Electrical systems Question bank DGCA

ELECTRICAL SYSTEM-II A/C ELECTRICAL SYSTEM 1. Suppose you suddenly come across a colleague who is stuck to live bus-bars in a sub-station. Your first action would be to: (Ref. BL Theraja) a. switch off the supply b. put him away from the bus-bars c. immediately call for medical assistance d. start artificial breathing straightaway 2. The centripetal force necessary to keep electrons rotating the elliptical orbits round the nucleus is supplied by the force of attraction between their charges are given by (Ref. BL Theraja) a. coulomb‟s laws b. faraday‟s laws c. Fleming‟s law d. none of the above 3. The purpose of carbon contact in attracted-core, heavy duty relay: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 108) a. to limit the current in relay coil b. to absorb initial heavy current and thereby reduce arcing to a minimum before positive connection with main contacts is made c. to compensate for loss of spring d. all the above are correct 4. The RMS value of alternating current is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 33) a. sum of square of individual component of currents b. sum of square of individual components of currents divided by no. of individual components c. during a half cycle, squaring the value and taking their mean value and then taking the square root d. none of the above 5. A tumbler switch is also called: a. micro switch c. push switch

(Ref. AC 65 – 9A) b. toggle switch d. none of the above

6. The performance of rectifier depend on: a. maximum temperature of plate c. minimum voltage

b. maximum reverse voltage d. both a & c are correct

7. Which switch is not having moving parts: a. mercury c. proximity

b. thermal d. rotary

(Ref. TK Eismin, 259)

8. Which is not thermally affected by temperature: a. fuse b. CB c. limiting resistor 9. The effect of change in frequency will change: a. hysteresis loss b. eddy current loss c. both a & b d. none of the above

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(Ref. Grob., 812)

(Ref. AC 65 – 9A) d. thermistor (Ref. BL Theraja – Ed 1991, 578)

10. A series LCR is connected to 20V AC supply. The value of resistance is 8 ohms, inductive reactance of coil is 18ohms and capacitive reactance of capacitor is 12 ohms. How much is current flow in the circuit: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 202) a. 2 amps b. 10 amps c. 5 amps d. 1 amp. 11. A LCR circuit is connected across 200V, 50 Hz AC supply, value of R is 6 ohms, inductive reactance is 8 ohms and capacitive reactance is 16 ohms. Calculate the voltage drop across the resistance: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 202) a. 200/30 volts b. 200/2 volts c. 120 volts d. none of the above 12. Which of the relay have very high sensitively: a. slugged relay b. polarized relay c. heavy duty relay d. none of the above

(Ref. EHJ Pallet, 108)

13.What is the resistance of wire having same cross sectional area and material when the length is increased by 6 times: (Ref. AC 65 – 9A) a. two times b. 6 times c. 8 times 14. Temperature compensation capacitor is made of: a. mica b. chip c. paper d. ceramic

(Ref. Grob., 420)

15. Mark the correct statement for a single loop coil lying parallel to the magnetic field: (Ref. BL Theraja-Ed 1991, 244) a. flux linked with the coil is minimum b. rate of change of flux linkages is maximum c. emf induced in the coil is maximum d. all the above 16. When adding a rheostat to a light circuit to control the light intensity, it should be connected in: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 153) a. parallel with the light b. series with the light c. series parallel with the light d. none of the above 17. Paper capacitors are suitable for: a. short wave work in radio c. audio frequency stages of radio receivers

(Ref. BL Theraja-Ed 1991, 157) b. smoothing circuits in radio receivers d. use at radio frequency

18. The delay in establishment of steady current through a coil depends on the value of: (Ref. BL Theraja – Ed 1991, 242) a. applied voltage b. self inductance c. resistance d. both b & c are correct 19. Kirchhoff‟s current law is applicable to: a. closed loop c. junction in network

b. electronic circuit d. all the above

20. If the power factor is unity reactive power is: a. maximum b. zero c. minimum

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(Ref. BL Theraja, Ed. 1991, 56)

(Ref. BL Theraja, Ed. 1991, 457) d. negative

21. Match the correct statement for proximity sensors: a. proximity sensors are simply induction coil that operate in conjunction with steel targets b. the inductance of a proximity sensor is measured by a electronic control unit c. no moving contacts to fail, thereby high reliability d. all are correct (Ref. TK Eismin – 259) 22. to get full wave rectification with the help of only two diodes: (Ref. BL Thareja, Ed. 1991 – 691) a. a bridge configuration is used b. center tapped transformer is required c. diode connector is required d. none of the above 23. The basic unit of capacitance is: a. coloumb b. tesla

(Ref. EHJ Pallet -195) c. gauss

d. farad

24. The sensitivity of a voltmeter can be increased by: a. increasing the strength of the permanent magnet b. using lighter weight materials for the moving element c. by using sapphire jewel bearings to support the moving coil d. all of the above

FAA-9A, P-329

25. The frequency of an eight pole alternator rotating at 1800 rpm is:

FAA-9A, P-417

a. 60 Hz

b. 90 Hz

c. 120 Hz

26. Circuit breakers are located: a. generally far from the power source c. at any location compatible to the particular unit

d. 30 Hz

b. close to the power source d. so as not to be exposed to heat of any kind

Pallet, P-115

27. All resistible circuit breakers: Pallet, P-113 a. should open the circuit irrespective of the position of operation control when overload exists b. should open the circuit irrespective of the position of operating control when a circuit fault exists c. are referred to as trip free circuit d. all of the above 28. The total opposition to alternating current in an AC circuit is known as: Eismin, P-87 a. total resistance b. resistance c. reluctance d. impedance 29.Theopposition offered by a coil to the flow of ac is called: a. reluctance b. impedance c. inductance

d. inductive reactance

30. Soft soldering: CAIP-281 a. is a method of joining metals with fusion of the basis metal b. is a method of joining metals without intentional fusion of the basic metal c. as in (b) and is done by the solders having a lower melting point than the metals being joined d. as in (a) and is done by the solders having a higher melting point than the metals being joined 31. In an series RLC circuit: a. current lags behind the voltage if XL>XC b. current lags behind the voltage if XC>XL c. current is in phase with voltage if XL=XC d. all are correct

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BLT/1991/473

32. An ac circuit has 4 ohms resistance and 3 ohms reactance: a. power factor is 0.8 b. power factor is 1.33 c. impedance is 6 d. impedance is 8

FAA-9A, P-358

33. In an AC circuit the 5% of max. value of voltage occurs at: a. 45 b. 60 c. 30

BLT/1999/ED/42 d. 90

34.

Pallet-100 (i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(a) single-pole, double throw (b) double-pole, single-throw (c) single-pole,single-throw (d) double-pole,double-throw a. (i) b. (i) c. (i) d. (i)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(ii) (ii) (ii) (ii)

(b) (c) (b) (a)

(iii) (iii) (iii) (iii)

(c) (d) (a) (c)

(iv) (iv) (iv) (iv)

35. MTCS: a. current limiters limit the starting current in the starter motor b. starter c. HRC fuses limit the starting current in the starter motor d. circuit breakers limit the starting current in the starter motor

(d) (a) (d) (b)

limiting resistor limits the starting current in the motor

36. A white band on the button of a circuit breaker when exposed indicates: a. circuit breaker is on and functioning properly b. circuit breaker is drawing less current than the rated value c. circuit breaker is tripped d. circuit breaker is overheated and must be now switched off 37. Electric charge is measured in: a. Farad (F) b. coulomb (C) www.rjworld.com

Pallet-114

Pallet-195 c. joule (J)

d. Mercy (H)

38. Magnetic flux is measured in: a. ampere turn b. tesla 39. Gilbert is the unit of: a. magnetic field 40. Ampere-turn is the unit of: a. magneto motive force

c. weber

b. flux density

d. ampere per meter

Pallet-196 d. reluctance

c. magneto motive force

b. flux density

c. reluctance

d. magnetic field

41. The opposition to the flux established by the magnetizing force is known as: a. magneto motive force b. reluctance c. resistance 42. The rate of doing work is known as: a. energy b. potential

Pallet-195

c. current

Pallet-196 d. impedance

d. power

Pallet-194

43. That part of the impedance which is due to inductance, or both, and which stores energy rather than dissipates it, is known as: Pallet-195 a. capacitance b. inductance c. both (a) & (b) d. reactance 44. The amount of magnetic flux per square centimeter, over a small area at a point in a magnetic field is known as: Pallet-195 a. magnetic field strength b. magnetic flux density c. magneto motive force d. permeability 45. A circuit breaker is a device for: a. protecting an electrical circuit from current overload b. collapsing the primary circuit of a magneto c. completing a circuit without being affected by current flow d. all of the above

Pallet-223

46. The current in a purely capacitive circuit will: a. lead the applied voltage c. be in line with the applied voltage

Pallet-221

b. lag the applied voltage d. either (b) or (c)

47. Factors that must be considered in selecting the size of wire are: a. I2R b. IR drop c. current carrying ability

FAA-15A, P-436 d. all of the above

48. The voltage drop in the main power cable from aircraft generation source or the battery to bus should not exceed: FAA-15A, P-436 a. 2% of regulated voltage b. 3% of regulated voltage c. 4% of regulated voltage d. 1% of regulated voltage 49. The max. resistance between ground point of generator/ battery and ground terminal of any electrical device should not exceed: FAA-15A, P-436 a. 0.005 b. 0.05 3. 0.5 4. 0.0005 50. Push switches are primarily used for those circuits which are required to be operated for: a. short duration b. long duration c. when circuit is to be completed or interrupted momentarily d. both (a) & (c) are correct

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Pallet-101

51. The impedance of an AC circuit is measured in: a. kilovolt amperes b. amperes

c. ohms

Pallet-221 d. none of the above

52. The number of circuits which can be completed through the poles of a switch is indicated by the term: Pallet-223 a. pole b. position c. throw d. none 53. In a thermal switch employing steel and invar element actuation of the contacts under increasing temperature condition is caused by: Pallet-223 a. expansion of the steel element only b. contraction of the invar element only c. expansion of the steel element causing displacement of the in rear element d. none of the above 54. A soft iron core is placed within the coil of a moving coil instrument because: a. it provides a solid spindle about which the coil can rotate b. this ensures an even, radial and intensified magnetic field for the coil to move in c. the inertia of the core will damp out oscillations of the coil d. none of the above

Pallet-223

55. Relays which are slow to operate are known as: a. slugged relays b. polarized relays c. light duty relays d. extremely light relays

Pallet-108

56. Switches which confine the action of toggle and push-button switches are called: Pallet-102 a. rotary switches b. micro switches c. tumbler switches d. rocker-button switches 57. Toggle switches are also known as: a. rotary switches b. time switches

c. tumbler switches

Pallet-100 d. push switches

58. Mercury switches are used in/for: a. monitoring pressures b. measuring angle c. delaying the operation operation

Pallet-104 d. hastening the

59. The principal advantage of proximity switches over micro switches is that: Pallet-106 a. proximity switches are located very near to the circuit component and hence do not require lengthy wires for operation b. use of relays is eliminated when proximity switches are used hence total components used will be much less c. proximity switches have no moving parts as compared to micro switches d. proximity switches work on the same principle as solid state devices hence they consume very small amount of power 60. When using an ohmmeter to check the continuity of a generator field coil, the coil should: a. be removed from the generator housing b. show high resistance when the meter probes are connected to the terminal of the coil c. show very low resistance if it is a series coil d. none of the above

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Pallet-207

61. Megger is used for testing : a. ground, continuity tests b. measuring insulation resistance c. measuring resistance with a high potential d. all are correct

FAA-9A-331

62. The precaution for using ohm meter are: a. circuit components to be tested should be isolated c. both (a) & (b)

Pallet-166 b. power source to be removed from circuit d. none is correct

63. An ohm meter when connected across a circuit component indicates infinity, it means: a. the circuit has continuity b. the circuit is open c. the circuit has short circuit d. all of the above are correct

FAA-9A-330

64. Meggar needle normally rests at: a. extreme right c. middle

FAA-9A-330

b. extreme left d. at any place

65. While measuring the value of resistance, connected in a circuit at least one end of resistance is disconnected in order to avoid: a. reading the resistance of series path b. damage of resistance in parallel path c. damage the resistance in series path d. reading the resistance of parallel path 66. The most efficient form of damping employed in electrical instrument is: FAA-9A-324 a. air friction b. fluid friction c. eddy current d. none of the above 67. The meter that is suitable for only direct current measurement is: a. moving iron type b. permanent magnet type c. electrodynamometer type d. hot wire type 68. The hot wire ammeter: a. is used only for DC circuits c. is used only for AC circuits

b. is a higher precision instrument d. reads equally well DC and or AC

69. The moving system of an indicating type of electrical instrument is subjected to: a. a deflection torque b. a controlling torque c. a damping torque d. all of the above 70. Which is not essential for the working of an indicating instrument: a. deflecting torque b. braking torque c. damping torque 71. If an ammeter is used as a voltmeter, in all probability it will: a. indicate much higher reading b. give extremely low reading c. indicate no reading at all d. burn out

BLT/1991/366

Eismin-244

BLT/1991/353

BLT/1991/417 d. controlling torque BLT/1991/418

72. If a moving coil ammeter is used to measure the value of a alternating sinusoidal current having a peak value of 100 A, it will read a. 50 A b. 63.7A c. 141.1A d. 70.7 A

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73. In a capacitive circuit: a. a decrease in applied voltage makes a capacitor charge b. a steady value of applied voltage causes discharge c. an increase in applied voltage makes a capacitor discharge d. an increase in applied voltage makes a capacitor charge 74. In a sine-wave ac circuit with XC and R in series, the: a. phase angle of the circuit is 180 with high series resistance b. voltage across the capacitance must be 90 out of phase with its charge and discharge current c. voltage across the capacitance has the same phase angle as its charge and discharge current d. charge and discharge current of the capacitor must be 90 out of phase with the applied voltage 75. In a sine-wave ac circuit with R and C in parallel: a. the voltage across C lags the voltage across R by 90 b. resistive IR is 90 out of phase with IC c. IR and IC are in phase d. IR and IC are 180 out of phase 76. In a sine-wave ac circuit with a 90 R in series with a 90 XC, the phase angle equals: a. 30 b. 45 c. 60 d. 90 77. The combined impedance of a 1000 R in parallel with a 1000 XC equals: a. 500 b. 707 c. 1000 d. 2000 78. With 100 V applied across two series capacitors of 5F each, the voltage across each capacitor will be: a. 5 V b. 33 1/3 V c. 50 V d. 66 2/3 V 79. In a sine-wave ac circuit with XC and R in series, the a. voltages across R and XC are in phase b. voltage across R and XC are 180 out of phase c. voltage across R leads the voltage across XC by 90 d. voltage across R lags the voltage across XC by 90 80. Flight compartment lights include: a. incandescent flood light b. fluorescent flood lights c. dome light and panel lights d. all of the above

Eismin, P-256

81. With higher frequencies, the amount of capacitive reactance: a. increases b. stays the same c. decreases d. increases only when the voltage increase 82. At the same frequency, larger capacitance results in: a. more reactance b. the same reactance c. less reactance d. less reactance if the voltage amplitude decreases 83. Two 1000 XC values in series have a total reactance of: a. 500 b. 1000 c. 1414 d. 2000

