PPL(A) Question Bank

PPL(A) Questions Bank

Subject:

PPL(A) – Air law

PPL (A) – Aviation law

Review questions: 1.

Which of the following documents is not required to be carried in an aircraft of an ICAO member state? certificates. a. Flight crew birth certificates. Registration. b. Certificate of Registration. c. Certificate of Airworthiness. licences. d. Flight crew licences.

2.

The State of licence issue of a JAA PPL may be changed to a new member State providing: a. The new member State is the licence holder's normal State of residence or that full-time employment has been taken by the licence holder in that State. b. The licence holder has resided in the new member State for at least 31 days. c. The licence holder intends to follow a course of study in the new member State lasting at least three months. d. The new member State has no reasonable grounds for refusing to convert the licence.

3.

No aircraft or personnel who have endorsed certificates or licences may participate in international navigation: a. Except with the permission of the State w hose territory is entered. b. Under any circumstances. c. Except when a general exemption has been awarded by any ICAO contracting state. d. Except when a general exemption has been awarded by the State in which the aircraft is registered or which issued the licence.

4.

Which right is conferred on contracting states by Article 16 of the ICAO Convention? a. The right to search, without unreasonable delay, an aircraft from another contracting state landing on or departing from its sovereign territory. b. The right to search an aircraft from another contracting state l anding on or departing from its sovereign territory if it is felt that the aircraft is carrying unlawful goods or persons being pursued i n law. c. The right to search an aircraft from another contracting state landing on or departing from its sovereign territory, given due cause. d. The right to search, with the permission of the pilot in command, an aircraft from another contracting state landing on or departing from its sovereign territory.

5.

The Rules of the Air applicable to an aircraft registered in one state flying over another state shall be: a. Those of the state whose airspace is entered and transited. b. Those of the state of the visiting aircraft. c. Those agreed by ICAO contracting states to apply in all contracting states. d. Those stipulated by JAA operational procedures.

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PPL (A) – Aviation law 6.

Which classes of medical certificate meet the requirement for a JAA PPL (А)? a. Class 1 or 2. b. Class A or B. c. Class 2 or 3. d. Class B or C.

7.

Which body is responsible for ensuring that an aircraft operating in a state's sovereign airspace complies with the rules and regulations which prevail in that airspace? a. The state in whose sovereign airspace the aircraft is operating. b. The state which issued the current Certificate of Airworthiness for the aircraft. c. The state in which the aircraft is registered. d. The state which issued the licence held by the pilot of the aircraft.

8.

What was the outcome of the Chicago Convention a. The Convention on International Civil Aviation. b. ICAO. c. PICAO. d. The 18 Annexes to the Chicago Convention.

9. A PPL holder is not permitted to: a. Carry fare paying passengers. b. Give flying instruction with an FI(A) rating. c. Tow a glider d. Drop parachutists.

10. Complete the following wording with one of the options at a), b), or below to give the most correct statement. A pilot in command of a flight during which an aircraft enters the sovereign airspace of a foreign state with the intention of landing: a. Must have ensured that all necessary and relevant documentation is carried on board the aircraft, including the Certificate of Airworthiness, that the aircraft is in an airworthy condition and that it is correctly registered. b. Must ensure before departure that his pilot's licence has been validated by the foreign state. c. Must be satisfied that the aircraft's Certificate of Airworthiness is current and that he holds a type rating for the aircraft. d. Must be satisfied that the aircraft's Certificate of Airworthiness is current, that he holds a type rating for the aircraft, and that he has passed an Air Law examination set by the foreign state.

11. The pilot in command of an aircraft which enters the sovereign airspace of another contracting state for the purpose of landing must: a. Hold a licence issued by the authority of the state in which the aircraft is registered. b. Hold a licence issued by any ICAO contracting state. c. Hold a licence issued by any member state of the JAA. d. Hold any valid and current pilot's licence.


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PPL (A) – Aviation law 12. What is the basic presumption about VFR flight? a. That the flight will be flown in Visual Meteorological Conditio ns. b. That the pilot holds the correct rating to allow the aeroplane to be flown in VFR. plac e in class G airspace. c. That the flight will only take place d. That the flight will not take place above FL180.

13. When are navigation lights required to be shown? a. From sunset to sunrise or when specified by the Authority. b. When moving on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome. c. Whenever the pilot in command thinks it is sensible to switch them on. d. At night or when specified by the authority.

14. When an aircraft is flying, under which flight rules must the flight be conducted? a. Either IFR or VFR. b. IFR in IMC and VFR in VMC. c. At the commander's commande r's discretion. d. In accordance with ATC instructions.

15. When may you fly over any congested area of a city, town or settlement at a height from which it would not be possible to land safely in the event of an emergency arising? a. Only when necessary for take-off and landing. b. Never. c. Only to keep clear of cloud and remain in visual contact with the ground. d. Only where the operator has given permission.

16. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same level the one that has the other on its right is required to give way. True or false? a. True, provided they are in the same class. b. False. The one that has the other on its left has right of way c. True, unless the other aircraft has a glider on tow. d. False, provided the other aircraft aircr aft is not towing anything.

17. Which of a), b), c) and d), below, most correctly completes the following statement? When two or more aircraft are on final approach: a. The lower aircraft has the right of way unless ATC has already specified a landing order. b. The higher aircraft has the right of way. c. The lower aircraft has the right of way. d. The aircraft which has the least horizontal distance to run to the runway threshold has the right of way.

18. Except when taking off or landing, or under certain other defined circumstances, an aircraft may not fly closer than a), b), or to any person, vessel, vehicle or structure? a. 500 feet b. 1000 feet. c. 800 feet. d. 1500 feet.


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PPL (A) – Aviation law 19. Two aircraft flying according to the Visual Flight Rules, one of which is receiving a Radar Information Service (RIS), are closing at an apparent constant relative bearing. There is, thus, a high risk of collision. The fact that one aircraft is receiving an RIS is immaterial to the situation. The Rules of the Air apply. Therefore, the aircraft which has the other on its left has right of way and should maintain: a. Course and speed. b. Height and speed. c. Altitude and course. d. Altitude and speed.

20. While flying at night, as the pilot in command, you see an anti-collision light and a steady red light at the same altitude, at a constant relative bearing of 050 degrees, there a risk of collision? And who has right ri ght of way? a. Yes. The other aircraft does. b. Yes. You do. c. No. The other aircraft does. d. No. You do.

21. If a PPL holder who has no additional ratings, while receiving a Radar Advisory Service, receives instructions to change heading, climb or descend, such that if the instructions are complied with the pilot will be unable to maintain Visual Meteorologic al Conditions, the pilot should: a. Continue on the present heading, at the present altitude, and tell air traffic why he cannot comply. b. Comply with instructions, anyway, but go onto instrumen ts early. c. Continue on present heading and at present altitude, say nothing, and wait for the controller's next instruction. d. Comply as closely as he can with the controller's instructions but on no account go into Instrument Meteorological Conditions.

22. A Control Area (CTA) establishe d at the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes aerodrome s is known as: a. A Terminal Control Area (TMA). b. An Airway. c. A Control Zon e (CTR). d. An Aerodrome Traffic Zone (ATZ).

23. What is the international Aeronautical VHF Distress Frequency? a. 121.50 MHz b. 123.45 MHz c. 243.00 MHz d. 406.00 MHz

24. How often are Aeronautical Information Circulars published? a. Monthly b. Weekly c. Yearly. d. Quarterly.


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PPL (A) – Aviation law 25. If a PPL holder receives a Special VFR clearance to enter a control zone (CTR) but, before entering the CTR, finds that he can no longer receive or transmit RT messages, he must: a. Remain clear of the CTR. b. Carry on into the CTR via the assigned Visual Reference Point complying with the last clearancereceived. c. Carry on into the CTR and await light signals for clearance to land. d. Carry on into the CTR, complying with the last clearance received while transmitting blind.

26. What SSR squawk should be set in an emergency? a. 7700 b. 7777 c. 7000 d. 7600

27. If an aircraft marshaller holds his right arm down and repeatedly moves his left arm upward and backward it means: a. Turn left. b. Turn right. ahead. c. Keep moving ahead. d. Start your left engine.

28. What is the meaning of a steady green light from ATC to an aircraft in the air? a. Clear to land. b. Return to this airfield and await landing clearance. c. Land immediately. d. You have priority to land.

29. What colour are paved taxiway markings? a. Yellow. b. Red. c. Green. d. White.

30. What color are runway markings? a. White. b. Red. c. Green. d. Yellow.

31. You are on final approach and you see a steady red light from ATC. This means: a. Do not land. Continue circling. b. Continue approach and await a green light c. Do not land. Airfield closed. d. Do not land. Divert to your alternate airfield.


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PPL (A) – Aviation law 32. What word is used to describe the vertical position of an aircraft measured above mean sea level, when QNH is set on the altimeter subscale? a. Altitude. b. Elevation. c. Height d. Flight Level.

33. What action should a pilot take if he suffers radio communications failure during a VFR flight in VMC? a. Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report his arrival to his destination airfield. b. Continue to his destination, transmitting blind and attempting to avoid IMC. c. Fly to the nearest aerodrome, orbit on t he dead side of the circuit and await a steady green from the control tower. d. Carry out the radio failure procedure in the RAF Flight Information Handbook and await the arrival of a Shepherd aircraft.

34. Which of the following flight levels would be suitable for an aircraft flying in accordance with the quadrantal rule and maintaining a magnetic track of 146 degrees? a. FL75. b. FL50. c. FL85. d. FL70.

35. A pilot intending to land at a civil aerodrome shoul d initiate his descent to below transi tion level with the altimeter subscale set to: a. Aerodrome QNH. b. Aerodrome QFE. c. Regional QNH. d. 101Millibars.

36. A light aircraft is taking off behind a Heavy or Medium category aircr aft. What period of separat ion is required? a. 2 minutes. b. 4 minutes. c. 3 minutes. d. 5 minutes.

37. What is the definition of "transition level“? a. The lowest available Flight Level above the transition altitude. b. The Flight Level below which the vertical position of an aircraft is expressed as "height". c. The transition altitude expressed as a Flight Level. d. The Flight Level at or above which the vertical position of an aircraft is expressed as "altitude".


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PPL (A) – Aviation law 38. An aeroplane has a maximum take-off mass of 136,000 kg. What is its wake turbulence category? categor y? a. Heavy. b. Medium. c. A wide bodied aeroplane would be Heavy; a narrow bodied would be Medium. d. It depends on the actual take-off mass not the maximum take-off mass.

39. What word is used to describe the vertical position of an aircraft measured above an airfield datum level, when QFE is set on the altimeter subscale? a. Height b. Elevation. c. Altitude. d. Flight Level.

40. A PPL pilot who is is flying in accordance with SVFR must have the following minima: a. A minimum visibility of 10 kms or more and remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface. b. A minimum visibility of 10 kms or more and remain clear of cloud. c. A minimum visibility of 5 kms or more and remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface. or more and remain in sight of the surface. d. A minimum visibility of 10 kms or

41. Who is responsible for the issue of a Certificate of Airworthiness? a. The authority of the state of registration. b. The JAA. c. ICAO. d. The operator.

42. Which of the following normally defines 'runway in use' on an uncontrolled airfield? a. A runway into wind. b. A part of the maneuvering area defined for take off and landing. c. The most convenient runway to use for the aircraft operating from the aerodrome. d. The defined take off and landing portion of an aerodrome.

43. Who may not suspend VFR operations at an aerodrome on safety grounds a. The Approach Controller. b. The duty Aerodrome Controller. c. The local Area Control Centre (ACC). d. The appropriate ATS authority.

44. Where the Certificate of Registration must for an aircraft is kept while the aircraft is flying? a. In the aircraft. b. In the registered office of the owner. c. By the authority of the State of registration. d. On the ground at the point of departure.


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PPL (A) – Aviation law 45. Flying hours to be credited for a licence or rating must have been flown: a. In the same type or category of aircraft as that for which the licence or rating is being sought. b. In the same performance group of aircraft as that for which the licence or rating is being sought. c. In the same or higher performance group of aircraft as that for which the licence or rating is being sought. d. In the same make and type of aircraft as that for which the licence or rating is being sought.

46. The holder of a JAA PPL(A) who wishes to carry passengers must have made a minimum of take-offs and landings within the preceding: a. 90 days. b. 29 days. c. 31 days. d. 60 days.

47. If the holder of a pilot's licence learns that he is to undergo surgery, what are his obligations in terms of informing the aviation medical authority? a. He should contact his aviation medical authority without delay and seek their advice on his circumstances. b. There is no requirement to do so provided the pilot does not fly again as pilot in command until after the surgical operation. c. He should advise the medical authority of the circumstances only if he is due to receive a general anesthetic. d. He has no obligations to tell anyone as this is a private matter.

48. How long is a JAA PPL (A) issued for? a. 5 years. b. 3 years. c. 10 years. d. 8 years.

49. The skills test for a JAA PPL (A) must be taken within a. 6 months. b. One year. c. 4 months. d. 3 months.

of completing flying instruction.

withi n 50. Application for the grant of a JAA PPL (A) licence m ust be made within theoretical knowledge examinations. a. 24. b. 12. c. 36. d. 18.

completing the


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PPL (A) – Aviation law 51. A pilot's licence issued by one JAA member State may be converted to a licence of any other JAA member State (the new member State), provided that: a. The new member State is the licence holder's normal State of residence or that full-time employment has been taken by the licence holder in that State. b. The licence holder has resided in the new member State for at least 31 days. c. The licence holder intends to follow a course of study in the new member State la sting at least three months. d. The new member State has no reasonable gr ounds for refusing to convert the licence.

52. There are three conditions that a holder of a JAA PPL (A) must fulfill before he/she may act as pilot in command, or as a co-pilot. Which of the following is not a requirement? a. Holds an Instrument Rating. b. Holds a Type or Class rating p ertinent to the aircraft to be flown. c. Holds a valid medical certificate. d. Is not flying for remuneration.

53. Who is responsible for ensuring that all relevant aircraf t documentation is carried on an international flight? a. The pilot in command. b. The organisation hiring out the aircraft. c. The air traffic organisation t o whom the flight plan is submitted. d. The flying supervisor at the airfield of departure.

54. The departure an d arrival time entered by a PPL holder in his flying log b ook is taken as follows: a. The time the aircraft begi ns to move under its own power an d the time it comes to rest following the last b. The time of the first take-off and the time of the last landing o f the sortie. c. The time of engine start and the time of engine shut-d own. d. The time the aircraft enters the active ru nway for the first take-off and the time it vac ates the runway after the last landing.

55. How long is an Instrument Rating valid for? a. 12 months. b. 6 months. c. 18 months. d. The IR is valid provided regul ar skill tests are completed at intervals dictated by the authority.

56. If a pilot holding a medical certificate issued under the authority of JAR-FCL receives an injury or is suffering from a medical con dition which affects his ability to act as the crew member of an aircr aft: a. The medical certificate ceases to be valid. b. The medical certificate will be suspend ed after 25 days following the date of the injury or onset of the illness unless the pilot has again been declare d fit. c. The medical certificate will be suspended if the illness or injury has been reported to the authority. d. The medical certificate will remain valid.


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PPL (A) – Aviation law 57. The privileges of the IMC rating: a. May be exercised in the sovereign airspace of the State issuing the rating. The exercise of the privileges in the airspace of another JAA member state is subject to the prior agreement of that state. b. Entitle the holder to fly in controlled airspace world wide. c. May only be exercised in the sovereign airspace of the State issuing the rating. d. May be exercised in the sovereign airspace of any JAA member state without prior agreement.

58. Which of the following ratings on a JAA PPL (A) precludes the requirement for a separate Night Rating to be held by a private pilot who wishes to fly as PIC at night? a. Instrument Rating. b. IMC Rating. c. Full Instructor Rating. d. Assistant Instructor Rating.

59. An applicant for a Private Pilot Licence must be at least a. 17 years old. b. 15 years old. c. 16 years old. d. 18 years old.

60. When should the student pilot present his Pilot Medical Certifica te? a. Before his first solo flight. b. Before the beginning of theoretical lessons. c. Before the beginning of a practical training. d. At giving in the exam's application.

61. What Medical Certificate is required for a holder of a Private Pilot Licence? a. Class 1 or Class 2 Medical Certificate. b. Class 1 Medical Certificate only. c. Class A or Class B Medical Certificate

62. What Medical Certificate is re quired for a student pilot? a. Class 1 or Class 2 Medical Certificate. b. Class 1 Medical Certificate only. c. Class A or Class B Medical Certificate.

63. At least how many hours of dual instructions on aeroplane must have an applicant for a PPL (A)? a. 25 hours. b. 10 hours. c. 15 hours. d. 20 hours.


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PPL (A) – Aviation law 64. How many hours of total flying hours, required for the practical skill test for an issue of a Private Pilot Licence, may be completed on a Flight & Navigation Procedures Trainer or Simulator? a. 5. b. 7. c. 10. d. 15.

65. At least how long must be the cross-country flight, required for the eligibility for the Private Pilot Licence skill test, and how many full stop landings at different aerodromes shall be made at this flight? a. 150 NM; 2 landings. b. 100 NM; 2 landings. c. 200 NM; landings. d. 250 NM; landings.

66. At least how many hours of flying experience as a pilot of airplanes airplanes must have an applicant for a Private Pilot Licence? a. 45 hours. b. 50 hours. c. 40 hours. d. 35 hours.

67. What does the term "solo flight time" mean? a. Solo flight time of a student-pilot. b. Entire flight time when a pilot is alone in the aircraft. c. Entire flight time, when a pilot is alone in the aircraft, and 50% of the co-pilot flight time. d. Flight time as a pilot-in-command.

68. To act as pilot in command of an airplane carrying passengers, the holder of PPL(A) must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an airplane of the same class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding a. 90 days. b. 12 calendar months. c. 24 calendar months.

69. The three takeoffs and landings during the last 90 days that are required to act as pilot of an airplane carrying passengers at night must be done during the time period from the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight. a. Sunset to sunrise. b. 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise. c. The end of eve ning civil twilight to the beginning of morning morn ing civil twilight


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PPL (A) – Aviation law 70. The Flight Time is the total time from the moment a. Than an aircraft first moves under its own or external power for the purpose of taking off until the moment it comes to rest at the end of the flight. b. Than an aircraft starts its engine(s) for the purpose of taking off or when a non-powered aircraft first moves, until the moment engine(s) stop(s) operating or when a non-powered c. Aircraft comes to rest at the end of the flight. d. Than an aircraft becomes completely airborne until the moment it finally touches the ground at a t landing.

71. Flight time during which the flight instructor will only observe the student acting as pilot-incommand and shall not influence or control the flight of the aircraft is a. Flight time as student pilot-in-command (SPIC). b. Solo flight time under supervision. c. Flight time as pilot-in-comma nd. d. Solo flight time.

72. Which aircraft, and under which conditions, may a holder of a private pilot licence fly, provided he is properly endorsed? a. All airplanes without exceptions provided no payment or refund is done for such flight. b. All airplanes without exceptions provided no payment or refund is given to the pilot. c. All single-engined airplanes provided no payment or refund is done for such flight. d. All airplanes up to the maximum takeoff mass 1,500 kg, provided no paymen t or refund is given to the t he pilot.

proficiency check with an examiner, what minimum flight time and what 73. As a substitute for the proficiency number of takeoffs and landing is required for the revalidation of a single pilot single engine airplane class cl ass rating? a. 12 hours of flight time within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating, including 6 hours of pilot-in-command time, and 12 takeoffs and 12 landings. b. 12 hours of flight time within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating, including 5 hours of pilot-in-command time, and takeoffs and landings. c. 10 hours of flight time within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating, including 6 hours of pilot-in-command time, and 12 takeoffs and 12 landings.

74. How long is the period before the expiry date of a single pilot single engine rating, during which a proficiency check for a revalidation may be done? a. 3 months. b. 15 days. c. 1 month. d. 2 months.

75. To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the private licence holder must have three takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days as the sole manipulator of the controls in an airplane the same a. Type or class. b. Make and model. c. Class, but n ot the type.


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PPL (A) – Aviation law 76. With the respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft? a. Single engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea. b. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter -than-ai r. c. Lighter-than-air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon.

77. With the respect to t he certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft? a. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter -than-ai r. b. Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon. c. Single engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.

78. The pilot or student pilot, when becoming aware of hospital admission of more than 12 hours, surgical operation or invasive procedure, the regular use of medication, the regular use of correcting lenses, a. Must not fly until seeks the advice of the competent aviation doctor. b. Must pass the aviation medical exam again. c. Must inform the CAA within the period of 21 days.

79. In which of the following cases should the aviation medical certificate deem to be suspended? a. Any illness involvi ng incapacity to his functio ns as a member of flight crew through out a period of 2 1 days or m ore, or any significa nt persona l injury i nvolving i ncapacity t o undertake his functions as a member of the flight crew. b. Any surgical operation or invasive procedure and pregnancy. c. Any surgical operation or invasive procedure.

80. How long are single pilot single engine class ratings valid? a. 2 years. b. 6 months. c. 1 year. d. 3 years.

81. Maximum validity of the pilot licence is a. 5 years. b. 2 years. c. 3 years. d. 4 years.

82. The validity of a pilot licence is determined by the validity of a. The ratings contained therein and the Medical Certificate. b. The Medical Certificate only. c. The licence itself, as endorsed in the licence.

83. Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight? a. Become familiar with all available i nformation concerning the flight. b. Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries. c. Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.


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PPL (A) – Aviation law 84. Preflight action, as required f or all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, sh all include a. An alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned. b. The designation of an alternate airport. c. A study of arrival procedures at airports/heliports of intended use.

85. In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to determine a. Runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft’s takeoff and landing distance data. b. Review traffic control light signal procedures. c. Check the accuracy of the navigational equipmen t and the emergency locator transmi tter (ELT).

86. Pilots are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harn esses fastened during a. Takeoffs an d landings. b. All flight conditions. c. Flight in turbulent air.

87. Which best describes the flight conditions un der which pilots are specifically required to keep their safety har ness fastened? a. Safety belts during take off and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing. b. Safety belts during take off and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeof f and landing. c. Safety belts during take off and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing and while en route.

88. With respect to passengers, wha t obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerni ng the use of seat belts? a. The pilot in command must brief the passengers with the location and the use of seat b elts. b. The pilot in command must instr uct the passengers to keep their seat belts fastened for the entire flight. c. The pilot in command has no obligation in regard to passengers' use of seat belts.

89. Who is responsible for determinin g if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight? a. The owner or operator. b. A certified aircraft mechanic. c. The pilot in command.

90. The person directly responsible for the prelaunc h briefing of passengers for a flight is a. Pilot in command. b. Safety officer. c. Ground crewmember.


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PPL (A) – Aviation law mean? 91. What does "AAL" mean? a. Acknowled ge. b. Above aer odrome level. c. Angle of attack limitation. limit ation. d. Aerodrome altitude level.

92. Which aircraft speed should be entered into the "Cruising Speed" block of an ICAO Flight Pl an? a. Calibrated Air Speed. b. Indicated Air Speed. c. True Air Speed. d. Ground Speed.

93. What should be entered into the "LEVEL" block of an ICAO VFR Flight Pl an? a. Either the word " VFR" or the proposed cruising altitude. b. It is left blank for VFR flights. c. The proposed cruising altitudes. d. The phrase "VFR: variable".

94. What is the meaning of "WIP"? a. Work in progress. b. With permission. c. With effect from. d. Weight increase procedure. procedure.

95. The Air Traffic Control may issue a permission for a SVFR flight a. For all flights in the restricted zone. b. For flights overflying of the terminal zone. c. For flights entering or leaving the control zone only. d. For flying an airport traffic circuit inside the control zone only.

96. The vertical limits of a control zone are a. From 600 m GND to the defined altitude. b. From 600 m GND to the bottom limit of a terminal area. c. From the surface to the defined altitude. d. From the surface to 900 m MSL.

97. What is the definition of a term "Control Zone"? a. Airspace of defined dime nsions within which all air traffic is controlled. b. Airspace immedi ately above an airport. c. A controlled airspac e extending upwards from the surface of the earth.


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PPL (A) – Aviation law 98. A part of an airspace of define d dimensions above defined area where fligh ts are not allowed, is called a. Terminal area. b. Prohibited zone. c. Restricted zone. d. Control zone.

a. b. c.

Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has Filed an IFR flight plan. Received prior authorization from the controlling agency. Received prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military base.

a. b. c. d.

What is the definition of the term "Controlled Airspace"? Airspace of defined dimensi ons within which all aircrafts are controlled. Airspace ar ound an airport. Airspace imme diately above an airport wit h more than one runway. An airspace within which air traffic control services are provided.

a. b. c. d.

The controlled airspace, extending from the surface to the specified altitude, is the Control area. Terminal control area. area. Control zone. Flight information region. region.

a. b. c. d.

Who is responsible for the adequate safe separation between VFR flights in the air? Pilots themselves exclusively. The Air Traffic Control exclusively. The Air Traffic Control and the Surveillance Radar. The Air Traffic Control and pilots.

99.

100.

101.

102.

105.

A controlled airspac e extending upwards from a specified heig ht above the earth is a. Aerodrome traffic zone. b. c. d.

Control area. Control zone. De-conflicted zone.


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PPL (A) – Aviation law 106. What is the lateral dimension of the airspace at the inner side of the state border, where all aircraft need to obtain special permission permis sion for flying within it? a. 5 km. b. 7 km. c. 9 km. d. 11 km.

When flying a sport aircraft above the territory of the Republic of Slovenia, supplemental 107. oxygen shall be used at the altitude above mean sea level greater than a. 4,000 m. b. 3,600 m. c. 3,800 m. d. 4,200 m.

108. What is the minimum safe altitude required to operate an aircraft over settlements or over open-air assembly of people? a. An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface. b. 150 m (500 ft) above ground and not closer than 150 m from any person, vessel or structure. c. 150 m (500 ft) above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 300 m of the aircraft. d. 300 m (1,000 ft) above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 600 m of the aircraft.

When flying visually in class G airspace at altitudes above 900 m (3,000 ft) MSL or 300 m 109. (1,000 ft) from ground, whichever is higher, the pilot of an aircraft must maintain the vertical separation from clouds at least a. 300 m. b. 100 m. c. 150 m. d. 250 m.

110. Visual flying of aircraft in class G airspace at altitudes above 900 m (3,000 ft) MSL or 300 m (1,000 ft) from ground, whichever is higher, up to 3,050 m (10,000 ft), is permitted if the horizontal visibility is at least a. 1.5 km. b. 8 km. c. 5 km. d. 3 km.

When approaching to land at an airport, without an operating control tower, in Class G 111. airspace, the pilot should a. Make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated. b. Enter and fly a traffic pattern at 800 feet AAL. c. Fly a left-hand traffic pattern at 800 feet AAL.


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PPL (A) – Aviation law The minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight in class G airspace 112. at altitudes above 300 m from ground or 900 m MSL, whichever is higher, is a. 600 m. b. 300 m. c. 1,500 m. d. 8,000 m.

113. No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the a. Flight visibility at that airport is at least 1.5 km. b. Ground visibility at that airport is at least 1.5 km. c. Ground visibility at that airport is at least 5.0 km.

114.

The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D a. Airspace is clear of clouds and 3.0-km visibility. b. 450-meter ceiling and 1.5-km visibility. c. 450-meter ceiling and 5.0-km visibility.

Which are the meteorological minima, that allow the tower to permit an SVFR flight in a 115. control zone during daytime? The flight visibility must be at least a. 1,500 m and cloud basis 300 m GND. b. 1,500 m. c. 5,000 m and cloud basis 300 m GND. d. 5,000 m.

An aircraft flying above th e sea between 4,500 feet MSL and 9,000 feet MSL outside 116. controlled airspace under VFR, must remain at least: a. Clear of clouds and in sight of the surface; 8 km visibility. b. 1,500 m horizontally, 1,000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility. c. 1,500 m horizontally, 1,000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility. d. 2,000 feet horizontally, 1,000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility.

117. a. b. c. d.

Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done: Only at transition altitude. At transition altitud e during climb and transition level during descent. At transition level during climb and transition altitude durin g descent. Only at transition level.

A VFR flight should adhere to the table of prescri bed flight level at flight altitu des, higher 118. than a. 3,000 ft GND. b. 2,200 ft GND. c. 700 ft MSL. d. 3,000 ft MSL.


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PPL (A) – Aviation law Which of the cruising flight level listed is appropriate for a VFR flight over 3,000 ft MSL, 119. while maintaining true course 170° and if the local variation variation value is 20°W? a. FL 65. b. FL 55. c. FL 40. d. FL 30.

120. A pilot-in-c ommand of a VFR cruising flight at the altitu des over 3,000 ft MSL, should fly odd flight levels pl us 500 ft, if maintains a. True headings between 000° and 179°. b. Magnetic headings between 180° and 359°. c. Magnetic courses between 000° and 179°. d. True courses between 180° and 359°.

121. Which of the aircraft listed has always the right-of-way over all other participants in air traffic? a. A balloon. b. An aircraft in final approach for landing. c. An aircraft in distress.

122. a. b. c.

What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on? The faster aircraft shall give way. Each aircraft shall give give way to the right. The aircraft on the left shall give way.

When two aircraft are approaching each other head-on and there is a danger of collision, 123. which way should each aircraft turn? a. Heavier aircraft should turn to the right, easier aircraft should turn to the left. b. Each aircraft should turn to the right. c. Heavier aircraft should turn to the left, easier aircraft should turn to the right. d. Each aircraft should turn to the left.

a. b. c. d.

What actions should the pilots of aircraft take if on head-on collision course? Both should turn to the left. Both should turn to the right. Both should make a climbing turn to the right. Both should make a climbing turn to the left.

a. b. c. d.

How shall aircraft in the air avoid each other on a head-on collision course? Both aircraft shall alter their headings to the left. Both aircraft shall alter their headings to the right. Powered-aircraft has a right of w ay, non-powered aircraft aircraft shall deviate to t he right. Non-powered aircraft has a right of way, powered aircraft shall deviate to the left.

124.

125.

20 / 24 Latest information about the exam can be found at www.tafa.aero

PPL (A) – Aviation law What action should the pilots of an airplane and a glider take if on a head-on collision 126. course? a. The airplane pilot should give way. b. The airplane pilot should give way, because his aircraft is more controllable. c. Both pilots should give way to the right. d. The glider pilot should give way, because a glider is more controllable than an airplane.

127. a. b. c. d.

128. a. b. c. d.

What should the glider pilot do, if on head-on collision course with the tw o-engined Cessna? He should open the air brakes immediately, because a multi-engine multi-engine airplane has the rightof-way. He should deviate to the left thus giving way to the airplane. He should deviate to the right. He may maintain heading and speed, because a glider has always the right-of-way, however he should pay extra attention.

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed? Airship. Glider. Aircraft towing other aircraft . Helicopter.

Which of the statements listed, concerning the right-of-way when t wo aircraft converge, 129. but not head-on, is correct? a. Normal category aircraft should give way to ultralight aircraft. b. Airplanes should give way to helicopters. c. Airplanes in free flight should give way to non-powered aircra ft. d. Ultralight aircraft should give way to normal category aircraft.

130. While in final gliding flight toward airfield, a glider pilot notices an aerotow, closing from his left side. What action should the glider pilot in free flight take? a. He should alter his heading to the left and give way to the aerotow, which has always the right-of-way over all other aircraft. b. He should alter his heading to the left and give way to the aerotow, which has the right-ofway over a glider. c. He may keep heading and speed, because he is on the right side and thus has the right-ofway, and intensify attentiveness. d. He may keep heading and speed, because a glider has always the right-of-way over a powered aircraft.

131. a. b. c. d.

Which aircraft must give way at converging of a glider and an airplane in free flight? No one. The airplane. The glider. Both aircraft.


PPL (A) – Aviation law With your aeroplane on an IFR flight in airspace class D, you receive a traffic information 132. from ATC, that an helicopt er on VFR flight is going to cross your flight path from right to left . Who has the right-of-way? a. ATC decides who has the right of way and issues appropriat e instruction. b. I have the right-of-way as I am on an IFR flight. c. The helicopter has the right-of-way.

Aircraft A with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditi ons within a control area. Aircra ft B 133. with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right of way? a. Aircraft B if A is on its left. b. Aircraft A regardless of the direction which B is approaching. c. Aircraft B regardless of the direction A is approaching. d. Aircraft A if B is on its right.

134. a. b. c. d.

Which aircraft must give way when two airplanes are converging at the same altitude? The ultralight airplane. airplane. Bigger airplane. The airplane on the right. right. The airplane which has another airplane at his right side.

135. An airplane and anothe r airplane, towin g a glider, are on crossing courses. If the aerotow is on the left of the airplane, which has the right-of-way? a. Both aircraft. b. The aerotow. c. Depends on the magnetic heading of separate aircraft. d. The aircraft in free flight.

136. Which of the following statements, concerning heavier-than-air aircraft right-of-way during landing, is correct? a. Aircraft at higher lev el shall give way t o aircraft at lower level, bu t the lat ter shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another which is in the final stage of an approach to land, or to overtake that aircraft. b. Aircraft in final stage of an approac h to land or which is first in an airport traffic circuit , has the right-of-way over all other aircraft. c. Aircraft which is the highest has the righ t-of-way over all other aircraft with the excepti on of turbojet aircraft, which has the right-of-way over propeller aircraft.

137. a. b. c. d.

When overtaking an aircraft in flight, you should Alter your course to the left. Alter your course to the right. Fly below or above it. Fly below it exclusively. exclusively.


PPL (A) – Aviation law 138. Which minimum life-saving equipment is recommended to be on board of a non-commercial flight of a single -engined landplan e when fl ying en r oute over w ater bey ond glidi ng distance from the shore? a. Life saving rafts in sufficient numbers to carry all persons on board. persons on board and one life jacket for b. Life saving rafts in sufficient numbers to carry all persons each person on board. board. c. One life jacket or equivalent individual floatation device for each person on board.

What is the distance from land suitable for making an emergency landing at which must an 139. extended over water non-commercial flight of a multi-engined aeroplane capable of continuing flight wi th one e ngine ino perative carry addi tional t o appropri ate numb er of life j ackets suffici ent number of life-saving rafts and the equipment for making the pyrotechnical distress signals? a. 200 NM. b. 50 NM. c. 100 NM.

140. The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make t he appropriate entriesin the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service a. Lies with the b. Mechanic, who performed the work. c. Owner or operator. operator. d. Pilot in command.

How often is a glider or an aeroplane state of airworthiness inspected by the authorized 141. person? a. Regularly each year and in case if changing ownership or after re pairs. b. Regularly every two years and after a hard l anding. c. One year after the last regular inspection and in case of changing ownership. d. Regularly each year before beginning of a flying season.

142.

An ATC clear ance provides a. Authoriza tion to proceed under specified traffic conditi ons in controlle d airspace. b. Priority over all other traffic. c. Adequate separat ion from all traffic.


PPL (A) – Aviation law What action should be taken if a pilot receives a clearance that will cause a deviation from 143. a rule? a. Refuse the clearance as stated and request t hat it be amended. b. Accept the clearance, because the pilot is not responsible for the deviation. c. Accept the clearance and advise Air Traffic Control when deviation occurs. d. Accept the clearance a nd advise Air Traffic Control that he believes a rule deviati on will occur.

144. If a pilot has to deviate from an air traffic control clearance due to unforseen circumstances, circumstances, he has to a. Transmit a general call giving all details concerning his deviation from the ATC clearance. b. Inform all ATC stations concerned by transmitting a multiple call. c. Notify the competent ATC unit without delay and obtain an amended ATC clearance. d. Notify the Aeronautical Information Service.

145. a. b. c. d.

When intercepted by a military aircraft, the pilot of an VFR aircraft should Squawk 7700. Attempt to establish commu nications with the interce pting aircraft over 121.5 MHz and comply with the intercepts signals. Acknowled ge receipt of intercepti ng aircraft instructions with the appropriate visual signals. All of th e above

During a cross-country flight you notice the military aircraft approaching your left wingtip 146. and flying along; after a short time it makes an abrupt break-away maneuver of a climbing turn to the left. What does this mean? a. You may proceed! b. You have been intercepted. Follow me! c. Land at the aerodrome in t he direction of my flight! d. Leave the prohibited area immediately!

During a cross-country flight you notice the military aircraft approaching your left wingtip, 147. flying alon g for a while, the n rocking the wings and commencin g a shallow turn to the right. Wha t does this mean? a. Return to the aerodrome of origin! b. You have been intercepted. Follow me! c. Leave the prohibited area immediately! d. You may proceed!

During a cross-country flight you find yourself i n the vicinity of an unknown airport. A 148. military aircraft approaches, approaches, turns around your aircraft, rocks the wings and finally lowers the landing gear. What does this mean? a. You have been intercepted, land at t he airport below you! b. You may proceed! c. Leave the airport zone immediately! sport airfield! d. Leave the airport zone and land at t he nearest sport



Subject:

PPL(A) – Aircraft General Knowledge

PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge NOTE: The correct answer under a. During the exam the order of answers will be different. Review questions: 1) Its good practice, when flying over large areas of water, that life jackets: a) Are worn, uninflated. b) Should be carried under the pilots' seats. c) Should be inspected periodically for leaks. d) Are worn inflated.

2) A BCF fire extinguisher: a) Is quite safe to use in an enclosed cockpit if the cockpit is subsequently ventilated. b) Gives off highly toxi c fumes and should never be used in an enclosed cockpit c) Is quite safe to use in an enclosed cockpit. i n a cockpit d) Is only suitable for wood or fabric fires a nd is, therefore, of no use in

3) If you suspect carburettor icing when flying an aircraft whose engine is not fitted with a carburettor air-temperature gauge, the correct action would be: a) To always select full carburettor heat. b) To select the appropriate amount of carburettor heat depending on the amount of icing suspected. c) To always select full carburettor heat unless the engine starts to run roughly, at which point the carburettor heat should be selected to cold. d) To open the throttle to make up for the lost power.

4) Aquaplaning speed:a) Can be calculated, in knots, by multiplying the square root of the tyre pressure by nine. b) Increases as the depth of tread on the tyres reduces. c) Increases as the depth of water on the ground increases. d) Is measured in miles per hour.

5) Connecting two 12 volt, 40 ampere-hour, capacity batteries in series wil l provide a battery of: a) 24 volts and 40 ampere-hours capacity. b) 12 volts and 80 ampere-hours capacity. c) 24 volts and 80 ampere-hours capacity. d) 12 volts and 40 ampere hour’s capacity.

6) If a blockage occurs in the oil cooler of an aircraft engine while the aircraft is in flight, a by-pass valve allows the oil to by-pass the cooler. T he by-pass functions on the principle of: a) Pressure dependence. b) Temperature dependence. c) Mechanical selection. d) Hydraulic selection.

Latest information about the exam ex am can be found at www.tafa.aero

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PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge le ngth in order to: 7) A propeller blade is twisted along its length a) Maintain the optimal Angle of Attack from root to tip. ncreasing blade angle from root to tip. b) Give a progressively iincreasing c) Give a progressively increasing pitch from root to tip. l inear speed of the blade from root to tip. d) Compensate for the decreasing linear

8) Magnetos are: elect rical generators which produce high voltage sparks. a) Self contained, engine driven, electrical b) Generators, driven by the cam-shaft, used to supply electrical equipment vol tage sparks for the spark-plugs. c) Used to generate low voltage d) Fitted within the distributor, and fire in the same sequence as the spark-plugs.

9) Which of the following is an appropriate action to take i f you have a carburettor fire on startup? a) Select mixture control to Idle Cut off (ICO). b) Deselect carburettor heat. c) Turn the starter switch to "Off". d) AII of the above.

10) Tyre creep:a) Can be recognised by the misalignment of markings painted on the tyre and the wheel. b) Can be prevented by painting lines on the tyre and wheel. c) Refers to the movement of an aircraft against the brakes. d) Can be prevented with glue.

11) The diagram shows a light aircraft electrical power system.(See Fig.PPL AKG -1) In flight if the loadmeter reading drops to zero, the most probable cause is that the: a) Alternator has failed. b) Battery has been fully charged. c) Battery is flat. d) Bus-bar is overloaded.

