Inflamm atory fibrosis of which meningeal layers? c. I ncreased risk associated with which of the fol lowi n g: i. spinal anesthesia ii. spinal meningitis iii. a utoi m m u n e diseases iv. tra u m a M RI findings in arachnoiditis typically are in 3 patterns: a. c a sepa rating nerve roots into 1 or 2 chords t s : o n ly CSF signal b. e visible intratheca l ly
68. 1 7 . 3
adhesive pia, a rach noid, d u ra
true true fa lse true
32.
__
__
__
__
__
c. thecal sac fi lled with i
t
% of 33. At 6-month follow up, patients will have extensive peridural scar, but % of the time, these are asymptomatic. _
68. 1 7 . 3
Centra l ad hesion Em pty thecal sac- roots ad here to meninges around periphery infl a m matory tissue; no CSF sig n a l , ca ndle-dripping appearance 43%; 84%
68. 1 7.4
_
Peridural scar is best evaluated by what imaging modality? a . True or Fa lse. Unenhanced M RI shows scar that becomes more enhanced from Tl WI to T2WI. b. True or Fa lse. Enhanced MRI shows enha ncement of scar.
34.
M RI with and without IV gadolinium fa lse (Becomes less i ntense whereas HLD becomes more intense with this tra nsition . ) true (Enha nces inhomogeneously, whereas disc does not enha nce at a l l . )
68. 1 7.4
69 Lumbar and Thoracic Intervertebral Disk Herniation J Radiculopathy
•
g
Lumba r Disc Herniation and Lum ba r Radicu lopathy 1.
Radiculopathy typically presents with
pain a nd/or subjective sensory changes ( n u m bness, ti ngling) in nerve root dermatome
2. True or False. Radiculopathy causes hyperreflexia.
fa lse (sometimes accom panied by wea kness and decreased reflex cha nges)
3. Typical disc herniation compresses the nerve exiting the neural foramen at the level
below
69 . 1 . 1
69 . 1 . 1
69. 1 . 1
---
4.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j.
True or False. Surgical indications include ca uda equine synd rome n u m bness of foot prog ressive sym ptoms abnorma l M RI neurologic deficits abnorm a l discogra m failed conservative treatment pain when coughing severe radicu lar pain for 2 weeks severe back pain
5. Why do disc herniations tend to occur slightly off midline posteriorly to one side within the central canal?
69. 1 . 1
true fa lse true fa lse true fa lse true fa lse fa lse (6 weeks) fa lse Posterior longitudinal ligament is strongest in midline, and posterolatera l a n n u l u s bea rs disproportionate load from a bove.
69 . 1 . 3
384 6.
a. b.
Part 1 6: Spine and Spinal Cord Complete the following regarding lumbar disc herniation: Occu rrence of voiding dysfu nction in l u m ba r disc herniation varies from to _%. Concerning bladder sym ptoms, what is the sequence of events from the earliest fi ndings? i. d __ b__ s__ ii. u __ u __ iii. i__ f__
iv. e__ and i__ c.
Urinary retention with overflow incontinence is suggestive of what diag nosis?
7. What is the most sensitive sign of herniated lumbar disc? 8.
a. b. c. d. e.
Regarding the significance of a positive crossed straight-leg raising sign. Specificity for nerve root compression of _%. It suggests a more ___ H N P. It may correlate with a disc fragment with in the of the contra latera l root. Laseg ue specificity for root compression is _% For crossed Laseg ue, the percentage increases to _%
9. a. b.
Describe a positive lasegue's sign: patient positioned ra ise leg by the a n kle u ntil
c. d.
pain occu rs below _ degrees positive in _% hern iated n ucleus p u l posus ( H N P)
1 0.
a. b. c. d.
__ _
_ _ _ _ _
69 . 1 . 5
1 to 1 8%
decreased bladder sensation urinary u rgency increased frequency (due to increased postvoid residual) e n u resis ( bed wetti ng) and incontinence are ra re ca uda equina compression
Laseg ue's sign
69 . 1 . 6
90%
Ta ble 69. 1
centra l axilla
69 . 1 . 6
83% 90% 69 . 1 . 6
supine pain el icited , specifica l ly in leg (paresthesias or pain). Back pain alone is negative SLR. 60 83% (most likely to be positive in patients under 30)
Describe the following techniques to elicit indications of nerve root tension: Laseg ue's sign straight leg ra ising by a n kle Cra m test extend knee with leg a l ready ra ised crossed SLR (centra l disc). Fajersztaj n's sign 97% HNP had this be positive Femoral stretch test prone, knee maxi m a l ly flexed = L2 , L3 , L4 root lesions
Neurosurgery Books
69 . 1 . 6
Lumbar and Thoracic Intervertebral Disk Herniation I Radiculopathy e.
Bowstring sign
flex knee after SLR: Hip pain persists but sciatic pain ceases sitting SLR
f. Sitti ng knee extension 11. a. b.
Describe the FABER test also known as performed by
c.
positive sign indicative of
69 . 1 . 6
_ _ _
_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
_ _ _ _ _ _
Patrick's test flexion abduction, externa l rotatio n ; latera l m a l leolus on contra latera l knee, with downwa rd pressu re on flexed knee hip pathology
1 2.
Complete the following regarding the Trendelenburg sign: a . T h e affected h i p when the patient is wa lking, b. which ind icates the contra latera l thigh adductors a re c. This causes the contra latera l pelvis to ___
d. which is ca used by a lesion of the root.
_ _ _
Complete the following about crossed adductors sign: a . Crossed adductors sign is positive when knee jerk is elicited and the contra latera l thigh . b. If knee jerk is i. hyperactive, it suggests
69 . 1 . 6
dips wea k tilt L5 (Affected hip dips when wa l king to ind icate wea kness of contra latera l thigh adductors, or while standing on leg with wea k adductors causes pelvis to tilt contra latera l to wea kness.)
1 3.
69 . 1 . 6
adductors contract
__ __
__
ii.
U M N lesion pathological spread d u e to nerve root i rritation
hypoactive, it suggests
1 4.
Complete the following about Hoover's sign: a . I t is a test t o learn i f patient's leg weakness is b. Exa m iner places hand under patient's normal c. When asked to lift the wea k leg, lack of effort to move the leg is ind ication that wea kness is fu nctional. ___
1 5.
a. b. c.
_
_
_
_
_
fu nctional (vs. orga nic) heel norm a l ; down
___
For the listed lumbar disc level, what is the frequency of herniated disc syndrome? % L5-S 1 : L4-5 : % L3-4: % _
69 . 1 . 6
Ta ble 69.3
45-50% 40-45% 3 - 1 0%
385
a
Part 1 6: Spine and Spinal Cord
386 1 6.
Name physical findings associated with a l5-S1 disc herniation and where pain radiates. a . Reflex: a bsent a achil les reflex r gastrocnemius (pla nta r weakness b. Motor: flexion) m c. Sensory: decreased at I latera l m a l leolus and latera l and I f foot d . Pai n : posterior aspect o f calf and a n kle and ___
___
__
__
__
__
__
__
a.
Name three indicators for emergency lumbar surgery. (hint: ces, pmd, ip) ces
b.
pmd
c.
ip
1 7.
1 8.
a.
list potential findings for cauda equina syndrome. ( H int: ca uda-s) c
b. A c. u d. D e. A f.
Ta ble 69.3
s
1 9. True or False. The following is classically recognized as a cause of the cauda equina syndrome: a . tumor b. epid u ra l spinal hematoma c. free fat g raft followi ng discectomy d . tra u m a/fractu re e. l u m ba r stenosis
20. True or False. I n cauda equina syndrome, surgery should be performed a . stat b. with in 24 hours c. with in 48 hours d . with in 72 hours e. within a week
69 . 1 .9
ca uda equina synd rome ( u rin a ry retention and/or overflow incontinence, saddle a nesthesia} prog ressive motor deficit (i.e. foot d rop) intolera ble pain ( u rgent) 69 . 1 .9
Can't fu nction sexu a l ly (sexual dysfu nction) Ankle jerk a bsent Urinary retention/incontinence (most consistent finding) Diminished sphincter tone Anesthesia of saddle a rea (most common sensory deficit) Strength decreased 69 . 1 . 9
true true true true fa lse (more chronic process/ wou l d not classica l ly g ive an acute/subacute presentation of CES} 69 . 1 . 9
fa lse fa lse true fa lse fa lse
Lumbar and Thoracic Intervertebral Disk Herniation I Radiculopathy 21 . True or False. Comparing microdiscectomy to standard discectomy for lumbar disc herniation, which of the following are true? a. shorter incision b. shorter hospital stay c. less blood loss d. better efficacy
e. 22.
may be more difficult to retrieve l a rge fragments Success rate at 1 year for surgical discectomy is %.
69 . 1 . 9
true true true fa lse ( Efficacy has been shown to be equ iva lent between the two tech niques.) true 85%
69 . 1 . 9
fa lse
69 . 1 . 9
_
23. True or False. lntradiscal procedures such as chemonucleolysis are used more than discectomy. 24.
a. b.
Complete the following about intradiscal procedures: What percentage of l u m ba r disc patients considered for su rgery cou l d be ca ndidates for intrad iscal proced u res? What is the success rate of intrad iscal procedures (pain free and retu rn to work)?
25. True or False. Following discectomy: a . Epidural steroids prior t o clos u re have no benefit. b. Systemic steroids and bu pivacaine may red uce hospital stay and postop na rcotic req u i rements. 26. True or False. Regarding epidural free fat graft. a . I t c a n cause nerve root compression. b. It is believed to red uce epid u ra l sca r formation. c. Some believe it may increase epid u ra l scar. d . I t increases the incidence of postoperative infection. e. It may cause ca uda equina synd rome. 27. Characterize complications of lumbar disc surgery. a. Morta l ity: _% b. S u perficia l infection : _ - _% with organism c. Deep infection: _%
69 . 1 . 9
1 0- 1 5% 37-75%
69 . 1 . 9
true true
69 . 1 . 9
true m ixed (opinions va ry) true fa lse true but rare 69 . 1 . 9
0.06% ( 1 / 1 800 patients) 0.9-1 %, S. au reus
___
d. e.
Discitis: % Motor deficit: _ _%
< 1 % (d iscitis, spinal epid u ra l a bscess) 0.5% 1 -8% (some tra nsient)
387
388 f. g. h. i. j.
Part 1 6: Spine and Spinal Cord 0.3- 1 3% 1 8% 1 / 1 000 patients 0.7-2% 4% (with 1 0 year fol low-up)
Du rotomy: _ - _% Du rotomy after redo: _% S u rgical repair: _ Pseudomeni ngocele: _ - _% Recurrent disc: _%
28.
Complete the following about durotomy: a . What is t h e incidence o f incidental d u rotomy i n l u m ba r l a m i nectomy? b. Give fou r possi ble compl ications related to incidental d u rotomies. i. (. _ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ ____
ii. p iii. h iv.
_ _
__ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __
29. What is the incidence of recurrent herniated lumbar disc? a . s a m e level either side in first 1 0 yea rs _% b. any level over 1 0 yea rs c. fi rst yea r same level either side _% d . a n y different incidence depending o n level e. same level recu rrence _% f. different level recu rrence _% 30.
a. b. c. d.
Complete the following regarding the anterior longitudinal ligament: Asym ptomatic perforations occur in _% of d iscectom ies. Depth of disc space is _. Vascu lar inj u ry prod uces bleeding into operative field only _% of the time. G reat vessel inj u ry morta l ity is _%.
Enumerate five complications related to positioning for lumbar discectomies. H i nt: tecup a . t.
69 . 1 .9
0.3- 1 3% (increases to 1 8% on redos) CSF fistu la-req u i ring repa ir in 1 0/ 1 0,000 patients pseudomeningocele 0.7-2% herniation of nerve roots increased epid u ra l bleeding 69 . 1 .9
-4% 3 - 1 9% 1 . 5% 2x more common at L4-5 74% 26% 69 . 1 . 9
1 2% 3 . 3 em 50% 37-67%
31 .
______ _
b. c. d. e.
e
_
_ _
c._______
u p
______ _ __ __ __ _
69 . 1 . 9
tibia lis anterior compartment synd rome eyes pressure cervica l spine i nj u ry u l n a r nerve compression peroneal nerve com p ression
Lumbar a n d Thoracic Intervertebral Disk Herniation I Radiculopathy 32. True or False. Regarding unintended durotomy. a . Normal a m b u lation is not considered a cause for fai l u re of d u ra l repair. b . Risk of a cerebrospinal fl uid (CSF) leak is increased in i. revision surgery ii. rem ova l of ossification of the posterior longitudinal liga ment (OPLL) iii. hig h-speed drills c. It is not considered an act of malpractice. d . The use of fibrin g l u e to close is adva ntageous. e . It can be d u e to thinned d u ra by longstanding stenosis. Enumerate four signs of postoperative cauda equina syndrome (i.e., from epidural hematoma). H i nt: pain a. p b. a c. i d. n
69 . 1 . 9
true
true true true true true true
33.
34. True or False. Regarding the outcome of surgical treatment of lumbar herniated disc. a . 5% wil l be classified as having fa iled back synd rome. b . At 1 yea r the surgical g roup had a better outcome than with conservative treatment. c . The benefit persisted at 1 0 years.
d . 6 3 % had com plete relief o f back pain at 1 yea r post-op. e . At 5- to 1 0-year fol low- u p 86% felt i mp roved.
389
69 . 1 . 9
pain out of the ordinary a nesthesia of saddle a rea inability to void nu merous muscle g roups wea k 69 . 1 . 9
true true fa lse (Surgery g ro u p had better outcome at 1 yea r but benefit was no longer statistica lly significa nt at 4yea r follow-up. At 1 0 years neither surgical nor conservative treatment g roup com plai ned of sciatica or back pa i n . ) true true
Neurosurgery Books
g
Part 1 6: Spine and Spinal Cord
390
35. True or False. The percentage of patients with l3-4 disc herniation having a past history of l4-5 or l5-S1 disc herniation is a. < 1 0% b. approximately 25% c. approxi mately 50% d . 60 to 80% e. a l m ost 90% 36. Characterize a herniated upper lumbar disc. a . What is t h e incidence? i. Ll -2: % ii. L2-3: % % iii. L3-4: b. Most com mon m u scle involved? c. Femoral stretch test d . Knee jerk _ _ _ _ _
_ _ _ _ __
Characterize extreme lateral lumbar disc herniations. a . What is t h e incidence? b. What level is most com monly involved? % i. L4-5 : % ii. L3-4: % iii. L5-S 1 : c. Enumerate fou r differences compared with other common disc herniations. i. Straight leg ra ising {SLR) is negative in %. ii. Pa in is increased by latera l bending %. in iii. Pa in is more iv. Extruded fragments a re
69 . 1 . 1 0
fa lse true fa lse fa lse fa lse 69 . 1 . 1 0
0.28% 1 .3% 3 .6% q u a d riceps femoris may be positive red uced in 50%
37.
_
69 . 1 . 1 1
3 to 1 0% 60% 24% 7% 85 to 90%
_
_ ___
__
75% severe more frequent
Distinguishing features concerning far lateral disc herniation include the following: a . The root involved is the root
exiti ng at that level
b. c. d.
negative likely to prod uce pain g reater; dorsal root gang lion
38.
SLR is -----Latera l bending is Severity o f p a i n is
_ _ _ _ _ _ _ ___
beca use is
69 . 1 . 1 1
____ ____ ____
e.
compressed . Most common levels a re
____
f.
Best surgical approach is
__ _
and
L4-5 and L3-4 sta ndard hemilaminectomy (and follow nerve latera l ly; perform medial facetectomy)
Lumbar and Thoracic Intervertebral Disk Herniation I Radiculopathy 39.
Zones in which disc herniation can occur are:
a. c. b. s c. f d. e
_ _ _ _
__ _
__ _ __ _
69 . 1 . 1 1
centra l subarticu lar foramina! extrafora minal
40. True or False. One third of extreme lateral lumbar disc herniations are missed on initial radiologic exams.
true
41 . To test for far lateral disc, what is the value of post-discography CT scan?
may be the most sensitive test-94%
Give the incidence of surgery for herniated discs in pediatric patients. % a . u n d e r 20 yea rs o f age: % b. under 1 7 yea rs of age:
42.
Characterize intradural disc herniation. a . What is t h e incidence? b. Ca n it be diag nosed preoperatively? c. It is suspected at su rgery beca use of a n e d . Does i t req u i re a surgical d u ra l opening?
69 . 1 . 1 1
69 . 1 . 1 1
69 . 1 . 1 2
less than 1 % less than 1 /2 of 1 %
43.
69 . 1 . 1 3
0.04 to 1 . 1 % rarely negative exploration
__ _
44.
ra rely
Regarding intravertebral disc herniations, answer the following: It is a lso known as Herniation occurs through what structu re?
69 . 1 . 1 4
Schmorl ' s nodes through the cartilaginous end plate into ca ncellous bone of the vertebral body fa lse - Presents with low back c. True or Fa lse. Presentation is similar to typica l herniated disk with radiculopathy. pain agg ravated by axial weight load bearin g . d. Radiogra p hica l ly on M RI i. Sym ptomatic (acute) lesions present low; high as on T1 WI and on T2WI. ii. Asym ptomatic (chronic) lesions high; low present as on T1 WI and on T2WI. e. Treatment? conservative thera py with NSAI Ds. Sym ptoms genera l ly improve within 3-4 months.
a. b.
_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
___
45. a. b. c.
Characterize recurrent herniated disc. second herniation: % % 1 0 yea rs same leve l : 1 yea r same level: % __
____
____
69 . 1 . 1 5
3 to 1 9% 4% 1 . 5%
391
392 46.
•
Part 1 6: Spine and Spinal Cord Does it take a larger or smaller disc herniation to cause symptoms in recurrent disc? Why? Because s t prevents the nerve from moving away.
smal ler; scar tissue
69 . 1 . 1 5
Thoracic Disc Herniation Characterize thoracic disc herniation. I t usually occurs below t h e level T8 of CT sca n b. Beca use many a re calcified it is wise to get a c. The incidence is to % of all disc 0.25 to 0.75% hern iations. d. % occur between ages 30 and 80% 50. e. History of tra u m a is %. 25%
47. a.
69 . 2 . 1
_ _ _
--
48.
a. b.
Characterize access to the thoracic spine. u pper: mid:
c.
lower:
d . thoraco l u m bar: e.
l u m ba r:
Complete the following concerning the thoracic spine and spinal cord anterior access to: a . lower thoracic spine i. use side thoracotomy ii. avoid iii. easier to mobilize b. thoraco l u m bar spine i. use side retroperitoneal approach ii. thereby avoiding
stern a l splitting rig ht thoracotomy (heart not in way) left-easier to mobilize aorta than vena cava rig ht to avoid l iver u n less pathology is fa r on left side tra nsabdominal
96 . 1 . 1 96.2.2
96.2.3
96.4. 1
96 . 5 . 1
49.
96.2.3
left vena cava aorta 96.4. 1
rig ht l iver
70 Cervical Disc Herniation
•
General I nformation 1 . Where does the cervical root exit in relation to the pedicle?
•
in close relation to the u nders u rface of the pedicle
70. 1
Cervical Nerve Root Syndromes (Cervica l Radiculopathy) 2.
Complete the following table concerning cervical disc syndromes:
Ta ble 70. 1
1� 70.. 1 Ccrvit;.ll di�o�;; loi"WJromn ...... . ...
""""" '"" «·S
, ...
C£-7
1; d(f!l\il:ill diso
,.
, ..
...
"''
�omprr.M'd rwt
"
"
"
ri!'flu dlfrnn lshH
del� &. pedor.lls
blr� &. bt.t--
""""
,..,.....,.
mooor weaki'@'Ss
"""""
ilofym f18i0n
foi'Ntm l!':ol (wtbt dropj
band irM.rltiW<�
�� lo �
-""
-· -
fl!lljm 1 1o l. �II flf'9('� 4 &. S lingrrtijK
«·S :C ol cff'Vial dBC:S
lhunlb, roldwl
.....m
Table 70.1 (incomplete)
Table 70.1 (complete)
C7·T1
(Reprinted with permission from Greenberg MS, Handbook of Neurosurgery. 8th ed. New York: Thieme; 20 1 6.)
Complete the following about intervertebral disc herniation: a. C6-7 disc ca uses a C. radiculopathy. b. CS-6 disc ca uses a C. radiculopathy. c. It may simulate a
3.
_ _ _ _
C7
70.2 . 1
_ _ _ _
C6
70.2.2
_ _ _
myoca rd ial infa rction
4.
A left C6 radiculopathy can simulate an ---- ---- ----
acute myoca rd ial infarction
70.2.2
5.
CS or T1 nerve root involvement (i.e., a C7-T1 or T1 -T2 disc) may produce a partial syndrome.
a partial Horner synd rome
70.2.2
6.
The most common scenario for patients with herniated cervical discs is that the symptoms were first noticed upon -------
awakening in the morning (without identifia ble tra u m a and stress)
70.2.2
394 7.
a.
Part 1 6: Spine and Spinal Cord Complete the following about intervertebral disc herniation: C4-5 disc compresses C root. C7-Tl disc compresses C
Ta ble 70. 1
CS root
_ _ _
b.
•
C8 root
Physical Exa m for Cervica l Disc Herniation 8.
Narrowing the cervical foramen mechanically is called
9.
Complete the following about the Spurling's sign: Performed by i. examiner exerti ng pressure on the ii. while patient tilts head towa rd the iii. with neck Reprod uces a n a logous to
a.
b. c.
•
root
Spurling's sign
70.5.2
70.5.2
vertex symptomatic side extended radicu l a r pain SLR for l u m ba r d isc-a mechanical sign
Radiologic Evaluation Give the accuracy of radiological workups. a . MRI i s to %. %. b. CT myelogra m is
1 0.
--
•
85 to 90% 98%
70.6. 1 70.6.2
Cervical Myelopathy and SCI due to Cervical Disc Herniation 1 1 . True or False. Regarding fusion. a . a plate red uces pseudoarthrosis. b. a plate red u ces g raft problems. c. a plate mainta ins lordosis. d. i mp roves clin ica l outcome. e. i mp roves a rm pai n . f. provides more ra pid relief of a rm pai n . g . maintains foramina! heig ht. h. maintains disc space heig ht. i. red uces post-op kyphosis. j. i m proves fusion rate. 1 2. What is the incidence of vocal cord paresis due to injury of the recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN)? a . Tempora ry: % b. Permanent: %
70.7.3
true true true fa lse true true fa lse fa lse true true 70.7.3
11% 4%
Neurosurgery Books
Cervical Disc Herniation 1 3. True or False. A good way to treat vertebral artery injury is by a . packi ng b. direct sutu re c. endovascu l a r trapping
70.7.3
fa lse true true
1 4.
The rare complication of sleep-induced C3-4 apnea can occur with anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF) at the level of
1 5.
Characterize dysphagia following ACDF. I ncidence ea rly is %, at 6 months only %. Most serious cause is Perma nent recu rrent laryngeal nerve inj u ry occu rs i n %.
a. b. c. d. 1 6.
a. b. c. d. e. f. 1 7.
a. b.
_ _ __
Characterize pseudoarthrosis following ACDF. On flexion extension cervical spine x-rays: movement o f more than mm bebNeen the across the fusion lack of I around the screws of the screws on flexion t. extension fil m s n u niformly associated with sym ptoms ____
__ ___ _ ___ __ __
______
______
For patients in certain professions we prefer to do posterior cervical surgery instead of anterior. Which two professions? The reason is that there is a % incidence of after anterior cervical surgery. ____
______
1 8.
a. b. c.
Indications for posterior keyhole laminotomy are s I d occupation of s or s. - or u -1 d 1 _ _ _
_ _ __ __
__
__
__
__
70.7.3
70.7.3
60% 5% hematoma 1 .3% 70.7.3
2 spinous processes tra becu lation l u cency toggling not 70.7.3
speaker a n d singer 4%; voice change 70.7.3
soft latera l disc singer or speaker lower- or u pper-level disc
395
396
Part 1 6: Spine and Spinal Cord
Matching. Match the recommended sequence of bone removal with the recommended sequence for posterior keyhole laminotomy. Sequence of bone remova l recom mended : CD su perior facet of the vertebra below; 0 inferior facet of the vertebra a bove; G) latera l aspect of lamina a bove Recom mended sequence: (a-c) below a . 1 st a rea o f bone remova l b. 2 n d a rea of bone remova l c. 3 rd a rea of bone remova l
1 9.
20. The success rate of posterior keyhole laminectomy is in the range of to %.
70.7.3
G) 0 CD 90 to 96%
70.7.3
71 Degenerative Cervical Disc Disease and Cervical Myelopathy
•
General I nformation 1.
•
Cervical degenerative disc disease is generally discussed in terms of " , " a term which is sometimes used synonymously with " cervical spinal stenosis."
cervica l spondylosis
71.1
55
71 .3.1
Clinical 2.
Cervical spondylosis is the most common cause of myelopathy in patients > yrs of age. _
3.
a. b. c.
Characterize the frequency of symptoms for the following reflexes hyperreflexia : % % Babinski: % H offm a n : _
-
-
Complete the following about degenerative discfspine disease: a . What reflex test is said t o b e pathog nomonic o f cervical spinal myelopathy? b. Elicited by performing the
Ta ble 7 1 . 1
87% 54% 1 2%
4.
c.
and obtaining a response of f of the f
5.
Complete the following regarding hyperactive jaw jerk: Sig n ificant is that i t ind icates a n n u m I located a t m
a. b.
7 1 .3.4
inverted radial reflex brachioradialis reflex flexion of the fingers 7 1 .3.4
u pper motor neuron lesion a bove the m idpons (It disti n g u ishes this from U M N lesions d u e t o lower-level causes, i.e., cervica l myelopathy.)
398 •
Part 1 6: Spine and Spinal Cord
Differential Diagnosis
6. Complete the following table to differentiate amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) from cervical __:.m�y.elo(lathyr..:.: _ =- = ----. ....,...,. ..,.. .. .-ALS CM
7 1 .4.2
A LS
CM
Sensory loss
Sensory loss
No
Yes
jaw jerk
jaw jerk
Yes
No
Tongue fasciculations
Tongue fascicu lation s
Sp hincter loss Dysarthria
Table 71 .1 (incomplete) 7. a. b.
•
True or False. Concerning ALS: jaw jerk is present. Tongue fascicu lations a re present.
Sph incter l oss Dysarthria
No
Yes Yes
Yes No No
Table 71 .1 (complete) 7 1 .4.2
true (may be fi rst clue) true (as seen on EMG or visible fascicu lations)
Eval uation 8.
a.
b.
Complete the following about degenerative disc/spine disease: cervica l s p i n e myelopathy, s p i n a l ca n a l diameter i. myelopathic at m m or less ii. sym ptomatic at mm iii. increased risk at mm m m or not symptomatic at more
71 .5.1
1 0 m m or less 1 1 .8 mm 1 4.0 mm 1 4 mm
True or False. Regarding M RI abnormalities that correlate with poor prognosis in cervical spondylitic myelopathy. a . T2W1 hyperintensity within t h e cord true b. A "banana" shaped cord on axial images fa lse has no correlation with the presence of CSM . c . "snake eyes" on axial T2W1 true
9.
1 0. True or False. Preop SSEP testing can aid in decision making.
true
7 1 .5.2
71 .5.5
Degenerative Cervical Disc Disease and Cervical Myelopathy •
Treatment 11.
a.
Contraindications to posterior decompression are kyphotic an gu lation, a lso known a s
b.
subl uxation of g reater than mm c . or rotation in t h e sag itta l plane o f more degrees. than
Characterize cervical spondylitic myelopathy. a . Post-op palsy after anterior or posterior decompression occurs in to %. b. It involves the d or b muscles c. and CS reg ion, which provides sensation a rea. to the d. It u s u a l ly occu rs within of surgery. e. Prog nosis for recovery is
7 1 .6.2
swa n neck 3.5 mm 20 degrees
1 2.
__
7 1 .6.2
3 to 5%
__
deltoid , biceps shoulder 1 week good
Neurosurgery Books
399
72 Thoracic and lumbar Degenerative Disc Disease
•
General I nformation about Degenerative Disc Disease (ODD) 1.
Since structures outside of the disc are degenerative disc disease usually also involved, the term degenerative spine disease {DSD) may be preferable to ---
72.1
---
•
Anatomic Substrate Enumerate the changes that occur in t h e intervertebral disc with increasing age. (Hint: dddd isc) a. d b. d
2.
--
--
c. d d. d e. i f. s g. c
---
--__
3 . What level i s most commonly the site of lumbar stenosis? 4. Characterize lateral recess stenosis. a. Is the pain u n i latera l or bilatera l? of the b. It is due to facet. c. d . T h e most common level is at
72.2 . 1
decrease disc height decrease in proteog lyca n content desiccation (loss of hyd ration) degeneration of mucoid ing rowth of fibrous tissue susceptibil ity to inj u ry circu mferential tea rs of the annulus L4-5 and then L3-4
72.2.2
72.2.4
ca n be either hypertrophy su perior a rticular L4-5
Thoracic and Lumbar Degenerative Disc Disease 5. Complete the following about degenerative disc/spine disease: a . Spondylol isthesis or anterior subl uxation of one vertebral body on another is g raded according to the percent of
b.
List the % for the fol lowing g rades. i. I % ii. I I to % iii. I l l to % iv. IV % __
__
6.
What posture may elicit pain in lumbar stenosis in adolescents and teens?
Complete the following about degenerative disc/spine disease: a . True or Fa lse. I t is common for listhesis to cause root com pression. b. If it does do so it compresses the nerve at that level root that c. below the a bove d . compressed b y t h e
72.2.5
subl uxation
< 25% 2 5 to 50% 50 to 75% 75% to complete hyperextension
7.
____ _ _ __
e.
being displaced
72.2.5
fa lse exits ped icle su perior a rticu l a r facet u pwa rd
_ _ __
8. What is a pseudo disc? a . I t is t h e a ppeara n ce on b. in a patient with c. It is more common to see a herniated disc at the level the l isthesis _ _ _ _
__ _
•
72.2.5
72.2.5
M RI l isthesis above
Associated Conditions 9. What two congenital conditions are associated with spinal stenosis? 1 0.
Paget's disease and ankylosing spondylitis are examples of conditions that are associated with spinal stenosis?
_ _ _ _
achondroplasia and congenita l ly na rrowed ca nal acq u i red
72.4
72.4
401
402 •
Part 1 6: Spine and Spinal Cord
Clinical Presentation. Differential Diagnosis Matching. Match the condition with the appropriate clinical featu re(s). Clinica l featu re: CD pain is dermatomal; 0 sensory loss stocki n g ; ® sensory loss is dermatomal; @ pain with exercise; ® pain with standing; ® rest relieves pain prom ptly; (j) rest relieves pain slowly; ® relief with standing; ® rel ief only with stooping or sitti n g ; ®l achiness over thig h ; ® pain on pressu re over hip; @ Faber sign positive Condition: (a-c) below a . neurogenic claud ication CD. ® . @ . ® . 0. ® b. vascu lar claud ication 0. @ . ® . ® @, @, @ c. trocha nteric bu rsitis
11.
•
72.5.2
72.6. 1
Diagnostic Evaluation Give the normal lumbar spine a measurements for each of the following: a. a nteroposterior (AP) diameter ,m m b. liga mentum flavu m thickness ,m m c . height o f latera l recess mm
1 2.
72.7.1
> 1 1 .5 mm
____
< 4 to 5 m m
____
___
1 3.
a. b. c. 1 4.
a. b. c.
•
State the AP diameter of the normal lumbar spine canal on plain films. lower l i m its of norma l : mm severe l u m ba r stenosis: mm average: mm Give the dimensions of lateral recess on CT. latera l recess heig ht: mm suggestive of latera l recess synd rome: mm diag nostic o f latera l recess syn d rome: mm
> 3 mm 72.7.1
1 5 mm less t h a n 1 1 m m 22-25mm 72.7.1
3 to 4 m m < 3 mm < 2mm
Treatment 1 5.
Is treatment for asymptomatic moderate stenosis at adjacent levels appropriate?
1 6. True or False. Patients who undergo decompressive laminectomies are likely to develop lumbar instability?
yes (They have a likelihood of prog ressing to become sym ptomatic.) fa lse - Less than 1 %
72.8.4
72.8.4
Thoracic and Lumbar Degenerative Disc Disease Complete the following: Sta bil ity is thought to be mainta ined if % of the facets a re preserved d u ring su rgery b. and the space is not violated. c. Younger or more active patients a re at risk of subluxi ng.
1 7. a.
__
72.8.4
>50-60%
__
disc higher
Matching. Following decompression in a patient, which procedures are appropriate? CD no fusion; 0 posterolatera l fusion; ® adding ped icle screw instru mentation a. no insta bility preop CD b. insta bil ity preop 0 c. spondylolisthesis preop 0. ®
1 8.
•
72.8.4
Outcome Give the lumbar spinal stenosis outcomes. a . morta l ity: % b. superficia l infection: % c. d eep infection: % d . deep vein throm bosis ( DVT): % e. postu ra l pain relief: % f. recu rrence after 5 years: % g. long-term success at 1 yea r and 5 yea rs: %
1 9.
20. a. b. c.
Non-union risk factors include s n u m ber of fused use of type medications
.32% 2.3% 5 .9% 2 . 8% 96% 27% 70%
72.9. 1
72.9.3
72.9.2
smoking levels NSAIDs
403
73 Adult Spinal Deformity and Degenerative Scoliosis
•
General I nformation 1 . Adult degenerative scoliosis: a . Spinal deform ity with a Cobb angle > degrees. b. Ca uses include asym metric d d ,h p ,o
73.1 _
__
__
•
__
__
__
1 0 deg rees asym metric d isc degeneration, hip pathology, osteoporosis
Epidemiology 2. Adult degenerative scoliosis is more prevalent in patients over years old, and incidence of asymptomatic burden is over % in the same age group.
60 yea rs; 68%
73.2
_
_
•
Clinical Evaluation. Diag nostic Testing Evaluation o f ADS includes: U n l ike l u m ba r spinal stenosis i n the not im proved a bsence of scoliosis, spinal stenosis secondary to a d u lt deform ity is usually by flexion, b. True or Fa lse. Diagnostic testing incl udes all of the followi ng. i. CT true ii. M RI true fa lse iii. myelogra m iv. DEXA scan true v. standing x-rays true
3. a.
73.3
__
Neurosurgery Books
73.4
Adult Spinal Deformity and Degenerative Scoliosis •
Pertinent Spine Measurements 4. a.
Scoliosis nomenclature What are end vertebrae?
b.
What does the Cobb angle measure?
c. Which side of curve determ ines naming properties? What is the difference between a structu ra l and non-structural curve? e. Major vs. fractional curve?
d.
73.5.2
Defined as top and bottom of scoliotic curve on AP x-ray. Angle made between a horizonta l line through the su perior end plate of the su perior end vertebrae, and a nother line throug h inferior end plate of inferior vertebra. Convex side (convex to rig ht=dextroscoliosis, convex to left=levoscoliosis) Non-structu ra l curve can correct on side bending. Major is the largest structural curve. Fractional is curve below major curve.