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84. With 50V rms applied across a 100- XC, the rms current in the circuit equals: a. 0.5A b. 0.637A c. 0.707A d. 1.414A 85. A capacitor consists of two: a. conductors separated by an insulator c. conductors alone

b. insulators separated by a conductor d. insulators alone

86. A capacitance of 0.02F equals: a. 0.02x10-12 F c. 0.02x106 F

b. 0.02x10-6 F d. 2002x1012 F

Grob, P-542

87. Capacitance increases with: a. larger plate area and greater distance between plates: b. smaller plate area and less distance between plates c. larger plate area and less distance between plates d. higher values of applied voltage 88. Which of the following statement is correct: a. air capacitor have a black band to indicate the outside foil b. mica capacitors are available in capacitance values of 1 to 10F c. electrolytic capacitors must be connected with the correct polarity d. ceramic capacitors must be connected in the correct polarity 89. Which of the following statement is true: a. alnico is commonly used for electromagnets b. paper cannot affect magnetic flux because it is not a magnetic material c. iron is generally used for permanent magnets d. ferrites have lower permeability than air or vacuum 90. Hysteresis losses: a. are caused by high high-frequency alternating current in a coil with an iron core b. generally increase with direct current in a coil c. are especially important with permanent magnets that have a steady magnetic field d. cannot be produced in an iron core, because it is a conductor 91. The ac power line voltage of 120 V rms has a peak value of: a. 100 V b. 170 V c. 240 V

d. 338 V

92. If two similar wire conductors are connected in parallel, their total resistance is: a. double the resistance of one wire b. one half the resistance of one wire c. the same as the resistance of one wire d. two-thirds the resistance of one wire 93. Which colour is not used in 1st band of a colour coded resistor: a. brown b. white c. red d. black 94. Silver band represent the tolerance of: a. 10% b. 5% c. 0%

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d. 20%

Grob, P-522

95. Phase angle : a. it is an angular distance between current and voltage in an a.c. circuit b. it is always measured between the horizontal line and the resultant vector c. none of the above d. both (a) & (b) 96. Unit of inductance: a. henry

b. ohm

97. Diamagnetic materials have permeability: a. more than 1 b. from 50 to 500 98. Vacuum has: a. high permeability c. low permeability and high reluctance 99. The resistance of a short circuit is: a. infinity b. zero

c. mho

Esmin, P-88

d. none of the above

Esmin, P-107 Grob, P-390

c. less than 1

d. exactly 50

b. high reluctance d. high permeability and low reluctance

Grob, P-408

Grob, P-37 c. always 100

d. more

100. What is characteristics of parallel circuit: a. branch current are additive b. voltage are additive c. powers are additive d. (a) & (c) are correct 101. Magnetic field lines are considered to be: a. coming out of north pole and enter south pole b. coming out of south pole and enter north pole c. coming out of north pole but doesn‟t enter south pole d. depends on shape of magnet 102. The ability of magnet to hold its magnetism varies greatly with the type of metal and is known as: FAA-9A, P-302 a. reluctance b. retentivity c. permeability d. diamagnetic 103. The polarity of the statically induced voltage is determined by: a. Fleming‟s right hand rule for conventional current b. Fleming‟s left hand rule for electronic current c. Thumb rule d. Lenz law 104. Unit of mmf is: a. oersted in cgs

b. gauss

c. gilbert

Grob, P-431

d. tesla

Grob, P-401

105. The direction of field around a positive charge is: FAA-9A, P-270 a. toward the charge b. away from the charge c. either (a) or (b) d. none of the above 106. If the third band is silver in color, the ___ digit must be multiplied by ___%: a. third digit, 10% b. first two digit, 10% c. third digit, 1% d. first two digit, 1%

FAA-9A, P-280

107. If third band is gold in colour the first two digits must be multiplied by: a. 5% b. 10% c. 1% d. none

B. L. Thareja, P-280

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108. Tolerance is: a. The percentage variation between the marked value and the actual value of a resistor b. fourth color band on the resistor c. both (a) & (b) d. none

FAA-9A, P-279, 280

109. The example of intermittent duty relay switch is a. battery relay switch b. starter relay switch c. both (a) & (b) d. neither (a) nor (b)

FAA-9A, P-320

110. In a circuit with three parallel branches, if one branch opens, the main line current will be: a. more b. less c. the same d. infinite 111. A 1- R1 and a 20 R2 are in series with a 30-V source, if R1 opens, the voltage drop across R2 will be: a. zero b. 20 V c. 30 V d. infinite 112. If a fixed value of voltage is connected across a variable resistance: a. I will vary in direct proportion to R b. I will be inversely proportional to R c. I will remain constant as R is varied d. none of the above

Grob, P-194

113. Number of coulombs passing through any given point in a conductor per second is: a. charge b. potential c. current(Ampere) d. both (a) & (c) 114. Unit of magnetic flux is: a. tesla b. Weber c. Gilbert


Grob, P-382

115. Unit of flux density is: a. tesla b. Weber


Grob, P-383 c. Gilbert

116. The reasons of using horse shoe magnet instead of bar magnet in instruments is/are: Grob, P-387 a. it occupies less space b. has less air gap c. it increases the flux density in the air gap d. all of the above 117. The ability of magnetic materials to concentrate magnetic flux is known as: a. permittivity b. permeability c. flux density d. field intensity

Grob, P-386

118. A resistor with a power rating of 25w is most likely a: a. carbon composition resistor b. metal film resistor c. surface mount resistor d. wire wound resistor

Grob, P-51

119. A potentiometer is a: a. three terminal device used to vary the voltage in a circuit; b. two-terminal device used to vary the current in a circuit c. fixed resistor d. two-terminal device used to vary the voltage in a circuit

Esmin, P-101

120. Mark the correct statement about electricity and magnetism: a. current is analogous to flux and potential is analogous to flux density b. current is analogous to magneto motive force and reluctance is analogous to resistance c. current is analogous to flux and resistance is analogous to magneto motive force d. current is analogous to flux and potential is analogous to magneto motive force

Grob, P-409

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121. Mark the correct statement: FAA-9A, P-302 a. ferromagnetic materials have high permeability whereas diamagnetic materials have permeabilities slightly less than one b. a. ferromagnetic materials have high permeability whereas diamagnetic materials have permeability slightly more than one c. paramagnetic materials have permeabilities slightly less than one and diamagnetic materials have permeabilities slightly more than one d. paramagnetic materials have permeabilities slightly more than one and diamagnetic materials have very high permeabilitities 122. The d.c. series motor should never be switched on at no load because: a. the field current is zero b. the machine does not pick up c. the speed becomes dangerously high d. it will take too long to accelerate

B. L. Thareja, P-1030

123. The most efficient form of damping employed in electrical instrument is: a. air friction b. fluid friction c. eddy currents d. none of the above 124. A simple potentiometer is correctly called a :a. current devider b. voltage stabilizer c. variable resistor d. voltage divider 125. The unit of capacitance is :a. farad b. coulomb

c. volt

B.L. Thareja, . Page – 55

d. metre


126. The time constant of an R-C circuit is defined as the time during which capacitor charging current becomes ………… percent of its……… value:B.L. Thareja, Page-157 a. 37, final b. 63, final c. 63, initial d. 37, initial 127. The magnetizing force produced by a solenoid depends on :a. the number of its turns b. the current carried by it c. its length 128. Aluminium can be classified as a ……………….. material :a. Para magnetic b. Force magnetic c. Dia magnetic

d. all the above B.L. Thareja, Page-193

d. Soft magnetic

129. Whenever a magnet is quickly brought towards an open circuited stationary coil :a. A current is induced in it b. Work has to be done c. e.m.f. is induced it d. Power is spent 130. The direction of induced e.m.f. in a coil may be found with the help of :a. faraday‟s law b. Lenz‟s law c. fleming‟s left hand rule d. steinamety law

B.L. Thareja, Page-193

B.L. Thareja, Page -219


131. An e.m.f. is induced in the coil whenever flux through it :(B.L. Thareja, P -220) a. Is decreased b. Is increased c. Is abruptly reduced to zero d. All the above 132. Capacitance does NOT depend upon which factor :a. plate area b. plate thickness c. distance between plates d. nature of di-electric

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( T.K. Eismin,Page-103)

133. Which of the following material has a negative temperature coefficient of resistance ? a. Brass

b. Copper

c. Aluminium

d. Carbon

134. Carbon composition resistors are most popular because they :a. cost the least b. are smaller in size c. can withstand over loads d. do not produce electric noise

(B.L Thareja, Page – 8) (AC 65-9A, Page-278)

135. Which of the following statement is true both for a series and a parallel dc circuit ? a. powers are additive c. currents are additive

b. voltages are additive d. elements have individual currents

( T.K. Eismin, Page – 107)

136. For a given voltage, four heating coils will produce maximum heat when connected :a. All in parallel b. All in series c. With two parallel point in series d. One pair in parallel with the other two in series T.K. Eismin, Page – 8 137. A cylindrical wire, 1 m in length, has a resistance of 100 ohm. What would be the resistance of a wire made from the same material if both the length and cross sectional area are doubled ? B.L Thareja, Page-7 a. 200 ohms b. 400 ohms c. 100 ohms d. 50 ohms 138. The working voltage of a capacitor in an A.C circuit should be :a. equal to the highest applied voltage b. at least 20% greater than the highest applied voltage c. at least 50% greater than the highest applied voltage d. none of these

AC 65-9A, Page-351

139. Higher the self-inductance of a coil :a. lower the e.m.f. induced in it b. longer the delay in establishing steady current through it c. greater the flux produced by it d. lesser its flux linkage

(T.K. Eismin, Page – 107)

140. Mutual inductance between two magnetically coupled coil depends on :a. The number of their turns b. Permeability of the core c. Cross sectional area of their common core d. All the above

(B.L Thareja, Page-176)

141. Permanent magnets are normally made of :a. Aluminium b. Wrought iron c. Cast iron d. Alnico alloys

(T.K. Eismin, Page-8)

142.those magnetic materials are best suited for making armature and transformer cores which have :a. low permeability and high hysterisis loss b. high permeability and low hysteresis loss c. low permeability and low hysteresis loss d. high permeability and high hysteresis loss (AC 65-9A, Page-302)

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143. Those materials are well suited for making permanent magnets while have :a. high retentivity and high coercivity b. high retentivity and low coercivity c. low retentivity and low coercivity d. low retentivity and high coercivity

(9A/303)

144. In a magnetic material, hysteresis loss takes place primarily due to :(AC 65-9A, Page-450) a. flux – density lagging behind magnetizing force b. molecular friction c. its high retentivity d. rapid reversals of its magnetization 145. Circuit breakers are located :a. generally far from the power source b. close to the power source c. at any location compatible to the particular unit d. so as not to be exposed to heat of any kind

( E.H.J. Pallet, Page-115)

146. All resetable circuit breakers :( E.H.J. Pallet, Page-113) a. Should open the circuit irrespective of the position of operation control when overload exits b. Should open the circuit irrespective of the position of operating control when a circuit fault exists c. Are referred to as trip free circuit d. All of the above 147. Which particle of an atom actually moves in the production of an electric current : a. the proton b. the electron c. the neutron d. all three 148. The term that describes the combined resistive force in an AC circuit is : a. resistance b. capacitance c. total resistance d. impedance

(BL Thereja-Pg 1)

(Thomas K Eismin- Pg-87)

149. If a series R-L-C circuit contains 10 ohm of resistance, 20 ohm of inductive reactance, and 30 ohm of capacitive reactance it is said to be (Numerical) a. inductive b. in resonance c. resistive d. capacitive 150. The opposition offered by a coil to the flow of ac is called: a. conductivity b. impedance c. reluctance d. inductive reactance

(Thomas K Eismin- Pg-87)

151. An increase in which of the following factors will cause an increase in the inductive reactance of a circuit (Thomas K Eismin- Pg-87) a. capacitance & voltage b. inductance & frequency c. voltage and resistance d. resistance & capacitive reactance 152. Which statement is correct in reference to electrical resistance (Numerical) a. two electrical devices will have the same combined resistance if they are connected in series as they will have if connected in parallel b. if one of 3 bulbs in a parallel lighting circuit is removed, the total resistance of the circuit will become greater c. an electrical device that has a high resistance will use more power than one with a low resistance with the same applied voltage d. a 5 ohm resistor in a 12 V circuit will use less current than a 10 ohm resistor in a 24 V circuit www.rjworld.com

153. Through which material will magnetic lines of force pass most readily a. copper b. iron c. aluminium d. titanium

(BL Thereja Pg-245)

154. Unit of capacitive and inductive reactance is a. farad & henry b.ohm & henry c. farad & ohm d. ohm & ohm

(BL Thereja Pg-201)

155. The maximum value of charge in a capacitor reached at: a. 2 Time constant b. 3 Time constant c. 4 Time constant d. 6 Time constant

Thomas K Eismin Pg-105

156. Dielectric strength is maximum in: a. Paper b. Glass

FAA-9A Pg-351 c. Mica

d. Air

157. In one time constant, capacitor takes the charge upto ___ % of its full charge a. 63.2

b. 36.7

c. 20.6

158. What is the power factor of a parallel resonance circuit? a. Unity b. Zero c. 0.5

Thomas K Eismin Pg-105

d. 80.2 d. 0.866

BL Thereja Pg-555

159. A circuit breaker that can not be reset when the circuit fault exist is called: a. Electric CB b. Non-resettable CB c. Trip free CB

EHJ Pallett Pg-113 d. Polarized CB

160. For sensing angular position the ________ switch is used a. Proximity b. Thermal switch c. Micro switch d. Mercury switch

EHJ Pallett Pg-104

161. Thermal switch in the fire warning system is operated above: a. 300 C b. 400 C c. 500 C d. 500 C

EHJ Pallett Pg-106

162. Closing of freight door is normally indicated with the help of: a. Relays b. Proximity switch c. Mercury switch d. None 163. “HRC” terms used with : a. CB‟s b. Switches c. Relays 164. The unit of resistivity is: a. Ohm-meter b. Ohm/Meter

EHJ Pallett Pg-112 d. Fuses c. Ohm-centimeter

165. A three phase synchronous motor is well suited for driving :a. fluctuating loads c. motor generator set

EHJ Pallett Pg-106

d. Ohm/Sq cm.

