Nursing Practice 1-8

NURSING BOARD EXAM PRACTICE TEST 1 Situation I -- Nurse Caria is assigned in the emergency unit meeting. Varied opportunities that developed her nursing skills. 1. A 17-year old is admitted following an automobile accident He is very anxious, dyspneic, and in severe pain. The left chest wall moves in during inspiration and balloons out when he exhales. The nurse understands these symptoms are most suggestive of: a. Hemothorax b. Flail chest c. Atelectasis d. Pleural effusion 2. A young man is admitted with a flail chest following a car accident. He is intubated with an endotracheal tube and is placed on a mechanical ventilator (control mode, positive pressure). Which physical finding alerts the nurse to an additional problem in respiratory function? a. Dullness to percussion in the third to 5th intercostals space, midclavicular line b. Decreased paradoxical motion c. Louder breath sounds on the right chest d. pH of 7.36 In arterial blood gases 3. The nurse is caring for a client who has just had a chest tube attached to a water seal drainage system (Pleur-evac). To ensure that the system functions effectively the nurse should: a. Observe for intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber b. Flush the test tube with 30 to 60 ml of NSS 4 to 6 hours c. Maintain the client in an extreme lateral position d. Strip the chest tubes in the direction of the client 4. The nurse enter the room of a client who has a chest tube attached to a water seal drainage system and notices the chest tube is dislodge from the chest. The most appropriate nursing intervention is to: a. Notify the physician b. Insert a new chest tube c. Cover the insertion site with new petroleum gauze d. Instruct the client to breath deeply until the help arrives 5. A 71-year old is admitted to the hospital with congestive heart failure. She has shortness of breath and a +3 - 4 peripheral edema. The care plan to reduce the client's edema should include nursing strategies for: a. Establishing limits on activity b. Fostering a relaxed environment

c. Identifying goals for self care d. Restricting IV fluids Situation 2 - Oxygen is the most vital physiologic need for survival. 6. Mr. Sison, 65 years old has been smoking since he was 11 years old. He has long history of emphysema. Mr. Sison is admitted to the hospital because of a respiratory infection, which has not improved with outpatient therapy. Which finding would the nurse expect to observe during Mr. Sison's nursing assessment? a. Electrocardiogram changes b. Increased anterior-posterior chest diameter c. Slow labored respiratory pattern d. Weight-Height relationship indicating obesity 7. Mr. Sison is ordered oxygen via nasal prongs. The nurse administering the oxygen via the low-flow system recognizes that this method of delivery: a. Mixes room air with oxygen b. Delivers a precise concentration of oxygen c. Requires humidity during delivery d. Is less traumatic to the respirator tract 8. Which statement by Mr. Sison indicates that client teaching regarding oxygen therapy has been effective? a. "I was feeling fine so I removed my nasal prongs." b. "I've increased my fluids to six glasses of water daily." c. "Don’t forget to come back quickly when you get me out of the bed; I don't want to be without my oxygen for too long." d. "My family was angry when I told them they could not smoke in my room." 9. Supplemental low-flow oxygen therapy is prescribed for a man with emphysema. Which is the most essential for the nurse to initiate? a. Anticipate the need for humidification b. Notify the physician that this order is contraindicated c. Place client in high Fowler's position d. Schedule nursing care to allow frequent observations of the client Situation 3 - Mr. Silverio, 56 years old, has had significant problem with alcohol abuse for the past 15 years. His wife brings him to the emergency department because he is increasingly confused and is coughing blood. His medical diagnosis is cirrhosis of the liver. He has ascites and esophageal varices. 10. Assessment of Mr. Silverio would reveal all of the following, except:

a. Bulging flanks b. Protruding umbilicus c. Abdominal distension d. Bluish discoloration of the umbilicus 11. Which laboratory value would the nurse expect to find in a client as a result of liver failure? a. Decreased serum creatinine b. Decreased sodium c. Increased ammonia d. Restricted sodium 12. The major dietary treatment for ascites calls for: a. High protein b. Increased potassium c. Restricted fluids d. Restricted sodium

of rape b. Perform thorough physical assessment and documenting objectively all the evidences of rape c. Ask the patient to stay in one isolated room first to provide privacy while attending to other patients d. Provide emotional support first and postponed physical assessment when patient is already calm 17. Which of the following is a form of active, focused, emotional environmental first aid for patients in crisis? a. Attitude therapy b. Psychotherapy c. Crisis intervention d. Re-motivation technique 18. Which of the following is true with regards to crisis?