Spino-pelvic parameters are important to understand ADS correction. Regarding the following measurements: a . Sagitta l vertica l ali gn ment (SVA) i. Define it. horizonta l dista nce from posterior edge of 5 1 end plate to p l u m b line (from mid C7 vertebrae) ii. What is normal?
5.
= -
-
73.5.3
405
Part 1 6: Spine and Spinal Cord
406 e.
Lumbar lordosis (LL) i. Define it.
ii. What is normal? iii. What is the goal? f. Thoracic kyphosis (TK) i. Define it. ii.
•
=
angle between top of T4 and bottom of T1 2 41 degrees, ± 1 2 deg rees
SRS-Schwab Classification of Ad ult Spinal Deformity 6.
•
What is normal?
angle between top of 5 1 and top of L 1 20-40 degrees LL PI ± 9 deg rees
What is the SRS-Schwab classification? Scoliosis classification based on reg ional radiographic featu res as wel l as spinapelvic parameters as it relates to q u a l ity of l ife.
73.6
Treatment/ Management 7.
Indications for surgery?
8. Summary of spino-pelvic objectives: degrees a. LL: b. PT: deg rees c. SVA: cm __
__
9. What is generally considered an appropriate goal for sagittal correction of lumbar lordosis, given retroverting the pelvis for compensation?
axial back pain ± neuropathic sym ptoms deleterious to ADLs
73.7.2
73.7.2
LL PI ± 9 deg rees <20 deg rees
I ncrease in LL needed is approximately equal to (PI LL - 9 deg rees) + (PT - 20 degrees)
73.7.2
74 Special Conditions Affecting the Spine
•
Paget's Disease of the Spine 1 . Characterize Paget's disease. a . Also known as o d b. Disorder of o of bone. c. Resu lts in r prod uce d . Reactive osteoblasts o bone. e. This resu lts in sclerotic, radiodense, brittle bone ca l led i b 2. Which spinal nerve is most commonly compressed as it exits through its bony foramina? 3.
Most common symptom of Paget's disease is?
4. Typical presentation to a neurosurgeon includes: a. Neura l com p ression due to i. expa nsion of w b , ii. 0 t , iii. pagetic extension into I f and e f . b. Typica l ly present for longer than c. If sym ptoms prog ress over a timeframe < 6 months, then what is d ifferential? i. m f ii. p iii. com promise of n s __
__
__
__
__
__
__
__
___
5.
a. b. c.
Recommended laboratory tests include: a ph ur hy bone scan a reas of a bnormality
74. 1 . 1
osteitis deformans osteoclasts resorption over ivory bone CN VI I I
74. 1 . 5
bone pain
74. 1 . 6
74. 1 . 6
woven bone osteoid tissue liga mentu m flavu m ; epid u ra l fat 1 2 months maligna ncy (sarcomatous) pathological fractu re neurovascu lar su pply (compression or pagetic vascu l a r stea l) 74. 1 . 7
a l ka l i n e phosphatase u rin a ry hyd roxyproline lig hts u p (local ized enlargement of bone, cortical thickening, sclerotic changes, and osteolytic areas)
1!1
Part 1 6: Spine and Spinal Cord
408 d.
Spinal Paget's d isease involves s c l __
__
__
and b e. Treatment with c may reverse neurologic deficit in 50% of cases.
_ _ _
___
6. What are the neurosurgical indications in Paget's disease of the spine? a. spinal b. u n certa in c. fai l u re of _ _ _
_ _ _
_ _ _ _ _ _
•
severa l contiguous levels (pediclesf lamina thickened, vertebra l bodies dense, discs replaced by bone) ca lcitonin; bisphosphonates
74. 1 . 8
74. 1 . 8
insta bil ity diag nosis medical management
Ankylosing Spondylitis 7. a.
b. c.
Characterize ankylosing spondylitis. I t is a lso known as M d s .,---Locus of involvement at the e Replacement of with _ _ _
___ _
Bone is very o ---,-,----:-:On x-ray it is ca l led b s f. To d ifferentiate from rheu matoid for a rth ritis ( RA), seru m is n f r g . Fractu re m a y occur with
d. e.
_ _ _
74.2 . 1
Marie-Stru mpell disease en theses ligaments with bone osteoporotic bam boo spine
_ _ _
negative for rheu matoid factor
_ _ _
___ _
h. i.
Screws for fusion m a y
_ _ _
c.
not hold
Enthesis attachment point i. is the ii. of ligaments, tendons or ca psu les on bones
8. True or False. Ankylosing spondylitis usually presents as: a. radiating low back pain
b.
minimal tra u m a
evening back stiffness exacerbated by inactivity and improved by exercise Patrick's test is performed by com p ressing the pelvis with patient in latera l decu bitus position.
9. What are radiologic considerations in ankylosing spondylosis? a. Rota ry s may occur in high cervica l a rea. b. Last a rea to stay mobile is the o -a _ _ _
74.2.3
fa lse (non-rad iating low back pain) fa lse ( Morning back stiffness. Everything else is accu rate) true (Positive test wi l l el icit pai n . ) 74. 2 . 5
subl uxation occipito-atla nto
Special Conditions Affecting the Spine c. a n d a joints. d . Minor tra u m a m a y result in spine
atla ntoaxia l fractu re
e. Vertebral fractu res occur through the
ossified disc
f. An ea rly site of involvement is the joi nt. g . I f suspicious, x-ray the
5 1 joint (Th is is the sine q u a n o n for defi nite diagnosis.) entire spine
___
_ _ _
•
409
Ossification of the Posterior Longitudinal Liga ment {OPLL) Insert a term starting with the indicated letter to characterize the pathologic process of ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament (OPLL). a. c b. d c. e d. f e. g
1 0.
f. g. h.
h p 0
74.3 . 2
ca lcification d u ra evolves from C3-4 fi brosis g rows 0.6 m m fyea r i n the AP direction and 4. 1 m m fyea r in the longitudinal direction hypervascu lar periostea l ossification
1 1 . True or False. OPLL progresses in the following order: CD ossification; (?) fibrosis; ® calcification a . CD ® 0 b. 0 CD ® c. ® CD 0 d. 0 ® CD
fa lse fa lse fa lse true
1 2. a.
0.6 m m
b. 1 3. a.
b. c.
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
OPLL grows at a rate of m m in the a nterior posterior (AP) direction a n d m m longitu d i n a l ly per yea r.
74.3 . 2
1!1 74.3 . 2
4.1 mm
Provide the pathologic classification. Confined to space behind vertebral body seg menta l is ca lled Extends from body to body spanning contin uous disc is ca l led Com bines both of the a bove and has skip mixed a reas is ca l led
Neurosurgery Books
74.3 . 2
41 0
Part 1 6: Spine and Spinal Cord
1 4. a.
Describe the evaluation of OPLL. to Plain x-rays demonstrate OPLL. b. M RI : i. OPLL is difficult to appreciate u ntil it m m thick. is ii. T2Wl may be very c. CT . especi ally with 3D reconstruction, is method. the _ _ _
1 5. a.
b.
Class I I
c.
Class l i lA
d.
Class I I I B
1 6.
a. b. c. d.
•
list the clinical grading of OPLL. Class I
Complete the following regarding Nurick grades of cervical spondylosis: Assess the extent of Surgery showed no benefit for N u rick g rades and Su rgery was va luable for N u rick g rades and Surgery w a s i neffective for N u rick g rade
74. 3 . 6
often fai l 5mm helpfu l best 74. 3 . 7
x-ray on ly-rad iographica l ly evident; no sym ptoms or signs minima l-myelopathy A/0 radiculopathy minimal or sta ble deficit myelopathy-moderate to severe myelopathy q u a d riplegia-moderate to severe q u a d riplegia 74. 3 . 7
disability 1 and 2 3 and 4 5
Diffuse Idiopathic Skeleta l Hyperostosis {DISH) 1 7.
a.
b. c.
Characterize diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH). The fol lowing areas of the spine a re affected in what percentage of cases? % i. thoracic: % ii. l u m ba r: % iii. cervica l : % iv. a l l th ree seg ments: Area spared? Is the a rea spared in a n kylosing spondyl itis?
74.5
97% 90% 78% 70% sacroiliac joints no
Special Conditions Affecting the Spine •
Scheuermann's Kyphosis Complete the following regarding Scheuermann's kyphosis: a . I t is defined a s wedging i. degrees ii. of at least or more iii. of iv. verte bral bodies. b. Which age g roup does it affect?
1 8.
•
74. 6 . 1
a nterior 5 3 ; adjacent thoracic adolescents
74.6.2
Spinal Epidura l Hematoma 1 9. What is the most common cause of spinal epidural hematoma? plus a.
b.
h
___
b
___
t
_ _ _
Complete the following about spinal epidural hematoma: a . T h e most common a rea o f occu rrence i s
74. 7 . 1
tra u m a - a l m ost exclusively in patients with higher bleed ing tendency (a nticoa g u lated , bleed ing diathesis, etc.)
20.
74. 7 . 1
thoracic
often posterior (which facil itates remova l ) c . T h e most common category o f patient is a nticoa g u l ated
b.
Is it a nterior or posterior?
21 . What is the usual presentation of spinal epidural hematoma?
•
severe back pain (with radicular component)
74.7.3
Spinal Subdural Hematoma 22.
Complete the following regarding spinal subdural hematoma: a. They occur b. They are often related to c. Patients a re usually on med ication. d. It may sometimes be managed _ _ _
_ _ _
_ _ _
74.8
ra rely tra u m a a nticoa g u l a nt conservatively
41 1
75 Other Non-Spine Conditions with Spine Implications
•
Rheumatoid Arthritis 1.
a. b. c.
Name four upper cervical spine abnormalities associated with rheumatoid arthritis. i b a s s s
d. v
a
2. What are the three stages in pathophysiology that lead to atlantoaxial subluxation in rheumatoid arthritis? (Hint: iel) a. infl at a s j b. ero c in o c. loo of the t I
75. 1 .2
basilar im pression atla ntoaxial subl uxation su baxial subl uxation (less com mon) vertebra l a rtery insufficiency-d ue to changes at the cra n iocervica l j u n ction (less common) 75. 1 .3
infl a m mation at atla ntoaxial synovia l joi nts erosive changes in odontoid loosening of the tra nsverse liga ment
Atla ntoaxia l subl uxation 3. What percentage of rheumatoid arthritis patients develop subluxation? occu rs in 25% of patients with rheu matoid a rth ritis. 4. Complete the following regarding atlantoaxial subluxation in rheumatoid arthritis: a . T h e odontoid C l interva l is normal when less than mm. b. The asym ptomatic patient needs su rgery if dista nce is g reater than mm. c . T o do tra nsoral odontoidectomy, the mouth needs t o open a t least mm. d . Morta l ity o f Cl -C2 wiring is _ to %. --
4 mm
75. 1 .3
75. 1 .3
8 mm 25 mm 5 to 1 5%
7 5 . 1 .4
Other Non-Spine Conditions with Spine Implications 5.
a. b.
Characterize posterior atlantodental interval (PADI). Correlates with the presence of Predicts neurologic recovery following
No recovery occurs if the PAD I is less mm. than d. An ind ication for su rgery is a PADI less than mm. c.
7 5 . 1 .3
pa ralysis su rg ery 10 14
6.
What degree of atlantodental interval is a generally accepted surgical indication in asymptomatic patients?
8 mm (6 to 1 0 m m is the ra nge)
7.
What is the percentage of nonfusion for C1 -C2 fusions in rheumatoid arthritis?
1 8 - 50%
8.
Characterize basilar impression in rheumatoid arthritis. Changes in latera l masses a re ca l led e Perm itting relationship of C1 -C2 to change is ca l led t Position of dens moves u i. ca uses compression of p and m ii. contributes to b compression
a. b. c.
9.
a. b. c. d. e. f. 1 0.
a. b.
Matching. list the most common symptoms and signs of basilar impression of patients with rheumatoid arthritis and match with their order of frequency. CD 1 oo%; 0 80%; ® 71 %; @ 30%; ® 22% l i m b paresthesias Babinski, hyperreflexia bladder inconti nence/ retention cranial nerve dysfu nction headache a m bulatory problems Characterize basilar impression in rheumatoid arthritis. of C1 Pai n m a y b e a result o f c and C2 nerves. Cranial nerve dysfu nction resu lts from compression o f t h e m
7 5 . 1 .3
7 5 . 1 .4
75. 1 .6
erosive telescoping u pwa rd pons and medulla brainstem Ta ble 7 5 . 3
® 71 % 0 80% @ 30% ® 2 2% CD 1 00% 0 80% 75. 1 .6
com p ression med u l l a
41 3
41 4
Part 1 6: Spine and Spinal Cord
1 1 . What is the treatment for basilar impression? a . i f red ucible with t fol l owed i. Cl d by ii. o -c f b. in nonreducible patients o. i. t followed by f ii. o - c. _ _ _
___ _
____
___
•
____
----
___ _
75. 1 .6
traction decompressive laminectomy occipita l-cervica l fusion tra nsora l odontoid resection occipita l-cervica l fusion
Down Synd rome 1 2. 1 3.
Down syndrome is associated with I of the spine.
ligamentous laxity
75.2 . 1
Incidence of AAS in Down syndrome is %
20%
75.2.2
I
____
Neurosurgery Books
76 Special Conditions Affecting the Spinal Cord
•
Spinal Vascular Malformations 1 . Characterize spinal AVM classification. a. Type I i. known as d A a rterial feeder ii. lA: has a s or iii. I B : has a rterial feeders iv. formed at the d sleeve b. I ntra d u ra l AVMs i. flow is ii. % with acute symptoms c. Type II AVM i. a ka spinal g ii. located i iii. true A of the cord n iv. has a c v. prog nosis is than d u ra l AVM d . Type I l l i . a ka spinal AVM ii. essenti ally on enlarged iii. occupies the e cross section e. Type IV i. a ka spinal AVM ii. a ka fistu la iii. presents with hem orrhage 2. What is the most common type of spinal AVM? a . type b. d u ra l c. fed by a r a d . and d raining into a s v e. on the aspect of the cord f. % a re males
76 . 1 . 2
d u ra l AVM single 2 or more d u ra l root high 75% glomus intramedullary AVM com pact nidus worse juvenile glomus entire
II
perimed u l l a ry arteriovenous catastrophic 76 . 1 . 2
type 1 AVM radicu l a r a rtery spinal vein posterior 90%
41 6
Part 1 6: Spine and Spinal Cord
What is the most common presentation of a spinal AVM? pain a . onset of b. prog ressive lower extremity and
3.
76 . 1 . 3
back pain wea kness and sensory lossacute onset of back pain associated with prog ressive LE weakness and sensory loss (may be over months to yea rs)
4.
Spinal AVM with pain may have this syndrome. a . Onset of subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH), and sudden excruciating back pain is a lso ca l led c d of Michon. p b. This is considered clinica l evidence of
5. a. b. c. d. e. •
What is Foix-Aiajouanine syndrome? Acute or su bacute in a patient with without evidence of caused by with secondary
76 . 1 . 3
Coup de Poig nard of Michon
spi n a l AVM 76 . 1 . 3
neurologic deterioration spinal AVM hemorrhage venous hypertension ischemia
Spinal Meningeal Cysts 6. What is a Tarlov's cyst? 7 . What are the different types of spinal meningeal cyst, and which compartment are they located in? a . Type I
b. Type II c . Type I l l Complete the following statements about spinal meningeal cyst: a . Type I I spinal meningeal cyst is also known as roots. b. It occu rs on the
spinal meningeal cyst
76.2 . 1
superficia l compartment extra d u ra l without root fi bers middle com partment extra d u ra l with spinal root fi bers-d iverticu l u m centra l compartment intra d u ra l arachnoid cyst
8.
9. What are the treatment options for spinal meningeal cyst? a. e b. 0
c.
m
76.2 . 1
76.2 . 1
Ta rlov's cyst dorsal 76.2.4
excise the cyst obl iterate the ostiu m between cyst a n d subarachnoid space marsupialize if excision is not possi ble
Special Conditions Affecting the Spinal Cord •
Syringomyelia Complete the following about syringomyelia: a. cavitation o f t h e spinal cord % b. associated with Chiari I in c. Affects u pper or lower extremities first? d . More ra pid neurologic progression i s predicted b y a cavity more than ,m m in diameter and with associated cord
1 0.
76.4. 1
cystic 70% u pper 5 mm; edema
____
_ _ _ _
11.
Rostral extension into brainstem is called
syringobulbia
76.4. 1
__ _
1 2.
a. b. c. d.
Communicating syringomyelia is commonly associated with what congenital conditions? ( H int: bCDe) b _ _ _ _
c
_ _ _
D e
_ _ _
_ _ _
1 3. What are the main presenting symptoms and signs of a syrinx? (Hint: accC) a. a w b. c s. ___
_ _ _
_ _ _ _
_ _ _ _
c. c d. c a
/o j )
___
p (p
___
_ _ _ _
___
76.4.2
basilar im pression Chiari ma lformation Dandy-Wa l ker synd rome ectopia of cerebe l l u m 76.4.6
arm/hand weakness sensory loss with suspended "cape" dissociated sensory loss (loss of pain and tem peratu re with preserved joint position sense) cervica l/occi pita l pain Cha rcot's joi nts-pai n less a rth ropathies
1 4. Distinguish from similar entities. a. Tumor cyst i. Most e enha nce proteinaceous ii. Fluid is p iii. Syri nx fl uid has M RI cha racteristics of CSF
76.4.8
_ _ _ _
_ _ _
C.
_ _ _ _
b.
Residual spinal canal i. Centra l ca n a l usually ii. Is not more than to m m wide. iii. Is perfectly on cross section. iv. Is perfectly in the on axial M RI . _ _ _
involutes 2 to 4
___
1 5.
Dilatation of central canal with ependymal cel l lining is called
rou n d center hyd romyelia
76.4.8
41 7
41 8 •
Part 1 6: Spine and Spinal Cord
Posttrau matic Syringomyelia 1 6. True or False. The level of spinal injury that has the highest incidence of posttraumatic syringomyelia is a . cervica l b. thoracic c. l u m ba r
a.
Characterize posttraumatic syringomyelia. Most common symptom i s
b.
Most common s i g n i s
1 7.
1 8. What may be the only feature of descending syringomyelia in patients with complete cord lesions? Complete the following statements about traumatic syringomyelia: a . Incidence i s b . Latency i s c . What should ra ise t h e index o f suspicion for a syrinx i n a patient who is para plegic from trauma? i. The development ii. in a iii. of wea kness.
76.5.2
fa lse true fa lse Ta ble 7 6 . 6
pain - not rel ieved by analgesics ascending sensory level hyperhidrosis
76.5.3
1 9.
•
3.2% average 9 yea rs after inj u ry
76.5.2
76.5.3
late para plegic patient u pper extrem ity
Spinal Epidura l Lipomatosis (SEL) 20. Characterize spinal epidural lipomatosis (SEL}. a. due to h of epid u ra l fat b. due to and/or i. o ii. exogenous s c. Sym ptoms i. fi rst is ii. prog ressive ___
_ ___ __
_ _ _ __ _
changes. iii. and Most occur in the spine. Diag nose by using or Should be at least m m thick to be SEL. g. Treatment or i. Red u ce the use of ii. lose iii. Remove h. Com plication rate is
d. e. f.
hypertrophy
76. 7 . 1
obesity steroids back pain lower extrem ity weakness sensory thoracic CT or M RI 7
76.7.2
76.7.3
steroids weight surgica l ly high
76.7.4
77 Introduction and General Information, Grading, Medical Management, Special Conditions
•
Definition 1.
a. b. c. d. e. f.
•
Complete the following about aneurysmal SAH: What percentage o f patients d i e before reaching the hospita l? What is the risk of rebleed ing with in 2 weeks? What is the risk of death from vasospasm? What is the risk of severe deficit from vasospasm? What is the 30-day morta lity rate? What is the strongest prog nostic ind icator?
1 0- 1 5% 1 5-20% 7% 7% a bout 50% severity of clin ica l presentation
Etiologies of SAH 2. True or False. Etiologies of subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) include the following: a. a rteriovenous ma lformation (AVM) ru ptu re b. vascu l itis c. encephalitis d. d rug use e. coag ulopathy f. d u ra l sinus throm bosis
•
77 . 1 . 3
77.2
true true fa lse true true true
I ncidence 3. What is the incidence of aneurysmal SAH?
9.7- 1 4.5 per 1 00,000
Neurosurgery Books
77.3
420 •
Part 1 7: SAH and Aneurysms
Risk Factors for SAH 4. True or False. Risk factors for SAH include the following: a . hypertension b. genetic synd romes c. ciga rette smoking d . preg nancy
•
77.4
true true true fa lse
Clinical Featu res 5. True or False. SAH may present as any of the following: a . meningismus b. photophobia c. hearing loss d . low back pain e. ptosis 6. True or False. Formal angiography is indicated in a . senti nel hemorrhage b. crash migraine (th und erclap headache) c. benign orgasmic cephalgia 7. The incidence of sentinel hemorrhage is %.
77.5.1
true true fa lse true true 77.5.2
true fa lse fa lse 30-60%
77.5.2
__ - __
8.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. 9.
a. b. c. d. e. f. 1 0.
a.
True or False. Regarding benign thunderclap headache. Ca n b e disti n g u ished from SAH . Reaches maximal intensity in one minute. Is acco m pa n ied by vom iti ng. Never recu rs. Is related to vascu lar cause. CT and LP show no blood. Req u i re ang iography. Complete the following about reversible cerebral vasoconstrictive syndrome: Has a s onset. Associated with n deficit. Angiography shows a ppearance, which clears within months. Associated with v d rugs. May occur p ___
____
_ _ _ _
Complete the following about benign orgasmic headache: Occu rs just before or at time of o Worku p is the same as for t. headache.
77.5.2
fa lse true true fa lse true true fa lse 77.5.2
sudden neurologica l stri ng of beads 1 -3 months vasoconstrictive post-partum 77.5.2
orgasm
_ _ _ _
b.
_ _ _ _
thu ndercla p
General Information, Grading, Medical Management, Special Conditions 421 11.
a. b.
Complete the following about meningismus: a ka n Signs i. Bend neck and h i p flexes ca lled sign ii. Knee bent then straig htened ca uses pain and is ca l led sign ___
1 3. What percentage of patients with subarachnoid hemorrhage have funduscopic abnormalities?
a. b. c. d. e.
Matching. Match the type of ocular hemorrhage with the associated characteristic(s ). Ocu l a r hemorrhage: CD su bhya loid ; 0 reti n al; Q) vitreous Cha racteristic: (a-e) below bright red blood near optic disc vitreous opacity blood obscu res the reti nal vessels surrounds t h e fovea may resu lt in reti nal detachment
1 5. True or False. The following are characteristics of SAH: a . Su bhyaloid hemorrhage from SAH occurs near the optic disc. b. Retin a l hemorrhage occu rs near the fovea . c . T h e prog nosis for vision recovery i n Terson synd rome is poor. d. Vitreous hemorrhage may occur with nona neurysmal ca uses for increased ICP. e. Ocu l a r hemorrhage from SAH may be associated with reti nal detachment.
•
nuchal rigidity Bru dzi nski's sign hamstri n g ; l
__
1 2. True or False. Coma in SAH may be due to the fol lowing: a. seizure b. increased intracranial pressu re (ICP) c. i ntra parenchymal hemorrhage d. hyd rocephalus e. low blood flow
1 4.
77.5.3
77.5.3
true true true true true 20-40%
77.5.3
77.5.3
CD Q) CD 0 Q) 77.5.3
true true fa lse true true
Work-Up of Suspected SAH 1 6. Complete the following: a. A good-q uality com puted tomog ra phic (CT) sca n wi l l detect SAH in what percentage of patients? b. If sca nned within how many hours? c. Ventriculomegaly (hyd rocephalus) occurs acutely in %.
77.6.2
<:95% 48 hours 21%
422
Part 1 7: SAH and Aneurysms
1 7. True or False. Regarding head CT for SAH. a . Ventricu lar size needs to be assessed beca use hyd rocephalus can occur acutely. b. There may be intracranial hemorrhage req u i ring u rgent craniotomy. c. The amount of SAH correlates with vasospasm risk. d . I f there a re m u ltiple aneurysms, the distri bution of SAH may reveal which aneurysm ru ptu red . e. Head CT is a poor predictor of aneurysm location.
77.6.2
true true true true fa lse
1 8.
Regarding prediction of aneurysm location. a. Blood in the ventricles suggests aneurysm . b. Anterior interhemispheric fissu re suggests a n aneurysm . c . Sylvian fissu re is com pati ble with a or a i. ii. aneurysm
77.6.2
posterior fossa
____ ____
___
___
1 9. Complete the following: a . T h e most sensitive test for SAH i s
b.
Loweri ng t h e cerebrospinal fl uid (CSF) pressure might preci pitate rebleed ing beca use it ca uses a n
A-Comm P-Comm MCA 77.6.2
l u m ba r puncture increase in transmura l pressure
_ _ _ _ _ _ __
c. Therefore, as a preca ution i. use only a and ii. remove o n ly a of
_ _ _ _ ____
small-gauge need le
___
_ ___ _ _ _ _
small amount of fl uid
__ _
20. True or False. The following CSF findings are expected with SAH: a. elevated open ing pressu re b. nonclotting bloody fl uid c. xa nthrochromia d . red blood cel l s ( RBCs) > 1 00,000 e. elevated g l u cose
77.6.2
true true true true fa lse
21 .
Complete the following about xanthochromia: a . Used t o differentiate SAH from
tra u m atic ta p
b.
2-4
Does not show u p u ntil hours after bleed i n g. c . Is present in 1 00% o f patients by hours. d . Li ngers for up to weeks.
77.6.2
12
____
4
General Information, Grading, Medical Management, Special Conditions 423 22. a.
Complete the following about M RI: Most sensitive sequence for detecti ng blood in the subarachnoid space is the seq uence. b. It is most reliable for detecti ng SAH after _ - _ days.
77.6.2
FLAI R
____
4-7 days
23. Complete the following about MRA: a . C a n detect aneurysm larger than mm with approximately % accu racy.
3· 90
% and 24. ITA has an accuracy of shows a -dimensional image.
97; three
____
77.6.2
____
25. Complete the following: a . Angiogra phy demonstrates t h e sou rce o f SAH i n _ _%. b. To ca l l an ang iogra m negative for aneurysm you must see what two a reas? i. Ta ke off both and ii. c. What percentage of aneurysms occur at the posterior inferior cerebel l a r a rtery (PICA) orig in? 26.
a.
Complete the following about the infundibulum: The th ree criteria a re i. shape ii. size of mouth less than mm iii. at a pex The most common site is at the
_ _ _
b. 27.
28.
77.6.2
77.6.2
80-85
PICAs A-Comm 1 -2%
77.6.2
tria n g u l a r 3 vessel P-Com m
Infundibula are found in approximately what percentage of normal angiograms?
10
77.6.2
If infundibulum is located near SAH, is advisable.
exploration
77.6.2
____
•
Grading SAH 29.
a. b. c. d. e.
Matching. Match the hemorrhage grade with when to operate. CD manage ti l l patient i mproves; 0 im med iately; ® prom ptly within 24 hours H u nt and Hess g rade 1 H u nt and Hess g rade 2 H u nt and Hess g rade 3, 4, or 5 Patient with large hematoma Patient with m u ltiple bleeds
77.7.2
® ® CD 0 0
424
Part 1 7: SAH and Aneurysms
30. What is the Hunt and Hess grade in a patient who has a headache and SAH seen on CT scan a . and a th ird nerve palsy? b. and mild one-sided wea kness and confusion? c. deep coma and decerebrate rigid ity? 31 .
a. b.
Complete the World Federation of Neurologic Surgeons (WFNS) grading scale for SAH grade. G rade 0: G rade 1 G l asgow Coma Sca le (GCS):
•
H u nt and Hess g rade 2 H u nt and Hess g rade 3 H u nt and Hess g rade 5 Ta ble 7 7 . 4
u n ru ptu red GCS 1 5 GCS 1 3 to 1 4 GCS 1 3 to 14 and major foca l deficit GCS 7 to 1 2 GCS 3 to 6
c. G rade 2 GCS: d . G rade 3 GCS: e. f.
Ta ble 7 7 . 2
G rade 4 GCS: G rade 5 GCS:
Initia l Ma nagement of SAH 32. list nine potential complications of SAH. ( H int: vera N dsah) a. v b. e c. r d. a
e. N f. d g. s h. a i. h 33. a.
Complete the orders for SAH patient. intravenous ( IV) fl uids?
b. rate? c. blood pressu re parameters? d . ca lci u m channel blocker? e. dose?
77.8.1
vasospasm embol us-pu lmonary rebleed a rachnoid g ra n u lation blockage Na meta bolism deep vein throm bosis seizu res acute hyd rocephalus hyponatremia 77.8.3
normal saline (NS) and 20 m i l lieq u iva lents (mEq) KCI 2 m l/ kgfhour SBP 1 20-1 60 yes-N imodipine 60 mg PO/ N G every 4 hours
Neurosurgery Books
General Information, Grading, Medical Management, Special Conditions 425 34. True or False. During the post-SAH period, with the aneurysm unclipped, phenothiazines should be avoided because a . they m a y b e overly sedati ng and obscu re neurolog ica l assessment. b. they may lower seizu re threshold. c. they cause elevation of systolic blood pressu re. d . their meta bol ites m a y hasten vasospasm, e. instead use 35. True or False. The following is the most reliable parameter to differentiate syndrome of inappropriate diuretic hormone (SIADH) from cerebral salt wasting syndrome: a . seru m atrial natri u retic factor (AN F) a n d brain natriu retic factor ( B N F) b. u rine Na+ and osmola rity c. seru m Na+ and osmola rity d. extrace l l u l a r fl uid vol u m e e. 24-hour u rine output
77.8.3
fa lse true fa lse fa lse Zofra n 77.8.5
fa lse fa lse fa lse true fa lse
36. Complete the following: a. True or Fa lse. Cerebra l salt wasti ng (CSW) is best d ifferentiated from SIADH by measu ring the: i. seru m sodi u m ii. intravascular volu me iii. u rine osmola rity iv. extrace l l u l a r fl uid vol u m e b. Keeping serum Na levels normal is im porta nt beca use hyponatremic patients have three times the rate of d c i as do normal natremic patients.
fa lse fa lse fa lse true delayed cerebral infarction
37. Cerebral salt wasting is a. more common after SAH than b. Treat with c. Use caution regarding the rate of treatment beca use you risk prod ucing
SIADH normal saline centra l pontine myelinolysis
77.8.5
77.8.5
426 •
Part 1 7: SAH and Aneurysms
Rebleeding True or False. Regarding rebleeding. The maxi m u m frequency of rebleed ing from SAH is on day 7 . b . Approxi mately 5 0 % o f ru ptu red aneurysms wi l l rebleed with in 6 months. c. Epsilon-a minoca proic acid may decrease the risk of rebleed i n g.
38. a.
39. a.
b. c. d. e. f. g. h.
•
Complete the following: Maxi m u m frequency o f rebleeding is o n the day % at a rate of % then at for days. % Tota l of rebleed in 2 weeks = % in 6 months Thereafter rebleed rate is _% per yea r. Ti me period o f t h e hig hest risk of rebleeding is the
77.9. 1
fa lse (4% on day 1 ) true true 77.9. 1
fi rst 4% 1 . 5% 13 1 5 to 20% 50% 3% first 6 hours
Pregnancy and I ntracranial Hemorrhage 40. True or False. Intracranial hemorrhage during pregnancy is more commonly caused by: a . AVM fa lse, 23% true, 77% b. aneurysms
7 7 . 1 0. 1
41 . True or False. The following is a correct recommendation for pregnant patients with SAH: a . D o not perform C T or angiogra m .
7 7 . 1 0. 2
b.
M a n n itol , N i pride, and nimodipine can be used as usual. c. Delay su rgery u ntil preg nancy has come to term .
d.
Del iver by C-section.
e. MRI is safe in preg nancy. f. Gadol i n i u m is safe in preg nancy. g. Angiographic contrast is safe. h . Treatment recommendation is s u rgical clipping.
fa lse (They a re okay i f the fetus is shielded.) fa lse (They are not to be used in preg nancy.) fa lse (Clipping is recommended i n the preg nant patient.) fa lse (There is no different feta l or maternal outcome by C-section or vag i n a l delivery.) true not yet studied true true
General Information, Grading, Medical Management, Special Conditions 427 •
Hyd rocephalus after SAH 42.
a. b. c. d.
Complete the following about acute post-SAH hydrocephalus: Frequency of hyd rocephalus in SAH is %. Hyd rocephalus is more frequently associated with aneurysms in what location? What aneurysm has a low incidence of hyd rocephal us? T h e proper treatment is placement o f a -
-
e.
It is recommended to keep the ICP i n the ra nge of mm Hg. f. This red uces the tendency to _
77 . 1 1 . 2
1 5-20 posterior circulation aneurysms MCA aneurysms ventriculostomy d rain 1 5-25
_
43. Complete the following about chronic post-SAH hydrocephalus: % of patients a. Approxi mately with acute post-SAH hyd rocephalus need permanent cerebrospinal fl uid d iversion. b. and a re associated with s h u nt dependency. difference in the c. There was rate of s h u nt placement between patients who underwent ra pid versus g radual wea ning of the ventriculostomy d rain.
rebleed 77 . 1 1 . 3
50 Intraventricu l a r blood ; Fisher g rade no
78 Critical Care of Aneurysm Patients
•
Neurogenic Stress Cardiomyopathy (NSC) 1. a.
b. c. d.
Neurogenic stress cardiomyopathy: Is i m paired cardiac fu nction not attri butable to May be Is disti n gu ished from acute myoca rd ial ischemia by cardiac enzymes. Is treated by increasing using or these two medications:
2 . EKG changes that can occur after SAH: a. T waves may be i b. QT may be p c. i. ST seg ments may be e ii. or d 3. The mechanism for the EKG changes is thought to be due to i a. h b. which ca uses i ncreased tone, c. which releases a s u rge of c ischemia, d. which prod uces s e. or e a vasospasm. 4.
a. b.
