PPL(A) Question Bank

PPL(A) Questions Bank

Subject:

PPL(A) – Air law

PPL (A) – Aviation law

Review questions: 1.

Which of the following documents is not required to be carried in an aircraft of an ICAO member state? certificates. a. Flight crew birth certificates. Registration. b. Certificate of Registration. c. Certificate of Airworthiness. licences. d. Flight crew licences.

2.

The State of licence issue of a JAA PPL may be changed to a new member State providing: a. The new member State is the licence holder's normal State of residence or that full-time employment has been taken by the licence holder in that State. b. The licence holder has resided in the new member State for at least 31 days. c. The licence holder intends to follow a course of study in the new member State lasting at least three months. d. The new member State has no reasonable grounds for refusing to convert the licence.

3.

No aircraft or personnel who have endorsed certificates or licences may participate in international navigation: a. Except with the permission of the State w hose territory is entered. b. Under any circumstances. c. Except when a general exemption has been awarded by any ICAO contracting state. d. Except when a general exemption has been awarded by the State in which the aircraft is registered or which issued the licence.

4.

Which right is conferred on contracting states by Article 16 of the ICAO Convention? a. The right to search, without unreasonable delay, an aircraft from another contracting state landing on or departing from its sovereign territory. b. The right to search an aircraft from another contracting state l anding on or departing from its sovereign territory if it is felt that the aircraft is carrying unlawful goods or persons being pursued i n law. c. The right to search an aircraft from another contracting state landing on or departing from its sovereign territory, given due cause. d. The right to search, with the permission of the pilot in command, an aircraft from another contracting state landing on or departing from its sovereign territory.

5.

The Rules of the Air applicable to an aircraft registered in one state flying over another state shall be: a. Those of the state whose airspace is entered and transited. b. Those of the state of the visiting aircraft. c. Those agreed by ICAO contracting states to apply in all contracting states. d. Those stipulated by JAA operational procedures.

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PPL (A) – Aviation law 6.

Which classes of medical certificate meet the requirement for a JAA PPL (А)? a. Class 1 or 2. b. Class A or B. c. Class 2 or 3. d. Class B or C.

7.

Which body is responsible for ensuring that an aircraft operating in a state's sovereign airspace complies with the rules and regulations which prevail in that airspace? a. The state in whose sovereign airspace the aircraft is operating. b. The state which issued the current Certificate of Airworthiness for the aircraft. c. The state in which the aircraft is registered. d. The state which issued the licence held by the pilot of the aircraft.

8.

What was the outcome of the Chicago Convention a. The Convention on International Civil Aviation. b. ICAO. c. PICAO. d. The 18 Annexes to the Chicago Convention.

9. A PPL holder is not permitted to: a. Carry fare paying passengers. b. Give flying instruction with an FI(A) rating. c. Tow a glider d. Drop parachutists.

10. Complete the following wording with one of the options at a), b), or below to give the most correct statement. A pilot in command of a flight during which an aircraft enters the sovereign airspace of a foreign state with the intention of landing: a. Must have ensured that all necessary and relevant documentation is carried on board the aircraft, including the Certificate of Airworthiness, that the aircraft is in an airworthy condition and that it is correctly registered. b. Must ensure before departure that his pilot's licence has been validated by the foreign state. c. Must be satisfied that the aircraft's Certificate of Airworthiness is current and that he holds a type rating for the aircraft. d. Must be satisfied that the aircraft's Certificate of Airworthiness is current, that he holds a type rating for the aircraft, and that he has passed an Air Law examination set by the foreign state.

11. The pilot in command of an aircraft which enters the sovereign airspace of another contracting state for the purpose of landing must: a. Hold a licence issued by the authority of the state in which the aircraft is registered. b. Hold a licence issued by any ICAO contracting state. c. Hold a licence issued by any member state of the JAA. d. Hold any valid and current pilot's licence.


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PPL (A) – Aviation law 12. What is the basic presumption about VFR flight? a. That the flight will be flown in Visual Meteorological Conditio ns. b. That the pilot holds the correct rating to allow the aeroplane to be flown in VFR. plac e in class G airspace. c. That the flight will only take place d. That the flight will not take place above FL180.

13. When are navigation lights required to be shown? a. From sunset to sunrise or when specified by the Authority. b. When moving on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome. c. Whenever the pilot in command thinks it is sensible to switch them on. d. At night or when specified by the authority.

14. When an aircraft is flying, under which flight rules must the flight be conducted? a. Either IFR or VFR. b. IFR in IMC and VFR in VMC. c. At the commander's commande r's discretion. d. In accordance with ATC instructions.

15. When may you fly over any congested area of a city, town or settlement at a height from which it would not be possible to land safely in the event of an emergency arising? a. Only when necessary for take-off and landing. b. Never. c. Only to keep clear of cloud and remain in visual contact with the ground. d. Only where the operator has given permission.

16. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same level the one that has the other on its right is required to give way. True or false? a. True, provided they are in the same class. b. False. The one that has the other on its left has right of way c. True, unless the other aircraft has a glider on tow. d. False, provided the other aircraft aircr aft is not towing anything.

17. Which of a), b), c) and d), below, most correctly completes the following statement? When two or more aircraft are on final approach: a. The lower aircraft has the right of way unless ATC has already specified a landing order. b. The higher aircraft has the right of way. c. The lower aircraft has the right of way. d. The aircraft which has the least horizontal distance to run to the runway threshold has the right of way.

18. Except when taking off or landing, or under certain other defined circumstances, an aircraft may not fly closer than a), b), or to any person, vessel, vehicle or structure? a. 500 feet b. 1000 feet. c. 800 feet. d. 1500 feet.


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PPL (A) – Aviation law 19. Two aircraft flying according to the Visual Flight Rules, one of which is receiving a Radar Information Service (RIS), are closing at an apparent constant relative bearing. There is, thus, a high risk of collision. The fact that one aircraft is receiving an RIS is immaterial to the situation. The Rules of the Air apply. Therefore, the aircraft which has the other on its left has right of way and should maintain: a. Course and speed. b. Height and speed. c. Altitude and course. d. Altitude and speed.

20. While flying at night, as the pilot in command, you see an anti-collision light and a steady red light at the same altitude, at a constant relative bearing of 050 degrees, there a risk of collision? And who has right ri ght of way? a. Yes. The other aircraft does. b. Yes. You do. c. No. The other aircraft does. d. No. You do.

21. If a PPL holder who has no additional ratings, while receiving a Radar Advisory Service, receives instructions to change heading, climb or descend, such that if the instructions are complied with the pilot will be unable to maintain Visual Meteorologic al Conditions, the pilot should: a. Continue on the present heading, at the present altitude, and tell air traffic why he cannot comply. b. Comply with instructions, anyway, but go onto instrumen ts early. c. Continue on present heading and at present altitude, say nothing, and wait for the controller's next instruction. d. Comply as closely as he can with the controller's instructions but on no account go into Instrument Meteorological Conditions.

22. A Control Area (CTA) establishe d at the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes aerodrome s is known as: a. A Terminal Control Area (TMA). b. An Airway. c. A Control Zon e (CTR). d. An Aerodrome Traffic Zone (ATZ).

23. What is the international Aeronautical VHF Distress Frequency? a. 121.50 MHz b. 123.45 MHz c. 243.00 MHz d. 406.00 MHz

24. How often are Aeronautical Information Circulars published? a. Monthly b. Weekly c. Yearly. d. Quarterly.


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PPL (A) – Aviation law 25. If a PPL holder receives a Special VFR clearance to enter a control zone (CTR) but, before entering the CTR, finds that he can no longer receive or transmit RT messages, he must: a. Remain clear of the CTR. b. Carry on into the CTR via the assigned Visual Reference Point complying with the last clearancereceived. c. Carry on into the CTR and await light signals for clearance to land. d. Carry on into the CTR, complying with the last clearance received while transmitting blind.

26. What SSR squawk should be set in an emergency? a. 7700 b. 7777 c. 7000 d. 7600

27. If an aircraft marshaller holds his right arm down and repeatedly moves his left arm upward and backward it means: a. Turn left. b. Turn right. ahead. c. Keep moving ahead. d. Start your left engine.

28. What is the meaning of a steady green light from ATC to an aircraft in the air? a. Clear to land. b. Return to this airfield and await landing clearance. c. Land immediately. d. You have priority to land.

29. What colour are paved taxiway markings? a. Yellow. b. Red. c. Green. d. White.

30. What color are runway markings? a. White. b. Red. c. Green. d. Yellow.

31. You are on final approach and you see a steady red light from ATC. This means: a. Do not land. Continue circling. b. Continue approach and await a green light c. Do not land. Airfield closed. d. Do not land. Divert to your alternate airfield.


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PPL (A) – Aviation law 32. What word is used to describe the vertical position of an aircraft measured above mean sea level, when QNH is set on the altimeter subscale? a. Altitude. b. Elevation. c. Height d. Flight Level.

33. What action should a pilot take if he suffers radio communications failure during a VFR flight in VMC? a. Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report his arrival to his destination airfield. b. Continue to his destination, transmitting blind and attempting to avoid IMC. c. Fly to the nearest aerodrome, orbit on t he dead side of the circuit and await a steady green from the control tower. d. Carry out the radio failure procedure in the RAF Flight Information Handbook and await the arrival of a Shepherd aircraft.

34. Which of the following flight levels would be suitable for an aircraft flying in accordance with the quadrantal rule and maintaining a magnetic track of 146 degrees? a. FL75. b. FL50. c. FL85. d. FL70.

35. A pilot intending to land at a civil aerodrome shoul d initiate his descent to below transi tion level with the altimeter subscale set to: a. Aerodrome QNH. b. Aerodrome QFE. c. Regional QNH. d. 101Millibars.

36. A light aircraft is taking off behind a Heavy or Medium category aircr aft. What period of separat ion is required? a. 2 minutes. b. 4 minutes. c. 3 minutes. d. 5 minutes.

37. What is the definition of "transition level“? a. The lowest available Flight Level above the transition altitude. b. The Flight Level below which the vertical position of an aircraft is expressed as "height". c. The transition altitude expressed as a Flight Level. d. The Flight Level at or above which the vertical position of an aircraft is expressed as "altitude".


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PPL (A) – Aviation law 38. An aeroplane has a maximum take-off mass of 136,000 kg. What is its wake turbulence category? categor y? a. Heavy. b. Medium. c. A wide bodied aeroplane would be Heavy; a narrow bodied would be Medium. d. It depends on the actual take-off mass not the maximum take-off mass.

39. What word is used to describe the vertical position of an aircraft measured above an airfield datum level, when QFE is set on the altimeter subscale? a. Height b. Elevation. c. Altitude. d. Flight Level.

40. A PPL pilot who is is flying in accordance with SVFR must have the following minima: a. A minimum visibility of 10 kms or more and remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface. b. A minimum visibility of 10 kms or more and remain clear of cloud. c. A minimum visibility of 5 kms or more and remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface. or more and remain in sight of the surface. d. A minimum visibility of 10 kms or

41. Who is responsible for the issue of a Certificate of Airworthiness? a. The authority of the state of registration. b. The JAA. c. ICAO. d. The operator.

42. Which of the following normally defines 'runway in use' on an uncontrolled airfield? a. A runway into wind. b. A part of the maneuvering area defined for take off and landing. c. The most convenient runway to use for the aircraft operating from the aerodrome. d. The defined take off and landing portion of an aerodrome.

43. Who may not suspend VFR operations at an aerodrome on safety grounds a. The Approach Controller. b. The duty Aerodrome Controller. c. The local Area Control Centre (ACC). d. The appropriate ATS authority.

44. Where the Certificate of Registration must for an aircraft is kept while the aircraft is flying? a. In the aircraft. b. In the registered office of the owner. c. By the authority of the State of registration. d. On the ground at the point of departure.


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PPL (A) – Aviation law 45. Flying hours to be credited for a licence or rating must have been flown: a. In the same type or category of aircraft as that for which the licence or rating is being sought. b. In the same performance group of aircraft as that for which the licence or rating is being sought. c. In the same or higher performance group of aircraft as that for which the licence or rating is being sought. d. In the same make and type of aircraft as that for which the licence or rating is being sought.

46. The holder of a JAA PPL(A) who wishes to carry passengers must have made a minimum of take-offs and landings within the preceding: a. 90 days. b. 29 days. c. 31 days. d. 60 days.

47. If the holder of a pilot's licence learns that he is to undergo surgery, what are his obligations in terms of informing the aviation medical authority? a. He should contact his aviation medical authority without delay and seek their advice on his circumstances. b. There is no requirement to do so provided the pilot does not fly again as pilot in command until after the surgical operation. c. He should advise the medical authority of the circumstances only if he is due to receive a general anesthetic. d. He has no obligations to tell anyone as this is a private matter.

48. How long is a JAA PPL (A) issued for? a. 5 years. b. 3 years. c. 10 years. d. 8 years.

49. The skills test for a JAA PPL (A) must be taken within a. 6 months. b. One year. c. 4 months. d. 3 months.

of completing flying instruction.

withi n 50. Application for the grant of a JAA PPL (A) licence m ust be made within theoretical knowledge examinations. a. 24. b. 12. c. 36. d. 18.

completing the


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PPL (A) – Aviation law 51. A pilot's licence issued by one JAA member State may be converted to a licence of any other JAA member State (the new member State), provided that: a. The new member State is the licence holder's normal State of residence or that full-time employment has been taken by the licence holder in that State. b. The licence holder has resided in the new member State for at least 31 days. c. The licence holder intends to follow a course of study in the new member State la sting at least three months. d. The new member State has no reasonable gr ounds for refusing to convert the licence.

52. There are three conditions that a holder of a JAA PPL (A) must fulfill before he/she may act as pilot in command, or as a co-pilot. Which of the following is not a requirement? a. Holds an Instrument Rating. b. Holds a Type or Class rating p ertinent to the aircraft to be flown. c. Holds a valid medical certificate. d. Is not flying for remuneration.

53. Who is responsible for ensuring that all relevant aircraf t documentation is carried on an international flight? a. The pilot in command. b. The organisation hiring out the aircraft. c. The air traffic organisation t o whom the flight plan is submitted. d. The flying supervisor at the airfield of departure.

54. The departure an d arrival time entered by a PPL holder in his flying log b ook is taken as follows: a. The time the aircraft begi ns to move under its own power an d the time it comes to rest following the last b. The time of the first take-off and the time of the last landing o f the sortie. c. The time of engine start and the time of engine shut-d own. d. The time the aircraft enters the active ru nway for the first take-off and the time it vac ates the runway after the last landing.

55. How long is an Instrument Rating valid for? a. 12 months. b. 6 months. c. 18 months. d. The IR is valid provided regul ar skill tests are completed at intervals dictated by the authority.

56. If a pilot holding a medical certificate issued under the authority of JAR-FCL receives an injury or is suffering from a medical con dition which affects his ability to act as the crew member of an aircr aft: a. The medical certificate ceases to be valid. b. The medical certificate will be suspend ed after 25 days following the date of the injury or onset of the illness unless the pilot has again been declare d fit. c. The medical certificate will be suspended if the illness or injury has been reported to the authority. d. The medical certificate will remain valid.


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PPL (A) – Aviation law 57. The privileges of the IMC rating: a. May be exercised in the sovereign airspace of the State issuing the rating. The exercise of the privileges in the airspace of another JAA member state is subject to the prior agreement of that state. b. Entitle the holder to fly in controlled airspace world wide. c. May only be exercised in the sovereign airspace of the State issuing the rating. d. May be exercised in the sovereign airspace of any JAA member state without prior agreement.

58. Which of the following ratings on a JAA PPL (A) precludes the requirement for a separate Night Rating to be held by a private pilot who wishes to fly as PIC at night? a. Instrument Rating. b. IMC Rating. c. Full Instructor Rating. d. Assistant Instructor Rating.

59. An applicant for a Private Pilot Licence must be at least a. 17 years old. b. 15 years old. c. 16 years old. d. 18 years old.

60. When should the student pilot present his Pilot Medical Certifica te? a. Before his first solo flight. b. Before the beginning of theoretical lessons. c. Before the beginning of a practical training. d. At giving in the exam's application.

61. What Medical Certificate is required for a holder of a Private Pilot Licence? a. Class 1 or Class 2 Medical Certificate. b. Class 1 Medical Certificate only. c. Class A or Class B Medical Certificate

62. What Medical Certificate is re quired for a student pilot? a. Class 1 or Class 2 Medical Certificate. b. Class 1 Medical Certificate only. c. Class A or Class B Medical Certificate.

63. At least how many hours of dual instructions on aeroplane must have an applicant for a PPL (A)? a. 25 hours. b. 10 hours. c. 15 hours. d. 20 hours.


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PPL (A) – Aviation law 64. How many hours of total flying hours, required for the practical skill test for an issue of a Private Pilot Licence, may be completed on a Flight & Navigation Procedures Trainer or Simulator? a. 5. b. 7. c. 10. d. 15.