BL Thereja Pg-4 B.L Thareja, Page – 651

b. printing presses d. vacuum cleaners

166. Current changing at the rate of 0.5 Amp. / Sec. induces on e.m.f. of 2V in a coil. The self inductance of the coil in Henry is :B.L Thareja, Page – 219 a. 4 Henry b. 2 Henry c. 1 Henry d. 3 Henry 167. The starting winding of a single phase motor is placed in the :a. Rotor b. Stator c. Armature d. Field www.rjworld.com

E.H.J. Pallet, Page-143

168. In synchronous motor, damper winding is provided in order to :a. stabilize rotor motion b. suppress rotor oscillations c. develop necessary starting torque d. both (2) & (3)

(T.K. Eismin, page-186)

169. While running , a synchronous motor is compelled to run at synchronous speed because of :(AC 65-9A, Page-457) a. damper winding in its pole faces b. magnetic locking between stator and rotor poles c. induced e.m.f. in rotor field winding by stator flux d. compulsion due to Lenz‟s law 170. The Hysterisis motor works on the principle of : a. Flemings right hand rule b. Hysteresis principle c. As in „2‟ and the rotor rotates at Synchronous speed

(EHJ Pallette , P-144)

171. Synchronous motor runs at :a. Synchronous speed at no load b. Less than synchronous speed at all loads c. It runs at synchronous speed from no load to full load d. Both (1) & (3) are correct

AC 65-9A, Page-457

172. In 3 Phase induction motor :a. at no load, rotor speed is slightly less than synchronous speed b. with increase of load, rotor speed decreases c. with decrease of load rotor speed increases d. all are correct

AC 65-9A, Page-453

173. In 3 Phase inductions motor % slip depends upon :(AC 65-9A, Page-453) a. load b. line voltage of three phase A3. Supply c. number of conductors on rotor d. all are correct 174. If a single phase induction motor runs with noise, the more likely defect is :a. Improper fuses b. Shorted running winding c. Open starting winding d. Worn bearing

( B.L Thareja, Page-62 )

175. The principle of statically inducted e.m.f. is utilized in :a. Transformer b. Motor c. Generator d. Battery

( B.L Thareja, Page-553)

176. . In End to Center band system, if the tolerance band shows blue color, the tolerance value will be: a. 6% b. 2% BL Thereja Pg-280 d. 4% d. None of the above 177. . Carbon composition resistors have the demerits of: a. More cost b. Larger in size c. Produce electric noise d. None of the above

BL Thereja Pg-25

178. The speed of a D.C. motor can be controlled by varying :-

B.L Thareja, Page – 321

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a. Its flux b. Armature circuit resistance c. Applied voltage d. All the above 179. When load is removed, which motor will run at the highest speed :a. Shunt c. Cumulative


b. Series d. Differential compound

180. The armature torque of a D.C motor is a function of its a. Pole flux b. Armature current c. Speed d. Both (a) & (b) 181. A universal motor has variable speed characteristics because it is :a. series wound b. compound would c. operated on both D.C and A.C supplied d. wholly laminated


182. Polarized relay is normally used in: a. Generator-Battery circuit c. Generator-Lighting circuit

FAA-9A Pg-401 b. Generator-Load circuit d. None

SERVOMECHANISMS & AMPLIFIERS 183. All the synchros are working on: a. transformer principle c. inductor principle

b. resistance principle d. capacitance principle

(Ref. A/c Inst. Pallet, 23)

184. Which component is not used in torque synchro: a. motor b. amplifier c. motor and amplifier d. none of the above

(Ref. A/c Inst. Pallet, 232)

185. Generally torque synchro are used for transmitting: a. power plant datas and position indication c. manometric datas

(Ref. Pallet Integrated, 135)

186. Control synchro is used for: a. power plant data transmission c. position indication flap position indication 187. Differential synchro is used for: a. power plant data. manometric data d. output depends upon two input data

b. navigational datas d. inertial datas

b. close loop servo system

c. position indication

188. Resolver synchro is used where we require Cartesian coordinate of a point to: a. R Cos c. R Cos and R Sin

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b. R Sin d. R Tan




189. Polar coordinate is used to find out resultant of: a. R Cos b. R Sin c. R Cos and R Sin d. R Tan


190.In torque synchro if the rotor connection is reversed then: a. no effect on output b. output is advanced by 900 0 c. output is advanced by 270 d. output is advanced by 1800


191. If there is cycle shift of stator connection torque synchro then output datum is advanced by: a. 2400 b. 2700 c. 1800 d. 900 (Ref. Pallet Integrated, 139) 192. In torque synchro if stator coil connection of two lead are interchanged then: 0

a. output is advanced by 90 c. output is advanced by 2700

0

b. output is advanced by 180 d. reverse rotation of output rotor


193. In resolver synchro where polar is connected to Cartesian R3 & R4 rotor coils are shorted to: (Ref. Pallet Integrated, 147) a. prevent burning b. prevent hunting c. improve accuracy d. as in c & limit spurious response 194.In control synchro supply is given to: a. transmitter stator c. receiver stator 195.Resolver syschro consists of: a. four rotor coil c. two rotor and stator coil

(Ref. Pallet Integrated, 14) b. transmitter rotor d. receiver rotor

b. four stator coil d. four rotor and stator coil


196. When pilot is flying the a/c manually the pilot and his control surface together may be termed as: (Ref. AFC Pallet, 72) a. auto flight b. manual flight c. man / machine close loop servo system d. all are correct 197. The role of AFCS is to: a. over come a stability and control deficiency b. improve handling and ride quality c. carry out series of maneuver which pilot is unable to perform d. all are correct

(Ref. AFC Pallet, 73)

198. Servo system must be able to perform: a. detect difference between input and output b. amply the error signal c. control the closing of servo loop by providing feedback d. all are correct


199. Servo mechanism are coming under two classes may function as: a. position control b. speed control c. position and speed control d. differentiator and integrator


200. In position control servo system the amplifier output is equivalent to: (Ref. AFC Pallet, 84) a.  1 b.  0 c. K (1 - 0) d. K (0 - A)

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201. In speed control servo system output from the amplifier is: a. K (V1-V0) b. K (V0-Va) c. V1 d. Vo


202. What are the type of input in servo system: a. step input b. ramp input c. step and ramp input d. step and ramp output


203.Impositon feed back system if there is step input: a. continuous oscillation b. load comes to rest at null point c. load lags behind d. all are correct


204. Inherent friction cause: a. light damping c. critical damping


b. heavy damping d. all are correct

205. The degree of damping which prevent any over shoot is known as: a. light damping b. critical damping c. optimum damping d. heavy damping


206. Damping which allows small over shoot and smallest settling time is known as: (Ref. AFC Pallet, 86) a. optimum damping b. critical damping c. light damping d. heavy damping 207. Small force of constant magnitude opposing servo motor is known as: a. coulomb friction b. viscous friction c. eddy current d. lubricant


208. In velocity feed back damping if there is ramp input: a. no velocity lag b. over shoot c. velocity lag increase d. none of the above


209. In error rate damping when input and output shafts are at equal velocity then: a. no error signal b. there is an error signal c. error signal is more d. all are correct

Ref. AFC Pallet, 88

210. In ECAM system which mode is the automatic mode? a. Flight Phase b. Cautionary c. Advisory d. Both (a) and (c)

EHJ Pallette, P-133

211. In EICAS system, which is a “level A warning”? TK Eismin, P-359 a. Cabin Depressurization b. Engine Fire c. Both (a) and (b) in display form d. Both (a) and (b) in display as well as in aural form 212. In ECAM system: EHJ Pallette, P-134 a. The graphical display is given by the R.H unit b. The graphical display is given by the L.H unit c. As in a. and advisory message color change to white after corrective action taken d. As in b. and advisory message color change to white after corrective action taken

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213. CRT used in A/C instrument displays are: a. Electromagnetic deflection type c. Both „1‟ & „2‟

TK Eismin, P-123 b. Electrostatic deflection type

BONDING & SCREENING 214. In aircraft having non metallic structure: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 88) a. four or more copper strip type conductors are used extending whole length of fuselage b. they are not more than six feet apart as measured around the periphery of fuselage c. the fuselage earthing strips are connected to further strips which follow the leading and trailing edges from root to tip of each wing and horizontal stabilizer d. all the above 215. Corona discharge in a/c is prevented by: a. static discharger b. screening c. potting d. none of the above 216. What is true about bonding tester: a. 60 lead is connected to a/c main earth point b. 6 lead two prongs are connected where there is joint c. it has got one 1.2v cell and calibration is done by standard resistances provided d. all the above


(Ref. CAP-II, Ch-EEL/06)

217. Bonding and grounding are made to provide: a. current return path b. protection of person from shock hazard c. stability of radio reception and transmission d. all the above


218. The tags or lugs on bonding jumpers are generally fitted by:

CAIP-II/943

a. soldering method c. sintering method

b. crimping method d. nuts & bolts

219. The maximum primary bonding resistance between the extremities of the fixed portion of all metallic aircraft is: CAIP-II/496 a. 0.1 ohm b. 0.01 ohm c. 0.05 ohm d. 0.001 ohm 220. Mark the correct statement: E.H.J. Pallet, P-92 a. precipitation charges are those which are induced into an aircraft when flying into electric fields created by certain types of cloud formation b. electrostatic charges are built up on the outer surface of an aircraft due to friction contact with rain particles, snow and ice crystals, dust, smoke and other air contamination c. precipitation static charges are built up on the outer surfaces of an aircraft due to frictional contact with rain particles, snow and ice crystals, dust, smoke and other air contamination whereas charges of electrostatic are those induced into an aircraft when flying into electric fields created by certain types of cloud formation. d. none of the above 221. Mark the correct statement: E.H.J. Pallet, P-94 a. classification of primary bonding is determined by the magnitude of current to be expected from precipitation www.rjworld.com

static charges b. classification of secondary bonding is determined by the magnitude of current to the expected from electro statically induced charges c. bonding is classified as primary and secondary, such classification being determined by the magnitude of current to be expected from electro statically induced charges and precipitation static charges respectively. d. bonding is classified as primary and secondary, such classification being determined by the magnitude of current to be expected from precipitation static charges and electro statically induced charges respectively. ELECTRONICS 222. The doping materials are called impurities because they: a. decrease the number of charge carriers b. change the chemical properties of semi conductors c. make semi conductors less than 100 percent pure d. alter the crystal structure of pure semi conductors

(Ref. BL Theraja)

223. Feedback in an amplifier always helps to: a. control its output b. increases its gain c. decreases its input impendence d. stabilize its gain

(Ref. BL Theraja)

224.In normal operation of p-n-p transistor, its junctions are biased: a. both forward b. both reverse c. emitter base – reverse, collector base – forward d. emitter base – forward, collector base – reverse

(Ref. BL Theraja)

225. An SCR can be turned off by: a. anode current interruption b. reversing polarity of anode – cathode voltage c. reducing current through SCR below the holding d. any of above method can be used independently

(Ref. BL Theraja-1991, 817)

226. The logic symbol represents: a. an AND gate

b. a NOR gate

Pallet-225 c. an OR gate

d. an XOR gate

227. In order to energize the relay in the circuit shown below here the logic state at the inputs must be Pallet-226

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a. log 0 at points A & B c. 1 at both points A

B

C

1 1 0 0

1 0 1 0

1 1 1 0

b. 0 at point A and 1 at point B d. 0 at both points

228. The truth table shown here corresponds to: a. an OR gate b. an AND gate c. a NOR gate d. an XOR gate

Pallet-226

229. The circuit shown here performs a logic: a. AND function b. OR function c. NAND function

Pallet-226

230. DTL family Logic employs: a. Diode, Resistor, Transistor b. Diode and resistor c. Resistor & Transistor

(BL Thereja, P-2376)

231. In a normally working PNP transistor, both base and collector are at _____potential w.r.t the emitter (BL Thereja Pg-1975) a. +ve

b. –ve

c. either (1) or (2)

d. neither (1) or (2)

232. A transistor does not conduct unless its __________ base junction is forward biased a. emitter b.collector c. both (1) and (2) d. either (1) or (2)

(BL Thereja Pg-1975)

233. FETs have similar properties to a. PNP transistors c. Thermionic valve

(VK Mehta Pg-488)

b. NPN transistors d. UJT

234. The smallest negative grid voltage, for a given plate voltage, at which plate current becomes zero is known as (VK Mehta Pg-44) a. grid cutoff bias www.rjworld.com

b. grid cut in bias

c. break over voltage

d. break down voltage

235. The band width of the band pass filter depends upon a. resistance of inductor b. No. of elements used c. both (1) and (2) d. either (1) or (2)

(Thomas K Eismin Pg-289)

236. Which transistor has the highest voltage and power gain ? a. CB b. CE c. CC d. Both (1) and (2)

(BL Thereja

Pg-2059)

237. The --- configuration on of transistor is suitable for high input to Low output impedance matching (BL Thereja Pg.- 2032) a. CB b. CE c. CC d. All of the above 238. The common base configuration of transistor is used for: a. Impedance matching (high frequency signal) b. audio frequency signal c. impedance matching (Low frequency signal) d. none of the above

(VK Mehta Pg-227)

239. Germanium has how many electrons in the outermost orbita. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

(VK Mehta Pg-119)

240. Silicon & Germanium are the examples ofa. conductor b. semiconductor c. super conductor d. dielectric

(VK Mehta Pg-120)

241. A Zener diode has how many terminals? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3

(BL Thereja Pg-1908) d. 4

242. A silicon controlled rectifier (SCR) has how many terminals? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4


243. Aquadag coating done in CRT is toa. avoid dust formation on the screen b. avoid mixing of colours c. capture secondary electrons d. accelerate thermions


244. Sweep generator generates : a. Triangular wave form c. Sinusoidal Waveform

(BL Thereja Pg-2392) b. Sawtooth waveform d. all of these

245. A Bipolar transistor has how many terminals? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4


246. In semiconductor diodes, the current is made ofa. electrons b. holes c. both (1) and (2) d. it depends on impurity concentration


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POWER DISTRIBUTION 247. Merz-price protection system is also known as: a. over current protection b. under voltage protection c. differential protection d. over voltage protection


248. Differential fault means: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 12) a. difference between the current leaving the generator and the current arriving at the bus bar b. voltage difference between generator and bus bar c. frequency difference between generator and bus bar d. none of the above 249. Essential loads are connected to: a. battery bus bar b. generator bus bar c. both a & b d. vital bus bar


250. When external AC power is connected to TRU, its output: a. energies d.c. control relay circuits b. is connected to d.c. bus bar to operate d.c. consumers c. both a & b are correct d. is used sparingly on ground


251. If all the generators fail during flight, the essential services will be maintained by: a. A.C. bus b. hot bus c. d.c. bus d. none of the above 252. In constant frequency load system which is correct statement: a. reactive load sharing is done by field excitation b. active load sharing is done by governor setting c. load sharing depends on the size of the generator d. both a & b are correct 253. In twin engine a/c in flight, power is normally supplied by: a. two main generators b. one generator and APU generator c. two main generators and batteries d. batteries and APU generator


(Ref. EHJ Pallet, 49 & 50)


254. Which is true about power distribution system: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 76) a. power consuming equipment must not deprived of power in the event of power source failure unless the total power demand exceeds the available supply b. fault on the distribution system, e.g. fault current, grounding or earthing at bus bar should have the minimum effect on system functioning and should constitute minimum fire risk c. power consuming equipment faults must not endanger the supply of power to other equipment d. all are correct 255. A/c which operate only on a.c. generators as a primary source of electrical power normally provide current suitable for battery charging through the use of: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 78) a. a step down transformer and rectifier unit b. on invertors and voltage dropping resistor c. APU generator d. all are correct 256. Bus bars are located at/on: www.rjworld.com

AES, P-76-77

a. consumer equipment c. tails 257. Bus bars are made of: a. silver c. copper

b. cockpit d. junction boxes or distribution panels AES, P-76-77

b. aluminium d. either (b) or (c)

258. When braided copper wire is used as bus bar then it will be a: a. main bus bar b. subsidiary bus bar c. essential bus bar d. none of the above

AES, P-76-77

259. Vital services are connected: a. directly to batteries c. either (a) or (b)

AES, P-76-77

b. directly to generators d. none of the above

260. Non-essential services are connected to: a. battery bus bar b. generator bus bar c. both (a) & (b) d. none of the above

AES, P-76-77

261. The main source of power supply is provided by: a. generators b. batteries c. invertors d. APU

AES, P-76-77

262. The stand by source of power is provided by: a. batteries b. generators c. invertors d. APU

AES, P-76-77

263. In all AC aircraft the DC supplies are provided from/by: a. batteries b. transformer rectifier units (TRUs) c. separate DC generator d. none of the above

AES, P-76-77

264. The configuration of the transformers of the TRU are: a. star delta star b. star delta delta c. star star delta d. delta star delta

AES, P-65

265. The millivolt drop of the shunt installed in the TRU is: a. 100 mV at 100 A b. 100 mV at 50 A c. 50 mV at 50A d. 50 mV at 100 A

AES, P-63

266. TRUs are designed to operate at: a. single phase input of 115 volts AC, 400 c/s b. three phase input of 200 volts at 400 c/s c. DC input of 26 volts d. none of the above values are correct