12) The power output of an internal combustion engine can be increased by:a) Increasing the engine R.P.M. b) Decreasing the area of the cylinder. c) Decreasing the length of the stroke. d) Increasing the size of the fuel tank.

13) When turning through North in the Northern Hemisphere:a) Liquid swirl will increase the magnitude of any turning error. b) Turning errors are greatest closer to the magnetic equator. s ignificant than turning errors. c) Acceleration errors are always more significant d) The compass will be lively.


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PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge

s etting constant, the engine R.P.M. of an aircraft fitted with a fi xed14) In a dive, with the throttle setting pitch propeller will: a) Increase if the airspeed is allowed to increase. b) Decrease as the airspeed increases. c) Remain constant whatever the airspeed. set ting is not changed. d) Decrease as long as the throttle setting

15) Immediately after starting an aircraft engine, you must check the starter warning light. If it is still illuminated you should: a) Shut down the engine immediately. I f it remains illuminated shut down the engine. b) Monitor it for 30 seconds. If c) Do nothing. The starter warning light should stay on while the engine is running. d) Shut down the engine, count to 30, and then attempt a re-start.

16) The significance of using the chemically correct mixture of air and fuel is that: a) It allows complete combustion to occur. b) It is the one usually used. c) It is 15:1 by volume. d) It gives the best results.

17) Ignoring any Instrument or Position Errors, in what conditions will the Air Speed Indicator indicate the True Airspeed of an aircraft? a) In ISA, sea-level conditions only. b) At any altitude or temperature. t he temperature lapse rate is in accordance with ISA. c) At any altitude, provided that the d) At any altitude, but only when ISA conditions prevail.

18) While carrying out the Dead Cut Check, with the right magneto selected, you notice that the engine falters, and you suspect it will stop st op running. What should you do? a) Allow the engine to stop completely. b) Quickly switch to the left magneto. c) Quickly switch to both magnetos. kee p the engine running, and then select both magnetos. d) Open the throttle to keep

19) Theoretically, a 100 amp/hr battery will supply 25 amps for: a) 4 hours. b) 25 minutes. c) 100 minutes. d) 25 hours.


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PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge 20) During one complete Otto Cycle, the piston: a) Moves towards the cylinder head twice. b) Rotates around the gudgeon pin twice. c) Receives two power strokes. d) Moves towards the cylinder head four times.

21) Which of the following is not a component of a dry vacuum system? a) A system lubrication device. b) A vacuum generator. c) A vacuum controller. d) A filter to clean the air.

22) While taxying in an aircraft fitted with a fixed pitch propeller, you suspect that you have carburettor icing. The correct action to take would be to: a) Select carburettor heat to fully hot. Then, before take-off, select carburettor heat cold, making sure that the engine develops the correct mi nimum take-off rpm. b) Select carburettor heat to fully hot and leave this setting se lected until you have taken off and are climbing away. full y hot: then select cold as the rpm drops. c) Select carburettor heat to fully d) Avoid the use of carburettor heat on the ground, and rely on the heat of the engine within the cowlings to melt the ice.

23) The Mechanical Tachometer:a) Works on the principle of a magnetic fiel d being induced in a drag cup and creating a torque which rotates a shaft attached to the pointer on the dial of a Tachometer. i n a drag cup to rotate a shaft, which is connected to a pointer, b) Uses the friction generated in against the pressure of a hairspring. c) Is driven directly from the prop shaft. Gears reduce the speed of rotation so that a generator can be used to produce a voltage proportional to shaft speed which is indicated on a gauge calibrated in RPM. d) Is driven directly from the alternator drive.

24) Detonation could result from using: a) Too weak a mixture. b) Too low a manifold pressure. c) A higher grade fuel than recommended. d) Too high an RPM.

25) Pre-ignition in a four stroke piston engine is : earlie r than it should. a) The fuel / air mixture burning earlier engi ne. b) Caused by a rich mixture in a hot engine. c) The explosive combustion of the fuel-air mixture. d) Characterised by the ringing nature of the explosion it causes.


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PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge t he mixture may ignite before the spark plug fires. 26) If the engine gets too hot, the a) This is called pre-ignition. b) This is called detonation. assis t in cooling the engine. c) The mixture should be weakened to assist d) The throttle should be opened to assist in cooling the engine.

27) Instruments normally supplied from the electrical syste m include the: a) Fuel quantity gauges and the turn co-ordinator. b) Engine rpm indicator and the fuel quantity gauges. c) Turn co-ordinator and oil pressure gauge. d) Engine rpm indicator and the turn co-ordinator.

di ffuser which: 28) Some carburettors are fitted with a diffuser a) Prevents the mixture becoming too rich as the rpm increases. b) Prevents the mixture becoming too lean as the rpm increases. c) Prevents the mixture becoming too lean as the rpm decreases. d) Prevents the mixture becoming too rich as the rpm decreases.

t emperature probe which is connected 29) Where in the engine is the oil temperature read by the temperature to the engine's oil temperature gauge? a) After the oil has passed through the oil cooler but before it reaches the hot sections of the engine. b) Inside the hot sections of the engine. t ank. c) As the oil leaves the oil tank. d) Before the oil has passed through the oil cooler.

30) To assist in reducing the temperature of the engine:a) The air/fuel mixture can be richened. b) The airspeed can be reduced. c) The cowl flaps can be closed. d) The air/fuel mixture can be weakened.

wi ng shown in the diagram are: (See Fig.PPL AKG-2) 31) The component parts of the wing A / B/C a) Front Spar / Formers / Rear Spar b) Primary Spar / Formers / Stringer c) Front Spar / Secondary Spar / Former d) Stringers / Secondary Spar / Former

32) Semi-monocoque can be defined as: wit h supported apertures containing an internal structure framework. a) A stressed skin with b) A framework of light-gauge steel tubes welded together to form a space frame of triangular shape.


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PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge c) A structure with no apertures at all. d) An apertureless structure with load bearing formers being supported by stringers and longerons over a stressed skin.

33) On a light aircraft fitted with a mechanically steered nose wheel, st eering on the ground is normally effected by: a) Control rods/cables operated by the rudder pedals. b) Cables operated from the aileron control wheel. c) Use of the differential braking technique, only. d) Hydraulic jacks which allow self-centring.

34) Engine compression ratio is the ratio of the a) Total volume to the clearance volume. b) Clearance volume to the swept volume. c) Swept volume to the total volume. d) Swept volume to the clearance volume.

35) A 100 Ampere-Hour battery : a) Will, in theory, supply 20 Amps for up to 5 hours. b) Must be used in parallel with another similar battery. c) Supplies the bus-bars through a 45 Ampere circuit breaker. d) Takes 100 hours to charge.

alte rnator or generator failure during flight the: 36) In the event of an alternator a) Electrical loads should be reduced to a minimum and a landing made as soon as safely practicable. b) Flight may be continued normally because the battery supplies all electrical loads. t urned off and flight continued normally without c) Alternator master switch should be turned electrical power.

37) If, during descent, the static sources to the airspeed i ndicator and altimeter become blocked by ice: a) Both instruments will over-read. b) The airspeed indicator will over-read and the altimeter will under-read. c) The airspeed indicator will under-read and the altimeter will over-read. d) Both instruments will under-read.

38) Within one "Otto" cycle, the valves of a four stroke piston engine will each open: a) Once. b) Twice. c) During the power stroke. d) During the induction stroke.


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39) The purpose of the compass deviation deviati on card fixed next to an aircraft's magnetic compass is to: a) Indicate the discrepancy between the heading shown on the compass and the actual magnetic heading. b) Compensate for the influence of magnetic material carried on the person of the pilot and/or passengers. c) Indicate the discrepancy between the t he aircraft's track and magnetic north. d) Indicate the discrepancy between the aircraft's track and true north.

40) The normal method for shutting down an aircraft engine is: a) Closing the throttle and moving the mixture to ICO. b) Switching the starter switch to off. c) Moving the mixture to Idle Cut off (ICO). d) Closing the throttle.

41) Why do aircraft engine ignition systems incorporate a means of spark augmentation? a) Because the speed of rotation of the engine, during starting, is too low for the magneto to produce enough energy to ignite the air-fuel mixture. b) Because, at high engine speeds, a fat spark is needed to extract maximum power from the air-fuel mixture. c) In order to overcome the problem of spark-retard during starting. d) AII of the above.

42) Aircraft maintenance carried out by a private pilot in accordance with the pilot's legal entitlement: a) Is to be entered in t he aircraft's log book and certified by the pilot who carried out the maintenance. b) Is to be entered in the aircraft's log book and certified by a licensed engineer. c) Need not be logged or recorded. d) Is to be entered in the aircraft's log book and certified by a CAD approved inspector.

43) Carbon monoxide gas, which is highly toxic, may enter the aeroplane cabin in flight because of an exhaust system defect. Carbon Monoxide: a) Is odourless and colourless. b) May be identified by its strong smell. c) May be identified by its grey colour. d) Has a very distinctive taste.

44) Blade angle from the hub to the tip of a propeller blade in order to maintain an optimal from hub to tip. a) Decreases Angle of Attack. b) Increases Angle of Attack. c) Decreases Geometric Pitch.


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PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge d) Increases Effective Pitch.

45) A Direction Indicator:a) Suffers from apparent drift of the gyro from the fixed position in space to which it was aligned, produced by Earth rotation. b) Is badly affected by acceleration in a turn. c) Is not affected by drift produced from mechanical friction in the gyro gimbal bearings. d) Provides a stable reference in azimuth and elevati on for maintaining accurate headings and pitch attitudes.

46) As a) b) c) d)

you climb altitude and density Increases / Decreases / Decreases Increases / Decreases / Increases Decreases / Increases / Decreases Increases / Decreases / Decreases

and, therefore, the mixture will be

47) The power output of a four-stroke piston engine at sea level: a) Increases as rpm increases. mix ture induced into the cylinder. b) Is proportional to the volume of mixture c) Is constant as rpm increases. d) Increases initially, then remains constant as rpm increases.

48) As an aircraft with a variable-pitch, constant-speed propelle r accelerates along the runway: a) The blade pitch angle increases, maintaining a constant angle of attack and R.P.M. b) The angle of attack will decrease and the engine R.P. M. remain constant. c) The angle of attack will remain constant and the engine R.P.M. will increase. d) The linear velocity of the propeller tip will gradually decrease.

49) The diagram shows a light aircraft electrical power system, which employs a centre-zero reading ammeter. (See Fig.PPL AKG-3) In flight with the battery fully charged and the batte ry switch ON, you would expect the ammeter to be: be: a) In the centre-zero position. b) To the right showing a large positive reading. c) To the left showing a negative reading. d) Fluctuating, but mainly showing a negative reading. PPL AKG-3.jpg 50) A flying control lock:a) Is used to lock the controls on the ground to prevent damage in high wind conditions. b) Will constrain the control column to its des ign limits so as not to overstress the airframe during normal operations. c) Must always be used when flying in gusty conditions. d) Is only necessary on the elevators.


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51) The type of gas which is stored in the activating cylinder of a life jacket:a) Is Carbon Dioxide. b) Is extremely toxic and great care should be taken, when topping up the lifejacket, not to breathe any of it in. c) Is highly inflammable. d) Is Carbon Monoxide.

52) If a fire occurs in a wheel and tyre assembly and immediate action is required to extinguish it, the safest extinguishant to use is: a) Dry powder. b) Carbon dioxide (CO?). c) Bromotrifluoromethane (BTF). d) Water acid.

tie d gyro: gyro: 53) A tied a) Has its axis in the horizontal or yawing plane of the aircraft. b) Does not suffer from apparent wander (drift) because of rotation of t he earth about its axis. c) Has its axis in the vertical or pitching plane of the aircraft. Directi on Indicator because of the apparent wander caused by the d) Cannot be used in a Direction rotation of the earth about its axis.

54) When referring to the magnetic compass, piiots must bear in mind that: a) Turning errors are maximum when turning through North and South, and minimum when turning through East and West. b) Turning errors are maximum when turning through East and West, and minimum when turning through North and South. c) Turning errors increase, the nearer the aircraft is to the Magnetic Equator, and diminish as the aircraft approaches the Magnetic Poles. d) Acceleration errors increase the nearer the aircraft is to the Magnetic Poles, and diminish as the aircraft approaches the Magnetic Equator.

55) After starting a cold engine, if the oil pressure gauge does not indicate within approximately 30 seconds: a) The engine must be stopped immediately. b) The engine rpm should be increased and then the oil pressure re-checked. c) This may be ignored, provided that the oil l evel was checked to be sufficient before startup. d) This may be ignored if the oil temperature is high, provided that the oil level was checked to be sufficient before start-up.

56) Tyre creep may be identified by:


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PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge a) b) c) d)

Alignment marks painted on o n the tyre sidewall and wheel flange. Two yellow diametrically opposed arrows painted on the tyre sidewalls. A tyre pressure check. Two white blocks painted on the wheel flange.

57) The exhaust gas temperature gauge:a) Can indicate whether the air-fuel mixture being drawn into the combustion chamber is too lean or too rich. from excessive heat. b) Is an engine instrument designed to protect the engine from c) Does the same job as the cylinder head temperature gauge. d) Requires power from the D. C. bus-bar.

58) The correct working cycle of a four stroke engine is:a) Induction, compression, power, exhaust. b) Exhaust power induction, compression. c) Induction, power, compression, exhaust. d) Exhaust, induction, power, compression.

59) Flying an aircraft with a flat battery, having st arted the engine using a ground source, is: a) Not recommended because the battery may not charge correctly during flight. b) Acceptable because the battery will be fully charged again before take-off. i s never required in flight. c) Acceptable because the battery is d) Not recommended because the electrical loads will not be energised.

60) Itis important to ensure the priming pump is locked after use because: a) It may cause fuel to be sucked from the fuel strainer i nto the inlet manifold, causing an extremely rich mixture. b) It may cause a fuel leak, resulting i n an increased fire risk. c) It may cause fuel to be sucked from the fuel tank into the carburettor, causing an extremely rich mixture. d) If it vibrates closed, it will cause the engine to stop.

61) What will be the consequence for the validity of an aircraft's Certificate of Airworthiness (C of if the aircraft is not maintained in accordance with the approved maintenance s chedule detailed in the C of A? a) The C of A will be rendered invalid until such time as the required maintenance is completed. CA A for an exemption from the required maintenance b) The aircraft owner must apply to the CAA schedule. renew ed before the aircraft may fly. c) The C of A must be renewed w ill not be affected. d) The validity of the C of A will


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PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge 62) The temperature of the gases within the cylinder of a four stroke engine during the power stroke will:a) Increase. b) Decrease. c) Follow Charles's Law. d) Remain constant.

63) The crankshaft in a piston engine: a) Converts reciprocating movement into rotary motion. b) Controls the clearance of the valves. c) Converts rotary motion into reciprocating movement. d) Rotates at half the camshaft speed.

64) Baffles:a) Are directional air guides which direct the airflow fully around the cylinder. b) Are placed within the lubrication system to slow down the passage of oil into the engine. engi ne. c) Reduce the flow of air around the engine. d) Must be close fitting to reduce the flow of air around the engine.

65) Pre-ignition: a) Is usually caused by a hot spot in the combustion chamber. b) Is also known as pinking. c) Occurs after ignition. d) Happens after the spark occurs at the plug.

66) If is best to run the engine with the mixture: hel ps cool the engine. a) Slightly rich, as the remaining fuel helps b) Chemically correct as this is most efficient remaini ng air helps cool the engine. c) Slightly rich, as the remaining d) Slightly weak, as the remaining air helps cool the engine.

67) The compression ratio of a piston engine is the ratio of the: cyl inder volume when the piston is at a) Cylinder volume when the piston is at BDC to the cylinder TDC. b) Total cylinder volume to the volume when the piston is at bottom dead centre (BDC). c) Total cylinder volume to swept volume. d) Swept volume to clearance volume.

68) Detonation is: a) Unstable combustion. b) An explosion that occurs before the normal ignition point. c) Usually associated with a rich mixture and high cylinder head temperature. wit h a weak mixture and a low cylinder head temperature. d) Usually associated with


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69) If the power supply to the pitot heater failed during flight in icing conditions and the aircraft subsequently descended, the readings on the Alti meter, the VSI and theASI would, if ice had blocked the pitot (Total Pressure) tube:Altimeter VSI ASI a) Read Correctly / Read Correctly / Under-read b) Read Correctly / Under-read / Over-read c) Under-read / Read Correctly / Over-read d) Read Correctly / Read Correctly / Over-read

70) The cylinder head temperature gauge:a) Obtains its temperature information from the hottest engine cyli nder, by means of a probe consisting of two dissimilar metals joined together. b) Is primarily a fuel management instrument. c) Requires alternating current to power the instrument needle. d) Obtains its information from a probe which is installe d about four inches from the cylinder head on the exhaust system.

71) In icing conditions, if a static vent became blocked during level flight and the aircraft subsequently climbed, the readings on the Al timeter, the VSI and theASI would:Altimeter VSI ASI a) Remain unchanged / Remain unchanged / Under-read b) Remain unchanged / Under-read / Over-read c) Under-read / Remain unchanged / Over-read d) Over-read / Over-read / Under-read

72) The most probable cause of the needle of the oil pressure gauge fluctuating when the aircraft is in level flight with the engine running at cruise rpm is: a) A low oil supply. b) The presence of air in the oil tank. c) A loose electrical connection. d) The low power setting.

ai rcraft have fixed undercarriages is that: 73) The principal reason why light training aircraft a) The reduced performance caused by the additional drag of a fixed undercarriage is offset by its simplicity, low cost and easy maintenance. b) Training aircraft need to manoeuvre on the ground. t hat kinetic energy on landing is absorbed. c) Training aircraft need to ensure that s upported at a convenient height d) Training aircraft need to be supported

74) In the aircraft tanks, fuel is most likely to be contaminated by water from: a) Atmospheric air remaining in the tanks. b) Poorly fitting fuel caps.


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PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge c) Contamination during re-fuelling. d) Leaks in the tanks that have let in rain.

75) The oil temperature gauge in the cockpit is connected to a temperature probe that senses the temperature of the oil: a) After it passes through the oil cooler but before it reaches the hot sections of the engine. b) Within the hot sections of the engine. c) Before it passes through the oil cooler. d) In the sump of the engine.

76) An altimeter:a) Contains an aneroid capsule connected to a static pressure source. The capsule contracts during a descent b) Contains a barometric capsule, connected to a total pressure source, that contracts during a descent. c) Contains a barometric capsule that expands during a descent d) Contains a partially evacuated capsule that expands during a descent.

77) An accelerator pump is used to prevent a "flat spot". A "flat spot" is: o pened quickly and the demand for fuel cannot be met immediately. a) When the throttle is opened cl osed quickly and the engine is starved of fuel. b) When the throttle is closed o pened quickly and the mixture becomes temporarily too rich, c) When the throttle is opened cl osed and the mixture becomes temporarily too rich. d) d)j When the throttle is closed

5 0% within a 78) If is possible to get carburettor icing when the relat ive humidity is greater than 50% temperature range of: a) -7 to +33°C. b) 0°C and below. c) -20to+10°C. d) At any temperature.

79) If a fuse blows during flight it: a) May be replaced in the air once only, by one of the same value. l anding. b) Should not be replaced until after landing. c) May be replaced by a fuse of a higher rating to ensure that it will not blow again. d) May be replaced as often as required.

80) Most nose wheels on modern light aircraft are: a) Oleo pneumatic shock-absorber struts. b) Spring steel struts. c) Spring coil struts. d) Compressed rubber struts.


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81) If, while an aircraft is descending, the static vent leading to the Vertical Speed Indicator becomes blocked, the indicator will: a) Show a zero reading, after a short delay. b) Continue to show the same reading. c) Indicate a climb. d) Indicate a descent.

82) When an aircraft is in flight, the pressure sensed by the forward facing hole in the pitot tube is: a) Dynamic pressure plus static pressure. b) Static pressure only. c) Total pressure plus dynamic pressure. d) Dynamic pressure only.

83) Which of the following will increase the angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller blade? a) Decreased TAS and increased RPM. b) Increased TAS and increased RPM. c) Increased TAS and decreased RPM. d) Decreased TAS and decreased RPM.

84) The gyro in an artificial horizon is: a) An earth gyro rotating in a horizontal plane about a vertical axis. b) An earth gyro rotating in a vertical plane about the aircraft's lateral axis. verti cal plane about the aircraft's longitudinal axis. c) An earth gyro rotating in a vertical n a horizontal plane about the aircraft's longitudinal axis. d) A tied gyro rotating iin

85) On a fixed pitch propeller aircraft whose engine is fi tted with a carburettor, the of induction system icing are: a) A gradual drop in rpm and possible rough running and vibration. b) A sudden drop in rpm and engine temperature. c) A rise in manifold pressure and a reduction in air-speed, in le vel flight. d) A rise in engine oil temperature and a fall in oil pressure.

86) The main advantage of an alternator over a generator is that:a) An alternator will give almost full power at engine idling speed. b) A generator can only produce alternating current. c) The output of a generator fluctuates too much. d) An alternator produces direct current from its armature.

87) As air enters the restriction of a Venturi, velocity temperature . a) Increases Decreases Decreases b) Increases Increases Increases

, static or ambient pressure


and

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PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge c) Decreases Increases Decreases d) Decreases Decreases Increases

88) Which instruments are usually powered by a vacuum pump system? (1) Direction Indicator (2) Turn Coordinator (3) Attitude Indicator (4) Altimeter (5) Magnetic Compass. a) (1) and (3). b) (1) and (2). c) (1), (3) and (4). d) (1), (3) and (5).

89) Detonation is: a) Harmful to the pistons. b) Also known as 'piston slap'. c) Part of normal engine running. d) Cannot be identified externally.

90) The distributor arm rotates at: a) A half engine speed. b) One quarter engine speed. c) Engine speed. d) Twice engine speed.

91) A Direction Indicator may be aligned with the magnetic compass:a) By using the caging knob to rotate the Dl azimuth card when the wings are level. di p. b) To minimise the effect of magnetic dip. c) Periodically, to offset the affect of acceleration during a turn. d) Because of the effect of liquid swirl.

92) Where, in an aircraft-engine fuel system, is the electric fuel-boost pump normally fitted? a) At the lowest point of the fuel tank. b) Immediately adjacent to the mechanical fuel pump. c) Between the mechanical fuel pump and the carburettor.

93) A magnetic heading:a) Is the sum of the compass heading and compass deviation. b) Is the sum of the compass heading, compass deviation and variation. c) Is not affected by turning errors. d) Is always referenced to True North.


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94) The prevention of excessive oil pressure in an aircraft engine is assured by: a) The engine's oil pressure relief valve. b) Ensuring that the engine does not exceed the red-line rpm value. c) The engine's high capacity pressure pump. d) The engine's filter by-pass valve.

95) How soon after starting a cold aircraft engine should the oil pressure gauge give an indication? a) Within 30 seconds; otherwise shut down the engine. b) Immediately; otherwise shut down the engine. c) By the time pre-flight checks are complete; otherwise shut down the engine. d) As long as the oil levels were at an adequate level before start-up, and RPM is within li mits, it is probable that the oil pressure gauge is faulty and should be reported after the flig ht.

96) If the gyro of a turn indicator runs at a l ower rpm than its design specification, how will the actual rate of turn of the aircraft compare to the rate of t urn shown on the turn indicator? a) The actual rate of turn of the aircraft will be greater than the rate indicated. b) The actual rate of turn of the aircraft will be same as the rate indicated. c) The actual rate of turn of the aircraft will be less than the rate indicated. d) The turn indicator will not indicate a rate of turn.

e ngine:97) To work at its highest efficiency, the engine:a) Needs to be at the highest temperature consistent with safe operation. b) Oil system must constantly be supplied with hot oil. c) Must be used at high altitude to take advantage of the cooling effect of the atmosphere. consi stent with safe operation. d) Needs to be at the lowest temperature consistent

98) On your instrument panel, the suction gauge is showing system failure. Howeve r, the gyrodriven instruments appear to be functioning normally, and the Low Vacuum Warning Light is off. Where do you think the problem lies? a) In the suction gauge. b) In the suction system. c) With the Low Vacuum Warning Light. d) In the gyro driven instruments.

99) When a compass swing is being carried out: a) The aircraft's heading compass reading is compared with readings from a 'land or datum' compass. b) It can be carried out on any part of the airfield which is dry and flat. c) It will enable the aircraft's variation to be determined.


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PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge 100) a) b) c) d)

What part(s) of a reciprocating aircraft engine seal(s) the combustion chamber? The cylinder rings and valves. The cylinder gasket. The spark plugs. The camshaft.

101) a) b) c) d)

The piston rod in a reciprocating engine engi ne forms a link between The cylinder piston and the crankshaft. The cylinder piston and the camshaft. The valve rod and the rocker arm. The rocker arm and the valve body.

102) a) b) c) d)

What part in a reciprocating four-stroke engine operates the piston val ves? The camshaft. The piston rod. The piston bolt. The diffusor valve.

103) a) b) c) d)

The purpose of fins around the cylinder of a reciprocating air-cooled aircraft engine is a Better cylinder cooling. Cylinder augmentation. Lower engine aerodynamic drag. Lower engine mass.

104) of a) b) c) d)

The power of an aviation engine without a supercharger decreases with altitude because

105) a) b) c) d)

A reciprocating aviation engine develops the hi ghest power In level flight at low altitude. At high altitudes. During takeoff with full RPM. During takeoff.

106) a) b) c) d)

Oil in a reciprocating engine serves For lubricating and cooling of the engine. To increase mixture combustion temperature in the cylinders. As additive for proper fuel/air which burns in the cylinders. For quiet engine operating only.

Lower air density and therefore insufficient cylinder loading. Lower outside temperatures it does not operate at optimum temperature. Higher air density it receives too poor fuel/air mixture. Lower air density it receives too rich fuel/air mixture.


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107) a) b) c) d)

What would be the most likely cause of fluctuating oil pressure in an aircraft engine? Low oil oi l level. Worn or loose bearing. Loose prop seal. Faulty oil pressure indicator.

108) a) b) c) d)

When the engine is stopped, the main source of electrical power is the Battery. Magneto. Generator or alternator. Circuit breaker.

109) a) b) c) d)

For exciting of the alternator an initial ele ctrical current is needed, provided by the Battery. Magneto. Ignition coil. Current distributor.

110) a) b) c) d)

Can the alternator of an aircraft engine operate without the battery? No, in no case. Yes, provided the magnetos operate properly. Yes, however at high RPM only. Yes, provided the pilot has switched swit ched off all electrical services on board.

111) a) b) c) d)

To which source of electrical power is the starter of an aircraft engine connected t o? Directly to the battery. To the external source of electrical power only. To the alternator or generator. Depends on the type of aircraft.

112) The battery master switch should be turned to OFF after the engine is stopped to avoid the battery discharging through the a) Ignition switch. b) Magnetos. c) Alternator or generator. d) Electrical services connected to it.

113) a) b) c)

One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for Improved engine performance. Balanced cylinder head pressure. Uniform heat distribution.


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114) a) b) c) d)

What would be the result of a single magneto fail ure on an aircraft in cruise flight? A slight drop in RPM, plus a slight increase i n fuel consumption. The engine would be difficult to control. The engine would backfire excessively. Black smoke would be observed from the t he exhaust.

115) Can an engine of a parked modern reciprocating aircraft fire if somebody turns the propeller by hand? a) Yes, provided the master switch is on. b) Normally not if the engine is cold with ignition switched off. c) No, under no circumstances. d) Yes, always.

116) a) b) c)

The operating principle of float-type carburettors is based on the Increase in air velocity in the t he throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure. Automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude. Difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.

117) a) b) c)

A carburettor is used to supply A fuel/air mixture to the engine cylinders. Air to the engine cylinders. Fuel to the engine cylinders.

118) a) b) c) d)

An engine that does not have a carburettor but rather metered fuel that is fed under pressure into the induction manifold, is said to have Fuel injection. Supercharging. Metering carburettor.

119) The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to a) Decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density. b) Decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for increased air density. mi xture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and c) Increase the amount of fuel in the mixture d) Density of the air.

120) What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburettor heat is applied? a) The fuel/air mixture becomes richer. b) A decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture.


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PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge c) The fuel/air mixture becomes leaner.

121) While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture? a) The fuel/air mixture may become excessively l ean. cyli nders than is needed for normal combustion, and the b) There will be more fuel in the cylinders excess fuel will absorb heat and cool the engine. c) The excessively rich mixture will create higher cylinder head temperatures and may cause detonation.

122) If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-t ype carburettor, the first indication of carburettor ice would most likely be a) Loss of RPM. b) Engine roughness. c) A drop in oil temperature and cylinder head temperature.

123) Carburettor ice has formed in the venturi of your carburettor and your aircraft starts l osing power. Will the use of carburettor heat result in immediate i ncrease in RPM? a) No, in a fixed-pitch propeller aircraft there will first be some rough running and a further i ngested by the engine. Then RPM will increase. b) Loss of RPM as the melted ice is ingested c) Yes, since the carburettor ice will melt immediately. mel ts the ice and does not affect RPM. d) No, since carburettor heat simply melts

124) What is the purpose of an auxiliary fuel boost pump installed in some light aircraft? a) Providing fuel to the carburettor during start-up and supplying fuel if the engine driven fuel pump fails. b) Faster emptying of fuel tanks. c) Pre-injection of fuel into engine cylinders. d) Increasing engine efficiency.

125) a) b) c) d)

Proper functioning of an auxiliary fuel pump could be checked by The alternator output. The fuel pressure. The characteristic noise. A fuel dropping out of the drain hole.

126) a) b) c)

Why do high compression engines require fuels of a higher grade? To avoid detonation and resulting destruction dest ruction of the engine. To develop more power. To prevent carburettor icing at high speeds.


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PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge d) To avoid pre-ignition and resulting destruction of the engine.

127) On a reciprocating aviation engine, what is controlled by the exhaust temperature gauge (EGT)? a) Quality of the fuel/air mixture. b) Carburettor icing. c) Oil pressure. d) Oil consumption.

128) An abnormally high oil temperature indication i n case of a four-stroke engine may be caused by a) The oil level being too low. b) Operating with a too high viscosity oil. c) Excessively rich mixture. d) The oil level being too high.

129) a) b) c)

For internal cooling, a reciprocating aircraft engine especi ally depends on The air flowing over the exhaust manifold. The circulation of lubricating oil. A properly functioning thermostat.

130) a) b) c) d)

As the throttle is advanced, what happens to the constant-speed propeller of an aircraft? Angle of attack will increase. Angle of attack will not change. RPM will increase. Angle of attack will decrease.

131) a) b) c)

In what flight condition is a torque effect the greatest in a single-engine airplane? Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack. High airspeed, high power, high angle of attack. Low airspeed, low power, low angle of attack.

132) Which adverse effect, caused by a gyroscopic effect, will a pilot experience during the takeoff roll while lifting a tail off the ground? a) Banking tendency. b) Pitching. c) Yawing. 133) What is the function of a shimmy dumper on an aircraft undercarriage? a) To prevent nose wheel vibrations.


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PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge b) To dumpen bouncing. c) To decrease main leg piston travel. d) To decrease shocks on direction pedals.

134) a) b) c) d)

Which instrument(s) is (are) connected to the total pressure? Airspeed indicator only. Airspeed indicator, classic rate-of-climb indicator, and altimete r. Classic vertical speed indicator and altimeter. Classic vertical speed indicator only.

135) a) b) c) d)

Besides the altimeter, which whic h instruments are connected to the static pressure line? Airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, i ndicator, and turn-and-skid indicator. Airspeed indicator only. Airspeed indicator and external temperature indicator. Airspeed indicator and vertical speed indicator.

136) What causes the true airspeed of an airplane t o differ from its indicated airspeed? a) The forward wind component. b) Pitot error caused by flow losses in the pitot tube. i n cruise flight. c) Yaw error caused by the yawing movement in d) Variations in temperature and air density. (see Figure 8)

l imitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators on 137) Which is an important airspeed limitation any one aircraft or glider? a) Maneuvering speed (VA). b) Maximum structural cruising speed (VMO). c) Never-exceed speed (VNE). d) Maximum speed with wing flaps extended (VFE).

138) a) b) c) d)

The maximum speed for flaps extension is equal to the maximum speed for flying with flaps extended. lower than the maximum speed for flying fl ying with flaps extended. equal to the maximum cruising speed. equal to the maneuvering speed.

139) a) b) c) d)

What does the green color band on the airspeed indicator of an aircraft indicate? Normal operating speed range. Dangerous area. The landing gear and flaps operating speed range. Maximum allowed speed.


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PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge 140) a) b) c) d)

What does the red line on an aviation instrument generally represent? Maximal or minimal allowed value. Dangerous area. Landing gear operating speed range. Normal operating range.

141) a) b) c) d)

The red line on an airspeed indicator of a sport aircraft represents the speed which must not be exceeded any time. ti me. maximum speed for abrupt controls movement. speed which could be exceeded in calm air only. speed which could be exceeded with the wing flaps raised and the landing gear retracted.

142) The barometric pressure scale on an aircraft alti meter serves for a) setting of pressure value at the pressure level, from which will the altimeter measure altitudes. b) air pressure reading at flight altitude. c) pressure difference reading between the air pressure at the airport level and the air pressure at the sea level. altimet er during the annual inspection in a service facility. d) exact setting of the altimeter

143) a) b) c) d)

If set to QNH, Q NH, what will be aircraft altimeter alti meter reading reading after landing? Airfield height above the mean sea level. Zero. Airfield height above the pressure plane 1013,2 hPa. Airfield pressure altitude above the standard s tandard value.

144) a) b) c) d)

What height does the altimeter indicate if set to l ocal QNH? Height above sea level. Height above airport. Height above terrain. Flight level.

145) a) b) c) d)

Which altitudes indicates an aircraft altimeter if set t o standard atmospheric pressure? Flight levels. Absolute altitudes. Relative altitudes. True altitudes above the ground surface.

t o set QNH during 146) What would be the indication of an aircraft altimeter if the pilot fails to descent, and therefore lives the instrument i nstrument set to the standard pressure? hPa. a) The airport heigh above the pressure plane 1013.2 hPa. b) Zero. c) The airport elevation.


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PPL (A) – Aircraft general knowledge d) The indication is not usable.

147) a) b) c)

If a pilot changes the altimeter setting to a lower pressure, the altitude indication will decrease. stay unchanged. increase.

148) a) b) c) d)

When set to QFE pressure, an altimeter will indicate the height above the airfield. altitude above sea level. true altitude above ground surface. flight level.

149) a) b) c) d)

If an altimeter is set to QFE pressure, the instrument indication after landing will be zero. the airfield elevation. the airfield height above the pressure plain 1013.2 hPa. the airfield pressure height above the standard value.

150) If a flight is made f rom an area of high pressure into an area of low pressure wi thout the altimeter setting being adjusted, the aircraft true altitude a) decreases. b) increases. c) stays unchanged.


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APPENDEX:

Slika PPL AKG-1 AKG-1



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Subject:

PPL(A) – Flight Performance & Planning

PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning

Review questions: 1) Maximum Landing Mass (MLM) is best define d as. a) Maximum permissible total mass on landing under normal operating conditions. b) Maximum permissible total mass on landing. c) Maximum permissible total mass on the approach to land. d) Maximum permissible total mass on taxiing to park.

2) What V speed is it important not to exceed if sudden full-pitch, nose-up, control movements are planned, and an d why? a) VA, sudden control movements can cause structural damage. b) VD, sudden control movements can cause a departure from co ntrolled flight. c) VNE, sudden control movements can cause structural damage. d) VFB, sudden control movements can cause a departure from controll ed flight.

3) What is the colour of the caution speed range on an Air Speed Indicator, and what must the pilot be mindful of when operating in this range? a) Yellow. - This speed range should not be entered unless the air is smooth. Any manoeuvres should be made using small and gentle control inputs. b) Green. - Stalls, airframe deform ations, and/or structural damage may occur in this range if the pilot uses abrupt and full control deflections. c) Yellow - Stalls, causing airframe defor mations, and/or structural damage may occur in this range if the pilot uses abrupt and full control deflections. d) Green. - Control flutter may occur if turbulence is encountered.

4) What name is given to the load at whic h the aircraft structure will fail? a) Ultimate Load. b) Safety Factor Load. c) Limit Load. d) Maximum Load.

5) An aircraft which has been grossly overloaded will: 1.require increased take-off and landing distances. 2. Have a higher stalling speed. 3. Have a reduced maximum level flight speed. 4. Have increased range and endurance. 5. Have a reduced rate of climb and operating ceiling. Which of the above are correct? a) 1, 2, 3, & 5. b) 1, 2, 4 & 5. c) 2, 4 & 5. d) 1, 2, 3 & 4

2 / 32 Latest information about the exam can c an be found at www.tafa.aero

PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 6) Maximum Zero Fuel Mass (MZFM) is best de fined as. a) Maximum permissible mass of the aircraft with no useabl e fuel. b) Maximum permissible mass of the aircraft with no passenge rs or fuel. c) Maximum permissible mass of the aircraft with no c rew or fuel. d) Maximum permissible mass of the aircraft without occupants and baggage.

7) Maximum Take Of Mass (MTOM) ( MTOM) is defined best as: a) Maximum permissible total mass at the start of the take o ff run. b) Maximum permissible total mass prior to taxiing. c) Maximum permissible total mass prior to take off. d) Maximum permissible total mass at the point of rotation.

8) Which of the following situations may, under certain conditions, result in structural damage occurring ? a) An aircraft being flown above its maximu m all up mass. b) An aircraft in the utility category being flown at its maximum permissible mass. c) An aircraft being flown above its maximum landing mass. d) An aircraft in the normal category being flown at its maximum permissible mass.

9) Never exceed speed (VNE) is the red radial line on the ASI an d marks the speed at which: a) Flight is permitted in smooth conditions only. b) Prolonged fligh t is unsafe. c) Flight is prohibited. d) Structural damage will occur.

10) When flying in very rough air what is the maximu m speed to be adopted in order to avoid overstressing the airframe? a) VRA or VA b) VD or V NO c) VNO or VFE d) VD or V A

11) Your aircraft has an oil reservoir with a capacity of 3 imp/gal which is positioned 20 inches aft of the datum. Given that the oil weighs 9.1 lbs/gal, the rese rvoir will possess a moment of:a) 546 lb in. b) 60 lb in. c) 27.3 lb in. d) 182 lb in.

12) Assuming the aircraft is at rest on the groun d, what term best describes im age 'D'? (See fig. PPL FPP-2) a) Maximum All Up Mass. b) Zero Fuel Mass. c) Traffic Load. d) Empty Mass.


PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 13) An aircraft is loaded such that its C of G is on the aft limit:I The stalling speed decreases, whic h is a negative factor. II Range and endurance decrease, which are negative factors. III The stall risk increases, which is a neg ative factor. IV Stick forces increase, which is a negative factor. a) Only II and III are correct. b) All of the above are correct. c) Only I and I V are correct. d) Only II and IV are correct.

14) Certification requirements stipulate that when lo ading a light aircraft: a) The C of G should remain within the defined limits and the Maximum Take-off Mass must not be exceeded. b) All seats, baggage compartments com partments and fuel tanks are conta ined within the C of G limits so that it is impossible to load the aircraft beyond its limits. c) With maximum traffic load and full fuel the aircraft will not excee d the authorised Maximum Take off Mass. d) That the Maximum Take-off Mass is not exceeded, and the CofG remains at least 5% inside the C of G limits.

15) The Maximum Take-o ff Mass of an aircraft may be limited by:a) Structural design load limits and or runway length, altitude and temperature. b) The authorised performanc e category of the aircraft, i.e. Utility / normal / aerobatic. c) The airworthiness condition of the aircraft. d) All of the above.

16) DOM (Dry Operating Mass) is defined as: a) The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation including crew, crew baggage and special equipment but excluding us eable fuel and traffic load. b) The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation including: crew and crew baggage, catering and removable passenger service equipment and fuel. c) The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation including: crew and crew baggage, catering and removable passenger service equipment and traffic load. d) The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation including: crew and crew baggage, catering and removable passenger service equipment, traffic load and fuel.