Complete the following about cardiac problems and SAH: EKG changes occur in %. The mecha nism is ( H i nt: hies) i i. h ii. i s t iii. c s iv. s
78. 1 . 1
coronary a rtery disease reversible lower than expected ca rdiac output; M i l rinone; Dobutamine 78. 1 .2
inverted prolonged elevated depressed 78. 1 .3
hypothalamic ischemia sym pathetic tone catecholam ines su bendocardial coronary a rtery
50
78. 1 .2 78. 1 .3
hypothalamic ischemia increased sym pathetic tone catecholamine surge su bendocardial ischemia
Critical Care of Aneurysm Patients •
429
Vasospasm 5. Complete the following about vasospasm: a . also known a s
delayed ischemic neurologic deficit
b . True or Fa lse. Higher incidence occu rs i n : true i. ACA distri bution ii. MCA distri bution fa lse 6. Complete the following regarding cerebral vasospasms: a . T h e incidence o f radiographic cerebra l % vasospasm is b. as measured on day c. The incidence of sym ptomatic cerebral vasospasm is %. d. Prod uces infa rction in %. %. e. Prod uces morta l ity in f. Onset a l m ost never before day g. Resolved by day h. Radiog raphica lly resolves over weeks __
_
Complete the following: Spasmogenic region on ACA and MCA is the b. True or Fa lse. There is more vasospasm with: i. ciga rette smoking ii. lower H u nt and Hess g rade iii. amount of blood on CT iv. advancing age of patient v. presence of intraventricu lar hemorrhage vi . presence of intra parenchym a l hem orrhage
7. a.
8. Complete the following about Fisher grade: a . Descri be t h e Fisher g rading system . i . G rade 1 ii. G rade 2 iii. G rade 3
iv. G rade 4 Clinica l vasospasm is essentially l i mited to Fisher g rade
9. What chemicals have been identified as critical mediators of vasospasm? a . decreased prod uction of and
b.
overprod uction of
78.3.3
78.3.3
20-1 00
__
_
b.
78.3.2
7 30 60 7 3 12 3-4 78.3.3
proxi m a l 9 em
true fa lse true true fa lse fa lse Ta ble 7 8 . 2
no blood slig ht-less than 1 m m loca lized clot-more t h a n 1 mm intracerebral o r intraventricu l a r clot 3
El 78.3.4
nitrous oxide; prostacyclins endothelin-1
Neurosurgery Books
430
Part 1 7: SAH and Aneurysms
1 0. What transcranial Doppler (TCD) values are consistent with vasospasm? a . Velocity a t MCA o f more t h a n b. ratio of more than between and the c. the ind icates vasospasm. d . Velocity < than and ratio < is norm a l . e. Velocity between and is mi ld vasospasm. f. Velocity above is severe vasospasm. g. Ratio between and is mild vasospasm. h . Ratio a bove is severe vasospasm. _ _ _
_ _ _
___
_ _ _
Ta ble 7 8 . 5
1 20 cmfsec Lindegaard , 3 MCA, ICA 1 20, 3 1 20, 200
____
___
___ _
____
11. a.
Complete the following: Describe t h e treatment for vasospasm i. avoid h ,a , and h ii. s u rgery? iii. remove c. iv. d rug? _ _ _
_ _ _ _
200 3 and 6 6 78.3.6
hypovolemia, anemia, and hypotension do ea rly clots ca lci u m channel blocker nimodipine dilatation bloody CSF 30-35 60-80
v. catheter? vi . d rain? % vii . obtain hematocrit of b. Angioplasty prod uces clin ical im provement in %. c. I ntra-arteria l d rugs Verapamil; hypotension i. The primary d rug used is but watch for ii. N restores vessel dia meter Nicardipine; 60 %. to at least iii. Other d rugs used include P___ Papaverine and N itrog lyceri n and N ___ __
__
__
_ _ _
_ _ _
1 2. Complete the following: a . What is "triple H " thera py? i. h v ii. h t. d iii. h b. The fl uid to use is _____ ___ c. Maxi m u m systolic blood pressu re for a n u ntreated aneurysm is ___ d . Maxi m u m systolic blood pressure for a treated aneurysm is -- -,e. What do you do if tri ple H does not work? f. Hemodil ution is used to lower hematocrit to _ _ _ _
_ _ _ _
_ _ _ _
__
78.3.7
hypervolemia hypertension hemodil ution normal sa line 1 60mm Hg 220mm Hg endovascu lar tech niq ues 30-35%
__
1 3. Triple H therapy may cause pulmonary 1 7 edema in % of patients.
78.3.7
Critical Care of Aneurysm Patients •
Post-Op Orders for Aneu rysm Clipping Complete the following about dose for calcium channel blocker: a . What is t h e n a m e o f a ntivasospasm med ication/drug? b. dose: mg every hours c. route: d . d u ration: e. u n less
1 4.
_ _ _
_ _ _
_ _ _
78.4
nimodipine 60 mg every 4 hours by mouth or nasogastric tube 21 days patient going home intact-if so, may stop the ca lcium channel blocker
431
79 SAH from Cerebral Aneurysm Rupture
•
Etiology of Cerebral Aneurysms Matching. What are ideas regarding the etiology of aneurysms? Match the lettered term with the numbered description. Descri ption: CD less elastic; 0 1ess m uscle; ® more prominent; @ less su pportive connective tissue Term: (a-d) below a . tun ica media b. adventitia c. i nternal elastic lamina d . location-occur 1.
•
0 CD ® @
Location of Cerebra l Aneu rysms 2 . Give the % incidence o f cerebral aneurysm for each of the following: a . A-com m b. P-comm c. MCA d. posterior circu lation e. basilar f. m u ltiple
•
79.2
79.3
30% 25% 20% 1 5% 1 0% 20 to 30%
Presentation of Cerebra l Aneurysms 3. Complete t h e following about intraventricular hemorrhage: a. Genera l i . True or Fa lse. It does n o t affect morbid ity-morta l ity. ii. It has a morta l ity of %. b. A-com m aneurysms ru ptu re into the ventricle through the _ _ _
79.4.2
fa lse 64% lamina term inalis
SAH from Cerebral Aneurysm Rupture c.
Dista l basi l a r a rtery aneurysms ru ptu re of the thro u gh the
433
floor of the third ventricle
_ _ _
d.
PICA aneurysm m a y ru ptu re through the of i. ii. and into the _ _ _
_ _ ____ __
4. Third nerve palsy can occur with or a. b. c. One can d ifferentiate by examining the ____
i. Pupil di lated in ii. Pupil not dilated in d . T h e m nemonic is " from the third nerve palsy syndrome. e. Aneurysms the pupil. f. N PSTN means palsy. _ _ _
_ _ _
_ _ _ _ __
•
fora men of Luschka fou rth ventricle 79.4.3
aneurysm dia betes pupils aneurysm dia betic "dia betes deletes the pupil" include non-pu pil-sparing third nerve
Conditions Associated with Aneurysms 5 . True or False. A l l o f t h e following conditions may be associated with SAH: a . hypertension b. Osler-Weber-Rendu synd rome c. dia betes mellitus
d. e.
renal fi bromuscu lar dysplasia Ehlers-Dan los type IV
79 . 5 . 1
true true fa lse (Dia betes insipidus can be associated . ) true true
The following conditions are associated with an increased incidence of aneurysm: a utosomal dominant a. a p d k d polycystic kidney d isease1 5% m a rteriorvenous ma lformation b. a atherosclerosis c. a bacteria l endoca rditis e d. b e. c coa rctation of the aorta of the a f. c connective tissue disorders t d g . Eh -Da Ehlers-Da n l os type IV h. fib fi brom uscu l a r dysplasia renal d d isease-7% d i. f fa milial occu rrences 0 Marfa n synd rome j. M s k. m moya moya disease d I. 0 -W -R Osler-Weber-Ren d u s synd rome e pseudoxa nthoma elasticum m. p 6.
79 . 5 . 1
a
434 7.
a.
Part 1 7: SAH and Aneurysms Complete the following about aneurysms and polycystic kidney disease: _ ADPI
_
b. c.
I ncidence is 1 in a utopsies. Preva lence of aneurysms in patients with ADPI
__
79.5.2
a d u lt polycystic kid ney d isease 500 1 0 to 30%-1 5% a reasonable esti mate 1 0 to 20 times M RA every 2 to 3
____
•
Treatment Options for Aneu rysms 8 . Complete the following: a. I n tra pping a n aneurysm is it better to tie common ca rotid occlusion is off the common ca rotid a rtery or the better intern a l ca rotid a rtery? b. It red uces the incidence of throm boembolic phenomenon
79.6.3
True or False. Regarding treatment options for aneurysms. a . The following proced u res offer protection if the aneurysm can 't be cli pped or coiled: i. wrapping with m u scle ii. wrapping with cotton iii. wra pping with muslin iv. coating with plastic resin v. coating with polymer vi . coating with Teflon vii . coating with fibrin g l u e b . I n s u c h cases you cou l d consider trapping or bypass or ca rotid ligation.
79.6.3
_ _ _ _
9.
1 0. True or False. Coils are not ideal for a . very small aneurysms b. very l a rge aneurysms c. aneurysm s with wide necks d . I f after coiling residual fi l l i n g is noted you should " recoi l . " 11.
a. b. c.
Data for Guglielmi detachable coils indicate morbid ity: % morta l ity: % complete obl iteration of aneurysm : % s u bseq uently req u i red open surgical repair: %
fa lse fa lse fa lse fa lse fa lse fa lse fa lse true 79.6.5
true true true fa lse (Proceed with su rgery. ) 79.6.5
4% 1% 40%
____
d.
20%
Neurosurgery Books
SAH from Cerebral Aneurysm Rupture •
Timing of Aneurysm Surgery Complete the following about timing for aneurysm surgery: a . T h e definition o f ea rly su rgery is less than to hours. b. Late su rgery is after to days. c. More likely to delay surgery when
1 2.
__
__
d . Avoid doing su rgery between days and beca use that is considered a Complete the following regarding vasospasm treatment: a . I t peaks i n incidence between and days. b. It never occu rs before day c. Vasospastic interva l d u ring which su rgery should be avoided is days to
79 . 7 . 1
48 to 96 hours 1 0 to 1 4 days treati ng a basilar a rtery aneurysm beca use you wa nt a lax bra i n d u ring the s u rgical a pproach 4 and 1 0; vasospastic interva l
1 3.
•
435
79 . 7 . 1
6 and 8 days 3 4 to 1 0
General Technical Considerations of Aneu rysm Surgery Complete the following regarding aneurysmal rest. a . What is a n aneurysm a l rest?
1 4.
b. Why a re they dangerous? c. What is the incidence of rebleed ing? d. There is a risk per yea r of to %. e. How should they be hand led? f. If they increase in size, treat with or __
__
1 5. Answer the following about CSF drainage during craniotomy: a . True or Fa lse. CSF should b e d rained before opening the d u ra .
b. True or Fa lse. CSF should be d rained after opening the d u ra . c . What is t h e rate o f rebleeding with CSF d rainage? Complete the following regarding cerebral protection during surgery: a . 0 2 consum ption b y t h e neuron is for two fu nctions: i. to maintain ii. for conduction of
79.8.2
residual unclipped part of aneurysm they may bleed 3.7% 0.4 to 0.8% serial angiography su rgery or endovascu lar coi ling 79.8.3
fa lse (This is associated with a n increased incidence of rebleed i n g . ) true 0.3%
1 6.
79.8.3
cel l integ rity electrica l impu lse
a
436 b. c.
Part 1 7: SAH and Aneurysms If there is occlusion of a vessel it prod uces due to
ischemia oxygen deficiency
d . T h i s precl udes g i. a and ii. 0 p e. What ha ppens to adenosine triphosphate {ATP} prod uction? f. What happens to the cell?
aerobic g lycolysis oxidative phosphorylation it decl ines cel l death occu rs
1 7. What can be done to protect against ischemia? a . Tactics t o red uce inj u ry b y ischemia include i. n
ii.
b
iii. m b. Tactics to red uce the cerebra l metabolic rate of oxygen consum ption {CM R02) req u i red include i. red ucing electrical activity of the neuron with ii. red ucing maintena nce energy of the neuron with 1 8. Answer the following about temporary clipping during aneurysm surgery: a . True or Fa lse. U n d e r 5 min utes occlusion is wel l tolerated. b. If occluded 1 0 to 1 5 min utes, m u st add
c.
If occluded more than 20 min utes,
__
1 9. Answer the following about post-op angiography after aneurysm or AVM surgery: a . True or Fa lse. I t is not needed. b. % showed unexpected fi ndings. c. True or Fa lse. It is the sta ndard of care. d. True or Fa lse. It is recommended .
79.8.3
nimodipine-calcium channel blockers ba rbitu rates-free rad ica l scavengers mannitol
ba rbitu rates-etomidate hypothermia 79.8.3
true dose and d rip titrated to bu rst suppression not tolerated 79.8.4
fa lse 1 9% fa lse true
Complete the following regarding drugs useful in aneurysm surgery: a . What special med ications should b e used etomidate or propofol d u ring tem porary clipping of a n aneurysm? b. What do they do? suppress neuronal activity by red ucing neuronal meta bolism c. By how much? 50%
20.
79.8.5
SAH from Cerebral Aneurysm Rupture d . What is t h e side effect o f etomidate? e. G u a rd against this side effect by
lowers seizu re th reshold using preoperative antiepileptic d rugs
21 .
Complete the following about intraoperative aneurysm rupture ( IAR): a . True or Fa lse. I ntraoperative aneurysm ru ptu re increases the morbid ity and morta lity of surgery th reefold. b. True or Fa lse. Tech niques to decrease the proba bil ity of i ntraoperative ru ptu re include i. preventi ng hypertension ii. minimizing bra i n retraction iii. sharp vs. b l u nt d issection iv. radical remova l of sphenoid wing c. List the th ree general stages of aneurysm su rgery d u ring which intraoperative ru ptu re is most likely to occur.
d.
D u ring which o f these three stages i s intraoperative ru ptu re most likely to occu r?
22. True or False. During intraoperative rupture by clip application, bleeding reduces as clip blades approximate. Complete the following about aneurysm recurrence after treatment: a . C a n a n incompletely clipped aneurysm bleed? b. Ca n an incom pletely coiled aneurysm bleed? c. Ca n a n aneurysm that has been completely obliterated recur and bleed?
79.8.6
true
true true true true stage 1 = i n itial exposu re, stage 2 = dissection of the aneurysm , and stag e 3 = clip application dissection o f aneurysm ( stage 2) fa lse
23.
79.8.6
79.8.7
yes-0.4 to 0.8% per yea r yes-0 . 1 6% per yea r yes-0.37% per yea r
437
IB
80 Aneurysm Type by Location
•
Anterior Com municating Artery Aneurysms 1 . Complete the following: a . T h e most common site o f ruptu red aneurysms is b. Diabetes insipidus and/or hypothalamic dysfu nction can be the presenting sym ptoms of an aneurysm of the
80 . 1 . 1
A-commA A-commA
2.
Complete the following about aneurysm type by location: a. The single most common site for an aneurysm is b. Su barachnoid hemorrhage from a n Acom m aneurysm ru ptu re is associated with an intracerebral hematoma i n what percentage of cases? c. The most common site for su barachnoid blood on a CT associated with A-com m aneurysm ru ptu re is
d.
I n what percentage of cases?
3. Complete the following: a . Vasospasm from A-com m aneurysm ru ptu re can ca use bilatera l ACA infa rcts in the frontal lobes and result in the sym ptoms of and b. Frontal lobe infa rcts occur in % of cases of A-comm aneurysm ru ptu re. c. This resu lts i n a vi rtual -like lobotomy. 4. True or False. Regarding A-comm aneurysms: a . I t is u n necessa ry t o assess t h e side from which an A-com m aneurysm fil l s by angiogra phy beca use a l l A-comm aneurysms should be a pproached from the right side.
80. 1 . 2
A-commA 63%
a nterior interhemispheric fissure virtua l ly 1 00% 80. 1 . 2
a pathy and a b u l ia
20% prefrontal 8 0 . 1 .4
fa lse
Aneurysm Type by Location Surgical a pproaches to an A-comm aneurysm include i. pterional approach ii. a nterior interhem ispheric approach iii. tra nsca l losa l approach iv. su bfronta l approach c. The two most common sites for dista l ACA aneurysms a re i. term inal perica l losa l a rtery ii. term inal ca llosomarg i n a l a rtery iii. frontopolar a rtery orig in iv. bifu rcation of perica llosal and ca llosomarginal arteries above the splenium of the corpus ca llosum
439
b.
5. There are three indications for left pterional craniotomy for A-comm aneurysm. a . pointing to b. feeder from c. m u ltiple
•
true true true true fa lse fa lse true true
80 . 1 .4
the rig ht the left ACA additional left-sided aneurysm(s)
Distal Anterior Cerebral Artery Aneurysms 6.
Pericallosal aneurysms are anatomically close t o which part of the corpus callosum?
7. True or False. Regarding ACA and AcommA aneurysms and approaches. a. i. The more d ista l ly located ACA aneurysms a re genera l ly d u e to posttra u matic, infectious, or embolic etiologies. ii. Aneurysms u p to 1 em from the AcommA may be a pproached thro u gh a sta ndard pterional cra niotomy. iii. Aneurysms > 1 em dista l to the AcommA may a lso be easily approached through a pterional cra niotomy with partial gyrus rectus resection. iv. ACA aneurysms dista l to the genu of the corpus ca llosum may be approached via an i nterhemispheric route. b. Prolonged retraction of the ci n g u l ate gyrus d u ring an interhemispheric approach may result in a foot d rop that is usually tem porary.
genu
80.2. 1
true
80.2. 1
true
80.2.2
fa lse
true
fa lse
Neurosurgery Books
g
IB
440 8.
•
Part 1 7: SAH and Aneurysms Which approach should be used for aneurysms > 1 em distal to A-comm?
basal fronta l i nterhemispheric a pproach, rig ht side preferred
80.2.2
Posterior Communicating Artery Aneu rysms 9 . Complete t h e following: a . Which aneurysm presents with a third nerve palsy? b. What is the status of the pupil? c. What position does the eye have at rest? d . I f d u e t o P-co mm, t h e pupil i s e. beca use pupillary fibers run on the of the third nerve. f. If d u e to dia betes, the pupil is g . beca use motor fibers ru n in the part of the third nerve and a re affected by pathology of the
8 0 .3 . 1
posterior com m u nicati ng a rtery dilated "down and out" not spa red surface spared deeper; vasa nervorum
__
1 0. True or False. Regarding P-comm aneurysms. a . Third nerve palsies associated with Pcomm aneurysms a re not pupil sparing in 99% of cases. b. P-comm aneurysms most com monly occur at the ju nction of the P-comm with the PCA. c. Before clipping a P-comm aneurysm , the orig in of the a nterior choroidal a rtery m u st be identified and excluded from the clip. d. Most P-co m m aneurysms project latera l ly, i nferiorly, and posteriorly. 1 1 . What congenital anomaly must be discovered on angiogram prior to surgery for P-comm aneurysm?
•
80. 3 . 1
true fa lse true
true feta l orig in of the PCA
80.3.2
Supraclinoid Aneurysms 1 2. What is the name of the dural constriction around the carotid artery a . as i t exits t h e cavernous sinus? b. as it enters the subarachnoid space? 1 3.
a. b. c. d.
List the supraclinoid branches of the I CA. { H int: ospa) 0
s p a
h c c
80.6. 1
proxi m a l ca rotid ri ng d ista l ca rotid ri ng or clinoidal ri ng 80.6. 1
ophtha lmic su perior hypophysea l posterior com m u n icating a nterior choroidal
Aneurysm Type by Location 1 4. a.
b. 1 5.
Ophthalmic artery aneurysms a rise just dista l to the orig in of the and project Name two major presentations of ophthalmic artery aneurysms.
a. s b. v i.
ii.
1 6. a.
b. c. d. e.
True or Fa lse. A su perior nasal homonymous q u a d ra nta nopsia usually means i m pingement on the latera l portion of the optic nerve. True or Fa lse. An ipsilatera l monocu lar inferior nasal field cut may result from com pression of the optic nerve against the fa lciform ligament.
Complete the following: List the two va ria nts of su perior hypophysea l a rtery aneurysms. i. p ii. s Which va riant of su perior hypophysea l artery aneurysm can mimic pitu ita ry tumor clin ica lly and on CT? Under what circumsta nces? I t may present clinica l ly with and visual symptoms of
Complete the following: On angiogra m , a notch in a giant ophth a l m ic a rtery aneurysm is due to the b. The notch , if present, is located in the aspect.
1 7. a.
1 8. Complete the following: a . What happens i f you occl ude the ophth a l m ic a rtery? b. True or Fa lse. A contra latera l ophtha lmic aneurysm is rare. c. If present, can both be clipped at the same surgery? 1 9. Answer the following: a . C a n you sacrifice a su perior hypophysea l a rtery? b. Can you clip a contra latera l superior hypophysea l aneurysm?
441
80.6.2
ophth a l m ic a rtery dorsomedially 80.6.2
SAH (45%) visual field defect (45%) fa lse
true
80.6.2
paracl inoid suprasel lar suprase l l a r va riant when it is a giant aneurysm hypopitu ita rism bitem pora l hemianopsia 80.6.2
optic nerve a nterior-su perior-med ial 80.6.3
It is tolerated without loss of vision i n most patients. fa lse yes 80.6.3
Yes, the pitu ita ry receives bilatera l blood supply. No, this is not tech nica l ly feasible.
g
442 •
Part 1 7: SAH and Aneurysms
Posterior Circulation Aneurysms Matching. Match the frequency of posterior circulation aneurysms compared with anterior circulation aneurysms to the lettered conditions. CD same freq uency; 0 posterior is more frequent a. clinical synd rome of SAH b. respi ratory a rrest c. neurogenic p u l monary edema d. mid brain synd rome from vasospasm e. hyd rocepha l u s
20.
21 . True or False. 20% of patients with a posterior fossa SAH will require permanent ventricular shunting. 22. Regarding vertebral artery aneurysms. a . T h e preoperative angiogra m shou ld assess the patency of the in the event that trapping is necessa ry. b. The Allcock test involves vertebral ang iography with to assess the patency of the circle of Wi llis. c. Vertebra l a rtery (VA) aneurysms most commonly occur at the j u n ction of the with the d. True or Fa lse. Nontra u m atic VA aneurysms a re more common than dissecti ng, tra u m atic VA aneurysms. 23. Complete the following regarding PICA aneurysms: % of cerebra l a . They represent aneurysms. b. The most common site is at j u n ction. c. Aneurysms fa r more dista l on PICA tend to be and therefore should be treated d . Blood from ru ptu re is predomina ntly i n the 24. Complete the following: a . T h e most common site for a posterior circu lation aneurysm is the _ _ _
CD 0 0 0 0 true
80. 7 . 1
80.7.2 80.7.2
80.7.3
contra latera l vertebra l a rtery
ca rotid compression VA; PICA fa lse
80.7.3
3% VA-PICA fragile; prom ptly fou rth ventricle 80.7.6
basilar tip
Aneurysm Type by Location b. True or Fa lse. Regarding basil a r tip aneurysms. i. S u rgical treatment is associated with a 5% overa l l morta lity rate. ii. S u rgical approaches include pterional and supracerebellar infratentoria l routes. iii. Beca use of the tech nical difficu lties associated with clipping basilar aneurysms many stil l recommend waiting u p to 1 week prior to su rgery. iv. The morbid ity rate of 1 2% is mostly due to perforati ng vessel inj u ry. 25.
a. b. c.
On angiography the following characteristics should be noted about basilar artery aneurysms: Di rection d o m e poi nts? P-comm cha racteristics i. P-comm ii. may need Bifu rcation cha racteristics: i. Assess position of ii. in relation to iii. If high, use
iv. If low, use 26.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h.
Matching. Match the numbered approaches to the conditions for the basilar artery aneurysm surgical approach. Approach: CD su btemporal approach; 0 pterional approach Conditions: (a-h) below bifurcation is high aneurysm projects posteriorly/ posteriorly inferiorly low bifu rcation concomitant a nterior circu lation aneurysms for better visual ization of P1 and thalamoperforati ng vessels for less tem pora l lobe retraction for shorter dista nce (by 1 em) prod uces a risk to third nerve (mild and tem porary)
true fa lse true
true 80.7.6
usually superiorly flow Al lcock test bifu rcation dorsum sella pterional tra nssylvian approach s u btem poral a pproach 80.7.6
0 CD CD 0 0 0 CD 0
27. What is the % risk of oculomotor palsy 30% by the pterional approach? 28.
a. b.
Complete the following about basilar artery aneurysms: Morta l ity i s %. Morbid ity i s %.
443
80.7.6
80.7.6
5% 1 2%
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Ill 8 1 Special Aneurysms and Non-Aneurysmal SAH
•
Unruptured Aneurysms Complete the following about unruptured aneurysms: a. Estimated prevalence of incidenta l aneurysms is _ - _% o f the popu lation. b. An n u a l risk of ru ptu re of aneurysms < 1 0 mm estimated by ISUIA is but other studies suggest the risk is closer to
1.
_ _ _ _
5 - 1 0% 0.05%/year; 1 %/yea r
81.1.1
8 1 . 1 .3
_ _ _ _
2.
Complete the following about surgical management of unruptured aneurysms: a . Surgical morbid ity is esti mated t o be % and morta l ity %. b. 3 factors used to determ ine whether to ,p a treat a re s and I c. Treatment should also be recom mended for patients with h of a s ,s f h , s a , and e or c c in a
8 1 . 1 .4
2%; 6%
____
___
size, patient age; location
_ _ _
_ _ _
__
__
__
___
__
___
_ _ _ _
__
_ _ _
Cavernous carotid artery aneurysms: Most develop on t h e h segment of the a rtery. b. Usually present with h or c s s c. Cavernous sinus synd rome prod uces d and t n p that is pupil-s d . When these aneurysm s ru ptu re, they usually prod uce a c -c f .
3. a.
_ _ _
_ _ _ _
_ _ _
_ _ _
__
4.
a. b.
___
history of aneurysmal SAH , strong fa m i ly history, sym ptomatic aneurysms; enlargement or change in aneurysm config u ration 8 1 . 1 .4
horizonta l headache; cavernous sinus synd rome d iplopia ; third nerve palsy; sparing a ca rotid-cavernous fistu la
__
Indications for treatment of cavernous carotid artery aneurysms: (Hint: gees) giant aneurysm g e enlarging aneurysm _ _ _ _
_ _ _ _
Neurosurgery Books
8 1 . 1 .4
Special Aneurysms and Non-Aneurysmal SAH c. e d. s
before endarterectomy sym ptomatic
_ _ _ _
_ _ _ _
5. Treatment options for cavernous a.
carotid artery aneurysms: Preferred treatment tech nique i s e o s___ t___ is rarely appropriate.
8 1 . 1 .4
endovascu l a r
_ _ _
b.
•
open surgical treatment
M ultiple Aneurysms Complete the following about multiple aneurysms: a . Present in % of SAH cases. b. When a patient presents with SAH and is found to have m u ltiple aneurysms, the fol lowing clues ca n be used to determ ine the source of SAH : (Hint: evi l ) i. e ii. v iii. iv.
6.
_
•
___
8 1 .2
1 5-33 . 5 %
epicenter of blood vasospasm on ang iogra m irreg u l a rities in shape largest aneurysm
Familial Aneurysms 7. Complete t h e following about familial aneurysms: a . I n patients with SAH , % have a 1 st-degree relative with SAH or aneurysm and % have a 2nddeg ree relative. b. Most common relative to also have a n aneurysm is a s c. Aneurysms in siblings occur at i or m i location. d. Fa milial aneurysms tend to ru ptu re at a s size and at a y age. 8. Screening recommendations for familial aneurysms: a . Recom mended for f -d relatives of affected fa m i ly mem bers when or more fa m i ly mem bers have a n aneurysm or history of SAH . b . Also recom mended in patients with or with c of the a A c. Screen using M or e sca ns. d. To confirm findings, use D
81 .3.1
9.4%; 1 4% sibling identica l ; mi rror image smal ler; younger 8 1 .3.3
first-degree; 2
coa rctation of the aorta ; ADPKD M RA; CTA DSA
445
Part 1 7: SAH and Aneurysms
446 •
Traumatic Aneurysms 9 . Complete t h e following about traumatic aneurysms: a. Represent % of aneurysms. b. They are not rea lly aneurysms but a re
c.
P·----
Mechanisms of inj u ry resu lting in tra u matic aneurysms include ,c t p , a nd i h
_ _ _ _
8 1 .4. 1
<1 % pseudoa neurysms penetrating tra u m a , closed h e a d i nj u ry; iatrogenic
_ _ _ _
•
Mycotic Aneu rysms 1 0.
a.
Complete the following about mycotic aneurysms: T h e etiology for these aneurysm s i s i Represent % of aneurysms. Most common location is d M b Often associated with su bacute bacteria l e I nfectious work-up includes b c ,I p , and e F morphology m a kes surgical treatment difficult and/or risky, and so treated acutely with weeks of antibiotics. Delayed clipping indicated in patients with S and with f response to a ntibiotics.
infectious
81 .5.1
_ _ _ _
b. c.
_ _ _
4% dista l MCA branches
8 1 .5.2
_ _ _
d.
endoca rd itis
_ _ _
e.
_ _ _
blood cultures, l u m bar puncture; echo
8 1 .5.3
_ _ _
f.
__
g.
8 1 .5.4
__
_ _ _
•
Fusiform ; 4-6 weeks SAH ; fa iled
Giant Aneurysms 11.
a. b. c.
Complete the following about giant aneurysms: Defined as a n aneurysm > em. Represent % of aneurysms. Present with h ,T e or m DSA often u size of aneurysm due to t pa rts that do not fi l l with contrast. Di rect surgical clipping is possible in only % of cases. Other surgical treatment options include b fol l owed by c t ,I , or w __ - __
_ _ _ _
____
d. e.
_ _ _
2.5 3-5% hemorrhage, TIA; mass effect underestimates; throm bosed 50%
____
f.
__ _ _
_ __ _
bypass; clipping, trapping, ligatio n ; wra pping
81 .6.1
8 1 .6.2
8 1 .6.3
Special Aneurysms and Non-Aneurysmal SAH •
SAH of Unknown Etiology SAH of unknown etiology: "Angiogram-negative SAH" occu rs in _ _% of cases. b. Ca uses i. i angiogra phy. M u st see both P orig ins and A ii. Aneurysm obscured by h of aneurysm . iii. t iv. Aneurysms too s to be see n . of v. Lack of fil l i n g d u e to v parent vessel . vi . Repeat ang iog ra m is recommended after _ - _ days. vii . If t h e fi rst 2 a ngiog rams a re negative, a third an giogram is recommended after % months and has a chance of revea ling a sou rce of SAH .
1 2. a.
-
•
7 - 1 0%
81 .8.1
inadequate; PICA; AComm hemorrhage throm bosis small vasospasm 1 0- 1 4
8 1 .8.3
3-6; 1%
-
Pretruncal Nona neurysmal SAH (PNSAH ) 1 3. SAH of unknown etiology: s a . Also known as p which is a misnomer since b. hemorrhage is located in front of the centered in front of the b p c. Perimesencephalic cisterns include: ( H int: Iraq) i. ii. r iii. a iv. q d. Considered to be a b condition with g outcome, I risk of rebleed ing, and I risk of compared to patients with v SAH of u n known etiology. % of an giogra m e. Represent negative SAH . f. Repeat ang iography is n ind icated. g. Ma nagement does not include or e h t b c g iven low risk of vasospasm. h . Hyd rocephalus req u i ring shu nting occu rs in %. __
__
peri mesencephalic SAH
81 .9.1
brainste m ; pons
interpenduncular crura l am bient q u a d rigeminal benig n ; good ; less; less; vasospasm 20-68%
8 1 .9.3
not
8 1 .9.6
hyperdynamic therapy; ca lcium channel blockers 1%
8 1 .9.7
447
a
c
r Malformations
�� •
General I nformation and Classification Complete the following about vascular malformations: a . 4 classic types include A c ,c ,D is the most preva lent type, b. A accou nti ng for _ - _% of vascu l a r ma lformations. c. A direct fistula is a lso known as A and includes V of G m , d, A , a nd C
1.
_ _ _ _
_____ _
__
_ _ _
_ _ _ _
•
82.1
AVM , cavernoma, ca pillary telang iectasia, DVA AVM ; 44-60% AVF; Vein of Galen ma lformation , d u ra l AVF; CCF
Arteriovenous Malformation (AVM ) 2. Complete the following about AVMs: a . Arterial blood flows d i rectly from a to v without norm a l b but interposed c with n instead. b. C rather than acq u i red. c. Associated with the hereditary synd rome 0 -W -R a lso known as h h t. _ _ _
___ _
82.2.1
a rteries; vei ns; ca pillary beds; nidus Congenita l Osler-Weber- Ren d u ; hered ita ry hemorrhagic telang iectasia
_____ _
3. AVM presentation: a . Average a g e o f patients diag nosed with AVMs is b. AVM s most commonly present with h c. Another common presentation is s _ __ _ _
_____
33 yea rs-old
82.2.4
hemorrhage
82.2.5
seizu res
____
4. AVMs and hemorrhage a . Peak a g e for hemorrhage is _ - _. %. b. Morta l ity for each bleed is c. Morbid ity for each bleed is _ - _%.
82.2.5
1 5-20 yea rs-old 1 0% 30-50%
Vascular Malformations d.
Most common site for hemorrhage i s , present in % of cases. Other sites include I , and s h S ____
e.
_ _ _ _
_ _ _ _
5. Risk factors related to AVM rupture: a . S m a l l AVMs present more often a s h , whereas l a rge AVMs present with s b. D venous d rainage and prior h a re also associated with AVM ru ptu re.
intra parenchym a l ; 82% I V H , SAH ; subdura l hematoma 82.2.5
hemorrhage; seizu res
_ __
Deep; hemorrhage
6. Risk of AVM rupture: a . Average risk of hemorrhage from an 2-4% AVM is _ - _% per yea r. 73% b. What is the risk of bleed ing (at least once) from a n AVM d u ring the lifeti me of a 35 yea r-old hea lthy male, assuming a 3% a n n u a l bleed ing risk?
82.2.5
7. AVMs and aneurysms: a. % of patients with AVMs have aneurysms. b. Aneu rysms associated with AVMs usually arise from a f a rtery. c. If it is not clear which bled, the AVM or the aneurysm , it is usually the a d . D o aneurysm s reg ress after AVM remova l?
82.2.5
7% feeder aneurysm
_ _ _
M RI characteristics of AVMs: F v on Tl - or T2weig hted imaging. b. Presence of e ca n help differentiate AVM from t. c. A complete hemosiderin ring suggests AVM over t d . What seq uence best shows hemosiderin?
8. a.
_ _ _ _
yes (66%) 82.2.6
Flow voids edema; tumor tumor
___ _
9. Spetzler-Martin grading of AVMs: a. G rade ra nges from to
b.
G raded features of a n AVM include s ,e of and p of c. The Spetzler-M arti n g rade of a 4 em AVM that d rains into the vein of Galen and is located in the visual cortex is d . This AVM h a s a major s u rgical morbid ity of % and a minor surgical %. morbid ity of ___ _
_____
_ _ _ ___ _
g rad ient echo 82.2.7
1 to 5 size, eloquence of adjacent bra i n ; pattern of venous d rainage 4
___ _
7%; 20%
____
Neurosurgery Books
449
Part 1 8: Vascular Malformations
450 1 0.
a.