13. A Sengstaken-BIakemore tube is inserted in an effort to stop the bleeding. Base on this information, the first action the nurse should take is to:

a. Crisis is self-limiting b. After crisis, the individual always return to a pre-crisis state or condition c. Crisis always result in adaptive behavior d. The person in crisis is not susceptible for any help

a. Deflate the esophageal balloon b. Encourage him to take the deep breath c. Monitor his vital signs d. Notify the physician

19. If help is not provided in a crisis situation, an individual may spontaneously resolve in negatively or positively by returning to pre-crisis state, usually within which of the following duration?

14. Because the detoxification of alcohol damages tissues a high-calorie diet, fortified with vitamins should be encouraged to protect Mr. Silverio's:

a. 2-3 weeks b. 3-4 weeks c. 1-2 weeks d. 4-6 weeks

a. Liver b. Kidneys c. Adrenals d. Pancreas Situation 4 - Rape is one of the most tragic things that could happen to anyone especially with young girls. Incidence such as these could develop into a crisis situation involving not only the rape victims but also their families.

Situation 6 - One Important fact that will guide the nurse in the practice of the profession is her knowledge of the nursing law. 20. The nurse practice Act of 1991 regulates the practice of nursing in the Philippines. Which of the following statements about this Act is true?

15. This type of crisis could be an example of which of the following?

a. This Act delineates the practice of nursing and midwifery b. It was enacted in November 1991 c. The primary purpose is to protect the public d. The Act defines the practice of nursing in the Philippines

a. Combination of developmental and situational b. Situational c. Emotional d. Developmental

21. When a nurse starts working In a hospital but without a written contract, which of the following is expected of her?

16. Noemi, a staff nurse in the emergency room, realizes that she has an important role to play as a patient advocate to rape victims. To demonstrate this role, she takes note of one of the responsibilities? a. Since this is a legal case, call the press about the incidence

a. She's not bound to perform according to the standards of nursing practice b. Provides nursing care within the acceptable standards of nursing practice c. She's not obligated to provide professional service d. The employer does not hold the nurse responsible for her action

22. A patient, G8P5, refused to be injected with the 3rd dose of Depoprovera. The nurse insisted inspite of the patients refusal and forcibly injected the contraceptive. She can be sued for which of the following? a. Misrepresentation b. Assault and Battery c. Malpractice d. Negligence 23.A patient has been in the ICU for 2 weeks. The relatives have consented to a "Do not resuscitate order," When the patient develops a cardiac arrest, the nurse will carry out which of the following actions? a. Only medication will be given b. All ordinary measure will be stopped c. Basic and advance life support will not be given d. Mechanical ventilation and NGT will be stopped 24. When a patient falls from bed, which of the following is your immediate action? a. Report to the head nurse and calls someone to help b. Determine any injury or harm c. Refer to the resident on duty d. Put back patient to bed Situation 7 - Ms. May Mansur encountered vehicular accident on her way to the office and he remains conscious. Police officers brought her to the hospital. 25. You have to observe for increase intracranial pressure. Which of the following is not a sign of increased intracranial pressure? a. Headache b. Vomiting c. Vertigo d. Changes on the level of consciousness 26. Which of the following drug may be given to reduce increase intracranial pressure? a. Scopalamine b. Lanoxin c. Coumadin d. Mannitol 27. Since she medicated to reduce increased intracranial pressure. What nursing measure must be done to prevent further complication? a. Encourage her to observe bed rest b. Check blood pressure every shift