17) An aircraft loaded in a dang erous manner, so th at its C of G is beyond its forward limit will: a) Have both an increased longitudinal stability and stalling spee d. b) Require less effort to flare when landing. c) Require less effort to rotate on take o ff. d) Have both an increased range and endurance.

18) The flight characteristics of an aircr aft which has its C of G at the forward limit will be:a) Insensitivity to Pitch Control and great Longitudinal Stability. b) Insensitivity to Pitch Control and little Longitudinal Stability. c) Sensitivity to Pitch Control and little Longitudinal Stability. d) Sensitivity to Pitch Control and great Longitudinal Stability.


PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 19) An aircraft weighing 2000 lbs with a total CofG moment of + 169400 lb in uplifts 440 lbs of fuel. If the effective arm of the fuel is 88.5 inches aft of the datum, wha t will be the aircraft's new mass and C of G moment? a) 2440 lbs +208340 lb in. b) 1560 lbs +208340 lb in. c) 2440 lbs +169488.5 lb in. d) 1560 lbs +169488.5 lb in.

20) You plan to carry your aircraft's maximum permissible 'Traffic Load'. Your principal co nsideration during your flight planning will be that:a) Your fuel load may have to be limited to prevent you exceeding the Maximum All Up Weight / Mass. b) It is mandatory to carry a full fuel load when carrying pass engers. c) The fuel load is accounted for in 'Traffic Load' calculations. d) The 'Traffic Load' may have to be reduced to allow for the full fuel load.

21) Traffic Load':a) Is the total mass of passengers, baggage and fr eight. b) Includes drinkable water and lavatory chemicals. c) Is the total mass of passengers, bagg age and freight and fuel. d) Includes the Basic Empty Mass.

22) The consequences of operating an aeroplane with the C of G beyond the aft limit will be:I On the ground the aircraft would be tail heavy and passenger or crew movement or fuel usage could make it tip up. II The flying controls would be too se nsitive increasing the risk of a tail strike at rotation. III The tendency to stall would increase and it may be impossible to achieve "hands off" balanced flight. IV Recovery from a spin would be muc h more difficult. a) All statements are correct. b) Only statement I is correct. c) Only statements I and IV are correct. d) Only statements II and III are correct.

23) Assuming the aircraft is at rest on the grou nd, what term best describes im age A'? (See fig. PPL FPP-2) a) Zero Fuel Mass. b) Take Off Mass. c) Maximum All Up Mass. d) Empty Mass. PPL FPP-2.jpg 24) In which Category. Utility or Normal, would you expect to operate the aircraft represented in the attached CofG /Moment Envelope if its mass is 2100 lbs and its CofG Moment 90,000 lb inches? (See fig. PPL FPP-7) a) Normal. b) Utility. c) Both. d) Neither.


PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 25) What is used as the aircraft reference for the C of G limit, and upon which axis is that limit found? Axis Reference a) Longitudinal Datum b) Normal Spinner c) Lateral Tail Wheels d) Vertical

26) C of G limits are set by the manufacturer and: a) Are mandatory. b) Have only a forward limit. g uide only. c) Are a guide d) Have only an aft limit

27) Your aircraft has:A Take-off Mass of = 2353 tbs A calculated C of G for departure = 89.75 inches aft of the datum An estimated fuel burn = 200 lbs with a C of G 85.00 inches aft of datum. The position of the C of G on landing will be? a) 90.19 inches aft of the datum. b) 82.52 inches aft of the datum. c) 105.98 inches aft of the datum. d) 96.97 inches aft of the datum.

28 h 2e 8)CT )CTentr en tre e of Gravity of Gravity range of most of most aircraft reduces as the aircraft mass increases, as a result of:a) The forward C of G limit moving rearwards to reduc e stability. b) The aft C of G limit moving forward to incr ease stability. c) The aft C of G limit moving rearwards to e xtend the static margin. d) The static margin moving forward to reduce mano euvrability.

29) When calculating the MZFM (maximum zero fuel mass), the following are inclu ded:a) Crew, Passengers, Baggage & Catering. b) Crew, Passengers & Baggage. c) Crew, Passengers, Baggage, Catering & Fuel. d) Drinkable water and lavatory chemicals.

30) What effect will a higher aircraft mass have on rotate speed and take-off safety speed? a) It will increase both speeds. b) It will decrease both speeds. c) It will increase rotate speed and decrease take off safety speed. d) It will decrease rotate speed and increase take off s afety speed.

31) What is the effect of runway slope on the take-off? a) An uphill slope will increase the take-off distance. b) An uphill slope will increase the take-off performance. c) A downhill slope will increase the take-off distance d) A downhill slope will decrease the take-off performance.


PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 32) That part of a runway surface which is used for normal operations during take-off, excluding any clearway or stopway, is referred to as:a) The take-off run available (TORA). b) The landing distance available (LDA). c) The take-off distance available (TODA). d) The emergency distance available (EMDA).

33) If the density of the atmosphere is reduce d, the take-off distance will be:a) Increased. b) Decreased. c) Unaffected. d) Controlled by wind.

34) If the density of the air is increased above IS A conditions, the effect will be: a) To increase the take-off performance. b) To increase the take-off distance. c) To decrease the take-off performance. d) To decrease just the take-off run.

35) When the density of the atmosphere is relatively low, the resulting reduction in:a) Both lift and engine power will require a longer take-off distanc e. b) Thrust and drag has no apparent effect on the take-off distance required. c) Drag will permit the use of greater flap angles. d) Drag offsets the loss of engine power giving improved acceler ation.

36) The main reason for taking off into wind is to:a) Decrease the ground spee d of the aircraft at lift-off. b) Decrease the take off distance available (TODA). c) Increase the ground speed o f the aircraft. d) Increase the take-off distance.

37) Increasing the aeroplane's gross weight will have what effect on the take-o ff? a) Increase the stall speed and the take-off run req uired. b) Decrease the stall speed and increase the take-off r un required. c) Increase the stall speed and decrease the take-o ff run required. d) Decrease the stall speed and the take-off run re quired.

38) What is the reason for increasing the speed in a prolonged climb:a) To increase the flow of air through the engine and keep it cool. b) To maintain the best rate of climb sp eed. c) To reduce the noise of the aircraft in sensitive areas. d) To maintain the best angle of climb speed.


PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 39) Climbing at Vy will achieve:a) The greatest increase in altitude in a given period o f time. b) The maximum angle of climb. c) The maximum increase in height in the shortest horizontal distance. d) The best obstacle clearance performance.

40) To gain the greatest amount of h eight in the shortest time period the aircraft sho uld be flown at:a) The best rate of climb speed (Vy). b) 60 KT c) The best angle of climb speed (Vx). d) At the speed for maximum endurance.

41) Calculate the rate of climb fo r an aircraft operating at 5000ft with an outside air temperature o f 0°C. (See fig. PPL FPP-8e) a) 530 fpm. b) 585 fpm. c) 475 fpm. d) 470 fpm.

42) Increasing the mass (and, therefore, weigh t) of the aircraft will:a) Decrease the rate and angle of clim b. b) Increase the rate and angle of climb. c) Increase the rate of climb and dec rease the angle of climb. d) Decrease the rate of climb and inc rease the angle of climb.

43) The best rate of climb is achieved:a) When flying at the speed for maximum excess powe r available. b) When flying at the speed for maximum excess thrust available. c) When climbing climbi ng into wind. d) When flying at vx.

44) The indicated air speed for the best rate of climb when climbing to cr uise altitude will tend to:a) Decrease. the n increase. b) Decrease then c) Remain the same. d) Increase.

45) The lift produced by the wing of an aeroplane that is climbing and m aintaining a constant airspeed will be:a) Greater than weight. b) Less than weight. c) Equal to weight. d) Independent of weight.


PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 46) An aircraft cruising at 2000ft is cleared to climb to 8000ft. Calc ulate the time taken in minutes, the fu el used in gallons and the distance flown during the climb. The temperature is standard and the wind is calm. (See fig. PPL FPP-9e) Time (mins) Fuel (gal) Distance (nm) a) 12 2.3 17 b) 15 3.0 21 c) 3 4 0.7 d) 18 3.7 25

4 lim 7)bCing at Vx will achieve:a) The maximum angle of climb. b) The best time to height. c) The greatest increase in altitude in a given period o f time. d) The maximum horizontal distance for a given vertical distance.

48) If the centre of gravity is moved aftwards. The effect is? a) An increased range and endurance. b) A stronger lift-weight couple which requires more tail plane down force. c) A reduced range and endurance. d) A greater tail load.

49) What speed should be flown for maximum range: (See fig. PPL FPP-10e) a) B. b) A. c) C. d) D.

50) What is the maximum range speed fo r a piston engine aircraft? a) VMD b) VMP c) At a higher speed than VNO and at the lowest safe altitude. d) At a speed less than VMD and at the lowest safe altitude.

51) In order to maximise the glide range, the aircraft s hould be flown: a) At low angles of attack at VMD. b) At high angles of attack at VMD. c) At low angles of attack at VMP. d) At a negative angle of attack at VMD.

52) A pilot wishes to fly at a speed which will give him maximum range. He knows that he is flying with a tailwind. How will the speed selected by the pilot co mpare with the maximum range spe ed for still air? a) It will be decreased by a margin slightly less than the amo unt of tailwind. b) It will be increased by a margin slightly less than the amo unt of tailwind. c) It will be the same as for still air. d) It will be decreased by a margin slightly more th an the amount of tailwind.


PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 53) Which of the following cases will result in a reduce d performance and possibly exce ed the structural limitations of the aircraft? a) An aircraft that is operated above its maximum all up weight. b) An aircraft that is stalled at its maximum all up weight. c) An aeroplane that is operated above its maximum all up landing weigh t d) An aircraft with a higher take-off mass than a landing mas s.

54) What is the effect of a headwind on the glide angle and glide distance? a) Glide angle will increase and glide distance decrease. b) Glide angle will remain the same and glide distance will remain the same. c) Glide angle will increase and glide distance increase. d) Glide angle will decrease and glide distance decrease.

55) What speed must be flown to attain the maximum cruise endurance? a) VMP b) VY. c) Maximum speed. d) VMD

56) The maximum glide range will be achieved by:a) a relatively low angle of attack being maintained. b) A relatively high angle of attack being maintained. c) A negative angle of attack being maintained. d) A high descent angle.

57) If weight is increased, the rang e of the aircraft will be: a) Reduced. b) Unchanged. c) Increased. d) Reduced if no increas e in lift is achieved.

58) A wing contaminated by a small amount of ic e will produce:a) More drag, more weight and less lift. b) More weight and more lift. c) An increase in both lift and drag co-efficient. d) An increase in weight and dec rease in drag.

59) When gliding for maximum rang e, an aircraft with a greater weight will:a) Have a faster descent speed but the same descent angle. b) Have a reduced glide range. c) Have a shallower descent angle. d) Have a faster descent speed and a reduced descent distance. 60) What speed must be flown to attain the maximum c ruise range? a) VMD b) VX c) Maximum speed. d) VMP


PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 61) What would be the effect of an increase in tem perature upon the air density and aircraft perform ance? a) Reduced density and reduced aircraft performance. b) Increased density and reduced aircraft performance. c) Increased density and increased aircraft performance. d) Reduced density and an increase in aircraft performance.

62) Compared to gliding in still air, the effec t of a tailwind will:a) Increase the glide range but have no effect on the glide endurance. b) Decrease the glide angle and decrease the rate o f descent c) Have no effect on the glide range or the rate of descent. d) Increase the glide angle and increase the glide range.

63) Which of the speeds indicated by A, B, C or D should be flown for maximum endurance? (See fig. PPL FPP-10e) a) A. b) B. c) C. d) D.

64) During straight and level flight, any increase in lift causin g an imbalance in the equilibrium o f forces is compensated for by: by: a) A downward force on the tailplane. b) An upward force on tailplane. c) An increase i n power. d) A decrease in drag.

65) What is the effect of an increase in mass on the staii speed and landing distance required? a) Increased stall speed and increased landing distance. b) Increased stall speed and decreased landing distance. c) Decreased stall speed and decreased landing distance. d) Decreased stall speed and increased landing distance.

66) When landing, if an aircraft's true air speed is signific antly less than the true ground speed then the aircraft is experiencing: a) A tailwind. b) A headwind. c) A reduced atmospheric density. d) A cross wind.

67) If the approach and landing speed is higher recommended speed in the aircraft manual the effect will be that: a) The landing distance will be increased. b) The landing distance will be decreased, c) The landing performance will improve, d) The landing distance will be unaffected.


PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 68) What effect would a 2% downslop e have on the landing distance required? a) Increase it by 10%. b) Increase it by 5%. c) Decrease it b y 5%. d) Decrease it by 10%.

69) Compared to landing on a level runway, what would be the effect of landing on a downward sloping runway? a) The landing distance will be increased. b) The landing performance will improve. c) The landing distance will be decreased. d) The landing distance will be unaffected.

70) If the stalling speed in the landing confi guration is 55 knots. VREF would be approximately: a) 71kt. b) 65kt. c) 75kt. d) 69 kt.

71) The VREF to be attained by the landing scree n height of 50ft must be: a) 1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration. b) 1.15 times the stalling speed in the take off config uration. c) 1.43 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration. d) 33% of stall speed.

72) If the aircraft mass is increased by 15%, the landing distance required will increase approximately: a) 15% or by a factor o f 1.15 b) 33% or by a factor o f 1.33 c) 10% or by a factor o f 1.1 d) 20% or by a factor o f 1.2

73) Landings are carried out into wind because: a) It will reduce the ground speed and reduc e the landing distance required. b) It increases the ground speed and reduc es the landing distance required. c) It decreases the ground speed and reduces the landi ng distance available d) It gives the pilot greater control over the aircraft at lower spee ds.

74) Determine if the aircraft mass is inside the limits (normal category)! (See fig. PPL FPP-17e) item mass (lb) moment/1000 (lbxin) Empty mass 1,350 51.5 Pilot and front passenger 360 280 Rear passengers 30 US gal. Fuel -0.2 8 qt Oil, a) Inside limits. b) Forward of the forward limit. c) Inside limits, close to the forward limit. d) Aft of the aft limit.


PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 75) What is the maximum amount of fuel that may be aboard the airplane on takeoff if loaded as follows? (See fig. PPL FPP-17e) item mass (lb) moment/1000 (lbxin) Empty mass 1,350 51.5 Pilot and front passenger 340 Rear passengers 310 Baggage 45 Oil, 8 qt -0.2 a) 40 USA gal. b) 24 USA gal. c) 34 USA gal. d) 46 USA gal.

I7V6E)NG: item mass (lb) arm(in) Empty mass 1,495.0 101.4 Pilot and passenger 380.0 64.0 Fuel 30 US gal 96.0 The CG is located how far aft of datum? a) 94.01 in. b) 92.44 in. c) 119.80 in. d) 135.00 in.

moment (lbxin) 151,593.0

7 et7e 7e) rD mine the moment with the following data: (See fig. PPL FPP-17e) item mass (lb) moment/1000 (lbxin) Empty mass 1,350 51.5 Pilot and front passenger 340 Fuel (full std. tanks) Oil, 8 qt -0.2 a) 74.9 lbxin. b) 38.7 lbxin. c) 69.9 lbxin. d) 77.0 lbxin.

h78at)iWsthe maximum maxi mum amoun a mountt of o f baggage bagg age that t hat may m ay be b e loaded loa ded aboard aboa rd the th e normal nor mal catego ca tegory ry airplane airp lane for CG to remain inside proper limits? (See fig. PPL FPP-17e) item mass (lb) moment/1000 (lbxin Empty mass 1,350 51.5 Pilot and front passenger 250 400 Rear passengers 30 US gal. Fuel Baggage

Oil, a) 105 lbs. b) 120 lbs. c) 90 lbs. d) 75 lbs.

8 qt

-0.2


PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 79) The easiest way to determine the pressure altitude is setting an altimeter to a) 1013.2 hPa and reading the altitude. b) The airport elevation and reading the altitude. c) The airport elevation and reading the value in the barometric window. d) Zero and reading the value in the barometric window.

80) Basic reason for calculating the densi ty altitude is determining a) The aircraft performance. press ure altitude. altitude. b) The pressure c) The flight levels above the transition altitude. d) The safe altitude over mountainous terrain.

81) What is pressure altitude? a) The altitude indicated when the barome tric pressure scale is set to 1013.2 hPa. b) The indicated altitude corrected for position and installation error. c) The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure.

82) Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude? a) When standard atmospheric conditions exist. b) When the atmospheric pressure is 1013.2 hPa. c) When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude.

83) Which of the factors belo w increases the density altitude of an airport? a) Increase of temperature. b) Increase of atmospheric pressure. c) Decrease of relative humidity of the air. o f temperature. d) Decrease of

84) Under what condition is indicate d altitude the same as true altitude? a) When at sea level under standard conditions. b) If the altimeter has no mechanical error. c) With the altimeter set at 1013.2 hPa.

85) If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given altitude is lower than standard, the density altitude is a) Higher than pressure altitude. b) Lower than pressure altitude and approximately equal to true altitude. c) Higher than true altitude and lower than pressure altitude. d) Lower than true altitude.

86) What is density altitude? a) The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature. b) The height above the standard datum plane. c) The altitude read directly from the altimeter.



87) Determine approximately density altitude of an airport, where the temperature is standard and an altimeter set to 1011hPa, reads 1,300 ft. a) 1,360 ft. b) 1,240 ft. c) 1,300 ft. d) 1,400 ft.

88) What is increase in density altitude if a temp erature increases from 0 to 10 °C and if the pressure altitude of an airport remains 3,000 ft? a) 1,200 ft. b) 3,000 ft. c) 2,200 ft. d) 2,000 ft.

89) Determine the pressure altitude with an indicated altitude 1,380 ft with an altimeter setting of 1013. 2 hPa at standard temperature. a) 1,380 ft. b) 1,280 ft. c) 1,480 ft. d) 1,580 ft.

90) What is the effect of a tempe rature increase of 12°C on the de nsity altitude? a) 1,440-foot increase. b) 1,650-foot decrease. c) 1,340-foot decrease. d) 1,650-foot increase.

91) Determine the density altitude of an airport for these conditions: QNH 1025 hPa temperature -4°C elevation 3,850 ft a) 2,050 ft. b) 2,900 ft. c) 3,500 ft. d) 3,800 ft.

h92at)iWsthe approxim app roximate ate pressure press ure altitude altitu de if an altimeter altime ter is set to 1010 101 0 hPa hP a and indicates indi cates 1,380 ft? a) 1,470 ft. b) 1,200 ft. c) 1,300 ft. d) 1,400 ft.


PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 93) Determine the density altitude of an airport for these conditions: QNH 1010 hPa temperature 27°C elevation 5,250 ft a) 7,890 ft. b) 4,600 ft. c) 5,875 ft. d) 8,800 ft.

h94e)dTensity altitude could be approximately calculated from the pressure altitude without using a navigation calculator by a) Increasing/decreasing the pressure altitude by 120 ft for each °C deviation above/below the standard temperature. b) Increasing/decreasing the altitude above the sea level for the difference between the standard and actual atmospheric pressure, co nverted into an altitude. c) Increasing the pressure altitude by 4% for each 10°C deviation from the standard temperatu re.

95) Which of the statements below, concerning take-off performance of a powered aircraft regarding the density altitude is correct? At highe r density altitudes a) Aircraft accelerate poorer, because of reduced engi ne and propeller efficiency. b) Aircraft accelerate better, because of re duced drag due to thinner air. c) Aircraft must fly at higher-than-normal indicated airspeed in order to produce eno ugh lift.

96) How does higher air humidity affect aircraft take-off performance? Take-off dist ances are d ue to thinner air. a) Longer due b) Longer due to denser air. air. c) Shorter due t o denser air.

97) Which combination of atmospheric conditions will reduce aircraft takeoff and climb performance? a) High temperature, high relative humidity and high de nsity altitude. b) Low temperature, low relative humid ity and low density altitude. c) High temperature, low relative humidity and low de nsity altitude. d) Low temperature, high relative humidity and high den sity altitude.

98) What influence does the increased mass have on powered aircraft takeoff p erformance? a) At given engine power the aircraft accelerates poorer; the airspeed required for the production of the lift necessary for leaving the ground is greater. b) At given engine power the aircraft accelerates bet ter, however the airspeed required for production of the lift necessary for lift-off remains unchanged. c) Each aircraft at given engine power accelerate equally regardless of the mass, ho wever the airspeed required for overcoming the grou nd effect is greater.

99) What effect does an uphill runway slope have on takeoff performance? a) Increases takeo ff distance. b) Increases takeo ff speed. t akeoff distance. c) Decreases takeoff


PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 100) a) b) c)

What effect does high density altitude have on aircraft performance? It reduces climb performance. It increases engine performance. It increases takeoff performance.

101) a) b) c) d)

The airplane's or powered hang glider's best angle-of-clim b speed (Vx) is used When clearing cle aring an obstacle. When clearing a moving obstacle. When trying to climb without sacrificing cruising speed. When trying to get cruising altitude quickly.

102) Which speed would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff? a) Best angle-of-climb speed (Vx).. b) Best climb speed (VY). c) Maneuvering speed (VA).

103) a) b) c)

The aircraft's rate-of-climb during a steady climb depends on Excess of power. Excess of thrust. Thrust available.

After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of 104) time? a) Best climb speed (VY). b) Best angle-of-climb speed (Vx). c) Maneuvering speed (VA).

105) a) b) c) d)

What is the proper use for the best-rate-of-climb speed (Vy)? When trying to get cruising altitude quickly. When clearing cle aring an obstacle. When approaching high mountains. When trying to avoid an excessive pitch attitude during a climb.

106) a) b) c) d)

What is the influence of the wind o n an aeroplane's rate of climb? No effect. A headwind will increase the rate of climb. A tailwind will decrease the rate of climb. A tailwind will increase the rate of climb.

107) a) b) c) d)

What influence does the wind have on an airplane's angle-of-climb? A headwind will steepen the angle-of-climb. No effect. A headwind will lessen the angle-of-climb. A tailwind will steepen the angle-of-climb.


PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 108) a) b) c)

The aircraft's climb angle during a steady climb dep ends on Excess of thrust. Power available. Thrust required.

At takeoff from a short airfield with an airplane or a powered hang glider, which airspeed should 109) you fly until cleared of obstacles? a) Best angle-of-climb speed (Vx). b) Best climb speed (VY). c) Minimum spe ed (VS). d) Maneuvering speed (VA).

110) During landing on an airport with high elevation the true air spee d (TAS) of an aircraft is higher than normal. What indicated speed (IAS) should be kept in such cases? a) Normal speed. b) Lower than normal. c) Higher than normal. d) Increased for 5 kts for each 1,000 ft o f airport elevation.

111) a) b) c)

Should you use the normal approach speed when approaching to land in gusty wind conditions? No. Add one half the "gust factor" to the calculated approach speed. No. Use 1.2 times stall speed. Yes (go by Operator's Manual).

112) a) b) c)

Maximum structural cruising speed is the maxim um speed at which an airplane can be operated In smooth air. During abr upt maneuvers. At normal norm al operations.

113) a) b) c)

Why should speeds in flight above VNE be avoided? The design limit factor may be exceeded, if gusts are encountered. Excessive induced drag will result in a structural failure. Control effectiveness is so impaired that the aircraft becomes uncontrollable.

114) a) b) c)

Which maximum range factors decreases as weight decreases? Airspeed. Altitude. Angle of attack.

Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed? 115) a) VA. b) VLO. c) VNE.


PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning Maneuvering speed (VA) is the highest speed at which even full abrupt deflectio n of the elevator 116) will not exceed a) Positive limit load factor. b) Load factor 1 g. c) Negative limit load factor. d) Never exceed speed (vne).

117) How will higher altitude affect the cruising indicated airs peed of an aircraft if a throttle remains unchanged? a) It will be lower. b) It will be higher. c) It will stay unchanged.

118) a) b) c)

What does "Best Endurance S peed" for a propeller aircraft mean? Maximum time aloft per unit of fuel (flying with least power). Maximum distance per unit of fuel (flying with le ast drag). Maximum distance between two stops.

Determine the takeoff distance over a 50-foot obstacle under the following conditions: (See fig. PPL 119) FPP-15e) pressure altitude 0 ft temperature standard mass 1900 lb wind calm surface grass, dry a) 1,030 ft. b) 920 ft. c) 950 ft. d) 1,180 ft.

e1t2e0r)mineDthe ground roll distance required for takeoff! (See fig. PPL FPP-15e) pressure altitude 2,000 ft temperature 40°C mass 2100 lb wind tail 4 kt surface tarmac a) 1,120 ft. b) 565 ft. c) 850 ft. d) 935 ft.


PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 121) Determine the takeoff FPP-15e) pressure altitude temperature mass wind surface a) 2,100 ft. b) 1,125 ft. c) 1,210 ft. d) 1,970 ft.

distance over a 50-foot obstacle under the following conditions: (See fig. PPL 4,000 ft 15°C 2300 lb calm asphalt

e1t2e2r)mineDthe takeoff distance distan ce over a 50-fo 5 0-foot ot obstacle obst acle under unde r the t he following follo wing condition cond itions: s: (See fig. fig . PPL FPP-15e) pressure altitude 2,000 ft temperature 30°C mass 2100 lb wind head 18 kt surface grass, dry a) 1,350 ft. b) 1,555 ft. c) 1,565 ft. d) 2,945 ft.

e1t2e3r)mineDthe total distance required to land. (See fig. PPL FPP-16e) pressure altitude 1,000 ft temperature 30°C mass 2300 lb wind head 9 kt surface tarmac a) 1197 ft. b) 1330 ft. c) 565 ft. d) 509 ft.

e1t2e4r)mineDthe ground roll distance after landing. (See fig. PPL FPP-16e) pressure altitude 0 ft temperature 10°C mass 2300 lb wind head 10 kt surface grass, dry a) 739 ft. b) 510 ft. c) 1235 ft. a) 1790 ft.


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PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning Determine the ground roll distance after landing. (S ee fig. PPL FPP-16e) 125) pressure altitude 0 ft temperature 15°C mass 2300 lb wind calm surface tarmac 520 ft. a) b) 510 ft. c) 530 ft. d) 545 ft.

e1t2e6r)mineDthe ground roll distance after landing. (See fig. PPL FPP-16e) pressure altitude 3,000 ft temperature 20°C mass 2200 lb wind calm surface grass, dry a) 855 ft. b) 590 ft. c) 660 ft. d) 685 ft.

e1t2e7r)mineDthe total distance over a 50-foot obstacle required to land. (See fig. PPL FPP-16e) pressure altitude 1,000 ft temperature 10°C mass 2300 lb wind . tail 10 kt surface tarmac a) 1,900 ft. b) 1,265 ft. c) 1,360 ft. d) 1,850 ft.

e1t2e8r)mineDthe total distance over a 50-foot obstacle required to land. (See fig. PPL FPP-16e) pressure altitude 1,500 ft temperature 30°C mass 2300 lb wind calm surface tarmac a) 1,350 ft. b) 1,385 ft. c) 1,320 ft. d) 1,280 ft.


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PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 129) Determine the total distance over a 50-foot obstacle required to to land. (See fig. PPL FPP-16e) pressure altitude 0 ft temperature 0°C mass 2300 lb wind head 18 kt surface grass, dry a) 1,140 ft. b) 965 ft. c) 1,205 ft. d) 1,445 ft.

h13at0)wil bWethe airspe air speed ed of o f an airpl ai rplane ane in i n level le vel flig f light ht under un der the follo fol lowing wing condi co nditio tions? ns? (See ( See fig. f ig. PPL FPP-14e) pressure altitude 8,000 ft temperature 20°C below standard power setting 55% a) 104 kts. b) 110 kts. c) 115 kts. d) 120 kts.

h13at1)is thWeexpecte eexp ected d fuel consumpti cons umption on for a 250-n 2 50-nautic autical al flight fli ght under unde r the following follo wing condition cond itions? s? (See fig. PPL FPP-14e) pressure altitude 6,000 ft temperature 20°C above standard power setting 60% wind calm 15.1 USA gal. a) b) 19.7 USA gal. c) 16.0 USA gal. d) 12.0 USA gal.

h13at2)is thWeexpecte eexp ected d fuel consumpti cons umption on for a 350-n 3 50-nautic autical al flight fli ght under unde r the following follo wing condition cond itions? s? (See fig. PPL FPP-14e) pressure altitude 4,000 ft temperature 20°C below standard power setting 60% wind calm a) 22.7 USA gal. b) 14.9 USA gal. c) 15.3 USA gal. d) 18.6 USA gal.

p13p3ro)ximAat )ximAately ely what wha t engin en gine e RPM RP M shoul sh ould d be set during dur ing crui c ruisi sing ng at a t the th e press pre ssure ure altitu alti tude de 2,00 2 ,000 0 ft and with standard temperature in order to develo p 60% of power? (See fig. PPL FPP-14e) a) 2300 RPM. b) 2500 RPM. c) 2400 RPM. d) 2200 RPM.


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PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning 134) What is the expected fuel consumption under the following conditions? (See fig. PPL FPP-14e) pressure altitude 8,000 ft temperature 20°C below standard power setting 55% d) 6.2 USA gal/h. e) 5.7 USA gal/h. f) 5.8 USA gal/h. g) 6.8 USA gal/h.

1 h3 ic5h)f h) forw Ward speed is normally maintained, following an engine failure in flight in a light airplane? a) Best glide speed. b) Best enduranc e speed. c) Minimum rate of descend speed. d) Minimum speed.

The forward speed for minimum rate of descent of an aircraft, compared with its best glide speed,

136) is a) b) c) d)

always lower. always higher. often higher. often lower.

137) a) b) c) d)

What should be done first, following an aircraft's engine failure in flight? Select the gliding attitude with best glide speed. Carburetor heat must be applied. Move the mixture lever to position FULL RICH. Select a suitable field for forced landing.

138) An aircraft without an engine will fly the long est distance from a given altitude at the angl e of attack at which a) are induced drag and parasite drag equal. b) is parasite d rag the least. c) is parasite drag equal to lift coefficient.

Frost on the wings of an airplane m ay 139) a) make it difficult or impossible to become airborne. b) cause the airplane to becom e airborne with a lower angle of attack and at a lower indic ated airspeed. c) present no problem since frost will blow off when t he aircraft starts moving during takeoff. d) change the camber (curvature of the wing) thereby increasing lift during takeof f.

What is the main danger arising out of even a slight amount of frost or snow on the wings and 140) controls of an aircraft? a) Decrease lift due to irregular airflow over the wings. b) Increased weight due to ice will increase stall speed. c) Ice and snow will jam control surfaces.


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PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning What is the headwind component for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower reports the wind as 141) 220°/30 kts? (See fig. PPL FPP-13e) a) 23 kts. b) 19 kts. c) 30 kts. d) 34 kts.

h14at2)is thWecros ec rosswi swind nd com c ompon ponent ent for fo r a landi la nding ng on o n Runwa Ru nway y 18 if the th e tower to wer repor rep orts ts the th e wind win d as 220°/30 kts? (See fig. PPL FPP-13e) a) 19 kts. b) 23 kts. c) 30 kts. d) 34 kts.

h14ic3h)runWway (06, 14, 24, 2 4, 32) will you choos c hoose e for fo r landing, lan ding, if tower towe r reports repo rts south so uth wind wi nd 20 kts and an d if maximum allowed crosswind component for your aircraft is 13 kts? (See fig. PPL FPP-13e) a) RWY 14. b) RWY 06. c) RWY 24. d) RWY 32.

1 it4 h4t)he he re Wported wind of 360°/20 of 360°/20 kts you are approaching an airport. Which runway (06,14 or 24) would you choose for landing, if your airplane had a 13-knots maximum allowed crosswind component on landing? (See fig. PPL FPP-13e) a) RWY 32. b) RWY 06. c) RWY 14. d) RWY 24.

h14at5)are tWheheadw ehe adwind ind and cro c rossw sswind ind com c ompon ponent entss with wit h the th e report rep orted ed wind win d of 280° 2 80°/15 /15 kts k ts for f or a runway with the magnetic direction 220°? (See fig. PPL FPP-13e ) a) 7.5 kts headwind and 13 kts crosswind. b) 15.5 kts headwind and 8 kts crosswind. c) 15.5 kts headwind and 15 kts crosswind. d) 13.5 kts headwind and 24 kts crosswind.

e1t4e6r)mineDthe maximum wind velocity for a 45° crosswind if the maximum crosswind component for the airplane is 25 kts? (See fig. PPL FPP-13e) a) 35 kts. b) 18 kts. c) 25 kts. d) 29 kts.


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PPL (A) – Flight Flight performance and planning Determine the maximum wind veloc ity for a 40° crosswind if the maximum crosswi nd component compone nt 147) for the airplane is 10 kts? (See fig. PPL FPP-13e ) a) 15 kts. b) 20 kts. c) 18 kts. d) 12 kts.

e1t4e8r)mineDthe maximum wind velocity for a 30° crosswind if the maximum crosswind component for the airplane is 10 kts? (See fig. PPL FPP-13e ) a) 20 kts. b) 13 kts. c) 16 kts. d) 18 kts.

h14at9)are tWheheadw ehe adwind ind and cro c rossw sswind ind com c ompon ponent entss with wit h the th e report rep orted ed wind win d of 030° 0 30°/10 /10 kts k ts for f or a runway with the magnetic direction 330°? (See fig. PPL FPP-13e ) a) 5 kts headwind and 8 kts crosswind. b) 10 kts headwind and 8 kts crosswind. c) 8 kts headwind and 4 kts crosswind. d) 8 kts headwind and 8 kts crosswind.

h15at0)are tWheheadw ehe adwind ind and cro c rossw sswind ind com c ompon ponent entss with wit h the th e report rep orted ed wind win d of 130° 1 30°/20 /20 kts k ts for f or a runway with the magnetic direction 040°? (See fig. PPL FPP-13e ) a) Zero headwind component; crosswind component 20 kts. b) 15 kts headwind and 10 kts crosswind. c) 10 kts headwind and 15 kts crosswind. d) 20 kts headwind; zero crosswind component.


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APPENDEX:

Fig. PPL FPP-2

Fig. PPL FPP-7


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Fig. PPL FPP-8

Fig. PPL FPP-9


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Fig. PPL FPP-10

Fig. PPL FPP-13


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Fig. PPL FPP-14


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Fig. PPL FPP-15


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Fig. PPL FPP-16


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Fig. PPL FPP-17


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Subject:

PPL(A) – Human Performance & Limitations

PPL (A) – Human Human performance and limitations


In the International Standard Atmos phere (ISA), as altitude increases increases in the troposphere , air density: 1) Decreases. 2) Also increases. 3) Stays the same. 4) Will not be affected as air density is independent of altitude.

2.

The International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) sea -level pressure is equal to: 1) 1013.25 mb. 2) 1014.00 mb. 3) 1014.25 Hpa. 4) 50 inches of mercury.

3.

Air in the atmosphere is made up of: 1) Nitrogen (78 %), Oxygen (21%), Carbon Dioxide (0.03%) and Argon (1%). 2) Nitrogen (78%), Oxygen (21%), Carbon Dioxide (0.03%) and Hydrogen (1%). 3) Nitrogen (1%), Oxygen (78%), Carbon Dioxide (21%) and Argon (0.03%). 4) Nitrogen (21%), Oxygen (0.03%), Carbon Dioxide (78%) and Argon (1%).

4.

In the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA), as altitude increases in the Troposphere, Troposphere, tem perature: 1) Decreases. 2) Also increases. 3) Stays the same. 4) Will not be affected as it is independen t of altitude.

5.

If the atmospheric pressure dec reases, the partial pressure of the oxygen in the atmosphere will: 1) Decrease. 2) Increase. 3) Stay the same. 4) Not be affected as it is independent of atmospheric pressure.

6.

In the international standard atmosphere (ISA), as altitude increases in the troposphere, troposphere, pressur e: 1) Decreases. 2) Also increases. 3) Stays the same. 4) Will not be affected as pressure is indepen dent of altitude.

7.

At altitude, the volumetric proportion of oxygen in the atmosphere is: 1) The same as at mean sea level (MSL). 2) Higher than at MSL 3) Lower than at MSL. 4) Dependent on the actual altitude.


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8.

In the International Standard Atmos phere (ISA), as altitude increases in the Stratosphere, temperature: 1) Remains almost constant at -56 degrees Celsius. 2) Also increases. 3) Decreases. 4) Fluctuates between positive and negative temperatures.

9.

Which gas, which is absorbed by the bod y during normal breathing, plays an important role in decompression sickness? 1) Nitrogen. 2) Oxygen. 3) Carbon Dioxide. 4) Carbon Monoxide.

10. After donating blood, what is the minimum time a pilot sho uld wait before flying? 1) 24 hours. 2) 2 hours. 3) 12 hours. 4) 48 hours.

11. Blood pressure may be too high due to: 1) All of the above. 2) Age. 3) Stress. 4) Smoking.

12. Which body system is responsible for distributing oxygen around the body? 1) The Circulatory Circul atory System. 2) The Nervous System. Respi ratory System. 3) The Respiratory Oxid ation System 4) The Oxidation

13. The blood carries around the body and removes occurring in the _. / Capillaries. 1) Oxygen / Carbon Dioxide 2) Carbon / Dioxide / Oxygen Veins. 3) Oxygen / Carbon Dioxide / Arteries. 4) Carbon Dioxide / Oxygen / Capillaries.

from the b ody with the exchange

14. Which part of the nervous system usually controls breathing? 1) The Autonomic Nervous System. 2) The Central Nervous System. 3) The Peripheral Nervous System. 4) AII of the above.


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PPL (A) – Human Human performance and limitations 15. Enter into the following stateme nt the most correct pair of figures from the options below. The maximum recommended levels of alcohol consumption per week are for men and women. 1) 21 units / 14 units. 2) 14 units / 21 units. 3) 3 units / 7 units. 4) 7 units / 3 units.

for

16. Brain cells that have been deprived of o xygen will start to die in: 1) 2 minutes. 2) 2 seconds. 3) 1/2 hour. 4) 2 hours.

17. Which of the following gase s regulate the rate and depth of breathing, depen ding on the levels at which the gas is present in the blood? 1) Carbon Dioxide. 2) Oxygen. 3) Nitrogen. 4) Carbon Monoxide.

18. When a person is experiencing st ress or fear, adrenaline is released into the blood stream causing immediate: 1) Increase in the pulse-rate. 2) Fatigue. consciousness . 3) Loss of consciousness. 4) Decrease in the pulse-rate.

19. Approximately how long does it take a person to dissip ate one unit of alcohol from the blood ? 1) 1 hour. 2) 1/2 hour. 3) 2 hours. 4) 12 hours.

20. Enter into the following stateme nt the most correct pair of gases from the options below. Hemo globin in red blood cells is more readily attracted to than _. 1) Carbon Monoxide / Oxygen. 2) Nitrogen / Oxygen. 3) Oxygen / Nitrogen. 4) Carbon Dioxide / Nitrogen.

21. Which organ controls all other bodily functions? 1) The brain. 2) The heart. 3) The lungs. 4) The spinal cord.


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PPL (A) – Human Human performance and limitations 22. The condition whereby the body does not enough oxygen to function correctly is known as: 1) Hypoxia. 2) Hypotension. 3) Hyperventilation. 4) Hyperglycemia.

23. A likely symptom, or likely symptoms, of H ypoxia might be: 1) Increased h eart rate. 2) Cyanosis. 3) Formication. 4) All of the above.

24. Above what altitude do pilots need to breath supplementary oxygen? 1) 10,000 ft. 2) 2,000 ft. 3) 8,000 ft. 4) 20,000 ft.

25. Compared to a non-s non-smoker, moker, someone who smokes s mokes is likely to experience the effec ts of hypoxia at: 1) A lower altitude. 2) A higher altitude. 3) The same altitude. 4) Any altitude.

26. The effects of Hypoxia can be increased by: 1) All of the above. 2) Increased altitude. 3) Increased temperature. 4) Alcohol.

27. You are taking a friend flying and are cruising at 6,000 ft. Your passenger begins suffering from a tingling sensation, dizziness and visual disorders and then becomes unconscio us. Your passenger is probably suff ering from: 1) Hyperventilation. 2) Hypoxia. 3) Food poisoning. 4) Angina.