Complete the following about AVM treatment: T h e treatment o f choice for AVMs i s s Su rgery eliminates the risk of bleed ing a l m ost i Conventional radiation is effective in less than % of cases. SRS takes _ - _ years t o work. Endovascu lar em bol ization: i. Does not permanently o AVMs. ii. Does f surgery. changes. iii. I n d uces acute h proced u res. iv. May req u i re m What pretreatment can be used to red u ce the incidence of norm a l perfusion pressu re brea kth rough?
82.2.8
su rgery
_ _ _
b.
im mediately
___ _
c. d. e.
f.
•
1 -3 obliterate facil itate hemodynamic mu ltiple propranolol 20 mg fou r times a day for 3 days
Venous Angiomas 11.
a.
Complete the following about venous angiomas: Also known as d ____ v a Demonstrable on ang iography as a s pattern. Seizu res a re r Hemorrhage is r L -flow, ! -pressure lesions. What is the treatment of choice? _ _ _ _
___ _
b. c. d. e. f.
•
20%
_ _ _
___ _
___
___
developmenta l venous a nomaly ( DVA ) sta rbu rst rare rare Low; low no treatment needed
8 2 .3 . 1
82.3.3
Angiog ra phica l ly Occu lt Vascular Malformations 1 2. Angiographically occult vascular malformation {AOVM) presentation: a . T h e incidence o f ang iographica l ly occu lt vascu l a r ma lformations is %. b. They most often present with s or h rather tha n h, c. The most common an giog raphica l ly occu lt vascu l a r malformation is A
__ _
•
_ _ _ _
1 0% seizu res or headache; hemorrhage AVM
82.4.2
8 2 .4.3
__
•
Osler-Weber-Rendu Synd rome 1 3. a.
Capillary telangiectasias: Usually found i without sign ifica nce. c b. Usually s but may be m when seen as part of a synd rome.
_ _ _
82.5.1
incidental ly; clinical sol ita ry; m u ltiple
Vascular Malformations c.
Synd romes include 0 R ,L -B M ,S -W
•
-W ,M
___
___
___
___
-
- Osler-Weber-Rendu (aka hered ita ry hemorrhagic telang iectasia), Louis-Barr (aka ataxia telang iectasia), Myburn-Mason, Stu rge Weber
Cavernous Ma lformation 1 4. Cavernous malformations: a . Most often present with s. b. They are an giographica l ly o _ c. Account for _ _% of all CNS vascu lar ma lformations. d . Present with i. s i n 60%. n deficit in ii. p 50%. iii. h in 20%. iv. finding in 50%. _ _ _ _ __
1 5. a.
b. c. d. e. f. g.
1 6.
a. b. c.
Cavernous malformation genetics: Cavernous ma lformations c a n occur or i n a h form . s M lesions a re more common in form. the h genetic su btypes. There a re CCM l su btype is more common in H Genetic su btypes a re inherited in a n pattern with a d v expressivity. DVA may be seen adjacent to s cavernous malformations. -d F relatives of patients with more than one fa mily member having a cavernous ma lformation should have M RI s and appropriate g cou nsel i n g. Cavernous malformation bleeding risk: Risk o f significa nt bleed ing is _ - _% per yea r. Bleeding risk is higher in f p , a nd h ,p a re not clearly risk factors for p hem orrhage. ( H i nt: 3 Ps)
seizu res occult 5 - 1 3%
82.6. 1
82.6.3
82.6.5
seizures prog ressive neurological hemorrhage incidenta l 82.6.4
sporadica l ly; hered ita ry M u ltiple; hered ita ry 3 Hispanics a utosomal dominant; va riable sol ita ry Fi rst-degree; screening; genetic
82.6.5
2-3% females Prior hemorrhage, preg nancy; partu rition
451
452
Part 1 8: Vascular Malformations
Radiographic evaluation of cavernous malformations: a . T h e most sensitive test is M b. The most sensitive sequence is T -e G c. Display a pathog nomonic p pattern.
1 7.
IE
Management of cavernous malformations: a . Three treatment options include , or S s 0 ' b. N ew onset seizu res may be a n indication for s beca use remova l before k may red u ce futu re seizu res. should not be considered as c. s a n a lternative to s
82.6.6
M RI G radient-echo T2WI popcorn
1 8.
•
observation, surgery; SRS surgery; kind ling SRS; su rgery
Dural Arteriovenous Fistulae ( DAVF) 1 9.
a. b. c. d. e. f.
g.
•
82.6.7
Complete the following about dural arteriovenous fistulae: Arteriovenous s h u nt is conta ined with in the d Most common location is t fs rather than Considered to be a lesions. c Pri mary etiology is v s t Most common presenti ng symptom is p t with v d c v h is the most common cause of morbid ity and morta lity, and thus is the strongest ind ication for t D is req u i red to establish the diag nosis.
d u ra
82.7.1
transverse/sigmoid sinus acq u i red ; congenita l venous sinus throm bosis
82.7.2
pulsati le ti n n itus
82.7.4
Cortical venous d rainage with venous hypertension; treatment DSA
82.7.5
choroidal a rteries
82.8.1
medial vein of the prosencephalon hyd rocepha l us ; congestive heart fa i l u re 60-1 00%
82.8.2
Vein of Galen Malformation 20. Vein of Galen malformation: a . Feeders a re pri marily from c a b. Drainage is into the m v of the p c. Trigger symptoms by ca using h f h and c d . I f u ntreated morta l ity is _ - _%.
82.8.4
Vascular Malformations •
Carotid-Cavernous Fistula 21 .
a. b.
Complete the following about carotid cavernous fistulae: Classified as d and i types. Type A: h -flow s h u nt between I and c s Type B: I -flow s h u nt with feeders b from m of I Type C: I -flow s h u nt with feeders from m b of E Type D: I -flow s h u nt with feeders from b of I and E Di rect CCF occurs in % of head tra u m a patients. % of low-flow CCF sponta neously t U t is usually ind icated for h -flow CCF. is a n other Preservation of v critica l ind ication for treatment. E e is the treatment of choice. _ __
__ _
c.
__
___
d. e.
__
_ _ _
___
di rect; indirect high; ICA; cavernous s i n u s low; meningeal branches of ICA low; meningeal branches of ECA
82.9. 1
low; branches of ICA and ECA
__ _
f. g.
____
_
_
__ _
h.
___
i. j.
____
0.2% 20-50%; throm bose Urgent treatment; high vision Endovascu l a r embolization
82.9.4
453
83 General Information and Stroke Physiology
•
Definitions 1 . Types of cerebral infarction: a . TIA = t neuronal dysfu nction acute infa rctio n . without p death b. Ischemic infa rction = p of neurons caused by inadequate p c. Watershed infarct = infa rction located in a rterial distri butions. two b
•
bordering
Cerebrovascular Hemodynamics 2. a.
Cerebrovascular hemodynamics: is Cerebra l blood flow associated with i and if prolonged wi l l prod uce c d . b. Types of responses of cerebral blood flow to vasodilator challenge with a ___ i. Type 1 = n baseline CBF with %i baseline CBF ii. Type 2 = d with %i baseline CBF iii. Type 3 = d , suggesti ng with d s phenomenon. __
-
•
83.1
tra nsient; perma nent perm anent; perfusion
__
-
<20; ischem ia ; cel l death acetazolamide
83.2. 1
83.2.4
norm a l ; 30-60% increase decreased ; <1 0% increase decreased ; decrease; steal
Collateral Circu lation 3. Collateral circulation: of W a . Flow through C b. via a a rtery and c a rtery. p c c. Also r flow th rough o a rtery. -I d . Also d anastomoses.
8 3 .3 . 1
Circle of Willis a nterior com m u nicati n g ; posterior com m u nicating retrograde; ophthalmic d u ral-leptomeningeal
Neurosurgery Books
General Information and Stroke Physiology •
"Occlusion" Syndromes 4. a.
" Occlusion" syndromes Overa l l a n n u a l ischemic stroke risk in symptomatic ICA occlusion is %. A synd rome and B synd rome a re caused by occlusion of p c a Bilatera l thalamic and mesencephalic infa rctions a re ca used by occlusion of a rtery of P Eponym for latera l med u l l a ry synd rome is W s _ This synd rome is classica l ly attri buted to P occlusion but in _ % of cases involves the v a This synd rome also prod uces only s loss and no m fu nction loss. Small infa rcts in deep cerebrum or brainstem a re ca lled I strokes. Pure sensory loss ind icates lacunar stroke in p t. Pure hemiparesis ind icates lacu nar stroke in p I of c
83.4. 1
7%
__
b.
_ _ _ _
Anton; Bali nt; posterior cerebral artery
_____
c.
Percheron
_ _ _
d.
Wa llenberg's syn d rome
_ _
e.
_
_____
PICA; 80-85%; vertebra l a rtery
_ _ _
f.
_ _ _
g. h. i.
_ __ __ _
_______
•
sensory; motor lacu nar posteroventra l tha l a m u s posterior l i m b ; interna l ca psule
_ _ _
Stroke in Young Adu lts Stroke in young adults: Only % of ischemic strokes occur in patients who a re yea rs-old. b. Most common cause is t. %. c. Other causes include a e ,h ,v s , and p
5. a.
___ __ _
___ __ _
3%; <40 yea rs-old tra u m a , 22%
83.5.1
83.5.2
____
___ __ _
_____
____
__ _ ____
•
atherosclerosis, embolism, vascu lopathy, hypercoagulable state; peripartum
Atherosclerotic Carotid Artery Disease 6. Atherosclerotic carotid artery disease: a . Ca rotid a rtery lesions a re considered symptomatic if there is o or m ischemic episodes in the d of the vessel . b . They are considered asym ptomatic i f the patient only has non-specific v com plaints, d , or s not associated with TIA or stroke. _____
__
one; more; d istri bution vis u a l ; d izziness; syncope
83.6.2
455
Part 1 9: Stroke and Occlusive Cerebrovascular Disease
456 c. d.
% of atherosclerotic ca rotid strokes occur without wa rning sym ptoms. Asym ptomatic ca rotid stenosis is usually discovered as a c b Accu racy of a bruit pred icti ng ca rotid stenosis is _ _%. Screening for ca rotid stenosis may be considered for patients who a re o than yea rs old and risk factors. have m u ltiple c T h e gold sta ndard test t o evalu ate ca rotid stenosis is D Percent stenosis b y NASCET criteria i s ____ (form ula), where N is measured at maximal n and D to the is measured d b c Percent stenosis by ECST criteria is ____ (form u l a ) , where N is measured at maximal n and B is measured at the c b. -:----:Doppler u ltrasound sensitivity ____ % and specificity ____ %. M RA sensitivity % a nd specificity %. C TA sensitivity % and specificity %. __
80% ca rotid bruit
___ _
e. f.
g.
50-83% older than 5 5 yea rs old; cardiovascu lar
83.6.3
DSA
_ _ _ _
h.
[ 1 -(N/ D)]x1 00%; na rrowi n g ; d ista l ; ca rotid b u l b
_ _ _
i.
( 1 -(N/ B)]x1 00%; na rrowi n g ; ca rotid b u l b
___ _
_
j. k. I. 7.
a.
Medical treatment for carotid stenosis: Incl udes a nti-p , a nti-h a nti-c , a nti-1 , a ntid , a n d a nti-s Aspirin i rreversibly i n h ibits c _ Optimal dose of Aspirin for cerebrovascu l a r ischemia is d Aspirin red uces risk o f stroke fol l owing TIA by _ - _%. Daily doses of 8 1 or 3 2 5 mg were b than higher doses. Plavix i n h ibits A -induced platelet fibrinogen binding
_ _ _
___ _
b. c.
_ _
88%; 76% 9 1 %; 88% 85%; 93% 83.6.4
a nti-platelet, -hypertensive, -coa g u lation, -lipid, -dia betic, -smoking cyclooxygenase debated
__ _
d. e. f.
8. Asymptomatic carotid stenosis: a . Stroke rate is __% p e r yea r. b. _% of these strokes a re not d c. Ca rotid endarterectomy may be better than medical management if stenosis ____ %. d . 2 m a i n studies com pa ring s u rgical vs. medical management of asym ptomatic and ca rotid stenosis a re A A
_ __
_ _ _
2 5-30% better ADP 83.6.4
2% 50%; disabling >60% ACST, ACAS
84 Evaluation and Treatment for Stroke
•
Rationale for Acute Stroke Treatment 1 . Penumbra: a . Tissue at r that retains for a period of t. v through su boptimal perfusion from c is ca lled the p b. The goal of stroke treatments is p of this s neuronal inj u ry. ___
84. 1 . 1
risk; via bil ity; time; col laterals; pen u m bra
__ _
•
prevention; secondary
Eval uation 2. Key components of history: a . Tim e last seen n s s b. N s Role of CT scan: Used m a i n ly to ru le-out h H a sign can be seen hours after stroke, but on CT it has low s c. At 24 hours, stroke identified as I density on CT. d. M effect reaches a maxi m u m _ - _ days after t h e stroke. e. CT enha ncement in stroke: (Hint: ru le of 2's) % enhance at days, % enha nce at months.
3. a. b.
4. a.
b. c.
Other imaging studies: CTA is used t o identify location a n d extent of v 0 CT perfusion identifies salvageable p CBF with in I nfa rcted core has d CBV. reg ion of d
84.2 . 1
normal NIH Stroke Sca le score 84. 2 . 2
hemorrhage Hyperdense a rtery; <6 hours; sensitivity low Mass; 2-4 days 2%; 2 ; 2%; 2
vascu l a r occlusion
84. 2 . 3
pen u m bra
84.2.4
decreased ; decreased
458
Part 1 9: Stroke and Occlusive Cerebrovascular Disease
d.
Pen u m bra has d CBV w d CBF; m between CBF and CBV. than CT . e. M RI is more s particu l a rly in fi rst hours after stroke. _ _ _
5. a.
b. c. d.
NIH stroke scale score: Higher score correlates with more p vessel occl usion. Com plete hemia nopia adds points. Severe aphasia adds points. Performance o f a l l com mands adds points.
decreased ; without decreased ; mismatch sensitive ; 24 hours
84.2 . 1
84. 2 . 8
proxi m a l 2 2 0
____
•
Ma nagement of TIA or Stroke 6. Management of ischemic stroke a . Withi n 4.5 hours o f symptom onset, patient may be a ca ndidate for I t. b. 4.5-6 hours after onset, may use I t or m t c. 6-8 hours after onset, may perform m t after checki ng p sca n. d. P circulation strokes may be treated more a.
84.3 . 1
IV tPA
_ _ _
_ _ _ _
_ _ _
IA tPA; mechanical throm bectomy
_ __ _
_ _ _ _
7. Tissue plasminogen activator: a . Alteplase t. b. IV tPA contraind ications include: i. i ii. known or iii. active iv. a nti v. platelet count vi . h t ,s , or within past b s months vii . SBP > c. After admin istering tPA, a nticoa g u l ation and a nti platelets a re held for hours. d . There is increased risk for s i h with use of tPA, but no increased risk of m =
___ _
_ _ _ _
_ _ _ _
___ _
_ _ _ _
mechanical throm bectomy; perfusion Posterior; agg ressively 84. 3 . 2
tPA intracerebral hem orrhage aneurysm or AVM internal bleed ing a nticoag u l ation < l OOK head tra u m a , stroke, bra i n surgery; 3 months
____
_ _ _ _
1 85 mmHg 2 4 hours
_ _ _ _
_ _ _
_ _ _
symptomatic intracerebral hemorrhage; mortal ity
Evaluation and Treatment for Stroke 8. Blood pressure guidelines: a.
b.
84.3.4
I f no prior history o f hypertension, do not lower SBP below _ _ a nd DBP below _ _ If prior history of hypertension, do not lower SBP below _ _ a nd DBP below _ _
9. Anticoagulation in ischemic stroke: a . American Heart Association recommended the use of heparin by the remains a matter of p treati ng physician. b. Effectiveness of heparin is u n p roven except with c stroke. c. Stop wa rfa ri n after months. d. A should be admin istered to most patients. •
1 60-1 70; 95- 1 05 1 80-1 8 5 ; 1 05 - 1 1 0 84.3.4
preference
ca rdioembolic 6 Aspirin 3 2 5 mg
Carotid Endarterectomy Symptomatic carotid stenosis: A__ NASCET sta nds for N S C E__ T b. Ca rotid endarterectomy (CEA) for symptomatic ca rotid stenosis % red uces strokes by % at 1 8 months and red u ces death by % at 1 8 months. days after c. O n ly need to wa it acute stroke to perform CEA.
1 0. a.
_
_
North America n Sym ptomatic Ca rotid Endarterectomy Trial
84.4 . 1
_ _ __
>70%; 1 7%; 7%
____ ____
1 1 . CEA surgery complications: a. days before surgery patient , which should be sta rted on a should be c the day of s u rgery. 24-48 hours b. Aspirin should be h postop. c. Morbid ity a bsol ute u pper limit is %. %. d. In-hospita l morta lity is e. List postop com p lications: (H int: ch 4 a rm2s2) n i. c ii. h iii. h iv. h v. h vi . a d vii . r viii. m ix. m X. s xi. s
7 days
84.4.4
5· aspirin 3 2 5 m g ; contin ued held 3%
____
____
84.4.2
1% cranial nerve inj u ry headache hoarseness hyperperfusion hypertension arteriotomy disru ption restenosis morbid ity morta l ity seizures stroke
Neurosurgery Books
459
Part 1 9: Stroke and Occlusive Cerebrovascular Disease
460 f.
I n cidence of hypog lossal nerve inj u ry is %. Tongue deviates t the i Hoarseness is most commonly ca used by e and not n i U n i latera l voca l cord para lysis is due to v or r I nerve inj u ry. Lip asym metry is d u e to m b of f nerve inj u ry. Hypertension may occur as a result of s loss of the c b reflex. I ntracerebral hemorrhage occu rs in % and is related to c h I n cidence o f post-op ischemic stroke i s %. Post-op liAs a re usually due to c o but may a lso be d u e to m Late restenosis occu rs in _% at , within 2 yea rs postop it is d u e to f a n d after 2 yea rs it h is d u e to a If liAs occur i n recovery room, then obtain C _ If fixed deficit occu rs in recovery room , then d n obta in CT; instead r ind icated . If a rteriotomy clos u re is disru pted, then fi rst to e o w clot, then have anesthesia i patient, and finally revise endarterectomy in o
1%
____
g. h.
_ _ _
__ _
towa rds the inj u ry edema; nerve inj u ry
_ _ _ _
i. j. k.
_ __
vag u s ; recu rrent laryngea l mandibular branch of facia l ca rotid sinus ba roreceptor
_ _ _ _
I.
_ _ _
____
0.6%; cerebral hyperperfusion
___
m.
5%
____
n.
_ __
ca rotid occl usion; microemboli
_ _ _ _
o.
___
25% at 1 yea r; fi brous hyperplasia; atherosclerosis
_ _ _
p.
CT
__
q. r.
_ _ _
_ _ _
do not; reexploration open wou n d ; evacuate; i ntu bate; OR
_ _ _ _
1 2. CEA surgery technique: d between a. There is n and g the use of I anesthesia. b. Use a s h u nt if there is h to clamping or if s pressu re is c. C f vei n crosses over the ca rotid bifu rcation. nerve is in vicin ity of d. H f v e. S a rtery is fi rst t bra nch of E and helps differentiate E from I f. Place tempora ry clip on s, a t g . Order o f occl usion o f vessels is I C E (H int: ICE). _ __
___ _
____
_ _ _
___ _
_ _ _
_ _ _ _
_ _ _
84.4 . 5
no difference; loca l ; genera l hemodynamic intolerance; stu mp; <25 m m H g Common facial Hypog lossa l ; facia l vein Su perior thyroid a rtery; ECA; ECA; ICA su perior thyroid artery
___ _
___
ICA, CCA, ECA
Evaluation and Treatment for Stroke h.
P g may red u ce risk of perioperative occl usion and restenosis. i. Order of releasing the vessels is E C I
Patch g raft ECA, CCA, ICA
_ _ _
•
Carotid Angioplasty/Stenting 1 3. a.
Carotid angioplastyfstenting: Should be considered instead of CEA in patients with severe c disease. b. Also in patients with : i. contra latera l c ii. I n p to neck iii. previous CEA with r ,r t iv. h ca rotid bifu rcation lesions t v. s vi . age
84. 5 . 2
ca rdiovascular
___
____
__ _
_ _ _
_ _ _ _
comorbid ities laryngeal nerve palsy radiation treatment, restenosis high severe ta ndem >80 yea rs-old
461
B
85 Special Conditions
•
Totally Occluded I nternal Carotid Artery 1 . Totally occluded internal carotid artery: a. % of patients with ca rotid territory stroke o r TIA have ipsilatera l ca rotid occl usion. b. Patients with mild deficit have stroke rate of % per yea r related to the occluded ca rotid . % of patients with acute c. occl usion and profound deficit make a good recovery. d. c -occluded ca rotid has p patency rate and I gain from re-opening. e. R fil l i n g of ICA to pretrous or cavernous segment from ECA or from sign of contra latera i iCA is a g operability. _
_
_
_
•
1 0- 1 5%
85. 1 . 1
3-5%
85. 1 .3
_
_
2 - 1 2% Chronica l ly; poor; l ittle
85. 1 . 5
Retrog rade; good
Cerebellar I nfarction 2 . Cerebellar infarction: a. % of patients developing signs of b c wi l l die within hours to days. b. Sym ptoms genera l ly increase with in _ - _ hours fol l owing onset. c. Operation of choice is s d d . Avoid using v d alone as this may cause u h and does not relieve b c
80%; brainstem com pression
85.2.1
1 2-96 hours su boccipital decompression ventricu l a r d rainage; u pwa rd herniation; brainstem com pression
85.2.3
85.2.6
Special Conditions •
Malig nant Middle Cerebral Artery Territory I nfa rction 3.
a. b. c.
Malignant middle cerebral artery territory infarction: % of stroke Occu rs in up to patients. Ca rries a morta l ity of u p to %. T herniation occu rs within days of stroke. H can red uce morta l ity to % a m ong a l l comers. Better resu lts if su rgery performed b a ny signs of herniation. 3r c t. found that hemicra n iectomy with hours of stroke onset decreased m and increased o favora ble f ____
____
d.
____
e. f.
_ _ _ _
____
___
___
•
1 0% 80% Tra nstentoria l ; 2-4 days Hem icra niectomy; 37% before
8 5 .3 . 1
85.3.2
ra ndom ized controlled trials; 48 hours; morta l ity; fu nctional outcome
___
Cardiogenic Brain Embolism 4 . Cardiogenic brain embolism: is a. stroke in cardioembolic. % of patients wil l have a b. stroke with in _ - _ weeks of a n acute M l , and t h e risk is h i g h e r with a wa l l M I . % c . Patients with A-fi b have a rate of stroke per yea r without treatment. d. Ischemic stroke rate per yea r for patients with mechanical heart valves who a re on % per yea r a nticoa g u lation is % per yea r for for mitra l and aortic va lves. e. P embolism ca n occur with a p f o which is present in % of the general population.
1 in 6 2 . 5%; 1 -2 ; a nterior 4.5% 3% per year; 1 . 5% per yea r
8 5 .4. 1
85.4.2
8 5 .4.3
8 5 .4.4
____
___ _
_
•
_
Pa radoxica l ; patent fora men ova le; 1 0- 1 8%
85.4.5
Vertebrobasilar I nsufficiency 5. Vertebrobasilar insufficiency: a . Six o f t h e sym ptoms o f V B I beg in with the letter " d . " They are: i. d r ii. d i iii. dy iv. de v. diz. vi . de b _ _ _ _ _ _ __
_ _ _ _
___ _
_ _ _ _ ____ ___ _ _ _ _ _
_ _ _ _
85.5.2
d rop attack d i plopia dysa rth ria defect in vision d izziness deficit bilatera l ly
463
B
464
Part 1 9: Stroke and Occlusive Cerebrovascular Disease
b. c. d.
e. f.
•
2 hemodynamic insufficiency
85.5.3
Su bclavian stea l ; reversed; vertebra l ; proxi m a l ; su bclavian 4.5-7% Anticoag u lation
85.5.4 85.5.6
Bow H unter's Stroke 6. a.
b. c. d. e. f.
•
Clinica l diag nosis of VBI req u i res or more of the sym ptoms listed above. The most common cause of VBI is h i s ca uses s flow in the v r artery d u e to p stenosis of the s a rtery. Stroke rate is _ - _% per yea r. A is the mai nstay of med ica l management.
Bow hunter's stroke: Bow h u nter's stroke is caused by occlusion of the v a rtery resu lti ng from h to the The vessel occluded is c direction of head rotation. It is more likely in patients with incom petent p c a rteries. A n appropriate test for this condition i s a d c of The treatment of choice is d the v a rtery at C If sym ptoms persist, then perform f c
vertebra l ; head rotation
85.6. 1
contra latera l posterior com m u nicati ng dynamic cerebral ang iogra phy decompression; vertebra l ; C1 -2 C1 -2 fusion
85.6.3
85.6.4
Cerebrovascu lar Venous Thrombosis 7. a.
Cerebrovascular venous thrombosis: Hypercoa � u l a ble states include: (Hint: ip rs) I l l deficiency i. a antibodies ii. a C deficiency iii. p S deficiency iv. p n v. p hemoglobi n u ria deficiency vi . p vii . r to activated protein C viii. s l u pus erythematosis b. Occu rs in mothers with incidence of , and the highest risk is f weeks post-partu m . c. Freq uency of d u ra l sinus involvement: % su perior sag itta l sinus i. ii. % left tra nsverse sinus iii. % m u ltiple sinuses
85.7.2
a ntithrom bin anti phospholipid protein protein pa roxysmal noctu rnal plasminogen resista nce systemic 1 / 1 0,000 births; fi rst 2 weeks 85.7.3
70% 70% 71%
Neurosurgery Books
Special Conditions d.
e.
f. g.
h. i. j. k. I.
m. n.
Cli nical sym ptoms associated with su perior sag itta l sinus thrombosis: i. Anterior 1 /3 n s ii. m 1 /3 increased muscle tone iii. p 1 /3 cortica l blind ness or edema/death j u g u lar bulb throm bosis may prod uce the fol l owing symptoms: ( H i nt: bash) i. b ii. a iii. s d iv. h The best way to diag nose venous sinus or throm bosis is b y M D CT findings: i. May be normal in _ - _%. ii. H sinuses and vei ns, sign, is d u bbed the c pathog nomonic. iii. Petech ial "flame" h iv. S m a l l ventricles in %. d sign seen v. E on CT sca n with c vi . Wh ite matter e vii . Above findings occur b is the treatment of choice for H venous sinus throm bosis, even when associated with i h M u st not treat with s beca use they red uce f and thereby increase t Should a lso correct u a and control h Conti nue a nticoa g u lation for _ - _ months. If medical management fails, ca n perform d c d s , or t e c r Morta l ity is approxi mately %. Poor prog nosticators a re e a ,c 0 n d r and d v involvement.
465
85.7.5
no sym ptoms middle posterior
breath lessness a phonia swa llowing difficu lty hoarseness M RI ; DSA
g 85.7.6
1 0-20% Hyperdense; cord hemorrhages 50% Em pty delta ; contrast edema bi latera l ly Hepari n ; intracerebra l hemorrhage
85.7.7
steroids; fi brinolysis; throm bosis underlyi ng abnorm a l ity; hypertension 3-6 months decompressive cra n iectomy, di rect surgical treatment; endovascular clot retrieva l 30% extremes of age, com a , ra pid neurological deterioration; deep venous
85.7.8
B
Part 1 9: Stroke and Occlusive Cerebrovascular Disease
466 •
Moyamoya Disease 8. a.
b. c. d.
e. f. g.
h. i. j. k. I.
Moyamoya disease: Cha racterized b y p s or usually occlusion of o ICAs and their major b b , with secondary formation of collatera ls that have a p s a ppeara nce. 0 or The 2 types a re p s Pri mary moya moya is neither a nor i i n orig i n . Ca n be associated with a in 3 locations {C of W ), and c v , M with increased frequency of v aneurysms. or a 2 age peaks: j decades. Presentation in children is with i attacks and in adu lts with h Prog nosis is p with % rate of major deficit or death within yea rs of diag nosis. Diag nose with M and D Med ica l treatment has n proven benefit. S u rgical treatment incl udes d or i revascu l a rization. The d irect revascu l a rization treatment of -M choice is S b Indirect revascu larization is reserved for patients and include EMS y ) , and ) , EDAS ( ( ). OPT (
prog ressive spontaneous; one; both; branches; puff of smoke primary; secondary atherosclerotic; infl a m matory aneurysms; Circle of Wi l l is, choroidals, Moya moya vessels; vertebrobasilar juvenile; a d u lt, 3 rd/4th decades ischemic; hemorrhage poor; 73%; 2 yea rs M RI/A; DSA no di rect; indirect STA-MCA bypass
you nger; encephalomyosynangiosis; encephalodu roa rteriosyna ngiosis; omental pedicle tra nsposition m . With surgical treatment, the prog nosis i s good g in 58%. n. G u ideli nes for ma nagement of not asym ptomatic moya moya have n been esta blished.
85.8.1
85.8.2
85.8.3
85.8.4
85.8.5
85.8.6
85.8.7
Special Conditions •
467
Extracranial-l ntracra nial ( EC/ IC) Bypass 9. a.
EC/ IC bypass: EC/ IC bypass study was publ ished in
b. Study critics highlight study's fai l u re to disti n g u ish between h vs. t ca uses of stroke. c. Imaging technolog ies introd uced si nce the study can now identify f d ischemia. d. Misery perfusion o e f increases when a u n a ble to mai nta in adequate c b f to meet m d e. Cu rrent ind ications for EC/ IC bypass include patients with m p , certain a t disease. , and m f. Bypass g rafts: i. Ped icled a rterial g rafts include: s a rteries and o that a re considered I flow. ii. R a rtery g raft that is flow. m to h iii. s vein g raft that is h flow and associated with I g raft patency rates. =
85.9. 1
1 985 hemodynamic; throm boembolic flow-dependent oxygen extraction fraction; a utoreg u latio n ; cerebral blood flow; meta bolic demands misery perfusion; aneurysms, tumors; moya moya STA; occi pita l ; low Rad i a l ; moderate to high Saphenous; high; lowest
g
86 Cerebral Arterial Dissections
•
General I nformation 1. a.
B
b. c.
Key concepts: Hemorrhage between i and layers of vessel wa l l . m Ca n present with p H , or ,T s
Ca uses include s t ' or i d. Extracranial d issections usually treated m e. I ntracranial dissections with S a re treated with s
•
SAH ; su rgery
Sites of Dissection Sites of dissection: Most common site is v a %. b. Basilar/ICA/ M CA %. c. ACA/ PCA/ PICA %.
2. a.
'
•
86. 1
intim a ; media pa i n , Horner's synd rome, TIA/stroke; SAH sponta neous, tra u m a ; iatrogenic medica l ly
86.5
vertebral a rtery, 60% 30% 1 0%
Eval uation Imaging: CTA m a y obviate need for D D is the defi nitive diag nostic study. c. Pathog nomonic sign on DSA is d I s d . Most helpfu l M R I sequence is T s with f
3. a. b.
86.7
DSA DSA double l u m en sign Tl WI with fat suppression
Cerebral Arterial Dissections •
Overal l Outcome 4 . Outcomes: a. Overa l l morta lity is %. % have a favora ble outcome. b. c. Mortal ity is higher i n I lesions ( %) than in v lesions ( %).
•
469
86.8
26% 70% ICA (49%); vertebral (22%)
Vessel Specific I nformation Complete the following about carotid dissections: a . Most com monly caused b y t b. The most common i n itia l symptom is i h c. May also present with H synd rome.
5.
6. Complete the following about vertebral dissections: a . Most com m only caused b y t and so most com monly located within e portion of vertebral a rtery. b. I ntracranial dissection can present with s
c. Treatment is genera l ly medical with a a re equally effective. d. A or s treatment is e. E recommended for i dissections. f. Endovascu lar treatment is indicated is when m t ineffective, medical thera py is c , or when there is s -I s f
86. 9 . 1
tra u m a ipsilatera l headache
B
Horner's 86.9.2
tra u m a ; extracranial SAH a nticoag u l ation Anti platelets Endovascu l a r; surgica l ; intracranial medical therapy; contraind icated ; sym ptomatic flow-limiting stenosis
Neurosurgery Books
87 Intracerebral Hemo rr hage
•
I ntracerebral Hemorrhage in Adu lts 1.
a. b.
Intracerebral hemorrhage key concepts: Accou nts for % o f strokes. Presentation d iffers from ischemic infa rct beca use it inclu des h , a nd a v Hem atoma v correlates with morbid ity and morta l ity. Hematoma enlarges in at least % of cases with in fi rst hours of onset. Angiography is recom mended except in patients older than yea rs old and with preexisti ng h ,p hematoma in t f or p _
_
_ __ _
87.2
1 5-30% headache, vomitin g ; a ltered consciousness
_ __ _
c. d.
vol u m e 33%; 3
____ ____
e.
_ _ _ _
45; hypertension; tha l a m us, putamen; posterior fossa
_ _ _
•
Epidemiology 2. Risk factors: a . Incidence increases sign ifica ntly after age and d with each decade of age u ntil age 80. b. Preventable risk factors include a c ,c d ___
___
_ _ _
___ _
87.3.2
55; doubles a lcohol consumption, ciga rettes, d rugs
Intracerebral Hemorrhage •
Locations of Hemorrhage within the Brain 3.
a.
Locations of intracerebral hemorrhage: Hypertensive hemorrhage sites of pred ilection a re: i. b g % % ii. t iii. p , _% iv. c % v. c w m , _ - _% vi . b , _ - _% Most common location for deep and is due to hematoma is p ru ptu re of I a _ I n cidence of lobar hemorrhages is _ _% Compared with deep hemorrhages, lobar hemorrhages have a b prog nosis. _ _ _ _
87.4. 1
basal ganglia; 50%
____
____
____
____
b.
____ -
_ _ _ _
thalamus; 1 5% pons; 1 0-1 5% cerebe l l u m ; 1 0% cerebra l white matter; 1 020% brainste m ; 1 -6% putamen; lenticu lostriate a rteries
_ _
c. d.
1 0-30%
87.4.2
better
_ _ _
•
Etiologies 4.
a. b. c. d.
List the causes of lobar hemorrhage: ( H int: teach it) t. e of d ___ __ a a c m _ _ _ _
_
____
_ _ _
__ _
e. h f. i g . t.
____
c
__ _
___ _ ___ _
Hemorrhagic transformation of an ischemic infarct: a . Estimated t o occur in % b. within the fi rst m c. and may occur with in hours.
87.5.2
tumor extension of deep ICH amyloid a n g iopathy cerebrovascu lar ma lformation hemorrhagic conversion idiopathic tra u m a
5.
____
6 . Coagulation disorders and intracerebral hemorrhage: a . Incidence o f symptomatic I C H with in 36 hours of treatment with rtPA is _%. b. Aspirin is associated with increased risk of ICH at a rate of I than % per yea r. ____
87.5.2
43% month 24 87.5.2
2-4% less than 1 %
47 1
E
472 7.
a.