AES, P-63

267. TRUs are cooled by: a. blast air b. ram air

268. The number of terminals on the shunt of TRUs are: a. two b. four c. six 269. The thermal switches inside the TRUs operate at: a. 150 C and 200 C b. 200 C and 250 C www.rjworld.com

AES, P-63 d. natural convection

c. cooling fans

AES, P-65 d. eight AES, P-63

c. 100 C and 150 C

d. 50 C and 100 C

270. Mark the correct option about reverse current circuit breaker: AES, P-115 a. series coil assists the shunt coil when generator is charging the batteries b. series coil opposes the shunt coil when generator is charging the batteries c. series coil assists the shunt coil when reverse current flows from battery to the generator d. none of the above is correct 271. Mark the correct statement about reverse current circuit breaker: a. series coil assist the shunt coil when reverse current flows from battery to generator b. series coil opposes the shunt coil when reverse current flows battery to generator c. series coil assists the shunt coil when generator is charging the battery d. both (b) & (c) are correct

AES, P-115

272. In the parallel operation of generator in aircraft when any generator fails: AES, P-77 a. the loads of the failed generator are supplied by batteries b. the loads of the failed generator are supplied by the available generator/generators c. only essential loads are supplied by the running generator/generators d. none of the above is correct 273. In the A.C. split bus bar system of operation when any generator fails: a. its loads are supplied by the other operating generator b. only essential a.c. loads are supplied by the operating available generator c. TRUs become in operative d. all the above are correct

AES, P-78

274. In the 3-pin external power receptacle: a. the smaller pin is positive b. the smaller pin is negative c. as in (a) and it controls the supply to external power relay d. none of the above is correct

AES, P-70

275. The purpose of the battery in the aircraft is: a. to provide main source of electrical power b. to provide emergency source of power when main generator/generators fail c. to provide internal start d. none of the above is correct

AES, P-69

276. Mark the correct answer about the external D.C. supply receptacle on the aircraft: a. it has two mater pins and one bigger pin b. it has two bigger pins and one smaller pin c. as in (a) and one of the smaller pin is negative d. as in (b) and one of the bigger pins is positive

AES, P-70

277. Mark the correct answer: AES, P-70 a. external power relay is located inside the ground power unit (GPU) b. external power relay is located inside the aircraft and is controlled by the smallest pin of the external supply receptacle c. as in (a) and is controlled by one of the two bigger pins of external supply receptacle d. none of the above 278. The main contacts of the external supply contactor in the multiple d.c. bus bar system connect the external supply to: AES, P-71 www.rjworld.com

a. no. 1 D.C. bus bar c. no. 3 D.C. bus bar

b. no. 2 D.C. bus bar d. as in (b) and vital bus bar

279. Magnetic indicators of in the multiple D.C. bus bar system indicate: a. satisfactory connection of generators to the bus bar b. satisfactory connection of batteries to the bus bar c. satisfactory connection of external power to the bus bars d. none of the above is correct

AES, P-71

280. Mark the correct statement about the multiple d.c. bus bars system being energized by the external power: AES, P-71 a. the main contacts of the external supply contactor provide the supply to the coils of No. 1 & No. 3 bus-tie connectors b. the auxiliary contacts of the external supply contactor connect the external supply to the bus bar c. the main contacts of the external supply contactor connect the external supply to the bus bars while the auxiliary contacts provide the supply to the coils of No. 1 and No. 3 bus the contactors. d. none of the above 281. Mark the correct answer about the magnetic indicators of the multiple d.c. bus bar system being energized by external power: AES, P-71 a. supply to the magnetic indicators are provided through the main contracts of the external supply contactor and bus tie contactors b. supply to the magnetic indicators are provided through the auxiliary contacts of the external supply contactor and the bus-tie contactors c. supply to the magnetic indicators are provided by the bus bars directly d. none of the above is correct 282. External supply receptacle is generally located at: a. wings bottom side b. wheel bays c. tail plane d. the sides of the fuselage

AES, P-69

283. When external A.C. supply is connected to the aircraft it is indicated by: AES, P-72 a. amber light b. red bight c. green bight d. none of the above 284. The external a.c. power receptacle has: a. at least 2 bigger pins c. at least 4 bigger pins

AES, P-73 b. at least 3 bigger pins d. at least 5 bigger pins

285. The external power receptacle for APU starting has: a. two bigger +ve pins and one smaller –ve pin b. two bigger –ve pins and one smaller +ve pin c. one +ve & one –ve bigger pin and one smaller +ve pin d. one +ve & one –ve bigger pin and one smaller –ve pin

AES, P-72

286. One of the function of auxiliary power unit is: a. to supplement the delivery of air to the cabin during landing b. to supplement the delivery of air to the cabin during low altitude flying c. to supplement the delivery of air to the cabin during takeoff and climb d. none of the above

AES, P-73

287. APU is normally started by: a. batteries b. generators

AES, P-73

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b. invertors d. APUs are started by separate generators provided at the tail section of aircraft 288. Silver-coated copper wire is used for temperatures upto: a. 221 F (105 C) b. 392 F (220 C) c. 500 F (260 C) d. none of the above 289. The capacity of a battery is measured in: a. volts b. cubic centimeters

c. ampere-hours

Eismin, P-56

Pallet-220 d. by the number of plates

290. The phase voltage of a three-phase star-connected a.c. generator is: a. equal to line voltage b. greater than line voltage c. less than line voltage d. equal to2 times max voltage

Pallet-221

291. The ratio of true power to apparent power of an AC circuit is known as: a. reactive power b. power factor c. real power d. total power

Pallet-221

292. Power factor is the ratio of: a. true power to apparent power c. apparent power to real power

Pallet-221

b. apparent power to true power d. apparent power to impedance

293. If a source maintains a constant voltage at the input to the line then any variation in the load on line will cause: FAA-15A, P-435 a. variation in line current b. as in (a) and also variation in IR drop in line c. no effect on line current and IR drop d. variation in line current but no variation in IR drop 294. In a CSD unit, the control cylinder is mechanically coupled to the: a. variable displacement unit b. fixed displacement unit c. governor d. none of the above 295. The governor of a CSD unit is driven by the: a. input gear b. input ring gear

c. output gear shaft

Pallet-221


296. A CSD unit which has been disconnected during flight: a. may only be reconnected on the ground b. may be recommended in flight by re-set shutdown c. automatically resets of engine shutdown d. none of the above 297. Rectification is the process of converting: a. a high value of AC into a lower value c. AC into DC

b. AC into DC d. none of the above

298. An “N-type” semiconductor is one having: a. an excess of “holes‟ c. an excess of electrons

b. a deficiency of holes d. none of the above

Pallet-222

299. The three groups which usually categories the importance of consumer services are:

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Pallet-76

a. battery, generator, alternator c. TRU, engine, APU

b. vital, essential, non-essential d. none of the above

300. The services which can be isolated in an in flight emergency for load shedding purposes, and are connected to DC and AC busbars, as appropriate and which are supplied from a generator are called: Pallet-77 a. vital services b. essential services c. non essential services d. none of the above 301. The services which are required to ensure safe flight in an in-flight emergency situation and are connected to DC and AC busbars, as appropriate and in such a way that they can always be supplied from a generator or from batteries are known as: Pallet-77 a. vital services b. essential services c. non essential services d. none of the above 302. Those services which would be required after an emergency wheel up landing and are connected directly to battery are known as Pallet-77 a. vital services b. essential services c. non essential services d. none of the above 303. The output from the aircraft generating sources is coupled to one or more low impedance conductors which are known as: Pallet-77 a. jumpers b. boding wires c. bus bars d. shorting clips 304. The system shown is a:

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Pallet-81

a. parallel bus bar system c. split parallel bus bar system

b. split bus bar system d. none of the above

305. Circuits in which currents and voltages are only a few milli amperes and milli volts and which are extremely essential utilize: Pallet-108 a. slugged relays b. polarized relays c. heavy duty relays d. light duly relay 306. Current transformer are: a. step-up transformers c. have unity power factor 307. “Thermal Runaway” is associated with: a. lead acid battery c. primary battery

b. step-down transformers d. as in (b) and are known as instrument transformers

Pallet-175

Pallet-23 b. nickel cadmium battery d. generator

308. When an area is contaminated with alkali electrolyte the most suitable neutralizing agents used are/is: CAIP/II/1000 a. saturated solution of bicarbonate of soda c. borax powder

b. ammonic powder d. boric acid solution

309. When an area is contaminated with sulphuric acid electrolyte, the most neutralizing agent used in: CAIP/II/1000 a. boric acid solution b. boric acid crystals or powder c. saturated solution of bicarbonate of soda d. saw dust 310. Acid has spilled on the floor. The correct action taken in sequence should be: CAIP/II/1000 a. wash the area with copious amounts of water, treat the affected area with borax powder and the whole area should be sealed with saw dust which should then be removed & buried b. the affected area should be treated with ammonia powder, followed by washing down with copious amounts be soaked up with saw dust which should then be removed and buried c. the acid should be socked up with saw dust which should then be removed and buried. The affected area should be treated with saturated solution of bicarbonate of soda, followed by washing down with copious amount of fresh water d. the acid should be soaked up with saw dust which should then be removed and buried. The area should then be washed down with copious amounts of fresh water followed by treating the affected area with ammonia powder. 311. The method/methods of securing a generator to an accessories gear box are: a. pulleys & belts method b. quill shaft method c. flange or manacle ring method d. either (a) or (b)

Pallet-9

312. Integrated drive generators means: a. generator and starter in the same unit & side by side b. starter and CSD in the same unit & side by side c. CSD and generator are mounted side by side to form a single compact unit d. generator and voltage regulator are mounted side by side to form a single compact unit

Pallet-43

313. The advantage/advantages of integrated drive generators are/is:

Pallet-43

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a. reduces weight b. reduces vibration

b. requires less space d. all of the above

314. Following a mal function, disconnection of a CSD transmission system is accomplished by: a. mechanically by levers located in the flight crew compartment b. electro-pneumatically c. electro-mechanically d. any one of the above 315. Which transformer is preferred when different type of voltage is required from one transformer: Pallet-61 a. current transformer b. step-up transformer c. auto transformer d. step down transformer 316. The device used to sense load current in an AC: a. current transformer b. high range ammeter c. potential transformer d. either (a) or (b)

Eismin-244

317. Transformer cores are laminated in order to: a. simplify its construction b. minimize the eddy current loss c. reduce cost d. reduce hysteresis loss

BLT-1120

318. The efficiency of a transformer is maximum when: a. copper loss = iron loss b. copper loss > from loss c. copper loss < iron loss d. none of the above

BLT-1121

319. High frequency transformers normally use: a. laminated iron core b. one solid piece iron core c. air core d. ferrite core

BLT-506

320. Iron losses in the transformer can be found out by: a. open circuit test b. short circuit test c. fuel load test d. 50% load test

BLT-1058

321. The power loss due to ohmic heating in a transformer is called: a. magnetic loss b. hysteresis loss c. copper loss d. eddy current loss

JB Gupta-588

322. In a three phase circuit: a. IL = IP in star connected circuit c. VL = VP in delta connected circuit

FAA-9A-414 b. IL = IP in delta connected circuit d. both (a) & (c) are correct

323. Frequency of alternator depends upon: a. number of conductors c. speed in rpm

b. number of poles d. both (b) & (c) are correct

Pallet-191

324. In brushless alternator frequency is kept constant by: a. engine gear drive assembly c. varying field excitation as per frequency change 325. No-break power transfer (NBPT) means: www.rjworld.com

FAA-9A-423 b. CSD d. voltage regulator Eismin-244

a. when electrical power is to transferred from generator to loads the wires & cables used should not have any connectors, plugs & sockets or terminal blocks any where in between from busbar to the loads. This ensures uninterrupted supply b. that it is a automated system in which power source is transferred without a momentary interruption of electric power c. both (a) & (b) d. none of the above 326. Cells are connected in series to: Grob, P-370 a. increase the voltage output b. decrease the voltage output c. decrease the internal resistance d. increase the current capacity 327. A generator has an output of 10 V n open circuit, which drops to 5 V with a load current of 5 mA and RL of 1000. The internal resistance ri equal: a. 25 b.50 c. 100 d. 1000 328. One extra negative plate in Pb acid cell than positive plates is used in order to: FAA-9A, P-309 a. prevent positive plate from warping or buckling b. increase the cell potential c. increase the cell capacity d. decrease the cell‟s internal resistance 329. Ni/Cad. Cell is advantageous over Pb acid from ___ view point: FAA-9A, P-313 a. low maintenance cost and long service life b. short recharge time and good reliability c. excellent reliability and good starting ability d. all of the above 330. During removal of battery from the a/c___ terminal is disconnect at least in order to avoid __ short: Esmin, P-153 a. negative, accidental b. positive, accidental c. either negative or positive, accidental d. none of the above is done 331. Which method is used to charge the battery in a/c and why? Esmin, P-153 a. constant voltage method because a/c electrical system voltage remains constant b. constant current method order to reduce the charging time c. constant current method to avoid much supervision d. constant current method to need relatively less time 332. __ is one of the factor of thermal run away of Nickel/Cadmium cell: Esmin, P-47 a. damaged layer of cellophane material b. exothermic reactions at electrodes plates c. 30% of dilute KOH by volume d. both (a) & (b) 333. A lead-acid battery with 12 cells connected in series no-load voltage=2.1 volts per cell furnishes 10 amperes to a load of 2 ohms resistance. The internal resistance of the battery in this instance is: Esmin, P-33 a. 0.52 ohms b. 2.52 ohms c. 5 ohms d. 0.25 ohms 334.Active elements in a lead acid battery: a. nickel hydrate and iron oxide c. manganese dioxide and carbon

Esmin, P-30 b. lead peroxide and spongy lead d. none of these

335. When the temperature is increased, specific gravity of electrolyte: a. increases b. decreases c. remains same 336. The neutralizing agent for H2SO4 electrolyte is: a. KOH b. HCL c. 5% bicarbonate of soda solution

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Esmin, P-41 d. none Esmin, P-40 d. vinegar

337. More resistance branches reduce the combine resistance (equivalent resistance) of a parallel circuit because: Grob, P-140 a. of more voltage drop across the resistors b. more current is required from the same voltage c. either (a) or (b) depending upon the value of resistance d. none 338. The thermal protector: a. is protective device c. is based on different expansion of two metals

b. acts as automatic CB d. all of the above

FAA-9A, P-307

339. Mark the correct statement: FAA-9A, P-311 a. in a new, fully charged lead acid aircraft battery the electrolyte is approximately 30 percent acid and 70 percent water (by weight) and is 1.300 times as heavy as pure water. b. in a new, fully charged lead acid aircraft battery the electrolyte is approximately 30 percent acid and 70 percent water (by weight) and is 1.100 times as heavy as pure water. c. in a new, fully charged lead acid aircraft battery, the electrolyte is approximately 30 percent acid and 70 percent water (by volume) and is 1.300 times as heavy as pure water. d. in a new, fully charged lead acid aircraft battery, the electrolyte is approximately 30 percent acid and 70 percent water (by volume) and is 1.100 times as heavy as pure water 340. Mark the correct statement: FAA-9A, P-311 a. the electrolyte used in the nickel cadmium battery is a 30 percent solution (by volume) of potassium hydroxide (KOH) is distilled water and the specific gravity remain between 1.240 and 1.300 at room temperature b. the electrolyte used in the nickel cadmium battery is a 30 percent solution (by weight) of potassium hydroxide (KOH) in distilled water and the specific gravity of the electrolyte remains between 1.240 and 1.300 at room temperature c. the electrolyte used in the nickel cadmium battery is a 30 percent solution (by volume) of potassium hydroxide (KOH) in distilled water and the specific gravity of the electrolyte remains between 1.100 and 1.220 at room temperature d. the electrolyte used in the nickel cadmium battery is a 30 percent solution (by weight) of potassium hydroxide (KOH) in distilled water and the specific gravity of the electrolyte remains between 1.100 and 1.220 at room temperature 341. Mark the correct answer while determining the state of charge of lead acid battery: FAA-9A, P-311 a. a specific gravity reading between 1.300-1.275 indicates a high state of charge whereas between 1.240 and 1.200, a low state of charge b. a specific gravity reading between 1.275 and 1.240 indicates a high state of charge where as between 1.240 and 1.200, a low rate state of charge c. a specific gravity reading between 1.275 and 1.240 indicates a low state of charge d. a specific gravity reading between 12.240 and 1.200 indicates a high state of charge 342. In a lead acid battery the specific gravity reading should be adjusted for temperature correction: a. above 70 F and below 90 F b. below 70 F and above 90 F c. at room temperatures d. none of the above 343. If residual magnetism of a shunt generator is destroyed accidentally, it may be restored by connected its shunt field: B. L. Thareja, P-991 a. to earth b. to an a.c source c. in reverse d. to a d.c. source 344. The main function of interpoles is to minimize ____ between the brushes and the commutator when the d.c. machine is loaded: a. friction b. sparking c. current d. wear and tear www.rjworld.com