28. A likely symptom, or likely symptoms, of H ypoxia might be: 1) All of the above. 2) Unconsciousness. 3) Impaired judgment. 4) Tingling finge rs and toes.


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PPL (A) – Human Human performance and limitations 29. For the pilot of an aircraft on a head-on collision course with a fast-moving j et, the image of the approaching jet will appear to grow in size in the following manner: 1) Only slowly at first until just before impact when the image would grow i n size very rapidly. 2) At a constant co nstant rate. 3) Very rapidly at first but then continue to grow at a constant rate. 4) Rapidly initially, and then rem ain at a constant size until impact.

30. Color-blindness or, more accurately, color- defective vision, is caused by: 1) A defect in the structure of the color-s ensitive cones in the retina. 2) A defect in the lens tissue of the eye. 3) Defective functioning of the ciliary muscles. 4) A foreshort ened eyeball.

31. Hypermetropia and Myopia are normally caused by: 1) A misshapened misshapen ed eye ball. 2) Eye strain. 3) Stress. 4) Badly fitting spectacles.

32. Hypermetropia is caused by a _eyeball and treated by a_ caused by a eyeball and treated with 1) Shortened / convex / lengthened / concave. 2) Lengthened / convex / shortened / concave. 3) Shortened / concave / lengthened / convex. 4) Lengthened / concave / shortened / convex.

whereas Myopia is

33. Which of the following organs of the body supplies the single most dependable source of sensory information? 1) The Eye. 2) The Ear. 3) The Nose. 4) The Neo-cortex.

34. What is the component of the eye respo nsible for peripheral vision and sensitive to low light levels? 1) The Rods. 2) The Cones. 3) The Fovea. 4) The Retina.

35. Empty Field Myopia is a condition where the eyes naturally focus at a distance of approximately: 1) 1 - 2 meters. 2) Infinity. 3) 20 - 500 meters. 4) At the horizon.


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PPL (A) – Human Human performance and limitations 36. At night it is easier to focus on an object if you: 1) Look slightly to one side of it. 2) Look directly at it. 3) Look about 50 degrees either side of it. 4) Look directly at it while holding your e yes open as wide as you can.

37. To lessen the danger of collision with an aircraft which might be in a pilot's blind spot and closing on a constant relative bearing, the pilot should: 1) Carry out a systematic look out at all times. 2) Change heading by a few de grees every 10 minutes or so. 3) Roll the aircraft from right to le ft by a few degrees every 10 minute s or so. 4) Carry out periodic clearing turns.

38. Where is the blind spot? 1) Where the optic nerve enters the Retina. 2) On the Iris. 3) On the Fovea. 4) On the edge of the Lens.

39. Accommodation is the power of the lens to focus rays of light from near objects onto the Fovea. Accommodatio n is controlled by: 1) The Ciliary muscles. 2) The Iris. 3) The Rods and Cones. 4) The Retina.

40. Dark adaptation takes about 1) 30 minutes / 7 minutes. 2) 15 minutes / 20 minutes. 3) 7 minutes / 30 minutes. 4) 25 minutes / 45 minutes.

for the Rods, and

_for the Cones.

41. The power of accommodation in an eye: 1) Is decreased as the elasticity of the lens decreases. 2) Is increased as the elasticity of the lens decreases. 3) Is not affected by the degree of elasticity of the lens. 4) Has nothing to do with the lens.

42. When flying solo, a pilot who suspects he is suffering from sp atial disorientation should: 1) Believe the indications of his instruments. 2) Blink rapidly several times. 3) Swallow hard, pinch the nostrils and blow do wn the nose to clear the Eustachian tube. 4) Believe his somatosensory senses.


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PPL (A) – Human Human performance and limitations 43. What is noise induced hearing loss? 1) Loss of hearing due to damage to the cochlea. 2) Loss of hearing due to damage to the ossicles. 3) Loss of hearing due to damage to the vestibular apparatus. 4) Loss of hearing due to damage to the middle ear.

44. When can a pilot experience the "leans"? 1) In all flig ht conditions. 2) In the climb. 3) In the descent. 4) In the climb or the descent.

45. What is the most important sense for spatial orientation? 1) Sight 2) Hearing and balance. 3) "Seat of the pants". 4) All senses play their part in situation awareness.

46. Which of the following s hould a pilot primarily rely on if he becomes disorientated in Visual Meteorological Conditions? o f sight. 1) His sense of 2) Turning the head to recover from disorientation. o f balance. 3) His sense of 4) The aircraft's instruments.

47. On what does the causes of nois e induced hearing loss depend? 1) Both the intensity and duration of th e noise above 90 dbs. 2) Both the intensity and duration of t he noise above 100 dbs. 3) The duration of the noise above 100 dbs. 4) The duration of the noise above 110 dbs.

48. The frequency ban d that a healthy young perso n can hear is : 1) 20 - 20,000 cycles per second. 2) 70 - 15.000 cycles per second. 3) 80- 20.000 cycles per second. 4) 500 - 15.000 cycles per second.

49. What is the purpose of the Eustachian tube? 1) To allow ambient pressure to e qualise on both sides of the ear drum. 2) To pass sound waves across the middle e ar to the auditory nerve. 3) To allow ambient pressure to equ alise on the middle ear side of the ear drum. 4) To allow ambient pressure to equalise on both sides of the vestibular apparatus. 50. One of the main contributory facto rs to the onset of motion sickness is: 1) The mismatch between visual and vestibular sensory inputs. 2) Rolling quickly into turns. 3) Performing high g maneuvers. 4) Stalling.


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51. During straight and level flight any pronounced linear acceleration may produce sensation of the nose pitching up. In such a situation, th e pilot should: 1) Ignore vestibular information and believe what the instruments are indicating. 2) Correct the pitching movement by moving the control column slightly forward. 3) Rely on information from the vestib ular apparatus to maintain orientation. 4) Rely on his "seat of the pants" feeling to make any necessary correctio n.

52. Loudness is measured in: 1) Decibels. 2) Hertz. 3) Pascal’s. 4) Cycles per second.

53. Which of the following shoul d a pilot primarily rely on if he becomes disorientated in I nstrument Meteorological Conditions? 1) The aircraft's instruments. o f sight. 2) His sense of 3) Turning the head to recover from disorientation. 4) His sense of o f balance.

54. The Vestibular Apparatus detects 1) Angular and linear. 2) Linear. 3) Angular. 4) Positive "g".

.acceleration:

55. If an aircraft accelerates, what do the otoliths indicate to the brain? 1) That the aircraft is pitching up. 2) That the aircraft is pitching down. 3) That the aircraft is turning. 4) That the aircraft is climbing and turning.

56. Complete the following sentenc e. If your Eustachian tube is blocked and you can not clear your ears, you should: 1) Ground yourself until the condition causing th e blocking of the Eustachian tube has cleared up. 2) Clear your nose with a nasal inhaler before flying. 3) Fly only as a passenger. 4) Proceed with your flight but ensure that you swallow hard frequently.

57. While flying, the changes in outside air press ure can cause air trapped in the body cavities to expand and contract. This is known as Otic Barotrauma and it most likely to effect: 1) All of the above. 2) The middle ear. 3) The sinuses. 4) The teeth.


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PPL (A) – Human Human performance and limitations 58. The best preventative actions to take if someone is showing symptoms of Stro boscopic Effect is to: 1) Place the person in the shade and g et them to close their eyes. 2) Sit the person in a sunny area. 3) Give him a task to distract him. 4) Take no action, as the sympto ms last for a short time only.

59. If taking a course of drugs, is it advisable to pilot an aircraft? 1) No, unless cleared by an Aviation Medicine Specialist. 2) Yes, provided that they are antibiotics, as these do not have side-effects. 3) Yes, provided that the drug is non-prescription. 4) No, you should ne ver fly while taking any drugs.

60. The ability of a pilot to withstand even mod erate forces can be affected by: pilot. 1) Fatigue in the pilot. 2) The maximum load limits of the aircraft. 3) Presbycusis. 4) All of the above.

61. A pilot should not fly for at least how long after a local anesthetic? 1) 12 hours. 2) 2 hours. 3) 24 hours. 4) 48 hours.

62. You are suffering fro m a cold with slightly blocked nose and sinuses an d you have an aircraft booked to fly. Should you: 1) Not fly? 2) Take a decongestant 1/2 an hou r before flight? 3) Fly as normal? 4) Fly, but be sure to select only low ra tes of climb and descent?

63. A pilot should not fly for at least how long after a general anesthetic? 1) 48 hours. 2) 2 hours. 3) 12 hours. 4) 24 hours.

64. Which of the following may cause fainting? 1) A sudden shock. 2) A too rapid eye scan. 3) Over meticulous flight planning. 4) All of the above. 65. When compared comp ared to visual stimuli, auditory stimuli (noises) are: 1) More likely to attract attention and more likely to be responded to in error. 2) Less likely to attract attention and less likely to be responde d to in error. 3) Less likely to attract attention and more likely to be responded to i n error. 4) More likely to attract attention and less likely to be responded to in error.


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66. If a pilot is approaching a ru nway much larger than that at his home airfield, what is his visu al perception of the runway likely to be? 1) The runway will appear closer than it actually is. 2) The runway will appear furt her away than it actually is. 3) Distances will be easy to judge. 4) A different approach path should be adopted.

67. A false perception characte rised by a distortion of real sensory stimuli is known as: 1) Hallucination. 2) Day-dreaming. 3) Mirage. 4) Boredom response.

68. Repeating information se veral times transfer it to long-term memory is called: 1) Rehearsing. 2) Memory induction. 3) Prompting. 4) Chunking.

69. It is generally accepted that the short-term m emory can hold how many items long ? 1) 7 items for 10-20 seconds. 2) 4 items for 15 seconds. 3) 15 items for 1-5 minutes. 4) 7 items for 5-10 minutes.

70. If a pilot is used to flying in re latively polluted hazy air and then flies in a very clear sky: 1) Distant objects may appear closer than they are. 2) Distant objects may appear further away than they are. 3) Near objects may be mistaken for thos e further away. 4) Near objects may appear further away than they are.

71. From the options below, choose the co rrect sequence of the various stages of the reasoning process . 1) Detection, Perception, Decisions taken, Action, Feedback. 2) Perception, Action, Feedback, Detection, Decisions taken. 3) Detection, Feedback, Decisions taken, Action, Perception. 4) Detection, Perception, Decisions taken, Feedback, Action.

72. Which of the following will give the illusion that the aircraft is too low during an appro ach? down -sloping runway. 1) A down-sloping up-slo ping runway. 2) An up-sloping 3) A brightly lit aerodrome in an otherwise dark area. 4) A narrower than normal runway.


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PPL (A) – Human Human performance and limitations 73. As captain of an aircraft yo u will need to show good leadership skills. Whic h of the following is not one such skill? 1) Aggressive assertiveness. 2) Forward planning. 3) Maintaining good situational awareness. 4) The art of delegation.

74. You have planned to take a couple of friends on an air experience flight. On the day, the weather conditions are marginal and there is a strong cross -wind on the runway. As a competent asse ssor of risk, which of the following decisions should you take? 1) Reschedule the flight for another time, discounting the immediate disappointment to your friends. 2) Get airborne as planned, as it is always wise to stic k to your flight plan if you possibly can. 3) Proceed with the flight and treat it as an opportunity to practise flying in adverse conditions. 4) Ask your friends if they are prepared to fly in the prevailing conditio ns, before assessing the situation yourself.

75. When making a decision, will a pilot be influenced by previous experience? 1) Yes, past experience can play a part in decision-making. 2) Yes, but only if the experience is good. 3) Yes, but only if the experience was bad. 4) No, each decision is unrelated.

76. Mental Overlo ad usually: 1) Leads to degraded performance. 2) Leads to better performance. 3) Has no effect on performance. 4) Causes changes in the speed and accuracy of perform ance which vary from individual to individual.

77. Complete the following statement. If, as an inexperie nced pilot, you are flying with someone of muc h greater experience, and you see hi m do something you consider to be dangerous, you sho uld: 1) Immediately question his course of action. 2) Wait until the action or manoeuvre is comple ted, and then questions him. 3) Ignore the situation because he obviously knows what he is doing. 4) Do nothing for the moment, but check the wisdom and correctness of his action by discussing it with an instructor after you have landed.

78. Good briefings are very important. Which of the following could be the result of a bad brie fing? 1) Increased uncertainty. 2) Good transfer of knowledge. 3) Good understanding of information. 4) Decreased uncertainty.

79. Complete the following statement. T he most appropriate time for a pilot to give passengers an initial briefing on emergency procedures is: 1) During a pre-flight safety briefing. 2) At the moment any emergen cy occurs; it is not necessary to wor ry them before that. 3) While waiting at the hold for take-off. 4) Just after take-off.


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PPL (A) – Human Human performance and limitations 80. Two pilots, both seated at the controls and qualified on type, have just commenced a flight when they experience an engine failure. Who should take control of the aircraft. 1) The pilot who, during the pre-flight briefing on emerg encies, the captain agreed should take over control in suc h a situation. 2) The pilot in the left-hand seat. 3) The captain. 4) The more experienced of the two.

81. Which of the following attitudes and/or characteristics have b good communication and especially dangerous when flying? 1) Arrogance and aggressiveness. 2) A highly developed sense of leadership. 3) Respect for other peoples' opinions. 4) All of the above.

82. Which of the following are ways to help avoid stress in the cockpit? 1) Not allowing yourself to be rushed into acting before yo u are ready. 2) Having a cool drink at hand, at all times. 3) Modifying your pre-flight plan whene ver you feel you are off-track or behind time. 4) All of the above.

83. What are Stress Factors or Stressors? 1) Events and circumstances which cause stress. 2) Pulse-rate inducers. 3) Circumstances or events which provoke any kind of reaction to the demands placed upon the human organism. 4) Measures of stress exhibited by a person.

84. An analogue display is generally better than a digital display for showing which sort of data? 1) Qualitative. 2) Quantitative. 3) Numerical. 4) Subjective.

85. Which of the following occ ur when a pilot is sitting too high in a cockpit? a. Good downward outside view. b. Poor view of instruments. c. Upwards outside view obstructed. 1) a), b) and c). 2) only a). 3) a) and b) only. 4) a) and c) only.

86. You are preparing for a training flight with an instructor and cannot find your chec klist. You should: 1) Take time to find the checklist at the risk of missing part o f your airborne time. 2) Perform the checks from memory. 3) Use a checklist for a differe nt aircraft type. 4) Rely on the instructor to point ou t anything that you might have missed.


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PPL (A) – Human Human performance and limitations 87. If advice is needed concerning pos sible flight with an illness, a pilot should contact 1) An Aviation Medical Examiner. 2) Their famil y doctor. 3) The nearest ne arest hospital.

88. Which will always affect your ability to fly? 1) Prescription analgesics and antihistamines. 2) Over-the-counte r analgesics and antihistamines. 3) Antibiotics and anesthetics drugs.

89. As a pilot, flying for long periods in hot summer temperatures increases the suscep tibility dehydr ation since the 1) Of dehydration 2) Dry air at altitude tends to increase the rate of water loss from the body. 3) Moist air at altitude helps retain the body´s moisture. 4) Temperature decreases with altitude.

90. Motion sickness is caused by 1) Continued stimulation o f the tiny portion of the inner ear which controls sense of balance. 2) Instability in the brain cells which affect balance and will generally be overcome with experience. 3) The movement of an aircraft causing the sto mach to create an acid substance which 4) Causes the stomach lining to contract.

91. What suggestion could you make to your pilot fellow who is experiencing motion sickne ss? 1) Avoid unnecessary he ad movement and to keep her/his eyes on a point outside the aircraft. 2) Recommend taking medication to prevent motion sickness. 3) Lower her/his head, shut her/his eye s, and take deep breaths.

92. In an unpressurised aircraft, at high altitudes the amount of oxygen t hat diffuses across 1) The lung membranes into the blood is 2) Decreased because of the low partial pressure of oxygen. 3) Decreased because of the lower temperatures. 4) Unchanged to that at sea level.

93. During a climb to 18,000 ft, the perce ntage of oxygen in the atmosphere 1) Remains the same. 2) Increases. 3) Decreases.

94. Although not required, supplemental oxygen is recomm ended for use when flying at 1) night above 2) 1,500 m (5,000 ft). 3) 3,050 m (10,000 ft). 4) 3,800 m (12,500 ft).


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PPL (A) – Human Human performance and limitations 95. Hypoxia is the result of 1) Shortage of oxygen in the body. 2) Insufficient oxygen in the air. 3) Excessive nitrogen in the bloodstream.

96. Which statement concerning hypoxia is true? 1) Tingling of the skin and a false sense o f security may be symptoms of hypoxia. 2) Hypoxia is caused by nitrogen bubbles in the joints and bloodstream. 3) Forcing oneself to conc entrate on the flight instruments will help to overcome the effects 4) Of hypoxia. 97. Which occurs when climbing abo ve 18,000 feet in an unpressurized aircraft without supplem ental oxygen? 1) The oxygen pressure within the lungs cannot be maintained without an increase in inhaled 2) Oxygen pressure. 3) Gases trapped in the body contract and prevent nitrogen from escaping the bloodstream. 4) The pressure in the middle ear beco mes less than the atmospheric pressure in the cabin.

98. Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoni ng increases as 1) Altitude increases. 2) Altitude decreases. pressu re increases. 3) Air pressure

99. Carbon monoxide in an aircraft cabin is 1) Difficult to recognize because of its odorless and colorless. 2) Easily recognizable because o f its peculiar odor. 3) Easily recognizable because of its peculiar color.

100.

Large accumulations of carbon mono xide in the human body result in 1) Loss of muscular power. 2) Tightness across the forehead. 3) An increased sense of well-being.

101.

What is one effect smoking has on a pilot? 1) Increases body heat whic h, in turn, creates a demand for more oxygen. 2) Decreases night vision by 50 percent. 3) Creates additional carbon dioxide gases in the body which often leads to hyperventilation.

102.

Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? 1) Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear. 2) The excessive consumption of alcohol. 3) An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen.

103.

Rapid or extra deep breathing while using oxyg en can cause a condition known as 1) Hyperventilation. 2) Aerosinusitis. 3) Aerotitis.


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PPL (A) – Human Human performance and limitations 104.

Hyperventilation results from 1) A lack of carbon dioxide in the body. 2) Flying too high without supplemental oxygen. 3) Breathing too rapidly causing a lack of oxygen.

105.

A pilot should be able to overcom e the symptoms or avoid future occurrences of 1) Hyperventilation by 2) Slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a bag, or talking aloud. 3) Closely monitoring the flight instruments to control the airplane. 4) Increasing the breathing rate in order to increase lung ventilation.

106. If an individual has gone scub a diving which has not required a controlled asce nt and will be flying to cabin pressure altitudes of 8,000 feet or less, the recom mended waiting time is at least 1) 4 hours. 2) 12 hours. 3) 24 hours.

107. If an individual has gone scuba diving w hich has required a con trolled ascent and will be flying to cabin pressure altitudes of 8,000 feet or less, the recommend ed waiting time is at least 1) 24 hours. 2) 4 hours. 3) 12 hours.

108.

Dark adaptation is impaired by exposure to 1) Cabin pressure altitudes above 5,000 feet. 2) Carbon dioxide. 3) Vitamin a in the diet.

109.

What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying? 1) Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight. 2) Wear sunglasses after suns et until ready for flight. 3) Avoid red lights at least 30 minutes before the flight.

110.

One aid in increasing night vision effective ness would be to 1) Force the eyes to view off center. direc tly at objects. 2) Look directly 3) Increase intensity of interior lighting.

111.

What is the most effective w ay to use the eyes during night flight? 1) Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. 2) Look only at far away, dim lights. 3) Concentrate directly on each object for a few seco nds.


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PPL (A) – Human Human performance and limitations The most effective technique te chnique to use for dete cting other aircraft at night is to avoid staring directly 112. at the point where another aircraft is suspe cted to be flying. 1) Turn the head and sweep th e eyes rapidly over the entire visible region. 2) Avoid scanning the region below the horizon so as to avoid the effect on ground light on 3) The eyes. 113.

The best method to use when looking fo r other traffic at night is to 1) Look to the side of the object and scan slowly. 2) Scan the visual field very rapidly. 3) Look to the side of the object and scan rapidly.

114.

Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should 1) Visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance. 2) Check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications. 3) Announce their intentions on the nearest ctaf.

115.

Which technique sho should uld a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during 1) Straight-and-level flight? 2) Systematically focus on dif ferent segments of the sky for short intervals. 3) Continuous sweeping of the windshield fro m right to left. 4) Concentrate on relative move ment detected in the peripheral vision area.

116.

What effect does haze h ave on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight? 1) All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance. 2) Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity. 3) The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not dete ct relative movement easily.

A state of temporary confusion resulting fro m misleading information bei ng sent to the brain by 117. various sensory organs is defined as 1) Spatial disorientation. 2) Hyperventilation. 3) Hypoxia.

118.

Which procedure is recommen ded to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? 1) Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. 2) Avoid steep turns and rough control movements. 3) Reduce head and eye moveme nts to the greatest extend possible.

119.

Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if 1) Body signals are used to interpret flight attitude. 2) They ignore the sensations of m uscles and inner ear. 3) Eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments.

120.

The danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual conditio ns may be reduced by 1) Having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs. 2) Shifting the eyes quickly betwe en the exterior visual field and the instrument panel. 3) Leaning the body in the opposite directio n of the motion of the aircraft.


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PPL (A) – Human Human performance and limitations If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted visibility condition, the best 121. way to overcome the effect is to 1) Rely upon the aircraft instrument indications. 2) Concentrate on yaw, pitch, and roll sensations. 3) Consciously slow the breathing rate until symptoms clear and then resume normal 4) Breathing rate.

122.

A rapid acceleration can create the illusio n of being in a 1) Nose up attitude. 2) Left turn. dow n attitude. 3) Nose down

123. Who is responsible for d etermining whethe r a pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight, even though he or she holds a current medical certificate? 1) The pilot. medic al examiner. 2) The medical 3) The FA-1.

124.

What is the one common factor which affects most preventable accide nts? 1) Human error. 2) Mechanical malfunction. 3) Structural failure.

125. What is one of the neglected items when a pilot relies on short and long term memory for repetitive tasks? 1) Checklists. 2) Situation awareness. 3) Flying outside the envelope.

126. 1) 2) 3)

Consistent adherence to app roved checklists is a sign of Disciplined and competent pilot. Pilot who lacks the required knowledge. Low-tome pilot.

127. To avoid missing important steps, always use the 1) Appropriate checklists. 2) Placarded airspeeds. 3) Airworthiness certificate.

128. The positive three-step process in the exc hange of flight controls between pilots includes these verbal steps: (a) You have the flight controls, (b) I have the flight controls, and (c) _ 1) You have the flight controls. aircraft. 2) I have the aircraft. 3) I have the flight controls.


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PPL (A) – Human Human performance and limitations Risk management, as a part of aeronautical decision making (AM proc ess, relies on which features 129. to reduce the risk associated with each flight? 1) Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment. 2) Application of stress management and risk element proced ures. 3) The mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely 4) Decision on what action to take.

Hazardous attitudes occur to every pilot to some de gree at some time. What are some of these 130. hazardous attitudes? 1) Antiauthority, impulsivity, macho, resignation, and invulnerability. 2) Poor risk management and lack of stress management. 3) Poor situational awareness, snap judgments, and lack of a decision making process.

131. In the aeronautical decision making (A DM) process, what is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude? 1) Recognizing hazardous thoughts. 2) Making a rational judgment. 3) Recognizing the invulnerability of the situation.

132. 1) 2) 3)

What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as "Impulsivity"? Not so fast, think first. It could h appen to me. Do it quickly to get it o ver with.

133. 1) 2) 3)

What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as "Antiauthority"? Follow the rules. Rules do not apply in this situation. I know what I am doing.

134. 1) 2) 3)

What is the antidote when a pilot has the hazardous attitude of "Invulnerability"? It could h appen to me. It can not be that bad. It will not h appen to me.

135. 1) 2) 3) 4)

At altitude the pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere is: Lower than at MSL. The same as at mean sea level (MSL). Higher than at MSL. Unaffected, as partial pressure is independ ent of altitude.

136. 1) 2) 3) 4)

Being badly overweight increases a pilot's susceptibility to which o f the following conditions? Heart attack. Hypoxia at higher altitudes. Hypothermia. All of the above.


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PPL (A) – Human Human performance and limitations "Error" is a generic term which describes all thos e occasions when a series of mental or physic al 137. activities do not achieve their intended effect. Now, complete the following statement. Errors: 1) May be isolated or cumulative. 2) Are isolated with no further consequence or influence. 3) Are cumulative, one error leads to a s econd, which leads to a third etc. 4) Are always part of the error chain.

138. 1) 2) 3)

Which statement is true regarding alcohol in the human system? Alcohol renders a pilot more susceptible to hypoxia. Small amounts of alcoho l will not impair flying skills. Coffee helps metabolize alcohol and alleviates a hangover.

139. 1) 2) 3)

Which statement best defines hypoxia? A state of oxygen deficiency in the body. An abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed. A condition of gas bubble formation aro und the joints or muscles.

A person may not act as a crewmembe r of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been 140. consumed by that person within the preceding 1) 8 hours. 2) 12 hours. 3) 24 hours.

141. 1) 2) 3)

An illusion, that an aircraft is at a higher altitude than it ac tually is, is produced by Downsloping terrain. Upsloping terrain. Atmospheric haze.

142. The three-needle type altimeter used in many light aircraft a. Easy to mis-read. B. Hardly ever mis-read. C. Accurate and reliable. D. Not very accurate or reliable. 1) A) and C). 2) Only A) 3) Only A) 4) B) and D).

143. Which of the following are terms ge nerally used to describe a type or types of memo ry within the subject of Human Performance and Limitations? 1) Long-term memory. 2) Sensitive memory. 3) Felicitous memory. 4) All of them.


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PPL (A) – Human Human performance and limitations 144. 1) 2) 3) 4)

The outer, middle and i nner ear are filled with : Air, air, and liquid, respectively. Air, liquid, and liquid, respectively. Liquid, air, and air, respectively. Liquid, liquid, and air, respectively.

145. 1) 2) 3) 4)

Presbycusis is an impairment of hearing due to: Age. Damage to the cochlea. Damage to the semi-circular canals. Smoking.

146. 1) 2) 3) 4)

What causes conductive deafness? Damage to the ossicles or the eardrum. Damage to t he outer ear. Damage to the pinna. Damage to the middle ear.

147. 1) 2) 3) 4)

In which part of the eye is visual acuity at its highest? The Fovea. The Retina. The Pupil. The Cornea.

In order to see a sharp image of an oncoming aircraft which has been detected by the eye, a pilot 148. should: 1) Look directly at the oncoming aircraft. 2) Look to one side of the oncoming aircraft. 3) Commence a systematic scan sc an of the airspace in front of him. 4) Blink several times to make the image clearer.

149. 1) 2) 3) 4)

The amount of light entering the eye is controlled by the: Iris. Cornea. Lens. Pupil.

150. 1) 2) 3) 4)

The pulse is generated by the contraction of whic h heart chamber? Left Ventricle. Left Auricle. Right Ventricle. Right Auricle.


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Subject:

PPL(A) – Meteorology

PPL (A) – Meteorology NOTE: The correct answer under a. During the exam the order of answers will be different.


Below the tropopause, the ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA) assumes? a. A mean sea level pressure of 1013.25mb together with a mean sea level temperature of 15°C, decreasing by 1.98°C per 1000ft up to 36,090ft. b. A mean sea level pressure of 1013.25mb together with a mean sea level temperature of 15°C, decreasing at a rate of 2°C per 1000 ft until it reaches -65.6°C at 36,090ft. c. A surface pressure of 1013.25mb together with a sea level temperature of 15°C, decreasing at the rate of 1.98°C per 1000ft until it reaches absolute zero. -3 d. A mean sea level pressure of 1225g/m together with a mean sea level temperature of 15°C, decreasing at a rate of 2°C per 1000ft up to 36,090ft,

2.

Where is most of the water vapour in the atmosphere contained? a. Troposphere. b. Tropopause. c. Stratosphere. d. Stratopause.

3.

What are the proportions of gase s in the atmosphere? a. Oxygen 21%, Nitrogen 78%, other gasses 1%. b. Oxygen 21%, Hydrogen 78%, other gasses 1%. c. Nitrogen 78%, Argon 21%, Oxygen 1%. d. Nitrogen 78%, Oxygen 21%, Hydrogen 1%.

4.

The layer closest to the earth's e arth's surface where the majority of weather is found is called? a. Troposphere. b. Tropopause. c. Stratosphere. d. Mesosphere.

5. The temperature at 2000ft above mean sea level is forecast to be 5°C; compared to the ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA) this is: a. ISA -6 b. IAS +6 c. ISA +5 d. IAS -6


PPL (A) – Meteorology 6. What is the name of t he instrument which gives a continuous printed reading and rec ord of the atmospheric pressure? a. Barograph. b. Barometer. c. Hygrometer. d. Anemograph

7.

The pressure of the atmosphere: a. Decreases at a decreasing rate as height increases. b. Decreases at an increasing rate as height increases. c. Decreases at a constant rate r ate as height increases. d. Decreases at a constant rate r ate up to the Tropopause and then remains constant.

8.

What is the significance of tightly spaced isobars? a. A large pressure gradient and strong winds. b. A weak pressure gradient and light winds. c. A weak pressure gradient and strong winds. d. A large pressure gradient and light winds.

9. A line drawn on a chart joining places having the same barometric pressure at the same level and at the same time is? a. An isobar. b. An isotherm. c. An isallobar. d. A contour.

10.

Compared to ISA, what does warm air do to the distance represented by a 1 hpa change in pressure? a. Increases it. b. Decreases it c. Nothing. d. Impossible to determine.

11.

What is the density at sea level in the International Standard Atmosphere? 3 a. 1225gm . 3 b. 12.25gm . 3 c. 1.225gm . 3 d. 122.5gm .

12.

Density at the surface will be low when: a. Pressure is low and temperature is high. b. Pressure is high and temperature is high. c. Pressure is high and temperature is low. d. Pressure is low and temperature is low.


PPL (A) – Meteorology 13.

Generally as altitude increases: a. Temperature, pressure and density decreases. b. Temperature decreases and density increases. c. Temperature and pressure increase and density decreases. d. Temperature decreases and pressure density increases.

14.

What is density defined as? a. Mass per unit volume. b. Mass per unit area. c. Weight of air per unit area. d. Volume divided by mass.

15.

Under what conditions would density be the least at any given place? a. High altitude, high temperature and high humidity. b. Low altitude, high temperature and high humidity. c. High altitude, high temperature and low humidity. d. Low altitude, low temperature and low humidity.

16.

Consider the following statements about air density and select the one which is correct? a. At any given surface temperature t he air density will be greater in anticyclonic conditions than it will be when the mean sea level pressure is lower. b. Because air density increases with a de crease of temperature, air density must increase with increase of height in the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA). c. Air density increases with w ith an increase of relative humidity. d. The effect of change of temperature on the air density is much greater than the effect of change of atmospheric pressure.

17.

The diurnal variation of temperature is: a. Reduced anywhere by the presence of cloud. b. Greater over the sea than overland. c. Less over desert areas than over temperate grassland. d. Increased anywhere as wind speed increases.

18.

If temperature remains constant with w ith an increase in altitude there is: a. An isothermal layer. b. An isohypse. c. An inversion. d. Decreased lapse rate.

19.

A trough of low pressure at the surface is generally associated with: a. Convergence causing increased cloud and precipitation. b. Divergence causing increased cloud and precipitation. c. Subsidence causing increased cloud and precipitation. d. Subsidence causing decreased cloud and precipitation.


PPL (A) – Meteorology 20. During the winter months, which of t he following weather conditions would most likely be produced by an anticyclone? a. General subsidence with adiabatic w arming, clear skies, and an inversion. b. Subsidence due to surface cooling creating ex tensive cloud. c. During the day, the surface warming would cre ate an unstable atmosphere with extensive convective cloud. d. During the night, as the land cools, there would be an increase in the vertical cloud development.

21.

Diurnal variation of the surface temperature will: a. Decrease as wind speed increases. b. Be unaffected by a change of wind speed. c. Increase as wind speed increases. d. Be at a minimum in calm conditions.

22.

Cloud cover will reduce surface diurnal variation of temperature because: a. Incoming solar radiation is reflected back to space and terrestrial radiation is re-radiated from the cloud back to the surface layer. b. Incoming solar radiation is reflected back to space and outgoing terrestrial radiation is reflected back to earth. c. Incoming solar radiation is re-radiated back to space and atmospheric heating by convection will stop at the level of the t he cloud layer. d. The cloud stops the sun's rays getting through to the earth and also reduces outgoing conduction

23.

An area of indeterminate pressure between two lows and two highs is called: a. A col. b. A trough. c. A ridge. d. A saddle.

24. The method by which energy is tr ansferred from one body to another with which it is in contact is called: a. Conduction. b. Radiation. c. Convection. d. Latent heat.

25. The sun gives out amounts of energy with wavelengths.The earth gives out relatively amounts of energy with relatively wavelengths: a. Large / small / small / large b. Large / large / small / small. c. Small / small / large / large. d. Large / large / small / large.



An inversion is when: a. There is an increase of temperature as height increases. b. There is no horizontal gradient of temperature. c. There is no change of temperature with height. d. There is a decrease of temperature as height Increases.

27.

Which of the statements below best describes a COL? a. An area of widely spaced isobars between two highs and two lows. b. An area between two highs where w here the isobars are very close together . c. An extension of high pressure. d. An extension of low pressure.

28.

A ridge of high pressure is generally associated with: a. Subsidence of air, then divergence at the surface causing clear skies and poor visibility. b. Convergence at the surface causing incre ased cloud and precipitation. c. Divergence at the surface causing an improvement in the surface visibility. d. Subsidence then divergence at the surface causing cloud to break up and more precipitation

29.

When flying towards a depression at a constant indicated altitude, the true altitude will be: a. Lower than indicated. b. Higher than indicated. c. The same as indicated. d. Lower than indicated at first then the same as indicated later.

30.

When an altimeter sub scale is set to the aerodrome OFE, the altimeter reads: a. Zero at the aerodrome reference point. b. The elevation of the aerodrome at t he aerodrome reference point. c. The pressure altitude at the aerodrome reference point. d. The appropriate altitude of the aircraft.

31.

The altimeter will always read: a. The vertical distance above the pressure level set in the sub scale. b. With 1013 set, the altitude above MSL. c. With airfield QNH set, the height above the airfield datum. d. The correct flight level with re gional QFE set.

32. An aircraft flies at a constant indicated altitude from airfield A (QNH 1009mb) to airfield B (QNH 1019mb). If the subscale is not reset from 1009, what would be e xpected when over airfield B: a. Indicated altitude to be less than actual altitude. b. Indicated altitude to be the same as actual altitude. c. Indicated altitude to be more than actual altitude. d. Indicated altitude may be greater or less depending on the airfield elevation.



The name given to the lowest forecast mean sea level pressure in an area is: a. Regional QNH. b. QFE. c. QFF. d. QNE.

34. An aircraft flies from aerodrome "A", where QNH is given as 1020mb, to aerodrome "B" , where the QNH is given as 999mb. Aerodrome "A" is 800ft above mean sea level and aerodrome "B" is 500ft above mean sea level. If the altimeter sub scale is not changed from 1020, what is the altimeter indication on landing? (ASSUME 1mb = 30ft) a. 1,130ft. b. 1,430ft. c. 130ft. d. -130ft.

35. You experience a constant drift to the right when flying over Europe at a constant indicated altitude. If the altimeter subscale is not updated, this will result in? a. Flying at a progressively lower true altitude. b. Flying at a progressively higher true altitude. c. Flying at a progressively lower indicated altitude. d. Flying at a progressively higher indicated altitude.

36. You are flying at a constant indicated altitude with t he QNH of 1015 set within the subscale and you notice the outside air temperature has been falling constantly. What can you expect to have happened to your true altitude? a. Decreased. b. Increased. c. Remained the same. d. Increased then decreased.

37.

The instrument used for measuring the humidity of air is a: a. Hygrometer. b. Hydrometer. c. Wet bulb thermometer. d. Hygroscope.

38.

When a. b. c. d.

condensation condensation takes place, the higher the temperature the Greater / released. Lesser / released. Greater / absorbed. Lesser / absorbed.

the amount of latent heat


:


Wet bulb temperature would normally be lower than dry bulb temperature because: a. Evaporation causes cooling on the wet bulb thermometer. b. Condensation causes a release of latent heat. c. Latent heat is absorbed by the bulb thermometer. d. Of condensation on the muslin wick of the bulb.

40.

The process of change of state from a gas to a liquid is known as: a. Condensation in which latent heat is released. b. Evaporation in which latent heat is absorbed. c. Evaporation in which latent heat is released. d. Condensation in which latent heat is absorbed.

41.

A change of state directly from a solid to a vapour or vice v ersa is: a. Sublimation. b. Insolation. c. Condensation. d. Evaporation.

42. During a night with with a clear sky, surface temperature will Dewpoint will . a. Fall / Rise / Remain the same. b. Fall / Rise / Rise. c. Rise / Rise / Fall. d. Fall / Fall / Remain the same.

43.

Relative Humidity will

and

Which of the processes listed below can cause air to become saturated? a. Evaporation. b. Melting. c. Condensation. d. Heating.

44. When receiving circuit joining information prior to an approach at a destination airfield, the pilot of a light aircraft is warned of the presence of low level windshear. The pilot should? a. Delay the approach or even consider diverting. b. Use a higher than normal approach speed to counteract any loss of headwind component c. Consider the possibility of a missed approach. d. Land using the normal landing technique but monitor speed carefully.

45. Given an atmospheric situation where the relative humidity is 60% and the ELR is less than the DALR, if air is forced to rise it will be: a. Stable and will tend to regain its former position. b. Unstable and will carry on rising. c. Stable and will carry on rising. d. Unstable and will tend to regain its former position.


PPL (A) – Meteorology 46. The pilot of an aircraft which is approaching a mountain from t he downwind or leeward side, a few hundred feet above ridge level, observes ve nticular clouds. Which of the following conditions would the pilot expect to encounter as the t he flight continues? a. Strong down-draughts immediately before the ridge of the mountain is reached, with strong up-draughts after passing the ridge to the windward side. b. Strong katabatic currents at the top of the ridge. c. Strong katabatic down-draughts and turbulence after passing over t he ridge. d. Strong up-draughts before the ridge is passed and strong down-draughts after the ridge is passed.

47.

The actual change of temperature with height is known as... a. The environmental lapse rate. b. The adiabatic lapse rate. c. The temperature curve. d. The tephigram.

48.

Which of the following is true about the lowest level windshear? a. It may be experienced 15 to 20 miles ahead of a fast moving thunderstorm. b. It is rare where there is a strong inversion level close to the surface. c. It is only found under the core of the anvil of a thunderstorm. d. It is only ever found on the fringes of a microburst.

49. An aircraft is flying in the vicinity of a range of hills, lying north-south, across which a wind is blowing from the west to east . Which of the following situations might cause the aircraft to encounter dangerous downdraughts? a. When flying west towards the hills from the east. b. When flying east towards the hills from the west . c. When flying north towards the hill from the south. d. When flying south towards the hill from the north.

50.

Which of the following is true about the lowest level windshear? a. It may be experienced 15 to 20 miles ahead of a fast moving thunderstorm. b. It is rare where there is a strong inversion level close to the surface. c. It is only found under the core of the anvil of a thunderstorm. d. It is only ever found on the fringes of a microburst.

51.

In a mountain wave situation, the worst o f the turbulence is most likely to be found when flying: a. In or just below the roll cloud. b. At about mid-height between the lenticular and roll cloud. c. In the cap cloud. d. In the lenticular cloud.



Which of the following characterises unstable air? a. Cumulus cloud with showers and generally good visibility outside of the showers. b. Layered cloud with showers and generally poor visibility. c. Layered cloud with poor visibility and intermittent drizzle. d. Cumulus cloud with continuous precipitation and moderate visibility.

53. A light aircraft flying at low level near a mountain range across which a strong wind is blowing may expect: 1. Severe turbulence below or within any roto r zone. 2. Down-draughts which may exceed the climb rate of the aircraft. 3. A greater than normal risk of icing in the cloud over the c rest mountain. 4. Lenticular cloud a. 1,2, 3 and 4 are correct b. Only 1 and 3 are correct c. Only 1 and 2 are correct d. Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct

54.