8.
a. b. c.
Part 20: Intracerebral Hemorrhage Infection and intracerebral hemorrhage: 3 types o f infection that pred ispose to ICH: i. f ii. g iii. h s Hypertension and intracerebral hemorrhage: Hypertension is a risk factor for hemorrhage in what 2 locations? It is not a risk factor for at least % of basa l ganglia hemorrhages. a -B c a re the sou rce of some hypertensive hemorrhages.
9. Amyloid angiopathy: a. Present in % of patients over yea rs old, but most do not h b. Accou nts for % of ICH cases. c. Should be suspected in patients with hemorrhages in the location . d . Associated with deposition o f b a that a ppears on pola rized a g light as b E. e. Genetic link is a f. Is not associated with s a 1 0. a.
b.
Hemorrhagic brain tumors: Pri mary bra i n tumors associated with ICH include g m and I Metastatic tumors associated with ICH include I ,c m , and r c
1 1 . Anticoagulation and intracerebral hemorrhage: a . Incidence o f bleeding compl ications in patients on a nticoa g u lation is % per yea r. b. Incidence of intracerebra l hemorrhage is % per yea r. c. Mortal ity in the intracerebral hemorrhage g roup is %. _
87.5.2
fu ngal g ra n u lomas herpes simplex
pons; cerebe l l u m
87.5.4
35% Cha rcot-Bouchard aneurysms
87.5.5
87.5.6
50%; 70; hemorrhage 1 0% recu rrent; lobar beta a myloid; birefringent apple g reen Apolipoprotein E systemic a myloidosis 87.5.7
g lioblastoma m u ltiforme; lym phoma l u n g , chorioca rci noma, melanoma; renal cel l 87.5.8
1 0% 0.3- 1 .8%
_
65%
Intracerebral Hemorrhage •
Clinical 1 2.
a.
Clinical presentation of intracerebral hemorrhage: U n l ike embol ic/ischemic stroke, the neurolog ica l deficit with ICH has p onset over m to h Thalamic ICH is usually associated with h loss, m loss if i c is compressed , and e signs with upper b extension. Thalamic ICH > em has high morta lity. Cerebel l a r I C H prod uces c before h d u e to b compression.
prog ressive; m i n utes; hours
87.6. 1
___
b.
c. d.
_ ___
__ _
1 3. a.
b. c. d. e. f.
Rebleeding: Rebleed ing is more com mon with g ICH than b I ICH. I n cidence d with time. _% in first 1 -3 hours. % in 3 - 6 hours. sign on CTA correlated with S increased risk of ICH expa nsion. I n cidence of late rebleed ing is _ _%. ____
Edema and intracerebral hemorrhage: Edema can cause delayed d after ICH. b. The component that is released by clot and presu med to be the most likely cause of s u rrounding delayed edema is t
1 4. a.
hemisensory; motor; interna l capsule; eye; brainstem
87.6.3
3.3 com a ; hemiparesis; brainstem 87.6.4
basal ganglia; lobar decreases 33-38% 1 6% Spot 1 . 8-5.3% 87.6.4
deterioration thrombinin
___ _
•
Eval uation 1 5.
a. b. c. d.
Evaluation of intracerebral hemorrhage: I C H vol u m e is approximated b y the e method. Form u l a is On average, clot size decreases .m m/day Density decreases Hounsfield u n its/day ___ _
ellipsoid (AP x LAT x HT)/2 0.75
____
____
2
87.7 . 1
473
Part 20: Intracerebral Hemorrhage
474
e. With I
change for the fi rst weeks. f. List the seq uence of hemoglobin evol ution after ICH: {Hint: On days my mom's home) i. 0 0 to 1 day ii. d 1 to 3 days iii. m 3 to 7 days 7 to 1 4 days iv. m v. h 1 4 plus days
little; 2 Ta ble 8 7 . 4
oxyhemoglobin deoxyhemoglobin methemoglobin methemoglobin hemosideri n
1 6. a.
ICH score: Give t h e n u m ber o f points for the fol lowing factors: i. GCS 3-4: poi nts ii. GCS 5-1 2 : points poi nts iii. GCS 1 3- 1 5 : iv. Age > 80: points v. Age < 80: points vi . lnfratentorial location: points vii . Supratentorial location: points poi nts viii. Vol u m e > 30 cc: ix. Vol u m e < 30 cc: poi nts IVH present: X. poi nts b. Give the 30-day morta l ity based on ICH score: % i. 0 points % ii. 1 points % iii. 2 points % iv. 3 points % v. 4 points % vi . 5 poi nts vii . 6 poi nts %
E
•
Ta ble 8 7 . 5
2 1 0 1 0 0 1 0 1 Ta ble 8 7 . 6
0% 1 3% 26% 72% 97% 1 00% 1 00%
Initial Management of ICH 1 7. a.
b. c. d. e.
Medical management: Red u ce M A P t o pre-morbid level if % if u n known . known or by Sugg ested ta rget BP is Platelet goal is > Most studies suggest that resu mption of a nticoa g u lation after ICH is s Proba bil ity of ischemic stroke 30 days fol lowing cessation of wa rfa rin for 1 0 days: i. % for those treated for prosthetic heart valve ii. % for AFi bb % for ca rdioembolic iii. stroke
20% 1 40/90 l OO K safe
2.9% 2 .6% 4.8%
Neurosurgery Books
87. 8 . 1
87.8.2
87.8.4
Intracerebral Hemorrhage •
475
Surgica l Treatment 1 8. a.
Surgical management: Indications for surgery: ICH with significant m i. e ii. ICH with s iii. ICH vol u m e iv. I and c locations age v. y b. Surgery is recommended for cerebellar ICH if GCS is , size is and h present. _ _ _ _
87.9.2
mass effect symptoms 1 0-30 cc lobar, cerebel l a r you n g 1 3 or less; 4 em or more, hyd rocephalus
____
•
ICH in Young Ad ults Name the top 5 causes of nontraumatic ICH in young adults (other than " undetermined" which accounts for - 1 /4): H i nt: AHadt % a. A % b. H % c. a % d. d % e. t
1 9.
•
Ta ble 8 7 . 7
II
AVM , 30% HTN , 1 5% aneurysm , 1 0% d rugs, 7% tumor, 4%
I ntracerebral Hemorrhage in the Newborn 20. a.
b. c. d. e. f.
ICH in the newborn: m prog ressively G u ntil i weeks gestational age. Matrix may persist i n p infa nts and cause hemorrhage. Site of hemorrhage depends on a Between 24-28 weeks, I C H located in of c b 29 weeks or more, ICH located in of c h List the risk factors: ( H int: vespacc) e i. v ii. E iii. s iv. p v. a d vi . c h a by m vii . c
Germinal matrix; involutes; 36
87. 1 2.2
prematu re age body of ca udate head of ca udate vol u m e expa nsion ECMO seizures pneumothorax asphyxia cya notic heart disease coca ine abuse by mother
8 7 . 1 2 .4
E
Part 20: Intracerebral Hemorrhage
476 g.
h. i. j. k.
I. m.
G rading system o f P i. G rade I = s ii. G rade I I = I without v d iii. G rade I l l = I with v d with p iv. G rade IV = I I Hyd rocephalus develops in _ - _% about weeks after ICH. imaging. Diagnosed using u Medical treatments a re n effective. S u rgical options include serial I p ,v v t t ' d a ,s Prerequ isites before s h u nt insertion include infant weight of and CSF protein of Outcomes: i. Mortal ity _ - _% with severe ICH. ii. Hyd rocephalus _ - _% with severe ICH. % a m b u l atory with g rade iii. I I ICH. % IQ normal ra nge with iv. g rade I I ICH. -
-
Pa pile su bependyma l IVH ; ventricle dilation
Ta ble 8 7 . 8
IVH ; ventricle dilation IVH ; pa renchym a i iCH 20-50%; 1 -3 weeks u ltrasound not
87. 1 2.7
8 7 . 1 2 .9 87 . 1 2 . 1 0
l u m ba r puncture, ventricu lar ta p, temporary ventricu l a r access device, s h u nt 2000 g rams or more; less than 1 00 mgfdl 50-65%
Ta ble 8 7 . 9
65-1 00% 1 00% 75%
87 . 1 2 . 1 1
88 Outcome Assessment
•
Cancer. Head I njury. Cerebrovascular Events. Spinal Cord I njury 1.
a. b. c. d.
Matching. Match the following outcome scores with the condition they are designed to assess. Outcome scores: CD Karnofsky; 0 Rancho Los Amigos; G) G lasgow Outcome; @ Mod ified Ra nkin; ® Ba rthel ; ® Functional Independence Measu re; (j) WHO performance score cerebrovascu l a r s p i n a l cord cancer head inj u ry
2. True or False. A higher number indicates better function. a. Karnofsky sca le b. WHO Performance Scale c. Rancho Los Amigos scale d . G lasgow Outcome scale e. Mod ified Ra nkin scale f. Barthel scale g . Functional Independence Measure 3.
On the Karnofsky scale, which score represents the transition from being able to engage in normal activity to only caring for self?
a . 80% b. 85% c. 75% d . 70%
@. ® ® CD. 0 0 . 0)
true fa lse true true fa lse true true d. 70%. There a re no 7 5 or 8 5 scores. 70 ca res for self, unable to ca rry on normal activity or work; 50 req u i res considerable care; and 40 is disabled.
88. 3 . 1 88.4 88.1 88.2
88.1
88.2
88.3
88.4 Ta ble 8 8 . 1
g •
IB
89 Differential Diagnosis by Location or Radiographic Finding I ntracrania I
•
Posterior Fossa Lesions 1.
If a solitary intraparenchymal lesion in the p-fossa i n an adult i s seen, a m must be ruled out.
metastasis (from an extracranial primary maligna ncy)
2.
The most common primary intra-axial p-fossa tumor in adults is h
hemangioblastoma
Complete the following about hemangioblastomas: a . Account for % of p-fossa tumors. on M RI . b. Usually see s v
3.
_ _
5.
a. b.
Multiple lesions in the cerebellum can be suggestive of: m h associated with v a c m
89.2 . 1
89. 2 . 1
7 - 1 2% sig nal voids (serpentine appeara n ce)
4.
Besides embolism and thrombosis of a plaque, 2 other etiologies for a cerebellar stroke are: a. v a d b. v h
89.2 . 1
89. 2 . 1
vertebral a rtery dissection vertebrobasilar hypoplasia 89. 2 . 1
metastases hemang ioblastomas; VHL
_
c. d.
are the 6. As a group, a most common pediatric brain tumors in the p-fossa.
a bscesses cavernous ma lformations astrocytomas
89.2 . 1
-
Differential Diagnosis by Location or Radiographic Finding - Intracranial 479 7. The following 3 types of tumors account for the majority of infratentorial tumors in patients less than 1 8 years of age: a. P including m : _% (of infratentorial tumors) including p b. a a % _% c. b g, ___
_ _ _ _
______ ____
8.
a. b.
__
____
The following facts help differentiate medulloblastomas and ependymomas: "Banana sig n " is seen with G row from a nterior aspect of 4th ventricle Tend to g row from floor of 4th ventricle. Tend to be i n homogeneous on Tl WI M RI . Ca lcification i s com mon. _ _ _ _ _
89.2 . 1
PN ET; med u l loblastoma: 27% astrocytomas; pilocytic astrocytom a : 27% brainstem g l iomas: 28% 89.2 . 1
med u l loblastoma med u l loblastoma
_ ____
c. d. e.
ependymomas ependymomas ependymomas
9. Complete the following about CPA lesions: a . Acoustic neuromas a re more accu rately vestibular schwa n nomas; known as v 80-90% s. and occur i n to _% of CPA lesions. 5 - 1 0% b. Meningioma occu rs in _ to _% of CPA lesions. c. Epidermoid occurs in _ to _% of CPA 5-7% lesions.
89.2.2
_ _ _ _ _
1 0.
a. b. c. d. e. f.
Match the tumor with the characteristic finding: CD vestibular schwannoma; 0 meningioma Cha racteristic: (a-f) below Hearing loss occurs ea rly. Facial weakness occu rs ea rly. I ntern a l a u d itory ca n a l is enlarged. Calcifications seen more com mon ly. Represents 90% of CPA tumors. Homogeneous signal and enhancement.
Match the cystic lesions of the CPA which its characteristic findings: CD a rachnoid cyst; 0 epidermoid cyst; G) dermoid cyst; 0 cholesterol g ra n u loma Cha racteristic: (a-d) below a . H i g h sig nal on Tl WI and h i g h sig n a l o n T2WI and associated with bone destruction. b. Cystic component has same intensity as CSF.
89.2.2
CD 0 CD 0 CD 0
11.
89.2.2
CD
Neurosurgery Books
IB
480
Part 22: Differential Diagnosis
c.
High sig n a l on DWM RI d ifferentiates this from a rachnoid cyst. d . Tl W I i ntensity similar t o fat a n d usually midline. 1 2. What are some differentiating features that distinguish neuromas of the V, VII, and VIII cranial nerves? a . N e u romas o f C N _ ca n pass through the tentoria l hiatus medial ly. b. N e u romas of CN ca n cross into the middle fossa via the petrous a pex. c. N e u romas of CN can cross the mid petrosal bone. 1 3.
a. b. c. d.
•
Complete the following about foramen magnum lesions: (extra-axial vs. Most a re intra-axial.) A mass behind the dens com pressing the u ntil proven spinal cord is a c otherwise. The second most common site of orig in of posterior fossa meningiomas is the a I _ of the fora men magnum c p is u s u a l ly a n ea rly symptoms of lesions i n this location. __
0 ® 89.2.2
CN VI I I CN V CN VI I 89.2.4
extra-axia I chordoma a nterior lip Craniocervica l pain
M ultiple I ntracranial Lesions on CT or M RI Infectious causes of multiple intracranial lesions on imaging include: a. t b. fu ngal etiologies including: i. a ii. c iii. c iv. c c. Pa rasitic etiolog ies including: i. e ii. s iii. p
1 4.
Complete the following about multiple intracranial lesions on imaging: a . What percentage o f g liomas are mu lticentric? b. HSV usually occu rs in the t lobe. c. MS lesions a re located i n the a rea. p
89.3
toxoplasmosis asperg i l losis coccidiomycosis cryptococcus ca ndid iasis ech inococcus schistosom iasis paragonimiasis
1 5.
____
89.3
6% tem poral periventricu l a r
Differential Diagnosis by Location or Radiographic Finding - Intracranial 481 d.
D u ra l s i n u s throm bosis ca n cause i, mu ltiple v M u ltiple "hypertensive" hemorrhages is a likely due to a
venous infa rcts
_ _ _ _
e.
amyloid angiopathy
__ _ _ _
•
Ring-Enha ncing Lesions on CT/ M RI 1 6. What are the classic etiologies for ring-enhancing lesions on imaging? (hint: MAG I C DR. L) a. M b. A c. G d . 1. e. c f. D g . R. h . L. _ _ _ _ _
_ _ __ __
_ __ _
_ _ _ _ _
_ _ _ _ _
_ __ _ _
_ _ _ _
•
M etastases Abscess GBM I nfa rction Contusion Demyelination Radiation Lym phoma (primary vs. metastatic)
White Matter Lesions 1 7.
a. b. c. d. e.
•
89.4.3
List conditions that can affect the corpus callosum: m G I I a d
89.5.2
m u ltiple sclerosis GBM lym phoma lipoma diffuse axonal inj u ry
Sellar, Suprasellar and Parasellar Lesions 1 8.
The most common enhancing pituitary lesion in adults is a a p
pitu ita ry adenoma
1 9.
The most common sellar and parasellar lesions in children are and c g
craniopharyngiomas and germinomas
20. Regarding pituitary tumors. a . Adenohypophysea l tumors include and pitu ita ry a c b. N e u rohypophyseal tumors include , a nd ,p m a c. What is the most common tu mor found i n the posterior pitu ita ry?
89. 6 . 1
89. 6 . 1
89.6.2
adenomas, ca rcinomas metastases, pituicytomas, and astrocytomas metastases (most common primaries a re l u n g and breast)
482
Part 22: Differential Diagnosis
21 . The pituitary gland can normally be slightly enlarged in w of age. c
women of child bearing age
89.6.2
_______
22.
a. b. c.
Complete the following about pituitary hyperplasia: Thyrotroph hyperplasia is most likely d u e to Gonadotroph hyperplasia is most likely due to Somatotroph hyperplasia is most l i kely due to Lactotroph hyperplasia is most l i kely d u e to _ __ _
d.
89.6.2
primary hypothyroidism primary hypogonadism ectopic G H - RH secretion
_ ___
preg nancy
__
23. a.
Suprasellar germ cell tumors are: more common in (men vs. women) b. triad of d p , a nd v d _ __ _
____
_ _ _ _ _
__ _ _ _
89.6.2
women (pineal reg ion more common in men) dia betes insipidus, pan hypopitu ita ris m ; visu a l deficits
Complete the following about juxtasellar masses: a . Craniopharyngiomas account for _% of 20%; 54% tumors in this reg ion in adu lts and _% in childre n . gadolinium b . T o d ifferentiate mening iomas from pitu ita ry adenomas, use g c. On imaging, meningiomas demonstrate: i. Enha ncement? bright homogenous enha ncement ii. Epicenter is s. suprasel l a r t d u ra l tai l iii. May see d iv. Is sel l a r enlarged or not enlarged? Usually n o t enlarged ca rotid a rteries v. Tend to encase
24.
89.6.2
_ __ _
___ _
__
_ ___ _ _ _
25.
a.
Pituitary hypophysitis and adenomas can be distinguished by the following: (hypophysitis vs. adenoma) Sym metric enlargement is most often seen with Sel l a r floor may be eroded with . Enha ncement more intense with Pitu ita ry sta lk thickened with Associated with preg nancy
hypophysitis
Ta ble 8 9 . 2
adenoma hypophysitis hypophysitis hypophysitis
89.6.4
_ _ _
b. c. d. e.
__
__ _
26. True or False regarding lymphocytic hypophysitis: a. May cause hypopitu ita rism. b. Most cases a re seen in men.
c.
Req u i res su rgery for treatment.
d.
May prod uce dia betes insipidus.
89.6.6
true fa lse - in women in late preg nancy or ea rly post partum period fa lse - treatment with steroids true
Differential Diagnosis by Location or Radiographic Finding - Intracranial 483 •
I ntracranial Cysts 27.
a. b. c. d.
Complete the following about arachnoid cyst: a ka l c Due to a d of the a Reach maxi m u m size in _ month(s). N eed su rgery in about _% of cases. ______
_ _ _
Complete the following about cavum septum pellucidum: a . Present in all p b and 97% of n b. Present in _% of a d u lts. c. What is it?
89 . 7 . 1
leptomeningeal cyst d u plication ; arachnoid 1 month 30%
28.
____ _ __
__ __ __ __ __
d.
Seen in c t e
_______
_____
suffering from
__ _ ____
__ __ __ __ __ ____
29.
Cavum vergae is located posterior to and communicates with c._____ s p_________
prematu re babies; newborns 1 0% Va ria ble sl it- l ike fl uid-fil led space between the leaflets of the left and right septu m pel l u cid u m . boxers; chronic tra u m atic enceph a lopathy cavu m septu m pel l u cid u m (CSP)
Ta ble 89.3
89.7.3
Ta ble 89.3
______
Complete the following about cavum velum interpositum: of the a. Due to separation of the c f b. between the t and the t _v c. Present in _% of chi l d ren less than 1 yea r of age. d . Present in % of children between 1 and 1 0 years old
30.
_____
___
___
•
_ _ _ _
Ta ble 89.3
cru ra ; fornix tha l a m i ; third ventricle 60% 30%
Orbital Lesions 31 .
cavernous hemangioma; The most common benign primary melanoma intraorbital neoplasm is c h . The most common primary intraocular malignancy in adults is m
89.8.2
__ __ __ __ _
Complete the following about orbital and ocular lesions: a . T h e most common orbita l lesion in children is a d c b. The most common malig n a nt tumor of the orbit in this age g roup is r c. The most common primary intraocular maligna ncy in children is r
32.
_ __ __
_ __ __ __ __ __ __ ____
__ __ __ ___
89.8.3
dermoid cyst rhabdomyosa rcoma reti noblastoma
IB
Part 22: Differential Diagnosis
484 33.
a. b. c. d. e. •
Match the orbital lesions with their characteristics. (multiple answers may be correct for a given characteristic) CD ca pillary hemangioma; (?) lymphangioma; ® lym phoma; @ thyroid ophthalmoplegia Cha racteristic: (a-e) below infantile proptosis reg ress sponta neously do not reg ress pain less proptosis bilatera l 80% of the time
89.8.2
CD. 0 CD 0 ®. @ @
Sku l l Lesions Complete the following about skull lesions: a . T h e most common benign tumors o f the and h sku l l a re o b. The most common malignancy of the sku l l is o s
34.
35.
a. b. c. d. e. f.
Complete the following about characteristics of skull lesions: M u lti pl icity suggests m Expa nsion of di ploe suggests a b lesion. Peripheral sclerosis suggests a b lesion . Fu ll-thickness lesions suggest m M u ltiple sharply demarcated and punched-out defects suggest m m Presence of peripheral vascu lar channels lesions. is highly suggestive of
36. Complete the following: a . Which sku l l lesion demonstrates a i. tra becu lar pattern? ii. s u n b u rst pattern? iii. islands of bone pattern? iv. tenderness to pal pation?
b.
Eosinophilic g ra n u loma is the mildest form of L c h
89 . 1 0. 1
osteomas, hemangiomas osteogenic sarcoma 89 . 1 0. 1
maligna ncy benign benign maligna ncy mu ltiple myeloma benign 89 . 1 0. 1
hemangioma hemangioma fi brous dysplasia La ngerhans cel l histiocytosis lesion La ngerha ns cel l histiocytosis
--
37. The following can cause diffuse demineralization or destruction of the skull: a. h b. m c. m m d. 0
89. 1 0. 3
hyperpa rathyroidism metastases m u lti ple myeloma osteoporosis
Neurosurgery Books
Differential Diagnosis by Location or Radiographic Finding - Intracranial 485 38. The following can cause diffuse or generalized increased skull density: a. a b. f d c. h g m d. 0
e.
p
d
39. A pneumocele is an enlargement of an (has that s a vs. does not have) bone erosion. Pneumosinus dilatans is an enlargement of an a_ s___ that (has vs. does not have) bone erosion.
•
Can intra-axial lesions grow out of the skull?
air sinus; has; air sinus; does not have
89. 1 0.9
Typical ly, no. However, a fu ngating malig nant glioma may do this.
89 . 1 1
I ntracranial Hyperdensities 41 . What can cause an intra-axial structure to appear hyperdense with respect to normal brain tissue on a non-contrast CT? a. a b b. c. f v c. I d. m _ __
___ _
__
__
_ _ _
____ _
•
anemia fi brous dysplasia hyperostosis interna generalisata osteoblastic metastases (prostate and breast) Paget's d isease
Com bined l ntracrania i / Extracranial Lesions 40.
•
89 . 1 0 . 5
89. 1 2
acute blood ca lci u m low flow vessels melanoma (melanin ca n appear hyperdense)
I ntracranial Calcifications 42. The following are physiologic causes of localized intracranial calcifications: a. c p b. a g s c. d d. d e. p g __
--
89 . 1 3 . 1
choroid plexus a rachnoid g ra n u l ation diaphragma sel lae d u ra pineal gland
43.
Choroid plexus calcifications have the following features: a . _% of patients by 5th decade of life demonstrate calcifications. b. Ca lcifications a re ra re under age _.
89 . 1 3 . 2
75% age 3
486 c.
Part 22: Differential Diagnosis If ca lcifications present under age 1 0, consider c p
choroid plexus papilloma
_ _ _ _
P· ----
d . I f ca lcified , choroid plexus in the tem pora l horn, then consider n
neurofibromatosis
____ _
44.
a. b.
Complete the following about basal ganglia calcifications: Common in e Ca uses include: i. h use ii. a iii. F disease Correlated with psychiatric diseases if > em. __ _
_ _ _ _ _ _ _
___
c. 45.
Fahr's disease involves progressive of the idiopathic c g b , s. of cerebral cortex, and d d n. _ _ _
89 . 1 3 . 2
elderly hyperpa rathyroidism a nticonvu lsant use Fa h r's disease 0.5 em ca lcification; basal ganglia (medial portions), su lca l depths; dentate nuclei
89 . 1 3 . 2
___ _
•
I ntraventricu lar Lesions 46.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. 47. a.
Complete the following about intraventricular lesions: What is t h e most common lesion? Lesion at the fora men of Monro? 3 rd ventricle lesion with punctate ca lcifications? Fil l s the 4th ventricle with "banana sign"? Most common low density 4th ventricle lesion? Free-floati ng fat in ventricles? H a s fat and calcifications? At t h e septum pel l u cid um? Densely enhancing with calcifications?
Intraventricular meningiomas are: Usually a rterial su pply from a c a rtery b. Less com mon a rterial su pply from p m c artery and I p c a rtery. c. Tumor thought to a rise from cells.
_ _ _ _
_ _ _ _
_ _ _ _
89. 1 4. 2
astrocytoma col loid cyst cra niopharyngioma med u l loblastoma epidermoid dermoid with cyst ru ptu re teratoma centra l neu rocytoma meningioma 89. 1 4. 2
a nterior choroidal artery medial posterior choroidal a rtery, latera l posterior choroidal a rtery a rachnoid cap cel l s
Differential Diagnosis by Location or Radiographic Finding - Intracranial 487 48.
a. b. c. d. e.
Match the tumor that is found most often in the following ventricles: CD astrocytoma; 0 med u l l oblastoma ; ® meningioma; 0 ependymoma; ® col loid cyst; ® epidermoid; (j) dermoid ; ® teratoma Ventricle: (a-e) below 3 rd ventricle 4th ventricle atri u m of latera l ventricle fronta l horn o f latera l ventricle body of latera l ventricle
49. The following are lesions that can be found in the posterior of the 3rd ventricle: a. p b. m c c. a of G of v d. a __
50. Which masses within the lateral ventricles do not enhance? a. c b. d c. e d. s ___
•
Ta ble 89.4
® 0 ® CD
0 89. 1 4. 3
pinealoma meningioma a rachnoid cyst aneurysm of vein of Galen 89. 1 4. 3
cysts dermoids epidermoids su bependymomas
g
Periventricular Lesions 51 . What is the differential for a periventricular solid enhancing lesion? lym phoma a. I ependymoma b. e c. m metastases med u l loblastoma d. m in child e. p pineal tumor t f. G GBM
89 . 1 5 . 1
52. What are some etiologies of lowdensity periventricular lesions? e a. t s b. m a c. s e
89 . 1 5 . 2
--
d.
transependymal edema m u ltiple sclerosis su bacute a rteriosclerotic encephalopathy (aka Binswa nger's disease) leukoara iosis
488 •
Part 22: Differential Diagnosis
Ependymal and Su bependymal Enhancement 53. What is the differential for ependymal and subependymal enhancement? (Hint: some overlap with periventricu lar lesions) a. v b. c m __ _ _ _
_ _ _ _ _ _
c. m d . t.
____
____
54.
•
s
_____
_____
a.
In immunocompromised patients, what do the following patterns suggest? thin linear enhancement
b.
nod u l a r enhancement
a.
Complete the following about intraventricular hemorrhage: Most occur as a result of of
I n the a d u lt, this may orig inate in the t or p ii. I n a newborn, this may orig inate in the s b. Aneu rysms account for a bout _% of IVH in a d u lts. c. What a re the typical locations of an i nvolved aneurysm? i.
•
ventricu l itis ca rci nomatous meningitis (would see meningeal enha ncement as wel l ) m u ltiple sclerosis tuberous sclerosis (su pependymal hamartomas) 89. 1 7
vira l infection (CMV, va ricella zoster) CNS lym phoma
I ntraventricular Hemorrhage 55.
IB
s
89. 1 7
89 . 1 8
extension of intra parenchym a l hemorrhage tha lamus, puta men su bependym a l reg ion 25% a-co m m , dista l basilar a rtery, ca rotid term in us, vertebral a rtery, distal PICA
Medial Temporal Lobe Lesions 56. The most common medial temporal lobe lesions are: a. h b. m t s c. g _ _ _ _ __
_ _ _ _ _
89 . 1 9
hamartoma mesial temporal sclerosis
__ _ _ _ _ _ _
g l ioma
Differential Diagnosis by Location or Radiographic Finding - Intracranial 489 •
I ntranasa l / I ntracranial Lesions 57.
a. b. c.
d.
e.
Complete the following about intranasal/intracranial lesions: is a fu ngal infection M seen primarily i n dia betics or i m m u n ocom p rom ised patients. Nasopharyngeal carcinomas a re associated with infectio n . As u c (aka ) is a n agg ressive ca rcinoma that may invade i nto the frontal fossa and cavernous sinus. a rises from crest E cells of the nasal va u lt a n d often demonstrates intracranial invasion. Typica lly presents with e or n o A nasal polypoid mass i n a newborn should be considered an e u ntil proven otherwise. It ca n be disti n gu ished by a nasal g l ioma beca use it is often and s with the p Va lsa lva maneuver. _ __ _
__ _ _ __
89.22
M u cormycosis EBV sinonasal und ifferentiated ca rci noma; SNUC
Esthesioneuroblastoma; epistaxis; nasal obstruction encephalocele; pulsatile; swells
_____
Neurosurgery Books
90 Differential Diagnosis by Location or Radiographic Finding Spine
•
Atlantoaxial Subluxation 1 . What are the disease processes causing atlantoaxial subluxation? a . incom petence o f t h e ligament i. r a ii. t. iii. c _ _ _ _
90.2
tra nsverse atlanta l liga ment
_____
_ ____
___
___
_ _ _ _
use iv. chronic v. chronic b. incom petence of the ___
______
infections
_ _ _ _ _
i. f ii. 0_ 0 iii. r a iv. erosion by t. v. M synd rome _ _ _ _ _
_ ____ _ ____
_ _ _
__
d
vi . c vii .
_ _ _ _
2 . Complete the following about atlantoaxial subluxation: a . Incom petence o f t h e liga ment interva l . b. resu lts in increased _ _ _
rheumatoid a rth ritis tra u m a congen ita l laxity (esp. with Down synd rome) steroid retropharyngeal odontoid process fractu re os odontoideum rheumatoid a rth ritis tumor Morquio syn d rome (hypoplasia of dens) congenita l dysplasia infection 90.2
tra nsverse atlanta !
___
3 . Complete the following regarding differential diagnosis by location: a . Morquio synd rome is hypoplasia o f the
b. c.
d u e to a m It may resu lt in
_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ ___
subl uxation.
atlantodental 90.2
dens m u copolysaccharidosis atla ntoaxial
Differential Diagnosis by Location or Radiographic Finding - Spine •
Abnormalities in Vertebral Bodies 4. What are 8 malignancies that have a tendency to metastasize to the vertebral bodies? 5.
a.
General differential for vertebral body lesions: n ___ _
b. c. f d. d e. m P and a
_ _
___
changes diseases including disease, o s
______
•
_ ____
_ ____
90.3
90.3
neoplasm (metastatic vs. primary) infection (osteomyelitis vs. discitis) fatty infi ltration degenerative changes meta bolic; Paget's d isease, osteoporosis, a n kylosing spondyl itis
Pathologic Fractures of the Spine 6. What are the 6 criteria for vertebra plana? What are 3 etiologies that may lead to this phenomenon? a. Criteria :
b.
•
prostate, breast, l u n g , ren a l cel l , thyroid , lym phoma, melanoma, and m u lti ple myeloma
Etiologies:
90.5.3
1 . u n iform colla pse of vertebral body into flat thin disc 2 . increased density of vertebra 3. spares neura l arches 4. normal disc and intervertebral disc space 5 . intervertebral vacu u m cleft sign (pathog nomonic) 6. no kyphosis 1 . La ngerhans cel l histiocytosis 2 . Ca lve-Ku m mei-Verneuil disease (avascu lar necrosis of the vertebral body) 3. hemangioma
Destructive Lesions of the Spine infection (often involves at 7 . I f vertebral body destruction is associated with destruction of the disc least two adjacent vertebra l space, what general etiology is this levels) suggestive of?
90.7.2
491
492 •
Part 22: Differential Diagnosis
Vertebra l Hyperostosis 8. What is the differential diagnosis of vertebral body hyperostosis? a. P b. m including I as wel l as p c i n men and b c in women _ _ _ _____
_ _ _ _
•
a.
Complete the following about sacral agenesis: Sacra l agenesis is also known as
___
b. _-_% have c. I ncreased incidence of a bnorm a l ities.
mothers. ____
90.9
ca udal reg ression synd rome 1 6-20%, dia betic mothers spinal
Enhancing Nerve Roots 1 0. What is the differential for an enhancing nerve root? a. t s u c h as m or l c b. especia l ly if patient has ___
___ _
__ _ _
c.
_____ ____
•
Paget's disease Metastases (osteoblastic); lym phoma; prostate ca ncer; breast cancer
Sacral lesions 9.
•
90.8
or
including
___
__ _ _ _
90 . 1 0
tumor; meningeal ca rcinomatosis; lym phoma infection ; AIDS (consider CMV) infl a m matory; G u i l lain-Ba rre, sarcoidosis
I ntraspinal Cysts 1 1 . What is the differential for an intraspinal cyst? a. s m c n b. c c. e d. s e. dilated c c ---
---
___
---
90 . 1 2
spinal meningeal cysts cystic neu rofi broma ependymoma syri ngomyelia dilated centra l ca nal
91 Differential Diagnosis (DDx) by Signs and Symptoms Primarily Intracranial
•
Syncope and Apoplexy 1.
a. b. c.
d.
Complete the following about the causes of syncope: Preva lence o f syncope is a bout _% a n d is higher in the e I n a bout _% of cases, no cause can be diag nosed. Cerebrovascu lar causes include: i. s h infa rction ii. b iii. v
iv. p a Disorder o f AV n o d e conduction leading to syncope with bradyca rd ia is ca l led
e. Syncope while wearing a tight col lar or while shaving may be due to f.
g.
50%; elderly 40%
91 .3.1
91 .3.2
subarachnoid hemorrhage (most commonly aneurysmal) brainstem infa rction vertebrobasilar insufficiency pitu ita ry apoplexy Stokes-Adams synd rome ca rotid sinus syncope
M ictu rition or cou g h ca using syncope is triggered; syncope and is usually intrathoracic ca l led t associated with elevation in i pressu re. Orthostatic hypotension is defined as a 20; d rop in systolic BP of at least mm 1 0 Hg or diastolic BP of at least mm Hg on standing. __
__
2. When ar e neurodiagnostic tests ( EEG, a scan, M RI, carotid Doppler) warranted in the setting of syncope?
seizu res, a ltered menta l status, Todd 's para lysis, known history of cerebrovascu l a r compromise, new foca l deficits, new language deficits
9 1 .3.3
494 •
Part 22: Differential Diagnosis
Transient Neurologic Deficit 3.
a. b. c. d.