c. Observe complete best rest d. Measure intake and output 28. In what manner would you be able to assess accurately her motor strength? a. Observe how he talks b. Instruct her to squeeze her hands c. Allowing him to stand alone d. Pricking her skin with pin 29.Which of the following activities would cause her a risk in the increase of intracranial pressure? a. Coughing b. Reading c. Turning d. Sleeping Situation 8 - Basic Psychiatric concepts a nurse should be aware of... 30. Mental experiences, operate on different levels of awareness. The level that best portrays one's attitudes, feelings, and desire is the: a. Conscious b. Unconscious c. Preconscious d. Foreconscious 31. The ability to tolerate frustration is an example of one of the functions of the: a. Id b. Ego c. Superego d. Unconscious 32. In the process of development the individual strives to maintain, protect, and enhance the integrity of the self. This normally accomplished through the use of: a. Affective reactions b. Ritualistic behavior c. Withdrawal patterns d. Defense mechanisms 33. Sublimation is a defense mechanism that helps the individual: a. Act out in a reverse something already one or thought b. Return to an earlier, less mature stage of development c. Exclude fro the conscious things that are psychologically disturbing d. Channel an acceptable sexual desire into socially approved behavior

34. An example of displacement is: a. Imaginative activity to escape reality b. Ignoring unpleasant aspects of reality c. Resisting any demands made by others d. Pent-up emotion directed to other than the primary source Situation 9 - Joan, age 34, is hospitalized because of alcoholism. 35. Joan denied that she has a problem with alcohol. The nurse understands that Joan uses denial for which of the following reasons: a. To reduce her feelings of guilt b. To iive up to others' expectation c. To make her seem more independent d. To make her look better in the eyes of others 36. Joan appears suspicious of others and blames them for her personal problems. The nurse understands the client is using this behavior because which of the following difficulties? a. In telling the truth b. Meeting an ego ideal c. With dependence and independence d. In identifying who is creating the problem 37. When thinking about alcohol and drug abuse, the nurse is aware that:

Situation 10 - Nurse Medie has been encountering schizophrenic and different psychotic disorders. . 40. A male client who has delusions of persecution and auditory hallucination is admitted for psychiatric evaluation after stabbing a friend. Later a nurse on the unit greets the client by saying, "Good evening. How are you?" The client who has been referring to himself as "man," answers, "The man is bad." This is example of: a. Dissociation b. Transference c. Displacement d. Reaction formation 41. A disturb client starts to repeat phrase that others have just said. This type of speech is known as: a. Autism b. Echolalia c. Neologism d. Echopraxia 42. Projection, rationalization, denial, and distortion by hallucinations and delusions are examples of a disturbance in: a. Logic b. Association c. Reality testing d. The thought process 43. The major reasons for treating severe emotional disorders with tranquilizers is to:

a. Most polydrug abusers also abuse alcohol b. Most alcoholics become polydrug abusers c. Addictive individuals tend to use hostile abusive behavior d. An unhappy childhood is a causative factor in many addictions

a. Reduce the neurotic syndrome b. Prevent secondary complication c. Prevent destructiveness by the client d. Make the client more amenable to psychotherapy

38. The most important factor in rehabilitation of a client addicted to alcohol is:

44. The nurse recognizes that dementia of the Alzheimer's type is characterized by :

a. The availability of community resources b. The accepting attitude of the client’s family c. The client's emotional or motivational readiness d. The qualitative level of the client's physical state

a. Aggressive acting out behavior b. Periodic remissions and exacerbations c. Hypoxia of selected areas of brain tissue d. Areas of brain destruction called senile plaques

39. Joan asks if attendance of Alcoholics Anonymous is required. Which of the following would reflect the nurse's reply?

Situation 11 - Aisa, is a 4-year old with severe anemia. She is seen by the nurse in the clinic.

a. "You'll find you need their support." b. "Do you have feelings about going to these meetings?" c. "No its best to wait until you feet you really need them." d. "Yes, because you will learn how to cope with your problem."

