Electrical Engineering Objective Questions 1. A device whose characteristics are very close to that of an ideal voltage source is A. a vacuum diode B. a DIAC C. a zener diode D. a FET 2. The forbidden energy gap in semiconductors A. lies just below the valance band B. lies just above the conduction band C. lies between the valence band and the conduction band D. is the same as the valence band 3. The barrier potential for a Ge PN junction is A. 0.6V B. 0.3V C. 0.1V D. 0.5V 4. The ripple factor of a power supply is a measure of A. its voltage regulation B. its diode rating C. purity of power output D. its filter efficiency 5. In a BJT, if the emitter junction is reverse-biased and the collector junction is reverse-biased, it is said to operate in A. in active region B. in saturation region C. in cut-off region D. none of the above 6. In the switching type of voltage regulators, the power efficiency will be of the order of A. 50% or less B. 60% C. 40% or more D. 90% or more 7. The resistance between bases of a UJT is typically in the range of A. 2 to 3 KΩ B. 5 to 10 KΩ C. 15 to 20 KΩ D. 18 to 20 KΩ 8. The quantity that serves as a figure of merit for a DIFF AMP is A. slew rate B. bandwidth C. input bias current D. CMRR Page 2
Electrical Engineering Objective Questions 9. Practical range of resistance values obtainable with base diffused resistors is A. 10 Ω to 1 KΩ B. 20 Ω to 30 KΩ C. 5 Ω to 3 KΩ D. 20KΩ to 50 KΩ 10. With increasing temperature, the resistivity of an intrinsic semiconductor decreases. This is because, with the increase of temperature A. the carrier concentration increases but the mobility of carriers decreases B. both the carrier concentration and mobility of carriers decreases C. the carrier concentration decreases, but the mobility of carriers increases D. the carrier concentration remains the same but the mobility of carriers decreases 11. Which of the following is a unipolar device? A. P-N junction diode B. zener diode C. tunnel diode D. Schottky diode 12. On applying a Positive voltage signal to the base of a normally biased N-P-N CE transistoramplifier A. base current will fall B. collector current will fall C. emitter current will fall D. collector voltage will become less positive 13. The extremely high input impedance of a MOSFET is primarily because of A. absence of its channel B. depletion of current carriers C. extremely small leakage current of its gate capacitor D. negative VGS 14. The specific resistance depends upon A. The area of cross-section and the length of the conductor B. The material of the conductor, its area of cross-sectional and length C. The nature of the material of the conductor only D. The area of the cross-section of the conductor 15. An ampere is how many abampere? A. 0.4 B. 0.3 C. 0.1 D. 0.2
Page 3
Electrical Engineering Objective Questions 16. How is the storage battery rated in capacity? A. volts B. watts C. amperes D. ampere-hour 17. It is the unconventional unit of MMF in the CGS system. A. unit pole B. statvolts C. gilberts D. ampere turns 18. In CGS system, what is the unit of EMF when I is in abampere and P is in erg per second? A. millivolt B. kilovolt C. abvolt D. volt 19. Which of the following is a bilateral circuit? A. vacuum tube rectifier B. diode C. transmission line D. transistor 20. Megger is an instrument to measure A. very low resistance B. insulation resistance C. Q of a coil D. inductance of a coil 21. Electrolyte of a storage battery is formed by adding A. water to hydrochloric acid B. sulfuric acid to water C. hydrochloric acid to water D. water to sulfuric acid 22. In the American Wire Gauge, as the number of gauge increases, the diameter of wire ___________. A. increases B. decreases C. does not change D. become twice 23. When the sole purpose of ac is to produce heat, the selection of conductor is based on ___________ value of the current. A. average B. instantaneous C. RMS D. peak Page 4
Electrical Engineering Objective Questions 24. The Q-factor of a coil is given by ________. A. the ratio of its maximum energy stored to its energy dissipated per cycle B. its power factor C. the reciprocal of its power factor D. the ratio of its resistance to its inductive reactance 25. The phase shift between the voltage and current vectors is due to the following loads except one. A. magnet coils B. electric flat iron C. power capacitors D. fluorescent lamp 26. The length of time between a point in one cycle to the same point of the next cycle of an AC wave is the __________. A. frequency B. period C. magnitude D. polarity 27. In a balance star (wye) connected system, the line voltage is ______________. A. 0.707 times the phase voltage B. 1.414 times the phase voltage C. phasor sum of two phase voltages D. phasor difference of two phase voltages 28. When phase sequence of a three-phase