Complete the following about transient neurological deficits (TIA}: B y defi n ition, lasts less than _ hours. Sym ptoms wil l usually subside within (min utes vs. hours) They a re a resu lt of i. Differential for a tra nsient neurologic deficit includes: a i. t ii. m iii. s followed by _____
_ _ _ _
9 1 .4
24 20 m in utes ischemia
transient ischemic attack migraine seizure; Todd's para lysis iv. c s h chronic subdura l hematoma e. TIA-Iike sym ptoms from cerebral anti platelet; amyloid ang iopathy req u i re avoidance of anticoa g u lant a or a medications. __ _ _
_____
______
_____
•
Diplopia 4.
a.
Complete the following regarding the etiology of diplopia secondary to VI nerve palsy:
p b. s c. t.
_ _ _ _ __
____
s
_ _ _ _ __
_ _ _ _
5. The differential for diplopia includes: a. c n p b. i m disease c. G d. m g c a, e. g f. b. g . secondary t o t __ _ _
_ _ _ _
__ _
___
__
_ _ _ __
____ _
___
•
9 1 .6
increased intracranial pressu re sphenoid sinusitis tu mor 9 1 .6
cranial nerve palsies intraorbita l mass G raves' disease myasthenia g ravis giant cel l a rteritis botu lism tra u m a
Anosmia 6.
a. b. c.
Complete the following about anosmia: Most common cause is a severe u
___
Second most common cause is h with a _-_% t occu rrence in severe cases. I ntracranial neoplasms such as g 0 can be a cause. m Congenita l a n osmia is also known as synd rome. K _ _ _ _ _
d.
9 1 .7
u pper respi ratory infection head tra u m a ; 7 - 1 5% olfactory g roove meningiomas Ka l l m a n n synd rome
Neurosurgery Books
Differential Diagnosis (DDx) by Signs and Symptoms - Primarily Intracranial 495 •
Multiple Cranial Nerve Palsies (Cranial Neuropathies) 7.
a.
Complete the following about cranial neuropathies: Congenita l facia l d i plegia is a lso known as M s. It affects which half of the face more? Which other cranial nerves may be i nvolved? Lyme disease ca n cause CN palsy. Affects which half of the face? True or Fa lse. It may also involve other cranial nerves. Tubercu lous meningitis usually i nvolves which cranial nerve first and most frequently? Weber's synd rome involves CN _ a nd c h M i l l a rd-Gubler synd rome involves CN and CN as wel l as c h, A mass in the ventricle may com p ress the f c. causing facial diplegia.
Mobius synd rome
91 .8.1
_ _ _
b. c. d. e. f. g. h.
u pper half CN VI, Ill, or XII CN VII ( u n i latera l or bi latera l ) lower half Fa lse CN VI CN Ill and contra latera l hemiparesis
_ _ _ _ _ _ _
i.
CN VI and VII; contra latera l hemiparesis
____ __ __ __ _
j.
___
____ __ __
8. Complete the following about cavernous sinus syndrome: a . Which cranial nerves ca n b e involved with a lesion in the cavernous sinus? _ b. Clinica l symptoms include d d u e to o c. With CN _ palsy in cavernous sinus synd rome, the pupil (wi l l vs. wi l l not) b e dilated . ____
______________
___
9.
a. b. c. d.
Complete the following about osteopetrosis: Also known as m b It is a g disorder involving defective o resorption of bone. Patients wi l l have (increased vs. decreased) bone density. Most common neurologic man ifestation is b Treatment consists of bi latera l o n decompression . _____
_______
___
4th ventricle; facial col liculus
9 1 .8.2
CN Ill, IV, Vl , V2 , and VI d iplopia ; optha l moplegia CN I l l ; wil l not 9 1 .8.2
marble bone genetic; osteoclastic increased blindness
_ _____
e.
____
_______
91 .8.2
optic nerve
496 •
Part 22: Differential Diagnosis
Binocu lar Blind ness 1 0. What is the differential diagnosis for new onset binocular blindness? I a . bilatera l o dysfu nction secondary to either t or i b. s c. m d. p 0 n e. bilatera l v h such as f. f disorder _ _ __
_ _ _ _
___ _
--
•
9 1 .9
occi pita l lobe; tra u m a ; ischemia seizures {Epileptic blind ness) migrai nes posterior ischemic optic neuropathy vitreous hem orrhage fu nctional; conversion
Monocular Blind ness Complete the following about temporal arteritis: a. Also known as g c. a b. Usually d u e to ischemia of the: i. 0 n ii. 0 t r a iii. c (less likely)
11.
__ _
91 . 1 0
giant cel l a rteritis
___ _
•
optic nerve optic tract centra l reti nal a rtery
Exophthal mos 1 2.
Complete the following about exophthalmos: a . Also known as p b. If history of tra u m a , d ifferential should f include c c c. If fol lowing fronta l-orbita l surgery, differential should include o defect. _ __
___
proptosis ca rotid cavernous fistula
91 .1 1 . 1 91 . 1 1 .2
_ _ _ _
orbita l roof defect
___
____
1 3. What is the differential of pulsatile exophthalmos? f a. c c b. o r d with tra nsm itted intracranial pu lsations c. v t
_ _ _ _
__ _ _
91 . 1 1 .2
ca rotid cavernous fistula orbita l roof defect vascu lar tumor
Differential Diagnosis (DDx) by Signs and Symptoms - Primarily Intracranial 497 •
Ptosis 1 4. What is the differential diagnosis for etiologies causing ptosis? a. c. _ _ __
b. t to eyelid palsy or seen in H c. CN synd rome d. m g e. b f. mechanical obstruction secondary to t or extension of m from fronta l sinus g. d induced __
_ _ _ _
__
_ _ _
_ _ __
__
•
91 . 1 2
congenita l (often a utosomal dominant inherita nce) tra u m a CN I l l ; Horner's synd rome myasthenia g ravis botu lism tumor; mucocele d rug (alcohol, opi u m , etc.)
Tinnitus Complete the following about pulsatile tinnitus: a . Most cases o f pu lsati le ti nnitus a re d u e to v lesions. b. Worku p incl udes: M and a
1 5.
___
_ _ _ _
1 6. What is the differential for nonpulsatile tinnitus? a . occlusion o f e e m, b. o c. M d d. I e. e tumors f. Drugs such as s q , and a ____
__
_ _ _ _
_ _ _ __
_ _ _ _ _ ____ _
__ _ _ _ _
__ _ _ _ _ _ _
•
91 . 1 5.2
vascu l a r M RI (with and without enhancement); ang iogram 9 1 . 1 5.3
external ear otitis media Men iere's disease la byrinthitis endolym phatic sac salicylates, q u i n ine; am inog lycosides
La nguage Disturbance Complete the following about language distu rbances: a . Wernicke's a phasia is a f aphasia. b. Con du ction a phasia is associated with f speech and p (are vs. are not) awa re Patients of their deficits. c. Bilatera l fronta l lobe dysfu nction is associated with a, m
1 7.
__ _
_ _ _ _ _ _
_ _ __
_ _ _ _
91 . 1 7
fl uent fl uent; para phasias; a re not a kinetic m utism
E
92 Differential Diagnosis (DDx) by Signs and Symptoms Primarily Spine and Other
•
Myelopathy 1 . True or False. The following are potential causes of myelopathy: a . cervica l or thoracic spinal stenosis b. chronic anemia c. Cushing's disease d . Lyme disease e. acq u i red i m m u nodeficiency synd rome (AI DS} 2.
a. b.
How does anemia produce myelopathy? Chronic anemia c a n lead t o b m hypertrophy and c c Pern icious anemia ca n lead to s d c
92.2
true true true true true 92.2
bone ma rrow; cord compression su bacute combined degeneration Epid u ra l lipomatosis
3.
is seen in E Cushing's disease and can produce myelopathy.
4.
Order the following location of neoplastic masses causing myelopathy in order of most common to least common: extra d u ra l , intramedullary intra d u ra l extra med u llary, extra d u ra l intramedullary i ntra d u ra l extramed u l l a ry
a. b. c.
5. What are the frequencies of spinal cord tumors in the following locations? a . extra d u ra l : % b. intra d u ra l extramed u l l a ry: _% c. i ntra d u ra l intra med u l l a ry: _% -
92.2
92.2
92.2
55% 40% 5%
Differential Diagnosis (DDx) - Primarily Spine and Other 6. Complete the following about spinal cord infarction: a . Although u ncommon, spi n a l cord infa rction most often occu rs in the s territory of the a a rtery and most com monly at the level of b. This occu rs beca use this reg ion is a w a rea. c c. This spares the p d . Cau ses o f infa rction include: i. h ii. a, iii. e iv. a d v. s s,
92.2
a nterior spinal artery; T4
_ _ __
___
_ _ _ _ _
_ _ _ _ __ _____ _
__
_ _ _ _ _ _
_ _ _ _ _
7.
Necrotizing myelopathy associated with spontaneous thrombosis of a spinal cord AVM that presents as spastic to flaccid paraplegia with ascending sensory level is called F -A __
8.
a. b. c.
e. f.
posterior col u m n s hypotension atherosclerosis em bol ization aortic d issection spinal stenosis Foix-Aiajouanine d isease
92.2
____ _
Regarding acute (idiopathic) transverse myelitis: True or Fa lse. Clinical onset is ind isti n g u ishable from acute spinal cord compression. (Abnormal vs. Norma l) imaging is expected on CT, myelogra m and M RI . Cerebrospinal fl uid (CSF) a n a lysis shows and h p The t region is the most common leve l . True or Fa lse. The most com mon onset is 20 to 40 yea rs of age. True or Fa lse. Usually resu lts in a diagnosis of m u lti ple sclerosis. _ _ _ _ _ _
d.
watershed
9. Abdominal cutaneous reflexes are almost always absent in m
92.2
true Normal pleocytosis and hyperproteinemia thoracic fa lse - most common d u ring fi rst 2 decades of l ife fa lse - MS is diagnosed i n only 7% m u ltiple sclerosis
92.2
_ _ _
s, _____ .
Regarding Devic's syndrome: Cha racterized by acute bilatera l o n and m b. True or Fa lse. The tra nsverse myelitis can be a cause of complete block on myelography. c. True or Fa lse. More common in Asia than i n the United States. d . True or Fa lse. I t is a va riant o f m u ltiple sclerosis.
1 0. a.
___
92.2
optic neuritis; myelopathy true true true
Neurosurgery Books
499
500
Part 22: Differential Diagnosis
11.
N o is another name for Devic's syndrome.
1 2.
The following are part of the mechanism responsible for pernicious anemia: mala bsorption of B 1 2 in the d i lack of secretion of intrinsic factor by g p c
a.
Neu romyelitis optica
92.2
92.2
dista l ileum
___ _
b.
__
1 3.
a. b. c.
gastric parieta l cel l s
__
Complete the following about viral causes of myelopathy: Herpes varicella-zoster ca n rarely cause n m HSV type 2 may cause a m CMV may cause t m _ _ _ _ _ _
_ _ _ _
_ _ _ _ __
_ _____
92.2
necrotizing myelopathy ascending myelitis tra nsverse myelitis
_ _ _ _ __
1 4. AI DS can produce myelopathy via v of the spinal cord. 1 5.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j. k. I. m.
Match the disease with the important feature: CD pernicious anemia; 0 G u i l l a in-Ba rre; @ ALS Features: (a-m) below ascending wea kness atrophic weakness of hands sym metrica l paresthesias posterior col u m n involvement normal sensation dementia a reflexia serum b 1 2 levels fasciculations Shilling test preserved sphincter control treatment with b 1 2 proprioception d ifficu lty
1 6. What are symptoms of ALS? a. s of h and b. a f c. f d . usually preserved s __ _ _
__
_ _ _ _ _
_ _ _ _ _
___ _
c.____
vacuol ization
92.2
92.2
0 ® CD CD 0 CD 0 CD ® CD ® CD CD 92.2
spasticity atrophy of hands and forea rms fasciculations sphincter control
Differential Diagnosis (DDx) - Primarily Spine and Other •
Sciatica 1 7. Complete the following about sciatica: a . T h e sciatic nerve contains roots from L_ to l_ b. The nerve passes out of the pelvis s through the g f c. In the lower third of the thig h , it d ivides i nto the t a n d the c nerves. p d. Most common cause is due to h d, _
L4 t o 5 3
9 2 .3 . 1
g reater sciatic fora men
_ _ _ _ _
_ _ _ _
______
____
1 8.
a. b. c. d. e.
_
_ _ _ _
tibia l ; common peroneal radiculopathy; herniated l u m ba r disc
_
Complete the following about herpes zoster: May rarely cause r Lum bosacra l dermatomas a re involved in _ _% Typical ly, skin lesions fol low pain in __ days. True or Fa lse. Motor weakness ca n occur. True or Fa lse. Urinary retention ca n occur.
Complete the following about piriformis syndrome: a . What are t h e major sym ptoms of pi riformis synd rome?
92.3.2
radiculopathy 1 0-1 5% 3-5 days true true
1 9.
b.
92.3.2
Friedberg test consists of force i of the high and thigh e
92.3.2
pain in the sciatic nerve distri bution with weakness of external rotation and abduction of the hip interna l rotation; extension
___ _
Complete the following about extraspinal tumors causing sciatica: a . What cha racterizes t h e pain? i. i ii. c iii. p iv. position a l vs. non-positional? v. worse in morning or at nig ht? b. About _% wi l l have a previous history of a tum or.
20.
_ ___ __ __ _ _
_ _ _ _ _
21 .
Femoral neuropathy is often mistakenly identified as a radiculopathy at the l_ level.
92.3.3
insidious consta nt prog ressive non-positional night 20% L4
92.3.4
501
E
502
Part 22: Differential Diagnosis
22. Does femoral neuropathy or l4 radiculopathy lead to the following symptoms? a . wea k quadriceps
both femoral neuropathy and L4 radicu lopathy femora l neu ropathy
sensory loss occu rring along the anterior thig h . c . I liopsoas is wea k in
femora l neuropathy
d . Thigh adductors m a y b e wea k in
L4 radicu lopathy
b.
__
23. A peroneal nerve palsy may be mistaken for radiculopathy at what level?
•
92.3.4
LS
92.3.4
Acute Paraplegia or Quadriplegia 24.
a.
Signs of spinal cord compression include: or -p -p
b. u c. s d . possible positive B e. a ltered r
92.4. 1
-plegia or -paresis (parafquadri) u rinary retention sensory level Babinski reflexes (hypo vs. hyper)
25.
Complete the following about para/quadriplegia in infancy: a . Congenita l degeneration o f a nterior horn cells leading to wea kness, a reflexia , tongue fascicu lations, with normal sensation is s m a b. This is also known as f syndrome. b c. If ileus, hypotonia, wea kness, and myd riasis, suspect c bacteria l infection. b
26.
a. b. c. d.
Complete the following about para/ quadriplegia: Classic ascending para lysis is seen with synd rome -B G If post-vira l , paraplegia may be secondary to t m Rapid correction of hyponatremia may lead to c p m a rea may A lesion in t h e p involve both motor strips.
92.4.2
spinal m u scu l a r atrophy (Werd nig-Hoffm a n n d isease is most severe form.) "floppy ba by synd rome" clostrid i u m botu l i n u m
92.4.2
Guillain-Ba rre synd rome tra nsverse myelitis centra l pontine myelinolysis parasag itta l
Differential Diagnosis (DDx) - Primarily Spine and Other •
Hemipa resis or Hemiplegia 27. The most common etiology for pure motor hemiplegia without sensory of loss is a I the contralateral i c 28. What are the different locations in which a lesion can cause hemiplegia? a. c h
c b. i c. b d. c c e. unilatera l s f. While not a lesion, h associated with hemiparesis
•
503
may be
lacu nar infa rct; interna l ca psule
92.5.2
92.5.2
cerebral hemisphere (motor stri p) intern a l ca psule brainstem cervicomed u l l a ry junction spinal cord hypog lycemia
Low Back Pain 29.
a. b. c. d.
Complete the following about back pain: If a patient is writhing in pa i n , consider a or v etiology such as a n a d If consta nt pain at bed rest, consider a s t If noctu rnal back pain relieved by aspiri n , or a consider o 0 benign o Morning back stiffness, h i p pa i n , h i p swelling, no relief with rest, and i mp rovement with exercise is suggestive or e of s a s
30. What are 3 major symptoms of cauda equina syndrome?
Complete the following about cauda equine syndrome: a . What a re 4 treata ble etiolog ies?
92.6.2
abdominal; vascu l a r; aortic dissection spinal tumor osteoid osteom a ; osteoblastoma sacroiliitis; ea rly a n kylosing spondylitis
Perineal (aka saddle) a nesthesia, prog ressive wea kness, u rinary incontinence
31 .
b.
It req u i res (nonemergent or emergent) diag nostic eva l u ation.
92.6.2
92.6.2
Etiolog ies include epid u ra l a bscess, epid u ra l hematoma, tumor (intra d u ra l or extra d u ra l ), massive centra l disc herniatio n . emergent
g
E
504
Part 22: Differential Diagnosis
Complete the following about annular tears: a . Asym ptomatic in _% o f 50-60 yea r old patients. b. Asym ptomatic in _% of 60-70 yea r old patients.
32.
33. Two medications that are associated with acute back pain are: a. s b. p 34.
Disc herniation through the cartilaginous end-plate into the vertebral body is called a S n
92.6.2
40% 75% 92.6.2
stati ns phosphod iesterase in h i bitors such as tadalafil Schmorl's node
92.6.3
---
Complete the following about chronic low back pain: a . After 3 months, a bout _% o f patients with low back pain wi l l have persistent symptoms. A structu ra l diagnosis is fou n d in a bout _% of these patients. b. Erosive changes adjacent to sacroi liac joint and positive H LA-B27 suggests a s
35.
•
92.6.3
5%; 50% a n kylosing spondyl itis
Foot Drop 36. Which exam findings help differentiate common peroneal nerve palsy from l4/l5 radiculopathy? a . strength o f p t with foot i
b.
strength of g with i r of h i p f
m
and
Complete the following about foot drop: a . Due t o wea kness o f a t b. This typica l ly involves cord levels L_ and L_ c. Often accom panied by weak e d I and e h I which a re innervated by the d nerve. p
92.7 . 1
posterior tibia lis; foot inversion (should be i nvolved with radiculopathy but spared in peroneal nerve palsy) g l uteus medius; interna l rotation and flexion (should be i nvolve with radiculopathy but spared in peroneal nerve palsy)
37.
a nterior tibialis L4, L5 extensor digitorum longus; extensor h a l l ucis longus; deep peroneal nerve
•
Neurosurgery Books
92.7 . 1
Differential Diagnosis (DDx) - Primarily Spine and Other "Flail foot" may be caused by s nerve dysfu nction. e. Which division of the sciatic nerve is more sensitive to inj u ry (peroneal vs. tibia l }?
d.
__ _
38. What are the neurologic etiologies for a foot drop? a. p nerve I nJ U ry b. L or L radiculopathy c. I p inj u ry d. nerve inj u ry e. A -M -T f. C g. h m p h. p lesion i. s c inj u ry _
_
__
___
__
__
__
____ _
___
39. What are the muscles and nerve roots that produce the following movements? a. thigh adduction b. knee extension c. i ntern a l rotation at hip d . hip extension e. knee flexion f. foot pla nta r flexion g . foot i nversion h . foot eversion
i.
a n kle dorsiflexion
sciatic nerve peroneal d ivision more sensitive to inj u ry
92.7.3
peroneal (deep vs. com mon) L5; L4 l u m ba r plexus sciatic ALS Charcot-Marie-Tooth heavy meta l poisoning parasag itta l lesion spinal cord
adductors, L2-3 q u a d riceps, L2-4 g l uteus medius, L4-5 , S l g l uteus maximus, L5 , S l -2 biceps femoris, L5, S l -2 gastrocnemius, S l -2 tibia lis posterior, L4-5 peroneus longus and brevis, L5, S l a nterior ti bialis, L4-5
40. Thigh adduction involves: a. muscles b. nerve c. roots
adductors obtu rator L2 ,3
41 . a. b. c.
Knee extension involves: muscles nerve roots
q u a d riceps femoral L2-4
42. a. b. c. d.
Internal rotation of the thigh involves: muscle nerve roots I f weak, means lesion is very p
g l uteus medius su perior g l utea l L4-5 , S l proxi m a l
43. a. b. c. d.
Digging heels into bed involves: m uscle nerve roots I f weak, means lesion is very p
g l uteus maximus inferior g l utea l LS, S l -2 proxi m a l
_ _ _
_ _ _
92.7.2
Fig. 9 2 . 1
Ta ble 9 2 . 3
Fig. 9 2 . 1
Fig. 9 2 . 1
Fig. 9 2 . 1
Fig. 9 2 . 1
505
E
506 44.
Part 22: Differential Diagnosis Fig. 9 2 . 1
Knee flexion with thigh flexed involves: m uscles nerve roots
latera l hamstrings sciatic LS, 5 1 -2
45. a. b. c.
Plantar flexion of foot involves: muscle nerve roots
gastrocnemius sciatic 5 1 -2
46. a. b. c. d.
Foot inversion involves: muscle nerve roots I f strong b u t in the presence o f a foot d rop, it means that the inj u ry is dista l to the take-off of the c p nerve.
a. b. c.
47. Foot eversion involves: a. m uscles b. nerve c. roots d . I f strong b u t in the presence o f a foot d rop, it means that the inj u ry is in the d nerve. p 48. What are the ways to distinguish foot drop from injury to the deep vs. common peroneal nerve? a . Deep peroneal nerve: i. major weakness sym ptom ii. wea k muscle iii. sensory loss b. Common peroneal nerve: i. major weakness sym ptom ii. wea k muscles
iii. sensory loss 49. What distinguishes superficial peroneal nerve injury? a . major wea kness sym ptom b. wea k m u scles c. presence of foot d rop? d. Sensory loss 50. a.
b.
Complete the following: Pai n less foot d rop is likely due to n p Painfu l foot d rop is likely d u e to
Ta ble 9 2 . 3
Ta ble 9 2 . 3
posterior tibial tibial L4-5 common peroneal
Ta ble 9 2 . 3
peroneus longus and brevis superficia l peroneal LS, S 1 deep peroneal
Ta ble 9 2 . 3
foot d rop a nterior tibial web space foot d rop and wea k eversion a nterior tibial and peroneus longus and brevis latera l leg and foot Ta ble 9 2 . 3
foot eversion peroneus longus and brevis no latera l leg and foot 92.7.3
peroneal nerve (palsy) radiculopathy
Differential Diagnosis (DDx) - Primarily Spine and Other c.
Pa in less foot d rop without sensory loss cou l d be due to a p lesion , which wou l d b e associated with a reflex and B (hypo vs. hyperactive) reflexes.
507
parasag itta l ; Babinski; hyperactive
_ _ _ _
•
Weakness/Atrophy of the Hands/UEs Complete the following regarding lesion location and findings in " cruciate paralysis": a. Physical exa m demonstrates bilatera l e wea kness and u a h b. This is due to pressu re on the p d
51 .
52. Atrophy of the first dorsal interosseous muscle is usually due to C_/T_ nerve root or u nerve disease.
92.8 . 1
u pper extrem ity; hand atrophy pyra m idal decussations C8/Tl ; u l n a r nerve
92.8.2
___
•
Radicu lopathy, Upper Extremity (Cervical ) 53.
Myocardial infarction may present with symptoms similar to a radiculopathy at what level and side?
54. Complete the following: a . T h e "em pty ca n " test suggests
b.
Intersca pular pain suggests
55. Match the symptom with the position of the disc most likely to produce it: CD centra l cervical disc; (I) latera l cervical disc Sym ptom: (a-f) below a . pain b. myelopathy c. bilatera l sym ptoms d . u pper extrem ity sym ptoms e. lower extrem ity sym ptoms f. n u m b-cl u m sy hand synd rome
left C6
92.9
92.9
shoulder pathology referred pain with cervical radiculopathy or cholecystitis 9 2 . 9 , 9 2 . 1 0 , 92 . 1 1
Cil CD CD Cil CD CD
508 •
Part 22: Differential Diagnosis
Burning Ha nds/ Feet 56. What are possible etiologies for a patient complaining of burning hands or feet? c s a. c b. b h s, c. n -c h s d. c p s e. p n, f. e __ __
__
___
__ _ _ _
_ __ _
__
__
_ _ _ _
__
_ _ _ _ _
__ _ _
_ __ _ _
g.
•
a
d isease
92 . 1 1
centra l cord synd rome b u rning hands synd rome n u m b-cl umsy hand synd rome complex reg ional pain synd rome peripheral neuropathy erytherma lgia (or eryth romela lg ia) a rterial
Lhermitte's Sig n Complete the following about lhermitte's sign: a . What is t h e major symptom and what provokes it?
57.
b.
Etiolog ies include: i. m s s ii. c c iii. s d iv. tumor of the v. disc herniation in the reg ion vi . C m vii . r m viii. c c s. ____
____ _ _ _ _ _
_ _ _ __
_ ___ _ _ _ _ __
_ _ _ _ _ _ _____
•
92 . 1 3 . 1
92. 1 3.2
__ _ _ _
__
An electrical shock-like sensation radiating down the spine. Usually provoked by neck flexion.
_ _ _ __
mu ltiple sclerosis cervica l spondylosis su bacute combined degeneration cervica l cord cervica l Chiari ma lformation rad iation myelopathy centra l cord synd rome
Swa llowing Difficu lties 58. Although swallowing difficulties are not uncommon after an A this should prompt consideration for a post-op h ___ ,
_ _ _ _ _
ACDF; hematoma
92. 1 4
93 Procedures, Interventions, Operations: General Information
•
I ntraoperative Dyes Complete the following about intraoperative dyes: carries a s m a l l risk o f seizu re a. when administered intratheca l ly. is cytotoxic b. and should not be used at a l l . c. can be used to demonstrate a rteriovenous ma lformation (AVM) vessels intraoperatively and a reas of blood brain ba rrier breakdown (e.g . tumors). d. c a n b e used t o identify cerebrospinal fl uid (CSF) leaks a n d is considered safe. used for e. intraoperative ang iogra m . 1.
•
93.2
Fluorescein Methylene blue Fluorescein
Fluorescein lndigocyanine g reen (ICG)
Operating Room Equipment 2.
a. b.
Complete the following about microscope setup For spine cases t h e eyepiece is usually directly the pri mary s u rgeon. I n contrast, for intracranial work, the observer's eyepiece is placed to the
c. The exceptions to this a re: i. ii.
93.3 . 1
opposite rig ht
tra nsphenoid ial su rgery right posterior fossa cra n iotomy in the latera l oblique position
Neurosurgery Books
g
I!
51 0
Part 23: Procedures, Interventions, Operations
3.
Complete the following on headfixation a . Alternatives t o pin based head fixation include i. ii.
93.3.2
Horse-shoe head rest Dou g h n ut fashioned out of stockinette Prone-view 3
iii. Pin-sta bilization is not recommended for use in children under the age of _. c. These featu res of head-fixation should be considered depending on the type of case: i. radiolucent head holders for vascular cases with angiograms ii. attachment of self-retaining retractor or systems iii. to the Mayfield system . image g u idance systems
b.
4.
Manufacture recommendations for cranial pin placement include: a. Similar to a sweatba nd worn just about and the b. Avoid placing pins in the tem poral bone or the sin uses. for c. The single pin is placed the supine position and on the side as the operation when doing prone posterior fossa cases. d. Ad u lts should be placed in pins that have fin a l resti ng tension between and 80 lbs.
93.3.2
orbits and pinna squamous; fronta l
___
a nteriorly; same 60
___
•
Surgica l Hemostasis 5. Complete the following about surgical hemostasis: a . Bone wax i n h ibits formation. b. True or Fa lse. The fol lowing chemical hem ostatic agents exerts its effect by promoti ng platelet aggregation: i. Gelfoam ii. Oxidized cel l u lose iii. Avitene iv. Throm bin Match the surgical hemostasis substance with its trade name: CD Throm bostat; @ Gelfoa m ; G) Oxycel ; @ S u rgicel ; ® Avitene a. gelatin sponge b. oxidized cel l u lose c. regenerated cel l u lose
bone
93.4. 1 93.4.2
fa lse fa lse true (less so if platelets < 1 OK) fa lse
6.
93.4.2
@ G) @
Procedures, Interventions, Operations: General Information d . microfibri l l a r collagen e. thrombin
•
51 1
® CD
Craniotomy General I nformation 7 . Complete the brain swelling intraoperative checklist. ( H i nt: decompress) a. d b. e ( c. c d. 0 of e. m f. p g. r h. e _ ____ _ _ _
_ _ _ __ _
i. j.
(s) (s)
8.
Complete the following regarding the risks of craniotomy: increased neurological deficit (tu mor case): % postop hemorrhage: % infection: % a nesthetic complications: %
a. b. c. d.
Complete the following regarding anticonvulsants: a . True or Fa lse. Maintain their u s e if cortica l incision is a nticipated . b. Describe the method of load i n g.
93.5.3
d rain CSF elevate head C02 (hyperca rbia) obstruction of jug ul a r veins mannitol hyperventilate remove bone excise bra i n (tem pora l or fronta l lobes)
93.5.4
1 0% 1% 2% 0.2%
9.
1 0.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. 11.
list the possible causes for acute postoperative deterioration h h a c p e v s p a
a.
If postoperative seizures occur, consider the following: (Hint: a bci) a
b.
b
___ __ _
_ _ _
93.5.4
true (use Keppra) 500 mg PO/ IV q 1 2 hours 93.5.5
hematoma acute hyd rocephalus cerebra l infa rction pneumosephalus edema vasospasm seizu re persistent anesthetic
g 93.5.5
a nticonvu lsant level-d raw blood bol us-additional a nticonvu lsa nts
51 2 c.
Part 23: Procedures, Interventions, Operations c
CAT sca n-to identify if a ny cause intubate-to protect a i rway
d. 1 2.
a.
Complete the following regarding postoperative headaches: "Synd rome o f t h e trephined" ca n conti n u e to improve out to yea rs in one series for posterior fossa cra niotomies. It has been described to be similar to synd rome.
93.5.6
2
_
b.
•
post-concussive synd rome
I ntraoperative Cortical Mapping ( Brain Mapping) 1 3. Answer the following questions regarding locating the primary sensory cortex: a . I ntraoperative SSEP m a y local ize the phase reversa l pri mary sensory cortex by potentia ls across the centra l sulcus. perpendicu lar b. This is done with a stri p electrode oriented in the di rection to the antici pated orientation of the centra l sulcus.
93.6.2
1 4. Answer the following questions regarding awake craniotomies: a . Critica lly im porta nt t o understa nd a n d manage the a nesthetic agents which include and para lytics as to not obscure electrica l sti m u lation. b. Pre-operative practice with the patient can be im porta nt to identify necessa ry aids in the OR, such as
93.6.3
c.
I! d.
Loca l a nesthesia should be considered in 4 reg ions: i. s ii. a iii. p iv. 0 is pain I ntracra n i a l , the sensitive while the brain is not.
local and short acti ng
reading glasses
supraorbita l and supratroch lear a u ricu lotem pora l postra u ricu l a r occipita l d u ra
Procedures, Interventions, Operations: General Information •
51 3
Cranioplasty 1 5. Answer the following about cranioplasty a . Indications include and
b.
Material options include the -- ---
'
or
cosmetic, symptomatic relief, and protection patient's own bone, methyl methacrylate, mesh, pre-fa bricated custom flap; split thickness calvaria
Localizing levels in spine surgery. Name pitfalls a. The count can be off if there a re not 1 2; ribs and l u m ba r vertebra . 5 b. The transverse process ca n mimic a ri b at L1 if it is large.
1 6.
93. 7 . 1
93.7.3
93.7.3
__
•
Bone Graft 1 7. Answer the following regarding bone graft: a . Autologous bone or rh B M P i s recommended in the setti ng of an in conjunction with a threaded tita n i u m cage. This is based on level _ evidence.
93. 8 . 1
AUF; 1
___
1 8. Which of the flowing should not be used to assess for fusion? a . static x-rays alone b. Technetium-99 bone sca n c. flexion/extension fi lms
d. The correlation between fusion and clinical outcome is 1 9.
a.
For spine fusions, components of bone graft that are important for fusion:
b. c. d. 20.
a. b. c.
For each of the above graft characteristics which material has a very strong effect in each. osteoinduction osteogensis osteoconduction
93.8.2
do not use do not use do not use in the absence of instru mentation not strong, possibly u n related 93.8.3
osteoinduction (sti m u late cel l s to develop) osteogensis (formation of new bone) osteoconduction (structu re of g raft so new bone can build upon) mechanical sta bil ity
g 93.8.3
BMP ca ncellous a utog raft ca ncellous a utog raft
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514
Part 23: Procedures, Interventions, Operations
d.
mechanical sta bil ity
e.
B M P is FDA approved only for use in procedures, other uses a re off label.
21 . a. b. c. d.
Common autograft donor sites include
22. Bone graft procurement a . Anterior i l i a c bone should b e obtained 3, to avoid 4 em latera l to the the b. Posterior iliac crest bone g rafts a re taken from the 6-8 em of the iliac crest to avoid . I nj u ry here can resu lt in a
c. When isolating the fi bula, the nerve is t o b e avoided a t the proxim a l head. At least em should be dista l ly preserved to mainta in a n kle stabil ity.
cortical or vascula rized a utog ra ph AUF
93.8.3
iliac crest ri b fibula bone removed d u ring de com pression 93.8.4
AS IS; latera l femoral cuta neous nerve media l ; su perior cluneal nerves (which cross the posterior iliac crest at 8 em); n u m b buttock or painfu l neuromas peronea l ; 7
__
•
Stereotactic Surgery 23. a. b. c. d. e. f.
Stereotactic surgery indications
g . T h e abil ity t o m a ke a diagnosis i n the setting of a stereotactic biopsy ra nges from to in a large series and was slig htly lower in patients with __
biopsy catheter placement electrode placement lesion generation SRS experimental (laser, transpla ntation, other) 82-99%; AI DS
___
h . T h e yield rate is h i g h e r for lesions that on CT or M RI . i. The most frequent complication is , which was slig htly worse in patients with j. In non-i m m u nocom promised patients, the highest rate of complication occu rred in
enha nce hemorrhage; AIDS m u ltifoca l high g rade g liomas
Neurosurgery Books
93.9.2
93.9.3
94 Specific Craniotomies
•
Posterior Fossa (Suboccipital ) Cra niectomy 1 . True or False. The correct treatment for air embolism sustained during a craniotomy performed with the patient in a sitting position is a . t o fi nd and occl ude site o f entry o r ra pidly pack wound with sopping wet sponges. b. bilatera l or right-sided j u g u l a r venous compression. c. venti lation with 1 00% 02• d. rotati ng the patient rig ht side down .
e . aspirating air from centra l venous pressu re (CVP) catheter. f. avoiding positive end -expi ratory pressure (PEEP), which is ineffective and may worsen the risk of paradoxica l a i r embolism. 2.
a.