65. At least how long must be the cross-country flight, required for the eligibility for the Private Pilot Licence skill test, and how many full stop landings at different aerodromes shall be made at this flight? a. 150 NM; 2 landings. b. 100 NM; 2 landings. c. 200 NM; landings. d. 250 NM; landings.

66. At least how many hours of flying experience as a pilot of airplanes airplanes must have an applicant for a Private Pilot Licence? a. 45 hours. b. 50 hours. c. 40 hours. d. 35 hours.

67. What does the term "solo flight time" mean? a. Solo flight time of a student-pilot. b. Entire flight time when a pilot is alone in the aircraft. c. Entire flight time, when a pilot is alone in the aircraft, and 50% of the co-pilot flight time. d. Flight time as a pilot-in-command.

68. To act as pilot in command of an airplane carrying passengers, the holder of PPL(A) must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an airplane of the same class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding a. 90 days. b. 12 calendar months. c. 24 calendar months.

69. The three takeoffs and landings during the last 90 days that are required to act as pilot of an airplane carrying passengers at night must be done during the time period from the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight. a. Sunset to sunrise. b. 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise. c. The end of eve ning civil twilight to the beginning of morning morn ing civil twilight


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PPL (A) – Aviation law 70. The Flight Time is the total time from the moment a. Than an aircraft first moves under its own or external power for the purpose of taking off until the moment it comes to rest at the end of the flight. b. Than an aircraft starts its engine(s) for the purpose of taking off or when a non-powered aircraft first moves, until the moment engine(s) stop(s) operating or when a non-powered c. Aircraft comes to rest at the end of the flight. d. Than an aircraft becomes completely airborne until the moment it finally touches the ground at a t landing.

71. Flight time during which the flight instructor will only observe the student acting as pilot-incommand and shall not influence or control the flight of the aircraft is a. Flight time as student pilot-in-command (SPIC). b. Solo flight time under supervision. c. Flight time as pilot-in-comma nd. d. Solo flight time.

72. Which aircraft, and under which conditions, may a holder of a private pilot licence fly, provided he is properly endorsed? a. All airplanes without exceptions provided no payment or refund is done for such flight. b. All airplanes without exceptions provided no payment or refund is given to the pilot. c. All single-engined airplanes provided no payment or refund is done for such flight. d. All airplanes up to the maximum takeoff mass 1,500 kg, provided no paymen t or refund is given to the t he pilot.

proficiency check with an examiner, what minimum flight time and what 73. As a substitute for the proficiency number of takeoffs and landing is required for the revalidation of a single pilot single engine airplane class cl ass rating? a. 12 hours of flight time within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating, including 6 hours of pilot-in-command time, and 12 takeoffs and 12 landings. b. 12 hours of flight time within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating, including 5 hours of pilot-in-command time, and takeoffs and landings. c. 10 hours of flight time within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating, including 6 hours of pilot-in-command time, and 12 takeoffs and 12 landings.

74. How long is the period before the expiry date of a single pilot single engine rating, during which a proficiency check for a revalidation may be done? a. 3 months. b. 15 days. c. 1 month. d. 2 months.

75. To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the private licence holder must have three takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days as the sole manipulator of the controls in an airplane the same a. Type or class. b. Make and model. c. Class, but n ot the type.


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PPL (A) – Aviation law 76. With the respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft? a. Single engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea. b. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter -than-ai r. c. Lighter-than-air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon.

77. With the respect to t he certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft? a. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter -than-ai r. b. Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon. c. Single engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.

78. The pilot or student pilot, when becoming aware of hospital admission of more than 12 hours, surgical operation or invasive procedure, the regular use of medication, the regular use of correcting lenses, a. Must not fly until seeks the advice of the competent aviation doctor. b. Must pass the aviation medical exam again. c. Must inform the CAA within the period of 21 days.

79. In which of the following cases should the aviation medical certificate deem to be suspended? a. Any illness involvi ng incapacity to his functio ns as a member of flight crew through out a period of 2 1 days or m ore, or any significa nt persona l injury i nvolving i ncapacity t o undertake his functions as a member of the flight crew. b. Any surgical operation or invasive procedure and pregnancy. c. Any surgical operation or invasive procedure.

80. How long are single pilot single engine class ratings valid? a. 2 years. b. 6 months. c. 1 year. d. 3 years.

81. Maximum validity of the pilot licence is a. 5 years. b. 2 years. c. 3 years. d. 4 years.

82. The validity of a pilot licence is determined by the validity of a. The ratings contained therein and the Medical Certificate. b. The Medical Certificate only. c. The licence itself, as endorsed in the licence.

83. Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight? a. Become familiar with all available i nformation concerning the flight. b. Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries. c. Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.


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PPL (A) – Aviation law 84. Preflight action, as required f or all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, sh all include a. An alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned. b. The designation of an alternate airport. c. A study of arrival procedures at airports/heliports of intended use.

85. In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to determine a. Runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft’s takeoff and landing distance data. b. Review traffic control light signal procedures. c. Check the accuracy of the navigational equipmen t and the emergency locator transmi tter (ELT).

86. Pilots are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harn esses fastened during a. Takeoffs an d landings. b. All flight conditions. c. Flight in turbulent air.

87. Which best describes the flight conditions un der which pilots are specifically required to keep their safety har ness fastened? a. Safety belts during take off and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing. b. Safety belts during take off and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeof f and landing. c. Safety belts during take off and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing and while en route.

88. With respect to passengers, wha t obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerni ng the use of seat belts? a. The pilot in command must brief the passengers with the location and the use of seat b elts. b. The pilot in command must instr uct the passengers to keep their seat belts fastened for the entire flight. c. The pilot in command has no obligation in regard to passengers' use of seat belts.

89. Who is responsible for determinin g if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight? a. The owner or operator. b. A certified aircraft mechanic. c. The pilot in command.

90. The person directly responsible for the prelaunc h briefing of passengers for a flight is a. Pilot in command. b. Safety officer. c. Ground crewmember.


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PPL (A) – Aviation law mean? 91. What does "AAL" mean? a. Acknowled ge. b. Above aer odrome level. c. Angle of attack limitation. limit ation. d. Aerodrome altitude level.

92. Which aircraft speed should be entered into the "Cruising Speed" block of an ICAO Flight Pl an? a. Calibrated Air Speed. b. Indicated Air Speed. c. True Air Speed. d. Ground Speed.

93. What should be entered into the "LEVEL" block of an ICAO VFR Flight Pl an? a. Either the word " VFR" or the proposed cruising altitude. b. It is left blank for VFR flights. c. The proposed cruising altitudes. d. The phrase "VFR: variable".

94. What is the meaning of "WIP"? a. Work in progress. b. With permission. c. With effect from. d. Weight increase procedure. procedure.

95. The Air Traffic Control may issue a permission for a SVFR flight a. For all flights in the restricted zone. b. For flights overflying of the terminal zone. c. For flights entering or leaving the control zone only. d. For flying an airport traffic circuit inside the control zone only.

96. The vertical limits of a control zone are a. From 600 m GND to the defined altitude. b. From 600 m GND to the bottom limit of a terminal area. c. From the surface to the defined altitude. d. From the surface to 900 m MSL.

97. What is the definition of a term "Control Zone"? a. Airspace of defined dime nsions within which all air traffic is controlled. b. Airspace immedi ately above an airport. c. A controlled airspac e extending upwards from the surface of the earth.


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PPL (A) – Aviation law 98. A part of an airspace of define d dimensions above defined area where fligh ts are not allowed, is called a. Terminal area. b. Prohibited zone. c. Restricted zone. d. Control zone.

a. b. c.

Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has Filed an IFR flight plan. Received prior authorization from the controlling agency. Received prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military base.

a. b. c. d.

What is the definition of the term "Controlled Airspace"? Airspace of defined dimensi ons within which all aircrafts are controlled. Airspace ar ound an airport. Airspace imme diately above an airport wit h more than one runway. An airspace within which air traffic control services are provided.

a. b. c. d.

The controlled airspace, extending from the surface to the specified altitude, is the Control area. Terminal control area. area. Control zone. Flight information region. region.

a. b. c. d.

Who is responsible for the adequate safe separation between VFR flights in the air? Pilots themselves exclusively. The Air Traffic Control exclusively. The Air Traffic Control and the Surveillance Radar. The Air Traffic Control and pilots.

99.

100.

101.

102.

105.

A controlled airspac e extending upwards from a specified heig ht above the earth is a. Aerodrome traffic zone. b. c. d.

Control area. Control zone. De-conflicted zone.


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PPL (A) – Aviation law 106. What is the lateral dimension of the airspace at the inner side of the state border, where all aircraft need to obtain special permission permis sion for flying within it? a. 5 km. b. 7 km. c. 9 km. d. 11 km.

When flying a sport aircraft above the territory of the Republic of Slovenia, supplemental 107. oxygen shall be used at the altitude above mean sea level greater than a. 4,000 m. b. 3,600 m. c. 3,800 m. d. 4,200 m.

108. What is the minimum safe altitude required to operate an aircraft over settlements or over open-air assembly of people? a. An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface. b. 150 m (500 ft) above ground and not closer than 150 m from any person, vessel or structure. c. 150 m (500 ft) above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 300 m of the aircraft. d. 300 m (1,000 ft) above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 600 m of the aircraft.

When flying visually in class G airspace at altitudes above 900 m (3,000 ft) MSL or 300 m 109. (1,000 ft) from ground, whichever is higher, the pilot of an aircraft must maintain the vertical separation from clouds at least a. 300 m. b. 100 m. c. 150 m. d. 250 m.

110. Visual flying of aircraft in class G airspace at altitudes above 900 m (3,000 ft) MSL or 300 m (1,000 ft) from ground, whichever is higher, up to 3,050 m (10,000 ft), is permitted if the horizontal visibility is at least a. 1.5 km. b. 8 km. c. 5 km. d. 3 km.

When approaching to land at an airport, without an operating control tower, in Class G 111. airspace, the pilot should a. Make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated. b. Enter and fly a traffic pattern at 800 feet AAL. c. Fly a left-hand traffic pattern at 800 feet AAL.


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PPL (A) – Aviation law The minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight in class G airspace 112. at altitudes above 300 m from ground or 900 m MSL, whichever is higher, is a. 600 m. b. 300 m. c. 1,500 m. d. 8,000 m.

113. No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the a. Flight visibility at that airport is at least 1.5 km. b. Ground visibility at that airport is at least 1.5 km. c. Ground visibility at that airport is at least 5.0 km.

114.

The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D a. Airspace is clear of clouds and 3.0-km visibility. b. 450-meter ceiling and 1.5-km visibility. c. 450-meter ceiling and 5.0-km visibility.

Which are the meteorological minima, that allow the tower to permit an SVFR flight in a 115. control zone during daytime? The flight visibility must be at least a. 1,500 m and cloud basis 300 m GND. b. 1,500 m. c. 5,000 m and cloud basis 300 m GND. d. 5,000 m.

An aircraft flying above th e sea between 4,500 feet MSL and 9,000 feet MSL outside 116. controlled airspace under VFR, must remain at least: a. Clear of clouds and in sight of the surface; 8 km visibility. b. 1,500 m horizontally, 1,000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility. c. 1,500 m horizontally, 1,000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility. d. 2,000 feet horizontally, 1,000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility.

117. a. b. c. d.

Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done: Only at transition altitude. At transition altitud e during climb and transition level during descent. At transition level during climb and transition altitude durin g descent. Only at transition level.

A VFR flight should adhere to the table of prescri bed flight level at flight altitu des, higher 118. than a. 3,000 ft GND. b. 2,200 ft GND. c. 700 ft MSL. d. 3,000 ft MSL.


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PPL (A) – Aviation law Which of the cruising flight level listed is appropriate for a VFR flight over 3,000 ft MSL, 119. while maintaining true course 170° and if the local variation variation value is 20°W? a. FL 65. b. FL 55. c. FL 40. d. FL 30.

120. A pilot-in-c ommand of a VFR cruising flight at the altitu des over 3,000 ft MSL, should fly odd flight levels pl us 500 ft, if maintains a. True headings between 000° and 179°. b. Magnetic headings between 180° and 359°. c. Magnetic courses between 000° and 179°. d. True courses between 180° and 359°.

121. Which of the aircraft listed has always the right-of-way over all other participants in air traffic? a. A balloon. b. An aircraft in final approach for landing. c. An aircraft in distress.

122. a. b. c.

What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on? The faster aircraft shall give way. Each aircraft shall give give way to the right. The aircraft on the left shall give way.

When two aircraft are approaching each other head-on and there is a danger of collision, 123. which way should each aircraft turn? a. Heavier aircraft should turn to the right, easier aircraft should turn to the left. b. Each aircraft should turn to the right. c. Heavier aircraft should turn to the left, easier aircraft should turn to the right. d. Each aircraft should turn to the left.

a. b. c. d.

What actions should the pilots of aircraft take if on head-on collision course? Both should turn to the left. Both should turn to the right. Both should make a climbing turn to the right. Both should make a climbing turn to the left.

a. b. c. d.

How shall aircraft in the air avoid each other on a head-on collision course? Both aircraft shall alter their headings to the left. Both aircraft shall alter their headings to the right. Powered-aircraft has a right of w ay, non-powered aircraft aircraft shall deviate to t he right. Non-powered aircraft has a right of way, powered aircraft shall deviate to the left.

124.

125.

20 / 24 Latest information about the exam can be found at www.tafa.aero

PPL (A) – Aviation law What action should the pilots of an airplane and a glider take if on a head-on collision 126. course? a. The airplane pilot should give way. b. The airplane pilot should give way, because his aircraft is more controllable. c. Both pilots should give way to the right. d. The glider pilot should give way, because a glider is more controllable than an airplane.

127. a. b. c. d.

128. a. b. c. d.

What should the glider pilot do, if on head-on collision course with the tw o-engined Cessna? He should open the air brakes immediately, because a multi-engine multi-engine airplane has the rightof-way. He should deviate to the left thus giving way to the airplane. He should deviate to the right. He may maintain heading and speed, because a glider has always the right-of-way, however he should pay extra attention.

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed? Airship. Glider. Aircraft towing other aircraft . Helicopter.

Which of the statements listed, concerning the right-of-way when t wo aircraft converge, 129. but not head-on, is correct? a. Normal category aircraft should give way to ultralight aircraft. b. Airplanes should give way to helicopters. c. Airplanes in free flight should give way to non-powered aircra ft. d. Ultralight aircraft should give way to normal category aircraft.

130. While in final gliding flight toward airfield, a glider pilot notices an aerotow, closing from his left side. What action should the glider pilot in free flight take? a. He should alter his heading to the left and give way to the aerotow, which has always the right-of-way over all other aircraft. b. He should alter his heading to the left and give way to the aerotow, which has the right-ofway over a glider. c. He may keep heading and speed, because he is on the right side and thus has the right-ofway, and intensify attentiveness. d. He may keep heading and speed, because a glider has always the right-of-way over a powered aircraft.

131. a. b. c. d.

Which aircraft must give way at converging of a glider and an airplane in free flight? No one. The airplane. The glider. Both aircraft.


PPL (A) – Aviation law With your aeroplane on an IFR flight in airspace class D, you receive a traffic information 132. from ATC, that an helicopt er on VFR flight is going to cross your flight path from right to left . Who has the right-of-way? a. ATC decides who has the right of way and issues appropriat e instruction. b. I have the right-of-way as I am on an IFR flight. c. The helicopter has the right-of-way.

Aircraft A with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditi ons within a control area. Aircra ft B 133. with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right of way? a. Aircraft B if A is on its left. b. Aircraft A regardless of the direction which B is approaching. c. Aircraft B regardless of the direction A is approaching. d. Aircraft A if B is on its right.

134. a. b. c. d.

Which aircraft must give way when two airplanes are converging at the same altitude? The ultralight airplane. airplane. Bigger airplane. The airplane on the right. right. The airplane which has another airplane at his right side.

135. An airplane and anothe r airplane, towin g a glider, are on crossing courses. If the aerotow is on the left of the airplane, which has the right-of-way? a. Both aircraft. b. The aerotow. c. Depends on the magnetic heading of separate aircraft. d. The aircraft in free flight.

136. Which of the following statements, concerning heavier-than-air aircraft right-of-way during landing, is correct? a. Aircraft at higher lev el shall give way t o aircraft at lower level, bu t the lat ter shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another which is in the final stage of an approach to land, or to overtake that aircraft. b. Aircraft in final stage of an approac h to land or which is first in an airport traffic circuit , has the right-of-way over all other aircraft. c. Aircraft which is the highest has the righ t-of-way over all other aircraft with the excepti on of turbojet aircraft, which has the right-of-way over propeller aircraft.

137. a. b. c. d.

When overtaking an aircraft in flight, you should Alter your course to the left. Alter your course to the right. Fly below or above it. Fly below it exclusively. exclusively.


PPL (A) – Aviation law 138. Which minimum life-saving equipment is recommended to be on board of a non-commercial flight of a single -engined landplan e when fl ying en r oute over w ater bey ond glidi ng distance from the shore? a. Life saving rafts in sufficient numbers to carry all persons on board. persons on board and one life jacket for b. Life saving rafts in sufficient numbers to carry all persons each person on board. board. c. One life jacket or equivalent individual floatation device for each person on board.