system is reversed, ___________. A. phase currents change in angle not in magnitude B. phase currents are changed C. total power consumed is changed D. phase power are changed 29. In two-wattmeter method, the readings of the wattmeter will be identical when ___________. A. load in one of the two phases is zero B. power factor is unity C. power factor is 0.5 D. neutral is earthed 30. Floating neutral in a three-phase supply is undesirable because it will cause __________. A. high voltage across the load B. unequal line voltage across the load C. low voltage across the load D. it has no effect on the load 31. A three-phase load is balanced if all the three phases have the same ___________. A. impedance B. power factor C. impedance & power factor D. power Page 5
Electrical Engineering Objective Questions 32. The phase sequence of a three-phase system is BCA. The other possible phase sequence can be ___________. A. CBA B. CAB C. ACB D. none of these 33. Which DC motor cannot be used without a load connected to it? A. shunt B. series C. compound D. universal 34. In a DC compound motor, what is the relation of the connection of motor field windings with respect to the motor armature? A. series B. parallel C. series-parallel D. delta-wye 35. Which of these is not a factor in determining the speed of a DC motor? A. strength of armature circuit magnetic field B. strength of magnetic field produced by the field coils C. the load of the motor D. the thickness of the commutator bars 36. Adjustment of field excitation on one of the two alternators operating in parallel will A. increase its load B. change its frequency C. decrease its load D. change its power factor 37. The disadvantage of a short-pitch coil is that ___________. A. harmonics are introduced B. waveform becomes non-sinusoidal C. voltage around the coil is reduced D. both a & b 38. The imaginary or fictitious part of synchronous reactance on alternator takes care of ___________. A. inductive reactance B. leakage reactance C. armature reaction D. copper losses
Page 6
Electrical Engineering Objective Questions 39. The power factor of an alternator is 75%. The operator is ordered to increase the power factor to 80%. What shall he do? A. increase the voltage B. operate the governor C. increase the excitation D. decrease the excitation 40. High speed alternators have a rotor construction A. similar to DC machines B. of non-salient type C. of salient type D. none of these 41. In huge alternators, the moving part is A. brushes B. armature C. poles D. none of these 42. The fact that the outer layer of the conductor carries more current as compared to core is known as __________. A. corona B. permeability C. fault D. skin effect 43. An ACSR conductor having seven steel strands surrounded by 25 aluminum conductor is specified as ___________. A. 7/25 B. 25/7 C. 14/50 D. 50/14 44. The conductors are bundled primarily to _________. A. increase reactance B. reduce ratio interference C. reduce reactance D. reduce resistance 45. Shunt capacitance is neglected in __________ transmission lines. A. short B. medium length C. long D. all of these
Page 7
Electrical Engineering Objective Questions 46. When the load at the receiving end of a long transmission line is removed or the line is highly loaded, the sending end voltage is less than the receiving end voltage. This phenomenon is called ____________. A. Ferranti effect B. proximity effect C. Kelvin effect D. skin effect 47. For a line terminated by its characteristics impedance, the reflected wave is equal to __________. A. zero B. equal to incident wave C. half of the incident wave D. twice of the incident wave 48. Which of the following is not one of the classes of arresters? A. transmission class B. station class C. distribution class D. intermediate class 49. In transmission lines, the most effective protection against lightning strikes is one of the following. Which one is this? A. lightning rods B. lightning arresters C. Peterson coils D. overhead wires 50. A combination of switch & fuse. A. fuse cut-out B. relay C. safety switch D. circuit breaker 51. High impedance grounded system generally means ____________ system. A. solidly grounded B. unigrounded C. multigrounded D. ungrounded 52. A string efficiency of 100% means that ________. A. one of the insulator discs is shorted B. the potential across each disc is zero C. potential across each disc is the same D. potential across the large disc is very large
Page 8