Complete the following about posterior fossa craniectomy and air embolism: Effect o f a i r in rig ht atri u m i s i. h
ii. a Paradoxica l air em bolism may occur in the presence of f i. p 0 ii. or p a rteriovenous (AV) f c. I n cidence in sitting position is %. d . Preca utions req u i re: i. D ii. c in e . Earliest clue t o occu rrence i s b.
Ta ble 94. 1
true true true fa lse (Patient should be turned left side down to tra p a i r i n the rig ht atri u m . ) true true
94. 1 . 2
hypotension (due to impaired venous retu rn) a rrhyth mias patent fora men ova le pulmonary AV fistu la 7 to 2 5 % Doppler precordial u ltrasound CVP catheter in rig ht atriu m fa l l in e n d tid a l pC02
D
a
51 6
Part 23: Procedures, Interventions, Operations
How does air embolism cause problems? a . A i r becomes tra pped in t h e
3.
___ _
b. c.
i m pa i rs prod uces
___ ___ ,
and
_ _ _
94. 1 . 2
rig ht atri u m venous retu rn hypotension
4. Outline the intraoperative treatment for air embolism during a craniotomy. ( H int: occl ude) a. o b. c c. c d. I e. u f. d g. e
occlude entry site cover with wet laps com p ress j u g u l a r veins left side down lower head venti late/ increase vol u m e disconti nue nitrous evacuate air
5. Earliest clues to occurrence include: a . fa l l i n b. sou nd on Doppler is c. blood pressu re
end tida l pC02 machinery sound hypotension
_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
_ _ _ _ _ _
___ _
True or False. The following approach is most applicable for a vertebral endarterectomy: a . midline su bocci pita l craniotomy b. extreme latera l posterior fossa a pproach c. paramedian su boccipital craniotomy
Ta ble 94. 1
94. 1 . 2
6.
d.
su btem pora l cra n iotomy
7. a.
Consider the concept of " 5-5-5."
b.
i. This relates to the ii. for a linear iii. for access to the
incision incision
The first n u m ber relates to the m m m e d i a l t o the ii. The second n u m ber relates to the the notch . iii. The third n u m ber relates to the the notch .
i.
94. 1 . 2
fa lse fa lse true (Paramedian su bocci pita l cra n iotomy gives decent access to the vertebral a rtery and to the posterior inferior cerebe l l a r artery ( PICA) and the vertebrobasilar junction . ) fa lse 94. 1 . 3
skin paramed ian CPA mastoid notch em a bove em below
Specific Craniotomies 8.
a. b. c. d. e.
Matching. Match the incision with the objective. I n cision: CD 5-6-4; 0 5-5-5; ® 5-4-6 Objective: approach for (a-e) below t h e fifth nerve hemifacia l spasm g lossopharyngea l neura l g ia microvascular trigeminal decompression vesti b u l a r schwa n noma
Location of the inferior margin of the transverse sinus can be estimated f a . t o be above the n b. m
94. 1 . 3
CD 0 ® CD 0
9.
1 0. a.
b.
11.
a.
Describe the Frazier burr hole. It is used i. p ii. to relieve p swelling or iii. d u e to h iv. e It is located i. to em from the midline. ii. to em above the inion in a d u lts. iii. to em above the i n ion in children. Complete the following regarding posterior fossa post-op complications: Respiratory: prevent by
Hypertension: mainta in SBP below with c. Acute hyd rocephalus: treat with
94. 1 . 3
two finger breadths mastoid notch 94. 1 . 3
prophylactica l ly post-operative hyd rocephalus edema 3 to 4 6 to 7 3 to 4 94. 1 . 7
keeping patient intu bated
b.
1 60 with nitroprusside
d.
ventricular ta p-external ventricu l a r d ra i n (EVD) cerebrospinal fl uid (CSF} leak
Meningitis: prevent b y prom pt repair of any
1 2.
is Blood pressure above dangerous for the post-operative posterior fossa patient.
1 3.
Complete the following regarding the posterior fossa: I ncreased pressure in t h e posterior fossa is heralded by changes in i. b p ii. r p not by i i. p ii. m s c iii. I
a.
b.
51 7
1 60 mm Hg systolic
94. 1 . 7
94. 1 . 7
blood pressure (increase) respiratory pattern pupillary inequality level menta l status ICP changes
D
a
51 8 1 4.
a. b.
c.
Part 23: Procedures, Interventions, Operations Considerations for post-operative posterior fossa emergency include: clinica l ly i. blood pressu re (BP} ii. respirations recommended treatment i. i ii. t iii. 0 Should you i. obtain a com puted tomographic (CT} sca n first? ii. wait for operati ng room availabil ity?
94. 1 . 7
high la bored intu bate ta p ventricle open wound no no
Indicate whether increased pressure in the posterior fossa or supratentorial compartment produces a change in the following: a . pupillary reflexes: supratentorial compartment b. level of consciousness: supratentoria l compartment
1 5.
c.
i ncrease in intracranial pressu re (ICP}:
d. changes in respi ration: e. rise in blood pressu re:
•
supratentoria l compartment posterior fossa posterior fossa
Pterional Craniotomy 1 6.
a. b. c. d. e. 1 7.
•
94. 1 . 7
Matching. Match the head position with the location of the aneurysm. Head position: CD ang led 30 degrees; 0 ang led 45 degrees; ® ang led 60 deg rees Location of aneurysm : ICA P-comm ca rotid term inus middle cerebra l a rtery basi l a r bifu rcation A-com m Name the artery ( ies ) that cross the sylvian fissure.
Fig. 94.5
CD CD 0 CD ® none cross
94. 2 . 2
Tempora l Craniotomy 1 8. True or False. A temporal craniotomy can allow access t o the following structures: a . fora men ova le b. Meckel's cave c. la byri nth ine and u pper tym panic portion of the facial nerve
94.3 . 1
true true true
Specific Craniotomies
1 9. A temporal lobectomy a . c a n safely resect _ - _ em in the dominant hemisphere b. and em in the nondominant hemisphere.
•
Frontal Craniotomy 20. Complete the following regarding the superior sagittal sinus {SSS): a . The risk in sacrifice of the SSS is
b. True or Fa lse. It a l m ost a lways occurs with sacrifice of i. the posterior third ii. the middle third iii. the anterior third
•
94.3.4
4-5 (before inj u ry to Wern icke a rea) 6-7 (before inj u ry to optic radiations)
94.4.2
venous infa rction
true true fa lse
Approaches to the Third Ventricle 21 . Study Chart. a. t b. t i. a ii. p c. s i. s ii. 0 iii. I t iv. t d. t e. s f. s 22.
94. 7 . 1
tra nscortica l tra nsca l losa l anterior posterior su bfronta l s u bchiasmatic opticoca rotid lamina term ina lis transsphenoidal transsphenoid a l su btem pora l stereotactic
What is the risk of post-operative 5% seizures after a transcortical approach to the anterior third ventricle {e.g., for a colloid cyst)?
23. What are the principles of tumor removal? a . Veins must b e preserved at a l l - ---,- --,---b. First remove the tumor from with in the
c.
If ad hesions seem u nyielding, the most l i kely cause is i evacuation. _ _ _
94. 7 . 1
94. 7 . 2
costs ca psule incomplete intraca psu lar
_ _ _
Neurosurgery Books
51 9
a
520
Part 23: Procedures, Interventions, Operations
24. Complete the following: a. True or Fa lse. A disconnection synd rome (split-brain synd rome) is com mon with i. posterior ca l losotomy through splen i u m . ii. a nterior ca l losotomy. iii. ca l losotomy < 2 . 5 em in length from a point 1 to 2 em behind the tip of the genu. b. Which of the above a pproaches avoids the disconnection synd rome best?
94. 7 . 3
true (where more visual information crosses) fa lse fa lse ca l losotomy < 2.5 em in length from a point 1 to 2 em behind the tip of the genu
25.
Describe the transcallosal approach to the third ventricle. a . T h e su perior sag itta l s i n u s {SSS) is often to the of the sagitta l sutu re. b. The cranial opening should be i. a nterior to the coronal sutu re ii. and behind it. c. The two cingu late gyri may be ad herent i n the midline and can be mistaken for the c c d. i. The corpus callosum has a disti nct color. ii. It is located beneath the paired a rteries. e. The open ing is usually made between a rteries. the p p f. The trajectory of dissection is from the s i. c a ii. to the e m l ies iii. The f of M along this line. g. i. It is helpfu l to fenestrate the s p ii. to prevent it from b i nto the ventricle iii. especi ally in a case of c c How can you tell which ventricle you are in? a. The fora men of Monro is located m b. If the choroid plexus goes to the left to enter the fora men of Monro you a re in the ventricle.
94. 7 . 3
rig ht two third one third corpus ca llosum
wh ite perica l losa l paired perica l losal coronal suture external aud itory meatus fora men of Monro septu m pel l u cid u m bulging colloid cyst
26.
94. 7 . 3
medially rig ht
Specific Craniotomies c.
If you see no choroid plexus and no veins cavum septu m pel l u cid u m you m a y be in a c s _ _ _
P· ---
d . T h e safe way t o enlarge the fora men of Monro is posteriorly between the a n d the _ _ _
____ ____
27.
a.
choroid plexus; fornix
Complete the following about approaches to the third ventricle: T h e interhemispheric approach runs risk of inj u ry to which may prod uce The a nterior transca l losal a pproach runs risk of inj u ry to which may prod uce problem with m and s -t n I, The transcortica l approach is i. made through the gyrus. --,---- ----,-ii. This is a bout the same spot used for e v d iii. ca lled point.
bilatera l ci n g u l ate gyrus
94. 7 . 3
_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
b. c.
_ _ _ _ __
tra nsient m utism bilatera l fornices
_ _ _ _ _ _ _
d.
short-term memory and new learning
_ _ _
e.
_ _ _
94. 7 . 4
middle fronta l external ventricu lar d ra i n
___ _
•
Kocher's point
Decompressive Craniectomy 28.
a.
Indications for decompressive craniectomy: 94. 1 0. 1
i.
m m cerebral a rtery occl usion ii. pri marily for the n, hemisphere d b. p i hypertension c. True or Fa lse. It is necessa ry to open the d u ra . d . Sku l l reimpla ntation c a n b e considered after to weeks. e. i. A opening is best, by ii. approximately em or l a rger. _ _ _ _
___
malignant middle non-dominant persistent intracranial true 6 to 1 2 large 1 2 by 1 2
94. 1 0. 3
521
95 Spine, Cervical
•
Anterior Approaches to the Cervica l Spine Complete the following regarding extrapharyngeal approaches to the cervical spine a. Extra pharyngeal approaches use n intu bation. b. The head is slig htly e and is degrees to the rotated contra latera l side. c. In the medial extra pharyngea l a pproach, the branches of the a rtery, u nerves, and h nerve a re encou ntered. d. I n the latera l retropharyngeal a pproach nerve is the s encou ntered .
1.
•
95.1
nasotracheal extended ; 15 branches of external ca rotid a rtery, upper l a ryngeal nerves, and hypog lossa l nerve spinal accessory nerve
Transoral Approach to Anterior Cra niocervical J u nction 2.
Complete the following regarding the transoral approach to the craniocervical junction: a . Pri marily usefu l for midline e. lesions. b. Approach to intra d u ra l lesions is l i m ited beca use of d ifficu lties obtaining closure and increased risk of w m __ _
95.2 . 1
extra d u ra l watertig ht; meningitis
__ _
Complete the following regarding transoral approach to anterior craniocervical junction: a. % o f patients need posterior fusion after a tra nsora l odontoidectomy. b. The patient must be able to open the mm. mouth at least c . T h e tubercle o f t h e a ca n be pal pated through the posterior pharynx in order to locate the m
3.
_ _ _
95.2.2
75% 25 mm atlas; midline
Spine, Cervical d . I f Cl ring sparing is not done, the centra l is em of the removed. e. There is a bout m m of working dista nce between the two vertebral a rteries where they enter the f t at the inferior aspect of the latera l mass of ___
__ __
atlas 20-2 5 ; fora men tra nsversari u m ; C2
_ _ _
•
Occipitocervical Fusion 4. What are the disadvantages of occipitocervical fusion? a . Decreased r at m 0 the occipitocervica l j u n ction b. is higher than with Cl -C2 fusion alone. 5. True or False. The following is an indication for occipitocervical fusion: a . congenita l a bsence o f com plete Cl a rch b. u pwa rd migration of the odontoid into the fora men magnum c. congen ita l anomal ies of occipitocervica l joi nts d . type I I odontoid fractu re 6.
a. b. c.
Complete the following regarding occipitocervical fusion: % of Patient wi l l lose about neck flexion. Keel plate must be placed at the region of the occi pita l bone. the thickness It is advisa ble to of the occipita l bone pre-operatively.
7. True or False. After occipitocervical fusion, a halo is indicated in the following patients for 8-1 2 weeks; a . patients with severe Cl fractu res b. elderly patients c. u n reliable patients d . smokers
95.3
ra nge of motion non-union rate 95.3
true true true fa lse
30%
95.3
thickest; midline measure
9 5 .3 . 1
95.3.4
true true true true
523
Part 23: Procedures, Interventions, Operations
524 •
Anterior Odontoid Screw Fixation 8.
a.
Complete the following regarding anterior odontoid screw fixation: C1 -C2 complex is responsible for % of head rotation. Sta bil ity of the Cl -2 joint depends on the integ rity of the o p and the a t ligament. I n dicated i n patients who have a type odontoid fractu re and a n i ntact t ligament. Patients with type fractu res a re also indicated when the fractu re line is in the c portion of the body of C2 in an elderly patient who may not fuse as wel l with immobilization as a younger patient. Contra ind ications to a nterior odontoid screw fixation include if there is a fractu re of the v b and if the fractu re is less than months old. Fol l owing fixation the immediate post% of the op strength is only normal od ontoid . Therefore, a cervica l brace is weeks recommended for u n less the patient has significant osteoporosis at which point a brace is recom mended. With fractu res < 6 months old, the u n ion %. rate was Chronic non u n ions > 6 months old have a bony union rate of %, and % rate of presumed fibrous u n ion.
50%
95.4. 1
____
b.
___ _
c. d.
e.
odontoid process; atla nta ! tra nsverse II; tra nsverse
95.4.3
Ill; cephalad
vertebral body; 6
95.4.4
_ _ _ _
_ _ _
f. g.
50 %
95.4.5
6· halo
_ _ _
h. i.
95% 3 1 %; 38%
____
•
Atlantoaxial Fusion (Cl -2 Arthrodesis) 9. Complete the following about atlantoaxial fusion (C1 -C2 arthrodesis). a . T h e patient wil l lose a bout % of 50% head rotation. b. Indications for atla ntoaxia l fusion include atlantoaxial; a dislocation d u e to tra nsverse atlanta ! incom petence of the t a ligament. ___
__ _
Neurosurgery Books
95.5.1
Spine, Cervical
525
c. Atla ntoaxia l fusion is fu rther indicated in I I ; patients with incom petence of the 6mm; Bow hu nter's s i g n odontoid process including i n patients fractu res with with type > m m of displacement or i n patients with B h sign characterized by vertebrobasilar insufficiency with head tu rni n g. Describe t h e wiring a n d fusion technique and differentiate. to a . Brooks fusion involves sublaminar wires with bone g rafts. b . Gal lie fusion involves midline wi re under the a rch of with a n bone g raft. c . Dickman and Son ntag fusion involves wire passed sublaminar to with a single g raft wedged between Cl and C2.
1 0.
11.
a. b. c.
d.
Complete the following about C1 -2 transarticular facet screws: A major risk of the proced u re is a rtery inj u ry. May be used as an adjunct to Dickman and Son ntag tech nique to ach ieve sta bil ization. c Req u i res pre-op t c sca ns from the o c with through sag itta l reconstruction through the Cl -2 facet on both sides to look for the presence of a v a in t h e intended path o f t h e screw. A fusion rate of % has been reported.
95.5.2
Cl t o C 2 ; two wedge Cl ;
"H"
Cl ; bicortical
95.5.3
vertebral a rtery i m m ediate thin cut CT; occipita l condyles; C3 ; vertebral a rtery
99%
Complete the following about C1 -2 lateral mass screws: latera l mass; ped icle a . I nvolves placement of polyaxial mi n i screws i n Cl and C2 with rod fixation. vertebral a rtery b . Decreased risk of inj u ry as com pared to tra nsarticu lar facet screws. subl uxation c . May be used in the presence of Cl -2
1 2.
95.5.3
B
Part 23: Procedures, Interventions, Operations
526 d.
Preoperative sca n is req u i red to assess the thickness of the in case the a rch of a rch needs to be d ril led to facil itate screw placement; as wel l as to determ ine screw and to esti mate angle for screws. When placing C1 screws the m m to the may be as close as ideal exit site of the screw. Post-operatively, a cervica l col l a r (soft or rigid, as preferred ) is used for weeks. _ _ _ _ _ _ _
____
____ ____ ____
____
e. f.
t h i n c u t CT; cra nia-ca u d a l ; posterior; C1 ; length; media-latera l
____
_ _ _
ICA; 1 m m 4-6
_ _ _
____
•
C2 Screws 1 3.
a.
The following are the four types of C2 screws: P screws, which a re d irected
b.
L screws, which a re . These screws a re di rected sized to fa l l short of c. C 1 -2 t screws, associated with more risk of VA i nj u ry d. T screws
_ _ _ _ _ _ _
Complete the following about placement of C3-6 lateral mass screws: a . I n t h e A n method t h e screw is placed ,m m medial to the midpoint in the media-latera l direction and in the midpoint in the crania-ca udal d i rection degrees with a trajectory of degrees cepha lad. latera l and b. I n the Magerl method the screw is placed ,m m medial to the midpoint in the media-latera l direction and ,mm cranial to the mid point in the cra nia-caudal direction with a trajectory of degrees latera l and to the facet joi nt. c. In the Roy-Ca mille method the screw is placed at the mid point i n the med ia latera l d i rection and cran ia-caudal d i rection with a trajectory of degrees latera l and degrees cra n ia-ca u d a l .
95.6. 1
Ped icle; medially Latera l mass; latera l ly; fora men tra nsversari u m transarticular Translaminar
1 4.
___
___
___
_ _ _
___
_ _ _
Ta ble 9 5 . 1
1 mm; 30 degrees; 1 5 deg rees
2mm; 2mm; 20-25 degrees; parallel
0-1 0 degrees; 0 deg rees
96 Spine, Thoracic and lumbar
•
Anterior Access to the Cervico-Thoracic J unction/Upper Thoracic Spine. Anterior Access to Mid and Lower Thoracic Spine 1.
a. b.
Complete the following about anterior access to the cervico-thoracic junction, upper thoracic spine and lower thoracic spine: proced u re The s s a l lows access to and occasionally I n accessing the mid thoracic spine with a right sided thoracotomy, the h ,m , a nd b vein do not i m pede access. In accessing the mid thoracic spine with a left sided thoracotomy, the a, is easier to mobilize a n d retract. I n accessing the lower thoracic spine, a sided thoracotomy is preferred as it is easier to mobilize the ___
___
sternal spl itti n g ; T3 ; TS heart, mediasti n u m ; brachiocephalic vein
96 . 1 . 1
96.2.2
___
c.
aorta
___
d.
___
e. At Tl 0, the attachment of the increases the d ifficu lty of the a pproach.
•
left; aorta
96.2.3
diaphragm
Thoracic Pedicle Screws 2.
Complete the following about thoracic pedicle screws: a . Due t o t h e dense bone o f t h e shoulders, Tl t o T4 the thoracic spine is usually difficult to on to image from latera l fl uoroscopy. b. With regards to the cran iocaudal middle (mnemonic: Tl -2-3 direction use the "mid tp") of the tra nsverse process as a n entry point for thoracic levels Tl , T2 , T3 & T1 2 .
96.3 . 1
96.3.3
528
Part 23: Procedures, Interventions, Operations
c. With regards to the cra niocaudal of the d i rection, use the tra nsverse process as a n entry point for thoracic levels T7, T8 T9. d . When freehanding using landmarks, the to the su rface screw is inserted of the su perior a rticular facet while "aiming" at the contra latera l e. Typica l thoracic screw length is mm. f. Screw diameter should be approximately % of the ped icle diameter.
top (m nemonic: T7-8-9 "top of the line") perpendicular, pedicle
____ ,
____
35-40m m
____
80%
____
•
Anterior Access to Thoracolumbar J u nction. Anterior Access to the Lumbar Spine 3 . Complete the following about anterior access to the thoracolumbar junction and lumbar spine: a. A sided approach is preferred beca use the is easier to retract is easier than the liver, and the to mobilize than the inferior vena cava . b. It is im porta nt to flex the ipsilatera l leg muscle, to relax the perm itting safer retraction of the ipsi latera l l u m bosacra l plexus. c. The anterior l u m bar i nterbody fusion (AU F) is relatively contraindicated in males beca use of risk of in 1 -2% (as high as 45% in some reviews). d. The bifu rcation of the g reat vessels occu rs just above t o just below the disc space, thus the AUF is best su ited for access to
e. At LS-5 1 , the of ru ns down the the VB and has to be sacrificed to do a n AUF.
left; spleen; aorta
96.4. 1
psoas
retrograde ejaculation
L4-5 ; LS-51
anterior sacra l a rtery; midline
96 . 5 . 1
Spine, Thoracic and Lumbar •
Instrumentation/ Fusion Pearls for the Lumbar and Lumbosacral Spine. Lum bosacral Pedicle Screws Complete the following regarding surgical fusion of lumbar and lumbosacral spine: a . A l u m ba r fusion that includes L 1 should not be term inated at or
4.
b.
Ped icle screws should be to % of ped icle diameter and have a minor diameter > m m in the a d u lt l u m ba r spine and be long enou g h to penetrate to % of the vertebra l body. c. With open l u m ba r pedicle screw placement, the entry point is at the of the tra nsverse process, at the intersection of the center of the tra nsverse process and the sagitta l plane through the latera l aspect of the ___
L 1 or T1 2 70 to 80%; 5.5; 70 t o 80%
96.6
96.7 . 1
___
base; su perior facet
96.7.3
___
d.
e.
Medial ang les for l u m ba r ped icle screws: i. L 1 level-medial angle should degrees. be ii. L2 level-medial angle should be degrees. iii. L3 level-medial angle should be degrees. iv. L4 level-medial angle should be degrees. v. L5 level-medial angle should be degrees. vi . 5 1 level-medial angle should be degrees. vii . 52 level-medial angle should be degrees latera l ly. Each screw should cross ...,.----,...,. of the vertebra l body. On AP view, if screw tip crosses the breach. midline, there is a Posterior l u m ba r i nterbody fusion (PLIF and TLI F) is relatively contraind icated with well-preserved heig ht; and is usually supplemented with to prevent prog ressive Benefits of TLIF over PLI F include less retraction and avoida nce of in reoperations.
5 deg rees 1 0 degrees 1 5 degrees 20 degrees 25 deg rees (Each angle eq uals the VB level x 5 . ) 2 5 degrees 40-45 deg rees two thirds
---
f. g.
_ _ _ _ _ __
medial disc-space; pedicle screws; spondylol isthesis
___ ___
_ _ _
h.
___ ___
nerve root; scar tissue
Neurosurgery Books
96.7.8
529
530 •
Part 23: Procedures, Interventions, Operations
Minimally I nvasive Lateral Retroperitonea l Transpsoas l nterbody Fusion 5. Complete the following regarding minimally invasive lateral retroperitoneal transpsoas interbody fusion: a . Access is best from however, a similar retropleura l approach can be employed in the thoracic spine up to b. With thoracic latera l interbody fusions one ca n n ot the contra latera l ___
_ _ __
L1 -L5; T4
96 . 8 . 1
_ __
penetrate; anulus
LLIF is particula rly usefu l in cases of a s f beca use it obviates dealing with or from previous su rgery which red uces the risk of d . LLI F, when combined with release o f the a I I , ca n be used to correct a n d to l u m ba r lordosis. e. LLI F is contraindicated i n cases req u i ring d d , disc space height > m m , or in cases with pathology at the space secondary to interference from the
adjacent segment fai l u re; sca r tissue; hardwa re; d u rotomy
f. A standalone cage should not be placed , pre-operative in patients with o , or if the i ligament is disru pted d u ring placement. g. Common transient compl ications include thigh n u m b ness in % of cases due to inj u ry to the nerve and thigh flexion weakness dye to inj u ry to the muscle. h. Fusion rates fol l owing LLI F ra nge from %.
osteoporosis; insta bility; anterior longitudinal
c.
___
96.8.2
_ __
__ _
___
___ __ _
_ __
___
a nterior longitudinal ligament; scoliosis; increase direct decom pression; 1 2mm; L5-S 1 ; ilium
1 0- 1 2%; genitofemora l ; psoas
96.8.3
96.8.5
96.8.6
___
_ __
___ ___
9 1 - 1 00%
96.8.8
97 Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures
•
Lumbar Puncture. Cl -2 Puncture and Cisternal Ta p 1.
a.
b. c. d.
e.
f.
g.
h. i.
Complete the following about spinal punctures: Contra ind ications t o l u m ba r punctu res i n c l u d e patients with platelet count < or patients with n hyd rocepha l u s . I n patients with SAH , a LP can increase the t pressu re and precipitate aneurysm a l rupture. A LP in patients with spinal block may prod uce deterioration i n as many as _%. T h e conus med u l l a ris is located between T1 2 and L 1 i n _% of patients, between %, and between L2 L 1 and L2 in and L3 i n _% of patients. The intercrista l line connects the su perior border of the i and occu rs in most a d u lts c between the spinous processes of and When performing a LP the needle is in a lways adva nced with the place in order t o prevent introd uction of cel l s which cou l d prod uce an iatrogenic e t T h e Queckenstedt is a test for block in which the j v is com pressed , fi rst on o n e side then o n both while measu ring ICP; if there is no block, the pressure wi l l rise to __ em of fl uid, and wil l d rop to the origi n a l level with in seconds of release. I n non-anemic patients there should be RBCs. _-_ WBCs for every that changes A RBC count > little as CSF d rains and an elevated ratio of to distin g u ished SAH from
50,000; non-co m m u nicating
97.3 . 1
tra n s m u ra l 1 4% 30%; 5 1 -68%; 1 0%
97.3.2
iliac crests; L4 and L5
stylet; epiderm a l ; epidermoid tumor subarachnoid ; j u g u l a r vei n ; 1 0-20; 10
1 -2 ; 1 000 1 00,000; WBC to RBC; tra u m atic ta p
97.3.4
Part 23: Procedures, Interventions, Operations
532
E
I n cidence of severe postpunctu re headache (lasting longer than days) is %. k. A CN palsy can occur delayed days post-LP and usually recovers after weeks. I. Epid u ra l b is a p treatment for refractory post LP headache. m. The C1 -2 punctu re is contraindicated in m due patients with C t o risk o f l o w lying c t and med u l l a ry k j.
•
7; 0 . 1 t o 0.5%, CN VI (usually u n i latera l ) ; 5 - 1 4 days; 4-6 weeks blood patch Chiari ma lformation; cerebellar tonsils; kin k
97 . 5 . 1
Lumbar Catheter CSF Drainage 2 . Complete the following about lumbar catheter CSF drainage: a . Ind ications for d rainage include red ucing CSF pressu re on a site of CSF , red ucing ,/ intracranial pressure in cases of hyd rocepha l u s or red ucing CSF pressure to attem pt to increase - perfusion of the -----,- .,-b. If the catheter does not thread into the spinal ca n a l , the catheter must be with the need le to withd rawn off the catheter tip. prevent ___
lea k/fistu la; com m u nicati n g ; s p i n a l cord
97.4.2
___
•
together; shearing
97.4.4
CSF Diversionary Procedures. Ventricular Access Device Complete the following regarding ventricular catheterization: a . Kocher's point is used as an entry point to place a catheter into the of the latera l ventricle a n d can be found em from midline and em a nterior to coronal suture which is approximately em u p from the nasion; the trajectory is to surface of bra i n , which ca n be approximated by aiming towa rds m c of ipsilatera l eye and the E b. Keen 's point is a bout em su perior to and posterior to the pinna and results in catheter placement into the em from c. Da ndy's point is em a bove inion. midline, and
3.
97.6. 1
fronta l horn; 2-3cm (mid pupillary line); 1 ern ; 1 1 em; perpendicu lar; medial canth us; EAM
2 . 5-3 em; trigone 2 em ; 3 cm
Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures d.
Occi pita l-parieta l approach is freq uently used for s h u nti n g ; a common entry point is em above and posterior to the top of the pinna; the catheter is to sku l l base initia lly inserted of the forehead or towa rds the ipsi latera l
3 cm , para l l e l ; middle; m e d i a l canth us
_ _ _ _ ____
Complete the following about ventricular shunts: a . List t h e layers t o traverse in open placement of the peritoneal catheter. ( H int: sa m p3 ) i. s ii. a, iii. m iv. p v. p vi . p b. If a connector must be used near the the clavicle to clavicle, place it decrease the risk of ---,---,c. A ventricu loatrial s h u nt should be revised when the catheter tip is a bove d. D u ring third ventriculostomy the open ing is made to the m a m m i l l a ry bodies which is to the tip of the basi lar a rtery; after puncturing the floor be certa in that the is a lso perforated. of e. The needle to be used in a n ommaya reservoir puncture is a gauge or smaller need le.
4.
__ _ ___
_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ __ _ _
97.6.3
su bcuta neous fat anterior rectus sheath muscle posterior rectus sheath preperitoneal fat peritoneum a bove; disconnection T4
___
a nterior; a nterior; mem brane of Liliequ ist
97.6.4
____
•
25; butterfly
97.7.4
Sural Nerve Biopsy 5.
a.
Complete the following about sural nerve biopsies: T h e fol l owing a re ind ications for s u ra l nerve biopsy: i. a, ii. C -M -T a iii. d iv. H d. I v. m vi . v - --,- ,......., At the level of the a n kle the sura l nerve lies between the tendon and mal leolus. the A tou rniq uet is used to distend the I s vei n . loss is expected b u t does not persist for more than weeks. _ _ _ _
____
___
___ _
_ _ _ _
b. c. d.
_ _ _ _
97.8.2
a myloidosis Charcot-M a rie-Tooth dia betic a myotrophy Ha nsen 's disease metachromatic leu kodystrophy vascu litis achil les; latera l
97.8.4
lesser saphenous
97.8.5
Sensory; severa l
97.8.3
533
a
��nal •
Neurosurgery
Deep Brain Stimu lation 1 . Characterize Parkinson's disease. a . Best target is the b. It has similar efficacy to c. with fewer d . Ablative surgery is giving way t o
__
98. 1
.
2. Match the following conditions with their stimulation target sites. Conditions: CD Tou rette's synd rome; 0 obsessive com p u lsive disorder; ® depression a. a nterior ca psule b. thalamic c. STN d . subgenual e. ci n g l u ate gyrus f. pa llidal
•
s u bthalamic nucleus levodopa side effects DBS (deep brain sti m u lators) 98. 1
0. ® CD 0 ® ® CD
Surgica l Treatment of Parkinson's Disease 3.
a. b. c. d. e.
Matching. Regarding surgical ablative treatment of Parkinson's disease and its historical background, match the listed procedures with the appropriate phrase(s) and benefits. Aba ndoned beca use: CD u n p redicta ble resu lts; 0 tremor did not i mp rove; ® bradykinesia did not i mp rove; @ rigid ity did not i mprove ; ® ipsilatera l tremor persists; ® side effects/ resista nce; (j) only modest benefits Proced u re: (a-e) below a nterior choroidal a rtery ligation anterodorsal pallidotomy ventrolatera l thalamotomy L-dopa transpla ntation
CD 0. ® ® . @. ® ® (j)
Neurosurgery Books
98.3 . 1
98.3.2
Functional Neurosurgery 4. True or False. The following symptoms improve after anterodorsal pallidotomy: fa lse a . tremor ipsilatera l b. rig idity true fa lse c. bradyki nesia d. ataxia fa lse e. tremor contra latera l fa lse
98.3 . 1
5. Ventrolateral thalamotomy can improve tremor; i t cannot be performed bilaterally because bilateral thalamotomy causes a. d dysa rth ria and b. g d gait distu rba nce
98.3 . 1
Complete the following about surgical treatment of Parkinson's disease: a . T h e target today is the
98.3.2
6.
b.
specifica l ly the which blocks the in put from the
7. a. b. c.
How might pallidotomy work? direct destruction of the fibers interrupt d i m inish in put from the
8. Answer the following about surgical treatment of Parkinson's disease: a . What was a n ea rly procedure for the treatment of Parkinson disease? b. What a re the mechanisms by which pa llidotomy may work? i. destroy ii. interru pt p p iii. red uce input into m p c. What is the ta rget for the tremor treatment? d . True or Fa lse. Pa llidotomy is pri marily focused on the treatment of motor symptoms. e. What are the most common com p lications of pa llidotomy? Hint: vhid i. v ii. h iii. i h iv. d
g
a nterodorsal pallidum G Pi-intern a l segment of the globus pallidus; STNs u bthalamic nucleus 98.3.2
G Pi pa l l idofugal s u bthalamic nucleus 98.3.2
l igation of the a nterior choroidal a rtery GPi pa l l idofugal pathways medial pallidum ventra l is intermedius nucleus (VI M ) of the tha l a m u s true
visual field deficit hemiparesis intracerebral hemorrhage dysa rth ria
535
536
Part 23: Procedures, Interventions, Operations
9. True or False. Indications for pallidotomy in parkinsonism include a. refractory to d rug thera py b. d rug-induced dyskinesia c. rigidity d . tremor e. dementia
a
1 0.
Ipsilateral hemianopsia is a contraindication to ventral pallidotomy because one of the side effects of the procedure could be i t 0 and would cause the patient to be
11.
Bilateral pallidotomies carry an increased risk of and s d d c
a. b.
1 2. True or False. What are the benefits for the patient from posteroventral pallidotomy as done currently? a . motor sym ptoms b. dyskinesia c. rigidity d . bradyki nesia e. tremor 1 3. a.
b. c. d.
1 4. a.
b.
•
98.3.2
true true true fa lse fa lse optic tract inj u ry; blind (Visual field defects cou l d occur in 2 . 5 % of patients; blind ness could resu lt.)
98.3.2
speech d ifficu lties cog nitive decl ine 98.3.2
true true true true true
Characterize thalamic lesions. Lesioning in the thalamic n ucleus red uces parkinsonian H owever, it does not improve
tremor dyskinesia
and may worsen s i. g ii. s p
gait sym ptoms speech problems
and
Characterize subthalamatomy. Lesions i n the STN classica l ly prod uced
Selective lesions may give relief on a par with
98.3.2
98.3.2
intermedius
98.3.2
hemiballism pallidotomy
Dystonia 1 5. a.