What is the distance from land suitable for making an emergency landing at which must an 139. extended over water non-commercial flight of a multi-engined aeroplane capable of continuing flight wi th one e ngine ino perative carry addi tional t o appropri ate numb er of life j ackets suffici ent number of life-saving rafts and the equipment for making the pyrotechnical distress signals? a. 200 NM. b. 50 NM. c. 100 NM.

140. The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make t he appropriate entriesin the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service a. Lies with the b. Mechanic, who performed the work. c. Owner or operator. operator. d. Pilot in command.

How often is a glider or an aeroplane state of airworthiness inspected by the authorized 141. person? a. Regularly each year and in case if changing ownership or after re pairs. b. Regularly every two years and after a hard l anding. c. One year after the last regular inspection and in case of changing ownership. d. Regularly each year before beginning of a flying season.

142.

An ATC clear ance provides a. Authoriza tion to proceed under specified traffic conditi ons in controlle d airspace. b. Priority over all other traffic. c. Adequate separat ion from all traffic.


PPL (A) – Aviation law What action should be taken if a pilot receives a clearance that will cause a deviation from 143. a rule? a. Refuse the clearance as stated and request t hat it be amended. b. Accept the clearance, because the pilot is not responsible for the deviation. c. Accept the clearance and advise Air Traffic Control when deviation occurs. d. Accept the clearance a nd advise Air Traffic Control that he believes a rule deviati on will occur.

144. If a pilot has to deviate from an air traffic control clearance due to unforseen circumstances, circumstances, he has to a. Transmit a general call giving all details concerning his deviation from the ATC clearance. b. Inform all ATC stations concerned by transmitting a multiple call. c. Notify the competent ATC unit without delay and obtain an amended ATC clearance. d. Notify the Aeronautical Information Service.

145. a. b. c. d.

When intercepted by a military aircraft, the pilot of an VFR aircraft should Squawk 7700. Attempt to establish commu nications with the interce pting aircraft over 121.5 MHz and comply with the intercepts signals. Acknowled ge receipt of intercepti ng aircraft instructions with the appropriate visual signals. All of th e above

During a cross-country flight you notice the military aircraft approaching your left wingtip 146. and flying along; after a short time it makes an abrupt break-away maneuver of a climbing turn to the left. What does this mean? a. You may proceed! b. You have been intercepted. Follow me! c. Land at the aerodrome in t he direction of my flight! d. Leave the prohibited area immediately!

During a cross-country flight you notice the military aircraft approaching your left wingtip, 147. flying alon g for a while, the n rocking the wings and commencin g a shallow turn to the right. Wha t does this mean? a. Return to the aerodrome of origin! b. You have been intercepted. Follow me! c. Leave the prohibited area immediately! d. You may proceed!

During a cross-country flight you find yourself i n the vicinity of an unknown airport. A 148. military aircraft approaches, approaches, turns around your aircraft, rocks the wings and finally lowers the landing gear. What does this mean? a. You have been intercepted, land at t he airport below you! b. You may proceed! c. Leave the airport zone immediately! sport airfield! d. Leave the airport zone and land at t he nearest sport



Subject:

PPL(A) – Aircraft General Knowledge

PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge NOTE: The correct answer under a. During the exam the order of answers will be different. Review questions: 1) Its good practice, when flying over large areas of water, that life jackets: a) Are worn, uninflated. b) Should be carried under the pilots' seats. c) Should be inspected periodically for leaks. d) Are worn inflated.

2) A BCF fire extinguisher: a) Is quite safe to use in an enclosed cockpit if the cockpit is subsequently ventilated. b) Gives off highly toxi c fumes and should never be used in an enclosed cockpit c) Is quite safe to use in an enclosed cockpit. i n a cockpit d) Is only suitable for wood or fabric fires a nd is, therefore, of no use in

3) If you suspect carburettor icing when flying an aircraft whose engine is not fitted with a carburettor air-temperature gauge, the correct action would be: a) To always select full carburettor heat. b) To select the appropriate amount of carburettor heat depending on the amount of icing suspected. c) To always select full carburettor heat unless the engine starts to run roughly, at which point the carburettor heat should be selected to cold. d) To open the throttle to make up for the lost power.

4) Aquaplaning speed:a) Can be calculated, in knots, by multiplying the square root of the tyre pressure by nine. b) Increases as the depth of tread on the tyres reduces. c) Increases as the depth of water on the ground increases. d) Is measured in miles per hour.

5) Connecting two 12 volt, 40 ampere-hour, capacity batteries in series wil l provide a battery of: a) 24 volts and 40 ampere-hours capacity. b) 12 volts and 80 ampere-hours capacity. c) 24 volts and 80 ampere-hours capacity. d) 12 volts and 40 ampere hour’s capacity.

6) If a blockage occurs in the oil cooler of an aircraft engine while the aircraft is in flight, a by-pass valve allows the oil to by-pass the cooler. T he by-pass functions on the principle of: a) Pressure dependence. b) Temperature dependence. c) Mechanical selection. d) Hydraulic selection.

Latest information about the exam ex am can be found at www.tafa.aero

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PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge le ngth in order to: 7) A propeller blade is twisted along its length a) Maintain the optimal Angle of Attack from root to tip. ncreasing blade angle from root to tip. b) Give a progressively iincreasing c) Give a progressively increasing pitch from root to tip. l inear speed of the blade from root to tip. d) Compensate for the decreasing linear

8) Magnetos are: elect rical generators which produce high voltage sparks. a) Self contained, engine driven, electrical b) Generators, driven by the cam-shaft, used to supply electrical equipment vol tage sparks for the spark-plugs. c) Used to generate low voltage d) Fitted within the distributor, and fire in the same sequence as the spark-plugs.

9) Which of the following is an appropriate action to take i f you have a carburettor fire on startup? a) Select mixture control to Idle Cut off (ICO). b) Deselect carburettor heat. c) Turn the starter switch to "Off". d) AII of the above.

10) Tyre creep:a) Can be recognised by the misalignment of markings painted on the tyre and the wheel. b) Can be prevented by painting lines on the tyre and wheel. c) Refers to the movement of an aircraft against the brakes. d) Can be prevented with glue.

11) The diagram shows a light aircraft electrical power system.(See Fig.PPL AKG -1) In flight if the loadmeter reading drops to zero, the most probable cause is that the: a) Alternator has failed. b) Battery has been fully charged. c) Battery is flat. d) Bus-bar is overloaded.

12) The power output of an internal combustion engine can be increased by:a) Increasing the engine R.P.M. b) Decreasing the area of the cylinder. c) Decreasing the length of the stroke. d) Increasing the size of the fuel tank.

13) When turning through North in the Northern Hemisphere:a) Liquid swirl will increase the magnitude of any turning error. b) Turning errors are greatest closer to the magnetic equator. s ignificant than turning errors. c) Acceleration errors are always more significant d) The compass will be lively.


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PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge

s etting constant, the engine R.P.M. of an aircraft fitted with a fi xed14) In a dive, with the throttle setting pitch propeller will: a) Increase if the airspeed is allowed to increase. b) Decrease as the airspeed increases. c) Remain constant whatever the airspeed. set ting is not changed. d) Decrease as long as the throttle setting

15) Immediately after starting an aircraft engine, you must check the starter warning light. If it is still illuminated you should: a) Shut down the engine immediately. I f it remains illuminated shut down the engine. b) Monitor it for 30 seconds. If c) Do nothing. The starter warning light should stay on while the engine is running. d) Shut down the engine, count to 30, and then attempt a re-start.

16) The significance of using the chemically correct mixture of air and fuel is that: a) It allows complete combustion to occur. b) It is the one usually used. c) It is 15:1 by volume. d) It gives the best results.

17) Ignoring any Instrument or Position Errors, in what conditions will the Air Speed Indicator indicate the True Airspeed of an aircraft? a) In ISA, sea-level conditions only. b) At any altitude or temperature. t he temperature lapse rate is in accordance with ISA. c) At any altitude, provided that the d) At any altitude, but only when ISA conditions prevail.

18) While carrying out the Dead Cut Check, with the right magneto selected, you notice that the engine falters, and you suspect it will stop st op running. What should you do? a) Allow the engine to stop completely. b) Quickly switch to the left magneto. c) Quickly switch to both magnetos. kee p the engine running, and then select both magnetos. d) Open the throttle to keep

19) Theoretically, a 100 amp/hr battery will supply 25 amps for: a) 4 hours. b) 25 minutes. c) 100 minutes. d) 25 hours.


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PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge 20) During one complete Otto Cycle, the piston: a) Moves towards the cylinder head twice. b) Rotates around the gudgeon pin twice. c) Receives two power strokes. d) Moves towards the cylinder head four times.

21) Which of the following is not a component of a dry vacuum system? a) A system lubrication device. b) A vacuum generator. c) A vacuum controller. d) A filter to clean the air.

22) While taxying in an aircraft fitted with a fixed pitch propeller, you suspect that you have carburettor icing. The correct action to take would be to: a) Select carburettor heat to fully hot. Then, before take-off, select carburettor heat cold, making sure that the engine develops the correct mi nimum take-off rpm. b) Select carburettor heat to fully hot and leave this setting se lected until you have taken off and are climbing away. full y hot: then select cold as the rpm drops. c) Select carburettor heat to fully d) Avoid the use of carburettor heat on the ground, and rely on the heat of the engine within the cowlings to melt the ice.

23) The Mechanical Tachometer:a) Works on the principle of a magnetic fiel d being induced in a drag cup and creating a torque which rotates a shaft attached to the pointer on the dial of a Tachometer. i n a drag cup to rotate a shaft, which is connected to a pointer, b) Uses the friction generated in against the pressure of a hairspring. c) Is driven directly from the prop shaft. Gears reduce the speed of rotation so that a generator can be used to produce a voltage proportional to shaft speed which is indicated on a gauge calibrated in RPM. d) Is driven directly from the alternator drive.

24) Detonation could result from using: a) Too weak a mixture. b) Too low a manifold pressure. c) A higher grade fuel than recommended. d) Too high an RPM.

25) Pre-ignition in a four stroke piston engine is : earlie r than it should. a) The fuel / air mixture burning earlier engi ne. b) Caused by a rich mixture in a hot engine. c) The explosive combustion of the fuel-air mixture. d) Characterised by the ringing nature of the explosion it causes.


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PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge t he mixture may ignite before the spark plug fires. 26) If the engine gets too hot, the a) This is called pre-ignition. b) This is called detonation. assis t in cooling the engine. c) The mixture should be weakened to assist d) The throttle should be opened to assist in cooling the engine.

27) Instruments normally supplied from the electrical syste m include the: a) Fuel quantity gauges and the turn co-ordinator. b) Engine rpm indicator and the fuel quantity gauges. c) Turn co-ordinator and oil pressure gauge. d) Engine rpm indicator and the turn co-ordinator.

di ffuser which: 28) Some carburettors are fitted with a diffuser a) Prevents the mixture becoming too rich as the rpm increases. b) Prevents the mixture becoming too lean as the rpm increases. c) Prevents the mixture becoming too lean as the rpm decreases. d) Prevents the mixture becoming too rich as the rpm decreases.

t emperature probe which is connected 29) Where in the engine is the oil temperature read by the temperature to the engine's oil temperature gauge? a) After the oil has passed through the oil cooler but before it reaches the hot sections of the engine. b) Inside the hot sections of the engine. t ank. c) As the oil leaves the oil tank. d) Before the oil has passed through the oil cooler.

30) To assist in reducing the temperature of the engine:a) The air/fuel mixture can be richened. b) The airspeed can be reduced. c) The cowl flaps can be closed. d) The air/fuel mixture can be weakened.

wi ng shown in the diagram are: (See Fig.PPL AKG-2) 31) The component parts of the wing A / B/C a) Front Spar / Formers / Rear Spar b) Primary Spar / Formers / Stringer c) Front Spar / Secondary Spar / Former d) Stringers / Secondary Spar / Former

32) Semi-monocoque can be defined as: wit h supported apertures containing an internal structure framework. a) A stressed skin with b) A framework of light-gauge steel tubes welded together to form a space frame of triangular shape.


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PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge c) A structure with no apertures at all. d) An apertureless structure with load bearing formers being supported by stringers and longerons over a stressed skin.

33) On a light aircraft fitted with a mechanically steered nose wheel, st eering on the ground is normally effected by: a) Control rods/cables operated by the rudder pedals. b) Cables operated from the aileron control wheel. c) Use of the differential braking technique, only. d) Hydraulic jacks which allow self-centring.

34) Engine compression ratio is the ratio of the a) Total volume to the clearance volume. b) Clearance volume to the swept volume. c) Swept volume to the total volume. d) Swept volume to the clearance volume.

35) A 100 Ampere-Hour battery : a) Will, in theory, supply 20 Amps for up to 5 hours. b) Must be used in parallel with another similar battery. c) Supplies the bus-bars through a 45 Ampere circuit breaker. d) Takes 100 hours to charge.

alte rnator or generator failure during flight the: 36) In the event of an alternator a) Electrical loads should be reduced to a minimum and a landing made as soon as safely practicable. b) Flight may be continued normally because the battery supplies all electrical loads. t urned off and flight continued normally without c) Alternator master switch should be turned electrical power.

37) If, during descent, the static sources to the airspeed i ndicator and altimeter become blocked by ice: a) Both instruments will over-read. b) The airspeed indicator will over-read and the altimeter will under-read. c) The airspeed indicator will under-read and the altimeter will over-read. d) Both instruments will under-read.

38) Within one "Otto" cycle, the valves of a four stroke piston engine will each open: a) Once. b) Twice. c) During the power stroke. d) During the induction stroke.


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39) The purpose of the compass deviation deviati on card fixed next to an aircraft's magnetic compass is to: a) Indicate the discrepancy between the heading shown on the compass and the actual magnetic heading. b) Compensate for the influence of magnetic material carried on the person of the pilot and/or passengers. c) Indicate the discrepancy between the t he aircraft's track and magnetic north. d) Indicate the discrepancy between the aircraft's track and true north.

40) The normal method for shutting down an aircraft engine is: a) Closing the throttle and moving the mixture to ICO. b) Switching the starter switch to off. c) Moving the mixture to Idle Cut off (ICO). d) Closing the throttle.

41) Why do aircraft engine ignition systems incorporate a means of spark augmentation? a) Because the speed of rotation of the engine, during starting, is too low for the magneto to produce enough energy to ignite the air-fuel mixture. b) Because, at high engine speeds, a fat spark is needed to extract maximum power from the air-fuel mixture. c) In order to overcome the problem of spark-retard during starting. d) AII of the above.

42) Aircraft maintenance carried out by a private pilot in accordance with the pilot's legal entitlement: a) Is to be entered in t he aircraft's log book and certified by the pilot who carried out the maintenance. b) Is to be entered in the aircraft's log book and certified by a licensed engineer. c) Need not be logged or recorded. d) Is to be entered in the aircraft's log book and certified by a CAD approved inspector.

43) Carbon monoxide gas, which is highly toxic, may enter the aeroplane cabin in flight because of an exhaust system defect. Carbon Monoxide: a) Is odourless and colourless. b) May be identified by its strong smell. c) May be identified by its grey colour. d) Has a very distinctive taste.

44) Blade angle from the hub to the tip of a propeller blade in order to maintain an optimal from hub to tip. a) Decreases Angle of Attack. b) Increases Angle of Attack. c) Decreases Geometric Pitch.


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PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge d) Increases Effective Pitch.

45) A Direction Indicator:a) Suffers from apparent drift of the gyro from the fixed position in space to which it was aligned, produced by Earth rotation. b) Is badly affected by acceleration in a turn. c) Is not affected by drift produced from mechanical friction in the gyro gimbal bearings. d) Provides a stable reference in azimuth and elevati on for maintaining accurate headings and pitch attitudes.

46) As a) b) c) d)

you climb altitude and density Increases / Decreases / Decreases Increases / Decreases / Increases Decreases / Increases / Decreases Increases / Decreases / Decreases

and, therefore, the mixture will be

47) The power output of a four-stroke piston engine at sea level: a) Increases as rpm increases. mix ture induced into the cylinder. b) Is proportional to the volume of mixture c) Is constant as rpm increases. d) Increases initially, then remains constant as rpm increases.

48) As an aircraft with a variable-pitch, constant-speed propelle r accelerates along the runway: a) The blade pitch angle increases, maintaining a constant angle of attack and R.P.M. b) The angle of attack will decrease and the engine R.P. M. remain constant. c) The angle of attack will remain constant and the engine R.P.M. will increase. d) The linear velocity of the propeller tip will gradually decrease.