Electrical Engineering Objective Questions 53. The causes of nearly all high voltage flashovers in transmission lines are due to one of the following. A. high humidity B. dust & dirt C. corona D. lightning discharges 54. The transfer bus scheme has the following characteristics except one. Which one is this? A. it allows the disconnection of circuit breaker for maintenance without interrupting the service. B. it is more flexible C. it allows better continuity of service as compared with the single bus D. it is more costly than that of the single bus system 55. Surge arresters are needed in transmission lines for the following purpose. Which one is important? A. regulate the voltage B. prevent the lightning from striking the line C. protect the system from high transients D. protect the line from short circuit current 56. In fission, energy is produced when A. chemical compound splits into its components B. nuclear particle splits C. nuclear particles combine D. molecules combine 57. In the list below which one is not a type of present day nuclear power plant? A. boiling water B. fusion-fission reactor C. low pressure reactor D. fast breeder reactor 58. A thermal power plant using dry organic material such as wood and other wastes for its fuel. A. geothermal power plant B. diesel power plant C. dendro power plant D. hydro power plant 59. The power generated by some steam power plants drops in the summer because __________. A. there is no rain B. the water in the lake decreases C. many people are swimming in the lake D. the lake temperature increases 60. Diesel power plant is best suited as A. peak load B. standby C. base load D. general purpose Page 9
Electrical Engineering Objective Questions 61. Which of the following cannot have a single unit of 100 MW? A. hydro power plant B. steam power plant C. diesel power plant D. nuclear power plant 62. Inadverent accumulations between power systems are normally balanced by scheduling compensating deliveries of power A. during off-peak load B. during periods corresponding to those in which the inadvertent energy was accumulated C. on weekends D. on base load plants 63. Online load flow program of a SCADA system A. used the actual operating data B. used calculated values of loading of lines and equipment C. cannot provide transmission loss factor D. are used only on system designed function 64. Spinning reserve is generating capacity that A. is available by starting Gas Turbine generating units B. is synchronized and online, with capacity in excess of existing load C. has lowest fuel cost D. a policy matter 65. Heating value of coal largely depend on A. ash content B. moisture content C. volatile matter D. size of coal particle 66. Power plant using coal work closely on which of the following cycle A. Rankine cycle B. binary vapor cycle C. Otto cycle D. size of coal particle 67. In steam turbine, the lowest pressure occurs in A. turbine inlet B. boiler C. condenser D. superheater 68. For low head and high discharge the hydraulic turbine used is A. Kaplan B. Francis type C. Pelton wheel D. Jonvas Page 10
Electrical Engineering Objective Questions 69. Overall efficiency of gas turbine is A. equal to Carnot cycle efficiency B. equal to Rankine cycle efficiency C. less than Diesel cycle efficiency D. more than Otto or Diesel cycle efficiency 70. The function of moderator in Nuclear Reaction is A. to accelerate reaction B. to control the reaction C. to absorb excessive neutrons D. to liberate excessive neutron 71. During load shedding A. system voltage is reduced B. some loads are switched off C. system power factor is changed D. system frequency is reduced 72. A low utilization factor for a plant indicates that A. plant is used for base loads only B. plant is used for standby purpose only C. plant is under maintenance D. plant is used for peak load 73. Which of the following relations is incorrect? A. Capacity factor = Utilization factor x Load factor B. Load factor x Maximum load = Average load C. Demand factor x Connected load = Maximum demand D. none of the above 74. When the load on a thermal unit is increased, fuel input A. increased B. does not change C. decreased D. slightly decrease 75. When the generating units are loaded to equal incremental cost: A. minimum fuel cost result B. fuel cost at maximum C. fuel cost not affected D. efficiency decreased 76. In a power system using both hydro and thermal generation, the proportion of hydro generation can be increased by A. increasing the price of water B. reducing the price of water C. increasing the field current of hydro generators D. decreasing the field current of hydro generators Page 11
Electrical Engineering Objective Questions 77. Which of the following methods of generating electric power from the sea is more advantageous? A. water power B. ocean power C. tidal power D. wind power 78. The efficiency of thermal power plant improves with A. increase of quantity of coal burnt B. use of high steam pressure C. lower load on the plant D. larger quantity of water used 79. A gas turbine works on A. Carnot cycle B. Brayton cycle C. Dual cycle D. Rankine cycle 80. Air standard efficiency of a diesel engine depends on A. compression ratio B. speed C. fuel D. torque 81. Most of the heat generated in internal combustion engine depends on A. cooling water B. exhaust gases C. lubricating oil D. radiation 82. Capital cost per MWh is highest in case of A. steam power B. diesel engine C. nuclear power plant D. hydroelectric 83. Economizers are used to heat A. air B. feedwater C. steam D. boiler 84. Surge tank is provided for the protection of A. weir B. penstock C. blade D. intake pipe Page 12