One or more coloured rings around ar ound the sun or moon may indicate the presence o f which type of cloud? a. Altostratus. b. High. c. Stratus. d. Cirrocumulus.

55. Given a surface temperature of+21°C and a dew point of +7°C, at approximately what height will the cloud base of a cumulus cloud be? a. 5600ft. b. 560ft. c. 56,000ft. d. 4000ft.

56.

Hail is most likely to fall from which type of cloud? a. CB. b. NS. c. AC. d. AS.

57.

From the list below, select the Low, Medium and High clouds in ascending order. a. Stratus, Altocumulus, Cirrus. b. Nimbostratus, Cumulonimbus, Cirrus. c. Altostratus, Altocumulus, Cirrus. d. Cirrus, Cumulonimbus, Stratus.



The use of the suffix "nimbus" or the prefix "nimbo" means? a. Rain bearing. b. Wispy, detached or fiberous. c. Medium cloud. d. Dark and threatening.

59.

Precipitation produced by stratus is normally? a. Drizzle. b. Heavy showers. c. Heavy rain. d. Light showers.

60. Unstable air is forced to rise up the side of a mountain. What weather might you expect to see on the t he windward slopes? a. Cloud of extensive vertical deve lopment. b. Thick stratiform cloud, probably nimbostratus. c. None, as the air will subside and warm adiabatically after passing over t he summit. d. Cap clouds with possible altocumulus lenticularis.

61.

The conditions which must exist to allow thunderstorms to develop are: a. A plentiful supply of moisture and a steep lapse rate through a large vertical extent, together with a trigger action. b. A trigger action, a plentiful supply of moisture and a very stable atmosphere. c. A steep lapse rate, a stable atmosphere through a large vertical ex tent, and a plentiful supply of moisture. d. A steep lapse rate through a large vertical extent, a low relative humidity and a trigger action.

62. Which of the following combinations of weather-producing variables would be most likely to result in cumuliform clouds, good visibility, showery rain, and possible clear type icing ic ing in clouds? a. Unstable moist air and orographic o rographic lifting. b. Stable, moist air and orographic lifting. c. Unstable moist air and no lifting mechanism. d. Stable, dry air and orographic lifting.

63. Turbulence, windshear, icing, lightning and heavy precipitation are associated with cumulonimbus clouds. Which of the following statements is true? a. All of the hazards can be avoided by not flying in or in the vicinity of the cloud. b. The most hazardous condition is lightning. c. Heavy precipitation may be experienced outside the cloud, but turbulence and icing are confined to inside the cloud. d. All of the hazards may be encountered w ithin or in the viciniity of the cloud.


PPL (A) – Meteorology 64. During the stage of a thunderstorm ceil, the cloud contains . Complete the above statement choosing one of t he following combinations of words: a. Mature / up currents and down curre nts. b. Initial /up currents and down currents. c. Dissipating / up currents and down currents. d. Initial / down currents only.

65.

What stage of a thunderstorm is characterised predominantly by downdraughts? a. Dissipating stage. b. Initial stage c. Mature stage. d. Cumulus stage.

66.

For cumulonimbus clouds to develop, there needs to exist? a. A deep layer of very unstable moist air. b. A shallow layer of very unstable moist air. c. A deep layer of very unstable moist air with a shallow lapse rate. d. A shallow layer of very unstable air with a steep lapse rate.

67.

What stage of a thunderstorm is characterised by updraughts only? a. Initial stage. b. Mature stage. c. Dissipating stage. d. End stage.

68.

Which of the following conditions are most likely to produce thunderstorms? a. A high moisture content with a steep lapse rate. b. A high moisture content with a shallow lapse rate. c. A low moisture content with a steep stee p lapse rate. d. A low moisture content with a shallow lapse rate.

69. Hazards to aircraft caused by the presence of cumulonimbus or thunderstorm cloud may be experienced: a. When the aircraft is within 10 nm of the cloud. b. Only when the aircraft is within the cloud. c. Only when the aircraft is within or underneath the cloud. d. When the aircraft is within 5 nm of the cloud.

70.

Hazards of the mature stage of a thunderstorm cell include lightning, turbulence and: a. Icing, microburst and windshear. b. Microburst, windshear and anvil. c. Icing, drizzle and microburst. d. Windshear, hail and fog..


PPL (A) – Meteorology 71. The wind at 2000ft over an aerodrome was reported at 330/15kt. 330/ 15kt. Using the rule of thumb, what might you expect the surface wind to be? a. 305/07kt. b. 305/30kt c. 355/30kt. d. 315/30kt.

72.

Corilolis force in the Northern Hemisphere will cause moving air to be apparently deflected to: a. The right and cause the geostrophic wind to blow parallel to the isobars at about 2000ft agl. b. The left and cause the wind to blow parallel to the isobars at about 2000ft agl. c. The left and cause the wind to blow slightly across the isobars at about 2000ft agl. d. The right and cause the wind to blow slightly across the isobars at about 2000ft agl.

73. Winds that blow around an anticyclone (high pressure system) at lower levels in the Northern Hemisphere are represented on a low level chart as blowing in: a. A clockwise direction. b. A clockwise direction if it is warm air and anticlockwise if it is cold air. c. An anticlockwise direction. d. A cyclonic direction.

74. Low level winds in the northern hemisphere that blow around a depression are drawn on surface weather charts in? a. An anticlockwise direction b. A clockwise direction. c. An anticyclonic direction. d. Either clockwise or anticlockwise depending on whether the depression is cyclonic or anticyclonic

75.

The formation of advection fog is often caused by? a. A warm moist air mass under the influence of a moderate wind being cooled to below its dew point by flowing over a much colder surface. b. A cold moist air mass under the influence of a moderate wind being warmed to below its dew point by flowing over a much warmer surface. c. A warm moist air mass under the influence of a very light wind being cooled to below its dew point by flowing over a much colder surface. d. A warm moist air mass under the influence of a strong wind on a clear cloudless night. night.

76. A low level mist layer significantly reduces forward visibility when flying at about 2000 ft. To improve your forward visiility you should? a. Fly higher. b. Fly lower. c. Fly just on top of the mist layer. d. Turn on your landing lights and strobe lights.



Which of the following conditions is most favourable to the formation of radiation fog? a. High relative humidity, light winds and a clear sky. b. High relative humidity, moderate wind and a cloudy sky. c. Low relative humidity, light w inds and a clear sky. d. High relative humidity, light winds and a cloudy sky.

78. Over an inland airfield radiation fog is reported in the morning. As the wind speed increases to 10 kt what would you expect: a. The fog to lift and form low stratus. b. The fog to thicken. c. The fog to dissipate. d. An increase in mixing, allowing more fog to develop.

79.

What are the characteristics of the passage of a cold front? a. A dew point fall, a temperature fall, and the wind veering. b. A dew point rise, a temperature fall and wind backing. c. Dew point rise, a temperature fall and the wind veering. d. Steady dew point and temperature but a sharp backing in the wind.

80.

What is the general speed of the warm front? a. Approximately 2/3 of the speed of the cold front. b. Approximately 1/3 of the speed of the cold front. c. Approximately 1/2 the speed of the cold front d. The same speed as the cold front.

81. If a cloudy, granular type of ice is seen to collect and protrude forward from the leading edge of the aerofoil, what type of ice would it most likely be? a. Rime ice. b. Clear ice. c. Rain ice. d. Hoar frost.

82.

What will normally happen to the surface wind direc tion following the passage of a warm front? a. Veer. b. Stay constant. c. Back. d. Veer then back.

83.

The extent of rainfall ahead of a typical warm front may be up to a distance of: a. 200 miles ahead of the surface position of the warm front b. 50 miles ahead of the surface position of the warm front. c. 500 miles ahead of the surface position of the warm front d. 2 miles ahead of the surface position of the warm front.


PPL (A) – Meteorology

84.

Ice accretion in a piston engine induction system is produced by: a. Low power settings, high humidity and warm air. b. High power settings, moderate humidity and cold air. c. Low power settings, low humidity and warm air. d. High power settings, high humidity and warm air.

85.

Which of the following frontal systems is more likely to produce thunderstorm activity? a. A cold front b. A warm front c. A ridge of high pressure. d. A quasi-stationary front.

86.

Clear ice forms as a result of: a. Large supercooled water droplets spreading as they freeze. b. Ice pellets splattering on the aircraft. c. Small supercooled water droplets splashing over the aircraft. d. Water vapour freezing to the aircraft.

87.

What would be the change in weather following the passage of a typical warm front: a. Pressure falls, 8 oktas of cloud with a lowering base and poor visibility. b. Pressure increases steadily, no more than 4 o ktas of cloud, and good visibility. c. Pressure stops falling, 4 oktas of cloud with a very low base and rapidly improving visibility. visibility. d. Pressure falls, 8 o ktas of cloud with a lowering base and improving visibility. visibility.

88.

What is the main reason water can exist in a liquid state even though t he temperature is sub zero? a. No freezing nuclei. b. No condensation nuclei. c. Water takes a long time to cool to below zero degrees. d. Water is hygroscopic.

89. You are flying above the freezing level in the cold air just ahead of a warm front. If rain were to fall in this area, what kind of icing might you expect? a. Rain or clear ice. b. Carburettor ice. c. Rime ice. d. Hoar frost.


PPL (A) – Meteorology 90. Which of the following correctly decodes the METAR shown below? METAR EGKL 130350Z 32005KT 0400N DZ BCFG VV002 a. Observed on the 13th day of the mo nth at 0350Z, surface wind 320°True, 05kt, minimum visibility 400 metres to the north, moderate drizzle, with fog patches and a vertical visibility of 200ft. b. Reported on the 13th day of the month at 0350Z, surface wind 320°Magnetic, 05kt, minimum visibility 400 metres to the north, moderate drizzle, with fog patches and a vertical visibility of 200ft. c. Valid on the 13th day of the month between 0300 and 1500Z, surface wind 320°T/05kt, minimum visibility 400 metres, drizzle, with fog patches and a vertical visibility of 200 metres. d. Valid between 1300Z and 1350Z, surface wind 320°T/05kt, minimum visibility 400 metres to the north, moderate drizzle, and a vertical visibility of 200ft.

91.

When a TREND is included at the e nd of an aviation METAR, the trend is a forecast valid for: a. 2 hours after the time of o f observation. b. 1 hour after the time of observation. c. 2 hours after it was issued. d. 1 hour after it was issued.

92.

The visibility group R20/0050 in a METAR means: a. As measured by runway measuring equipment for runway 20, a current runway visibility of 50 metres. b. For runway 20, a curr ent visibility of 500 metres measured by runway visual range equipment c. The runway visibility reported is 50 metres as measured by the runway visual range equipment within the last 20 minutes. d. On runway 20, the current visibility is less than 5000 metres.

93.

The code: "BECMG FM 1100 -RASH" in a METAR means: a. Becoming, from 1100 UTC, slight rain showers. b. From 1100 UTC, cessation of the t he rain showers. c. Becoming, from 1100 UTC, rain showers. d. Becoming, from 1100 UTC to 0000 UTC, slight rain showers.

94.

A temperature group of 28/24 28/ 24 in a METAR means that: a. The temperature is 28°C and the dew point is 24°C. b. The temperature is 28°C at the time of the reporting, but is expected to become 24°C by the end of the TREND report. c. The dry bulb temperautre is 28°C and t he wet bulb temperature is 24°C. d. The dew point is 28°C and the tem perature is 24°C.


PPL (A) – Meteorology 95. In the METAR shown below, the c loud base has been omitted. At what height might you expect the cloud base to be if cumulus cloud was present? 28005KT9999 SCT??? 12/05 Q1020 NOSIG a. SCT028. b. SCT042. c. SCT020. d. SCT280.

96.

Providing the minimum sector altitude is not a dete rmining factor, CAVOK in a TAF or METAR: a. Means visibility 10km or more, and no cloud below 5000ft. b. Means visibility 10km or more, and few cloud below 5000ft. c. Means visibility 10nm or more, and no cloud below 5000ft. d. Means visibility 10nm or more, and no scattered cloud below 5000ft.

97. Which of the following correctly decodes a TAF that reads: LYBE 161100Z 1612/1712 VRB08KT9999 SCT025? a. Valid from 1200 Hr on the 16 of the month to 1200 Hr on the 17 of the mo nth; surface wind will be variable in direction at 8kt with a visibility of 10km or more; 3to4 oktas of cloud with a base of 2500ft above the aerodrome. b. Valid from 1612 to 1712 UTC; surface wind variable at 8kt; visibility 10nm or more; with a cloud base of 2500ft above mean sea level. c. Observed at 1611UTC; the surface w ind was variable in direction and speed; averaging 8kt: with a visibility of 10km or more, and a cloud base of 2500ft above aerodrome level. d. Observed at 1612 UTC; the surface wind was variable in direction and speed; with a visibility of 10km, and a cloud base of 2500ft above ground level.

98.

BECMG 1621/1701 BKN030 in a TAF means: a. Becoming between 2100 UTC on the 16 of the month and 0100 UTC on the 17 of the month 57 oktas of cloud at 3000 ft agl. b. Becoming between 1621 UTC and 1701 UTC 3-4 oktas of cloud at 300 ћ agl. c. Becoming from 1621 UTC 5-7 oktas of cloud at 3000 ft agl. d. Becoming from 1621 UTC 3-4 oktas of cloud at 300 ft agl

99. Referring to the diagram, determine the 2000ft wind velocity and temperature at position 50°N 0° E/W. (See Fig. PPL Meteo-1) a. 215/13kt+11°C. b. 200/12kt+11°C. c. 220/13kt+12°C. d. 180/20kt+10°C.


PPL (A) – Meteorology Referring to the diagram, what is the forecast wind velocity at 5000ft at position 50°N 0°EM: (See Fig. 5. a 50/1 0 . / 125kt. 5k t. b. 180/20kt. c. 070/15kt. d. 230/1Okt.

101.

What does this symbol represent on a forecast chart? (See Fig. PPL Meteo-4) Meteo -4) a. Thunderstorms. b. Severe turbulence. c. Severe icing. d. Severe mountain waves.

102. Referring to the diagram, which zone would the following TAF best fit? (See Fig. PPL Meteo-5) 1322 35020KT9999 SCT030 SCT090 TEMPO 1322 8000 SHRA BKN015 PROB30TEMPO 1522 5000 +RASH SCT008 BKN009CB= a. Zone 3. b. Zone 1. c. Zones 1 and 2. d. Zones 2 and 4.

103.

What does this symbol represent on a forecast chart? (See Fig. PPL Meteo-6) Meteo -6) a. Severe icing. b. Severe turbulence. c. Severe mountain waves. d. Thunderstorms.

104. Referring to the diagram, what is the feature identified by the lette r J at position 60°N 12°W? (See Fig. PPL Meteo-10) a. An occluded front. b. A warm front. c. A quasi stationary front. d. A tropical front.

105.

Referring to the low-level significant weather chart in the diagram, we see a pressure system at 50 degrees North, 1 degree East, indicated by an "L", accompanied by an arrow and the figures "20" and ""988". What does this denote? denote? (See Fig. PPL Meteo-14) a. A low pressure centre of 988mb, moving East at 20kts. b. A low pressure centre of 988mb moving West at 20 knots. c. A QFE in that region of 988mb. 9 88mb. d. A regional QNH of 988mb.



What is the validity time for a WAFC significant weather chart? a. For a single fixed time only. b. 6 hours. c. 3 hours. d. 30 minutes.

107.

On WAFC significant weather charts what do the letters "CB" imply? a. Moderate to severe icing and turbulence. b. Moderate Icing and turbulence. c. Moderate to severe icing and turbulence and hail. d. Severe icing and turbulence and hail.

108. EGTT SIGMET SST 01 VALID 310730/311130 EGRR LONDON FIR ISOL CB FCST TOPS FL370 SST ROUTES W OF W00400 STNR NC = In the SIGMET message shown above what does the code "SST" stand for? a. Transonic and supersonic flight levels. b. Supersonic flight levels only. c. Subsonic and transonic flight levels . d. Subsonic flight levels only.

109.

A regional is a forecast of the weather up to? a. FL100. b. FL180. c. FL010. d. FL240.

110. LFFF SIGMET SST 1 VALID 310600/311100 LFPW- UIR FRANCE MOD TURB FCST BLW FL420 W of 04W MOV E 30KT NC = In the SIGMET message shown above, what hazard is being forecast? a. Moderate turbulence below 42,000 ft we st of 4 degrees west and moving eastwards. b. Moderate turbulence at 42,000 ft west of 4 degrees west and moving eastwards. c. Moderate turbulence below 42,000 ft west of 4 degrees west and moving from the east. d. Turbulence at 42,000 ft west of 4 degrees west and moving at 30 knots.

111.

In an AIRMET when are strong wind warnings forecast? a. When the wind is expected to exceed 20kt. b. When the wind is expected to exceed 10kt. c. When the wind is expected to exceed 15kt d. When the maximum wind is expected to e xceed 25kt.

112.

A regional AIRMET is issued and is valid for a. 4 times a day / 8 hours / 6 hours. b. 6 times a day / 8 hours / 4 hours. c. 4 times a day / 6 hours / 4 hours. d. 6 times a day / 4 hours / 4 hours.

with an outlook period o

.;



VOLMETS are updated? a. Every half an hour. b. Every hour. c. 4 times a day. d. 2 times a day.

114.

A volmetis defined as: a. A continuous radio broadcast of selected aerodrome actual weat her observations and forecasts. b. A radio broadcast of selected aerodrome forecasts. c. A continuous telephone message of selected aerodrome METARS. d. A teleprinter message of selected aerodrome tafs and metars.

115.

VOLMETS are? a. Ground to air radio transmissions on HF and VHF. b. Air to ground radio transmissions on HF and VHF. c. Air to ground radio transmissions on HF and SVHF. d. Ground to air radio transmissions on LF and VHF.

116.

When areatis broadcasts updated? a. Any time the aerodrome or weather we ather information changes. b. Only when the aerodrome information changes. c. Every 30 minutes. d. Every hour.

117. aid?

To minimise VHF frequency use, theatis can be broadcast on the voice frequency of what navigational a. b. c. d.

VOR. ILS. NDB. GPS.

118.

What is theatis? a. A continuous broadcast of current aerodrome and weather information. b. A chart of current aerodrome and weather information. c. A continuous broadcast of weather we ather information. d. A printed text report of o f current aerodrome and weather information.

119.

In theatis broadcast, what is used to identify the current report? a. An alphabetical code. b. A number. c. A validity time. d. An issue time.



On what frequency range is the ATIS usually broadcast? a. VHF. b. LF. c. HF. d. ADR

121.

What air temperature may we expect at 7,000 ft if the air temperature at 1,500 ft is 15°C? a. +3°C. b. +4°C. c. 0°C. d. -2°C.

122.

What wind represents depicted symbol from meteorological charts? (Se e Fig. PPL Meteo-15) a. West wind at 60 knots. b. North wind at 60 knots. c. South wind at 15 knots. d. East wind at 15 knots.

123.

Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a a. Heat exchange. b. Pressure differential. c. Movement of air.

124.

What weather phenomena is associated with a temperature inversion? a. A stable layer of air. b. An unstable layer of air. c. Ascending winds on mountain slopes. d. Thunderstorms inside air masses.

125.

The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by a. Terrestrial radiation on a clear, r elatively still night. b. The movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air. c. Warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.

126.

The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the a. Air temperature. b. Stability of the air. c. Dewpoint.


PPL (A) – Meteorology 127. What is the approximate airfield dewpoint if the surface air temperature is 20 °C and the reported base of the cumulus clouds is 1,100m above the airfield level? a. 11°C. b. 5°C. c. 7°C. d. -3°C.

128.

What are the charac teristics of an unstable air mass? a. Turbulence and good surface visibility. b. Turbulence and poor surface visibility. c. Nimbostratus clouds and good surface visibility.

129.

What types clouds usually accompany the passage of a warm front? a. CI, CS, AS, NS. b. CC, AC, CU, CB. c. CI, CC, NS, CB. d. CC, SC, ST, NS.

130. Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high? a. Light windshear, poor visibility, haze, and light rain. b. Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds. c. Turbulent air, poor visibility, fog, low stratus type c louds, and showery precipitation

131.

What value is being calculated by following formula? Temperature minus dewpoint times 123 =. ? a. Ceiling of cumulus clouds in meters. b. Temperature aloft. c. Tops of stratus clouds in meters. d. Relative humidity.

132. What is the approximate base of cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature is 2 7°C and the dewpoint is 15°C? a. 1.500 m. b. 1.000m. c. 2.000 m. d. 2.700 m.

133. What approximate base of cumulus clouds should be expected if the surface air dewpoint is 5°C and the forcasted daily maximum temperature is 25°C? a. 2,500 m. b. 2,800 m. c. 2,000 m. d. 1,500 m.



With what type of clouds are shower precipitations associated? a. CB. b. ST. c. CI. d. CU.

135.

Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the a. Mature stage. b. Downdraft stage. c. Cumulus stage.

136.

When may hazardous windshear be expected? a. In areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence. b. Following frontal passage when stratocumulus clouds form indicating mechanical mixing. c. When stable air crosses a mountain barrier where it tends to flow in layers forming lenticular clouds.

137. A pilot can expect a windshear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the windspeed at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least a. 25 knots b. 15 knots. c. 10 knots

138. There is thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an airport at which you plan to land, which hazardous atmospheric phenomenon might be expected on the landing approach? a. Windshear turbulence. b. Steady rain. c. Precipitation static.

139.

Where does windshear occur? a. At all altitudes, in all directions. b. Only at lower altitudes. c. Only at higher altitudes.

140.

Why is frost considered hazardous to flight? a. Frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings, thereby decreasing lifting capability. b. Frost slows the airflow over the airfoils, thereby increasing control effectiveness. c. Frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoils, thereby increasing lift.



In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest accumulation rate? rate? a. Freezing rain. b. Freezing drizzle. c. Cumulus clouds with below freezing temperatures.

142. What percent coverage of the lowest cloud layer was observed accordingly to t he following METAR report? METAR LSZH 131630Z 24008KT 0600 R16/1000U FG DZ FEW003 SCT010 OVC020 17/16 Q1018 BECMG TL1700 0800 FG BECMG AT1800 9999 NSW= a. 1 /8 to 2/8. b. 5/8 to 7/8. c. 8/8. d. Less than 1/8.

143. What was the observed temperature accordingly to the following METAR report? METAR LSZH 131630Z 24008KT 0600 R16/1000U FG DZ FEW003 SCT010 OVC020 17/16 Q1018 BECMG TL1700 0800 FG BECMG AT1800 9999 NSW= a. 17°C. b. Between 10°C and 18°C. c. 16°C. d. Between 16°C and 17°C.

144. What was the observed air pressure pre ssure accordingly to the following METAR report? METAR LSZH 131630Z 24008KT 0600 R16/1000U FG DZ FEW003 SCT010 OVC020 17/16 Q1018 BECMG TL1700 0800 FG BECMG AT1800 9999 NSW= a. 1018 hpa (QNH). b. 1000 hpa (QNH). c. 999 hpa (QFE). d. 1018 hpa (QFE).

145. At what time was following METAR report issued? METAR LSZH 131630Z 24008KT 0600 R16/1000U FG DZ FEW003 SCT010 OVC020 17/16 Q1018 BECMG TL1700 0800 FG BECMG AT1800 9999 NSW= a. By 16:30 UTC, 13th day of the running month. b. By 16:00 UTC, 30th day of the running month. c. By 16:30 local time. d. By 24:00 local time, 8th day of the running month.

146. What type of precipitations was observed accordingly to the following METAR report? METAR LSZH 131630Z 24008KT 0600 R16/1000U FG DZ FEW003 SCT010 OVC020 17/16 Q1018 BECMG TL1700 0800 FG BECMG AT1800 9999 NSW= a. Light drizzle. b. Steady and light rain. c. Hail. d. Rain showers.


PPL (A) – Meteorology 147. What was the ceiling of the lowest cloud layer accordingly to the following METAR report? METAR LSZH 131630Z 24008KT 0600 R16/1000U FG DZ FEW003 SCT010 OVC020 17/16 Q1018 BECMG TL1700 0800 FG BECMG AT1800 9999 NSW= a. 300 m. b. 10 ft. c. 100 ft. d. 1,000 m.

148. Accordingly to the code which of the following METAR reports cold be partially abbreviated by CAVOK (minimum sector altitude 4.000 ft)? A) 34004KT 7000 MIFG SCT260 09/08 Q1019 NOSIG= B)27019G37KT 9999 BKN050 18/14 Q1016 NOSIG= C)00000KT 0100 FG VV001 11/11 Q1025 BECMG 0500= D)26012KT 8000 -SHRA BKN025TCU 16/12 Q1018 NOSIG= a. B. b. A. c. C. d. D.

149. Accordingly to the following METAR report, when may we expect vanishing of the fog an weather improvement for VFR flight? METAR LSZH 131630Z 24008KT 0600 R16/1000U FG DZ FEW003 SCT010 OVC020 17/16 Q1018 BECMG TL1700 0800 FG BECMG AT1800 9999 NSW= a. After 18:00 UTC. b. Till 17:00 UTC. c. Till 18:00 UTC (the latest). d. Between 17:00 and 18:00 UTC.

150. What kind of weather is forecast for the period after 12:00 UTC? TAF LYBE 160500Z 1606/1706 13010KT 9000 BKN020 BECMG 1606/1608 SCT015CB BKN020 TEMPO 1608/1612 17012G22KT 1000 TSRA SCT010CB BKN020 FM12 15006KT 9999 BKN020 BKN100= a. Moderate southeasterly wind with visibility improvement to more than 10 km, precipitations will stop, cloudiness will become greater with ceiling at 600 m. b. Rainy weather with showers and gusty wind and v isibility below 10 km. c. Visibility will improve to 5 km to 10 km and cloud covering will decrease to 1/8 at 600 m and 1/8 at 3000 m. d. Southeasterly wind 6 kts, visibility will be convenient for visual flying and the sky w ill be completely covered with clouds with base at 600 m.


PPL (A) – Meteorology APPENDIX: APPENDIX:

Fig. PPL Meteo-1

Fig. PPL Meteo-2



Fig. PPL Meteo-4

Fig. PPL Meteo-6

Fig. PPL Meteo-15

Fig. PPL Meteo-10



Fig. PPL Meteo-5 28 / 28 Latest information about the exam can be found at www.tafa.aero


Subject:

PPL(A) – Navigation

PPL (A) – Navigation NOTE: The correct answer under a. During the exam the order of answers will be different.

Review questions: 1) What is the angle of inclination o f the Earth's axis to its orbital plane? 1/2 a) 66 ° 1/2 b) 23 ° c) 90° 1/2 d) ЗЗ °

2) The meridian passing through Greenwich is known as? a) Prime Meridian. b) Main Meridian. c) Equator. d) Great Meridian.

3) A Rhumb Line is? a) A regularly curved line on the Earth's sur face which cuts all meridians at the same angle. b) A regularly curved line on the Earth's sur face which cuts all parallels of Latitude at the same angle. c) A line showing True north. d) A line on the surface of the Earth whose centre and radius are those of the Earth.

4) Variation is the angle between: a) True north and Magnetic north. b) True north and the nearest line of Longitude. c) Magnetic north and the aircraft's Magnetic heading. d) Magnetic north and the aircraft's True heading.

5) An Isogonal is a line joining points of: a) Equal magnetic variation. variation. b) Equal magnetic deviation. c) Zero magnetic variation. deviation. d) Zero magnetic deviation.

6) Which points on the Earth's surface determin e the Earth's axis? a) North and south geographic pole. b) North geographic pole and north magnetic pole. c) North and south magnetic pole. d) Equator-hemisphere.N-0001. 7) The circumference o f the Earth along the Equator is approximately a) 40,075 km. b) 21,600 NM. c) 30,000 NM. d) 24,000 km.


PPL (A) – Navigation 8) The Earth's diameter, when c ompared to the Earth' axis, is a) Longer by 43 km. b) Twice as much greater. c) The same. d) Shorter by 42 km.

9) Which of the following statemen ts, regarding rotation of the Earth aroun d the Sun, is correct? The Earth : a) Encircles the Sun in one year. b) Encircles the Sun one time during summer and one time during winter. c) Does not circle around the Sun bec ause it is stationary with the Sun circling around it. d) Encircles the Sun in one day.

10) The Earth's globe rotates : a) Around its axis in the direction fro m the west to the east. b) Around so called Sun's tropic. c) Together with the Sun in the direc tion from the east to the west. d) Around its axis in the directio n from the east to the west.

11) The orbit of the Earth is: a) An ellipse with the Sun at one of the foci. b) A circle with the Sun at the center. c) An ellipse with the Sun at different point inside it. d) A circle around which the Sun rotates.

12) What is the cause of the seasons? a) The tilt of the Earth's axis. b) Irregular movement of the Earth around the Sun. c) Uneven temperatures in space. d) A shape of the Earth's orbit.

13) The shortest distance between two poi nts on the Earth's globe is called: a) Great circle. b) Lambodrome. c) Rhumb line. d) Small circle.

14) Great Circle(s) on the Earth's surface is(are): a) The equator, meridians and orthodroms. equ ator only. b) The equator c) The equator and meridians. d) The equator, meridians and parallels of latitude.

15) The equator is the Great Circle which plane: a) Divides the Earth's globe into the north and south hemispher e. b) Divides the Earth's globe into the east and west hemisphere. c) Is parallel to the Earth's axis.


PPL (A) – Navigation 16) How many Great Circles (orthodroms) can be determine d on the Earth's surface? a) An infinite number. b) 90. c) 180. d) 360.

17) The Great Circle on the Earth's glo be is the cross-section of the Earth's s urface and the plane passing through a) The center of th e Earth and is tilt to the Earth' s axis at any angle. b) The center of the E arth and is always rectangular to the Earth's axis. c) The center of the E arth and is always oblique to the Earth's axis. d) Any two points on the Earth's surf ace; the cross-section with the Earth's surface is the shortest distance between these points.

18) Which of the following circles on the Earth's globe does not have the cen ter at the Earth's center? a) Small Circle. b) Orthodrom. c) Great Circle. d) Equator.

19) What is the characteristic of the Rhumb Line? a) It cuts meridians under constant angle. th e Great Circle. Circle. b) It is the c) It is the shortest distance between two points o n the Earth's globe. d) It cuts meridians under various angles.

20) Which circles, forming the graticule , are at the same time Great Circles and Rhumb Lines? a) Meridians an d equator. b) Parallel of latitude only. c) Meridians only. d) Equator only.

21) The Sun travels across the sky an arc of 5° in a) 20 minutes. b) 60 minutes. c) 30 minutes. d) 4 minutes.

22) What time is needed for the Sun' s azimuth to change by 27 arc degrees ? a) 108 minutes. b) 30 minutes. c) 90 minutes. d) 135 minutes.


PPL (A) – Navigation 23) The Co-ordinated Universal Time (UTC) is a) The time on the longitude 0 degrees. b) The Local Loc al Time. c) The Zone Time. MidEu ropean Time. d) The MidEuropean

24) 13:00 accordingly to the MidEuropean Summer Time is a) 1100 UTC. b) 1200 UTC. c) 1400 UTC. d) 0100 UTC.

25) An aircraft over Belgrade is headed exactl y to the south. It is 1200 UTC. What is theRelative bearing of the Sun? a) Right of the aircraft's nose. b) Exactly straight-in. c) Left of the aircraft's nose. d) May be left or right of the aircraft's nose, with r egard to the season.

26) The geographic latitude is the distance o f a point on the Earth's surface from the a) Equator, measured in arc degrees. b) Equator, measured in statute miles. c) Prime Meridian, measured in arc degrees. d) Prime Meridian, measured in geographic miles.

27) What is the latitude of a point on the Equator? a) 0°. b) 90°N. c) 180°S. d) 90°S.

28) Longitude change between point A (04° 14' 28" E) an B (02° 30' 30" E) on the Earth's globe is a) 01° 43' 58". b) 06° 44' 58". c) 02° 44' 58". d) 02° 16' 02".

29) What is the difference between the latitude of the point A and the point B, which are located on following parallels of latitude: A: 15° 54' 30" N B: 10° 33' 30" S a) b) c) d)

26° 28' 00". 05° 21' 00". 25° 27' 00". 05° 28' 00".


PPL (A) – Navigation 30) Determine the latitude of th e point B, located 240 NM north of the point A with the l atitude 62° 33' 00" N. a) 66° 33' 00" N. b) 58° 33' 00" N. c) 86° 33' 00" N. d) 64° 33' 00" N.

31) The distance between the parallel of latitude 10°N and the parallel of latitude 11°N, measured alo ng the meridian, is a) 111 km. b) 60 SM. c) 60 km. d) 111 NM.

32) The geographic coor dinates of the point A are(see Figure PPL Nav-1) a) N 44° 59, 6’ and E 19° 33,5'. b) N 44° 59, 6’ and W 19° 33,5'. c) E 44° 59, 6’ and N 19° 33,5'. d) W 44° 59, 6’ and N 19° 33,5'.

33) The geographic coor dinates of the point B are(see Figure PPL Nav-1) a) N 45° 05, 9’ and E 19° 46, 1’. b) N 45° 05, 9’ and S 19° 46, 1’. c) N 45° 05, 9’ and W 19° 46, 1’. d) N 45° 05, 5’ and N 19° 46,1’. 46, 1’.

34) The geographic coor dinates of the point C are(see Figure PPL Nav-1) a) N 45° 00, 9’ and E 19° 45,0'. b) N 45° 00, 9’ and S 19° 45,0'. c) N 45° 00, 9’ and W 19° 45,0'. d) N 45° 00, 9’ and N 19° 45,0'.

35) Which point has the geographical coordinates N 44° 33, 2’ and E 20° 59, 0’? (see Figure PPL Nav-4) a) MIHAL. b) DUBRA. c) YEZAV.

36) The geographic coordinates point DUBRA are (see Figure PPL Nav-4) a) N 44° 41,3' and E 21° 04,1'. b) N 44° 41,3' and W 21° 04,1'. c) S 44° 41,3' and E 21° 04,1'. d) S 44° 41,3' and W 21° 04,1'.


PPL (A) – Navigation 37) 11 km north of the geographic coordinates N 44 ° 41.3 'E and 21 ° 04.1' is the place? (see Figure PPL Nav-4) a) Gaj b) Skorenovac c) Radinac d) Kovin

38) The distance of 1 NM is equivalent to a) The distance of one arc minute on a Meridian. b) Exactly the 40-thousandth part of the Earth's pe rimeter. c) The distance between a Meridian and the pole. d) The perimeter of a Polar Circle.

39) The distance of 1 NM equals to a) 1,852 m. b) 1,111 m. c) 1,432 m. d) 1,609 m.

40) The formula for a quick calculation from kilo metres to nautical miles is: a) (km : 2) + 10%. b) (km x 2) - 22%. c) (km : 2) - 10%. d) (km x 2) - 10%.

41) Approximately how many kilom etres are in 70 nautical miles? a) 130 km. b) 135 km. c) 140 km. d) 145 km.

42) The distance of 1 statute mile is equal to a) 1,609 m. b) 1,852 m. c) 1,432 m. d) 1,111 m. 43) How many kilometres are in 50 SM (statute miles)? a) Approximately 8 0 km. b) Approximately 9 2 km. c) Exactly 100 km. d) Little less t han 75 km. 44) Where on the chart can the distanc e between the two points be determined, which h as been callipered by a pair of compasses or marked on the edge of a piece of paper? a) On each Meridian or on the scale ribbon on the edge of the chart. b) On each Meridian. c) Only on the Meridian at the midpoint between points. d) Only on the scale ribbon on the edge of the chart.


PPL (A) – Navigation 45) On a chart, 6 cm represents the distance 15 km. What is the scale of the chart? a) 1:250 000. b) 1:300 000. c) 1:400 000. d) 1:500 000.

46) The scale of the chart is 1:500 000. How many centimetre s represents the distance 105km? a) 21.0 cm. b) 10.5 cm. c) 42.0 cm. d) 84.0 cm. 47) The scale of the chart is? (see Figure PPL Nav-3) a) 1:250 000. b) 1:300 000. c) 1:200 000. d) 1:500 000.

48) The scale of the chart is 1:300 000. How many centimetres represents the distanc e 210km? a) 70 cm. b) 63 cm. c) 6.3 cm. d) 7 cm. 49) The attached map distanc e between points A and B is 9 c m. how many kilometers is it? (see Fig ure PPL Nav-2) a) 18. b) 9. c) 4.5. d) 1.8.

50) The attached map distance between points A and B is 9 cm. how many Nm is it? (see Figu re PPL Nav-2) a) 9.66. b) 18. c) 4.5. d) 1.8.

51) The distance between the points ALFA and BRAVO is 107 NM. If an aircraft covers first 16 NM in 10 minutes, what time does it take to travel the entire route ALFA -BRAVO with the same groundspeed? a) 1 hour an d 6 minutes. b) 1 hour an d 3 minutes. c) 1 hour an d 1 minute. d) 59 minutes. 52) How far will an aircraft travel with 32 gal of usable fuel with fuel co nsumption 7,1 gal/h at the groundspeed 108 kts? (Allow 1-hour final reserve fuel) a) 379 NM. b) 384 NM. c) 420 NM. d) 487 NM.


PPL (A) – Navigation 53) How far will an aircraft travel with 27 gal of usable fuel with fuel co nsumption 6,8 gal/h at the groundspeed 93 kts? (Allow 6-gallons final reserve fuel) a) 287 NM. b) 292 NM. c) 301 NM. d) 308 NM.

54) How many gallons of usable fuel should be on board of an aircraft for a distance flight of 300 NM at the groundspeed 120 kts and average fuel consumptio n 7,3 gal/h? (Allow 1-hour fuel reserve). a) 25.6 gal. b) 15.0 gal c) 18.3 gal. d) 21.4 gal.

55) A distance in meters could be converted to feet using the formula: a) (m x 3) + 10%. b) m x 0.3. c) (m : 10) x 3. d) (m x 3) : 10.

56) An altitude 1,500 meters is approximately a) 4,900 ft. b) 3,600 ft. c) 4,000 ft. d) 4,500 ft.

57) On a chart we read the obstacle altitude 275 meters. Regarding the rule of h eight clearance 1,000 feet over obstacles, what is the lowest altitude for overflying the obstacle? a) 1,900 ft. b) 2,230 ft. c) 2,130 ft. d) 1,230 ft.

58) Altitude 6,000 ft is approximately a) 1,800 m. b) 1,200 m. c) 3,000 m. d) 12,000 m.

59) Approximately what QNH pressure correspo nds to the QFE pressure 1000 hPa on an airfield with the elevation 200 meters? a) 1025 hPa. b) 985 hPa. c) 990 hPa. d) 1035 hPa.


PPL (A) – Navigation 60) If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 996 hPa to 10 33 hPa, the altitude indication will a) Increase. b) Not change. c) Decrease at low temperatures and increase at high temperatures. d) Decrease for 1,000 ft.

61) When set to 1008 hPa, an aircraft's altimeter indicates 1,600 ft. What would be the in dication if setting is changed to 1009 hPa? a) 1,630 ft. b) 1,610 ft. c) 1,570 ft. d) 1,590 ft.

62) If a pilot changes the altimeter setting fro m 1010 hPa to 1000 hPa, what is the approximate c hange in indication? a) Altimeter will indicate 300 ft lower. b) Altimeter will indicate 300 ft higher. c) No change in indication. d) Variously, dependent on QNH.

63) What does a measuring unit knot used in aviation mean? a) NM/h. b) SM/h. c) Km/h. d) m/h.

64) The wind velocity of 10 m/sec approximately equals to a) 20 kts. b) 40 kts. c) 5 kts. d) 2,5 kts.

65) Wind velocity 5 kts is approximately a) 10 km/hour. b) 5 statute miles/hour. c) 20 m/sec. d) All of the above is correct.

66) A velocity 120 km/h, expressed in knot s, is a) 65 kts. b) 50 kts. c) 58 kts. d) 60 kts.