345. shunt generators are most suited for stable parallel operation because of their voltage characteristics: B. L. Thareja, P-965/966 a. identical b. drooping c. linear d. rising 346. The voltage applied across an R-L circuit is equal to __ of VR and VL: a. arithmetic sum b. algebraic sum c. phasor sum

d. sum of the squares

347. The rms value of sinusoidal a.c. current is equal to its value at an angle of __ degree: a. 60 b. 45 c. 30 d. 90 348. The reactance offered by a capacitor to alternating current of frequency 50Hz is 10. If frequency is increased to 100Hz reactance becomes __ ohm: B. L. Thareja, P-496 a. 20 b. 5 c. 2.5 d. 40 349. Mark the correct statement (EHJ Pallette,P-79) a. Split Bus bar system mostly used on 4 engine A/C b. Bus-Tie breakers are responsible for connecting different bus bars to a single Alternator c. Split-Parallel bus bar system used on 2 engine A/C d. Both (1) & (2) 350. In a parallel circuit, all component must :a. have the same p.d. across them c. carry equal currents

b. have some value d. carry same current

351. Parallel grouping of cells yields maximum current when external resistance :a. equals internal resistance per cell b. is greater than internal of the battery c. equals internal resistance of the battery d. is less than the internal resistance of the battery 352. A good electric conductor is one that :a. Has low conductance c. Produces a minimum voltage drop

(B.L. Thareja, . Page – 55)

( B.L Thareja, Page – 7) b. Is always made of copper wire d. Has few free electrons

353. The input to an A.C circuit having power factor of 0.8 lagging is 20 kV1. The power drawn by the circuit is :a. 12kW b. 20kW c. 16kW d. 8kW 354. Three equal impedances are first connected in star across a balanced – 3 phase supply, if connected in delta across the same supply :(B.L Thareja, Page-532) a. Phase current will be tripled b. Phase current will be doubled c. Line current will become one third d. Power consumed will increase three fold 355. The chief disadvantage of a low power factor is that :a. more power is consumed by the load b. current required for a given load power is higher c. active power developed by a generator exceeds its rated output capacity d. heat generated is more than he desired amount


356. Unless otherwise specified, any value given for current or voltage in an ac circuit are assumed to be :(T.K. Eismin, Page – 84) a. Instantaneous value b. Effective values c. Maximum values d. Average values www.rjworld.com

357. Which requires the most electrical power during operation :a. a 24 volt motor requiring 8 amperes b. four 30 watt lamps in a 12 volt parallel circuit c. two lights required : 3 amperes each in a 24 volt parallel system d. all the above require : same amount of power

( B.L Thareja, 1991Edition, Page-20)

358. When relatively high capacitance is required in a small capacitor, we use :( B.L Thareja, 1991Edition, Page-128) a. ceramic capacitor b. paper capacitor c. electrolytic capacitor d. mica capacitor 359. In an A.C circuit the 50% of maximum value of voltage occurs at :( B.L Thareja, 1991Edition, Page-42) a. 45º b. 60º c. 30º d. 90º 360. An A.C circuit has 4 Ohm resistance and 3 Ohm reactance :a. P.f. is 0.8 b. P.f. is 0.6 c. Impedance is 6 Ohm

( AC 65-9A, Page – 358) d. Impedance is 8 Ohm

361. The potential difference between two conductor, which are insulated from each other is measured in:a. volts b. amperes c. coulombs d. ohms 362. The state of charge of a Ni-Cd battery can be found out by: a. Open circuit voltage b. Specific Gravity reading c. Measured discharge test d. Amount of gassing

(CAIP-II Pg-11.7)

363. Why is the value of efficiency affected when load on transformer is varied :( B.L Thareja, Page-598) a. iron losses vary, copper loss constant b. iron losses constant, copper loss vary c. Iron losses and copper loss vary d. efficiency is not affected 364. In modern alternator why is armature kept stationary and the field windings rotating type:(AC 65-9A, Page-412) a. armature reactance is reduced b. improved, insulation c. less no. of slip rings d. all are correct 365. Why is the field windings is supplied with varying D.C excitation field current as per speed and electrical load in A/C :(T.K. Eismin, Page-199) a. to have pulsating magnetic field b. to have constant voltage c. to have pulsating magnetic field at start and constant at run d. none is correct 366. Under what conditions is the KVA rating equivalent to KW rating of transformer :- ( B.L Thareja, Page-536) a. Load is resistive b. Load is resistive and inductive c. Load is resistive and capacitive d. None is correct 367. Frequency of alternator depends upon :a. number of conductors on armature c. speed in r.p.m.

b. number of poles d. Both (2) & (3) are correct

368. For symetrical wave the R.M.S value is calculated over: a. Half Cycle b. One-fourth Cycle c. Full Cycle d. all are correct 369. In Brush – less A.C generator frequency is kept constant by :a. engine gear box b. CSD www.rjworld.com

( E.H.J. Pallet, Page-193)

(EHJ Pallette, P-33)

c. Varying D.C excitation

d. none is correct (AC 65-9A, Page-423)

370. Permanent magnets in Brushless A.C generator are :a. Located on rotor shaft of alternator b. Located in inter – polar gaps of A.C exciter c. Used for providing initial magnetism d. Both (1) & (3) are correct 371. In modern aircraft electrical system :a. A.C generator are used for normal power b. Battery and static inverter with 3 Phase A.C output for emergency power c. Battery and static inverter with Single Phase A.C output for emergency power d. Both (1) & (3) are correct 372. In modern aircraft electrical system :a. TRU‟s are used to giving 28 D.C output b. Auto transformers are used for giving Single Phase 28 AC output c. Static invertor is used for providing Single Phase 28V A.C output d. All are correct

(E.H.J. Pallet, Page-78)

(E.H.J. Pallet, Page-78) 373. Transfer of electrical energy from one conductor to another without the aid of electrical connections (AC 65-9A, Page-359) a. is called mutual induction b. is called air gap transfer c. will cause excessive arcing and heat d. is impractical 374. The main propose of using core in a transformer is to :(AC 65-9A, Page-358) a. decrease iron losses b. prevent eddy current loss c. eliminate magnetic hysteresis d. decrease reluctance of the common magnetic circuit 375. Many of the larger transport a/c have been quipped with AC electrical system. The reason is :a. Easier to install b. Less maintenance required c. More efficient d. All of the above 376. Sulphation in a lead-acid battery occurs due to :a. Trickle charging b. Incomplete charging c. Heavy discharging d. Fast charging

(B.L Thareja,Page-351)

377. Mark the NOT correct statement about the battery :a. capacity of a battery is a function of total plate area b. the capacitance is partially a function of its internal resistance c. capacity depends upon type of separators d. battery of higher capacity has lower internal resistance than low capacity batteries

(E.H.J.Pallet, Page -49)

378. Overheat of battery is indicated by :a. Thermocouples b. External temperature gauge c. Temperature sensing devices are located with in battery d. Hotwire instrument

(E.H.J. Pallet, Page-23)

379. A lead-acid battery with 12 cells connected in series (no-load voltage = 2.1 volts per cell) furnishes 10 Amperes to a load of 2 ohms resistance. The internal resistance of the battery in this instance is :(Numerical) a. 0.52 ohms b. 2.52 ohms c. 5 ohms d. 0.25 ohms

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380. If electrolyte from a lead acid battery is spilled in the battery compartment, which procedure should be followed ? (T.K. Eismin, Page-40) a. Apply boric acid solution to the affected area followed by a water rinse b. Rinse the affected area thoroughly with lean water c. Apply sodium bicarbonate soda to the affected are followed by a water rinse d. None of these 381. What determines the amount of current which will flow through a battery when it is being charged by a constant voltage source :(T.K. Eismin, Page-42) a. the total plate area of the battery c. the ampere hour capacity of the battery

b. the state of charge of the battery d. none of these

382. Nickel-cadmium batteries which are stored for a long period of time will show a low liquid level because :(T.K. Eismin, Page-52) a. electrolyte evaporates through the vents b. of current package form individual cells c. Electrolyte becomes absorbed into the plates d. None of these 383. When a charging current is applied to a nickel-cadmium battery, the cells gas only :(E.H.J. Pallet, Page-23) a. towards the end of the charging cycle b. when the electrolyte level is low c. if they are detective d. none of these 384. In a constant current charging system, a battery requires attention at the end of charge to avoid :(T.K. Eismin,Page-52) a. sulphation of battery b. spilling of electrolyte c. evaporation of electrolyte d. danger of overheating 385. A fully charged lead acid battery will not freeze until extremely low temperatures are reached because :( T.K. Eismin, Page-39) a. the acid is in the plates, thereby increasing the specific gravity of the solution a. most of the acid is in the solution b. increased internal resistance generates sufficient heat to prevent freezing c. none of these 386. The method used to rapidly charge a nickel cadmium battery utilizes :a. constant current and constant voltage c. constant voltage and varying current


b. constant current and varying voltage d. none of these

387. The purpose of providing a space underneath, the plates in a lead acid battery container is to a :(T.K. Eismin, Page-37) a. prevent sediment built up from touching the plates and causing a short circuit b. allow for convection of the electrolyte in order to provide for cooing of the plates c. ensure that the electrolyte quantity radio to the number of the plates area is adequate d. none of these 388. The servicing & charging of nickel cadmium and lead acid batteries together in the same service room are likely to result in is :(T.K. Eismin, Page-43) a. normal battery service life b. increased explosion and / or fire hazard c. contamination of both types of batteries d. none of these 389. What may result it water is added to nickel cadmium battery when it is not fully charged ? (T.K. Eismin,Page-50) a. Excessive electrolyte deletion www.rjworld.com

b. Excessive spewing is like to occur during the charging cycle c. No adverse effects since water may be added any time d. None of the above 390. In nickel cadmium battery, a rise in cell temperature (T.K. Eismin, Page-45,46) a. causes an increase in internal resistance b. causes a decrease in internal resistance c. increases cell voltage d. has no effect 391. The electrolyte solution in Ni Cd battery is :a. 70% KOH and 30% distilled water, by weight b. 30% KOH and 70% distilled water, by weight c. 70% KOH and 30% distilled volume, by weight d. 30% KOH and 70% distilled volume, by weight

( T.K. Eismin, Page-47)

392. Which D.C. generator has the poorest voltage regulation :a. over compound b. flat compound c. shunt d. series

(B.L Thareja, Page – 288)

393. Brushes of electrical machines wear out very rapidly, at high attitude, due to absence of moisture in air, the cause is :(E.H.J. Pallet, Page-10) a. friction between brushes and attitude because the lubrication film can not form b. contact resistance becomes negligible giving rise to heavy reactive sparking and accelerated brush erosion c. static electrical charges due to friction, producing molecular breakdown of the brushes d. all the above 394. Interlopes are connected :a. in series with armature winding only b. in series with armature winding and compensating winding c. in series with auxiliary internal d. each statement is true 395. The primary reason for providing compensating winding in a D.C generator is to :a. compensate for decrease in main flux c. neutralize cross magnetizing flux 396. Generator inter poles :a. improve generator output c. reduces radio interference


b. neutralize armature mmf d. maintain uniform flux distribution ( T.K. Eismin, Page-195) b. prolong the life of the brushes and commutator d. all of the above

397. The commutation process in DC Generator basically involves :a. Passage of current from moving armature to a stationary b. Reversal of current in an armature coil as it crosses MNA c. Conversion of A.C to D.C d. Suppression of reactance voltage


398. The main function of an equalizer bar is to made the parallel operation of two over compounded D.C Generator :(B.L Thareja, Page-620) a. stable b. possible c. regular d. smooth

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399. For the voltage built up of a self excited D.C. generator which of the following is NOT an essential condition (TK Eismin, P-198) a. There must be some residual flux b. Field winding mmf must aid the residual flux c. Total field circuit resistance must be less than the critical value d. Aarmature speed must be very high 400. If residual magnetism of a shunt generator is destroyed accidentally, it may be restored by connecting the shunt field :(T.K. Eismin, Page-193) a. to earth b. to an A.C. source c. in reverse d. to a D.C source 401. In a D.C generator the conversion of induced A.C to D.C is accomplished by :- (T.K. Eismin, Page-191) a. the generator commutator b. a battery connected inverter c. two groups of generator interposers d. a battery connected rectifier transformer combination . 402. During flight, when more power is needed, the generator voltage will :(T.K. Eismin, Page-199) a. remain at a constant value, however the current flow will increase b. automatically decrease because of the greater current flow c. remains at a constant value, the current will also remain at a constant value d. increase at a steady value in order to restrict the current flow 403. In a long shunt compound wound generator, the shunt field is connected in parallel with :(B.L Thareja, Page – 270) a. Armature b. Series field c. Parallel combination of armature and series field d. Series combination of armature and series field A/C WIRING SYSTEM 404. Cable used where temperature is high and also severe flexibility is required under low temperature conditions: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 83) a. unifier „F‟ b. FEPSIL c. EFGLAS d. TERSIL 405. Certain terminal box/junction boxes are having one side open while fitting these the open side should be: (Ref. AC 43 – MRO Manual) a. open outward b. open downward c. open horizontally d. open backward 406. The insulation on electrical conductor to be used in fire area: a. TERSIL b. FEPSIL c. NYVIN d. None


407. The system of wiring used in modern a/c is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 87) a. in d.c. power supply single wire earth return system is used b. all negative connections are connected to aircraft structure at various earth stations c. for a.c. power supply circuits the airframe also serves as a connection for the neutral point. d. all the above are true. 408. The earth conductor on a/c should be checked for: a. corrosion b. mechanical strength c. IR drop d. all the above

(Ref. EHJ Pallet)

409. Co-axial cables are used for:


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a. ignition harness c. fuel quantity indicating system

b. generator cables d. none of the above

410. The composition of cable loom is governed by factors such as: a. overall diameter/ electrical resistance of wire b. temperature conditions c. types of circuit with which cables are associated d. all are correct


411. Electric wire terminals for most aircraft application must be what type? a. soldered type b. hook type c. slotted type d. ring type or fork type