Electrical Engineering Objective Questions 85. For the same maximum demand, if the load factor is decreased the cost of energy is A. increased B. decreased C. not affected D. none of the above 86. The feedwater is usually heated before it is injected to the boiler for the following reason EXCEPT one. Which one is this? A. improves the overall performance of the plant B. recovers part of the flue gas heat which is otherwise lost to the atmosphere C. derating types of preheaters permit the removal of dissolve gases from the feedwater D. increase the efficiency of the boiler 87. Subsynchronous resonance is a condition that may occur on A. short transmission line B. long heavily loaded line C. loss of load on transmission line D. increase of load on line 88. Which of the following contributes to the efficiency of Rankine cycle in thermal power plant? A. use of high pressure B. reheating of steam at intermediate stage C. regeneration use of steam for heating boiler D. all of these 89. It is the modern equipment of removing sulphur content from the flue gas of the power plant. A. ESP B. EMS C. FGD D. DAC 90. The power intended to be available even under emergency condition is called A. firm power B. hot reserve C. cold reserve D. spinning reserve 91. The most economical cross section of a conductor is that which makes the interest on the capital outlay plus depreciation due to the conductor in the cable equal to the annual cost of energy loss. A. Ferranti law B. Kelvin’s law C. Mc Kelvin’s law D. Vanderwhaal’s law
Page 13
Electrical Engineering Objective Questions 92. Ferroresonance is a condition that may occur on A. distribution line B. capacitor C. transformer D. Transmission line 93. An effective remover of dust, carbon particles and other from the flue gas of the power plant is called _________. A. electrostatic precipitator B. shoot blower & connector C. mechanical collector D. dust scrubber 94. Type of water wheels used in hydroelectric plants A. propeller B. impulse C. reaction D. all of these 95. When the alternative sources of energy are available to power system, they should be used in such a way that A. thermal generation is held at minimum B. the most efficient plants are always loaded to their maximum C. overall production cost is minimized D. used diesel power plant 96. In thermal electric generating plant, overall efficiency is improved when A. boiler pressure is increased B. the difference between initial pressure and temperature and exhaust pressure and temperature are held at maximum C. loads on the units is increased D. increase the number of generator 97. One advantage of computer control of generating unit is that A. various outputs of the units are minimized B. all units under the control of the computer will be located on the same load C. loading of the units will be frequently adjusted to maintain them at equal incremental cost D. it can control all equipment 98. Which is not found in a rapid start fluorescent lamp? A. ballast B. starter C. wire harness D. capacitor
Page 14
Electrical Engineering Objective Questions 99. Electrons at the outermost shell are called A. free electrons B. outer electrons C. valence electrons D. active electrons 100. Which has the least number of valence electrons? A. conductor B. elemental semiconductor C. insulator D. compound semiconductor 101. Energy required by a valence electron before it can move towards the conduction band. A. energy gap B. conduction band C. work function D. valence band 102. A semiconductor that is free from impurities A. intrinsic semiconductor B. compensated semiconductor C. extrinsic semiconductor D. elemental semiconductor 103. The process of adding impurities in a semiconductor material. A. growing B. diffusion C. doping D. depleting 104. If the substance used in doping has less than four valence electrons, it is known as A. acceptor B. donor C. trivalent D. pentavalent 105. P-type semiconductor has an excess of A. electron B. hole C. proton D. neutron 106. A semiconductor frequently used to rectify AC current to DC is called A. zinc oxide B. transistor C. tube D. diode Page 15