PPL (A) – Navigation 67) If a vertical speed indicator of a towing airplane shows 500 ft/min, the approximately aerotow's rateof-climb in meters-per-second is a) 2,5 m/sec. b) 1,5 m/sec. c) 3,5 m/sec. d) 5 m/sec.

68) What is the ground speed (GS) of an aircraft, covering in 40 minutes the distance, tha t represents 10.8 cm on an 1:500 000 chart? a) 81 km/h. b) 81 kts. c) 100 mph. d) 100 km/h.

69) An aircraft would cover a 120 km-distance in no wind condition in 2 hours and 40 minutes, however in actual meteo conditions the flight lasted 3 hours and 5 minutes. What was the longitudinal wind component on route? a) 6 km/h headwind. b) 16 kts tailwind. c) 16 km/h headwind. d) 6 kts tailwind.

70) The distance of the route from the point X to the point Y via the control point Z is 84 km. If an aircraft covers the first segment X-Z (35 km) in 50 minutes, what will be the total time of flight between the points X and Y? a) 2 hours. b) 45 minutes. c) 50 minutes. d) 1 hour an d 10 minutes.

71) How far will an aircraft travel in 2-1/2 minutes with a groundspeed of 98 knots? a) 4.08 NM. b) 2.45 NM. c) 3.35 NM.

72) 100 kg is how many pounds? a) 220 lbs. b) 180 lbs. c) 200 lbs. d) 250 lbs.

73) 90 pounds is how many kilograms? a) 41 kg. b) 37 kg. c) 45 kg. d) 52 kg.


PPL (A) – Navigation 74) 25 US gallons is how many liters? a) 95 l. b) 98 l. c) 100 l. d) 105 l. 75) Which mark on the wind triangle represents a true course? (see Figure PPL Nav-13) a) Mark 4. b) Mark 3. c) Mark 2. d) Mark 1.

76) Which mark on the wind triangle represents a true heading? a) Mark 3. b) Mark 4. c) Mark 2. d) Mark 1. 77) Which mark on the wind triangle represents a magnetic heading? (see Figure PPL Nav-13) a) Mark 2. b) Mark 1. c) Mark 3. d) Mark 4.

78) Which mark on the wind triangle sketch denotes a compa ss heading? (see Figure PPL Nav-13) a) Mark 1. b) Mark 2. c) Mark 3. d) Mark 4.

79) Which mark on the wind triangle represents a wind correction angle? (see Figu re PPL Nav-13) a) Mark 5. b) Mark 2. c) Mark 3. d) Mark 4.

80) Which mark on the wind triangle rep resents a magnetic variation? (see Fig ure PPL Nav-13) a) Mark 9. b) Mark 3. c) Mark 5. d) Mark 10.

81) Which mark on the wind triangle represents a compass deviation? (see Figure PPL Nav-13) a) Mark 10. b) Mark 5. c) Mark 8. d) Mark 9.


PPL (A) – Navigation 82) Which mark on the wind triangle represents an aircraft's true airspeed (TAS)? (see Figure PPL Nav-13) a) Mark 8. b) Mark 5. c) Mark 6. d) Mark 7.

83) Which mark on the wind triangle represents an aircraft's ground spee d (GS)? (see Figure PPL Nav-13) a) Mark 6. b) Mark 5. c) Mark 7. d) Mark 8.

84) Which mark on the wind triangle represents a wind vector? (see Figure PPL Nav-13) a) Mark 7. b) Mark 5. c) Mark 6. d) Mark 8.

85) What is the meaning of the term "drift angle" in navigation? a) The difference betwe en a direction of t he true air speed of an aircraft and a desired track. b) The angle between an aircraft's longitudi nal axis and an actual path. c) The difference between a magn etic course and a wind direction. d) The difference between an angle under wind blows to the vector of an actual true air speed and a direction of an aircraft's longitudinal axis. 86) A Wind Correction Angle is the angle difference between a) True heading and desired true course. b) Desired true and desired magnetic course. c) True and magnetic heading. d) Magnetic and compass heading in no wind condition. 87) Which azimuth corresponds to the general direction WNW? a) 292.5°. b) 247.5°. c) 337.5°. d) 202.5°. 88) Which parameter is included in the reckoning of a magnet ic course? a) Magnetic variation. b) Compass deviation. c) Magnetic inclination. cor rection angle. d) Wind correction 89) The angle between a direction toward geographic north and a direction tow ard magnetic north is called a) Variation. b) Compass deviation. c) Inclination. d) Convergency of meridians.


PPL (A) – Navigation 90) The magnetic variation value of a given point on the Earth 's surface can be obtained b y a) Referring to the isogonic lines on aeronautical charts. b) Referring to the table of magnetic variation in the cockpit. c) Calculating the angular difference betwee n the meridian of a given point and the Greenwich meridian. d) Calculating the difference between magnetic and compass heading. 91) Lines on geographical charts joining points of equal magnetic variation, are called a) Izogonic lines. b) Agonic lines. c) Izoclinic lines. d) Izobars. 92) Lines on geographical charts jo ining points of a zero magnetic variation, are called a) Agonic lines. b) Izogonic lines. c) Izoclinic lines. d) Aclinic lines. 93) What is the magnetic variation of the area? (see Figure PPL Nav-3) a) 3° E b) 21° E. c) 50° W. d) 15° E.

94) When calculating magnetic direction from a given true direction, westerly variation should be a) Added. b) Subtracted. c) Multiplicated. d) Divided. 95) Magnetic course is calculated using the equation a) True course plus/minus magnetic variation. b) True heading plus/minus magnetic variation. c) True course plus/minus compass deviation. d) Magnetic heading plus/minus compass deviation. he ading is 96) Magnetic heading a) True heading plus/minus variation. b) True course plus/minus variation. c) True course plus/minus deviation. d) Magnetic course plus/minus deviation. 97) Is it possible for a desired true track, true he ading and actual true track to have the same v alue? a) Yes. b) No, in no case. c) Yes, because these values are always equal. d) This is possible only when flying in north or sou th direction. 98) Which element of the win d triangle has a null value if a magnetic heading equals compass heading? a) Compass deviation. b) Inclination. c) Drift.


PPL (A) – Navigation d) Magnetic variation. 99) The true heading for a flight between two points of a route is 270° and the wind correction angle is 10°. What will be the true heading for a return flig ht between the same points? a) 100°. b) 090°. c) 180°. d) 110°.

100) a) b) c)

Which statement is true about homing when using A DF? Homing allows flying along curved path only, which leads to the NDB station. Homing is a practical navigational method, usable fo r flying to and away from the NDB station. Homing requires an ADF with the automatic or at least manually adjusting comp ass rose.

101) a) b) c)

To use an VHF/DF facilities for assistance in location an aircraft's po sition, the aircraft must have a VHF transmitter and receiver. 4096-code transponder. VOR receiver and DME.

102) a) b) c)

An NDB normally transmits on which frequency band? 190 to 535 KHz. 400 to 1020 Hz. 962 to 1213 MHz. MHz.

103) a) b) c)

As shown by ADF A, the relative bearing TO the station is (see F igure PPL Nav-10) 240°. 030°. 210°.

104) a) b) c)

As shown by ADF B, the relative bearing T O the station is (see Figure PPL Nav-10) 235°. 190°. 315°.

105) a) b) c)

As shown by ADF D, the relative be aring TO the station is (see Figure PPL Nav-11) 340°. 020°. 060°.

106) a) b) c)

As shown by ADF E, the relative bearing TO the station is (see Figure PPL Nav-11) 315°. 045°. 180°.


PPL (A) – Navigation 107) a) b) c)

As shown by ADF F, the relative bearing TO the station is (see Fig ure PPL Nav-11) 090°. 180°. 270°.

108) a) b) c)

As shown by ADF G, the rel ative bearing TO the station is (see Figure PPL Nav-1 1) 180°. 090°. 270°.

109) a) b) c)

As shown by ADF A, the magnetic bearing TO the station is (see Figure PPL Nav-10) 210°. 030°. 180°.

If receiving ADF indication B, what magnetic heading sho uld the aircraft be turned to fly directly to 110) the NDB station? (see Figure PPL Nav-10) a) 190°. b) 010°. c) 145°.

If receiving ADF indication B, what approxim ate magnetic heading should the aircraft be turned to 111) intercept the 180° bearing TO the station? (see Figure PPL Nav-10) a) 220°. b) 040°. c) 160°.

If an ADF indicator in the cockpit corresponds to the figure C, the magnetic bearing FROM the 112) station is (see Figure PPL Nav-10) a) 115°. b) 025°. c) 295°.

Which of the figures co rresponds to an AD F indicator of an aircraft, flying TO the station with a right 113) crosswind? (see Figure PPL Nav-10) a) D. b) A. c) B.

1h1at4)is thWemagne ema gnetic tic bear b earing ing FROM F ROM the th e statio sta tion n of an a n aircraf airc raftt with an a n ADF indic in dicati ation, on, depict dep icted ed in figure A? (see Figure PPL Nav-10) a) 030°. b) 150°. c) 180°.


PPL (A) – Navigation 115) On a magnetic heading of 320° and with an ADF indication as figure H, the magnetic bearing TO the station is (see Figure PPL Nav-11) a) 185°. b) 005°. c) 225°.

116) On a magnetic heading of 035° and with an ADF indication as figure I, the magnetic bearing TO the station is (see Figure PPL Nav-11) a) 035°. b) 180°. c) 215°.

117) On a magnetic heading of 120° and with an ADF indication as figure J, the magnetic bearing TO the station is (see Figure PPL Nav-11) a) 165°. b) 045°. c) 270°.

If the magnetic bearing of an aircraft TO the station is 240°, what is the mag netic heading if the ADF 118) indicator corresponds to the figure J? (see Figure PPL Nav-11) a) 195°. b) 045°. c) 105°.

119) If the magnetic bearing of an aircraft TO the station is 030°, what is the mag netic heading if the ADF indicator corresponds to the figure K? (see Figure PPL Nav-11) a) 120°. b) 060°. c) 270°.

If the magnetic bearing of an aircraft TO the station is 135°, what is the mag netic heading if the ADF 120) indicator corresponds to the figure L? (see Figure PPL Nav-11) a) 360°. b) 135°. c) 270°.

121) Choose the correct sequence seq uence of procedu res in the cockpit for flying inbound to the VOR station. a) Rotate the OBS selector knob to center the CDI needle with TO indication . b) Check the identification signal. c) Check for proper frequency selected. d) Turn the aircraft into the heading, equal to the r adial selected on the OBS. a) b) c) d)

c, b, a, d b, c, a, d d, a, b, c a, b, c, d


PPL (A) – Navigation 122) a) b) c) d)

VOR radials are Magnetic directions. Compass directions. True directions. Relative bearings.

An aircraft has a DME reading 120 miles from a VOR station and a CDI indication is one-fifth of a full 123) deflection to one side. Appro ximately how many miles off the course centerline is the aircraft? a) 6,7 NM. b) 1,5 NM. c) 3,0 NM.

124) a) b) c) d)

When using a VOR for navigation, station passage is indicated By the first complete reversal of the TO-FROM indicator. When the OFF flag appears. When the TO-FROM flag begins to flicker. When the first full-scale deflection of the CDI.

125) a) b) c)

Which situation would result in reverse sensing of a VOR receiver? Flying a heading that is reciprocal to the bearing selected on the OBS. Setting the OBS to a bearing that is 90° from th e bearing on which the aircr aft is located. Failing to change the OBS from the selected inbo und course to the outbound co urse after passing the station.

To track outbound o n the 180 radial of a VOR station, the recommended proc edure is to set the 126) OBS to a) 180° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle. b) 360° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle. c) 180° and make heading corrections away from the CDI needle. 127) to a) b) c)

To track inbound on the 215 radial of a VOR station, the recommended procedure is to set the OBS 035° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle. 215° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle. 215° and make heading corrections away from the CDI needle.

With a VOR/ILS receiver set to a VOR fre quency, how man y degrees does full deflection of a CDI to 128) one side represent? a) 10°. b) 5°. c) 20°. An aircraft 60 miles from a VOR station has a CDI indication one -fifth deflection, this repr esents a 129) course centerline deviation of approximately a) 2 miles. b) 6 miles. c) 1 mile. 130) a) b) c)

Which airplane(s) correspond( s) to the VOR indicator V? (see Figure PPL Nav-12) Airplane 2 only. Airplane 6 only. Airplanes 5 and 8.



Which airplane(s) correspond( s) to the VOR indicator X? (see Figure PPL Nav-12) Airplanes 1 and 3. Airplanes 3 and 7. Airplane 7 only.

132) a) b) c)

Which airplane(s) correspond( s) to the VOR indicator U? (see Figure PPL Nav-12) Airplane 6 only. Airplanes 1 and 2. Airplane 2 only.

133) a) b) c)

Which presentation of a VOR indicator correspon ds to airplanes 8? (see Figure PPL Nav-12) W. T. V.

134) a) b) c)

Which presentation of a VOR indicator corres ponds to airplanes 5 and 7? (see Figure PPL Nav-12) W and Z. T and X. V and X.

1 h3 ic5h) of t of tW he following statements, regarding a DME operation, is correct? a) The frequency of a DM E receiver in the aircraft is being adjuste d automatically when we set a VOR or ILS frequency. b) When flying directly above the DME facility, the pilot reads on the DME indicator in th e cockpit a zero distance. c) If we move the DME switch in the cockpit to HOLD, all readings are reset to zero. 136) a) b) c)

Which distance is displayed by a DME indicator? Slant-range distance in nautical miles. Slant-range distance in statute miles. The distance from the aircr aft to a point at the same altitude directly above the DME gro und facility.

137) What is the DME reading if an aircraft is directly over a VOR/DME station at the altitude of 6,00 0 ft AGL? a) 1. b) 0. c) 1,3. 138) a) b) c)

The slant-range error o f a DME is greatest at Low altitudes directly over the facility. High altitudes directly over the facility. High altitudes and high range from the facility.

139) 3) a) b) c) d)

Directions of airways on the Jeppesen radio navigation al chart in Appendix are (see Figure PPL NavMagnetic directions. True directions. Loksodromic directions.

Compass directions.



Waypoints data in a GPS database (with the exception of use rs waypoints) could be update d by A respective software house only. A pilot, however when in-flight only. A pilot on ground only, wh en the device is stationary.

A CDI deviation needle on the GPS electronic screen in the cockpit shows a deviation from the 141) desired track in a) Distance units. b) Arc degrees. c) Arc degrees or distance units, depend s on pilot's discretion. Similarly to a VOR, the accuracy of a GPS in great extend depends o n the distance to the point 142) selected. a) False. b) True. 143) a) b) c) d)

A GPS leads an aircraft on route alo ng Great circle. Passive curve. Heading line. Rhumb line.

144) a) b) c)

Which directions are normally selected when setting a GPS? Magnetic directions. True directions. Compass directions.

145) A GPS signal receptions in great exten d depends on the aircraft's altitude. This statement is a) True. b) False.

146) a) b) c)

When working with a GPS one must know that The device automatically determines the aircraft's present position in geograp hic coordinates. It is necessary to type in manually geographic coordinates of the aircraft's parking position. The device is able to determine navigational parameters relative only to those fixes, which are in a theoretical sight of view.

147) a) b) c)

Which map datum should be selected at GPS initialization? WGS84. EUROPE. NAD83.

148) a) b) c) d)

Which velocity is measured in principle by every GPS instrument? Ground Speed. True Air Speed. Vertical Speed. Wind Speed.

149) a) b) c)

A GPS signal may be interrupted when transmitting on VHF freque ncies 121.15 MHz, 121.17 MHz in 121.20 MHz. 131.25 MHz in 131.30 MHz. Both answers are correct.



In a RNAV mode, the lateral deflection of the C DI indicates Nautical miles left or right of course. Degrees left or right of course. Statute miles left or right of course.


PPL (A) – Navigation

APPENDIX:

PPL Nav-1



PPL Nav-2



PPL Nav-3



PPL Nav-4



PPL Nav-10

PPL Nav-11



PPL Nav-12



PPL Nav-13



Subject:

PPL(A)- Operational Procedures

PPL (A) – Operational procedures NOTE: The correct answer under a. During the exam the order of answers will be different.

Review questions: 1. Following an aviation accident in the Republic of Tu rkey, to which of the following mu st the accident be reported as expeditiously as possible? a) The Civil Aviation Authority and the local police. b) The Chief Inspector of the Air Ac cident Investigation Branch (AAI B) and to the local police. c) The home airfield of the aircraft involved in the accident. d) The nearest Air Traffic Control Unit.

2. If a pilot judges that his aircraft is in grave and imminent dang er, his message should begin with the words: a) Mayday Mayday Mayday. b) Pan Pan Pan P an Pan Pan Pan. c) Either Pan Pan Pan Pan Pan Pan or Mayday Mayday Mayday. d) Emergency Emergency Emergency.

3. Which one of the following stateme nts is false? An accident must be reported if, between the time that anyone boards an aircraft to go flying and until everyone has left it: a) A passenger dies from natural causes. b) Anyone is killed or seriously injure d while in or on the aircraft. c) The aircraft incurs damage or structural failure. d) The aircraft is completely inaccessible or missing.

4. Which of the following cases constitutes an aircraft accident? a) The injury of a person on the ground after being struck by any part of an aircraft which had detached from the aircraft while it was airborne but where the safety of the aircraft was not necessarily nec essarily compromised. b) A lightning strike on an aircraft in flight. c) An engine failure in flight. d) A burst main gear or tailwheel tyre during the take-off or landing roll.

5. If a pilot elects to make a distress o r urgency call, on which freq uency should he first t ransmit, as an alternative to 121.5 MHz? a) The frequency he is currently using. b) He should always change immedi ately to 121.5 MHz before transmitting. c) The frequency of th e nearest airfield with a full Air traffic Control Service. d) His home airfield frequency. 6. In establishing noise preferential routes, turns during tak e off and climb should not be required unless the aircraft has reached: a) 500 ft above terrain or the highest obstacles under the flight path. b) 1000 ft above terrain or the highest obstacles under the flight path. c) 1500 ft above terrain or the highest obstacles under the flight path. d) 2000 ft above terrain or the highest obstacles under the flight path.


PPL (A) – Operational procedures 7. Which of the following is not a Search & Rescu e Alerting phase? a) Urgency phase. b) Uncertainty phase. c) Alert Phase. d) Distress phase.

8.

It’s the pilot's

responsibility to ensure that the aircraft is properly equipped for the pla nned flight. If there is any doubt the pilot should con sult: a) Minimum Equipment E quipment List. List. b) Certificate of Airworthiness. c) Certificate of Maintenance Review, d) Pilot's Operating Handbook.

9. Before flight it is the pilot's responsibility to check that the aircraft is properly registered, is airworthy and has been maintained properly. To this end he must check a variety of documen ts. Which one of the following is not required to be checked? E quipment List. a) Minimum Equipment b) Certificate of Airworthiness. c) Technical log. d) Third Party Insurance certificate.

10. All aircraft on the aircraft movement area of an aerodrome with e ngines running are display lights to indicate this. Which on e of the following is used for this purpose? a) Red anti-co llision light light b) Landing light. c) Navigation lights. d) Tail light.

11. For night operation, airplanes and gliders must be equipped with the following lights: a) Right wing tip: green light, left wing tip: red light, tail: white light. b) Left wing tip: green light, right wing tip: red light, tail: white light. tail: red light. c) Left wing tip: white light, right wing tip: white light, tail: d) Left wing tip: white light, right wing tip: white light, tail: orange light.

12. In the course o f a flight during daylight hours, a pilot notices that the aircraft's anti collision light has failed. What course of action should he take? a) Continue with the flight, as long as it can be completed in daylight, a nd get the light repaired at the earliest opportunity. b) Land immediately at the nearest aerodrome. c) Land as soon as practic ally possible at the nearest suitable airfield. d) Return to his base airfield and declare the aircraft unserviceable un til the light has been repaired. 13. When must the anti-collision beacon on an aircraft be operating (if installed)? a) Must be on all the time the engin e of an aircraft is running. b) All the time the aircraft is flying. c) Must be switched on after engine start-up and switched off before engine shut -down. d) Must be switched on shortly before takeo ff and switched off whe n the aircraft vacates the runway.


PPL (A) – Operational procedures 14. At the scene of an aircraft ac cident, a survivor has made a ground signal showi ng a large cross with angles of 90° between the arms of t he cross. What does this mean? a) Require medical assistance. b) Require assistance. c) This is o ur position. d) All survivors are uninjured.

15. Official data regarding operating limitations and allowed mass of your aircraft could be foun d in : a) Aircraft's F light Manual. b) Maintenance Log. c) Certificate of Airworthiness and in Certificate of Registration. d) Official Gazette of Civil Aviation Authority.

16. The pilot of an aircraft taking-off fro m an airfield where the altimeter setting is not readily available, shall set the aircraft altimeter to : a) The elevation of the airfield. b) The altitude zero. c) 1013.2 hpa. d) The altimeter setting of the nearest controlled airport. airport.

17. What unit of measurement is in use in aviation when vertical velocity parameters are reported? a) Feet per minute. b) Meters per minute. c) Meters per second. d) Feet per second.

18. What units of measurement are in use in aviation when wind parameters are reported to the pilot (with the exception of takeoff and landing)? a) True directio n and knots. b) True direction and kilometers per hour. c) Magnetic direction and statute miles per hour. d) Magnetic direction and knots.

19. During a walk around check you move the control column of your aircraft to one side and notice that the up-aileron deflects more than the down-aileron. You would normally : a) Do nothing, because the ailerons are of the type "differential". b) Call the mechanic. c) Consider situation normal as long as the difference in deflections o n opposite sides is equal, however you would make a technical remark in the book. d) Fix uneven deflections by adjusting the regul ating screws on the aileron control system.


PPL (A) – Operational procedures 20. When tying down an aircraft , when should so me slack be left in the rope? a) When using manila ropes tie-down. b) When using nylon ropes tie-down. c) Where there are strong winds. d) Tie-downs should be tied firmly, never leave slack.

21. What should be done if your aircraft engine overheats while taxiing? a) Turn into wind and idle at the recommend ed RPM. b) Shut off the engine immediately. c) Speed up the engine fo r improved airflow over the cooling fins. d) Enrich mixture to provide cooler combustion temperatures.

22. What is the proper pilot procedure in case of a popped-ou t circuit breaker? a) Wait until the circuit breaker cools and p ush it in; if it popes up again, do not Push the circuit breaker and hold it firmly in by finger until land. b) Not to push in the circui t breaker in any case. c) Push the circuit breaker in with the related electrical equipment switched off. d) Push it again.

23. If an engine failure is accompanied by mec hanical noise and the propeller stops rotating, the cause of the engine failure is most likely : a) Break-up o f a pisto n valve. b) Fuel starvation. c) Failure of a magneto.

24. Following a sudden and complete loss of power from the engine, there is no mechanical noise and the propeller continu es to windmill. The likely cause of the power loss is : a) Fuel starvation. b) Failure of a magneto. c) Break-up of a piston or valve.

25. What should you do if your cylinde r head temperature drops too low du ring an approach to land or in a glide? a) Apply sufficient power to keep the engine warm. b) Turn on carburetor heating. c) Reduce airspeed to decre ase the cooling effect of the airflow. d) Lean the mixture.

26. What is the reason for shutting down an aviation reciprocating en gine using the mixture lever rather than the ignition switch? a) By doing that we avoid self-ignition due to presence of the fu el/air mixture in cylinders. b) Because an engine cannot be sh ut down by switching the magnetos off. c) By doing that we prevent the engine to be shut down at too high temperature. d) Because at magnetos switching o ff the engine stops very rapidly and damage of the main shaft bearings could occur.


PPL (A) – Operational procedures 27. What initial precaution should be taken b y the pilot when parking an aircraft with a magneto that is unable to be grounded becaus e of a faulty connection in the ignition switch? a) A placard should be placed on the aircraft warning others of "live magneto s". b) Other pilots should be warned against flying the aircraft. c) The aircraft should be grou nded by making an entry in the Journey Log. d) The CCA should be notified at once.

28. What is the most reliable practical metho d of checking the fuel level in the reservoirs o f an aircraft while on ground? a) Visual checking the fuel level in the reservoir. b) Reading the fuel gauges with engine running. c) Weighing of an aircraft. d) Shaking the wingtip and observing the fuel bouncing.

29. Why should you check a sample of fuel from the sump and filter before each flight? a) To be certain that the fuel is free of contami nants and of the proper grade. b) To be certain that the fuel is free flowing. c) To know that the fuel pump is working prop erly. d) To be sure that the proper grade of fuel is used.

30. Which fuel contaminant is the most difficult to isolate with simple filter systems? a) Water. b) Fine rust or dirt particles. particles. c) Grease or oil. d) Ice.

31. To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with f uel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is nec essary to drain fuel from the : a) Fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps. b) Fuel strainer drain. c) Lowest point in the fuel system.

32. What is the best way to reduce the po ssibility of water contamination in fuel tanks? a) Always keeping the fuel tanks full will help to eliminate condensation. b) Fuel filters should be sealed to keep out rainwater. c) Tank vents should be plugged while the aircraft is parked overnight.

33. Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a goo d operating procedu re because this will : a) Prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks. b) Force any existing water to the to p of the tank away from the fu el lines to the engine. c) Prevent expansion of the fue l by eliminating airspace in the tanks. 34. What happens if the filler cap comes loose on one of your wing fuel tanks? a) The low pressure o n the top of the wing will cause all the fuel to be siphoned out. b) Rainwater will enter the tank and contaminate the f uel. c) The loose cap will cause damage to control surfac es if it flies off. d) The aerodynamics flow about the fuel filler neck will disrupt fuel flow.


PPL (A) – Operational procedures 35. What will happen if the fuel primer pum p is not locked enough after its use? a) The fuel/air mixture will be too rich because of the fuel leaking into the intake manifo ld. b) The fuel/air mixture will be too poor because o f the air air leaking into the intake manifold. c) Dropping of a fuel in the cockpit. d) Detonations in the engine because of too rich fuel/air mixture.

36. What is the reason for most of the ref uelling fires caused by static electricity sparks? a) Refuelling an ungrounded aircraft from plastic containers. b) Refuelling an ungrounded aircraft from metal containers. c) Refuelling a grounde d aircraft with the engine running.

37. What is the specific mass of aviation gasoline? a) 0.72 kg/liter. b) 0.60 kg/liter. c) 1.00 kg/liter. d) 1.72 kg/liter.

38. 1 USA gallon of AVGAS 100 LL weights : a) 6 lbs. b) 3 lbs. c) 4 lbs. d) 5 lbs.

39. 53 liters of AVGAS 100 LL weights : a) 38 kg. b) 42 kg. c) 74 kg. d) 80 kg.

40. Aviation gasoline 80/87 grade is colored? a) Red. b) Green. c) Blue. d) Violet.

41. Aviation gasoline 100/130 grade is colored? a) Green. b) Red. c) Blue. d) Violet.

42. Aviation gasoline 100LL is colored : a) Blue. b) Red c) Green. d) Violet.


PPL (A) – Operational procedures 43. What fuel should you use in yo ur aircraft if the specified grade is not available? a) The next higher grade of aviation fuel. b) The next lower grade of aviation fuel. c) Unleaded avtomotive gas of the same grade. d) Automotive gas SUPER of the sam e or next higher grade.

44. If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause : a) Detonation. b) A mixture of f uel and air that is not uniform in all cylinders. c) Lower cylinder head temperatures.

45. Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temp erature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges? a) Using fuel that has a lower-than-spe cified fuel rating. b) Using fuel that has a higher-than-spec ified fuel rating. c) Operating with higher-than-normal oil pressure.

46. Detonation may occur at high-power settings whe n : a) The fuel mixture ignites instantaneously inste ad of burning progressively and evenly. b) An excessively rich fuel mixture causes an explosive gain in power. c) The fuel mixture is ignited too early by hot carbon deposits in the cylinder.

47. If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause : a) Detonations. b) A mixture of f uel and air that is not uniform in all cylinders. c) Lower cylinder head temperatures. d) An increase in power which could overstress internal engine components.

48. On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven pump used? a) In the event engine-driven fuel pump fails. b) All the time to aid the engine-driven fuel pum p. c) Constantly except in starting the engine.

49. What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine? a) Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indication s on the engine gauges. b) Place the magneto or ignition switch mo mentarily in the OFF position to check for proper grounding. c) Test each brake and the parking brake. 50. When an engine is st arted up, the pilot should monitor oil pressure. If the e ngine is cold prior to start up, it sho uld be : a) Shut down, if oil press ure is not seen to rise within approximately 30 seconds of start up. b) Shut down immediately if oil pressure does not rise immediately upon start up. c) Shut down, if oil press ure has not reached nor mal limits limits by the time the airplane is read y for takeoff. d) Operated normally, since it may take 10 minutes for oil pressure to rise.


PPL (A) – Operational procedures 51. What should normally be done if af ter start-up of a hot four-stroke aviation engine oil pressure does not reach proper level? a) Shut down the engine. b) Increase engine RPM thus allowing the oil pump to increase oil pressure. c) Nothing, because instrumen ts on modern aircraft are cheap and unreliable. d) Enrich the mixture to prevent unnor mal rise of the cylinder heads temperature.

52. The most probable reason for propeller back-rotating during starting of an reciprocating aviation engine is : a) Excessive priming of fuel. b) Insufficient priming of fuel. poo r mixture. c) Too poor d) Too rich mixture.

53. The most probable reason an engi ne continues to run after the ignition switch has bee n turned off is : a) A broken magneto ground wire. b) Carbon deposits glowing on the spark plugs. c) A magneto ground wire is in contac t with the engine casing.

54. When and where should the pilot check the aircraft wheel brakes? a) Immediately after leaving the parking spot. b) Any time during taxiing towards a runway. c) On the runway, after the aircraft gains some spe ed. d) After takeoff.

55. A reading 5 inhg o n the vacuum gauge of an aircraft is the indication of : a) Normal suction. b) Insufficient suction. c) Excessive suction.

56. A reading 2 inhg o n the vacuum gauge of an aircraft is the indication of : a) Insufficient suction. b) Normal suction. c) Excessive suction.

57. When should the pressu re in the barometric subscale of an aircraft altimeter be set? a) Before each flight and in the air, if necess ary. b) Yearly. c) Monthly. d) Each morning before flying. 58. The accuracy of an altimeter is checked by : a) Setting the altimeter to QNH in checking the elevation reading while on ground. b) Low-passing near towers with known height. c) Cross-checking of altimeter readings and radioaltimeter readings. d) Cross-checking of flight altitudes and altitudes from an aeronautical geographical chart 1:500 000.


PPL (A) – Operational procedures 59. How frequently should the aviation magnetic compass be swung? a) Each year before an annual inspectio n of an aircraft or after installing of optional instruments or radio equipment, or more frequently, if necessary. b) Before first initial inspection of an aircraft. c) Each month. flight. d) After each long flight.

60. The pilot could normally check the state of charge of the oleo -pneumatic units during a walkaround inspection by : a) Inspecting how much the struts extend. b) Measuring the pressure in the oleo-pneumatic units. c) Inspecting the hydraulic fluid level in the oleo-pneumatic units. d) This check could not be performed by the pilot.

61. The red creep marks on the main tyre and the wheel of an aircraft serve for : a) Tyre-wheel alignment checking. b) Tyre type recognizing. c) Wheel balancing. d) Tyre pressure checking.

62. If a tyre has moved so that the creep marks are out of alignment, then : a) It should be inspected and possibly re-fitted or replaced. b) It is serviceable. c) Tyre pressure should be checked. d) The brakes will be unserviceable.

63. Braking of an individual main wheel is k nown as : a) Directional braking. b) Differential braking. c) Individual braking.

64. Which wind condition wou ld be most critical when taxiing taxiing a nosewheel equipped equippe d high-wing airplane? a) Quartering tailwind. b) Direct crosswind. c) Quartering headwind.

65. How should the flight contro ls be deflected while taxiing a tailwheel aeroplane with a strong tailwind? a) Down. b) Up. c) In neutral. d) Fully up.


PPL (A) – Operational procedures taxiing a nose-wheel equippe d aircraft in strong 66. What would be most likely to cause an ups et while taxiing wind? a) Turning sharply (causing the wind to lift the up-wind wing). b) Applying the brakes suddenly & firmly. c) Accelerating suddenly. d) Lifting the nose-wheel.

67. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle- gear equipped airplane into a left quartering tailwind? a) Left aileron down, elevator down. b) Left aileron up, elevator neutral. c) Left aileron up, elevator down.

68. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane with a left quarterin g tailwind? a) Left aileron down, elevator down. b) Left aileron up, elevator neutral. c) Left aileron down, elevator neutral.

69. Which aileron position should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds? a) Aileron up on the side from which t he wind is blowing. b) Aileron down on the side fro m which the wind is blowing. c) Aileron neutral.

70. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle- gear equipped airplane into a left quartering headwind? a) Left aileron up, elevator neutral. b) Left aileron down, elevator neutral. c) Left aileron up, elevator down.

71. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane into a right quartering headwind? a) Right aileron up, elevator up. b) Right aileron down, elevator neutral. c) Right aileron up, elevator down.

72. If an emergency situation requires a downwind lan ding, pilots should expect a faster : touchdown, hdown, a longer ground roll, and the likelihood of overshooting the a) Groundspeed at touc desired touc hdown point. b) Airspeed at touchdown, a long er ground roll, and better control throughout the landing roll. touchdown, hdown, a shorter ground roll, and the likelihood of undershooting the c) Groundspeed at touc desired touc hdown point.


PPL (A) – Operational procedures 73. To minimize the side loads placed on the landing ge ar during touchdown, the pilot should keep the: a) Longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion. b) Direction of motion of the aircraft parallel to the runway. c) Downwind wing lowered lowe red sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the aircraft to drift.

74. As an airplane climbs to higher altitudes with the mixture control set in RICH, the fu el/air mixture : a) Becomes richer. b) Does not change. c) Becomes leaner.

75. While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fu el/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture? a) The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean. b) There will be more fuel in the cylinders than is needed for normal combustion, and the excess fuel will absorb heat and cool the engine. c) The excessively rich mixture will create higher cylinder head temperatures and may cause detonation. d) The fuel/air mixture may become excessively reach.

76. To properly compensate for a crosswind during straight-and-le vel cruising flight, the pilot should : a) Establish a proper heading into the wind by coordinated use of c ontrols. b) Hold rudder pressure toward the wind. c) Hold aileron pressure toward the wind and hold opposite rudde r pressure to prevent turning.

77. During the run-up at a high-elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances, what would wo uld be the most logical initial action? a) Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture. b) Taxi back to the flight line for a maintenance chec k. c) Reduce manifold pressure to control detonation. d) Check the mixture control lever is in FULL RICH position.

78. Correct procedure for leanin g the mixture during cruise is pulling the mixture level back towards LEAN until RPM will : a) Reach the maximum; at this point return the mixture level slightly forward. b) Drop to the minimum. c) Reach the maximum.

79. If, during start-up a fire occ urs in the engine air intake, a generally suitable procedure is to : a) Keep turning the engine, but move the mixture control to IDLE CUT-OFF and open the throttle. b) Place the starter switch to OFF. c) Continue with the normal start.


PPL (A) – Operational procedures 80. What is indicated by black smoke emitted from t he engine exhaust during the run -up? rich. a) The mixture is too rich. b) The choke is out too far. c) The piston rings are stuck or worn. d) The carburetor is set too lean.

81. What is indicated by blue smoke emitted from the engine exhaust during the run-up? a) The piston rings are stuck or worn. b) The choke is out too far. c) The mixture is too rich. d) The carburetor is set too lean.

82. How should the mixture co ntrol be set for takeoff at sea level? (FUL L RICH). a) Forward (FULL b) Aft (FULL RICH). c) Aft (FULL LEAN). (FUL L LEAN). d) Forward (FULL

83. The presence of carbureto r ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verifie d by applying carburetor heat and noting : a) A decrease in RPM and the n a gradual increase in RPM. b) An increase in RPM and t hen a gradual decrease in RPM. c) A decrease in RPM and then a constant RPM indication.

84. During cruise flight you apply full carburetor he at to your aircraft with fixed-pitch propeller. What is the expected effect in RPM under normal conditions? a) It would cause a slight dec rease in RPM due to the change in fuel/air mixture. b) No effect. c) It would cause a slight increase in RPM due to h ot air intake. d) The RPM would fluctuate due to the unstable fuel/air mixture.

85. During engine run-up test on ground the pilot can check the proper functioning of carburetor heating by moving the carburetor heat lever to H OT and noting : a) A slight drop in RPM. b) A slight rise in RPM. c) Increased flow of hot air into the coc kpit. d) This check could not be performed on ground.

86. The carburetor heat during taxi should be used with caution due to : a) Dust and other foreign particles which can caus e damage if ingested into engine. b) High temperatures which can cause detonations. c) Rich mixture which can cause fouling of the spark plugs. d) Overheating of the engine.


PPL (A) – Operational procedures selec t propeller pitch for takeoff if your aircraft has a constant speed propeller? 87. How should you select a) Fine pitch (High RPM) for maximum power. b) Fine pitch (Low RPM) for maximum efficiency. c) Coarse pitch (Low RPM) for minimum noise. d) Coarse pitch (Low RPM) for maximum thrust.

88. In an airplane with a controllable pitch propeller, power reduction shoul d be made by first reducing : a) The manifold pressure with the throttle, and then adjusting t he RPM with the propeller control. b) The RPM with the throttle and then reducing the manifold press ure with the propeller control. c) The RPM with the propeller control, and the n reducing the manifold pressure with the throttle. d) The manifold pressure with the pro peller control, and then reducing the RPM with the throttle.

89. When transiting an airplane with a constant-s peed propeller from a cruise to a climb, the pilot should : a) Increase the PRM with the propeller control before advancing the throttle. b) Increase the manifold press ure with the throttle first, and then increase the RPM with the propeller control. c) Increase the RPM with the throttle first, and then increase the manifold p ressure with the propeller control. d) Decrease the manifold pressure with the propeller c ontrol first, and then increase the RPM with the throttle.

90. Shortly after an aviation engine start-up you noticed on th e left-zero ammeter a high current reading despite of all electrical consumers not connected? Yo u should normally : a) Do nothing, because in such cases an alternator provides the electrical current for battery charging only, which norm ally deplenishes a little during an engine start-up. b) Shut down the engine immediately, because the alternator is not functioning. c) Reset the alternator master switch and, if the condition does not recove r, shut down the engine and report to the mechanic non-operating alternator.

91. What is the meaning of the zero reading o n a left-zero ammeter in flight? a) Normal condition because no ne of electrical consumers is switched switched on. b) The alternator is not functioning. c) Deplenishing accumulator.

92. How could you recognize by the indication of the left-ze ro ammeter a non-functionin g aircraft alternator? The instrument reading should be : a) Zero and stays zero even after the significan t electrical consumer is switched on (e.i. The landing light). b) Maximum. c) Increase significantly after the electrical consumer is switched on.


PPL (A) – Operational procedures 93. Shortly after aircraft engine start-up you notice that the pointer of a center- zero ammeter is deflected to the right with electrical consumers switched off. This indication means : a) Charging accumulator, because during an engine start-up the accumulator normally deplenishes a little. little. b) Deplenishing accumulator, because the alternator is not functioning, therefore alternator exciting should be attempted by switching the master switch on and off. If the pointer does not return to zero, the engine sho uld be shut down and the mechanic advise d. c) Deplenishing accum ulator, therefore the engine should be shut down.

94. What may zero reading on the center-ze ro ammeter in flight indicates? a) Normal condition; the alternator provides electrical power for electrical equipme nt. b) Alternator off-line. c) No electrical equipment is switched on. d) Abnormal condition; the battery provides electrical power for electrical equipme nt.

95. In flight you notice that the pointer of a center-zero ammeter is deflected to the left. What does this indication mean and what should you as the pilot of an aircraft normally do? a) Not-normal condition; the accumulator deplenishes, because the alternator is not functioning or is not capable to cover all the demands of electrical consumers connected. If after switching off-on of the master switch the situation does not recover, an electrical consumption should be reduced to minimum and a landing should be made to the nearest suitable airfield. b) Normal condition; the accumulator is charging, there fore the flight will be continued, the indication of an instrument should be monitored and a drop of indication should be expected. c) Normal condition; the instruments indicate present consumption of the electricity, provided by the alternator.