49) The diagram shows a light aircraft electrical power system, which employs a centre-zero reading ammeter. (See Fig.PPL AKG-3) In flight with the battery fully charged and the batte ry switch ON, you would expect the ammeter to be: be: a) In the centre-zero position. b) To the right showing a large positive reading. c) To the left showing a negative reading. d) Fluctuating, but mainly showing a negative reading. PPL AKG-3.jpg 50) A flying control lock:a) Is used to lock the controls on the ground to prevent damage in high wind conditions. b) Will constrain the control column to its des ign limits so as not to overstress the airframe during normal operations. c) Must always be used when flying in gusty conditions. d) Is only necessary on the elevators.


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51) The type of gas which is stored in the activating cylinder of a life jacket:a) Is Carbon Dioxide. b) Is extremely toxic and great care should be taken, when topping up the lifejacket, not to breathe any of it in. c) Is highly inflammable. d) Is Carbon Monoxide.

52) If a fire occurs in a wheel and tyre assembly and immediate action is required to extinguish it, the safest extinguishant to use is: a) Dry powder. b) Carbon dioxide (CO?). c) Bromotrifluoromethane (BTF). d) Water acid.

tie d gyro: gyro: 53) A tied a) Has its axis in the horizontal or yawing plane of the aircraft. b) Does not suffer from apparent wander (drift) because of rotation of t he earth about its axis. c) Has its axis in the vertical or pitching plane of the aircraft. Directi on Indicator because of the apparent wander caused by the d) Cannot be used in a Direction rotation of the earth about its axis.

54) When referring to the magnetic compass, piiots must bear in mind that: a) Turning errors are maximum when turning through North and South, and minimum when turning through East and West. b) Turning errors are maximum when turning through East and West, and minimum when turning through North and South. c) Turning errors increase, the nearer the aircraft is to the Magnetic Equator, and diminish as the aircraft approaches the Magnetic Poles. d) Acceleration errors increase the nearer the aircraft is to the Magnetic Poles, and diminish as the aircraft approaches the Magnetic Equator.

55) After starting a cold engine, if the oil pressure gauge does not indicate within approximately 30 seconds: a) The engine must be stopped immediately. b) The engine rpm should be increased and then the oil pressure re-checked. c) This may be ignored, provided that the oil l evel was checked to be sufficient before startup. d) This may be ignored if the oil temperature is high, provided that the oil level was checked to be sufficient before start-up.

56) Tyre creep may be identified by:


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PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge a) b) c) d)

Alignment marks painted on o n the tyre sidewall and wheel flange. Two yellow diametrically opposed arrows painted on the tyre sidewalls. A tyre pressure check. Two white blocks painted on the wheel flange.

57) The exhaust gas temperature gauge:a) Can indicate whether the air-fuel mixture being drawn into the combustion chamber is too lean or too rich. from excessive heat. b) Is an engine instrument designed to protect the engine from c) Does the same job as the cylinder head temperature gauge. d) Requires power from the D. C. bus-bar.

58) The correct working cycle of a four stroke engine is:a) Induction, compression, power, exhaust. b) Exhaust power induction, compression. c) Induction, power, compression, exhaust. d) Exhaust, induction, power, compression.

59) Flying an aircraft with a flat battery, having st arted the engine using a ground source, is: a) Not recommended because the battery may not charge correctly during flight. b) Acceptable because the battery will be fully charged again before take-off. i s never required in flight. c) Acceptable because the battery is d) Not recommended because the electrical loads will not be energised.

60) Itis important to ensure the priming pump is locked after use because: a) It may cause fuel to be sucked from the fuel strainer i nto the inlet manifold, causing an extremely rich mixture. b) It may cause a fuel leak, resulting i n an increased fire risk. c) It may cause fuel to be sucked from the fuel tank into the carburettor, causing an extremely rich mixture. d) If it vibrates closed, it will cause the engine to stop.

61) What will be the consequence for the validity of an aircraft's Certificate of Airworthiness (C of if the aircraft is not maintained in accordance with the approved maintenance s chedule detailed in the C of A? a) The C of A will be rendered invalid until such time as the required maintenance is completed. CA A for an exemption from the required maintenance b) The aircraft owner must apply to the CAA schedule. renew ed before the aircraft may fly. c) The C of A must be renewed w ill not be affected. d) The validity of the C of A will


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PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge 62) The temperature of the gases within the cylinder of a four stroke engine during the power stroke will:a) Increase. b) Decrease. c) Follow Charles's Law. d) Remain constant.

63) The crankshaft in a piston engine: a) Converts reciprocating movement into rotary motion. b) Controls the clearance of the valves. c) Converts rotary motion into reciprocating movement. d) Rotates at half the camshaft speed.

64) Baffles:a) Are directional air guides which direct the airflow fully around the cylinder. b) Are placed within the lubrication system to slow down the passage of oil into the engine. engi ne. c) Reduce the flow of air around the engine. d) Must be close fitting to reduce the flow of air around the engine.

65) Pre-ignition: a) Is usually caused by a hot spot in the combustion chamber. b) Is also known as pinking. c) Occurs after ignition. d) Happens after the spark occurs at the plug.

66) If is best to run the engine with the mixture: hel ps cool the engine. a) Slightly rich, as the remaining fuel helps b) Chemically correct as this is most efficient remaini ng air helps cool the engine. c) Slightly rich, as the remaining d) Slightly weak, as the remaining air helps cool the engine.

67) The compression ratio of a piston engine is the ratio of the: cyl inder volume when the piston is at a) Cylinder volume when the piston is at BDC to the cylinder TDC. b) Total cylinder volume to the volume when the piston is at bottom dead centre (BDC). c) Total cylinder volume to swept volume. d) Swept volume to clearance volume.

68) Detonation is: a) Unstable combustion. b) An explosion that occurs before the normal ignition point. c) Usually associated with a rich mixture and high cylinder head temperature. wit h a weak mixture and a low cylinder head temperature. d) Usually associated with


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69) If the power supply to the pitot heater failed during flight in icing conditions and the aircraft subsequently descended, the readings on the Alti meter, the VSI and theASI would, if ice had blocked the pitot (Total Pressure) tube:Altimeter VSI ASI a) Read Correctly / Read Correctly / Under-read b) Read Correctly / Under-read / Over-read c) Under-read / Read Correctly / Over-read d) Read Correctly / Read Correctly / Over-read

70) The cylinder head temperature gauge:a) Obtains its temperature information from the hottest engine cyli nder, by means of a probe consisting of two dissimilar metals joined together. b) Is primarily a fuel management instrument. c) Requires alternating current to power the instrument needle. d) Obtains its information from a probe which is installe d about four inches from the cylinder head on the exhaust system.

71) In icing conditions, if a static vent became blocked during level flight and the aircraft subsequently climbed, the readings on the Al timeter, the VSI and theASI would:Altimeter VSI ASI a) Remain unchanged / Remain unchanged / Under-read b) Remain unchanged / Under-read / Over-read c) Under-read / Remain unchanged / Over-read d) Over-read / Over-read / Under-read

72) The most probable cause of the needle of the oil pressure gauge fluctuating when the aircraft is in level flight with the engine running at cruise rpm is: a) A low oil supply. b) The presence of air in the oil tank. c) A loose electrical connection. d) The low power setting.

ai rcraft have fixed undercarriages is that: 73) The principal reason why light training aircraft a) The reduced performance caused by the additional drag of a fixed undercarriage is offset by its simplicity, low cost and easy maintenance. b) Training aircraft need to manoeuvre on the ground. t hat kinetic energy on landing is absorbed. c) Training aircraft need to ensure that s upported at a convenient height d) Training aircraft need to be supported

74) In the aircraft tanks, fuel is most likely to be contaminated by water from: a) Atmospheric air remaining in the tanks. b) Poorly fitting fuel caps.


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PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge c) Contamination during re-fuelling. d) Leaks in the tanks that have let in rain.

75) The oil temperature gauge in the cockpit is connected to a temperature probe that senses the temperature of the oil: a) After it passes through the oil cooler but before it reaches the hot sections of the engine. b) Within the hot sections of the engine. c) Before it passes through the oil cooler. d) In the sump of the engine.

76) An altimeter:a) Contains an aneroid capsule connected to a static pressure source. The capsule contracts during a descent b) Contains a barometric capsule, connected to a total pressure source, that contracts during a descent. c) Contains a barometric capsule that expands during a descent d) Contains a partially evacuated capsule that expands during a descent.

77) An accelerator pump is used to prevent a "flat spot". A "flat spot" is: o pened quickly and the demand for fuel cannot be met immediately. a) When the throttle is opened cl osed quickly and the engine is starved of fuel. b) When the throttle is closed o pened quickly and the mixture becomes temporarily too rich, c) When the throttle is opened cl osed and the mixture becomes temporarily too rich. d) d)j When the throttle is closed

5 0% within a 78) If is possible to get carburettor icing when the relat ive humidity is greater than 50% temperature range of: a) -7 to +33°C. b) 0°C and below. c) -20to+10°C. d) At any temperature.

79) If a fuse blows during flight it: a) May be replaced in the air once only, by one of the same value. l anding. b) Should not be replaced until after landing. c) May be replaced by a fuse of a higher rating to ensure that it will not blow again. d) May be replaced as often as required.

80) Most nose wheels on modern light aircraft are: a) Oleo pneumatic shock-absorber struts. b) Spring steel struts. c) Spring coil struts. d) Compressed rubber struts.


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81) If, while an aircraft is descending, the static vent leading to the Vertical Speed Indicator becomes blocked, the indicator will: a) Show a zero reading, after a short delay. b) Continue to show the same reading. c) Indicate a climb. d) Indicate a descent.

82) When an aircraft is in flight, the pressure sensed by the forward facing hole in the pitot tube is: a) Dynamic pressure plus static pressure. b) Static pressure only. c) Total pressure plus dynamic pressure. d) Dynamic pressure only.

83) Which of the following will increase the angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller blade? a) Decreased TAS and increased RPM. b) Increased TAS and increased RPM. c) Increased TAS and decreased RPM. d) Decreased TAS and decreased RPM.

84) The gyro in an artificial horizon is: a) An earth gyro rotating in a horizontal plane about a vertical axis. b) An earth gyro rotating in a vertical plane about the aircraft's lateral axis. verti cal plane about the aircraft's longitudinal axis. c) An earth gyro rotating in a vertical n a horizontal plane about the aircraft's longitudinal axis. d) A tied gyro rotating iin

85) On a fixed pitch propeller aircraft whose engine is fi tted with a carburettor, the of induction system icing are: a) A gradual drop in rpm and possible rough running and vibration. b) A sudden drop in rpm and engine temperature. c) A rise in manifold pressure and a reduction in air-speed, in le vel flight. d) A rise in engine oil temperature and a fall in oil pressure.

86) The main advantage of an alternator over a generator is that:a) An alternator will give almost full power at engine idling speed. b) A generator can only produce alternating current. c) The output of a generator fluctuates too much. d) An alternator produces direct current from its armature.

87) As air enters the restriction of a Venturi, velocity temperature . a) Increases Decreases Decreases b) Increases Increases Increases

, static or ambient pressure


and

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PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge c) Decreases Increases Decreases d) Decreases Decreases Increases

88) Which instruments are usually powered by a vacuum pump system? (1) Direction Indicator (2) Turn Coordinator (3) Attitude Indicator (4) Altimeter (5) Magnetic Compass. a) (1) and (3). b) (1) and (2). c) (1), (3) and (4). d) (1), (3) and (5).

89) Detonation is: a) Harmful to the pistons. b) Also known as 'piston slap'. c) Part of normal engine running. d) Cannot be identified externally.

90) The distributor arm rotates at: a) A half engine speed. b) One quarter engine speed. c) Engine speed. d) Twice engine speed.

91) A Direction Indicator may be aligned with the magnetic compass:a) By using the caging knob to rotate the Dl azimuth card when the wings are level. di p. b) To minimise the effect of magnetic dip. c) Periodically, to offset the affect of acceleration during a turn. d) Because of the effect of liquid swirl.

92) Where, in an aircraft-engine fuel system, is the electric fuel-boost pump normally fitted? a) At the lowest point of the fuel tank. b) Immediately adjacent to the mechanical fuel pump. c) Between the mechanical fuel pump and the carburettor.

93) A magnetic heading:a) Is the sum of the compass heading and compass deviation. b) Is the sum of the compass heading, compass deviation and variation. c) Is not affected by turning errors. d) Is always referenced to True North.


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94) The prevention of excessive oil pressure in an aircraft engine is assured by: a) The engine's oil pressure relief valve. b) Ensuring that the engine does not exceed the red-line rpm value. c) The engine's high capacity pressure pump. d) The engine's filter by-pass valve.

95) How soon after starting a cold aircraft engine should the oil pressure gauge give an indication? a) Within 30 seconds; otherwise shut down the engine. b) Immediately; otherwise shut down the engine. c) By the time pre-flight checks are complete; otherwise shut down the engine. d) As long as the oil levels were at an adequate level before start-up, and RPM is within li mits, it is probable that the oil pressure gauge is faulty and should be reported after the flig ht.

96) If the gyro of a turn indicator runs at a l ower rpm than its design specification, how will the actual rate of turn of the aircraft compare to the rate of t urn shown on the turn indicator? a) The actual rate of turn of the aircraft will be greater than the rate indicated. b) The actual rate of turn of the aircraft will be same as the rate indicated. c) The actual rate of turn of the aircraft will be less than the rate indicated. d) The turn indicator will not indicate a rate of turn.

e ngine:97) To work at its highest efficiency, the engine:a) Needs to be at the highest temperature consistent with safe operation. b) Oil system must constantly be supplied with hot oil. c) Must be used at high altitude to take advantage of the cooling effect of the atmosphere. consi stent with safe operation. d) Needs to be at the lowest temperature consistent

98) On your instrument panel, the suction gauge is showing system failure. Howeve r, the gyrodriven instruments appear to be functioning normally, and the Low Vacuum Warning Light is off. Where do you think the problem lies? a) In the suction gauge. b) In the suction system. c) With the Low Vacuum Warning Light. d) In the gyro driven instruments.

99) When a compass swing is being carried out: a) The aircraft's heading compass reading is compared with readings from a 'land or datum' compass. b) It can be carried out on any part of the airfield which is dry and flat. c) It will enable the aircraft's variation to be determined.


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PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge 100) a) b) c) d)

What part(s) of a reciprocating aircraft engine seal(s) the combustion chamber? The cylinder rings and valves. The cylinder gasket. The spark plugs. The camshaft.

101) a) b) c) d)

The piston rod in a reciprocating engine engi ne forms a link between The cylinder piston and the crankshaft. The cylinder piston and the camshaft. The valve rod and the rocker arm. The rocker arm and the valve body.

102) a) b) c) d)

What part in a reciprocating four-stroke engine operates the piston val ves? The camshaft. The piston rod. The piston bolt. The diffusor valve.

103) a) b) c) d)

The purpose of fins around the cylinder of a reciprocating air-cooled aircraft engine is a Better cylinder cooling. Cylinder augmentation. Lower engine aerodynamic drag. Lower engine mass.

104) of a) b) c) d)

The power of an aviation engine without a supercharger decreases with altitude because

105) a) b) c) d)

A reciprocating aviation engine develops the hi ghest power In level flight at low altitude. At high altitudes. During takeoff with full RPM. During takeoff.

106) a) b) c) d)

Oil in a reciprocating engine serves For lubricating and cooling of the engine. To increase mixture combustion temperature in the cylinders. As additive for proper fuel/air which burns in the cylinders. For quiet engine operating only.

Lower air density and therefore insufficient cylinder loading. Lower outside temperatures it does not operate at optimum temperature. Higher air density it receives too poor fuel/air mixture. Lower air density it receives too rich fuel/air mixture.


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107) a) b) c) d)

What would be the most likely cause of fluctuating oil pressure in an aircraft engine? Low oil oi l level. Worn or loose bearing. Loose prop seal. Faulty oil pressure indicator.

108) a) b) c) d)

When the engine is stopped, the main source of electrical power is the Battery. Magneto. Generator or alternator. Circuit breaker.

109) a) b) c) d)

For exciting of the alternator an initial ele ctrical current is needed, provided by the Battery. Magneto. Ignition coil. Current distributor.

110) a) b) c) d)

Can the alternator of an aircraft engine operate without the battery? No, in no case. Yes, provided the magnetos operate properly. Yes, however at high RPM only. Yes, provided the pilot has switched swit ched off all electrical services on board.

111) a) b) c) d)

To which source of electrical power is the starter of an aircraft engine connected t o? Directly to the battery. To the external source of electrical power only. To the alternator or generator. Depends on the type of aircraft.

112) The battery master switch should be turned to OFF after the engine is stopped to avoid the battery discharging through the a) Ignition switch. b) Magnetos. c) Alternator or generator. d) Electrical services connected to it.

113) a) b) c)

One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for Improved engine performance. Balanced cylinder head pressure. Uniform heat distribution.


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114) a) b) c) d)

What would be the result of a single magneto fail ure on an aircraft in cruise flight? A slight drop in RPM, plus a slight increase i n fuel consumption. The engine would be difficult to control. The engine would backfire excessively. Black smoke would be observed from the t he exhaust.