Electrical Engineering Objective Questions 107. A full-wave rectifier has a ripple voltage which is approximately ___________ that of a half-wave rectifier. A. one-fourth B. one-half C. twice D. thrice 108. The pulsating DC voltage output of a full-waver rectifier without a filter capacitor can be used in a A. battery charger B. radio C. computer D. stereo system 109. An unregulated power supply which consists of a transformer, a rectifier and a filter has some characteristics which are as follows except one. Which one is this? A. it has good voltage regulation B. it is relatively expensive C. the output voltage varies with the load D. the output voltage depends on the input voltage 110. This is a special diode optimized for operation in the breakdown region. A. light-emitting diode B. zener diode C. rectifier diode D. Schottky diode 111. The resistance of semiconductor is known as A. bulk resistance B. intrinsic resistance C. extrinsic resistance D. dynamic resistance 112. A device that is formed when an n-type and p-type semiconductors are brought together. A. pn junction B. semiconductor junction C. depletion region D. junction diode 113. The minimum voltage required before the diode can totally conduct in a forward direction. A. triggering voltage B. saturation voltage C. breakdown voltage D. threshold voltage
Page 16
Electrical Engineering Objective Questions 114. Diode circuit that is used to cut a portion of the input signal. A. clipper B. clamper C. peak detector D. level shifter 115. The voltage output of a bridged rectifier is A. half wave signal B. bridged rectified signal C. sine wave D. full wave signal 116. Zener diode normally requires _________ biasing. A. forward B. reverse C. maximum D. impedance 117. Zener diodes are used as A. rectifiers B. switches C. amplifiers D. regulators 118. A transistor has _________ doped regions. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 119. What is one important thing that transistors do? A. amplify weak signals B. rectify line voltage C. emit sound D. emit light 120. An advantage of a transistor is A. small size B. lack of heater C. it lasts indefinitely D. all of these 121. Buchholz relay is used for protection of A. transformer B. alternator C. bus bar D. none of these Page 17
Electrical Engineering Objective Questions 122. Mho relay is used for protection of A. short lines B. long lines C. medium lines D. none of these 123. EHT cable is designed for which voltage level A. 22-33 KV B. 33-66 KV C. beyond 132 KV D. none 124. String efficiency can be improved by which method A. grading the insulator B. using guard ring C. both A and B D. neither A nor B 125. Which of these sets of logic gates are designated as universal gates A. NOR , NAND B. XOR,NOR ,NAND C. OR,NOT,AND D. NOR,NAND,XNOR 126. Slip of induction motor does not depends on A. rotor speed B. synchronous speed C. shaft torque D. core loss 127. Ampere second is the unit of A. conductance B. power C. energy D. charge 128. The pressure coil of a dynamometer type wattmeter is A. highly resistive B. highly inductive C. purely resistive D. purely inductive 129. Bundled conductor are mainly used in high voltage overhead lines to A. reduce line losses B. reduce sag C. reduce corona D. increase mechanical strength Page 18
Electrical Engineering Objective Questions 130. The bridge method is used for finding mutual inductance is A. Schering Bridge B. Heaviside Campbell Bridge C. De Sautee D. Wien Bridge 131. Number of comparators needed in a parallel conversion type 8 bit A to D converter is A. 255 B. 256 C. 16 D. 8 132. Type of single phase motor having highest p.f. at full load is A. shaded pole type B. capacitor run C. capacitor start D. split phase 133. A 4 point starter is used to start and control the speed of a A. DC shunt motor with field weakening B. DC shunt with armature resistance control C. DC series motor D. DC compound motor 134. For large capacity transformer which core is used A. square B. multi stepped C. rectangular D. circular 135. Transformers cause transfer of energy from one circuit to another without change in A. frequency B. load C. voltage D. none 136. Commonly used starters of cage motor is A. DOL B. star delta C. both A and B D. neither A nor B 137. When bundle conductor are used in place of single conductor the effective inductance and capacitance will respectively A. decrease and increase B. increase and decrease C. increase and remain unaffected D. decrease and remain unaffected Page 19