412. Which of the following factors must be taken into consideration when determining the wire size to use for a/c installation: (Ref. TK Eismin, 60) a. allowable power loss/permissible voltage drop b. current carrying capacity of wire c. type of load (continuous or intermittent) d. all the above 413. How should the splices be arranged if several are to be located in an electrical wire bundle: (Ref. TK Eismin, 70) a. staggered along the length of the bundle b. grouped together to facilitate inspection c. enclosed in a conduit d. any one of the above 414. When electric cables must pass through holes in the bulk head, formers, ribs, firewalls etc, the wire must be protected for chaffing by: (Ref. TK Eismin, 65) a. wrapping with electrical tapes b. using a rubber grommet c. wrapping with plastic d. any one of the above 415. In ducted loom wiring system, the duct may be made of: a. aluminum b. resin impregnated asbestos c. molded fibre glass re-inforced plastic d. all are correct


416. The insulation used on the electrical wire should confirm to the following rigid requirement: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 85) a. toughness and flexibility over a fairly wide range of temperature b. resistance to fuels, lubricants and hydrolic fluids c. ease of stripping for terminating, non-flammability and minimum weight d. all the above 417.During installation of electrical connections on terminals strips of an aircraft electrical system, it should be determined that: (Ref. TK Eismin, 70) a. only locknuts have been used for terminal attachment to the studs. b. the terminal should be anchor against rotation c. only plain nuts and lockwashers have been used for terminal attachment to the studs d. any one of the methods can be used 418. While routing electrical cable the precautions to be used are: a. protection to the wires against heat, liquids, abrasion and wear b. clamps should be installed in such a manner that the wires do not come in contact with other parts of the aircraft when subjected to vibration www.rjworld.com

c. sufficient slack should be left between the last clamp and electrical equipment to prevent strain at wire terminal d. all the above (Ref. TK Eismin, 64) 419. The open wiring system what precaution should be used: a. the number of wires grouped in a bundle should be limited in order to reduce the problems of maintenance and to limit damage in case a short circuit should occur and burn of the wire in bundle b. shielded cable, ignition cable and wires that is not protected by circuit breaker or fuse should be routed separately c. the bending radius of a wire bundle should not be less than 10 times the outer diameter of the bundle d. all the above (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 62) 420. What is true about aluminum wires used in aircraft: a. an aluminum conductor having same resistance as copper conductor, has only two –thirds of the weight but twice the cross sectional area of copper conductor b. aluminum wire smaller than AWG size 6 is not acceptable c. aluminum wires can not be soldered. In many cases aluminum wire requires a special wire-stripping tool to ensure that the strands are not nicked or broken d. all the above (Ref. TK Eismin, 70) 421. The crimped terminations are considered superior to soldering termination: a. crimpling is faster, easier and uniform action can be assured b. good electrical conductivity and lower voltage drop c. strong electrical connection, no chance of shorting as solder is not used and no heating required, dry joints are eliminated d. all the above (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 88) 422. The composition of cable loom is dictated by such factors as: a. overall diameter and temperature conditions b. type of current, ac or dc, intermittent duty or continuous duty c. interference resulting from inductive or magnetic effect d. all the above


423. For connecting aluminum termination, the hardware to be used is made of: a. aluminum or aluminum alloy b. should be plated with cadmium or some other compatible material c. both a & b are correct d. brass to used


424. Which of the following statements is correct for connectors: a. AN connectors are of five basic classes b. connectors of classes A, B, C & D are made of copper c. class K is made of steel d. both a & c are correct

(Ref. AC65 -12A, 258)

425.Where physical separation of wire bundle is not possible with a metal line carrying a flammable fluid: (Ref. TK Eismin, 65) a. wires should be placed above the flammable fluid line and securely clamped to the structure b. wires must be placed in conduits c. wire should be wrapped with PVC tube or tape d. any one of the above method can be used 426. While pulling the cables wire bundle through conduits the recommended lubrication to be used is: (Ref. TK Eismin -66) www.rjworld.com

a. light weight vegetable based grease c. talc powder

b. powered graphite d. easily available hydrolic oil om-15

427. Nickel-coated copper wire must be used at temperatures: Eismin, P-56 a. 221 F (105 C) and 392 F (220 C) b. 392 F (220 C) and 500 F (260 C) c. 50 C and 100 C) d. none of the above 428. For rectangular conductors the size of the wire is measured in: a. circular mil b. rectangular mil c. square mil

Eismin, P-57 d. none of the above is correct

429. Intermittent circuits carry current for intervals of: a. 15 min. or less b. 10 min. or less c. 5 min. or less d. 2 min. or less

Eismin, P-58

430. A continuous flow is considered to be any circuit that carries current for a period longer than: Eismin, P-58 a. ½ min. b. 1 min. c. 2 min. d. 4 min. 431. The maximum allowable voltage drop for continuous operation in a 28 volt system is: a. 8 volts

b. 4 volts

c. 2 volts

Eismin, P-58

d. 1 volt

432. The maximum allowable voltage drop for continuous operation in a 14 volts system is: Eismin, P-58 a. 4 volts b. 2 volts c. 1 volts d. 0.5 volt 433. The maximum allowable voltage drop for continuous operation in a 115 volts system is: Eismin, P-58 a. 7.0 volts b. 4.0 volts c. 1.0 volts d. 0.5 volts 434. The maximum allowable voltage drop for continuous operation in a 200 volts system is: Eismin, P-58 a. 7.00 volts b. 4.00 volts c. 1.00 volts d. 0.5 volts 435. The maximum allowable voltage drop for intermittent operation in a 14 volts system is: Eismin, P-58 a. 14.00 volts b. 8.00 volts c. 2.00 volts d. 1.00 volts 436. The maximum allowable voltage drop for intermittent operation in 28 volts system is: a. 1.00 b. 2.00 c. 8.0 d. 14.00

Eismin, P-58

437. The maximum allowable voltage drop for intermittent operation in 115 volts system is: Eismin, P-58 a. 14.0 system b. 8.0 volts c. 2.00 volts d. 1.00 volts 438. The maximum allowable voltage drop for intermittent operation in 200 volts system is: a. 14.0 volts b. 8.0 volts c. 2.0 volts d. 1.00 volts 439. The maximum size of aluminium wire used for aircraft is: a. AL-8 b. AL-6 c. AL-4

Eismin, P-59,70 d. AL-2

440. Mark the correct statement while replacing copper wire with aluminium wire: Eismin, P-59 a. In general, an aluminium wire two sizes larger than the copper wire be acceptable b. In general, an aluminium wire one sizes larger than the copper wire be acceptable c. In general, an aluminium wire two sizes smaller than the copper wire be acceptable d. none of the above 441. MTCS about aircraft cables & wires: www.rjworld.com

Eismin, P-63

a. when the continuous lacing is applied, the first loop is a clove hitch locked with a double overhand knot in single cord lacing. b. when the continuous lacing is applied the first loop is a bowline-on-a-bight knot with a single overhand knot in single cord lacing c. when the continuous lacing is applied, the first loop is a clove hitch locked with a single overhand knot in single cord lacing d. when the continuous lacing is applied the first loop is a bowline-on-a-bight knot in a single cord lacing 442. MTCS about aircraft cables & wires: Eismin, P-63 a. when the continuous lacing is applied the first loop is a clove-hitch locked with a double overhand knot in double cord lacing b. when the continuous lacing is applied, the first loop is a clove hitch locked with a single overhand knot in single cord lacing c. when the continuous lacing is applied the clove hitch locked with a single overhand knot in double cord lacing d. none of the above 443. The terminating ends of the cord, while trying or lacing wire bundles, are trimmed to provide a minimum length of: Eismin, P-63 a. 3/8 inch b. 3/16 inch c. 3/32 inch d. 3/64 inch 444. In open areas, the cable bundles should be laced or tied if supports for the cable are more than: Eismin, P-62 a. 4 inches apart b. 6 inches apart c. 8 inches apart d. 12 inches apart 445. Mark the correct statement about the cable installation: Eismin, P-64 a. when a cable clamp is mounted on a vertical member, the loop of the clamp should always be at the bottom b. when a cable clamp is mounted on a vertical member, the loop of the clamp should always be at the top c. when a cable clamp is mounted on a vertical member, the loop of the clamp should always be at the right angle d. when a cable clamp is mounted on a vertical member, the loop of the clamp should always be at the side with a angle of 60 446. MTCS about cables wire installation: Eismin, P-65 a. a grommet is not required if a wire bundle is held by a clamp in the centre of a hole through a bulkhead, and the clearance between the edge of hole and the bundle is more than ¼ inch b. a grommet is required if a wire bundle is held by a clamp in the centre of a hole through a bulkhead, and the clearance between the edge of the hole and the bundle is less than ¼ inch c. both (a) & (b) are correct d. both (a) & (b) are incorrect 447. The type of cable used for general services wiring is: a. NYVIN b. PREN c. TERSIL

Eismin, P-83 d. either (a) or (b)

448. The type of cable used for areas where screening is required is: a. NYVIN MET Sheath b. NYVIN c. PREN

Pallet, P-83 d. EF glass

449. The type of cable most appropriate to be used in landing gear shock strut switch circuit is: Pallet, P-83 a. unifire „F‟ b. nyvin met sheath c. FEPSIL d. EF glass 450. The type of conductor used in UNIFIRE-„f” cable is: www.rjworld.com

Pallet, P-83

a. tinned copper conductor c. nickel-plated copper

b. aluminium d. silver plated copper

451. The type of cable used in high temperature areas where resistance of aircraft fluids is necessary is: Pallet, P-83 a. UNIFIRE-“f” b. NYVIN MET SHEATH c. EF GLASS d. TERSIL 452. The type of cable used in circuits required to function during or after a fire is: a. NYVIN b. UNIFIRE-„f‟ c. NYVIN FIRE-„f‟

Pallet, P-83 d. EF GLASS

453. “Potting” means/related to: a. bonding jumpers b. plugs & sockets c. nickel cadmium battery d. lead acid battery Pallet, P-92 454. The magnetic indicators in which an electromagnet rotates a ball through 150 degrees give: Pallet, P-130 a. one-position indications b. two-positions indications c. three-positions indications d. four-positions indications 455. The total no. of allowable nicked and broken strands in aluminium cables is: a. 2 nicked, none broken b. 4 nicked, none broken c. none nicked, none broken d. data in sufficient

Eismin, P-70

456. For a wire length of 6 inches the indication marking is done on/at: a. 3 inches interval b. near each ends c. exactly in the centre d. it need not be marked

AGE Lalit Gupta, P-281

457. Identification code on a cables is printed: a. near each end and at 12 to 15 inch intervals b. near each end and at 15 to 18 inch intervals c. at 24 inch intervals d. none of the above

AGE Lalit Gupta, P-281

458. The unit of magneto motive force (m.m.f.) is: a. ampere-turns b. tesla c. ampere per meter d. weber

Pallet, P-196

459. A wire is marked as 1P1A22N. The number 22 here indicates: a. cable number b. cable size c. cable segment d. current carrying capacity of cable is 22 amps

Pallet, P-185

460 .The lighting used for the general illumination of cockpit areas is: a. electroluminescent lighting b. pillar lights c. eye brow lights d. flood lights

Pallet, P-152

461. The studs of electric terminal strips can accommodate: a. 2 terminals b. 4 terminals c. 6 terminals

d. 8 terminals

462. MTCS about the electrical connectors: a. a connector assembly consists of plug and sockets b. a connector assembly consists of plug and receptacle c. as in (a) and plug contains pins & socket contain inserts d. as in (b) and plug contains sockets and receptacle contains pins www.rjworld.com

Eismin, P-69 Eismin, P-71

463. Which of the following is a fire proof connector: a. class A b. class D c. class K

d. class M

15A, P-455

464. Mark the correct answer about identification markings on cables: 15A, P-440 a. wire are usually marked at intervals of not more than 15 inch lengthwise and within 6 inch of each junction on terminating point b. wires are usually marked at intervals of not more than 18 inch length wise and within 3 inch of each junction or termination point c. wires are usually marked at intervals of not more than 15 inch length wise and within 3 inch of each junction or termination point d. wires are usually marked at intervals of not more than 15 inch length wise and within 6 inch of each junction or termination point 465.. Identify the given knot on a wire bundle: a. clove hitch only b. clove hitch with square knot c. bowline-on-a-bight d. none of the above

15A, P-443

466. Mark the correct statement about the routing of wires in areas containing combustible fluids on oxygen lines: 15A, P-446 a. wires should be on a level with plumbing lines c. wires should be below the plumbing lines

b. wires should be above the plumbing lines d. either (a) or (b)

467. Conduits are used to: a. protect the wires & cables mechanically c. either (a) or (b)

15A, P-457 b. protect the wires & cables from hydraulic fluids or oils d. both (a) & (b)

468. Wire bundles can generally have: a. 50-75 wires b. 75-100 wires

15A, P-441 c. 100-125 wires

d. 125-150 wires

469. Identify the following knot on a wire bundle:

a. clove hitch

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b. bowline on a bight

15A, P-448

c. double knot


470. Identify the given knot on a wire bundle:

a. clove hitch only c. bowline-on-a-bight

15A, P-447

b. clove hitch with square knot d. none of the above

471. The maximum gap between two successive aircraft cable makings can be: a. 12 inches b. 15 inches c. 18 inches d. 24 inches 472. A wire bundle has a dia. of 3 inches. The most suitable lacing to be done on it is: a. single load lacing with bowline-on-a-bight knot b. double cord lacing with clove-hitch knot c. single cord lacing with clove-hitch knot d. double cord lacing with bowline-on-a-bight knot

FAA-15A, P-440 AGE/286

473. Recommend knot for starting the single cord lacing method: a. clove-hitch b. bowline-on-a-bight c. as in (a) and double looped over head knot d. as in (a) and single looped overhand knot 474. Corona discharge occurs more readily at: a. curves and sections of wing which have minimum radii c. trailing edges, pitot tubes

Pallet-94 b. wing tips d. all of the above

475. In the six position cable identification code under ATA-100, the 5th position indicates: Pallet-186 a. cable number b. cable size c. cable segment d. either (a) or (b) 476. In the ATA-100 cable identification code if he cable is a coaxial one, the following position code is omitted: Pallet-186 a. 1st & 3rd positions b. 4th & 5th positions c. only 5th position is omitted d. only last position is omitted 477. A cable is marked as 2-3A-AL. It indicates: a. aluminium cable b. thermocouple cable c. as in (a) and size as AL3 d. as in (b) and its conductor is alumel

Pallet-186

478. A connection in which a cable conductor is secured by compression to a termination so that the metals of both are held together in close contact is called: CAIP/II/1008 a. soldered connection b. flawless connection c. crimped connection d. looped connection

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479. Terminals used to connect aluminium wires are/is: CAIP/II/1010 a. aluminium only b. bimetal (Al. Cu)

c. either (a) or (b) can be used

480. “Potting”: a. is a technique usually applied to plugs & sockets b. is a method of cooling the generator c. is a method of bonding major components to structures of aircraft d. is a method of bonding secondary components to structure of aircraft 481. The frequency of a 2 pole alternator running at 3600 RPM: a. 50

b. 60

c. 120

d. copper Pallet-92

BLT/1991/636

d. 720

7. AIRCRAFT SYSTEM 482. Sparking caused by discharge of static electricity is prevented by: a. bonding all a/c and engine components b. bonding is not required c. unnecessary weight is increased d. none of the above

(Ref. RollsRoyce-153)

483. In thermocouple system of fire detector: a. two dissimilar metals are joined together to form two junctions b. rise in temperature produces an e.m.f. that triggers the detector c. both a & b is correct d. none of the above