Characterize dystonia. Sti m u lation o f the is the pri mary surgical treatment for the dystonia. b. Resu lts a re better for dyski nesia. c. The most common target is
98.4
pallidum ta rd ive G Pi
Functional Neurosurgery 1 6. True or False. Stimulation has attracted increasing interest in patients with Parkinson's disease who are refractory to medical drug treatment. The deep brain stimulator (the electrode) is placed in which of the following locations? (There are three true answers.) a. zona i ncerta b. posterior ventra l pallidum (PV} c. su bsta ntia nigra (SN} d. Forel's field ( H ) e. s u bthalamic nucleus (STN} f. globus pallidus intern us (GPi} g . ped unculoponti ne nucleus
•
98.4
g fa lse fa lse fa lse fa lse true true true
Spasticity 1 7. True or False. A spastic bladder will a. have high capacity and em pty sponta neously. b. have high capacity and em pty with difficu lty. c. have low capacity and em pty sponta neously.
d.
have low capacity and em pty with difficu lty.
1 8. True or False. The onset of a spastic bladder after spinal cord injury is a . im med iate b. delayed
c.
ca n occur at any time
1 9. True or False. The Ashworth score can grade severity of spasticity. The highest score in this system is given when there is a . no increase in tone (fu l l movement) b. rigidity in all flexors c. rigid ity i n all extensors d. rigid ity in flexion and extension 20. The Ashworth score is the clinical of grading of the
537
98.5.2
fa lse fa lse true ( Low capacity a n d spontaneous em ptyi ng a re the h a l l m a rks of the spastic bladder.) fa lse 98.5.2
fa lse true (Delayed onset is typica l beca use the acute phase of spinal shock is hyporeflexic and hypotonic.) fa lse Ta ble 9 8 . 2
fa lse fa lse fa lse true severity of spasticity
98.5.2
538
Part 23: Procedures, Interventions, Operations
21 . What are the medications used in the treatment of spasticity? a. b b. d c. d d. p
a
22. What are the nonablative procedures used for the treatment of spasticity? a. b m b. i e c. e s 23. True or False. Fibers that are more sensitive to radiofrequency rhizotomy are a . s m a l l u n myel i nated sensory fi bers. b. large myeli nated alpha motor fibers. 24. What are the ablative procedures with preservation of ambulation used for the treatment of spasticity? Name one.
98.5.3
baclofen diazepam da ntrolene prog a bide 98.5.3
i ntratheca l baclofen intrathecal morph ine epid u ra l electrical sti m u l ation 98.5.3
true fa lse motor point block; phenol nerve block; selective neu rectomy; percuta neous radiofrequency foramina! rhizotomy; Bischof's myelotomy; selective dorsal rhizotomy; stereotactic thalamotomy; dentatotomy
25. What are the ablative procedures with intratheca l injection of sacrifice of ambulation used for the phenol; selective anterior treatment of spasticity? Name one. rhizotomy; neu rectomy; intra m uscu l a r neurolysis; cordectomy; cordotomy 26. True or False. Spasticity can be treated with intrathecal baclofen pumps. Complications are mainly fa lse a. p u m p u n der-infusion fa lse b. wou n d com p l ications c. catheter compl ications true (Catheter com p l ications may have a freq uency of up to 30% in baclofen p u m ps.) fa lse d. d rug resista nce
•
98.5.3
98.5.3
98.5.3
Torticol lis 27. What is another name for torticollis?
wry neck
98.6. 1
28. What muscle is usually affected in spasmodic torticollis?
sternocleidomastoid
98.6.2
Functional Neurosurgery 29. What are the surgical procedures used for the treatment of spasmodic torticollis? a . sti m u late dorsal cord botu l i n u m toxi n b. inject rh izotomy Forel's H l c. cut d . coa g u late vertebra l a rtery 30. What artery is most commonly implicated in the torticollis of the eleventh nerve origin?
•
vertebra l a rtery
98.6.3
g 98.6.6
Neu rovascular Compression Syndromes 31 . a.
Characterize root entry zone. Synd romes d u e t o com pression of i. ii. at the
98. 7 . 1
cranial nerves root entry zone
b. This site, also known as the zone, c. is the point where the centra l myelin from the cel l s d . changes t o t h e periphera l myelin o f the cells.
Obersteiner-Red lich
32. True or False. Hemifacial spasm ( HFS ) starts from the lower half of the face and spreads to the upper half of the face.
fa lse (sta rts with the orbicu l a ris ocu li)
33.
a. b. c. d. e.
Complete the following about neurovascular compression syndromes: On what side is H FS more com mon? What is the age and gender pred ilection? What is the most commonly involved a rtery? True or Fa lse. Ca rba mazepine and phenytoin a re genera l ly effective treatment. What is the material used as a cushion in the microvascu lar decompression (MVD)?
34. What is the only other involuntary movement disorder besides HFS that persists during sleep?
oligodendrog lia! Schwa n n cel l s 98.7.2
98.7.2
left women, after the teen ages AICA fa lse lvalon, polyvinyl formyl alcohol foam palata l myoclonus
Neurosurgery Books
539
98.7.2
a
Part 23: Procedures, Interventions, Operations
540
35. What distinguishes HFS from facial myokymia {FM)? a . Hemifacia l spasm ( H FS) i s b. Facial myokymia (FM) is 36. True or False. The vessel most commonly associated with hemifacial spasm is a . posterior inferior cerebel lar a rtery (PICA) b. su perior cerebel l a r a rtery (SCA) c. a nterior inferior cerebel lar a rtery (AICA) d . posterior cerebral artery (PCA) e. vertebra l a rtery f. basilar a rtery 37. a.
Hemifacial spasm is ca used by com pression at the
b. of the c. by the d . This does not cause conduction but e. prod uces and 38. a.
b. 39.
a. b. c. d. e. f. 40.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h.
Synkinesis is a phenomenon where of sti m u lation of the facia l nerve resu lts i n thro u gh True or False. Postoperatively after microvascular decompression for hemifacial spasm, the patient can expect im med iate cessation o f facia l spasms. red uction sta rti ng 2 to 3 days later. better resu lts the longer the patient has had H FS. better resu lts t h e o l d e r t h e patient is. com plete resol ution of spasms eventua l ly. possible rela pse even if free of spasms for a fu l l 2 years. Complications of hemifacial spasm { H FS) surgery include the following: H i nt: hemifacial s h e m i f a c ___
98.7.2
u n i l atera l bilatera l 98.7.2
fa lse fa lse true fa lse fa lse fa lse 98.7.2
root entry zone facia l nerve AICA ephaptic ki n d l in g , syn kinesis 98.7.2
one branch delayed discharges; another branch 98.7.2
fa lse true fa lse fa lse true (in 81 to 93% of patients) fa lse (relapse after 2 yea rs only 1 %) 98.7.2
hoa rseness elderly do less wel l meningitis (aseptic) ipsilatera l hearing loss facial weakness ataxia CSF rhinorrhea incomplete relief of sym ptoms
Functional Neurosurgery i. j. k.
•
a I s
aseptic meningitis lip (periora l) herpes swa l lowing (dysphagia)
_ _ _ _ _ _ __
_ _ _ _ _ ___ _ _ _ _ _ _ __
Hyperhid rosis Complete the following statements about hyperhidrosis: a . I t is d u e t o overactivity o f t h e gla nds. b. These glands are under control of the
41 .
_ _ _ _
eccrine sweat
98. 8 . 1
____
c. The neu rotra nsm itter is end organs a re d . Most
_ _ _ _
e.
•
Some cases wa rra nt
_ _ _ _
sym pathetic nervous system acetylcholine sym pathetic; adrenergic surgical sym pathectomy
98.8.2
from stel late ganglion
98. 1 0. 1
Sympathectomy 42. Complete the following statements about sympathectomy: a . What is t h e level for ca rdiac sym pathectomy? b. What is the level for U E sym pathectomy? c. What is the level for l u m ba r sympathectomy? d . What is t h e most com monly used a pproach for l u m ba r sym pathectomy? 43.
a. b. c. d. e. 44.
a. b. c. d.
Name five indications for upper extremity (UE) sympathectomy. H i nt: "crash" the sym pathetic ganglia c R a s h What are the complications of UE sympathectomy? p i n c s H s
second thoracic ganglia T2 L2 and L3 sym pathetic ganglia retroperitoneal
98. 1 0. 2 98. 1 0.4
Ta ble 9 8 . 6
ca usalgia major prim a ry Raynaud disease intracta ble angina shoulder-hand synd rome hyperhidrosis 98. 1 0. 2
pneumothorax intercosta l neuralgia spinal cord i nj u ry Horner's synd rome
541
99 Pain Procedures
•
General I nformation 1.
Usual oral narcotic dose tolerated is c M ___ ,
•
MS contin (up to 300 to 400 mgfday)
99. 1
Types of Pain Procedures Name intracranial ablative procedures to treat the following pains: t a . cancer pa i n : m m b. head, neck, face pai n : s
2.
__
_ __
__
3.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h.
__
Matching. Match the procedure and its application (some have more than one). Applications for pain fro m : CD s p i n a l cord inj u ries; 0 post laminectomy pai n ; ® pelvic pain with incontinence; @ at or below CS; ® head , face, neck, u pper extrem ity; ® bilatera l below the diaphra g m ; (j) ca usalgia; ® bilatera l below thoracic dermatomes; ® avu lsion inju ries; @) not for cancer pain Proced u re: (a-h) below stereotactic mesencephalotomy cordotomy spinal i ntrathecal sacra l cordotomy sym pathectomy com m issura l myelotomy dorsal entry zone (DREZ) spinal cord sti m u l ator
99.3
medial thalamotomy stereotactic mesencephalon 99.3
® @ ® ® (j) ®
CD. ®. @ 0. @
Pain Procedures •
Cordotomy 4. Complete the following concerning cordotomy: a . You r objective is t o interru pt t h e fi bers of the I s t t on the side thalamic tract c to the pai n . b . Cordotomy is t h e procedure o f choice pain below the c for u dermatome. c. Two ways to perform cordotomy: i. o ii. p d . Loss o f a utomatic breath ing can occur after b c and is ca l led o c e. What is the cutoff percentage on pul monary fu nction test before patients can undergo cordotomy? __
__
__
_ _ _
__ _ __ _
___
___
___
99.4. 1
u n i latera l ;
cs
open percuta neously bilatera l cordotomy; Ondine's cu rse
__
5. Answer the following about pain procedures: a . What kind o f patients a re ca ndidates for cordotomy? b. On which side should the cordotomy be performed? c. What happens to i m pedance as the needle penetrates the cord? d. What response should stop cordotomy from being performed? e. If you look at the patient's eyes, what will you learn?
f. What percentage wi l l have pain rel ief?
•
latera l spinal tha lamic tract; contra latera l
50%
99.4.2
99.4.3
term inally ill patients contra latera l to pain j u m ps from 300 to 500 ohms to 1 200 to 1 500 ohms muscle teta ny u pon sti m u l ation If a n ipsilatera l Horner's synd rome occurs, the procedure is satisfactory. 94%
Commissu ral Myelotomy 6. Answer the following concerning commissural myelotomy: a. What is the ind ication for com m issura l myelotomy? b. What is the rate of complete pain rel ief after com m issural? c. What is the special req u i rement for i ntrathecal morphi ne?
bilatera l or midline pain
99.5.2
60%
99.5.4
preservative-free 0.9% saline
99 . 7 . 1
543
544 •
Part 23: Procedures, Interventions, Operations
CNS Narcotic Administration 7. Answer the following regarding central nervous (CNS) narcotic administration: a . Req u i rement for implantation o f a morphine p u m p is p t d i ca n shorten the delay b. B time for a morphine p u m p to fu nction; otherwise the rel ief may not occur for d c. Is meningitis common after pump placement? d . Is respi ratory fai l u re common after p u m p placement? ___
E •
pre-operative testi ng dose
___
--
___
99.7 . 1
___
Bolus infusion; days no no
Spinal Cord Stimulation (SCS) Complete the following regarding spinal cord stimulation: a . Site o f spinal cord sti m u l ation is the c d i. The most common ind ication is s p p ii. It is not usually ind icated for c p . b. Two ki nds of electrodes: -li ke i. p ii. w -like
8.
---
__
__
__
dorsal col u m n s postlaminectomy pain synd rome ca ncer pain
99.8 . 1
99.8.2
__
___
9.
a. b.
Complete the following statements about complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS)? I t is a c pain condition characterized by intense a or b pa i n . ___
1 0. What is the difference between Type I and Type I I chronic regional pain syndrome?
plate wire 99.8.6
chronic ach i n g ; burning Type I has no nerve inj u ry and Type II fol l ows a nerve inj u ry.
1 1 . True or False. Regarding spinal cord stimulation: a . I m p roves p a i n control over physica l true therapy or medical ma nagement alone in patients with failed back surgery. b. It helps with pain d u e to inoperable l i m b true ischemia. c. Red uces angina pain and i mproves true exercise capacity.
Neurosurgery Books
99.8.6
99.8.6
Pain Procedures •
Deep Brain Stimu lation ( DBS) 1 2.
a.
Complete the following regarding deep brain stimulation: Deafferentiation pain synd romes may benefit from sti m u lation of the
99.9
sensory thalamus
DBS for chronic neuropathic pain 40-50%; prod uces a red u ction of _-_% in pain 2 5-60% in a bout _-_% of patients. periaq ued ucta l g ray matter c. Nociceptive pain synd romes benefit from sti m u lation of
b.
_ _ _ _
d.
•
Cluster headaches m a y benefit from
hypothalamic sti m u l ation
Dorsa l Root Entry Zone (DREZ) Lesions 1 3.
a. b. c. d.
Complete the following about dorsal root entry zone {DREZ) lesions: They a re usefu l for d pa i n . They result from nerve root a . They most com monly occur from accidents. m For such a n inj u ry, pain relief c a n be %. expected in __
__
deafferentiation avu lsion motorcycle 80 to 90%
99 . 1 0. 1
99. 1 0. 5
545
1 00 Seizure Surgery
•
General I nformation, Indications 1 . What percent of patients are not controlled with medication? 2.
a. b.
Characteristics of refractory seizures considered for surgery. Nature o f seizu res? Length of treatment?
20%
1 00 . 1
1 00 . 1
severe disabling at least 1 yea r
Complete the following regarding medically refractory seizures. a . Medica l ly refractory is usually considered two attem pts of high dose monothera py two distinct AEDs, and b. with attem pt at polytherapy. one c.
3.
1 00 . 1
__
__
__
•
Pre-surgica l Eva luation 4. True or False. Regarding pre-surgical evaluation. a . A l l patients should u ndergo high resol ution M RI as part of pre-su rgical eva l u ation. b. It is the best test to demonstrate hippocampal asym metry. 5.
a.
Complete the following about noninvasive seizure evaluation techniques. Video-EEG monitoring is used t o identify f the s I n a CT with IV contrast the focus may e in l ntericta l PET sca n shows h % of patients with refractory CPS. D u ring a seizu re a SPECT wi l l demonstrate b f d u ring a s
true
1 00 . 2 . 1
true
1 00 . 2 . 2
1 00 . 2 . 2
seizure focus
__
b. c.
---
enhance hypometabolism ; 70%
__
d.
___
___
blood flow d u ring a seizu re
Seizure Surgery Complete the following about the WADA test: a . T h e pu rpose is t o loca lize d, h b. You ca n be misled by i. A ii. p a t. iii. h by s iv. p c.
6.
_ _ _
__ _
____
__ _
_ _ _ _
7. When there is lack of lateralizing or localizing physiology in pre-operative evaluation, there are two surgical options for better definition of seizure focus: a. d e b. s g or s _ _ _
___
•
_ _ _
dominant hemisphere AVM persistent trigeminal a rtery hi ppoca mpus su ppl ied by posterior circu lation 1 00 . 2 . 4
depth electrode surgical g rids or strips
Surgica l Techniques 8.
a. b. c.
•
___
1 00 . 2 . 3
Surgical disconnection operations available are: c.____
h m
___ _ ____
s
____
t.
_ _ _ _
1 00 . 3 . 1
ca llosotomy hemispherectomy m u ltiple su bpial tra nsections
Surgica l Procedu res 9.
a.
Complete the following about corpus callosotomy (CC): Indication for corpus callosotomy i. d a -a s s h ii.
1 00.4. 1
d rop attacks - atonic seizu res
___
____
____
___
b. c.
How much of the CC is resected? Com p l ication is a m
d.
M u st the anterior com m issure also be sectioned?
e. f.
Contra ind ication? Exclude by W t I h persons.
__ _ _
___
___
on a l l
infa ntile hemi plegia synd rome a nterior two-thirds akinetic m utism (or red uced tem porary verba l ization) no - less likely to get disconnection synd rome if spared crossed dominance Wada test on a l l left-handed persons
547
548
Part 23: Procedures, Interventions, Operations
1 0. Answer the following about disconnection syndrome in a left dominant person (i.e., right-handed): months. a . Usually lasts b. Effect: i. left hand t a ii. vision p iii. smel l : a iv. copyi ng fig u res (i.e., spatial synthesis): p with r h v. speech: r s vi . u ri n ary i vii . left-sided d c. Occu rs with I of c c d . Less likely t o occur i f a c is s. _ _ _
__
1 00.4. 1
2 to 3 months tacti le anomia pseudohemia nopsia anosmia poor with right hand
__
_ _ _
__ _
__
_ _ _
_ __
red u ced spontaneity incontinence dyspraxia l a rge lesions of corpus ca llosum a nterior com missure is spared
_ _ _
11.
Complete the following regarding temporal lobectomy limits: a . On dominant side permitted i. ii. too much i s b. On nondominant side perm itted i. ii. too much c p u h c. G reater resection of wil l cause i. c ii. c u h __
__
___ ___
___
_ _ _
_ _ _
•
1 00 . 4 . 2
4 to 5 em inj u res speech 6 to 7 em contra latera l partial u pper hemia nopsia 8 to 9 em contra latera l complete u pper hemia nopsia
M RI Guided Laser I nterstitial Thermal Thera py ( M RGLITT) 1 2. a.
Complete the following. M RG LITT sta nds for M g l i t t.___ b. It is performed with s i m u lta neous M RI g s c. It is considered I invasive than microsu rgery. d . What is t h e main advantage? e. Preliminary seizu re control is _ to _%. __
__
__
__
1 00 . 6
M RI g u ided laser interstitia l therm a l thera py stereotactic g u ida nce
_ _ _
less shorter post-op recovery 60 to 70%
Seizure Surgery •
Post-operative Management for Seizure Surgery (Epilepsy Surgery) 1 3. True or False. Regarding post operative management for epilepsy surgery. a . Req u i res I C U observation for 24 hou rs. b. Not necessa ry to treat one brief general ized seizure. c. Ad m i nister 1 0 mg dexamethasone IV before s u rgery followed by q8 hours dosing as necessa ry. d . Anti-convu lsa nts ca n b e discontin ued immediately after su rgery.
e.
•
549
1 00 . 7
true true true fa lse (need to be contin ued for 1 -2 yea rs even if no post op seizu res occur) true
Neu ropsych iatric eva l uation 6- 1 2 months after surgery.
Outcome Describe seizure surgery outcome expectations. a . T h e g reatest effect o f surgery is r s f . b. Incidence of being seizu re free is %. c. Seizu res red u ced by at least 50% in %.
1 4.
__
__
__
1 00 . 8 . 1
of
red uction of seizu re frequency 50%
__
80%
__
1 5. What is the main risk of surgery during vagus nerve stimulation?
voca l cord para lysis
Neurosurgery Books
1 00 . 8 . 3
1 01 Radiation Therapy {XRT)
•
Conventional External Bea m Radiation 1.
a. b. c.
Radiation injury to tissue is a function of: d e a
2. What are the four " R's" of radiobiology? a. R b. R
c.
R
d.
R
3. What is the linear-quadratic equation ( LQ-model)?
Complete the following about cranial radiation: a. After surgery most s u rgeons wait _ to _ days before irradiati n g . b . Tumors that a re very responsive t o XRT include: i. I ii. g_ c_ t
1 01 .2.1
dose exposu re time a rea 1 01 .2.1
Repair of sublethal damage Reoxygenation of previously hypoxic tumor cells Repopu lation of tumor cel l s fol lowing treatment Red istri bution of cel l s within the cel l cycle Biolog ica lly effective dose (Gy) = n x d x [1 + d / (a/�)] ; where n = # of doses, d = dose per fraction, and a/� ratio = description of cel l response t o radiation with higher va l u es corresponding to earlier-responding tissue such as tumor cells.
4.
___
5. What are the two normal CNS cell types most vulnerable to radiation necrosis? a. v b. 0 --
1 01 .2.2
1 01 .2.3
7 to 1 0
lym phomas germ cel l tumors 1 01 .2.3
vascu l a r endothelium oligodendrog lia! cel l s
Radiation Therapy (XRT) 6. Seven major side effects of radiation: a. d c b. r n c. o_ p inj u ry d. h e. p h f. formation of new _ __
___
__ _
_ ___ __
_ _ _ _
_ _ _ _
g. 7. Two major treatments of radiation necrosis are: a. s b. s _ __
__
8.
What is the estimated dose of XRT that can be tolerated by normal brain tissue?
9. True or False. Regarding the following imaging studies to detect radiation necrosis: a . M R spectroscopy is usefu l i f mass is pure tumor. b. MR spectroscopy is usefu l if mass is pure necrosis. c. MR spectroscopy is usefu l if mass is a m ix of tumor and necrosis. d. RN wi l l lead to decreased radionuclide u pta ke on SPECT imaging. e. RN wil l lead to increased reg ional g l u cose meta bolism on PET imaging.
1 01 .2.3
decreased cog nition radiation necrosis optic pathway inj u ry hypopitu ita rism pri m a ry hypothyroidism formation of new tumors g l iomas, meningiomas, nerve sheath tumors leukoencephalopathy 1 01 .2.3
steroids su rgery (if deterioration from mass effect) About 65-75 Gy g iven as 5 fractions/week over 6. 5-8 wks. Radiation necrosis wil l occur in about 5% o f patients after 60 Gy g iven as 5 fractions/week over wks.
1 01 .2.3
true true fa lse true fa lse (wil l be decreased) No definitive proof of prolonged s u rviva l . Often used for pain relief and preservation of fu nction.
1 0.
Has radiation of spinal metastases been shown to prolong survival?
11. a. b. c. d.
Side effects of spinal radiation include: m myelopathy or neuropathy or n nausea, vomiti ng, dia rrhea n ,v .d b m s bone ma rrow s u ppression in children g r g rowth reta rdation in children development of c cavernous ma lformations m
e.
___ _
_ _ _ _
__ __
___
___
___
___
____
1 01 .2.3
1 01 .2.4
1 01 .2.4
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Part 23: Procedures, Interventions, Operations
1 2. What are important factors relating to the occurrence of radiation myelopathy? a. r b. t r d s c. extent of c d. i s e. a m ount of t r f. v s to the reg ion radiated g. s of r __
__
__
__
_ _ _
_ _ _ _
__
__
__
__
__
__ _
a.
Describe the 4 types of radiation myelopathy. Type 1
b.
Type 2
c.
Type 3
1 3.
d . Type 4
1 4. What radiation doses are associated with negligible risk of radiation myelopathy?
•
1 01 .2.4
rate of appl ication tota l radiation dose extent of cord shielding individ ual suscepti bil ity amount of tissue radiated vascu lar su pply sou rce of rad iation Ta ble 1 0 1 . 1
Benign form , mild sensory symptoms/ Lherm itte's sig n , occurs severa l months following XRT but usually resolves within severa l months. Lower motor neuron signs in u pper or lower extrem ities due to inj u ry to a nterior horn cells. Complete cord lesion with in hours due to blood vessel inj u ry. Most com mon, chronic prog ressive myelopathy with initial pa resthesiasf Lherm itte's sign and eventual spastic wea kness with hyperreflexia . Dependent on field size. Large fiel d : neg ligible risk with � 3.3 Gy over 6 weeks (0.55 Gyfwk). Small field: negligible risk with � 4.3 Gy over 6 weeks (0. 7 1 7 Gyfwk).
1 01 .2.4
Stereotactic Radiosurgery and Radiotherapy 1 5.
a. b. c. 1 6.
The three main categories for delivery of SRS/SRT are: G K I a h c p _ __
_ _ _
___ _
1 01 .3.1
Gamma Kn ife (gamma ray) linear accelerator (x-ray) heavy charged particle radiosu rgery
The main source of gamma decay used Coba lt-60 in Gamma Knife is ___ _
1 01 .3.1
Radiation Therapy (XRT) 1 7.
In general, lesions less than in diameter are amenable to treatment with SRS. ___
1 8. What is the maximum recommended radiation dose to the following organs? a . eye lens: Gy Gy b. optic nerve: Gy c. skin in bea m : d. thyroid: Gy _
_
_
_
1 9. Is SRS useful for a . venous an giomas? b. an AVM with a compact nidus? c. d u ra l AVF with cortical d rainag e?
< 3 cm
1 0 1 .3.2
1 0 1 .3.4
1 Gy 1 Gy 0 . 5 Gy 0 . 1 Gy 1 0 1 .3.5
no yes no - high risk of hemorrhage with cortica l d rainage
20.
The V R A scale and P -F score are useful scales to predict favorable outcome with AVM radiosurgery.
Virginia Radiosu rgery AVM Scale; Pollock-Fiickinger score
21 .
The gold standard ( Level l ) recommendation for a single brain metastasis in an accessible region is s r plus w .
surgical resection ; WBRT
__
1 0 1 .3.5
1 0 1 .3.5
__
22. True or False. Based on prospective randomized study data involving patients with a single brain metastasis: a . S u rviva l between SRS vs. su rgery + WBRT true is equal. true b. There was a higher incidence of d ista nt recu rrence i n the SRS arm. 23.
In pituitary adenomas treated with SRS, is the percentage of tumor growth control rate or endocrine remission rate higher?
Immediate adverse reactions to SRS include: h a. p and v b. n c. s d . Adverse events have been red uced by pre-medicating with m and
Overa l l tumor control rate has been reported as 90% vs. endocrine rem ission rates ra nging from 26 - 54% depending on the hormone being over-secreted. Typica lly a higher dose of radiation is req u i red for secretory tumors.
24.
_ _____
_ _ _ _
_ ____
P· -------
1 01 .3.5
1 01 .3.5
1 01 .3.5
post-proced u ra l headaches nausea and vomiting seizu res methyl pred nisolone; phenoba rbita l
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Part 23: Procedures, Interventions, Operations
25. Complications from SRS include: a. v deficits n b. c c. radiation-ind uced t d . radiation-induced i c __ __ __ __ __ ___
_______
__ _
_ _ _
•
1 01 .3.5
vasculopathy cranial nerve deficits radiation-i nduced tumors radiation-i nduced imaging changes
I nterstitial Brachytherapy 26. What are three techniques for brachytherapy? a . insertion o f i_p b. insertion of c containing radioactive sou rce c. admin istration of r I _____
_ _ _ _
__ _ _ __
1 0 1 .4.2
lodine- 1 2 5 pellets catheters radioactive liquids
_ _ _
Neurosurgery Books
1 02 Endovascular Neurosurgery
•
General I nformation 1.
a. b.
•
Contraindications to catheter angiography: disorders u ncorrected b poor r fu nction d u e to dye load
1 02 . 1 . 3
ml
bleeding rena l ; iodine
Pharmacologic Agents 2. a. b.
c. d.
e. f. g. h. i. j. k. I.
Pharmacologic agents: Brand n a m e o f abcixi m a b is R Mecha nism of action is that it prevents binding of f to p GP lib/lila r Aspirin works by irreversibly inactivati ng c U n coated aspirin achieves p e a k plasma concentrations in _ - _ min utes, whereas enteric-coated aspirin reaches peak in hours. % of patients a re U p to resista nt to aspirin 325 mgfday. Brand name of clopidogrel is P It is a platelet A receptor a ntagonist. days before procedure Sta rt beca use it takes _ - _ days to reach fu l l therapeutic effect. Use mg load ing dose it there is no tim e to reach therapeutic effect over a few days. Brand name of eptifi batide is I i n h i bitor of p It is a r aggregation. ACT g o a l for embolization o f a n aneurysm or AVM is seconds. ACT goal for angioplasty with/without seconds. stenting is __
m.
__
__
Reo Pro; fi brinogen; platelet; receptors cyclo-oxygenase
1 02 . 2 . 2
1 02 . 2 . 3
30-40 min utes; 6 hours 30% Plavix ADP
1 02 . 2 . 4
5 days; 3-7 days 300 mg l nteg ri l i n reversible; platelet 300-350 seconds
__
2 50-300 seconds
1 02 . 2 . 5
1 02 . 2 . 6
Part 23: Procedures, Interventions, Operations
556
n . Ag ent used t o reverse heparin i s p s o. Agent used d u ring Wada test is a s mg is injected through p. catheter for Wada test with additional mg if needed. bol uses of q . tPA converts p to p r. Can be administered i or i s. tPA can be reversed using F t. Verapamil is a c c blocker that enables v _ _ _ _
prota mine su lfate sod i u m a myta l
1 02 . 2 . 9
_ _ _
_ _ _
_ _ _ _
_ _ _
_ _ _ _
__ _
•
E
plasminogen; plasmin intravenously; i ntraarteria l ly FFP ca lcium channel; vasod ilation
1 02 . 2 . 1 0
1 02 . 2 . 1 1
Neu roendovascular Procedure Basics 3. Neuroendovascular procedure basics: a . Vascular access c a n b e obtained via f a rtery, r a rtery, a rtery, or c a rtery. b b. Arteriotomy clos u re options include m pressure or percuta neous devices. c
•
1 00 m g ; 25 mg
femora l ; rad i a l ; brachial; ca rotid manual; clos u re
1 02 . 3 . 1
1 02 . 3 . 3
Disease-Specific I ntervention 4. a.
b.
c. d. e. f.
Endovascular treatment of aneurysms: Endovascu lar treatment h a s emerged a s af I thera py for most aneurysms, but su rgery stil l remains a strong option for M and p aneurysms. Wide necked aneurysms were previously thought better su ited for c but increased the availability of s the spectru m of aneurysms a menable to endovascu lar treatment. S m a l l aneurysms mm a re less favora ble for c Another endovascu lar option for wide necked aneurysms is b -assisted coi ling. Most coils a re made from b p The p device e e into prevents b aneurysm and therefore encourages s __ __ __
1 02 . 5 . 1
fi rst line; MCA; PICA clipping; stents
less than 4 m m ; coi ling ba l l oon bare plati n u m pipeline embolization; blood entry; stasis
Endovascular Neurosurgery month fol low-up ang iogram of usually reveals complete o aneurysm . h . Treatment o f aneurysm ru ptu re d u ring coi ling: p i. lower b if being used ii. inflate b iii. reverse a iv. contin u e c v. insert E.
g.
___
___ _
__ _
___ _
_ _ _ _
5. a.
Management of vasospasm: Endovascu lar options include c. spasmolysis and a Drug of fi rst choice for spasmolysis is v R treatments may be considered .
_ _ _ _
_ _ _ _
b.
6 month; obl iteration
blood pressu re bal loon a nticoa g u lation coi ling EVD 1 02 . 5 . 2
chemica l ; a n g ioplasty verapamil
_ _ _
c.
6. AVM embolization: a . Ind ications: i. Most common indication is p embolization. ii. Embol ization of associated or aneurysms located on f in n iii. Cu rative AVM embolization is r and l i m ited to s AVMs with s a ngioarchitecture. b. 2 most common embolic agents include o and N c. Radiopaque component of Onyx is t d . Onyx req u i res priming microcatheter with D to prevent Onyx s within microcatheter. e. N B CA is an embolic agent that is a g
Repeat 1 02 . 5 . 3
pre-operative feeders; nidus
___
_ _ _
__ _
___ _
__ _
_ __ _
ra re; sma l l ; simple onyx; N BCA ta nta l u m DMSO; solid ification glue
_ _ _
7. a.
Dural arteriovenous fistula (DAVF): featu res a re DAVF with a a lways considered for treatment. b. These features include c ,h v f n d d , a nd ,p i i P· a pproach is preferred . c. T d . Embolic materia ls that c a n b e used ,o include c , and N _ ___
___ _
_ ___
----
__ _
agg ressive cortica l venous refl ux, hemorrhage, focal neurological deficit, dementia, papilledema; increased intraocular pressu re Tra nsvenous coi ls, onyx; N BCA
1 02 . 5 .4
1 02 . 5 . 3
557
E
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Part 23: Procedures, Interventions, Operations
Carotid cavernous fistula (CCF): Di rect fistula req u i res t beca use they do not resolve s b. Endovascu l a r routes used to treat CCF , and via are t t ' v s 0 c. Route and tech nique of choice is em bolization. c t d. Detachable ba l l oons a re n I a in the U.S.
8. a.
9. Vertebrojugular fistula: a. 3 main etiologies a re i , or v t b. 2 main endovascular treatments are or e s c if there is adequate blood 0 flow through contra latera l vertebral artery. 1 0. Carotid dissection: a. The most common ang iographic featu re ( is I s %). b. Ind ications for endovascular intervention are persistent i sym ptoms or f despite a -limiting lesion with h com promise. c. Endovascu lar treatment consists of or s with either c stent. u 11. a.
b. c. 1 2.
a. b. c. d. e.
Subclavian artery stenosis: % of patients with Only su bclavian a rtery stenosis have flow r in the vertebral a rtery. Ind ication for endovascular intervention is stenosis resu lti ng in s s s and I ntervention consists of a s Mechanical thrombectomy for ischemic stroke: M a y b e performed withi n hours of symptom onset. May be performed for posterior circu lation strokes u p to hours after symptom onset. Cu rrent device of choice is the s r Recanal ization rate with this device i s %. An older device used is p a
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--
1 02 . 5 . 5
treatment; spontaneously transarteria l , tra nsvenous; su perior ophtha lmic vei n transarterial coil no longer available 1 02 . 5 . 6
iatrogen ic, tra u m a ; vascu litis covered stent; coil occlusion
1 02 . 5 . 7
l u m i n a l stenosis (65%) ischemic; a nticoa g u lation; flowl i m iting; hemodynamic stenti n g ; covered or u ncovered 1 02 . 5 . 8
2 . 5%; reversa l su bclavian steal synd rome a n g ioplasty; stenti ng 1 02 . 5 . 9
6 hours 24 hours stent retriever 88-1 00% pen u m bra aspiration
Endovascular Neurosurgery f. g.
Has a reca nal ization rate of Reca nal ization with the older device takes I to achieve.
____
%.
80% longer
1 3. Tumor embolization: of a . Pu rpose is preoperative d v tu mors, such as m b. Embolization with P particles is and so surgery should be not d performed with in a f days of em bol ization.
devascu larization; vascu lar; meningiomas PVA; d u rable; few
1 4.
2 50-300 mcgm
_ _ _ _
The PVA particle size that is typically used to treat epistaxis is mcgm.
1 02 . 5 . 1 1
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Neurosurgery Books
1 02 . 5 . 1 3
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