115) Can an engine of a parked modern reciprocating aircraft fire if somebody turns the propeller by hand? a) Yes, provided the master switch is on. b) Normally not if the engine is cold with ignition switched off. c) No, under no circumstances. d) Yes, always.

116) a) b) c)

The operating principle of float-type carburettors is based on the Increase in air velocity in the t he throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure. Automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude. Difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.

117) a) b) c)

A carburettor is used to supply A fuel/air mixture to the engine cylinders. Air to the engine cylinders. Fuel to the engine cylinders.

118) a) b) c) d)

An engine that does not have a carburettor but rather metered fuel that is fed under pressure into the induction manifold, is said to have Fuel injection. Supercharging. Metering carburettor.

119) The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to a) Decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density. b) Decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for increased air density. mi xture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and c) Increase the amount of fuel in the mixture d) Density of the air.

120) What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburettor heat is applied? a) The fuel/air mixture becomes richer. b) A decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture.


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PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge c) The fuel/air mixture becomes leaner.

121) While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture? a) The fuel/air mixture may become excessively l ean. cyli nders than is needed for normal combustion, and the b) There will be more fuel in the cylinders excess fuel will absorb heat and cool the engine. c) The excessively rich mixture will create higher cylinder head temperatures and may cause detonation.

122) If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-t ype carburettor, the first indication of carburettor ice would most likely be a) Loss of RPM. b) Engine roughness. c) A drop in oil temperature and cylinder head temperature.

123) Carburettor ice has formed in the venturi of your carburettor and your aircraft starts l osing power. Will the use of carburettor heat result in immediate i ncrease in RPM? a) No, in a fixed-pitch propeller aircraft there will first be some rough running and a further i ngested by the engine. Then RPM will increase. b) Loss of RPM as the melted ice is ingested c) Yes, since the carburettor ice will melt immediately. mel ts the ice and does not affect RPM. d) No, since carburettor heat simply melts

124) What is the purpose of an auxiliary fuel boost pump installed in some light aircraft? a) Providing fuel to the carburettor during start-up and supplying fuel if the engine driven fuel pump fails. b) Faster emptying of fuel tanks. c) Pre-injection of fuel into engine cylinders. d) Increasing engine efficiency.

125) a) b) c) d)

Proper functioning of an auxiliary fuel pump could be checked by The alternator output. The fuel pressure. The characteristic noise. A fuel dropping out of the drain hole.

126) a) b) c)

Why do high compression engines require fuels of a higher grade? To avoid detonation and resulting destruction dest ruction of the engine. To develop more power. To prevent carburettor icing at high speeds.


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PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge d) To avoid pre-ignition and resulting destruction of the engine.

127) On a reciprocating aviation engine, what is controlled by the exhaust temperature gauge (EGT)? a) Quality of the fuel/air mixture. b) Carburettor icing. c) Oil pressure. d) Oil consumption.

128) An abnormally high oil temperature indication i n case of a four-stroke engine may be caused by a) The oil level being too low. b) Operating with a too high viscosity oil. c) Excessively rich mixture. d) The oil level being too high.

129) a) b) c)

For internal cooling, a reciprocating aircraft engine especi ally depends on The air flowing over the exhaust manifold. The circulation of lubricating oil. A properly functioning thermostat.

130) a) b) c) d)

As the throttle is advanced, what happens to the constant-speed propeller of an aircraft? Angle of attack will increase. Angle of attack will not change. RPM will increase. Angle of attack will decrease.

131) a) b) c)

In what flight condition is a torque effect the greatest in a single-engine airplane? Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack. High airspeed, high power, high angle of attack. Low airspeed, low power, low angle of attack.

132) Which adverse effect, caused by a gyroscopic effect, will a pilot experience during the takeoff roll while lifting a tail off the ground? a) Banking tendency. b) Pitching. c) Yawing. 133) What is the function of a shimmy dumper on an aircraft undercarriage? a) To prevent nose wheel vibrations.


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PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge b) To dumpen bouncing. c) To decrease main leg piston travel. d) To decrease shocks on direction pedals.

134) a) b) c) d)

Which instrument(s) is (are) connected to the total pressure? Airspeed indicator only. Airspeed indicator, classic rate-of-climb indicator, and altimete r. Classic vertical speed indicator and altimeter. Classic vertical speed indicator only.

135) a) b) c) d)

Besides the altimeter, which whic h instruments are connected to the static pressure line? Airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, i ndicator, and turn-and-skid indicator. Airspeed indicator only. Airspeed indicator and external temperature indicator. Airspeed indicator and vertical speed indicator.

136) What causes the true airspeed of an airplane t o differ from its indicated airspeed? a) The forward wind component. b) Pitot error caused by flow losses in the pitot tube. i n cruise flight. c) Yaw error caused by the yawing movement in d) Variations in temperature and air density. (see Figure 8)

l imitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators on 137) Which is an important airspeed limitation any one aircraft or glider? a) Maneuvering speed (VA). b) Maximum structural cruising speed (VMO). c) Never-exceed speed (VNE). d) Maximum speed with wing flaps extended (VFE).

138) a) b) c) d)

The maximum speed for flaps extension is equal to the maximum speed for flying with flaps extended. lower than the maximum speed for flying fl ying with flaps extended. equal to the maximum cruising speed. equal to the maneuvering speed.

139) a) b) c) d)

What does the green color band on the airspeed indicator of an aircraft indicate? Normal operating speed range. Dangerous area. The landing gear and flaps operating speed range. Maximum allowed speed.


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PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge 140) a) b) c) d)

What does the red line on an aviation instrument generally represent? Maximal or minimal allowed value. Dangerous area. Landing gear operating speed range. Normal operating range.

141) a) b) c) d)

The red line on an airspeed indicator of a sport aircraft represents the speed which must not be exceeded any time. ti me. maximum speed for abrupt controls movement. speed which could be exceeded in calm air only. speed which could be exceeded with the wing flaps raised and the landing gear retracted.

142) The barometric pressure scale on an aircraft alti meter serves for a) setting of pressure value at the pressure level, from which will the altimeter measure altitudes. b) air pressure reading at flight altitude. c) pressure difference reading between the air pressure at the airport level and the air pressure at the sea level. altimet er during the annual inspection in a service facility. d) exact setting of the altimeter

143) a) b) c) d)

If set to QNH, Q NH, what will be aircraft altimeter alti meter reading reading after landing? Airfield height above the mean sea level. Zero. Airfield height above the pressure plane 1013,2 hPa. Airfield pressure altitude above the standard s tandard value.

144) a) b) c) d)

What height does the altimeter indicate if set to l ocal QNH? Height above sea level. Height above airport. Height above terrain. Flight level.

145) a) b) c) d)

Which altitudes indicates an aircraft altimeter if set t o standard atmospheric pressure? Flight levels. Absolute altitudes. Relative altitudes. True altitudes above the ground surface.

t o set QNH during 146) What would be the indication of an aircraft altimeter if the pilot fails to descent, and therefore lives the instrument i nstrument set to the standard pressure? hPa. a) The airport heigh above the pressure plane 1013.2 hPa. b) Zero. c) The airport elevation.


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PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge d) The indication is not usable.

147) a) b) c)

If a pilot changes the altimeter setting to a lower pressure, the altitude indication will decrease. stay unchanged. increase.

148) a) b) c) d)

When set to QFE pressure, an altimeter will indicate the height above the airfield. altitude above sea level. true altitude above ground surface. flight level.

149) a) b) c) d)

If an altimeter is set to QFE pressure, the instrument indication after landing will be zero. the airfield elevation. the airfield height above the pressure plain 1013.2 hPa. the airfield pressure height above the standard value.

150) If a flight is made f rom an area of high pressure into an area of low pressure wi thout the altimeter setting being adjusted, the aircraft true altitude a) decreases. b) increases. c) stays unchanged.


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APPENDEX:

Slika PPL AKG-1 AKG-1



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Subject:

PPL(A) – Flight Performance & Planning

PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning

Review questions: 1) Maximum Landing Mass (MLM) is best define d as. a) Maximum permissible total mass on landing under normal operating conditions. b) Maximum permissible total mass on landing. c) Maximum permissible total mass on the approach to land. d) Maximum permissible total mass on taxiing to park.

2) What V speed is it important not to exceed if sudden full-pitch, nose-up, control movements are planned, and an d why? a) VA, sudden control movements can cause structural damage. b) VD, sudden control movements can cause a departure from co ntrolled flight. c) VNE, sudden control movements can cause structural damage. d) VFB, sudden control movements can cause a departure from controll ed flight.

3) What is the colour of the caution speed range on an Air Speed Indicator, and what must the pilot be mindful of when operating in this range? a) Yellow. - This speed range should not be entered unless the air is smooth. Any manoeuvres should be made using small and gentle control inputs. b) Green. - Stalls, airframe deform ations, and/or structural damage may occur in this range if the pilot uses abrupt and full control deflections. c) Yellow - Stalls, causing airframe defor mations, and/or structural damage may occur in this range if the pilot uses abrupt and full control deflections. d) Green. - Control flutter may occur if turbulence is encountered.

4) What name is given to the load at whic h the aircraft structure will fail? a) Ultimate Load. b) Safety Factor Load. c) Limit Load. d) Maximum Load.

5) An aircraft which has been grossly overloaded will: 1.require increased take-off and landing distances. 2. Have a higher stalling speed. 3. Have a reduced maximum level flight speed. 4. Have increased range and endurance. 5. Have a reduced rate of climb and operating ceiling. Which of the above are correct? a) 1, 2, 3, & 5. b) 1, 2, 4 & 5. c) 2, 4 & 5. d) 1, 2, 3 & 4

2 / 32 Latest information about the exam can c an be found at www.tafa.aero

PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 6) Maximum Zero Fuel Mass (MZFM) is best de fined as. a) Maximum permissible mass of the aircraft with no useabl e fuel. b) Maximum permissible mass of the aircraft with no passenge rs or fuel. c) Maximum permissible mass of the aircraft with no c rew or fuel. d) Maximum permissible mass of the aircraft without occupants and baggage.

7) Maximum Take Of Mass (MTOM) ( MTOM) is defined best as: a) Maximum permissible total mass at the start of the take o ff run. b) Maximum permissible total mass prior to taxiing. c) Maximum permissible total mass prior to take off. d) Maximum permissible total mass at the point of rotation.

8) Which of the following situations may, under certain conditions, result in structural damage occurring ? a) An aircraft being flown above its maximu m all up mass. b) An aircraft in the utility category being flown at its maximum permissible mass. c) An aircraft being flown above its maximum landing mass. d) An aircraft in the normal category being flown at its maximum permissible mass.

9) Never exceed speed (VNE) is the red radial line on the ASI an d marks the speed at which: a) Flight is permitted in smooth conditions only. b) Prolonged fligh t is unsafe. c) Flight is prohibited. d) Structural damage will occur.

10) When flying in very rough air what is the maximu m speed to be adopted in order to avoid overstressing the airframe? a) VRA or VA b) VD or V NO c) VNO or VFE d) VD or V A

11) Your aircraft has an oil reservoir with a capacity of 3 imp/gal which is positioned 20 inches aft of the datum. Given that the oil weighs 9.1 lbs/gal, the rese rvoir will possess a moment of:a) 546 lb in. b) 60 lb in. c) 27.3 lb in. d) 182 lb in.

12) Assuming the aircraft is at rest on the groun d, what term best describes im age 'D'? (See fig. PPL FPP-2) a) Maximum All Up Mass. b) Zero Fuel Mass. c) Traffic Load. d) Empty Mass.


PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 13) An aircraft is loaded such that its C of G is on the aft limit:I The stalling speed decreases, whic h is a negative factor. II Range and endurance decrease, which are negative factors. III The stall risk increases, which is a neg ative factor. IV Stick forces increase, which is a negative factor. a) Only II and III are correct. b) All of the above are correct. c) Only I and I V are correct. d) Only II and IV are correct.

14) Certification requirements stipulate that when lo ading a light aircraft: a) The C of G should remain within the defined limits and the Maximum Take-off Mass must not be exceeded. b) All seats, baggage compartments com partments and fuel tanks are conta ined within the C of G limits so that it is impossible to load the aircraft beyond its limits. c) With maximum traffic load and full fuel the aircraft will not excee d the authorised Maximum Take off Mass. d) That the Maximum Take-off Mass is not exceeded, and the CofG remains at least 5% inside the C of G limits.

15) The Maximum Take-o ff Mass of an aircraft may be limited by:a) Structural design load limits and or runway length, altitude and temperature. b) The authorised performanc e category of the aircraft, i.e. Utility / normal / aerobatic. c) The airworthiness condition of the aircraft. d) All of the above.

16) DOM (Dry Operating Mass) is defined as: a) The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation including crew, crew baggage and special equipment but excluding us eable fuel and traffic load. b) The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation including: crew and crew baggage, catering and removable passenger service equipment and fuel. c) The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation including: crew and crew baggage, catering and removable passenger service equipment and traffic load. d) The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation including: crew and crew baggage, catering and removable passenger service equipment, traffic load and fuel.

17) An aircraft loaded in a dang erous manner, so th at its C of G is beyond its forward limit will: a) Have both an increased longitudinal stability and stalling spee d. b) Require less effort to flare when landing. c) Require less effort to rotate on take o ff. d) Have both an increased range and endurance.

18) The flight characteristics of an aircr aft which has its C of G at the forward limit will be:a) Insensitivity to Pitch Control and great Longitudinal Stability. b) Insensitivity to Pitch Control and little Longitudinal Stability. c) Sensitivity to Pitch Control and little Longitudinal Stability. d) Sensitivity to Pitch Control and great Longitudinal Stability.


PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 19) An aircraft weighing 2000 lbs with a total CofG moment of + 169400 lb in uplifts 440 lbs of fuel. If the effective arm of the fuel is 88.5 inches aft of the datum, wha t will be the aircraft's new mass and C of G moment? a) 2440 lbs +208340 lb in. b) 1560 lbs +208340 lb in. c) 2440 lbs +169488.5 lb in. d) 1560 lbs +169488.5 lb in.

20) You plan to carry your aircraft's maximum permissible 'Traffic Load'. Your principal co nsideration during your flight planning will be that:a) Your fuel load may have to be limited to prevent you exceeding the Maximum All Up Weight / Mass. b) It is mandatory to carry a full fuel load when carrying pass engers. c) The fuel load is accounted for in 'Traffic Load' calculations. d) The 'Traffic Load' may have to be reduced to allow for the full fuel load.

21) Traffic Load':a) Is the total mass of passengers, baggage and fr eight. b) Includes drinkable water and lavatory chemicals. c) Is the total mass of passengers, bagg age and freight and fuel. d) Includes the Basic Empty Mass.

22) The consequences of operating an aeroplane with the C of G beyond the aft limit will be:I On the ground the aircraft would be tail heavy and passenger or crew movement or fuel usage could make it tip up. II The flying controls would be too se nsitive increasing the risk of a tail strike at rotation. III The tendency to stall would increase and it may be impossible to achieve "hands off" balanced flight. IV Recovery from a spin would be muc h more difficult. a) All statements are correct. b) Only statement I is correct. c) Only statements I and IV are correct. d) Only statements II and III are correct.

23) Assuming the aircraft is at rest on the grou nd, what term best describes im age A'? (See fig. PPL FPP-2) a) Zero Fuel Mass. b) Take Off Mass. c) Maximum All Up Mass. d) Empty Mass. PPL FPP-2.jpg 24) In which Category. Utility or Normal, would you expect to operate the aircraft represented in the attached CofG /Moment Envelope if its mass is 2100 lbs and its CofG Moment 90,000 lb inches? (See fig. PPL FPP-7) a) Normal. b) Utility. c) Both. d) Neither.


PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 25) What is used as the aircraft reference for the C of G limit, and upon which axis is that limit found? Axis Reference a) Longitudinal Datum b) Normal Spinner c) Lateral Tail Wheels d) Vertical

26) C of G limits are set by the manufacturer and: a) Are mandatory. b) Have only a forward limit. g uide only. c) Are a guide d) Have only an aft limit

27) Your aircraft has:A Take-off Mass of = 2353 tbs A calculated C of G for departure = 89.75 inches aft of the datum An estimated fuel burn = 200 lbs with a C of G 85.00 inches aft of datum. The position of the C of G on landing will be? a) 90.19 inches aft of the datum. b) 82.52 inches aft of the datum. c) 105.98 inches aft of the datum. d) 96.97 inches aft of the datum.

28 h 2e 8)CT )CTentr en tre e of Gravity of Gravity range of most of most aircraft reduces as the aircraft mass increases, as a result of:a) The forward C of G limit moving rearwards to reduc e stability. b) The aft C of G limit moving forward to incr ease stability. c) The aft C of G limit moving rearwards to e xtend the static margin. d) The static margin moving forward to reduce mano euvrability.

29) When calculating the MZFM (maximum zero fuel mass), the following are inclu ded:a) Crew, Passengers, Baggage & Catering. b) Crew, Passengers & Baggage. c) Crew, Passengers, Baggage, Catering & Fuel. d) Drinkable water and lavatory chemicals.