45. In addition to weakness and fatigue, which of the following problems should the nurse expect Aisa to exhibit? a. Cold, clammy skin b. Increased pulse rate c. Elevated blood pressure d. Cyanosis of the nail beds

46. Which of the following problems associated with anemia best explains why Aisa becomes dizzy during periods of physical activity? a. An inflammation of the inner ear b. Insufficient cerebral oxygenation c. A sudden drop in blood pressure d. Decreased level of serum glucose 47. Aisa is to receive a liquid iron preparation. Which of the following directions would be appropriate for the nurse to teach Aisa's mother? a. Administer this at least an hour before meals b. Explain that loose stools are common with iron c. Have Aisa take the diluted iron preparation through a straw d. Avoid giving Aisa orange or other citric juices with the iron preparation 48. Aisa is to have blood transfusion. Which of the following problems is most likely associated with blood transfusion? a. Serum hepatitis b. Allergic response c. Pulmonary edema d. Hemolytic reaction Situation 12 - Eric Pineda is admitted to hospital to have his urethra dilated by the physician. A urinary retention catheter is inserted following the procedure. 49. A routine urinalysis is ordered for Mr. Pineda. If the specimen cannot be sent immediately to the laboratory, the nurse should: a. Take no special action b. Refrigerate the specimen c. Store on dry side of utility room d. Discard and collect a new specimen later 50. The nurse understands that the structure that encircles the male urethra is the: a. Epididymis b. Prostate gland c. Seminal vesicle d. Bulbourethral gland 51. The nurse can best prevent the contamination from Mr. Pineda's retention catheter by: a. Perineal cleansing b. Encouraging fluids c. Irrigating the catheter d. Cleansing around the meatus periodically

52. When Mr. Pineda, who has urinary retention catheter in place, complaints of discomfort in the bladder and urethra the nurse should first: a. Notify the physician b. Milk the tubing gently c. Check the patency of the catheter d. Irrigate the catheter with prescribed solutions 53. Mr. Pineda experiences difficulty in voiding after his indwelling urinary catheter is removed. This is probably related to: a. Fluid imbalance b. Mr. Pineda's recent sedentary lifestyle c. An interruption in normal voiding habits d. Nervous tension following the procedure Situation 13 - Helen Alcantara is admitted to hospital with complaints of hematuria, frequency, urgency, and dysuria. 54. Mrs. Alcantara's signs and symptoms would most likely be associated with: a. Pyelitis b. Cystitis c. Nephrosis d. Pyelonephritis 55. Mrs. Alcantara has a higher risk of developing cystitis than does a male. This is due to: a. Altered urinary pH b. Hormonal secretions c. Position of the bladder d. Proximity of the urethra and anus 56. The family of an elderly, aphasic client complain that the nurse failed to obtain a signed consent before insertion of indwelling catheter to measure hourly output. This is an example of: a. A catheter inserted for the client's benefit b. A treatment that does not need a separate consent form c. Treatment without consent of the client, which is an invasion of rights d. Inability to obtain consent for treatment because the client was aphasic 57. When caring for a client with continuous bladder irrigation, the nurse should: a. Monitor urinary specific gravity b. Record urinary output every hour c. Subtract irrigant from output to determine urine volume d. Include irrigating solution in any 24 hour urine tests order

58. When urinary catheter is removed, the client is unable to empty the bladder. A drug is used to relieve urine retention is: a. Carbachol injection b. Neosporin GU irrigant c. Bethanecol (Urecholine) d. Pilocarpine hydrochloride (Pilocar) Situation 14 - Arman Adriatico is admitted to hospital with extensive carcinoma of the descending portion of the colon with metastasis to the lymph nodes. 59. The operative procedure that would probably be perform to Mr. Adriatico is a (an): a. lleostomy b. Colectomy c. Colostomy d. Cecostomy