96. In flight you notice the orang e light glowing on the instrumental panel. What does this mean? a) Alternator does not deliver any electrical current. b) Too high output voltage. c) Flat battery. d) Overheated alternator.

97. An electrical system failure ( battery and alternator) occurs during flight. I n this situation, you would : a) Experience avionics equipment failure. b) Probably experience failure of the engine ignition system, fuel gauges, aircraft lighting system, and avionics equipment. c) Probably experience eng ine failure due to the loss of the engine-driven fuel pump and also experience failure of the radio equipment, lights, and all instruments that require alternating current.

98. Wingtip vortices are created onl y when an aircraft is : a) Developing lift. b) Operating at high airspeeds. c) Heavily loaded.


PPL (A) – Operational procedures 99. Can the downdraft air currents occu rring as a result of wingtip vortices from a heavier aircra ft exceed the climb capability of a light aircraft? a) Yes, particularly behind large, heavy transport aircraft. b) Not normally. c) Occasionally, particularly in the vicinity of air pockets.

100.

What is the most likely cause of the dangerous turbulence behin d heavy aircraft? a) Wingtip vortices. b) Propeller blast. c) Jet blast.

101. What precautions are required when stopping a light aircraft behind a heavy aircraft that is stopped on the manoeuvring area? a) The light aircraft should be stoppe d clear of the jet blast danger area. b) The light aircraft should be facing the large aircraft. c) The light aircraft should face away from the large aircraft. d) The light aircraft should be n o closer than 125 m from rear of large aircraft.

102. During a takeoff made behind a dep arting large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by : a) Being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flight path until able to turn clear of its wake. b) Maintaining extra speed on takeoff and climbout. c) Extending the takeoff roll and not rotating until well beyond the jet's rotation point.

103.

When landing behin d a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying : a) Above the large aircraft's final approach flight path and landing beyond the large aircra ft's touchdown point. b) Below the large aircraft's final approach fligh t path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point. c) Above the large aircraft's final approach flight path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point.

104. Which procedure sho uld you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses yo ur course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude? a) Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet. b) Slow your airspeed to VA and maintain altitude and course. c) Make sure you are slightly below the p ath of the jet and perpendicular to the co urse.

105.

How long will wake turbulence remain after the passage of a large aircraft? a) Five minutes or more; ATC p ermits two or three minutes separation. b) Two minutes. c) Three minutes.


PPL (A) – Operational procedures When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes ab ove 10,000 ft up to and including 106. 13,000 ft MSL, supplement al oxygen shall be used by all crew members : a) That flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes. b) The entire flight time at those altitudes. c) That flight time in excess of 10 minutes at those altitudes.

When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 13,000 ft MSL, sufficient 107. supplemental oxygen should be carried to supply a) Crew members and passengers. b) Crew members memb ers only. c) Passengers only.

108. Following separation of th e airflow from one wing and banking and slipping to one side, the pilot would prevent an aircraft of developing a full spin by : a) Deflecting the rudder to the op posite side of slipping and easing the elevator fo rward to gain the speed. b) Deflection of all flight controls to the opposite side of rotation instantly. c) Applying back pressure on the control stick thus reco vering from a dive. d) Opening the airbrakes immediately (if installed).

109.

Choose the correct proc edure for spin recovery in an aeroplane? a) Apply the rudder opposite to direction o f rotation, ailerons to neutral, elevator control ease forward, and recover gently from a dive. b) Apply the rudder in direction of rot ation, ailerons opposite to direction of rotation, and pull on the stick backward. c) Apply the rudder opposite to direction o f rotation, ailerons to neutral, elevator control backward d) Deflect the rudder and the stick i n direction of rotation and firmly push o n the stick forward.

110.

Choose the correct action for steep spiral recovery. a) Level wings with ailerons, and ease out of ensuing dive. b) Apply full rudder opposite to direction of rot ation, move control colu mn forward to break a stall, and ease out of ensuing dive. c) Apply opposite ailerons, ease control column forw ard, and ease out of ensuing dive.

111.

One of the main function o f flaps during the approach and l anding is to : a) Increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed. b) Decrease lift, thus enabling a steeper-than-norm al approach to be made. c) Permit touchdown at a higher indicated airspeed. d) Decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.

112.

The main benefit of using flaps d uring approach an d land is to : a) Provide the same amount of lift at a slower airspeed. b) Decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed. c) Decrease lift, thus enabling a steeper-than-norm al approach to be made.


PPL (A) – Operational procedures 113.

Wing flaps at the recommended takeoff setting : a) Increase lifting ability for a small penalty of drag. b) Increase lifting ability for a large penalty of drag. c) Significantly increase drag fo r a small decrease in lifting ability. d) Will not affec t lift and drag.

114.

Wing flaps at the recommended landing s etting : a) Cause a large drag increase and a small increase in lifting ability. b) Increase lifting ability for a small increase of drag. c) Significantly increase drag fo r a small decrease in lifting ability. d) Will not affec t lift and drag.

115.

What effect does extend ed wing flaps have on the stalling speed? The stalling speed will : a) Decrease. b) No change, because the stalling s peed does not depend on wing flaps position. c) Increase.

During landing close to the sur face and at low airspeed, it could be dangerous to re tract 116. wing flaps, bec ause of : a) Rapid decrease of lift and resulting sink into runway. b) Drag increase and resulting rapid decre ase of the airspeed. c) Rapid increase of the airspeed and resulting rapid climb. d) Great decrease in effectivness of wing flaps.

117.

118. 1)

Wing flaps at takeoff are not set to fully deflec ted position to avoid : a) Excessive drag. b) Excessive lift. aircraft. c) "Nose heavy" aircraft. d) Damage of the flaps.

That portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for : (see Figure PPL OPa) Taxiing and takeoff. b) Landing. c) Taxiing and landing.

119.

According to the airport diagram, whic h statement is true? (see Figure PPL OP-1) a) Takeoffs may be started at position A on Ru nway 12, and the landing portion of this r unway begins at position B. b) Runway 30 is equipped at position E with emerg ency arresting gear to provide means of stopping military aircraft. c) The takeoff and landing po rtion of Runway 12 begins at position B.



When approaching taxiway h olding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot : a) Should not cross the lines without ATC clearance. b) May continu e taxiing. c) Should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines.

121.

What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign? a) Denotes intersecting runways. b) Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway. c) Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway.

What is the difference be tween area A and area B on the airport depicted? : (see Figure PPL 122. OP-1) a) "A" may be used for taxi and takeoff; "E" may be used only as an overrun. b) "A" may be used for all operations e xcept heavy aircraft landing; "E" may be used for only as an overrun. c) "A" may be used only for taxiing; "E" may be used for all operations except landings.

123.

Area C on the airport de picted is classified as a (see Figure PPL OP-1) a) Closed runway. b) Stabilized area. c) Multiple heliport.

124. The arrows that appear on the end of the north/south runway indicate that the area : (see Figure PPL OP-2) taxiing and takeoff. a) Cannot be used for l anding, but may be used for taxiing b) May be used only for taxiing. c) Is usable for taxiing, takeoff, and landing.

125. The numbers 4 and 22 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately : (see Figure PPL OP-2) a) 040° and 220° (magnetic). b) 004° and 022° (true). c) 040° and 220° (true).

127.

Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by : a) Blue omnidirectional om nidirectional lights. b) White directional di rectional lights. c) Alternate red and green lights.

128.

Which of the following describes threshold lights? a) Green unidirectional. b) Red unidirectional. c) Green omni-directional. d) Red omni-directional.



Low intensity obstacle lig hts on fixed objects shall be : a) Fixed red. b) Flashing yellow. c) Flashing red. d) Fixed orange.

130.

VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplish ed : a) The same as during daytime. b) At a higher airspeed. c) With a steeper st eeper descent.

131. Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slop e indicator (VASI) shall : a) Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope. b) Maintain a 3° glide to the runway. c) Stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-of f landing.

132. When approaching to land o n a runway served by a visual slope indicator (VASI), the pi lot shall : a) Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope. b) Maintain an altitude that captures the glide slope at least 2 miles downwind from th e runway threshold. c) Remain on the glide slope and land between the two-light bars.

133.

A slightly high-glide-slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is : a) Three white lights and one red light. b) Four white lights. c) Two white lights and two red lights.

134.

A below-glide-slope indicatio n from a tri-color VASI is a) Red light signal. b) Pink light signal. c) Green light lig ht signal.

135.

An above-glide-slope indicatio n from a tri-color VASI is a) An amber light signal. b) A white light signal. c) A green light signal.

136.

An on-glide-slope indication from a tri-color VASI is a) A green light signal. b) A white light signal. c) An amber light signal.

Latest information about the exam can c an be found at www.tafa.aero

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A below-glide-slope indicatio n from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a a) Pulsating red light. b) Pulsating w hite light. c) Steady white light.

138.

Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is (see Figure PPL OP-3) a) Below the glide slope. b) On the glide slope. c) Above the glide slope

139.

Illustration C indicates that the aircraft is (see Figure PPL OP-3) a) Above the glide slope. b) Off course to the left. c) Below the glide slope.

140.

Illustration B indicates that the aircraft is (see Figure PPL OP-3) a) On the glide slope. b) Below the glide slope. c) Above the glide slope.

141. On the controlled airport you noticed a sq uare yellow board bearing a black "C", expose d above one of the door s (Picture C). What does that mean? (see Figure PP L OP-4 a) Air traffic control reporting office. b) Customs office. c) Exit for private aircraft crew. d) Staff exit.

142. In the signal area of an aerodrome , a red square with a single yellow diagonal strip (Picture B) means: (see Figure PPL OP-4) a) Take special care when landing because of the poo r state of the manoeuvring area. b) Do not land. c) Gliders are operating. d) Helicopters are operating.

What is the meaning of th e visual ground signal in a form of a horizontal re d square panel 143. with yellow diagonals displayed in an airport signal area (Picture A)? (see Figure PPL OP-4) a) Landings are prohibited. b) Area unfit for movement of aircraft. c) Aircraft are required to land, takeoff and taxi on runways and taxiways only. d) Special precautions must be observed in app roaching to land or in landing. A white cross, placed horizontally on the be ginning of the taxiway (picture G), means: (see 144. Figure PPL OP-4) a) Taxiway unserviceable! b) Caution, you are approaching the intersection with the runway! c) Helicopter lan ding area! d) Caution, you are approaching the intersec tion with other taxiway!


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PPL (A) – Operational procedures 145. OP-4) a) b) c) d)

146. OP-4) a) b) c) d)

In the signal area of an aero drome, a double white cross (Picture H) me ans: (see Figure PPL Caution, gliders in the air! Landing prohibited, the airport is not safe! Take special care during approach and landing! Ground taxiing permitted outside runway and taxiways!

In the signal area of an aerodrome , a white dumb-bell (Picture D) means : (see Figure PPL Land and taxi on hard surfaces only. Landing direction is parallel with the shafts towards the c ross-arm. Land on hard surfaces only. Do not land.

147. In the signal area of an aerodrome , a white dumb-bell with black stripes on each ci rcular portion at right angles to the shaft (Picture E) means: (se e Figure PPL OP-4) a) Landing, takeoff, and taxiing on runway and taxiways only, other movement on the ground is not confined to hard surfaces. b) Landing prohibited for prolonged period. c) Landing, takeoff, and taxiing co nfined to runway and taxiways only. d) Caution, gliders in the air. air.

What marking may be displayed by day on an aerodrome to indic ate unserviceability of any 148. portion of a manoeuvring area? a) Crosses of single conspicuous color (pref erably white) displayed horizontally. b) Orange flags bordering the unserviceable area. c) White and orange cones borde ring the unserviceable area. d) Large red squares with yellow diagonal markings displayed horizontally.

149.

In the signal area of an aerodrom e, a sign (Picture I), means: (se e Figure PPL OP-4) a) Right-hand traffic circuit in force. b) After landing vacate the runway by right turn. right. c) Parking site to the right. d) Continue to the next airport, the runw ay is closed.

150.

In the signal area of an aerodrome , a white "T" (Picture F) means: (see Figur e PPL OP-4) a) Landing direction is parallel with the shafts towards the c ross-arm. b) Land on hard surfaces only. c) Land and taxi on hard surfaces only. d) Do not land.


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PPL (A) – Operational procedures APPENDIX:

Fig. PPL OP-1


PPL (A) – Operational procedures

Fig. PPL OP-2

Fig. PPL OP-3


PPL (A) – Operational procedures

Fig. PPL OP-4



Subject:

PPL(A)- Principle of flight

PPL (A) – Principle Principle of flight NOTE: The correct answer under a. During the exam the order of answers will be different.

Review questions: 1. Density:a. Reduces with altitude increase. b. Is unaffected by temperature change. c. Increases with altitude increase. d. Reduces with temperature reduction.

2. The air pressure that acts on anything immersed in it:a. Is also known as Static Pressure. b. Is also known as Dynamic Pressure. c. Is greater at altitude than at sea level. d. Is also known as Total Pressure.

3. If, on a given day, the actu al outside air temperature at 4000 ft is 23°C, what is the approxim ate difference between the actual and ISA temperature? a. 16°C. b. 7°C. c. 15°C. d. 8°C.

4. The presence of water vapour:a. In air will reduce its density. b. In air will increase its density. c. In the atmosphere will increase the pow er output of a piston engine. d. In the atmosphere will increase the amount of lift generated by an aircraft.

5. When considering the changes in density of the air with altitude, which of the following four options is correct? a. The reduction in pressure with increasing altitude causes density to reduce. b. The temperature increase with increasing altitude causes den sity to increase. c. The temperature reductio n with increasing altitude causes density to increase. d. The increase in pressure with increasing altitude causes density to reduce.

6. The respective percentages o f the four most abundant gases that make up the atmosphere are? a. Nitrogen 78% Oxygen 21% Argon 0.95% Carbon Dioxide 0.05% b. Oxygen 78% Nitrogen 21% Argon 0.95% Carbon Dioxide 0.05% c. Nitrogen 78% Oxygen 21% Argon 0.95% Carbon Monoxide 0.05% d. Oxygen 78% Nitrogen 21% Argon 0.95% Carbon Monoxide 0.05%


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PPL (A) – Principle Principle of flight 7. The properties of the Earth s atmosphere which influence the perfo rmance of aircraft are: a. Its water vapour content, tempe rature, pressure and density. b. Its temperature, pressure and humidity. c. Its oxygen content pressure, and water vapour content d. Its nitrogen content, oxygen content, temperature and pressure.

8. Assuming that the pressure a t sea level is ISA, but the temperature is 10°C higher than ISA, the density will be: a. Less than ISA. b. As per ISA. c. Greater than ISA. d. Unaffected.

9. Air pressure:a. Acts in all directions. b. Acts only vertically downwards. c. Is measured in Pascals per square inch. d. Increases with altitude.

10. A piston engine aircraft fiies in that layer of the atmosphere c alled: a. The Troposphere. b. The Stratosphere. c. The Mesosphere. d. The Tropopause.

11. In straight and level powered flight the following principal forces act o n an aircraft: a. Thrust lift. drag, weight b. Thrust lift, weight c. Thrust lift, drag. d. Lift, drag, weight.

12. The unit o f force is the: a. Newton. b. Newton-metre. c. Joule. d. Mass-kilogram.

13. The dynamic pressure exerted o n an aircraft's frontal surface is equal to: a. Half the density times the true airspeed squared. b. Density time’s speed squared. c. Half the true airspeed times the density squared. d. Half the density times the indicated airspeed squared. _and the movement of the aircraft. 14. Relative airflow is a. Parallel to / Opposite to. b. Perpendicular to / Opposite to. c. Perpendicular to / in the same direction as. d. Parallel to / in the same direction as.


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PPL (A) – Principle Principle of flight 15. The symbol for dynamic pressure is: a. Q b. P c. R d. D

16. The air flow over the wing's upper surface in straigh t and level flight, when compared with t he airflow that is unaffected by the wing, will have: a. A higher highe r velocity. b. A higher density. c. A reduced reduce d velocity. d. The same velocity.

17. Which of the four answer options most correctly completes the sentence? Increasing speed also increases lift because: a. The increased speed of the air passing over an aerofoil's upper surface decreases the static pressure above the wing, thus creating a greater pressure differential across the upper and lower surface. b. Lift is directly proportional to velocity. c. The increased velocity of the relative wind overcomes the increased drag. d. Increasing speed decreases drag.

18. An aircraft has a nose down pitching mo ment due to the lift/weight couple and a nose up pitching moment due to the thrust/drag couple . When power is increased: a. It will pitch nose up. b. It will pitch nose down. c. The couples both increase in magnitude but remain balanced. d. The couples both decrease in magnitude but remain balanced.

19. Considering the forces acting upon an aeroplane, at constant airspeed, which statement is correct? a. Weight always acts vertically downwards tow ards the centre of the Earth. b. Lift acts perpendicular to the chord line and m ust always be greater than weight c. Thrust acts parallel to the relative airflow and is greater than drag. d. The lift force generated by the wings always acts in the opposite directio n to the aircraft's weight.

20. In straight and level flight, the free stream airflow pressure, com pared to that flowing under the wing, is: a. Lower. b. Equal. c. Higher. d. Equal pressure but travelling faster.

21. If the cross sectional area of an airflow is mechanically reduced: a. The mass flow remains constant and the velocity of the airflow increases. b. The velocity of the airflow remains con stant and the mass flow increases. c. The mass flow remains constant and the static pressure increases. d. The velocity of the airflow remains constant and the kinetic energy increases.


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PPL (A) – Principle Principle of flight 22. Dynamic pressu re is: a. The amount by which the pressure rises at a poi nt where a moving airflow is brought completely to rest. b. The total pressure at a point where a moving airflow is brought com pletely to rest. c. The pressure du e to the mass of air pressing do wn on the air beneath. d. The pressure ch ange caused by heating when a moving airflow is brought completely to rest.

23. When considering consid ering air: 1 - Air has mass 2 - Air is n ot compressible 3 - Air is able to flow or change its shape when subject to even small pressures 4 - The viscosity of air is very high 5 - Moving air has kinetic energy The correct combination of all true statements is: a. 1, 3, and 5. b. 1, 2. 3 and 5. c. 2, 3 and 4. d. 1 and 4.

24. An aircraft rotates about: a. Its centre of gravity. b. Its wings. c. Its main undercarriage. d. Its rudder.

25. An aircraft's mass is a resuit of: a. How much matter it contains. b. Its weight c. How big it is. d. Its volume.

26. Dynamic pr essure equals: a. Total pressure minus static pressure. b. Total pressure plus static pressure. c. Static pressure minus total pressure. d. Total pressure divided by static pressure.

27. If the velocity of an air mass is increased: a. The kinetic energy will increase, the dynamic pressure will increase and the static pressure will decrease. b. The dynamic pressure will decrease and the static pressure will increase. c. The static pressure will remain constant and the kinetic energy will increase. d. The mass flow will stay constant, the dynamic pressure will decrease and t he static pressure will increase.


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PPL (A) – Principle Principle of flight 28. The boundary layer consists of: a. Laminar and Turbulent flow. b. Laminar flow. c. Turbulent flow. d. Turbulent flow at low speeds only.

29. What must be the relationship between the forces acting on an aircraft in flight, for that aircraft to be in a state of equilibrium? a. Lift must equal weight, and thrust must equal drag. b. Lift must equal drag, and thrust must equal weight c. Lift must equal thrust plus drag. d. Lift must equal thrust, and weight must equal drag.

30. The smooth flow of air, where each molecule follows the path of the preceding molecule, is a definition of: a. Laminar flow. b. Turbulent flow. c. Free stream flow. d. Wind.

31. In sub-sonic airflow, as air passes through a venturi, the mass flow , the velocity static pressure . a. Remains constant / increases then decreases / decreases then increases. b. a) Decreases then increases / remains constant / increases then decreases. c. Remains constant / increases then decreases / increases then decreases. d. Decreases then increases / increases then decreases / increases then decreases.

and the

32. A moving mass of air possesses kinetic energy. An object placed in the path of such a moving mass of air will be subject to: a. Static pressure and dynamic pressure. b. Static Pressure. c. Dynamic pressure. d. Dynamic pressure minus static pressure.

33. Dynamic Pressure may be expressed by the formula: a. 2 Q=1/2pV b. 2 Q=1/3PV c. Q =PV d. Q = 2PV

34. As airspeed increases, induced drag: a. Decreases. b. Increases. c. Is dependant on the weight of the aircraft? d. Remains unchanged.


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PPL (A) – Principle Principle of flight 35. As Indicated Air Spee Speed d (IAS) is reduced, in o rder to maintain altitude, the pilot must: a. Increase the angle of attack t o maintain the correct lift force. b. Decrease the angle of attack to reduce the drag. c. Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag. d. Reduce the thrust.

36. That portion of the aircraft's tot al drag created by the production of lift is called: a. Induced drag, which is greatly affected by changes in airspeed. b. Parasite drag, which is greatly affected by changes in airspeed. c. Induced drag, which is not affec ted by changes in airspeed. d. Parasite drag, which is inversely propo rtional to the square of the airspeed.

37. By changing the Angle of Attack of a wing, the pilot can c ontrol the aeroplane's: a. Lift, airspeed, and drag. b. Lift and airspeed, but not drag. c. Lift, gross weight, and drag. d. Lift and drag, but not airspeed.

38. Resistance, or skin friction, due to the viscosity of the air as it passes along the s urface of a wing, is a type of: a. Parasite drag. b. Induced drag. c. Form drag. d. Interference drag.

39. If the Indicated Air S peed of an aircraft is incre ased from 50 kts to 100 kts, parasite drag will be: a. Four times greater. b. Six times greater. time s greater. c. Two times d. One quarter as much.

40. An imaginary straight line running from the midp oint of the leading edge of an aerofoil to its trailing edge, is called c alled the: a. Chord. b. Mean camber. c. Aerofoil thickness. d. Maximum camber.

41. A positively cambered aerofoil starts to pro duce lift at an angle of attack of approximately: a. Minus 4 degrees. b. 0 degrees. c. 4 to 6 degrees. d. 16 degrees.


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PPL (A) – Principle Principle of flight 42. On an aerofoil section, the fo rce of lift acts perpendicular to, and the force of drag acts parallel to, the: a. Flightpath. b. Longitudinal axis. c. Chord line. d. Aerofoil section upper surface. 43. As airspeed increases induced drag_ _, parasite drag a. Decreases / Increases / Decreases then increases. b. Increases / Increases / Increases c. Increases / Decreases / Increases then decreases. d. Decreases / Decreases / Decreases

and total drag

44. If in level flight the airspeed decrease s below that for maximum Lift/Drag, the effect will be that: a. Drag increases because of increased induce d drag. b. Drag decreases because of lower induce d drag. c. Drag increases because of increased parasite drag. d. Drag decreases because of lower parasite drag.

45. The angle of attack is the angle between the: a. Chord line and the relative airflow. b. Camber line and free stream flow. c. Chord line and the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane. d. Chord line and the horizontal plane.

46. The maximum value of the co efficient of lift is found at an angle of att ack of approximately: a. 16 degrees. b. Minus 4 degrees. c. 0 degrees. d. 4 to 6 degrees.

47. At a constant angle of attack, a decrease in th e airspeed of an aircraft will result in: a. A decrease in lift and drag. b. An increase in lift and a decr ease in drag. c. An increase in drag and a dec rease in lift. d. Possible increases or decreases in lift or drag, depending o n the actual speed.

48. If the Angle of Attac k and other factors remain constant, an d the airspeed is doubled, lift will be: a. Quadrupled. b. Doubled. c. One quarter of what it was. d. The same.

49. The definition of lift is: a. The aerodynamic force which acts at 90° to the relative airflow. b. The aerodynamic force which acts pe rpendicular to the chord line of the aerofoil. c. The aerodynamic force that results from the pressure differentials about an aerofoil. d. The aerodynamic force which acts perpe ndicular to the upper surface of the aerofoil.


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PPL (A) – Principle Principle of flight 50. Which of the answer options most cor rectly completes the sentence ? The amount of lift a wing produces is directly proportional to:a. The air density. b. The dynamic pressure minus the static pressure. c. The square root of t he velocity of the air flowing over it. d. The air temperature. 51. The maximum value of the Coefficie nt of Lift is found: a. At the stalling angle of attack. b. At negative angles of attack. c. When lift equals drag. d. During steep turns.

52. At a given Indicated Air Speed, what effec t will an increase in air density have on lift and drag? a. Lift and drag will remain the same. b. Lift will increase but drag will decrease. c. Lift and drag will inc rease. d. Lift and drag will decrease.

53. An aerofoil section is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the: a. Higher air pressure below the surface and lower air pressure above the surface. b. Negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the surface. surf ace and greater air pressure above the surface. c. Vacuum below the surface d. Higher air pressure at the leading edge than at the trailing edge.

54. Full flaps should be selected when: a. Committed to land. b. Commencing final approach. c. On go-around. d. Landing into a strong headwind.

55. A wing which is inclined do wnwards from root to tip is said to have: a. Anhedral. b. Washout. c. Taper. d. Sweep.

56. When the C of G is close to the forward limit: a. Very high stick forces are required to pitch becaus e the aircraft is very stable. b. Very small forces are required on the c ontrol column to produce pitch. c. Longitudinal stability is reduced. d. Stick forces are the same as for an aft C of G.

57. Following a lateral disturbance, an aircraft with Dutch roll instability will: a. Develop simultaneous oscillation s in roll and yaw. b. Go into a spiral dive. c. Develop oscillations in pitch. d. Develop an unchecked roll.


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PPL (A) – Principle Principle of flight 58. An aeroplane which is inherently stable will: a. Have a built-in tendency to return to its original state following the removal of any disturbing force. b. Require less effort to control. c. Be difficult to stall. stall. d. Not spin.

59. After a disturbance in pitch, an aircraft oscillates in pitch with increasing amplitude. It is: a. Statically stable but dynamically unstable. b. Statically and dynamically unstable. c. Statically unstable but dynamically stable. d. Statically and dynamically stable.

60. If a disturbing force cause s an aircraft to roll: a. Wing dihedral will cause a rolling moment which tends to correct the sideslip. b. The fin will cause a yawing moment whic h reduces the sideslip. c. Wing dihedral will cause a yawing moment whic h tends to correct the sideslip. d. Wing dihedral will cause a nose up pitching moment

61. If the wing Aerody namic Centre is forward of the C of G: a. Changes in lift produce a wing pitching moment which acts to increase the change o f lift. b. Changes in lift produce a wing pitchi ng moment which acts to reduce the change o f lift. c. Changes in lift give no change in wing pitching moment. d. When the aircraft sideslips, the Cof G causes the nose to turn into the sideslip thus applying a restoring moment.

62. By design, the Centre of Pressure on a particular aircraft remains behind the aircraft's C of G. If the aircraft is longitudinally stable and is displaced in pitch, nose down, by turbulence: a. The tailplane will generate a downward force. b. The tailplane will generate an upward force. c. Neither an upward nor a downward forc e will be generated by the tailplane, as the aircraft will already be in equilibrium. d. The aircraft will maintain its nose-down attitude.

63. Wing dihedral produces a stabilising rolling momen t by causing an increase in lift: a. On the lower wing when the aircraft is sideslipping. b. On the up-going wing when the aircraft rolls. c. On the up-going wing when the aircraft is sideslipping. whe never the aircraft is in a banked attitude. d. On the lower wing whenever

64. When an aircraft is disturbed from its establish ed flight path by, for example, turbulence, it is said to have positive stability if it subsequently: a. Re-establishes its original flight path witho ut any input from the pilot. b. Remains on the new flight path. c. Becomes further displace d from its original flight path. d. Continues to pitch in the disturbed directio n until the displacement displacement is resisted by oppo sing control forces.


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PPL (A) – Principle Principle of flight 65. Loading an aircraft so th at the C of G exceed s the aft limits could result in: a. Loss of longitudinal stability and the nose pitching up at slow speeds. b. Excessive upward force on the tail, and the nose pitching do wn. c. Excessive load factor in turns. d. High stick forces.

66. Which of the following four options describes the consequence of taking off with the manufacturer's recommende d take-off flap setting selected? a. A decrease in the length o f the take-off run compared to a non-flap take-off . b. An increase in the length of the take-off run compared to a non-flap take-off. c. A greater angle of climb. d. Easier avoidance of obstacles at the end of a runway.

67. With the flaps lowered, the stalling speed will: a. Decrease. b. Increase. c. Increase, but occur at a higher angle of attack. d. Remain the same.

68. When an aircraft is disturbed from its trimme d attitude by, for example, turbulence, it is said to have neutral stability if it subsequently: a. Remains in the new attitude. settling back to that original attitude. b. Oscillates about its original attitude befo re settling c. Immediately re-establishes its original attitude. d. Continues to move in the disturbed direction until the displacement is resisted by oppo sing control forces.

69. If the Centre of Gravity (C of G) of an aircraft is found to be within limits for take-off: a. The CofG limits for landing must be checked, allowing for planned fu el consumption. b. The CofG will always be within limits for landing. c. The CofG will not change during t he flight. d. The flight crew will always be certain of being able to adjust the C of G during flight in order to keep it within acceptable limits for landing.

70. With a forward Centre of Gra vity, an aircraft will have: a. Decreased elevator effectiveness when flaring. b. Reduced longitudinal stability. c. Lighter forces for control movements. d. Shorter take off distances.

71. Longitudinal stability is given a. The horizontal hor izontal tailplane. b. The fin. c. The wing dihedral. d. The ailerons.


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PPL (A) – Principle Principle of flight 72. An aft Centre of Gravity will give: a. Increased elevator effectiveness when flaring. b. Increased longitudinal stability. c. Heavy forces for control movements. d. Longer take -off distances.

73. The tendency of an aircraft t o develop forces whic h restore it to its original flight situation, when disturbed from a con dition of steady flight, is known as: a. Stability. b. Manoeuvrability. c. Controllability. d. Instability.

74. Stability around the normal axis: a. Is increased if the keel surface behind t he CofG is increased. b. Is given by the lateral dihedral. c. Depends on the longitudinal dihedral. d. Is greater if the wing has no sweep back.

75. The maximum gliding distance from 6000 fee t, for an aircraft aircraft in clean config uration, with a lift/drag ratio of 8:1, is approximately 8 nautical miles. If flaps are deployed: a. The maximum gliding distance will be less. b. The maximum gliding distance will increase. c. Lift/Drag ratio will be unaffected but will be achieved at a lower airspeed. d. The maximum gliding distance will be unaffected.

76. A pilot lowers the flaps while keeping the airspeed const ant. In order to maintain level flight, the angle of attack: a. Must be reduced. b. Must be increased. c. Must be kept constant but power must be increased. d. Must be kept constant and power required will be constant.

77. Movement of the aircraft about its normal (vertical) axis is known as:a. Yawing. b. Rolling. c. Pitching. d. Side slipping.

78. An aircraft wing is constructed with positive dihedral in order to give: a. Lateral stability about the longitudinal axis. b. Longitudinal stability about the lateral axis. c. Lateral stability about the normal axis. d. Directional stability about the normal axis.


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PPL (A) – Principle Principle of flight 79. An aircraft is disturbed fro m its path by a gust of wind. Neutral stability is when, without pilot intervention, it: a. Maintains the new path. b. Returns to its original path without overshooting. c. Returns to its original path after overshooting. d. Continues to move away from the original path.

80. When flaps are lowered the stalling angle of attack of the wing: a. Decreases, but CLMAX increases. b. Remains the same, but CLMAX increases. c. Increases and CLMAX increases. d. Decreases, but CLMAX remains the same.

81. A high wing configuration with no dihedr al, compared to a low wing configuration with no dihe dral, will provide: a. Greater lateral stability. stability. b. Greater longitudinal stability. other configuration because dihedral gives c. The same degree of longitudi nal stability as any other longitudinal stability. l ateral stability. d. Less lateral

82. An aircraft is disturbed fro m its flight path by a gust of wind. If it ten ds to return to its o riginal flight path without pilot intervention, th e aircraft is said to possess: Stability. a. Positive Dynamic Stability. b. Instability. c. Negative Dynamic Stability. Stability. D ynamic Stability. Stability. d. Neutral Dynamic

83. Wing leading-edge devices such as slots, designed to allow flight at higher angles of attack, do so by: a. Re-energising the airflow over the to p of the wing, delaying separation. b. Providing an extra lifting surface and hence increase the lift available. c. Changing the shape and hence the lift characteristics of the wing. d. Decreasing lift and hence induced drag.

84. The surface that gives an aircraft directio nal stability is: a. The fin. b. The rudder. hor izontal tailplane. c. The horizontal rudd er trim tab. d. The rudder

85. If a landing is to be m ade without flaps the landing speed must be : a. Increased. b. Reduced. c. The same as for a landing with flaps. d. The same as for a landing with flaps b ut with a steeper approach.


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PPL (A) – Principle Principle of flight 86. The maximum speed at whic h the aircraft can be flown with flaps extended is called: a. VFE. b. VYSE. c. VNE. d. VNO.

87. Yawing a. b. c. d.

is movement around the Normal. Longitudinal. Lateral. Horizontal.

axis.

88. The lateral axis of an aircraft is a line which: a. Passes through the Centre of Gravity, p arallel to a line through the wing tips. b. Passes through the wing tips. c. Passes through the Centre of Pressure , at right angles to the direction of the airflow. d. Passes through the quarter-c hord point of the wing root at right angles to the longitudinal axis.

89. Lowering the fiaps during a landing approach: a. Increases the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed. b. Permits approaches at a higher indicated airspeed. c. Decreases the angle of descent without increasing power. d. Eliminates floating.

90. During a manoeuvre, the ailerons are deflected and returned to neutral when the aircraft has attained a small angle of bank. If the aircraft then returns to a wings-level attitude with out further control mov ement, it is: a. Statically and dynamically stable. b. Neutrally stable. c. Statically stable but dynamically neutral. d. Statically stable.

91. The purpose of an anti-balance tab is to: a. Ensure that the pilot's physical control load increases with increase of control surface deflection. b. Trim the aircraft. c. Reduce the load r equired to move the controls at all speeds. d. Reduce the load r equired to move the controls at high speeds only.

92. The phenomenon of flutter is described as: a. Oscillatory motion of part or parts of the aircraft relative to the remainder of the structur e. b. Rapid oscillatory motion involving only rotation of the control surfaces, associated with the shock waves produced around the control surfaces. c. Rapid movement of the airframe caused b y vibration from the engines. d. Reversal of the ailerons caused by wing torsional flexibility.


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PPL (A) – Principle Principle of flight 93. An aileron could be balanced aero dynamical I y by: a. Having the control hinge set back behind the control surface leading edg e. b. Making the up aileron move throug h a larger angle than the down aileron. c. Attaching a weight to the control sur face forward of the hinge. d. Having springs in the control circuit to assist movement

94. When the control colu mn is pushed forward, a balance tab on the elevator: a. Will move up relative to the control surface. b. Will move down relative to the control surface. c. Will only move if the trim wheel is operated. d. Moves to the neutral position.

95. The purpose of a diff erential ailerons is to: a. Reduce the opposite yawing mo ment when making a turn. b. Increase the yawing moment which oppo ses a turn. c. Induce a pitching moment to prevent th e nose from dropping in the turn. d. Improve the rate of roll.

96. The respective primary and secondary effec ts of the rudder control are: a. Yaw and roll. b. Yaw and pitch. c. Pitch and yaw d. Roll and yaw.

97. On an aircraft with a simple trim tab incorporated into a control su rface, when the surface is moved, the tab remains in the same position relative to the: a. Control surface. b. Relative airflow. c. Boundary layer airflow. d. Aircraft ho rizontal plane.

98. Which flying control surface(s) give(s) control about the aircraft's normal axis? a. The rudder. b. The ailerons. c. The elevator. d. The flaps.

99. The primary and secondary effects o f applying the left rudder alone are: a. Left yaw and left roll. b. Left yaw and right roll. c. Right yaw an d left roll. d. Right yaw an d right roll.


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PPL (A) – Principle Principle of flight 100.

When displacing the ailerons from the neutr al position: a. The down-going aileron causes an increase in induced drag. b. The up-going aileron cause s an increase in induced drag. c. Induced drag remains the same; the up- going aileron causes a smaller increase in profile drag than the down-going aileron. d. Both cause an increase in induced drag.

An aircraft's rudder is fitted with a balance tab. Movement of the rudder bar to the right, to 101. yaw the aircraft to the right, will move the balance tab to the: a. Left and the rudder to the rig ht. b. Right and the rudder to the left. c. Right and the rudder to the right. d. Left and the rudder to the left.

102. An aircraft has a tendency to fly right wing low with hands off. It is trim med with a tab the left aileron. The trim tab will: a. Move down causing the le ft aileron to move up, and right aileron to move down. b. Move up, causing the left aileron to move up and right aileron to move down. aileron remains neutral. c. Move down, causing the left aileron to move up, right aileron d. Move up causing the left wing to move down, ailerons remain neutral.

103.

Ailerons give: a. Lateral control about the longitudinal axis. b. Lateral control about the lateral axis. c. Longitudinal control abou t the lateral axis. d. Directional control about the norm al axis.

Following re-trimming for straight and level flight, in an aircraft with a C of G near its 104. forward limit, and an elevator fitted with a conve ntional trim-tab: a. Nose-up pitch authority will be reduced. b. Nose-down pitch authority will be reduced. c. Longitudinal stability will be reduced. d. Tailplane down-load will be reduced.

105.

Controls are mass balanced in order to: a. Eliminate co ntrol flutter. b. Aerodynamical I y assist the pilot in moving the controls. c. Provide equal control forces on all three controls. d. Return the control surfac e to neutral when the controls are released.

106.

The primary and secondary effects of the aileron c ontrol are: a. Roll and yaw. b. Roll and pitch. c. Pitch and yaw d. Yaw and roll.


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The purpose of a spring- bias trim system is: a. To reduce to zero the effort required by the pilot to counter stick force, after making a control movement. b. To maintain a constant tension in the trim tab system. c. To increase the feel in the control system. d. To compensate for temperature changes in cable tension.

108.

A control surface may have a mass balance fitted to it, in order to: a. Help prevent a rapid and unco ntrolled oscillation which is called "flutter". b. Keep the control surface level. c. Lighten the forces needed to control the surface. d. Provide the pilot with "feel".

109.

A control surface may be mass balanced by: a. Attaching a weight acting forward of th e hinge line. b. Fitting a b alance tab. c. Fitting an anti-balance tab. d. Attaching weight acting aft of the hinge line.

110.

Fixed trim tabs on ailerons: a. Can be adjusted on the gro und after a test flight to make wings-level flight easier. b. Can be adjusted during flight. c. Should never be adjusted. d. Can be adjusted on the gro und after a test flight to make turning easier.

111.

Which flying control surface(s) give(s) longitudinal control? The elevator. a. b. The rudder. c. The ailerons. d. The flaps.

112.

The purpose of a trim tab is: a. To zero the load on the pilots c ontrols in the flight attitude required. b. To assist the pilot in initiating movement of the controls. c. To provide feel to the controls at high speed. d. To increase the effectiveness of the controls.

113.

Yawing is a rotation about: a. The normal axis controlled by the rudder. b. The lateral axis controlled by the rudder. c. The longitudinal axis controlled by the ailerons. d. The normal axis controlled by the elevator.

114.

If the control colu mn is moved forward and to the left: a. The left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator moves down. b. The left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator moves up. c. The left aileron moves down, right aileron moves up, elevator moves down. d. The left aileron moves down, right aileron moves up, elevator moves up.


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PPL (A) – Principle Principle of flight

115.

If the control colum n is moved to the right, a balance tab on the left aileron sho uld: a. Move up relative to the aileron. b. Move down relative to the aileron. c. Not move unless the aileron trim wheel is turned. d. Move to the neutral position.

116.

'Differential Ailerons'are a design fea ture that helps to counteract: a. Adverse yaw. b. Stability about the longitudinal axis. c. Positive aircraft stability. d. Adverse roll.

117.

If the angle of attack is increased above the stalling angle: a. Lift will decrease and drag will increase. b. Lift and drag will both decrease. c. Lift will increase and drag will decrease. d. Lift and drag will both increase.