30) What effect will a higher aircraft mass have on rotate speed and take-off safety speed? a) It will increase both speeds. b) It will decrease both speeds. c) It will increase rotate speed and decrease take off safety speed. d) It will decrease rotate speed and increase take off s afety speed.

31) What is the effect of runway slope on the take-off? a) An uphill slope will increase the take-off distance. b) An uphill slope will increase the take-off performance. c) A downhill slope will increase the take-off distance d) A downhill slope will decrease the take-off performance.


PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 32) That part of a runway surface which is used for normal operations during take-off, excluding any clearway or stopway, is referred to as:a) The take-off run available (TORA). b) The landing distance available (LDA). c) The take-off distance available (TODA). d) The emergency distance available (EMDA).

33) If the density of the atmosphere is reduce d, the take-off distance will be:a) Increased. b) Decreased. c) Unaffected. d) Controlled by wind.

34) If the density of the air is increased above IS A conditions, the effect will be: a) To increase the take-off performance. b) To increase the take-off distance. c) To decrease the take-off performance. d) To decrease just the take-off run.

35) When the density of the atmosphere is relatively low, the resulting reduction in:a) Both lift and engine power will require a longer take-off distanc e. b) Thrust and drag has no apparent effect on the take-off distance required. c) Drag will permit the use of greater flap angles. d) Drag offsets the loss of engine power giving improved acceler ation.

36) The main reason for taking off into wind is to:a) Decrease the ground spee d of the aircraft at lift-off. b) Decrease the take off distance available (TODA). c) Increase the ground speed o f the aircraft. d) Increase the take-off distance.

37) Increasing the aeroplane's gross weight will have what effect on the take-o ff? a) Increase the stall speed and the take-off run req uired. b) Decrease the stall speed and increase the take-off r un required. c) Increase the stall speed and decrease the take-o ff run required. d) Decrease the stall speed and the take-off run re quired.

38) What is the reason for increasing the speed in a prolonged climb:a) To increase the flow of air through the engine and keep it cool. b) To maintain the best rate of climb sp eed. c) To reduce the noise of the aircraft in sensitive areas. d) To maintain the best angle of climb speed.


PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 39) Climbing at Vy will achieve:a) The greatest increase in altitude in a given period o f time. b) The maximum angle of climb. c) The maximum increase in height in the shortest horizontal distance. d) The best obstacle clearance performance.

40) To gain the greatest amount of h eight in the shortest time period the aircraft sho uld be flown at:a) The best rate of climb speed (Vy). b) 60 KT c) The best angle of climb speed (Vx). d) At the speed for maximum endurance.

41) Calculate the rate of climb fo r an aircraft operating at 5000ft with an outside air temperature o f 0°C. (See fig. PPL FPP-8e) a) 530 fpm. b) 585 fpm. c) 475 fpm. d) 470 fpm.

42) Increasing the mass (and, therefore, weigh t) of the aircraft will:a) Decrease the rate and angle of clim b. b) Increase the rate and angle of climb. c) Increase the rate of climb and dec rease the angle of climb. d) Decrease the rate of climb and inc rease the angle of climb.

43) The best rate of climb is achieved:a) When flying at the speed for maximum excess powe r available. b) When flying at the speed for maximum excess thrust available. c) When climbing climbi ng into wind. d) When flying at vx.

44) The indicated air speed for the best rate of climb when climbing to cr uise altitude will tend to:a) Decrease. the n increase. b) Decrease then c) Remain the same. d) Increase.

45) The lift produced by the wing of an aeroplane that is climbing and m aintaining a constant airspeed will be:a) Greater than weight. b) Less than weight. c) Equal to weight. d) Independent of weight.


PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 46) An aircraft cruising at 2000ft is cleared to climb to 8000ft. Calc ulate the time taken in minutes, the fu el used in gallons and the distance flown during the climb. The temperature is standard and the wind is calm. (See fig. PPL FPP-9e) Time (mins) Fuel (gal) Distance (nm) a) 12 2.3 17 b) 15 3.0 21 c) 3 4 0.7 d) 18 3.7 25

4 lim 7)bCing at Vx will achieve:a) The maximum angle of climb. b) The best time to height. c) The greatest increase in altitude in a given period o f time. d) The maximum horizontal distance for a given vertical distance.

48) If the centre of gravity is moved aftwards. The effect is? a) An increased range and endurance. b) A stronger lift-weight couple which requires more tail plane down force. c) A reduced range and endurance. d) A greater tail load.

49) What speed should be flown for maximum range: (See fig. PPL FPP-10e) a) B. b) A. c) C. d) D.

50) What is the maximum range speed fo r a piston engine aircraft? a) VMD b) VMP c) At a higher speed than VNO and at the lowest safe altitude. d) At a speed less than VMD and at the lowest safe altitude.

51) In order to maximise the glide range, the aircraft s hould be flown: a) At low angles of attack at VMD. b) At high angles of attack at VMD. c) At low angles of attack at VMP. d) At a negative angle of attack at VMD.

52) A pilot wishes to fly at a speed which will give him maximum range. He knows that he is flying with a tailwind. How will the speed selected by the pilot co mpare with the maximum range spe ed for still air? a) It will be decreased by a margin slightly less than the amo unt of tailwind. b) It will be increased by a margin slightly less than the amo unt of tailwind. c) It will be the same as for still air. d) It will be decreased by a margin slightly more th an the amount of tailwind.


PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 53) Which of the following cases will result in a reduce d performance and possibly exce ed the structural limitations of the aircraft? a) An aircraft that is operated above its maximum all up weight. b) An aircraft that is stalled at its maximum all up weight. c) An aeroplane that is operated above its maximum all up landing weigh t d) An aircraft with a higher take-off mass than a landing mas s.

54) What is the effect of a headwind on the glide angle and glide distance? a) Glide angle will increase and glide distance decrease. b) Glide angle will remain the same and glide distance will remain the same. c) Glide angle will increase and glide distance increase. d) Glide angle will decrease and glide distance decrease.

55) What speed must be flown to attain the maximum cruise endurance? a) VMP b) VY. c) Maximum speed. d) VMD

56) The maximum glide range will be achieved by:a) a relatively low angle of attack being maintained. b) A relatively high angle of attack being maintained. c) A negative angle of attack being maintained. d) A high descent angle.

57) If weight is increased, the rang e of the aircraft will be: a) Reduced. b) Unchanged. c) Increased. d) Reduced if no increas e in lift is achieved.

58) A wing contaminated by a small amount of ic e will produce:a) More drag, more weight and less lift. b) More weight and more lift. c) An increase in both lift and drag co-efficient. d) An increase in weight and dec rease in drag.

59) When gliding for maximum rang e, an aircraft with a greater weight will:a) Have a faster descent speed but the same descent angle. b) Have a reduced glide range. c) Have a shallower descent angle. d) Have a faster descent speed and a reduced descent distance. 60) What speed must be flown to attain the maximum c ruise range? a) VMD b) VX c) Maximum speed. d) VMP


PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 61) What would be the effect of an increase in tem perature upon the air density and aircraft perform ance? a) Reduced density and reduced aircraft performance. b) Increased density and reduced aircraft performance. c) Increased density and increased aircraft performance. d) Reduced density and an increase in aircraft performance.

62) Compared to gliding in still air, the effec t of a tailwind will:a) Increase the glide range but have no effect on the glide endurance. b) Decrease the glide angle and decrease the rate o f descent c) Have no effect on the glide range or the rate of descent. d) Increase the glide angle and increase the glide range.

63) Which of the speeds indicated by A, B, C or D should be flown for maximum endurance? (See fig. PPL FPP-10e) a) A. b) B. c) C. d) D.

64) During straight and level flight, any increase in lift causin g an imbalance in the equilibrium o f forces is compensated for by: by: a) A downward force on the tailplane. b) An upward force on tailplane. c) An increase i n power. d) A decrease in drag.

65) What is the effect of an increase in mass on the staii speed and landing distance required? a) Increased stall speed and increased landing distance. b) Increased stall speed and decreased landing distance. c) Decreased stall speed and decreased landing distance. d) Decreased stall speed and increased landing distance.

66) When landing, if an aircraft's true air speed is signific antly less than the true ground speed then the aircraft is experiencing: a) A tailwind. b) A headwind. c) A reduced atmospheric density. d) A cross wind.

67) If the approach and landing speed is higher recommended speed in the aircraft manual the effect will be that: a) The landing distance will be increased. b) The landing distance will be decreased, c) The landing performance will improve, d) The landing distance will be unaffected.


PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 68) What effect would a 2% downslop e have on the landing distance required? a) Increase it by 10%. b) Increase it by 5%. c) Decrease it b y 5%. d) Decrease it by 10%.

69) Compared to landing on a level runway, what would be the effect of landing on a downward sloping runway? a) The landing distance will be increased. b) The landing performance will improve. c) The landing distance will be decreased. d) The landing distance will be unaffected.

70) If the stalling speed in the landing confi guration is 55 knots. VREF would be approximately: a) 71kt. b) 65kt. c) 75kt. d) 69 kt.

71) The VREF to be attained by the landing scree n height of 50ft must be: a) 1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration. b) 1.15 times the stalling speed in the take off config uration. c) 1.43 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration. d) 33% of stall speed.

72) If the aircraft mass is increased by 15%, the landing distance required will increase approximately: a) 15% or by a factor o f 1.15 b) 33% or by a factor o f 1.33 c) 10% or by a factor o f 1.1 d) 20% or by a factor o f 1.2

73) Landings are carried out into wind because: a) It will reduce the ground speed and reduc e the landing distance required. b) It increases the ground speed and reduc es the landing distance required. c) It decreases the ground speed and reduces the landi ng distance available d) It gives the pilot greater control over the aircraft at lower spee ds.

74) Determine if the aircraft mass is inside the limits (normal category)! (See fig. PPL FPP-17e) item mass (lb) moment/1000 (lbxin) Empty mass 1,350 51.5 Pilot and front passenger 360 280 Rear passengers 30 US gal. Fuel -0.2 8 qt Oil, a) Inside limits. b) Forward of the forward limit. c) Inside limits, close to the forward limit. d) Aft of the aft limit.


PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 75) What is the maximum amount of fuel that may be aboard the airplane on takeoff if loaded as follows? (See fig. PPL FPP-17e) item mass (lb) moment/1000 (lbxin) Empty mass 1,350 51.5 Pilot and front passenger 340 Rear passengers 310 Baggage 45 Oil, 8 qt -0.2 a) 40 USA gal. b) 24 USA gal. c) 34 USA gal. d) 46 USA gal.

I7V6E)NG: item mass (lb) arm(in) Empty mass 1,495.0 101.4 Pilot and passenger 380.0 64.0 Fuel 30 US gal 96.0 The CG is located how far aft of datum? a) 94.01 in. b) 92.44 in. c) 119.80 in. d) 135.00 in.

moment (lbxin) 151,593.0

7 et7e 7e) rD mine the moment with the following data: (See fig. PPL FPP-17e) item mass (lb) moment/1000 (lbxin) Empty mass 1,350 51.5 Pilot and front passenger 340 Fuel (full std. tanks) Oil, 8 qt -0.2 a) 74.9 lbxin. b) 38.7 lbxin. c) 69.9 lbxin. d) 77.0 lbxin.

h78at)iWsthe maximum maxi mum amoun a mountt of o f baggage bagg age that t hat may m ay be b e loaded loa ded aboard aboa rd the th e normal nor mal catego ca tegory ry airplane airp lane for CG to remain inside proper limits? (See fig. PPL FPP-17e) item mass (lb) moment/1000 (lbxin Empty mass 1,350 51.5 Pilot and front passenger 250 400 Rear passengers 30 US gal. Fuel Baggage

Oil, a) 105 lbs. b) 120 lbs. c) 90 lbs. d) 75 lbs.

8 qt

-0.2


PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 79) The easiest way to determine the pressure altitude is setting an altimeter to a) 1013.2 hPa and reading the altitude. b) The airport elevation and reading the altitude. c) The airport elevation and reading the value in the barometric window. d) Zero and reading the value in the barometric window.

80) Basic reason for calculating the densi ty altitude is determining a) The aircraft performance. press ure altitude. altitude. b) The pressure c) The flight levels above the transition altitude. d) The safe altitude over mountainous terrain.

81) What is pressure altitude? a) The altitude indicated when the barome tric pressure scale is set to 1013.2 hPa. b) The indicated altitude corrected for position and installation error. c) The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure.

82) Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude? a) When standard atmospheric conditions exist. b) When the atmospheric pressure is 1013.2 hPa. c) When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude.

83) Which of the factors belo w increases the density altitude of an airport? a) Increase of temperature. b) Increase of atmospheric pressure. c) Decrease of relative humidity of the air. o f temperature. d) Decrease of

84) Under what condition is indicate d altitude the same as true altitude? a) When at sea level under standard conditions. b) If the altimeter has no mechanical error. c) With the altimeter set at 1013.2 hPa.

85) If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given altitude is lower than standard, the density altitude is a) Higher than pressure altitude. b) Lower than pressure altitude and approximately equal to true altitude. c) Higher than true altitude and lower than pressure altitude. d) Lower than true altitude.

86) What is density altitude? a) The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature. b) The height above the standard datum plane. c) The altitude read directly from the altimeter.



87) Determine approximately density altitude of an airport, where the temperature is standard and an altimeter set to 1011hPa, reads 1,300 ft. a) 1,360 ft. b) 1,240 ft. c) 1,300 ft. d) 1,400 ft.

88) What is increase in density altitude if a temp erature increases from 0 to 10 °C and if the pressure altitude of an airport remains 3,000 ft? a) 1,200 ft. b) 3,000 ft. c) 2,200 ft. d) 2,000 ft.

89) Determine the pressure altitude with an indicated altitude 1,380 ft with an altimeter setting of 1013. 2 hPa at standard temperature. a) 1,380 ft. b) 1,280 ft. c) 1,480 ft. d) 1,580 ft.

90) What is the effect of a tempe rature increase of 12°C on the de nsity altitude? a) 1,440-foot increase. b) 1,650-foot decrease. c) 1,340-foot decrease. d) 1,650-foot increase.

91) Determine the density altitude of an airport for these conditions: QNH 1025 hPa temperature -4°C elevation 3,850 ft a) 2,050 ft. b) 2,900 ft. c) 3,500 ft. d) 3,800 ft.

h92at)iWsthe approxim app roximate ate pressure press ure altitude altitu de if an altimeter altime ter is set to 1010 101 0 hPa hP a and indicates indi cates 1,380 ft? a) 1,470 ft. b) 1,200 ft. c) 1,300 ft. d) 1,400 ft.


PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 93) Determine the density altitude of an airport for these conditions: QNH 1010 hPa temperature 27°C elevation 5,250 ft a) 7,890 ft. b) 4,600 ft. c) 5,875 ft. d) 8,800 ft.

h94e)dTensity altitude could be approximately calculated from the pressure altitude without using a navigation calculator by a) Increasing/decreasing the pressure altitude by 120 ft for each °C deviation above/below the standard temperature. b) Increasing/decreasing the altitude above the sea level for the difference between the standard and actual atmospheric pressure, co nverted into an altitude. c) Increasing the pressure altitude by 4% for each 10°C deviation from the standard temperatu re.

95) Which of the statements below, concerning take-off performance of a powered aircraft regarding the density altitude is correct? At highe r density altitudes a) Aircraft accelerate poorer, because of reduced engi ne and propeller efficiency. b) Aircraft accelerate better, because of re duced drag due to thinner air. c) Aircraft must fly at higher-than-normal indicated airspeed in order to produce eno ugh lift.

96) How does higher air humidity affect aircraft take-off performance? Take-off dist ances are d ue to thinner air. a) Longer due b) Longer due to denser air. air. c) Shorter due t o denser air.

97) Which combination of atmospheric conditions will reduce aircraft takeoff and climb performance? a) High temperature, high relative humidity and high de nsity altitude. b) Low temperature, low relative humid ity and low density altitude. c) High temperature, low relative humidity and low de nsity altitude. d) Low temperature, high relative humidity and high den sity altitude.

98) What influence does the increased mass have on powered aircraft takeoff p erformance? a) At given engine power the aircraft accelerates poorer; the airspeed required for the production of the lift necessary for leaving the ground is greater. b) At given engine power the aircraft accelerates bet ter, however the airspeed required for production of the lift necessary for lift-off remains unchanged. c) Each aircraft at given engine power accelerate equally regardless of the mass, ho wever the airspeed required for overcoming the grou nd effect is greater.

99) What effect does an uphill runway slope have on takeoff performance? a) Increases takeo ff distance. b) Increases takeo ff speed. t akeoff distance. c) Decreases takeoff


PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 100) a) b) c)

What effect does high density altitude have on aircraft performance? It reduces climb performance. It increases engine performance. It increases takeoff performance.

101) a) b) c) d)

The airplane's or powered hang glider's best angle-of-clim b speed (Vx) is used When clearing cle aring an obstacle. When clearing a moving obstacle. When trying to climb without sacrificing cruising speed. When trying to get cruising altitude quickly.