484. Failure to obtain an alarm signal when the test switch is actuated may be caused by: a. defective test switch or control unit b. lack of electric power c. both a & b d. as in c & an opening in the sensing element

Ref. FAA-12A– 405

485. The „firewire‟ system for fire detection is considered superior because Ref. EHJ Pallet, 163 a. it provides maximum coverage of an engine fire zone b. it can eliminate the use of a considerable number of fire detector c. coverage area can be easily increased by extending the „fire wire‟ length by special coupling unit d. all the above 486. The „fire wire‟ fire detecting system working on the principle of change of capacitance with the temperature, the principle advantage of the system is that: (Ref. EHJ Pallet) a. a short circuit grounding the element or system wire does not result in a false fire warning b. it does not result in a false fire warning c. both a & b are correct 487. In Lindberg Donner system, the principle utilized to give indication for overheat or fire warning is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 164) a. change in capacitance with change in temperature b. change in resistance valve due to change in temperature c. change in gas pressure with change in temperature to actuate diaphragm operated contacts d. none of the above www.rjworld.com

488. For starting engine the type of fire extinguisher required to be positioned is: a. foam type b. CO2 c. Water type d. no need to have a fire extinguisher positioned

(Ref. FAA – 120T)

489. The purpose of normally closed diaphragm operated low pressure switch in Lindberg Donner system is: a. to indicate presence of gas in the detector b. to make the “detector inoperative” in case gas pressure is reduced or completely leaked (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 164) c. both a & b are correct 490. The fixed fire extinguishers used in aircraft are operated: a. mechanically b. electrically c. both a & b d. pneumatically

(Ref. General)

491. To blow out jet pipe fire: a. use appropriate fire extinguisher c. start the engine and blow out the fire

(Ref. General) b. cold crank the engine d. any of the above

492. Thermistor consists of semi-conductor material whose resistance changes as: a. increase of pressure b. increase of temperature c. increase of velocity d. any of the above

(Ref. RollsRoyce -155)

493. The charge of fire extinguisher: a. is sprayed through perforated pipes on nozzle into the cold zone of engine b. is sprayed into the hot zone, around combustion chamber c. sprayed around the exhaust pipe d. all are correct

(Ref. AC65-12A/400)

494. Type of fire detectors most commonly used for fast detection of fires are: a. rate of temperature rise b. radiation sensing c. over heat detectors d. all the above are correct

(Ref. FAA-12A– 399)

495. Automatic heat sensing fire detection circuit consists of: a. heat sensing unit b. controlling unit c. a relay and warning devices d. all the above

(Ref. FAA-12A– 399)

496. Fire protection installation continuous loop is supported by attachment or clamps every: (Ref. FAA-12A– 400) a. 6 – 8 inches b. 8 – 10 inches c. 10 – 12 inches d. 4 – 6 inches 497. Too great distance between support of continuous loop system may: a. permit vibration b. as in a & chafing c. as in b & false alarms d. none 498. A fire warning light for each engine is located in a: a. special fire switch handle on the instrument panel c. fire control panel

(Ref. FAA-12A– 400)

(Ref. FAA-12A– 405) b. light shield d. all the above are correct

499. In fire extinguishing system if cartridge is removed from a discharge valve for any reason: www.rjworld.com

a. can be fitted back to original assembly only c. removed cartridge can not be replaced

(Ref. AC65-12A/407) b. all the cartridges can be interchanged d. none of the above

500. On periodic check of fire extinguisher container, the pressure was not between minimum and maximum limits, under ambient temperature condition, the procedure should be followed: (Ref. AC65 – 12A/406) a. replace the container if pressure is above the maximum limit b. replace the container if pressure is below the minimum limit c. replace the container d. release the a/c with MEL 501. Mark the correct statement for Kidde sensing element: (Ref. AC65 – 12A/393) a. two wires are embedded in a special ceramic core within Inconel tube b. one of the two wires is welded to the case at each end & act as an internal ground c. the second wire provides a current signal when ceramic core material changes its resistance with a change in temperature d. all are correct 502. The contents of fixed types fire bottles in the a/c is generally: (Ref. AC65 – 12A/395) 2 a. CO b. methyle bromide c. halogenated hydrocarbon (commonly called freon), Halon 1211 of Halon 1301 d. none of the above 503. Mark the correct statement for strobe lighting: a. capacitor discharge type b. flashing frequency is 70 per minute c. uses xenon filled tube d. all the above are correct


504. The instrument lighting system used in a/c is: a. pillar lights b. bridge lights c. wedge light d. all the above


505. Dome light in the cockpit is dimmed by: a. resistance in series b. choke in series c. capacitor in series d. none of the above


506. Emergency lights in cockpit and passenger cabin illuminate: a. in the event of power failure in a/c b. primary control of the lights is by means of a s/w on a cockpit overhead panel c. illumination is normally at a lower lever d. all are correct


507. What is colour and orientation of the position lights for navigation light on civil air planes: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 145) a. port – green, st. bd. – red, rear – white b. port – red, st. bd. – green, rear – white c. port – white, st. bd. – green, rear – red d. none of the above

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508. Runway turn off lights are used to provide illumination area to: a. the immediate right and left of aircraft b. rear of the a/c c. both a & b are correct d. none of the above


509. Mark the correct statement of strobe lighting: a. its input supply is 28v DC or 115v, 400 Hz a.c b. output is capacitor discharge, 450v and light is white in colour c. typical flashing frequency is 70 per minute d. all are correct


510. The landing gear warning usually provide which of the following indications: a. red light for unsafe gear, no light for gear down, green light for gear up b. green light for gear up and down, red light for unsafe gear c. red light for unsafe gear, green lights for gear down, no light for gear up d. none of the above


511. Anti-skid sensor is sensing: a. speed of the a/c b. pressure of brake unit c. temperature difference between hydrolic oil and atmosphere temperature d. all the above are correct


512. The anti-skid system works on the principle: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 178) a. it monitors the rate of wheel deceleration b. if the rate of deceleration is very high, correction signed is applied to control valve c. the control valve diverts the fluid reaching to brake system, hence wheel spin up and causes to brakes to be reapplied d. all are correct 513. In anti-skid system the reference speed signal is given by: a. transducers in the main wheels b. transducer in the nose wheels c. internal reference velocity signal is inbuilt to skid control unit d. none of the above

(Ref. EHL Pallet, 178)

514. The purpose of thermal switch incorporated in wind shield motor unit: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 179) a. to open the motor circuit if field winding temperature attains approximately 1500c temperature b. if current in field winding exceed pre-determine valve i.e. 8 to 10 amps. c. to limit the operating speed of motor d. both a & b are correct 515. Wind shield motor works on: a. electric supply c. hydrolic supply

(Ref. EHJ Pallet, 179) b. pneumatic supply d. all the above

516. Anti-icing system used for pitot/static head is: a. natural air b. electrical heating c. chemical heating d. all the above are correct


517. In de-icing system, where pneumatic boots are used, the ice is removed: a. by directing the hot air on the ice through the holes of boots b. by heating thin conducting coating provided over the surfaces of boot


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c. by inflation and deflation, causing ice to break up and with aid of air stream, crack off d. both a & b care correct 518. The method of de-icing used for helicopter blades is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 168) a. pneumatic b. electrical c. spray of chemical on the blade d. de-icing is not required. Ice is automatically thrown away due to centrifugal forces acting on the blades 519. The purposes of time delay in rain repellent system is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 179) a. to allow measured fluid to flow under pressure through the spray nozzle and onto the windshield once with single operation of push switch b. to allow fluid to flow after delay of 0.25 seconds c. to allow fluid to flow regularly after interval of 0.25 seconds d. all the above are correct 520. The braking effect in windshield wiper motor in parking position is effected by: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 178) a. brake solenoid b. eddy current effect c. the motor operates a cam to change over the brake switch contacts which then short out the armature to stop the motor d. eddy current 521. Mark the correct statement for windshield rain repellent system: (Ref. EHL Pallet, 179) a. rain is repelled by electrical heating b. compressed air is directed on to the windshield to remove rain particles c. fluid is prayed through nozzles which causes the surface tension in water to change to that the water is formed into globule which are blown off the windshield by air stream d. all are correct 522. As per the requirement the windshield wiper motor operated on various speeds. The speed regulation is effected by: (Ref. EHL Pallet, 178) a. controlling the shunt filed strength of the motor b. using tapped transformer c. controlling the series filed strength d. connecting resistance in series with the d.c. power supply 523. Mark the correct statement for ice detection in the air: (Ref. EHL Pallet, 174) a. the ice accretion causes a drop in pressure sensed by the probe and a diaphragm the deflection of which make the circuit to warning light b. knife edge cutter method c. ultrasonic probe system d. all the above 524.Where the temperature sensing element is located in electrical heated windshields: (Ref. EHL Pallet, 172) a. within the cockpit and operated by pilot b. above the windshield c. embedded within the panel d. just outside the windshield but touching it firmly 525. Mark the correct statement for windshield heating on large aircraft: (Ref. EHL Pallet, 170) a. transparent stannic oxide or gold film is used b. metal is deposited on the inside of the outer glass layer c. power necessary to deal with severe icing conditions in the order of 5 –6 watts/in2 of windshield area www.rjworld.com

d. all are correct 526. Generally in turbo propeller engine installation: a. electrical system of ice protection is used b. electrical heating is used on air intakes cowling of the engine, propeller blade an spinner c. none of the above d. both a & b are correct

(Ref. RollsRoyce, 150)

527. Rain protection is provided in aircraft: a. by use of windshield wipers on pilot‟s and co-pilots windscreen b. by spraying rain repellant on pilot‟s and co-pilots windscreen c. no need for any such arrangement d. both a & b systems are used

(Ref. EHL Pallet, 178)

528. Safety relief valve in pressurization system operates: a. pneumatically b. mechanically c. electrically d. automatically

(Ref. General)

529. Temperature sensors used in ducting in air conditioning system provide signal in unbalance condition to operate: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 181) a. pack valve b. temperature control valve / mix valve c. mixing valve d. air cycle machine 530. The ram air flows from: a. primary heat exchanger c. air cycle machine

(Ref. EHJ Pallet, 181) b. secondary heat exchanger d. both a & b are correct

531. The purpose of limit sensor and anticipator sensor is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 181) a. to regulate air conditioning temperature b. to modulate any rapid changes demanded by an unbalanced control bridge so that when the actuator control moves the mix valve it will produce cabin temperature changes without sudden blast of hot air and cold air, and without raising duct temperature above limits c. to switch off the air conditioning when the temperature exceeded the anticipated limit d. all the above 532. The safety valve in air conditioning and pressurization system works: a. with electric supply b. with hydrolic supply c. works automatically with air pressure from cabin (pneumatically) d. none of the above


533. The purpose of dump valve is: a. to release cabin pressure to atmosphere on landing b. to ensure that differential cabin pressure is maintained through out the flight c. to maintain cabin temperature as per the setting d. none of the above

(Ref. General)

534. In large aircraft the air conditioning and pressurization is done with help of: a. freon refrigent b. liquid ammonia cycle c. compressed air taken from engine compressor d. all of the above


535. Down stream temperature of air cycle machine is controlled by:


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a. pack valve b. temperature control valve (also known as mix valve) c. zone controller d. temperature 536. The principle of smoke detector in aircraft is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 164) a. infrared beam of light passes through the air sample b. air is sampled and any smoke present, causes a change of electric current in photo diode c. change in the density of air sample due to presence of smoke is measured by density motor 537. The horn in landing gear warning circuit is activated by: a. up lock micro s/w b. down lock micro s/w c. engine throttle retard micro s/w d. all the above


538. When the resistance type continuous wire fire warning element gets broken: a. fire warning system will not work satisfactorily b. fire warning system will still work satisfactorily c. as in (a) and a horn comes on when the continuous wire breaks down d. none of the above statements are correct regarding fire warning system

Pallet, P-163

539. The aft (tail) navigation light: Eismin, P-250 a. must show light through an angle of 70 on each side of the centre line of the aircraft and to the rear b. must show light through an angle of 50 on each side of the centre line of the aircraft and to the rear c. must show light through an angle of 140 on each side of the centre line of the aircraft and to the rear d. none of the above 540. An increase in which of the following factors will cause an increase in the inductive reactance of a circuit: Eismin, P-87 a. capacitance and voltage b. inductance and frequency c. voltage and resistance d. resistance and capacitive reactance 541. Through which material will magnetic lines of force pass most readily: a. copper b. iron c. aluminium d. titanium 542. The power factor of a parallel resonance circuit is: a. one b. zero c. 0.5 d. 0.707 543. Current transformers are/have: a. step-down transformer b. step-up transformer c. transformation ratio as one d. none of the above 544. The purpose of the current transformer is: a. to step-up the voltage b. to step-down the voltage c. to measure large AC load currents of main lines d. none of the above is correct

BLT, P-745 BLT, P-555 Pallet, P-126

Pallet, P-126

545. Mark the correct statement about shunts: Pallet, P-126 a. shunts used in DC circuits have two terminals while those in AC have for terminals b. shunts used in DC circuits have four terminals while those used in AC have two terminals c. shunts used in both AC & DC circuits always have four terminals

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d. shunts used in both AC & DC circuits always have two terminals 546. Mark the correct statement about instrument transforms: BLT/2005/444-446 a. current transformers are used with high range ammeters whereas potential transformer are used with low range voltmeter b. current transformers are used with low range ammeters whereas potential transformers are used with high range voltmeters c. both current and potential transformers are used with low range meters d. none of the above 547. Mark the most appropriate choice with regard to meter sensitivity: FAA-9A, P-325,329 a. the sensitivity of a meter movement is expressed as the amount of current required to give full-scale deflection b. the sensitivity of a meter movement is expressed as the number of millivolts across the meter when full scale current flows through it c. the sensitivity of a voltmeter is given in ohms per volt (/E) and is determined by dividing the resistance of the meter plus the series resistance by the full-scale reading in volts. d. all of the above 548. The range of an ammeter can be extended by: a. connecting a high value resistance in parallel with the meter movement b. connecting a low value resistance in parallel with the meter movement c. connecting a high value resistance in series with the meter movement d. connecting a low value resistance in series with the meter movement 549. A typical frequency of anti-collision light beam rotation is: a. 40-45 cycles per minute b. 80-90 cycles per second c. 80-90 cycles per minute d. 100-120 cycles per minute

Pallet-224

550. Retractable type landing lights utilize: a. split field series motors b. hydraulic power

Pallet-149 d. both (a) & (b)

551. Strobe light utilize: a. DC driven motor c. split field series motor

c. either (a) or (b)

Pallet-147 b. capacitor discharge flash tube d. hydraulic power

552. Pillar lights are located on/at/in: a. on the pillars in the passenger compartments c. on the pillars in the nose strut 553. Integral lights are fitted at/on/in: a. inside the landing lights c. inside the ice inspection light

Pallet-151 b. on the pillars in the cabin d. on the main instrument panel Pallet-151 b. inside the taxying lights d. inside the instruments

554. Bridge lighting is located at/on/in: Pallet-151 a. passenger cabin b. bridge lighting is recessed into the sides of the fuselage and are preset to direct beams of light at the required angles c. on the instruments outside d. on the instruments inside 555. When a resistance type continuous wire fire detector is broken, it: a. gives a false warning b. the system becomes inoperative www.rjworld.com

Pallet-163

c. the warning function is no way affected d. none of the above is correct 556. The principal advantage of capacitive type of fire warning system is that: Pallet-164 a. it can work on DC as well as AC b. a short circuit grounding the element or system wiring does not result in a false fire warning c. it utilizes very small amount of power d. it does not need fire extinguishers 557. Smoke detectors use: a. capacitor discharge tubes c. continuous fire wire elements