Electrical Engineering Objective Questions 138. For effective use of a counterpoise wire A. its leakage resistance should be less than the surge impedance B. its leakage resistance should be greater than the surge impedance C. its leakage resistance should be equal the surge impedance D. none of the above 139. Which loss occurs in magnetic core of transformer? A. copper loss B. iron loss C. stray loss D. dielectric loss 140. In Open circuit (O.C) test of transformer which side is kept open A. high voltage side B. low voltage side C. either A or B D. both A and B 141. Cooling of synchronous generator is done by A. air cooling B. direct water cooling C. hydrogen cooling D. all of the above 142. In a short circuit test, low voltage side is A. connected to wattmeter B. connected to ammeter C. open circuited D. short 143. All day energy efficiency is related to which of the transformer A. distribution transformer B. C.T C. P.T D. power transformer 144. There are how many three phase transformer groups A. 3 B. 6 C. 4 D. 5 145. Slip speed is the A. difference of synchronous speed and actual rotor speed B. difference of actual rotor speed and synchronous speed C. sum of synchronous and rotor speeds D. half of the sum of synchronous and rotor speeds Page 20
Electrical Engineering Objective Questions 146. Conductance of any conductor is expressed as A. ampere/watt B. mho C. volt2/watt D. watt/ampere2 147. At slip, s=1 torque developed in machine is A. starting torque B. maximum torque C. electromagnetic torque D. none 148. Which special type of motor has rotor movements in discrete steps A. stepper motor B. reluctance motor C. hysteresis motor D. servomotors 149. Recovery voltage in CB is equal to A. transient voltage B. arcing period voltage C. normal frequency 50 Hz RMS voltage D. none of the above 150. In a synchronous alternator rigidity factor or stability factor (Psyn) expressed as a A. (VXs/Ef) cosδ B. (VEf/Xs) cosδ C. (1+VXs/Ef) cosα D. none of the above 151. In synchronous generator a synchronous dead load (lamp, furnaces etc.) has no ____________ hence it has no natural frequency of oscillation. A. restoring torque B. damping torque C. synchronizing power co efficient D. none of the above 152. In Diesel engine, gas engine type of machine contains __________ pole type of alternator. A. salient B. cylindrical C. non uniform cylindrical D. none of the above 153. To determine the losses an alternator is driven by A. synchronous motor B. calibrated D.C. motor C. compensated D.C. motor D. A.C series motor Page 21
Electrical Engineering Objective Questions 154. What is represented by the hypotenuse of impedance triangle? A. impedance drop B. resistance drop C. reactance drop D. apparent power 155. Fusing factor is the A. normal current rating of fuse element / minimum fusing current B. minimum fusing current / normal current rating of fuse element C. both A and B D. neither A nor B 156. Maximum temperature limit of class F insulator in (degree centigrade) is A. 105 B. 155 C. 120 D. 130 157. In which dc motor flywheel is used A. differential compound motor B. cumulatively compound motor C. shunt motor D. series motor 158. On what factors the speed of DC motor depends A. applied voltage B. field flux C. armature current Ia D. all of the above 159. What is the relation between rotor copper loss & full load slip A. s/1-s B. 1-s/s C. 1/s D. 1/s-1 160. Important property of core of transformer A. high permeability B. high resistivity C. both a & b D. low permeability 161. We can apply source transformation to Voltage source when a resistance is connected to it in A. series B. parallel C. any one of the connection D. no resistance is connected Page 22
Electrical Engineering Objective Questions 162. In foster 1 form 1st element is A. capacitor B. inductor C. both A and B D. neither A nor B 163. In 2 port network Z12 = Z21 indicates which property A. unilateral B. bilateral C. linear D. non linear 164. Link In network theory refers to A. B-N +1 B. B-N-1 C. N-1 D. N-B-1 165. Properties of incidence matrix A. algebraic sum of column entries of an incidence matrix is zero B. determinant of incidence matrix of a closed loop is zero C. both A and B D. neither A nor B 166. In a synchronous motor if the excitation is greater than 100%. Then the current drawn by the motor would be A. maximum B. minimum C. same D. none of the above 167. The rapid forward and backward motion of the rotor as it revolves at the avg. constant speed is called A. hunting B. cogging C. crawling D. humming 168. Maximum power output of a synchronous motor is given by A. Pom(max)= (VEf/Zs)-(Ef2/Zs2 Ra) B. Pom(max)= (VEf/Zs)+(Ef2/Zs2 Ra) C. Pom(max)= (Zs/VEf)-(Ef2/Zs2 Ra) D. Pom(max)= (Zs/VEf)+(Ef2/Zs2 Ra)
Page 23
Electrical Engineering Objective Questions 169. _________ can be tested for determining the maximum temperature rise by back to back test called Sumpners test. A. small transformer B. large transformers C. alternators D. none of the above 170. Piezoelectric effect is carried out in A. composite filter B. crystal filter C. m derived filter D. constant k prototype filter 171. In Cauer 1 form last element in the network is A. Lseries B. Cseries C. Lshunt D. Cshunt 172. What are the starters used for starting of cage motors? A. D.O.L starter B. star-delta starter C. autotransformer starter D. all of the above 173. Methods of synchronizing of alternator A. all dark lamp method B. all bright lamp method C. one dark two bright D. all of the above 174. Which transformer is used to operate 24 hours a day? A. distribution B. power C. both A and B D. neither A nor B 175. In an autotransformer, losses are ____ than conventional transformers. A. more B. equal C. less D. no loss 176. Which motor is double excited machine? A. induction motor B. synchronous motor C. DC motor D. alternator Page 24