102) Which speed would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff? a) Best angle-of-climb speed (Vx).. b) Best climb speed (VY). c) Maneuvering speed (VA).

103) a) b) c)

The aircraft's rate-of-climb during a steady climb depends on Excess of power. Excess of thrust. Thrust available.

After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of 104) time? a) Best climb speed (VY). b) Best angle-of-climb speed (Vx). c) Maneuvering speed (VA).

105) a) b) c) d)

What is the proper use for the best-rate-of-climb speed (Vy)? When trying to get cruising altitude quickly. When clearing cle aring an obstacle. When approaching high mountains. When trying to avoid an excessive pitch attitude during a climb.

106) a) b) c) d)

What is the influence of the wind o n an aeroplane's rate of climb? No effect. A headwind will increase the rate of climb. A tailwind will decrease the rate of climb. A tailwind will increase the rate of climb.

107) a) b) c) d)

What influence does the wind have on an airplane's angle-of-climb? A headwind will steepen the angle-of-climb. No effect. A headwind will lessen the angle-of-climb. A tailwind will steepen the angle-of-climb.


PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 108) a) b) c)

The aircraft's climb angle during a steady climb dep ends on Excess of thrust. Power available. Thrust required.

At takeoff from a short airfield with an airplane or a powered hang glider, which airspeed should 109) you fly until cleared of obstacles? a) Best angle-of-climb speed (Vx). b) Best climb speed (VY). c) Minimum spe ed (VS). d) Maneuvering speed (VA).

110) During landing on an airport with high elevation the true air spee d (TAS) of an aircraft is higher than normal. What indicated speed (IAS) should be kept in such cases? a) Normal speed. b) Lower than normal. c) Higher than normal. d) Increased for 5 kts for each 1,000 ft o f airport elevation.

111) a) b) c)

Should you use the normal approach speed when approaching to land in gusty wind conditions? No. Add one half the "gust factor" to the calculated approach speed. No. Use 1.2 times stall speed. Yes (go by Operator's Manual).

112) a) b) c)

Maximum structural cruising speed is the maxim um speed at which an airplane can be operated In smooth air. During abr upt maneuvers. At normal norm al operations.

113) a) b) c)

Why should speeds in flight above VNE be avoided? The design limit factor may be exceeded, if gusts are encountered. Excessive induced drag will result in a structural failure. Control effectiveness is so impaired that the aircraft becomes uncontrollable.

114) a) b) c)

Which maximum range factors decreases as weight decreases? Airspeed. Altitude. Angle of attack.

Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed? 115) a) VA. b) VLO. c) VNE.


PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning Maneuvering speed (VA) is the highest speed at which even full abrupt deflectio n of the elevator 116) will not exceed a) Positive limit load factor. b) Load factor 1 g. c) Negative limit load factor. d) Never exceed speed (vne).

117) How will higher altitude affect the cruising indicated airs peed of an aircraft if a throttle remains unchanged? a) It will be lower. b) It will be higher. c) It will stay unchanged.

118) a) b) c)

What does "Best Endurance S peed" for a propeller aircraft mean? Maximum time aloft per unit of fuel (flying with least power). Maximum distance per unit of fuel (flying with le ast drag). Maximum distance between two stops.

Determine the takeoff distance over a 50-foot obstacle under the following conditions: (See fig. PPL 119) FPP-15e) pressure altitude 0 ft temperature standard mass 1900 lb wind calm surface grass, dry a) 1,030 ft. b) 920 ft. c) 950 ft. d) 1,180 ft.

e1t2e0r)mineDthe ground roll distance required for takeoff! (See fig. PPL FPP-15e) pressure altitude 2,000 ft temperature 40°C mass 2100 lb wind tail 4 kt surface tarmac a) 1,120 ft. b) 565 ft. c) 850 ft. d) 935 ft.


PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 121) Determine the takeoff FPP-15e) pressure altitude temperature mass wind surface a) 2,100 ft. b) 1,125 ft. c) 1,210 ft. d) 1,970 ft.

distance over a 50-foot obstacle under the following conditions: (See fig. PPL 4,000 ft 15°C 2300 lb calm asphalt

e1t2e2r)mineDthe takeoff distance distan ce over a 50-fo 5 0-foot ot obstacle obst acle under unde r the t he following follo wing condition cond itions: s: (See fig. fig . PPL FPP-15e) pressure altitude 2,000 ft temperature 30°C mass 2100 lb wind head 18 kt surface grass, dry a) 1,350 ft. b) 1,555 ft. c) 1,565 ft. d) 2,945 ft.

e1t2e3r)mineDthe total distance required to land. (See fig. PPL FPP-16e) pressure altitude 1,000 ft temperature 30°C mass 2300 lb wind head 9 kt surface tarmac a) 1197 ft. b) 1330 ft. c) 565 ft. d) 509 ft.

e1t2e4r)mineDthe ground roll distance after landing. (See fig. PPL FPP-16e) pressure altitude 0 ft temperature 10°C mass 2300 lb wind head 10 kt surface grass, dry a) 739 ft. b) 510 ft. c) 1235 ft. a) 1790 ft.


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PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning Determine the ground roll distance after landing. (S ee fig. PPL FPP-16e) 125) pressure altitude 0 ft temperature 15°C mass 2300 lb wind calm surface tarmac 520 ft. a) b) 510 ft. c) 530 ft. d) 545 ft.

e1t2e6r)mineDthe ground roll distance after landing. (See fig. PPL FPP-16e) pressure altitude 3,000 ft temperature 20°C mass 2200 lb wind calm surface grass, dry a) 855 ft. b) 590 ft. c) 660 ft. d) 685 ft.

e1t2e7r)mineDthe total distance over a 50-foot obstacle required to land. (See fig. PPL FPP-16e) pressure altitude 1,000 ft temperature 10°C mass 2300 lb wind . tail 10 kt surface tarmac a) 1,900 ft. b) 1,265 ft. c) 1,360 ft. d) 1,850 ft.

e1t2e8r)mineDthe total distance over a 50-foot obstacle required to land. (See fig. PPL FPP-16e) pressure altitude 1,500 ft temperature 30°C mass 2300 lb wind calm surface tarmac a) 1,350 ft. b) 1,385 ft. c) 1,320 ft. d) 1,280 ft.


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PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 129) Determine the total distance over a 50-foot obstacle required to to land. (See fig. PPL FPP-16e) pressure altitude 0 ft temperature 0°C mass 2300 lb wind head 18 kt surface grass, dry a) 1,140 ft. b) 965 ft. c) 1,205 ft. d) 1,445 ft.

h13at0)wil bWethe airspe air speed ed of o f an airpl ai rplane ane in i n level le vel flig f light ht under un der the follo fol lowing wing condi co nditio tions? ns? (See ( See fig. f ig. PPL FPP-14e) pressure altitude 8,000 ft temperature 20°C below standard power setting 55% a) 104 kts. b) 110 kts. c) 115 kts. d) 120 kts.

h13at1)is thWeexpecte eexp ected d fuel consumpti cons umption on for a 250-n 2 50-nautic autical al flight fli ght under unde r the following follo wing condition cond itions? s? (See fig. PPL FPP-14e) pressure altitude 6,000 ft temperature 20°C above standard power setting 60% wind calm 15.1 USA gal. a) b) 19.7 USA gal. c) 16.0 USA gal. d) 12.0 USA gal.

h13at2)is thWeexpecte eexp ected d fuel consumpti cons umption on for a 350-n 3 50-nautic autical al flight fli ght under unde r the following follo wing condition cond itions? s? (See fig. PPL FPP-14e) pressure altitude 4,000 ft temperature 20°C below standard power setting 60% wind calm a) 22.7 USA gal. b) 14.9 USA gal. c) 15.3 USA gal. d) 18.6 USA gal.

p13p3ro)ximAat )ximAately ely what wha t engin en gine e RPM RP M shoul sh ould d be set during dur ing crui c ruisi sing ng at a t the th e press pre ssure ure altitu alti tude de 2,00 2 ,000 0 ft and with standard temperature in order to develo p 60% of power? (See fig. PPL FPP-14e) a) 2300 RPM. b) 2500 RPM. c) 2400 RPM. d) 2200 RPM.


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PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 134) What is the expected fuel consumption under the following conditions? (See fig. PPL FPP-14e) pressure altitude 8,000 ft temperature 20°C below standard power setting 55% d) 6.2 USA gal/h. e) 5.7 USA gal/h. f) 5.8 USA gal/h. g) 6.8 USA gal/h.

1 h3 ic5h)f h) forw Ward speed is normally maintained, following an engine failure in flight in a light airplane? a) Best glide speed. b) Best enduranc e speed. c) Minimum rate of descend speed. d) Minimum speed.

The forward speed for minimum rate of descent of an aircraft, compared with its best glide speed,

136) is a) b) c) d)

always lower. always higher. often higher. often lower.

137) a) b) c) d)

What should be done first, following an aircraft's engine failure in flight? Select the gliding attitude with best glide speed. Carburetor heat must be applied. Move the mixture lever to position FULL RICH. Select a suitable field for forced landing.

138) An aircraft without an engine will fly the long est distance from a given altitude at the angl e of attack at which a) are induced drag and parasite drag equal. b) is parasite d rag the least. c) is parasite drag equal to lift coefficient.

Frost on the wings of an airplane m ay 139) a) make it difficult or impossible to become airborne. b) cause the airplane to becom e airborne with a lower angle of attack and at a lower indic ated airspeed. c) present no problem since frost will blow off when t he aircraft starts moving during takeoff. d) change the camber (curvature of the wing) thereby increasing lift during takeof f.

What is the main danger arising out of even a slight amount of frost or snow on the wings and 140) controls of an aircraft? a) Decrease lift due to irregular airflow over the wings. b) Increased weight due to ice will increase stall speed. c) Ice and snow will jam control surfaces.


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PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning What is the headwind component for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower reports the wind as 141) 220°/30 kts? (See fig. PPL FPP-13e) a) 23 kts. b) 19 kts. c) 30 kts. d) 34 kts.

h14at2)is thWecros ec rosswi swind nd com c ompon ponent ent for fo r a landi la nding ng on o n Runwa Ru nway y 18 if the th e tower to wer repor rep orts ts the th e wind win d as 220°/30 kts? (See fig. PPL FPP-13e) a) 19 kts. b) 23 kts. c) 30 kts. d) 34 kts.

h14ic3h)runWway (06, 14, 24, 2 4, 32) will you choos c hoose e for fo r landing, lan ding, if tower towe r reports repo rts south so uth wind wi nd 20 kts and an d if maximum allowed crosswind component for your aircraft is 13 kts? (See fig. PPL FPP-13e) a) RWY 14. b) RWY 06. c) RWY 24. d) RWY 32.

1 it4 h4t)he he re Wported wind of 360°/20 of 360°/20 kts you are approaching an airport. Which runway (06,14 or 24) would you choose for landing, if your airplane had a 13-knots maximum allowed crosswind component on landing? (See fig. PPL FPP-13e) a) RWY 32. b) RWY 06. c) RWY 14. d) RWY 24.

h14at5)are tWheheadw ehe adwind ind and cro c rossw sswind ind com c ompon ponent entss with wit h the th e report rep orted ed wind win d of 280° 2 80°/15 /15 kts k ts for f or a runway with the magnetic direction 220°? (See fig. PPL FPP-13e ) a) 7.5 kts headwind and 13 kts crosswind. b) 15.5 kts headwind and 8 kts crosswind. c) 15.5 kts headwind and 15 kts crosswind. d) 13.5 kts headwind and 24 kts crosswind.

e1t4e6r)mineDthe maximum wind velocity for a 45° crosswind if the maximum crosswind component for the airplane is 25 kts? (See fig. PPL FPP-13e) a) 35 kts. b) 18 kts. c) 25 kts. d) 29 kts.


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PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning Determine the maximum wind veloc ity for a 40° crosswind if the maximum crosswi nd component compone nt 147) for the airplane is 10 kts? (See fig. PPL FPP-13e ) a) 15 kts. b) 20 kts. c) 18 kts. d) 12 kts.

e1t4e8r)mineDthe maximum wind velocity for a 30° crosswind if the maximum crosswind component for the airplane is 10 kts? (See fig. PPL FPP-13e ) a) 20 kts. b) 13 kts. c) 16 kts. d) 18 kts.

h14at9)are tWheheadw ehe adwind ind and cro c rossw sswind ind com c ompon ponent entss with wit h the th e report rep orted ed wind win d of 030° 0 30°/10 /10 kts k ts for f or a runway with the magnetic direction 330°? (See fig. PPL FPP-13e ) a) 5 kts headwind and 8 kts crosswind. b) 10 kts headwind and 8 kts crosswind. c) 8 kts headwind and 4 kts crosswind. d) 8 kts headwind and 8 kts crosswind.

h15at0)are tWheheadw ehe adwind ind and cro c rossw sswind ind com c ompon ponent entss with wit h the th e report rep orted ed wind win d of 130° 1 30°/20 /20 kts k ts for f or a runway with the magnetic direction 040°? (See fig. PPL FPP-13e ) a) Zero headwind component; crosswind component 20 kts. b) 15 kts headwind and 10 kts crosswind. c) 10 kts headwind and 15 kts crosswind. d) 20 kts headwind; zero crosswind component.


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APPENDEX:

Fig. PPL FPP-2

Fig. PPL FPP-7


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Fig. PPL FPP-8

Fig. PPL FPP-9


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Fig. PPL FPP-10

Fig. PPL FPP-13


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Fig. PPL FPP-14


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Fig. PPL FPP-15


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Fig. PPL FPP-16


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Fig. PPL FPP-17


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Subject:

PPL(A) – Human Performance & Limitations

PPL (A) – Human Human performance and limitations

Review questions: 1.

In the International Standard Atmos phere (ISA), as altitude increases increases in the troposphere , air density: 1) Decreases. 2) Also increases. 3) Stays the same. 4) Will not be affected as air density is independent of altitude.

2.

The International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) sea -level pressure is equal to: 1) 1013.25 mb. 2) 1014.00 mb. 3) 1014.25 Hpa. 4) 50 inches of mercury.

3.

Air in the atmosphere is made up of: 1) Nitrogen (78 %), Oxygen (21%), Carbon Dioxide (0.03%) and Argon (1%). 2) Nitrogen (78%), Oxygen (21%), Carbon Dioxide (0.03%) and Hydrogen (1%). 3) Nitrogen (1%), Oxygen (78%), Carbon Dioxide (21%) and Argon (0.03%). 4) Nitrogen (21%), Oxygen (0.03%), Carbon Dioxide (78%) and Argon (1%).

4.

In the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA), as altitude increases in the Troposphere, Troposphere, tem perature: 1) Decreases. 2) Also increases. 3) Stays the same. 4) Will not be affected as it is independen t of altitude.

5.

If the atmospheric pressure dec reases, the partial pressure of the oxygen in the atmosphere will: 1) Decrease. 2) Increase. 3) Stay the same. 4) Not be affected as it is independent of atmospheric pressure.

6.

In the international standard atmosphere (ISA), as altitude increases in the troposphere, troposphere, pressur e: 1) Decreases. 2) Also increases. 3) Stays the same. 4) Will not be affected as pressure is indepen dent of altitude.

7.

At altitude, the volumetric proportion of oxygen in the atmosphere is: 1) The same as at mean sea level (MSL). 2) Higher than at MSL 3) Lower than at MSL. 4) Dependent on the actual altitude.


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8.

In the International Standard Atmos phere (ISA), as altitude increases in the Stratosphere, temperature: 1) Remains almost constant at -56 degrees Celsius. 2) Also increases. 3) Decreases. 4) Fluctuates between positive and negative temperatures.

9.

Which gas, which is absorbed by the bod y during normal breathing, plays an important role in decompression sickness? 1) Nitrogen. 2) Oxygen. 3) Carbon Dioxide. 4) Carbon Monoxide.

10. After donating blood, what is the minimum time a pilot sho uld wait before flying? 1) 24 hours. 2) 2 hours. 3) 12 hours. 4) 48 hours.

11. Blood pressure may be too high due to: 1) All of the above. 2) Age. 3) Stress. 4) Smoking.

12. Which body system is responsible for distributing oxygen around the body? 1) The Circulatory Circul atory System. 2) The Nervous System. Respi ratory System. 3) The Respiratory Oxid ation System 4) The Oxidation

13. The blood carries around the body and removes occurring in the _. / Capillaries. 1) Oxygen / Carbon Dioxide 2) Carbon / Dioxide / Oxygen Veins. 3) Oxygen / Carbon Dioxide / Arteries. 4) Carbon Dioxide / Oxygen / Capillaries.

from the b ody with the exchange

14. Which part of the nervous system usually controls breathing? 1) The Autonomic Nervous System. 2) The Central Nervous System. 3) The Peripheral Nervous System. 4) AII of the above.