Pallet-166

b. spot fire detectors d. photo diodes

558. The safety switches in landing gear control circuit are located at/on/inside: a. up lock assembly b. down lock assembly c. landing gear shock struts d. inside the relay

Pallet-175

559. When all the lights in the under carriage position indicator are extinguished, it indicates: a. all gears down and locked b. all gears up and locked c. all gears in the travelling mode d. all gears are unlocked

Pallet-176

560. The purpose of safety switch in landing gear control circuit is: a. to bring all gears safely down b. to make the touch down as smooth as possible c. to prevent accidental retraction of the gear while the aircraft is a ground d. as in (b) and works in conjunction with braking system

Pallet-175

561. Electroluminescent lighting contain: a. sodium b. phosphor

CAIP/II/990

c. mercury

d. filaments

562. Passenger compartment is lighted with the help of: a. in candescent lamp b. fluorescent tube c. either (a) or (b) or both d. pillar lamps

CAIP/II/991

563. Wings scan lamps: a. allow visual inspection of wings leading edges for the formation of ice b. as in (a) and also visual inspection of turbine engines c. allow visual inspection of wings leading edges for the assessment of damage due to bird hits d. to measure using drop on each wing

CAIP/II/985

564. Which of the following loads can be supplied from the frequency wild generator: a. VHF radio set b. artificial horizon c. electrical de-icing system d. all of the above 565. The advantages of proximity sensors are/in: a. it gives very bright & clean indication because current consumption is low b. uses less number of wires, hence it is easier to install, service repair c. there are no moving contacts which makes it more reliable d. it is cheap 566. In overheat and fire detection system: a. Sensor are filled with helium gas www.rjworld.com

Eismin-259


b. Sensor are filled with hydrogen gas c. As in (a) and gives aural & visual warning in case of fire d. As in (b) and gives aural & visual warning in case of fire 567. In capacitive type fire warning system: a. Capacitance of the element will increase with increment of temperature b. Capacitance of the element will decrease with increment of temperature c. As in (a) and doesn‟t give false warning in case of short circuit/grounding d. As in (b) and doesn‟t give false warning in case of short circuit/grounding


568. Mark the correct statement: a. Pneumatic Boot is a anti-icing system and applied in wing/stabilizer b. Electrical heating method of anti-icing is applied to windshield c. Fluid method of de-icing is applied to air-intake d. Combustion heating is applied to Wind shield

(EHJ Pallette,P-173)

569.In propeller de-icing system: (EHJ Pallette,P-172) a. Power supply is fed through brush and commutator b. Only one timer unit gives supply to both propeller c. Both (a) and (b) are correct and timer energizes the heating element for 34 seconds d. As in (b) and timer energizes the heating element for 34 seconds 570. In Ice detection system: a. The system is activated when the band pass filter passes a 150 Khz frequency b. The system is activated when the band pass filter passes a 140 Khz frequency c. The system is activated when the band pass filter passes a 150 Hz frequency d. Any of the above.


571. In Engine air intake heating system: (EHJ Pallette,P-171) a. “Fast” mode is selected when temperature is between +10 degree to -6 degree centigrade b. “Fast” mode is selected when temperature is below -6 degree centigrade c. As in (a) and the duration of heat „on‟ and „off‟ is short d. As in (b) and the duration of heat „on‟ and „off‟ is long 572. The Red light will illuminate in LG system when : a. All LG is UP b. One LG is UP c. All LG is in intermittent position d. None


573. The horn in the LG system is connected with: a. Throttle and DOWN lock m/s b. Throttle and UP lock m/s c. Throttle Only d. None

(EHJ Pallette,P-176 )

574. The condition for LG system horn to come on is: a. Any one LG is not DOWN & locked b. Any one LG is not UP & locked c. As in (a) and throttle at landing configuration d. As in (b) and throttle at take off configuration


575. When the aircraft is on ground, LG UP position in the LG selector switch is prevented by the operation of: (TK Eismin,P-255) a. Proximity switch www.rjworld.com

b. Squat switch c. As in (b) and the switch is inside the LG selector d. As in (b) and the switch is on the LG shock strut 576. Squat switches are connected in: a. Series b. Parallel c. As in (a) and are closed when the aircraft is on ground d. As in (a) and are closed when the aircraft is in air

(TK Eismien,P-253)

577. Horn silencer circuit will not function if: a. LG is not UP and locked b. Throttle is not at landing configuration c. As in (b) and LG is not DOWN and locked d. As in (a) and LG is not DOWN and locked


578. In case of fire the APU: a. Manually shut down by APU master switch in flight deck b. Automatically shut down APU with the help of “Auto Ignition cutoff “ system c. Automatically Shut down with the help of fire detection system d. Both (2) and (3)

(CAIP-II)

579. Contacts of thermal switch used in the fire detection system is made up of: a. Copper-rhodium b. Silver-rhodium c. Nickel-rhodium 4) None

(EHJ Pallett Pg-106)

580. Runway turn off lights is used: a. To turn off runway light in front of aircraft b. Provide light to the left & right of the aircraft c. During taxying operation d. Both „2‟ & „3‟

(TK Eismin, P- 256)

581. Ballast transformer used in the “Fluorescent light” system: a. To increase the system voltage b. To Stabilize the voltage c. To decrease the voltage

(TK Eismin,P-256)

582. If an electrical actuator overloaded due to mechanical load, it can be protected by means of :(E.H.J. Pallet, Page-142) a. Lead screw c. Torque switch

b. Electrical brake d. clutch

AIR CRAFT IGNITION SYSTEM 583. Mark the correct statement: (Ref. RollsRoyce-122) a. electric starter is usually a d.c. motor b. electric starter supply may be high or low c. the electrical supply is automatically disconnected when starter load is reduced after the engine started d. all are correct 583. Pneumatic starters: a. are used on most commercial airlines www.rjworld.com

(Ref. RollsRoyce-124) b. it is comparatively light, simple and economical to operate

c. both are correct d. none of the above 584. As soon as the engine starts: a. starter gets disengaged by clutch system c. it does not matter at all

(Ref. RollsRoyce-122) b. it remains running through out the engine seen d. none of the above

585.The commercial a/c requires its starting system to be: a. highly reliable b. minimum disturbance to the passengers c. most economical d. all are correct


586. Starting power requirements for gas turbine engine differ from those of reciprocating engines, in gas turbine engine peak load to the starter is applied: (Ref. Treager -374) a. during starter engagement b. during starter cutting off c. initially during starting d. during initial engine acceleration prior to light off 587. Electric motor starters designed to provide high starting torque are: a. series wound b. shunt wound c. series & shunt wound d. shunt & series wound

(Ref. Treager – 374)

588. Type of starter mostly used on small engines: a. fuel air combustion starter b. hydraulic motor starter c. starter generator d. ATA (all the above)

(Ref. Treager-374)

589. The principle of electric starter is to convert: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 155) a. mechanical energy into electric b. electrical energy into mechanical energy c. magnetic energy into electrical energy d. magnetic energy into mechanical energy 590. Some of the turbo engine requires 24v/48v supply for engine starting. This supply is obtained: (Ref. General) a. only through external power source b. a/c electrical supply system is having batteries for 24 volt as well as 48 volt system separately c. battery supply and APU supply are connected in series to make 48v d. batteries are connected in parallel during normal operation and are connected in series during internal engine starting cycle. 591. Engagemnet of air turbine starter is accomplished through: a. a jaw or friction coupling b. a jaw or fly wheel coupling c. a jaw or pawl and ratchet clutch d. none of the above

(Ref. Treager-380)

592. The electric field of primary coil is made to collapse to generate high voltage in secondary coil by the help of: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 158) a. choke b. contact breaker c. rectifier d. sealed discharge gap 593. The distinct features of LT ignition system are: a. no. of transformer coils are equal to number of cylinders b. the distributor supplies low voltage to primary winding of transformer c. no possibility of flares in distributor d. all are correct


594. D.C. operated ignition system receive their power from: a. the battery bus b. from the AC bus

(Ref. Otis 11-8)

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c. from PMA (Permanent Magnet Alternator)

d. both a & c

595. Advantage of LT magneto ignition system over HT system is: a. HT lead is short b. the distributor is receiving low voltage from primary winding c. high voltage is induced in transformer coil d. all the above


596. What will be the Joule rating of an ignition system operates on 10,000 watt for .00040 sec: (Ref. Otis 11 – 3) a. 0.4 joule b. 4 joule c. 40 joule d. 400 joule 597. How much energy is required to ensure that the engine will obtain satisfactory relight at high altitudes: (Ref. RollsRoyce-127) a. 15 joules b. 12 joules c. 18 joules 598. When is it necessary to have the ignition system continuously operating to give an automatic relight should flame extinction occur: (Ref. RollsRoyce-128) a. icing condition b. take off in heavy rain or snow c. both a & b 599. An ignition unit may be supplied with alternative current (a.c) and operated by: a. trembler mechanism b. a transistor chopper circuit c. transformer


600. A choke is fitted in a d.c. trembler operated ignition unit is: a. to extend the duration of discharge b. to retard the duration of discharge c. either (a) or (b)


601. What is fitted in a d.c. trembler operated ignition unit to operate safely, even when the high tension lead is disconnected and isolated: (Ref. RollsRoyce-129) a. safety resistor b. discharge resistor c. choke 602. Transistorized ignition unit is having advantage over the d.c. trembler operated unit because it has: (Ref. RollsRoyce-129) a. reduced size b. less weight c. both (a) & (b) 603. The discharge of shunted surface discharge type igniter plug takes the form of: a. a. high intensity flashover from the electrode to the body b. a low intensity flashover from the electrode to the body c. either (a) or (b)


604. How many ignitor plugs being situated in different positions in the combustion system: a. one c. three

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b. two d. it depends upon type of JE


605. In HT magneto system the rotor of the distributor is electrically connected to: a. primary winding of magneto b. secondary winding of magneto c. a.c. supply from a/c d. all are incorrect


606. Ignition units are rated in: a. joules c. amperes

(Ref. RollsRoyce-127) b. coulomb d. faraday

607. Mark the correct statement: (Ref. RollsRoyce-128) a. H.T. connection of d.c. supply is given as input to trembler operated ignition unit and output is H.T. connection to igniter plug as output b. low tension (LT) is input and HT is output of ignition unit c. H.T. connection is input and output is LT is output in ignition unit d. none 608. What will happen, when the voltage in the capacitor is equal to the breakdown value of a sealed discharge gap in trembler ignition unit: (Ref. RollsRoyce-129) a. the energy is discharged across the face of the igniter plug b. the energy is discharged inside the face of the igniter plug c. the energy is destroy across the face of spark plug d. all the above 609. The surface discharge igniter plug has the end of the insulator formed by a semi-conducting pellet which permits an electrical leakage from: (Ref. RollsRoyce-131) a. central high tension electrode to the body b. body high tension electrode to the central rod c. both (a) & (b) d. none 610. Which device is fitted to ensure that any residual stored energy in the capacitor is dissipated within one minute of the system being switched off: (Ref. RollsRoyce-129) a. choke b. discharge resistor c. safety resistor d. none 611. The advantage of transistorized ignition unit over trembler operated unit is: a. it has no moving parts and has longer operating life b. its size is reduced and weight is less than that of the trembles operated unit c. its construction and working function is easier d. both (a) & (b)


612. In a.c. ignition unit receives an alternating current which is passed through ………..and rectified to charge a capacitor: (Ref. RollsRoyce-129) a. motor b. generator c. invertor d. transformer 613. A rotating armature magneto to be fitted to a 6-cylinder engine must be driven at: a. the same speed as the engine b. half the speed of the engine c. one and a half times the engine speed d. twice the engine speed 614. When the rpm of a shunt wind motion increases the current drawn by it: a. decreases b. remain the same c. increases d. none of the above www.rjworld.com

Pallet-225

615. In an AC motor, the difference between synchronous speed and the speed of the rotor is termed: Pallet-224 a. the motor loss speed b. the brake speed c. the slip speed d. none of the above 616. The self-sustaining speed is the: a. maximum speed at which the starter motor runs to maintain rotation of an engine b. speed at which the engine is capable of maintaining rotation c. speed at which current to the motor is interrupted d. none of the above

Pallet-225

617. The purpose of a “blow-out” cycle is to: a. remove excess air from an engine during starting b. blow cooling air through the starting m0tor after stating c. remove the unburnt fuel from an engine in the event of an unsuccessful start d. none of the above

Pallet-225

618. The contact breaker of a magneto is connected in the: a. primary winding circuit b. secondary winding circuit c. circuit between distribution and spark plug d. none of the above

Pallet-225

619. A rotating armature magneto to be fitted to a 6-cylinder engine must be driven at: a. the same speed as the engine b. half the speed of the engine c. one and a half times the engine speed d. twice the engine speed

Pallet-225

620. Starter generators are: a. compound wound machines c. shunt generators

Pallet-157

b. series motors d. starter generators have series generator and shunt motor

621. The number of sparks given by the rotating armature type of magnetos, per revolution of engine is: Pallet-159 a. one b. two c. four d. eight 622. The number of sparks given by the rating magnet magnetos, per revolution of engine is: a. one b. two c. four d. eight

Pallet-159

623. Impulse coupling: a. provide advance spark b. heavy spark c. it‟s a coupling through which generator is coupled to the engine drive shaft d. is used with turbine starters

Pallet-159

624. Ignition switches: a. are two switches into one switch b. it is used in magneto circuit c. as in (b) and it completes a circuit by closing its contacts in the “OFF” position d. as in (a) and is a rotary switch

Pallet-159

625. Magnetos: a. are a combination of generator and motor b. are a combination of an alternator and transformer

Pallet-159

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c. are a combination of impulse coupling and step-up transformer d. are a combination of paramagnet generation and impulse coupling 626. The purpose of the choke inside the light energy ignition unit is: a. hastens the duration of discharge b. extends the duration of discharge c. absorbs the extra energy during the discharge d. provides a safe discharge current

Pallet-161

627. Polar inductor magneto is a: a. rotating armature magneto b. rotating magnet magneto c. as in (a) and gives four two per revolution d. as in (b) and gives four sparks per revolution

Pallet-159

628. A polar inductor motor to be fitted on a 12 cylinder engine must be driven at: a. same speed as engine speed b. half the engine speed c. double the engine speed d. one & half times the engine speed 629. Distributor of a polar inductor magneto fitted on 6-cylinder engine must be driven at: a. half the engine speed b. the engine speed c. one and a half times the engine speed d. double the engine speed

BLT/1991/159

Pallet-159

630. Mark the correct statement about magneto distributors: Pallet-159 a. the distribution rotor of a polar inductor magneto fitted on a cylinder engine must be driven at one and a half times the engine speed b. the distribution rotor of a rotating armature magneto fitted on a 6 cylinder engine must be driven at the engine speed c. the distributor rotors are always driven at half the engine speeds d. distribution rotors are always driven at double the engine speed 631. Proximity sensors work on the principle of: a. capacitance effect of a capacitor b. inductance of a coil c. heating effect of current d. kirchoff‟s laws 632. When load is removed ___ motor will run at the highest speed: a,. shunt b. cumulative-compound c. differential compound

Eismin-259

d. series

633. If the pole flux of a d.c. motor approaches zero its speed will: a. approach zero b. approach infinity c. no change due to corresponding change in back emf d. approach a stable value somewhere between zero and infinity 634. The current drawn by a 120-v d.c. motor of armature resistance 0.5 and back emf 110 V is ___ ampere: a. 20 b. 240 c. 220 d.5

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