Electrical Engineering Objective Questions 177. In 4 quadrant operation of a hoist, 3rd quadrant represents A. reverse motoring B. reverse braking C. forward braking D. forward motoring 178. In lathe machine which motor is used A. synchronous motor B. Induction motor C. alternator D. none of the above 179. Overhead voltage distribution system is applied to city A & cable voltage distribution system is applied to city B. Voltage variation at consumer terminal is less in which city A. A B. B C. both are equal D. not related to voltage distribution 180. A C.T is connected in _________ with the line. A. series B. across C. not connected D. both A & B 181. Bauxite is the main ore of A. manganese B. copper C. aluminum D. silver 182. In a transistor amplifier the __________junction is reverse biased. A. collector base junction B. Emitter base junction C. CE base junction D. none of the above 183. For effective use of a counterpoise wire A. its leakage resistance should be less than the surge impedance B. its leakage resistance should be greater than the surge impedance C. its leakage resistance should be equal the surge impedance D. none of the above 184. E.C.E stands for A. electrochemical equation B. electrochemical equivalent C. electron chemical equation D. none of the above Page 25
Electrical Engineering Objective Questions 185. Larger values of air flux density is taken while designing IM for A. larger output B. larger bore diameter C. both A and B D. neither A nor B 186. Purpose of using capacitor is/are A. increase p.f. of inductive load circuit B. to do phase split in AC single phase motor C. effect DC filter in electronic circuit D. all of the above 187. What are the constituents in speed time curve of train? A. coasting B. initial acceleration C. constant speed D. all of the above 188. Which transformer is designed to have maximum efficiency at or near full load? A. power transformer B. distribution transformer C. current transformer D. potential transformer 189. What are the points to be mentioned in specifying main switches? A. voltage grade B. current rating C. both A and B D. neither A nor B 190. In distribution transformer which winding is used A. helical B. sandwiched C. circular D. cylindrical 191. Phase difference in AC two phase coil is A. 60 dergee B. 90 degree C. 120 degree D. 180 degree 192. In illumination technology total lumens emitted by source / total lumens available after waste of light is equal to A. waste light factor B. utilization factor C. absorption factor D. beam factor Page 26
Electrical Engineering Objective Questions 193. Which type of dc motor is employed in a domestic vacuum cleaner? A. DC series motor B. DC shunt C. DC short shunt compound D. DC long shunt compound 194. Advantage/s of active filter is/are A. do not offer gain B. easy to tune C. derive high impedance load D. all of the above 195. Which type of dc motor runs in constant speed? A. series B. shunt C. compound D. both A & B 196. In which dc motor flywheel is used A. differential compound motor B. cumulatively compound motor C. shunt motor D. series motor 197. Which losses do not vary with load? A. windage loss B. copper loss C. iron loss D. hysteresis loss 198. On what factors the speed of dc motor depends? A. applied voltage B. field flux C. armature current Ia D. all of the above 199. What are the methods of testing DC motor? A. all options are not valid B. swinburnes test C. direct loading method D. both B & C 200. Important property/ies of core of transformer is/are A. high permeability B. high resistivity C. both A & B D. neither A nor B
Page 27
Electrical Engineering Objective Questions 201. Bird guard is used in A. insulator B. conductor C. transformer D. lightning arrester 202. Alternating Current is found most suitable for A. arc welding B. resistance welding C. gas welding D. electric arc welding 203. What type of dielectric material is used in capacitors used for fans and for p.f. correction? A. oil impregnated paper B. vacuum C. glass D. mica 204. DIVERSITY FACTOR is equal to A. maximum demand /connected load B. sum of maximum demand of consumers/ maximum demand on system C. average demand /maximum demand D. none of the above 205. What are the types of EHT cables? A. oil filled B. gas filled C. both A and B D. neither A nor B 206. For large plants of capacity for more than 15MW, what type of cooling is used? A. hydrogen B. water C. air D. liquid 207. Among the following, which is not a nonconventional energy? A. wind B. nuclear C. tidal D. geothermal 208. On what factor does the performance of a circuit breaker depend? A. breaking speed B. critical length of breaking C. both A and B D. none of the above Page 28