If the Angle of Attack is increased beyond the Critical Angle of A ttack, the wing will no 118. longer produce sufficien t lift to support the weight of the aircraft: a. Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude. b. Unless the airspeed is greater than the normal stall speed. c. Unless the pitch attitude is on or below the natural horizon. d. In which case, the control column should be pulled-back immediately.

119.

An aeroplane wing stalls when: a. The critical angle of attack is exceeded. b. The indicated airspeed is too low. c. The laminar airflow becomes turbulent. d. It is subjected to unusually high 'G'forces.

120. The stalling speed of an aircraft in straight and level flight is 60 kt, IAS. What is its stalling speed in a level 60° banked turn? a. 85 kt b. 60 kt c. 43 kt d. 120 kt

121.

When an aircraft is in a steady climb, the aerodynamic lift is a. Less than. b. Balanced by. c. Equal to. d. Greater than.

_the weight.


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A typical stalling angle of attack for an aircraft wing is: a. 16° b. 4° c. 30° d. 45°

123.

The maximum angle of climb of an aeroplane is determin ed by: a. Excess engine e ngine thrust. b. The aircraft weight. c. Wind speed. d. Excess airspeed.

124.

The angle of attack at which an aeroplane st alls: a. Will remain constant, regardless of gross weight. b. Will be smaller flying downwind than when flying upwind. c. Is dependent upo n the speed of the airflow over the wing. d. Is a function of speed and density altitude.

125. When the aircraft is in a spin, the direction of spin is most reliably found by reference to which of the following indications? a. Turn needle. b. Artificial horizon. c. Slip indicator. d. Direction indicator.

126.

The reason for washout being desig ned into an aircraft wing is to:a. Cause the inboard section of the wing to stall first. b. Increase the effectiveness of the flaps. c. Cause the outboard section o f the wing to stall first. d. Decrease the effectiveness of the ailerons.

The maximum allowable airspeed with flaps extende d (VFE) is lower than cruising speed 127. because: a. At speeds higher than VFE the aerodynamic forces woul d overload the flap and wing structures. b. Flaps are used only when preparing to land. c. Too much drag is induced. d. Flaps will stall if they are deployed at too high an airspeed.

The basic staiiing speed o f an aeroplane is 80 knots. In a level t urn with 45° angle bank, the 128. stalling speed is: a. 95 knots. b. 33 knots. c. 86 knots. d. 113 knots.


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PPL (A) – Principle Principle of flight 129. At the stall, the Centre of Pressure moving backwards will cause the nose to_ decreased lift will cause the aircraft to_ _. a. Drop / lose height. b. Yaw / reduc e speed. c. Rise / sink. d. Drop / red uce speed.

, and the

130.

VNE is: a. The maximum airspeed airspee d at which the aircraft may be flown. b. The airspeed which must not be exceeded except in a dive. c. The maximum airspeed at which manoeuvres approachin g the stall may be carried out. d. The maximum speed, above which fl aps should not be extended.

131.

In a climb at a steady speed, the thrust is: a. Greater than the aerodynamic drag. b. Equal to the aerodynamic drag. c. Less than the aerodynamic drag. d. Equal to the weight component along the flight path.

132.

What is the significance of the speed kno wn as VNO? a. It signifies the upper limit of the normal operating speed range. b. It is the maximum sp eed at which abrupt moveme nts of the controls will result in a stall, before the aircraft's positive load limit is exceeded. c. It is the speed beyond whic h structural failure of the airframe will occur. d. It signifies the airspeed which must never be exceeded.

133.

The stalling speed of an aircraft, assuming weight to be constant, is a function of the: a. Square root of the Load Factor b. Inverse of the Load Factor. c. Indicated airspeed. d. Square of the weight.

134.

The angle of climb is proportional to: a. The amount by which the thrust exceeds the drag. b. The amount by which the lift exceeds the weight. c. The amount by which the thrust exceeds the weight. d. The angle of attack of the wing.

135.

If an aircraft is flown at its design manoeuvring speed V A: a. It is not possible to excee d the limit load. b. It is possible to subject the aircr aft to a load greater than its limit load during high 'g' manoeuvres. c. It is only possible to subjec t the aircraft to a load greater than its limit load during viole nt increases in incidence, i.e. whe n using excessive stick force to pull-out of a dive. d. It must be immediately slowed down if turbulence is encountered.


PPL (A) – Principle Principle of flight 136. If the aircraft weight is increased, witho ut change of C of G position, the stalling angle attack will: a. Remain the same. b. Decrease. c. Increase. d. Remain the same. The position of the C of G does not affect the stall speed.

137.

At which angle of attack should we normally ex pect beginning of a stall? a. 10° - 18°. b. 3° - 5°. c. 5° - 10°. d. grater than 25°.

138.

The best angle of attack on the wi ng polar diagram is marked as: (See Fig. PPL PoF-2) a. 4. b. 2. c. 5. d. 6.

139.

The critical angle of attack on the wing po lar diagram is marked as: (See Fig. PPL PoF- 2) 6. b. 1. c. 4. d. 5. a.

The angle of attack for a minimum d rag on the wing polar diagram is marked as: (S ee Fig. 140. PPL PoF-2) a. b. c. d.

141.

3. 4. 5. 7.

Which wing shape has the greatest induction dr ag? Rectangular. b. Taper. c. Elliptical. d. Double taper. a.

142.

143.

If the velocity of an airstream is doubled the drag coeff icient will a. increase 4-times. b. double. c. not change. d. increase 6-times.

Approximately for what percent will the stall speed increase if wing loading increases by

15%? a. 7%. b. 0%. c. 15%.


PPL (A) – Principle Principle of flight d. 20%. What is the approximate percentage incr ease of a minimum speed if an aircraft mass is 144. increased fo r 20%? a. 10%. b. 0%. c. 120%. d. 20%.

145. If an airplane weights 3,000 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support durin g a 20° banked turn while maintaining altitude? (See Fig. PPL PoF-1) a. 3,180 lbs b. 4,000 lbs c. 3,350 lbs d. 3,000 lbs

146. If an airplane weights 4,600 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 50° banked turn while maintaining altitude? altitude? (See Fig. PPL PoF-1) a. 7,160 lbs. b. 5,400 lbs. c. 9,200 lbs. d. 8,180 lbs.

What is the maximum allowed bank angle when fl ying an aircraft with limiting load factor 147. of +2,5 G? (See Fig. PPL PoF-1) a. 66°. b. 55°. c. 60°. d. 50°.

What is the maximum allowed bank angle when fl ying an aircraft with limiting load factor 148. of +3,8 G? (See Fig. PPL PoF-1) a. 75°. b. 70°. c. 67°. d. 53°.

149.

What is the load factor in a 60° banke d level turn? (See Fig. PPL PoF-1) a. 2.0 G b. 1.5 G c. 0.5 G d. 1 G

150. The airspeed at which a pilot will not yet overstress the airfram e of an aicraft by momentarily up-deflecting the elevator is a. VA. b. VB. c. VFE. d. VS.


PPL (A) – Principle Principle of flight APPENDIX:

Fig. PPL PoF-1.

Fig. PPL P PL PoF-2. PoF-2.



Subject:

PPL(A)- Communications

PPL (A) – Comunications

Review questions:

1. Aerodrome traffic is: a. All traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and all aircraft operating in the vicinity of an aerodrome b. All vehicles on an aerodrome c. All aircraft on an aerodrome d. All traffic on the movement area of an aerodrome

2. VHF frequencies used for communication which is the range a. From 118,0 to 135,975 mhz b. From 108,0 to 135,975 khz c. From 118,0 to 121,5 mhz

3. The maximum VHF communications range that can be expected by an aircraft at FL 10 0 is: a. 120nm b. 1200nm c. 150nm d. 100nm

4. An aircraft will be in the best range f or VHF communications if it is: a. At high altitude in the vicinity of the airfield b. At high altitude and long range c. At low altitude and long range

5. What is the meaning of the term "IMC"? a. Instrumental meteorogical conditions. b. Flight according to instrumental flight rules. c. Flight according to visual flight rules. d. Visual meteorogical conditions.

6. The term "SVFR flight" stands for a. Special VFR flight. b. Sector VFR flight. flight. c. Schooling VFR flight. d. Search and rescue VFR flight.

7. The term " CVFR flight" stands for a. Controlled VFR flight b. VFR flight of civil aircraf c. Schooling VFR flight d. VFR flight visibility to the ground

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PPL (A) – Comunications 8. What is the meaning of the term "VMC"? a. Visual meteorogical conditions. b. A flight accordingly to instrumental flight rules. c. Visual flight rules. d. Instrumental flight rules.

9. What is the meaning of the term "VFR flight"? a. Flight according to visual flight rules. b. Flight according to instrumental flight rules. c. Training flight. d. Flight without passengers on board.

10. What does the phrase "WILCO" mean? a. I understand your message an d will comply with it. b. I have received all of your last transmission. c. My message is ended and I expect a res ponse from you. d. Permission granted.

11. What is the meaning of the phrase "V ERIFY"? a. Check and confirm with the originator. b. No, or permission not granted or that is not correct. c. Repeat all or the following part of your last transmission. d. I hereby indicate the separation between two portions of the message.

12. What is the meaning of the phrase "ROGER"? a. I have received all of your last transmission. b. I understand your message an d will comply with it. c. My transmission is ended and I expect a response from you. d. Permission for proposed action granted.

13. What is the meaning of the phrase "ACKNOWLEDGE"? a. Let me know that you have re ceived and understood this message. b. I have received all of your last transmission. c. Repeat all or the following part of your last transmission. d. My transmission is ended and I expect a response from you.

14. “VACATE RIGHT” means: a. Turn right to leave the runway. b. Clear the runway immediately. c. The next runway exit is on the right. d. Turn right after take off 15. 'GO AROUND' means: a. Carry out a missed approach. b. Overtake the aircraft ahead. c. Make a 360 degree turn. d. Taxy past the aircraft at the holding point. 3 / 23

PPL (A) – Comunications 16. 'STANDBY' means: a. Wait and I will call you again. b. Select STANDBY on the SSR Transponder. c. Hold your present position. d. Continue on present heading and listen out.

17. What does the phrase "MONITOR" mean? a. Listen out on (frequency). b. Establish radio contact with ... c. I repeat for clarity or emphasis. th e instruments. d. Watch the

18. What does the phrase "REPORT" mean? a. Pass me the following information. b. Say again. c. Pass your message. d. Proceed with your message.

19. What does the abbreviation "SID" mean? a. Standard instrument departure route. b. Standard instrument arrival route. c. Standard visual departure route. d. Standard visual arrival route.

20. 'ORBIT RI GHT' means: means: a. Continue to make right hand turn until advised b. Right hand circuits in use c. Turn right to avoid other traffic d. Make a 360 degrees turn to the right

21. A pilot receives the clearance to hold over an enroute reporting point until a specified time. This time is called a. Expected approach time. b. Estimated over time. c. Estimated time of arrival. d. Holding time.

22. What does the term "ALTITUDE" mean? a. Altitude above mean sea level. b. Height above an airfield. c. Flight level. d. Standard altitude.

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PPL (A) – Comunications 23. What is the meaning of the term "FLI GHT LEVEL"? a. A level in atmosphere for vertical separation which is determined by setting the altimeter to 1013.2 hpa. b. A level in atmosphere for vertical separation which is determined by setting the altimeter to local QNH. c. A level in atmosphere for vertical separation which is determined by setting the altimeter to local QFE. d. A pressure level based on regional QNH.

24. Phase of flight: climb, take off, descent, start-up, approach, cruise, push back, final approach, taxi, take off roll, touch down i line-u p were mixed. Their order is: a. Start up, push back, taxi, line-u p, take off roll, take off, climb, cruise, descent, approach, final approach, touch down b. Line-up, take off roll, take off, climb, cruise, de scent, approach, start up, push back, taxi, final approach, touch down c. Push back, taxi, line-up, take off roll, start up, take off, descent, climb, cruise, touch down, approach, final approach

rep orted by a pilot using the phrase "FIVE THOUSAND FEET QFE"? 25. Which altitude has been reported a. Height above the airfield. b. Flight level. c. Altitude above mean sea level. d. Adequate altitude in International Standard Atmosphere (ICAO).

26. When a pilot reports "FIVE THOUSAND FEET", the controller concludes a. The altitude of the aircraft is 5,000 ft above mean sea level. b. The altimeter of the aircraft is set to the local QFE. c. The altitude of the aircraft is 5,000 ft above the airfield. d. The altimeter of the aircraft is set to the standard pressure 1013.2hpa .

27. An altitude of 4,500 ft QNH should be pronounced as a. FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET. b. FORTY FIVE THOUSAND. c. FOUR POINT P OINT FIVE. d. FORTY FIVE HUNDRED FEET ABOVE SEA LEVEL.

28. An altitude of 5,000 ft should be broadcasted as a. FIVE THOUSAND FEET. b. FIVE NULL NULL NULL. c. FIVE ZERO ZERO ZERO FEET. d. FIFTY HUNDRED.

29. An altitude of 11,000 ft should be broadcasted as a. WUN WUN THOUSAND FEET. b. ELEVEN THOUSAND FEET. c. WUN WUN ZERO ZERO ZERO FEET. d. ELEVEN THOUSAND ZERO FEET. 5 / 23

PPL (A) – Comunications 30. Altitude 10,500 ft should be broadcasted as a. TEN THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET. b. TEN POINT FIVE. c. WUN ZERO THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET. d. WUN ZERO FIVE HU NDRED FEET ABOVE SEA LEVEL.

31. COMM frequency 118.125 mhz sho uld be transmitted by pronouncing a. WUN WUN EIGHT DECIMEL WUN –TOO using 5/4 Digit Phraseology or WUN WUN EIGHT DECIMEL WUN TOO FI VE using 6/4 Digit Phraseology b. WUN WUN EIGHT WUN TOO FIVE. c. WUN WUN EIGHT DECIMAL WUN TOO.

32. When broadcasting numbers in radiotelephony communication, the n umber 583 is transmitted as a. FIVE EIGHT THREE. THREE. b. FIVE HUNDRED EIGHTY THREE. c. FIFTY EIGHT THREE. THREE. d. FIVE HUNDRED EIGHT THREE

33. When broadcasting numbers in radiotelephony communication, the number 496 is transmitted as a. FOUR NINER SIX. b. FOUR HUNDRED AND NINETY SIX. c. FOUR HUNDRED AND NINER SIX. NI NETY SIX. d. FOUR NINETY

34. When broadcasting numbers in radiotelephony communication, the number 4501 is transmitted as a. FOUR FIVE ZERO WUN. b. FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED WUN. c. FOUR FIVE ZERO POINT WUN. d. FORTY FIVE HUNDRED WUN.

35. The number 600 should be broadcasted as a. SIX HUNDRED. b. SIX ZERO ZERO. NUL L NULL. c. SIX NULL d. SIXTY ZERO.

36. COMM frequency 118.0 mhz should be broadcasted by pronouncing a. WUN WUN EIGHT DECIMAL ZERO. b. WUN HUNDRED EIGHTEEN POIN T NULL. c. WUN WUN EIGHT. d. WUN WUN EIGHT POINT ZERO. 37. In aviation broadcasting, how do we pronounce COMM frequency 118.1 mhz? a. WUN WUN EIGHT DECIMAL WUN . b. WUN WUN EIGHT POINT WUN . c. WUN HUNDRED ELEVEN POINT WUN . WUN EIGHT EIGHT WUN . d. WUN WUN 6 / 23

PPL (A) – Comunications 38. In aviation broadcasting, how do we pronounce COMM frequency 118.150 mhz? a. WUN WUN EIGHT DECIMAL WUN FIVE. b. WUN WUN EIGHT DECIMAL WUN FIVE ZERO. c. WUN WUN EIGHT POINT WUN FIVE ZERO. d. WUN WUN EIGHT DASH WUN WUN FIVE.

39. Frequency 121.725 mhz should be transmitted as: a. WUN TOO WUN DECIMAL SEVEN TOO FIFE, using 6/4 Digit Phraseology, and WUN TOO WUN DECIMAL SEVEN TOO, using 5/4 Digit Phraseology. b. WUN TWO WUN POINT SEVEN TWO. c. WUN TOO WUN POINT SEVEN TOO. d. WUN TWENTY WUN DECIMAL SEVEN TWENTY FIVE

40. The pilot may abbreviate the call sign of an aircraft a. Only after the ground station has used the ab breviated call sign. b. Not at all. c. After radio contact with the ground station has been established. d. Any time at his discretion

41. A time of 1020 hours is trans mitted as: a. 'ONE ZERO TWO ZERO' or 'TWO ZERO' b. TEN TWENTY HOURS c. TEN TWO ZERO Z ERO TWENTY TWENTY d. ONE ZERO

42. A time of 1020 hours is transmitted at 0910 hours as: a. 'ONE ZERO TWO ZERO' b. TEN TWENTY HOURS c. TEN TWO ZERO d. 'TWO ZERO'

43. Phonetic transcription for the label 70-VEL pronounced as: a. SEVEN, ZERO, VICTOR, ECHO, LIMA b. SEVEN, ZERO, WHISKEY, ECHO, LMA c. SEVENTY, VICTOR, ECHO, LIMA

44. Phonetic transcription for the label EXTRA pronounced as: a. ECHO, XRAY,TANGO,ROMEO,ALFA b. EXTRA c. ECHO,XRAY,TORONTO,ROMEO,ALFA d. ECHO,IKS,TORONTO,ROMEO,ALFA 45. Phonetic transcription for the label C-MNXY pronounced as: a. CHARLIE, MIKE, NOVEMBER, XRAY, YANKEE b. COCA, MIKE, NECTAR, XRAY, YANKEE c. CHARLIE, METRO, NOVEMBER, EXTRA, YANKEE

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PPL (A) – Comunications 46. Phonetic transcription for the label B9-DFF pronounced as: a. BRAVO, NINER, DELTA, FOXTROT, FOXTROT b. BRAVO, NINE, DELTA, FOXTROT, FOXTROT c. BRAVO, NINE, DELTA, TWO FOXTROT

47. A pilot shall ask for a QFE as follows: a. Request QUEBEC FOXTROT ECHO b. Request QUEBEC FOX ECHO c. Request QUEEN FOX EASY d. Request QUEBEC FOX EASY

48. What is the correct way of spelling o ut FRI-VOR in a radio message? a. FOXTROT ROMEO INDIA VOR. b. FOXTROT ROMEO INDIA VICTOR OSCAR ROMEO. c. FRIDAY VOR. d. FOX ROMEO INDIA VOR.

49. The abbreviation for a control zone is: a. CTR b. MATZ c. CTA d. CTZ

50. Which of the following abbreviations must be broadcast to individual letters? a. Y-BC b. ILS c. RVR d. CAVOK

51. What is the Q code for the measur ement of relative heights above an airfields? a. QFE. b. ELT. c. QNH. d. QBA.

52. What is the Q code for the measurement of altitude ? a. QNH b. QFF c. QNE d. QFE

53. What is the Q code for the me asurement of flight level ? a. QNE b. QFF c. QNH d. QFE 8 / 23

PPL (A) – Comunications 54. What is the Q code for a magnetic bearing to a station? a. QDM b. QDR c. QGH d. QNH

55. What is the Q code for a magnetic bearing from a station? a. QDR b. QGH c. QDM d. QNH

56. What is the Q code for a true t rue bearing from a station? a. QTE b. QDR c. QNH d. QFE

57. What does the phrase "QDM" mean? a. Magnetic direction from an aircraft to the goniometric station. b. Atmospheric pressure at airfield elevation. c. Atmospheric pressure at airfield elevation, red uced to sea level. d. Actual weather at an airfield.

58. What does "QNH" mean? a. Altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on ground. b. Atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation. c. True bearing from a station. d. Magnetic bearing from a station.

59. If you want to request a service from a ground station: a. You must do so in your initial call. b. You must do so after you have established two way communications with the station. c. You must monitor the ground station frequency until you hear the ground station giving the service you require to another aircraft. d. As a private pilot you are not entitled to requ est a service.

60. Which of the following li sts are all ATC messages that must read back in full: a. Clearance to enter, land on, take-off on, b acktrack, cross or hold short of an active runway; SSR instructions b. Level instructions, altimeter settings, surface wind, runway information c. ATC route clearances, runway clearances, actual weathe r reports d. VOR information, frequency ch anges, type of radar service

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PPL (A) – Comunications 61. A pilot is required to read back: a. SSR operating instructions, take-off clearances, altimeter settings, VDF information, frequency changes b. ATC route clearances, runway clearances, conditional clearances, actual weather reports c. Altimeter settings, taxi information, terminal weather, runway clearances, approach aid serviceability d. Route clearances, speed instructions, weather reports, taxi clearances, runway state information

62. Which of the following statements is correct? "In ground to air communications the controller will always": a. Say your callsign first. b. Say your callsign last. c. Say your callsign first only on initial co ntact.

63. Callsign of ATC for control of aircraft and vehicles on manoeuvring area? a. GROUND b. TOWER c. DISPATCH d. APRON

64. The prescribed phrase for fo r obtaining a permission to taxi to the runway for departure is a. REQUEST TAXI. b. WHAT IS MY TAXI CLEARANCE c. REQUEST PERMISSION TO TAXI. d. REQUEST TAXI CLEARANCE.

65. When a control tower transmits the phr ase "REPORT DOWNWIND", the pilot is instructed to report a. Aircraft position in traffic pattern between th e second turn and the third turn, abe am of the halfway point of the runway. b. Estimated wind direction and velocity at the altitude of flying. c. Maximum allowed tail wind for landing. d. Aircraft position "final" in traffic pattern.

66. The controller wants to obtain the information about the level at which an aircraft is flying,usi ng the phrase a. REPORT LEVEL. b. WHAT IS YOUR LEVEL. c. REQUEST LEVEL. d. TRANSMIT YOUR LEVEL.

67. Which phrase is used by an ATC when ad vising the pilot that the position report over the compulsory reporting point is not required? a. OMIT POSITION REPORT OVER ... (fix). b. CANCEL POSITION REPORT OVER ... (fix). c. NO POSITION REPORT OVER ... (fix). d. DO NOT REPORT OVER ... (fix). 10 / 23

PPL (A) – Comunications 68. When the aircraft pilot is not able to execute a command, control informs the fligh t phrase: a. UNABLE TO COMPLY b. UNABLE TO ACCEPT ACCEPT c. REQUEST RECLEARANCE d. I CANNOT COMPLY

69. How do you ask for a message to be repeated ? a. SAY AGAIN. b. PLEASE SAY THE MESSAGE AGAIN. c. REPEAT MESSAGE. d. SAY ALL AGAIN.

70. Which of the following messages has the highest priority? a. REQUEST QDM b. TAXI TO THE REFUELLING PUMPS c. CAUTION, WORK IN PROGRESS ON THE T AXIWAY d. REPORT FINAL NUMBER 1

71. If a controller passes an instruction and you un derstand it and will comply, the standard repl y is: a. WILCO b. VERIFY c. ROGER d. CONFIRM

72. If the pilot is unable to make contact with a station on a designated frequency, then he should: a. Try transmitting on another related frequency b. Make a blind transmission c. Transmit on 121.5 mhz d. Transmit using words twice

73. When transmitting a message preceded by the phr ase "Transmitting blind due to receiver failure" the aircraft station shall also: a. Advise the time of its next intended transmission b. Proceed to the alternate airport c. Hold for 5 minutes at its present position

74. You are at the holding point of the runway in use, have completed all your pre-flight vital checks and are ready to enter the runway and take off. What RT phraseology would you use to inform ATC of your readiness? a. (CALLSIGN) READY FOR DEPARTURE. b. (CALLSIGN) READY FOR TAKE OFF. c. (CALLSIGN) READY FOR LINE UP. d. (CALLSIGN) READY TO PROCEED

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PPL (A) – Comunications 75. If the pilot cannot follow the ins tructions and orders, he should advise the air traffic control by transmitting t he phrase a. UNABLE TO COMPLY. b. UNABLE TO ACCEPT. ACCEPT. c. REQUEST RECLEARANCE d. I CANNOT COMPLY.

76. You are flying at FL50 in YU-ABC. When asked by the controller to report your level, what is the correct response? a. MAINTAINING FL50, Y-BC. b. FL50, Y-BC. c. AT FL50, Y-BC. d. Y-BC, FL50.

77. On a long straight-in approach to land, the call 'Long Final' would be made at a range of about: a. 8nm b. 2 nm c. 4 nm d. 25 nm

78. On the final approach, the FINAL call should be made at a range of about: a. 4 nm b. 2 nm c. 8nm d. 25 nm

79. You are flying on a NE heading at 2500 ft. You would report your heading and level as: a. HEADING 045 AT TOO TOUSAND FIFE HUN DRED FEET b. HEADING 045 AT TOO FIFE ZERO ZERO FEET. c. HEADING 045 AT 25 HUNDRED FEET d. FLYING AT TOO TOUSAND FI FE HUNDRED FEET ON HEADING 045.

80. How would you correctly reply to the ATC instruction "Y-CD, Change to Belgrade Tower, 118.1”? a. WUN WUN EIGHT DAYSEEMAL WUN , YANKEE CHARLIE DELTA. b. Y-CD, 118.1. c. CHANGE TO BELGRADE TOWER 118.1, Y-CD. d. WILCO, Y-CD.

81. Which of the options below gives a correct ord er and content for a Position Report? a. Call Sign, Position, Time, Level or Altitude, Ne xt Position with ETA. b. Call Sign, Route, Position, Level, ETA next Position, Heading , Request. c. Position, Level or Altitude, Time, ETA at Next Position, Call Sign. d. Route, Position, Time, Level or Altitude, ETA at Next Position, Call Sign.

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PPL (A) – Comunications 82. ATC will give a descent instruction by using the phrase: a. DESCEND TO FL... b. MAINTAIN FL... c. LEAVE FL... FOR FL... d. CLEARED FL...

83. ATC will give a climb instruction by using the phrase a. CLIMB TO FL... b. MAINTAIN FL... c. LEAVE FL... FOR FL... d. CLEARED FL...

84. An aircraft had initially been cleared to climb to FL100. For separation purposes the aircraft has to be leveled of at FL 80 for a few minutes. ATC will give this instruction by using the phrase: a. STOP CLIMB AT FL80. b. LEVEL OFF AT FL80. c. MAINTAIN FL80. d. CLEARED FL80.

85. When asked by ATC "Are you able to maintain FL 40" the correct reply contains the p hrase: a. AFFIRM or NEGATIVE NEGATIVE b. ROGER c. WILCO d. NO SIR

86. When requesting a special VFR clearance in flight, ATC must be given details of: a. Callsign, type, intentions and ETA at entry point b. Callsign, type, T AS, ETA at entry point and destination c. Callsign, type, position, heading, intentions and ETA at entry point d. Callsign, altitude, heading and ETA at entry point

87. You have just landed at a towered airport and the tower tells you to contact ground when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of t he runway when a. All parts of the aircraft have crossed the hold line. b. The aircraft cockpit is clear of the hold line. c. The tail of the aircraft is of the runway edge.

88. If requested by the control tower to report having crossed the runway, the pilot has to use the phrase a. RUNWAY VACATED. b. I HAVE LEFT THE RUNWAY. c. I AM CLEAR OF RUNWAY. d. I AM BEYOND THE RUNWAY.

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PPL (A) – Comunications 89. A "downwind" call is made: a. Any position on downwind leg b. Abeam the upwind end of the runway c. As soon as the aircraft is on the downwind leg d. Just before turning on to base leg

90. Report position base leg is done a. Only when required to control b. Always c. Only the pilot will

91. Correct phrase for final report is: a. Y-BC ON FINAL b. WE ARE APPROACHING FINAL c. VRŠAC TOWER, FINAL

92. That portion of the runway identified by the letter C is called? (See Fig. PPL Kom-1) a. LINE-UP POSITION. b. START-UP POSITION. c. APRON. d. BASE LEG.

93. That portion of the airport traffic circuit iden tified by the letter E is called? (See Fig. PPL Kom-1) a. DOWNWIND POSITION. b. LINE-UP. c. CROSSWIND LEG. d. BASE LEG.

94. Which designator denotes part of the aerodrome t raffic circuit named "Base Leg"? (See Fig. PPL Kom-1) a. F. b. G. c. E. d. D.

95. Which letter identifies that portion of the airport traffic circuit, called "FINAL LEG"? (See Fig. PPL Kom-1) a. G. b. E. c. F. d. C. 96. That portion of the airport id entified by the letter A is called? (See Fig. PPL Kom-1) a. APRON. b. RUNWAY. c. TAXIWAY. d. BASE LEG. 14 / 23


97. That portion of the airport t axyway identified by the letter B is called? (See Fig. PPL Kom-1) a. HOLDING POINT. b. APRON. c. LINE-UP POSITION. d. CROSSWIND LEG.

98. Which of the following is a conditional clearance? a. YU-ABC, AFTER THE JAT 737, TAXY TO HOL DING POINT D RUNWAY 26. b. JAT 345, LINE UP AND HOLD. c. REDWING 42, TAKE OFF AT YOUR DISCRETI ON. d. Y-CC, REPORT FINAL, TWO AHEAD.

99. Taxy instructions issued b y the controller will include a clearance limit which will normally be: a. The holding point of the runway in use. b. The threshold of the runway in use. c. The entrance to the parking area.

a. b. c. d.

The phrase "CLEARANCE EXPIRES AT 02 35" means that the pilot Will be granted permission for takeoff by 02 35. May takeoff after 02 35. Shall wait until 02 35 asking for departure clearance. Shall start up engines at 02 35.

a. b. c. d.

Which phrase is used to annul the previously transmitted clearance? DISREGARD. RECLEARED. NEGATIVE. CANCEL.

a. b. c. d.

The permission to taxi to the takeoff position will be phrased LINE UP. TAXI TO THE TAKEOFF POSITION. CLEARED INTO POSITION AND HOLD. CONTINUE TO TAKEOFF POSITION AND HOLD.

100.

101.

102.

103. A pilot receives the following message from ATC. "YU-ABC, After departure cleared to zone bound ary via Route Bravo, Climb to Altitude 2 500 feet, QNH 1005, Squawk 6521." What type of clearance is this? a. A Route Clearance. Take -off Clearance. b. A Take-off c. A Conditional Clearance. d. A Departure Clearance.

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PPL (A) – Comunications If the pilot of an aircraft, equipped with the transponder, has been instructed "SQUAWK 104. 1200" by an ATC, he should set the code 1200 on the transponder and a. Move the switch to "ON" or "ALT", if not yet selected. b. Push the button "IDENT". c. Move the switch to "STANDBY". d. Move the switch to "STANDBY" and depress on button "IDENT".

105. a. b. c. d.

The phrase, which instructs the pilot to set transponde r code A6620 again, is RECYCLE ALPHA ALP HA 6620. SQUAWK AGAIN ALPHA 6620. SWITCH ON ALPHA 6620. CONFIRM SQUAWKING ALPHA 6620.

106. If a transponder does not transmit on mode C although it is expec ted, an ATC will instruct the pilot to switch on mode C by using the phrase a. SQUAWK CHARLIE. b. SQUAWK ALTIMETER. c. SQUAWK PRESSURE ALTITUDE. d. TRANSMIT ON MODE CHARLIE.

107. a. b. c. d.

You receive the message " YU-ABC Squawk Ident". You should: Operate the special position identification on the SSR transponder. Select STANDBY on the SSR transponder. Select ALT - altitude reporting facility (Mode C) on the SSR transponder. Reply giving your callsign.

a. b. c. d.

The phrase "Squawk Charlie" means: Select 'ALT' on the transponder. Transponder. Confirm the transponder is selected ON Select 7700 on the transponder.

108.

109. With the SSR transponder selected ON, the ATC message 'YU-ABC verify your level' would be made to: a. Check and confirm the accuracy of the Mode C level information displayed to the controller. b. Identify aircraft position. c. Check your altimeter setting. d. Check with the pilot that Mode C is selected ON.

110. In a radar environment heading information given by the pilot and heading instructions given by controllers are in: a. Degrees magnetic. b. Degrees true. c. Degrees Celsius. d. Degrees Absolute.

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PPL (A) – Comunications 111. a. b. c. d.

In the event of a radio failure the SSR transponder should be set to: 7600 7700 7500 7000

a. b. c. d.

A pilot squawking A 7700 indicates to the ground station that His aircraft is in an emergency situation. His radio is unserviceable. He has a sick person on board. His flight is being hijacked.

a. b. c. d.

Which transponder mode gives an altitude readout: Mod C Mod A Mod B Mod D

112.

113.

114. If you are flying an aircraft without a transponder, what would you say if you were asked to SQUAWK? a. NEGATIVE TRANSPONDER. b. NEGATIVE SQUAWK. c. I DO NOT HAVE A TRANSPONDER. d. NO TRANSPONDER.

115. By which international phrase will the intercepting aircraft allows the intercepted aircraft to continue the flight? a. PROCEED b. CALL SIGN c. DESCEND d. FOLLOW

116. The phrase "CALL SIGN", passed by a radio from a pilot of an intercepting aircraft to the pilot of an intercepted aircraft, means: a. What is your call sign? b. Call the air traffic control! c. Transmit an emergency call! d. Return to your airport of origin!

117. What is the meaning of the phrase "YOU LAND", passe d by a radio from the pilot of an intercepting aircraft to the pilot of an intercepted aircraft? a. Land at this aerodrome. b. Report the name of your aerodrome of origin. c. Follow me. d. You may proceed.

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PPL (A) – Comunications Which is the correct phrase used by the pilot of an intercepted aircraft to convey to an 118. intercepting aircraft his inability to comply with the received instructions? a. CAN NOT b. AM LOST c. MAYDAY d. WILCO

119. The pilot of an intercepted aircraft report to the pilot of an intercepting aircraft that he is lost and his position is uncertain u ncertain to him by transmitting the following international radio phrase a. AM LOST b. WILCO c. CAN NOT d. MAYDAY

Which frequency is intended for a conversation between the interce pting aircraft and the 120. intercepted aircraft? a. International emergency frequency 121.5 mhz. b. Local air force frequency. c. Local emergency frequency. d. Frequency air-air

121. By which international phrase will the intercepting aircraft direct the inte rcepted aircraft tofollow him? a. FOLLOW b. PROCEED c. YOU LAND d. CALL SIGN

122. a. b. c. d.

123.

What are the two classified states of Emergency Message? Distress and Urgency MAYDAY and PAN PAN Emergency and Security Emergency and PAN PAN

DISTRESS is defined as a condition: a. That threaten to become serious or immediate danger and require immediate assistance

b. That threaten to become serious or immediate danger and do not require urgent assistance c. Concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person on board or withi n sight, but which does not require immediate assist ance d. Concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person on board or withi n sight and requiring immediate assistance

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125.

URGENCY is defined as a condition: Concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person on board or withi n sight, but which does not require immediate assist ance Concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person on board or within sight and requiring immediate assistance That threaten to become serious or immediate danger and require immediate assistance That threaten to become serious or immediate danger and do not require urgent assistance

The frequency use d for the first transmission of a 'MAYDAY' call should be: a. The frequency currently in use b. The distress frequency 121.5 mhz c. Approach frequency of the nearest airfield d. Any international distress frequency

126. In case a pilot intend to transmit by radiotelephony an urgent message, concerning safety of the other aircraft, he should begin his broadcast by the a. Spoken word "PANPAN". b. Spoken word "MAYDAY". cod e "XXX". "XXX". c. Morse code d. Morse code "MAYDAY".

127. During overflying a remote f orest area you notice a hang glider on tree canopies an d it seems to you that the pilot hangs on his harnesse s. You decide to call the nearest airport and report the accident. The phrase with which you should begin your radiotelephony message is: a. PANPAN, PANPAN, PANPAN b. EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY c. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY d. MEDICAL, MEDICAL, MEDICAL

During a cross-country flight you notice an emergency landing of a light aeroplane on a 128. meadow below. The aircraft seems und amaged and the pilot unhurt. Which phrase will you u se at the beginning of your report to the air traffic control concerning the e vent? a. PANPAN, PANPAN, PANPAN b. HELPHELP, HELPHELP, HELPHELP c. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY d. EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY

129. Which radiotelephony phrase means "WE ARE IN GRAVE AND IMMINENT DANGER, AND IMMEDIATE ASSISTANCE IS REQUIRED"? a. Spoken word "MAYDAY". b. Word "MAYDAY", transmitted by Morse code. c. Spoken word "SECURITY". d. Spoken word "PANPAN".

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The phrase, with which a radiotelephony distress mess age is being started, is: MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY PANPAN, PANPAN, PANPAN EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY HELP, HELP, HELP

At outlanding you damaged your aircraft and hurt yourself however there is nobody in the 131. vicinity to assist you. Which is the international phrase, with which you should start your radiotelephony call for a help? a. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY b. PANPAN, PANPAN, PANPAN c. MEDICAL, MEDICAL, MEDICAL d. EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY

132. a. b. c. d.

Which of the following frequencies is the international emergency frequency? 121,500 MHZ 122.500 mhz 121,050 mhz 122.050 mhz.

a. b. c. d.

The frequency 121.5 mhz is An international emergency frequency. A regional guard frequency. A regional emergency frequency. A frequency for air-to-air communication

133.

134. When an aircraft fails to establish communication with an aeronautical station or aircraft station, the aircraft has to transmit its message twice, preceded by the phrase a. TRANSMITTING BLIND. b. MAYDAY. c. PANPAN. d. WORDS TWICE.

135.

On hearing a Distress message a pilot must: a. b. c. d.

136. a. b. c. d.

Maintain radio silence and monitor the frequency to ensure assistance is provided Acknowledge the message immediately and standby to relay further messages if required Change frequency because radio silence will be imposed on the frequency in use Take control of the situation and co-ordinate the e fforts of all agencies in the rescue operation

Radio test transmissions should take the following form: BEOGRAD TOWER YU-ABC Radio check 118.1 BEOGRAD TOWER YU-ABC 118.1 Do you read? BEOGRAD TOWER YU-ABC Hoe do you read? BEOGRAD TOWER YU-ABC Readability check 118.1

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In order to make your communic ations more effective, you should: Use a constant speaking volume Use words twice Modulate your voice Call break between sentences

Using the readability scale, “readability 5” means:

138. a. b. c. d.

Perfectly readable. Readable but with difficulty Unreadable. Readable.


139. a. b. c. d.

Readable. Readable with difficulty. Readable with background Unreadable.


140. a. b. c. d.

Readable but with difficulty Unreadable. Perfectly readable. Readable with background.


141. a. b. c. d.

Readable now and then Unreadable. Perfectly readable. Readable with background.


142. a. b. c. d.

Unreadable. Readable but with difficulty Perfectly readable. Readable with background

143. Which aeronautical communication service provides automated airfield and meteorological information for departing and arriving traffic? a. ATIS b. LARS c. AFIS d. FIS

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What are the three categories of aeronautical communication service? Air Ground Communication Service, Flight I nformation Service, Air traffic Control. Air, Land and Sea. Approach, Tower, Ground. IFR, VFR, SVFR.

a. b. c. d.

If no ATIS is available, the pilot asks for departure i nformation using the phrase REQUEST DEPARTURE INFORMATION. REQUEST DEPARTURE INSTRUCTIONS. I WOULD LIKE DEPARTURE INFORMATION. REPORT DEPARTURE INFORMATION.

145.

146.

b. c. d.

A Radar Information Service (RIS) is an ATC service: In which the controller will inform the pilot of the bearing, distance and, if known, the altitude of conflicting traffic In which the controller will provide radar separation from all other traffic In which the controller will direct the aircraft to avoid the other traffic Which may only be used by aircraft flying in accordance with the instrument flight rules

a. b. c. d.

The abbreviation ATIS stands for: Automatic Terminal Information Service Aircraft Technical Information Service Air Traffic Information Service Aerodrome Traffic Information Service

a.

147.

148.

ATIS is to be found on: a. A discrete VHF or a VOR frequency b. The Approach frequency c. The Tower frequency

149. a. b. c. d.

150. by:

A radar advisory service will: Give you standard separation sep aration from all traffic Advise you of possible conflict Give you an air traffic co ntrol service Give you a radar approach

The correct callsign of a station providing flight information service is the location followed a. b. c. d.

INFORMATION HOMER CONTROL RADIO

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APPENDIX:

Fig.PPl Kom-1

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PPL(A) Question Bank

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