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PPL (A) – Human Human performance and limitations 15. Enter into the following stateme nt the most correct pair of figures from the options below. The maximum recommended levels of alcohol consumption per week are for men and women. 1) 21 units / 14 units. 2) 14 units / 21 units. 3) 3 units / 7 units. 4) 7 units / 3 units.

for

16. Brain cells that have been deprived of o xygen will start to die in: 1) 2 minutes. 2) 2 seconds. 3) 1/2 hour. 4) 2 hours.

17. Which of the following gase s regulate the rate and depth of breathing, depen ding on the levels at which the gas is present in the blood? 1) Carbon Dioxide. 2) Oxygen. 3) Nitrogen. 4) Carbon Monoxide.

18. When a person is experiencing st ress or fear, adrenaline is released into the blood stream causing immediate: 1) Increase in the pulse-rate. 2) Fatigue. consciousness . 3) Loss of consciousness. 4) Decrease in the pulse-rate.

19. Approximately how long does it take a person to dissip ate one unit of alcohol from the blood ? 1) 1 hour. 2) 1/2 hour. 3) 2 hours. 4) 12 hours.

20. Enter into the following stateme nt the most correct pair of gases from the options below. Hemo globin in red blood cells is more readily attracted to than _. 1) Carbon Monoxide / Oxygen. 2) Nitrogen / Oxygen. 3) Oxygen / Nitrogen. 4) Carbon Dioxide / Nitrogen.

21. Which organ controls all other bodily functions? 1) The brain. 2) The heart. 3) The lungs. 4) The spinal cord.


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PPL (A) – Human Human performance and limitations 22. The condition whereby the body does not enough oxygen to function correctly is known as: 1) Hypoxia. 2) Hypotension. 3) Hyperventilation. 4) Hyperglycemia.

23. A likely symptom, or likely symptoms, of H ypoxia might be: 1) Increased h eart rate. 2) Cyanosis. 3) Formication. 4) All of the above.

24. Above what altitude do pilots need to breath supplementary oxygen? 1) 10,000 ft. 2) 2,000 ft. 3) 8,000 ft. 4) 20,000 ft.

25. Compared to a non-s non-smoker, moker, someone who smokes s mokes is likely to experience the effec ts of hypoxia at: 1) A lower altitude. 2) A higher altitude. 3) The same altitude. 4) Any altitude.

26. The effects of Hypoxia can be increased by: 1) All of the above. 2) Increased altitude. 3) Increased temperature. 4) Alcohol.

27. You are taking a friend flying and are cruising at 6,000 ft. Your passenger begins suffering from a tingling sensation, dizziness and visual disorders and then becomes unconscio us. Your passenger is probably suff ering from: 1) Hyperventilation. 2) Hypoxia. 3) Food poisoning. 4) Angina.

28. A likely symptom, or likely symptoms, of H ypoxia might be: 1) All of the above. 2) Unconsciousness. 3) Impaired judgment. 4) Tingling finge rs and toes.


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PPL (A) – Human Human performance and limitations 29. For the pilot of an aircraft on a head-on collision course with a fast-moving j et, the image of the approaching jet will appear to grow in size in the following manner: 1) Only slowly at first until just before impact when the image would grow i n size very rapidly. 2) At a constant co nstant rate. 3) Very rapidly at first but then continue to grow at a constant rate. 4) Rapidly initially, and then rem ain at a constant size until impact.

30. Color-blindness or, more accurately, color- defective vision, is caused by: 1) A defect in the structure of the color-s ensitive cones in the retina. 2) A defect in the lens tissue of the eye. 3) Defective functioning of the ciliary muscles. 4) A foreshort ened eyeball.

31. Hypermetropia and Myopia are normally caused by: 1) A misshapened misshapen ed eye ball. 2) Eye strain. 3) Stress. 4) Badly fitting spectacles.

32. Hypermetropia is caused by a _eyeball and treated by a_ caused by a eyeball and treated with 1) Shortened / convex / lengthened / concave. 2) Lengthened / convex / shortened / concave. 3) Shortened / concave / lengthened / convex. 4) Lengthened / concave / shortened / convex.

whereas Myopia is

33. Which of the following organs of the body supplies the single most dependable source of sensory information? 1) The Eye. 2) The Ear. 3) The Nose. 4) The Neo-cortex.

34. What is the component of the eye respo nsible for peripheral vision and sensitive to low light levels? 1) The Rods. 2) The Cones. 3) The Fovea. 4) The Retina.

35. Empty Field Myopia is a condition where the eyes naturally focus at a distance of approximately: 1) 1 - 2 meters. 2) Infinity. 3) 20 - 500 meters. 4) At the horizon.


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PPL (A) – Human Human performance and limitations 36. At night it is easier to focus on an object if you: 1) Look slightly to one side of it. 2) Look directly at it. 3) Look about 50 degrees either side of it. 4) Look directly at it while holding your e yes open as wide as you can.

37. To lessen the danger of collision with an aircraft which might be in a pilot's blind spot and closing on a constant relative bearing, the pilot should: 1) Carry out a systematic look out at all times. 2) Change heading by a few de grees every 10 minutes or so. 3) Roll the aircraft from right to le ft by a few degrees every 10 minute s or so. 4) Carry out periodic clearing turns.

38. Where is the blind spot? 1) Where the optic nerve enters the Retina. 2) On the Iris. 3) On the Fovea. 4) On the edge of the Lens.

39. Accommodation is the power of the lens to focus rays of light from near objects onto the Fovea. Accommodatio n is controlled by: 1) The Ciliary muscles. 2) The Iris. 3) The Rods and Cones. 4) The Retina.

40. Dark adaptation takes about 1) 30 minutes / 7 minutes. 2) 15 minutes / 20 minutes. 3) 7 minutes / 30 minutes. 4) 25 minutes / 45 minutes.

for the Rods, and

_for the Cones.

41. The power of accommodation in an eye: 1) Is decreased as the elasticity of the lens decreases. 2) Is increased as the elasticity of the lens decreases. 3) Is not affected by the degree of elasticity of the lens. 4) Has nothing to do with the lens.

42. When flying solo, a pilot who suspects he is suffering from sp atial disorientation should: 1) Believe the indications of his instruments. 2) Blink rapidly several times. 3) Swallow hard, pinch the nostrils and blow do wn the nose to clear the Eustachian tube. 4) Believe his somatosensory senses.


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PPL (A) – Human Human performance and limitations 43. What is noise induced hearing loss? 1) Loss of hearing due to damage to the cochlea. 2) Loss of hearing due to damage to the ossicles. 3) Loss of hearing due to damage to the vestibular apparatus. 4) Loss of hearing due to damage to the middle ear.

44. When can a pilot experience the "leans"? 1) In all flig ht conditions. 2) In the climb. 3) In the descent. 4) In the climb or the descent.

45. What is the most important sense for spatial orientation? 1) Sight 2) Hearing and balance. 3) "Seat of the pants". 4) All senses play their part in situation awareness.

46. Which of the following s hould a pilot primarily rely on if he becomes disorientated in Visual Meteorological Conditions? o f sight. 1) His sense of 2) Turning the head to recover from disorientation. o f balance. 3) His sense of 4) The aircraft's instruments.

47. On what does the causes of nois e induced hearing loss depend? 1) Both the intensity and duration of th e noise above 90 dbs. 2) Both the intensity and duration of t he noise above 100 dbs. 3) The duration of the noise above 100 dbs. 4) The duration of the noise above 110 dbs.

48. The frequency ban d that a healthy young perso n can hear is : 1) 20 - 20,000 cycles per second. 2) 70 - 15.000 cycles per second. 3) 80- 20.000 cycles per second. 4) 500 - 15.000 cycles per second.

49. What is the purpose of the Eustachian tube? 1) To allow ambient pressure to e qualise on both sides of the ear drum. 2) To pass sound waves across the middle e ar to the auditory nerve. 3) To allow ambient pressure to equ alise on the middle ear side of the ear drum. 4) To allow ambient pressure to equalise on both sides of the vestibular apparatus. 50. One of the main contributory facto rs to the onset of motion sickness is: 1) The mismatch between visual and vestibular sensory inputs. 2) Rolling quickly into turns. 3) Performing high g maneuvers. 4) Stalling.


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51. During straight and level flight any pronounced linear acceleration may produce sensation of the nose pitching up. In such a situation, th e pilot should: 1) Ignore vestibular information and believe what the instruments are indicating. 2) Correct the pitching movement by moving the control column slightly forward. 3) Rely on information from the vestib ular apparatus to maintain orientation. 4) Rely on his "seat of the pants" feeling to make any necessary correctio n.

52. Loudness is measured in: 1) Decibels. 2) Hertz. 3) Pascal’s. 4) Cycles per second.

53. Which of the following shoul d a pilot primarily rely on if he becomes disorientated in I nstrument Meteorological Conditions? 1) The aircraft's instruments. o f sight. 2) His sense of 3) Turning the head to recover from disorientation. 4) His sense of o f balance.

54. The Vestibular Apparatus detects 1) Angular and linear. 2) Linear. 3) Angular. 4) Positive "g".

.acceleration:

55. If an aircraft accelerates, what do the otoliths indicate to the brain? 1) That the aircraft is pitching up. 2) That the aircraft is pitching down. 3) That the aircraft is turning. 4) That the aircraft is climbing and turning.

56. Complete the following sentenc e. If your Eustachian tube is blocked and you can not clear your ears, you should: 1) Ground yourself until the condition causing th e blocking of the Eustachian tube has cleared up. 2) Clear your nose with a nasal inhaler before flying. 3) Fly only as a passenger. 4) Proceed with your flight but ensure that you swallow hard frequently.

57. While flying, the changes in outside air press ure can cause air trapped in the body cavities to expand and contract. This is known as Otic Barotrauma and it most likely to effect: 1) All of the above. 2) The middle ear. 3) The sinuses. 4) The teeth.


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PPL (A) – Human Human performance and limitations 58. The best preventative actions to take if someone is showing symptoms of Stro boscopic Effect is to: 1) Place the person in the shade and g et them to close their eyes. 2) Sit the person in a sunny area. 3) Give him a task to distract him. 4) Take no action, as the sympto ms last for a short time only.

59. If taking a course of drugs, is it advisable to pilot an aircraft? 1) No, unless cleared by an Aviation Medicine Specialist. 2) Yes, provided that they are antibiotics, as these do not have side-effects. 3) Yes, provided that the drug is non-prescription. 4) No, you should ne ver fly while taking any drugs.

60. The ability of a pilot to withstand even mod erate forces can be affected by: pilot. 1) Fatigue in the pilot. 2) The maximum load limits of the aircraft. 3) Presbycusis. 4) All of the above.

61. A pilot should not fly for at least how long after a local anesthetic? 1) 12 hours. 2) 2 hours. 3) 24 hours. 4) 48 hours.

62. You are suffering fro m a cold with slightly blocked nose and sinuses an d you have an aircraft booked to fly. Should you: 1) Not fly? 2) Take a decongestant 1/2 an hou r before flight? 3) Fly as normal? 4) Fly, but be sure to select only low ra tes of climb and descent?

63. A pilot should not fly for at least how long after a general anesthetic? 1) 48 hours. 2) 2 hours. 3) 12 hours. 4) 24 hours.

64. Which of the following may cause fainting? 1) A sudden shock. 2) A too rapid eye scan. 3) Over meticulous flight planning. 4) All of the above. 65. When compared comp ared to visual stimuli, auditory stimuli (noises) are: 1) More likely to attract attention and more likely to be responded to in error. 2) Less likely to attract attention and less likely to be responde d to in error. 3) Less likely to attract attention and more likely to be responded to i n error. 4) More likely to attract attention and less likely to be responded to in error.


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66. If a pilot is approaching a ru nway much larger than that at his home airfield, what is his visu al perception of the runway likely to be? 1) The runway will appear closer than it actually is. 2) The runway will appear furt her away than it actually is. 3) Distances will be easy to judge. 4) A different approach path should be adopted.

67. A false perception characte rised by a distortion of real sensory stimuli is known as: 1) Hallucination. 2) Day-dreaming. 3) Mirage. 4) Boredom response.

68. Repeating information se veral times transfer it to long-term memory is called: 1) Rehearsing. 2) Memory induction. 3) Prompting. 4) Chunking.

69. It is generally accepted that the short-term m emory can hold how many items long ? 1) 7 items for 10-20 seconds. 2) 4 items for 15 seconds. 3) 15 items for 1-5 minutes. 4) 7 items for 5-10 minutes.

70. If a pilot is used to flying in re latively polluted hazy air and then flies in a very clear sky: 1) Distant objects may appear closer than they are. 2) Distant objects may appear further away than they are. 3) Near objects may be mistaken for thos e further away. 4) Near objects may appear further away than they are.

71. From the options below, choose the co rrect sequence of the various stages of the reasoning process . 1) Detection, Perception, Decisions taken, Action, Feedback. 2) Perception, Action, Feedback, Detection, Decisions taken. 3) Detection, Feedback, Decisions taken, Action, Perception. 4) Detection, Perception, Decisions taken, Feedback, Action.

72. Which of the following will give the illusion that the aircraft is too low during an appro ach? down -sloping runway. 1) A down-sloping up-slo ping runway. 2) An up-sloping 3) A brightly lit aerodrome in an otherwise dark area. 4) A narrower than normal runway.


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PPL (A) – Human Human performance and limitations 73. As captain of an aircraft yo u will need to show good leadership skills. Whic h of the following is not one such skill? 1) Aggressive assertiveness. 2) Forward planning. 3) Maintaining good situational awareness. 4) The art of delegation.

74. You have planned to take a couple of friends on an air experience flight. On the day, the weather conditions are marginal and there is a strong cross -wind on the runway. As a competent asse ssor of risk, which of the following decisions should you take? 1) Reschedule the flight for another time, discounting the immediate disappointment to your friends. 2) Get airborne as planned, as it is always wise to stic k to your flight plan if you possibly can. 3) Proceed with the flight and treat it as an opportunity to practise flying in adverse conditions. 4) Ask your friends if they are prepared to fly in the prevailing conditio ns, before assessing the situation yourself.

75. When making a decision, will a pilot be influenced by previous experience? 1) Yes, past experience can play a part in decision-making. 2) Yes, but only if the experience is good. 3) Yes, but only if the experience was bad. 4) No, each decision is unrelated.

76. Mental Overlo ad usually: 1) Leads to degraded performance. 2) Leads to better performance. 3) Has no effect on performance. 4) Causes changes in the speed and accuracy of perform ance which vary from individual to individual.

77. Complete the following statement. If, as an inexperie nced pilot, you are flying with someone of muc h greater experience, and you see hi m do something you consider to be dangerous, you sho uld: 1) Immediately question his course of action. 2) Wait until the action or manoeuvre is comple ted, and then questions him. 3) Ignore the situation because he obviously knows what he is doing. 4) Do nothing for the moment, but check the wisdom and correctness of his action by discussing it with an instructor after you have landed.

78. Good briefings are very important. Which of the following could be the result of a bad brie fing? 1) Increased uncertainty. 2) Good transfer of knowledge. 3) Good understanding of information. 4) Decreased uncertainty.

79. Complete the following statement. T he most appropriate time for a pilot to give passengers an initial briefing on emergency procedures is: 1) During a pre-flight safety briefing. 2) At the moment any emergen cy occurs; it is not necessary to wor ry them before that. 3) While waiting at the hold for take-off. 4) Just after take-off.


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PPL (A) – Human Human performance and limitations 80. Two pilots, both seated at the controls and qualified on type, have just commenced a flight when they experience an engine failure. Who should take control of the aircraft. 1) The pilot who, during the pre-flight briefing on emerg encies, the captain agreed should take over control in suc h a situation. 2) The pilot in the left-hand seat. 3) The captain. 4) The more experienced of the two.

81. Which of the following attitudes and/or characteristics have b good communication and especially dangerous when flying? 1) Arrogance and aggressiveness. 2) A highly developed sense of leadership. 3) Respect for other peoples' opinions. 4) All of the above.

82. Which of the following are ways to help avoid stress in the cockpit? 1) Not allowing yourself to be rushed into acting before yo u are ready. 2) Having a cool drink at hand, at all times. 3) Modifying your pre-flight plan whene ver you feel you are off-track or behind time. 4) All of the above.

83. What are Stress Factors or Stressors? 1) Events and circumstances which cause stress. 2) Pulse-rate inducers. 3) Circumstances or events which provoke any kind of reaction to the demands placed upon the human organism. 4) Measures of stress exhibited by a person.

84. An analogue display is generally better than a digital display for showing which sort of data? 1) Qualitative. 2) Quantitative. 3) Numerical. 4) Subjective.

85. Which of the following occ ur when a pilot is sitting too high in a cockpit? a. Good downward outside view. b. Poor view of instruments. c. Upwards outside view obstructed. 1) a), b) and c). 2) only a). 3) a) and b) only. 4) a) and c) only.

86. You are preparing for a training flight with an instructor and cannot find your chec klist. You should: 1) Take time to find the checklist at the risk of missing part o f your airborne time. 2) Perform the checks from memory. 3) Use a checklist for a differe nt aircraft type. 4) Rely on the instructor to point ou t anything that you might have missed.


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PPL(A) Question Bank

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