Electrical Engineering Objective Questions 209. Maximum length of transmission line wherein the capacitance can be neglected? A. 120km B. 75km C. 220km D. 150km 210. What is/are the method/s for determining regulation of an alternator? A. synchronous impedance method B. MMF method C. zero p.f. method D. all of the above 211. The fluorescent materials used for fluorescence of green color. A. zinc silicate + manganese B. zinc sulfide + manganese C. zinc sulfide + silver D. calcium silicate + manganese 212. Examples of base load stations. A. thermal B. hydro C. gas turbine D. both A and B 213. In what connection we get neutral? A. star B. delta C. mesh D. both A & B 214. Sag depends upon A. weight of conductor B. tensile strength of conductor C. both A and B D. neither A nor B 215. What is the relation between line voltage & phase voltage in case of delta connection? A. VL = VP B. VL =1/ √3 VP C. VL = √3 VP D. none of the above 216. Which single phase motor is used for refrigerator? A. capacitor run B. split phase C. universal D. repulsion Page 29
Electrical Engineering Objective Questions 217. What type of cable are used in hill /mines? A. MIND B. XLPE C. FRLS D. LSOH 218. What is the flash point of transformer oil in degree centigrade? A. 200 B. 80 C. 140 D. >300 219. Leakage reactance of transformer vary with number of turns as A. directly proportional B. directly proportional to square of number of turns C. inversely proportional to square of number of turns D. inversely proportional 220. Class B insulation can bear temperature (in degree centigrade) up to? A. 130 B. 120 C. 105 D. 90 221. Leakage reactance of transformer depends upon A. number of turns B. configuration of windings C. frequency D. all of the above 222. Mineral insulating oils are the most widely used for liquid insulation for A. easy availability B. cheap C. good electrical property as well as heat transfer D. all of the above 223. Thermal conductivity of hydrogen is how many times that of air? A. 7 B. 4 C. 1.4 D. 14 224. Silicon content in electric sheet steel is limited to 5% as it A. makes punching difficult B. makes steel brittle C. pouching is easier D. both A and B Page 30
Electrical Engineering Objective Questions 225. At which point of a conductor embedded in a slot does the maximum temperature occur? A. periphery B. center C. equal throughout D. none 226. In synchronous machine the damper winding is used to A. reduce oscillation B. reduce air gap harmonic flux C. increase stability limit D. resist the moisture 227. Transformer with current rating of 2000A has what type of winding? A. crossover B. helical C. continuous disc D. sandwich winding 228. Type/s of rotating machines A. transformer B. IM C. synchronous motor D. both B and C 229. The concept of an electrically short, medium and long line is primarily based on A. nominal voltage of the line B. physical length of the line C. wavelength of the line D. power transmitted over the line 230. Which class of insulator can bear maximum temperature? A. C B. H C. Y D. A 231. Minor insulations include A. insulation between turns B. conductor insulation C. both A & B D. between L.V. and H.V. winding 232. In a three-phase system, when the loads are perfectly balanced, the neutral current is A. one-third of maximum B. one-third of maximum C. two-thirds of maximum D. zero Page 31
Electrical Engineering Objective Questions 233. Composition of insulator porcelain. A. clay, talc, magnesite B. clay, quartz ,feldspar C. clay, quartz, barium carbonate D. none of the above 234. Sandwich winding is seen in A. core type transformer B. shell type C. distribution transformer D. power transformer 235. Which windings are used for small capacity transformers? A. circular B. rectangular C. cylindrical D. helical 236. Major insulation of transformer includes A. insulation between windings and windings B. insulation between windings and earthed parts C. both A and B D. neither A nor B 237. What are the limitations imposed on m/c design? A. temperature rise B. insulation C. efficiency D. all of the above 238. Type/s of air cooling of a transformer. A. ANAN B. AN C. AB/AF D. all of the above 239. Specific magnetic loading is ratio of A. total flux in air gap to area of flux path in air gap B. area of flux path in air gap to total flux in air gap C. total armature ampere conductor to armature periphery at air gap D. both A and C 240. Area of yoke of transformers is what %? A. 5-10% B. 20-25% C. 15-20% D. 30% Page 32