64. A nurse finds Mr. Gabatan under the wreckage of the car. He is conscious, breathing satisfactorily, and lying on the back complaining of pain in the back and an inability to move his legs. The nurse should first: a. Leave Mr. Gabatan lying on his back with instructions to move and then go seek additional help b. Gently raise Mr. Gabatan to a sitting position to see if the pain either c. Roll Mr. Gabatan on his abdomen, place, a pad under his head, and cover him with any material available d. Gently lift Mr. Gavatan into a flat piece of lumber and using any available transportation, rush him to the nearest medical institution 65. Once admitted to hospital the physician indicates that Mr. Gubatan is a paraplegic. The family asks the nurse what that means. The nurse explains that:

60. The primary step toward long-range goals in Mr. Adriatico's rehabilitation involves his:

a. Upper extremities are paralyzed b. Lower extremities are paralyzed c. One side of the body is paralyzed d. Both lower and upper extremities are paralyzed

a. Mastery of techniques of ostomy care b. Readiness to accept an altered body function c. Awareness of available community resources d. Knowledge of the necessary dietary modifications

66. The nurse recognizes that the major early problem for Mr. Gabatan will be:

61. When teaching Mr. Adriatico to care for a new stoma, the nurse should advice him that irrigations be done at the same time every day. The time selected should:

a. Bladder control b. Client education c. Quadriceps setting d. Use of aids for ambulation

a. Be appropriate hour before breakfast b. Provide ample uninterrupted bathroom use at home c. Approximate Mr. Adratico's usual daily time for elimination d. Be about halfway between the two largest meals of the day

67. The nurse should expect Mr. Gabatan to have some spasticity of the lower extremities. To prevent the development of contractures, careful consideration must be given to:

62. When performing the colostomy irrigation, the nurse inserts the catheter into the stoma:

a. Active exercise b. Deep massage c. Use of tilt board d. Proper positioning

a. 5cm b.10cm c.15cm d.20cm 63.Mr. Adriatico should follow a diet that is: a. Rich in protein b. Low in fiber content c. High in carbohydrate d. As close to normal possible Situation 15 - Richard Gabatan, a 32-year-old car salesman, suffered a spinal cord injury in a motor vehicle accident resulting to paraplegia.

68. Rehabilitation plans for Mr. Gabatan; a. Should be left up to Mr. Gabatan and his family b. Should be considered and planned for early in his care c. Are not necessary, because he will return to former activities d. Are not necessary, because he will probably not able to work again Situation 16- Karen Boltron, age 16, is withdrawn and non communicative. She spends most of her time lying on her bed.

69. Which nursing intervention would be the most appropriate way to help Karen accept the realities of daily living? a. Assist her to care for personal hygiene needs b. Encourage her to keep up with school studies c. Encourage her to join the other clients in group singing d. Leave her alone when these appears to be a disinterest in the activities at hand 70. Which is the best plan of nursing intervention to encourage Karen to talk: a. Try to get her discuss feelings b. Focus oh non threatening subjects c. Ask simple questions that require answers d. Sit and look magazines with her 71. Which of the following is an important aspect of nursing intervention when caring for Karen? a. Help keep her oriented to reality b. Involve her in activities throughout the day c. Encourage her to discuss why mixing with other people is avoided d. Help her understand that it is harmful to withdraw from situations 72. One day Karen suddenly walks up to the nurse and shouts. "You think you're so damned perfect ad good. i think you stink," Which response should the nurse make? a. "You seem angry with me." b. "Stink? I don't understand." c. "Boy, you're in a bad mood." d. "I can't be all that bad, can I?" 73. On being discharged, a client with psychiatric problems should be encouraged to: a. Go back to regular activities b. Call the unit whenever upset c. Continue in an after care situation d. Find a group that has similar problem Situation 17 - Danny Dasigao, age 63, has an obsessivecompulsive behavior disorder. He believes that the doorknobs are contaminated and refuses to touch them except with the tissue. 74. Which intervention should the nurse make when dealing with Danny's fear of doorknobs? a. Supply rim with paper tissue to help him function until his anxiety is reduced b. Explain to him that this idea about doorknob is part of his illness and is not necessary

c. Encourage him to scrub the doorknobs with a strong antiseptic so he does not need to use tissues d. Encourage him to touch doorknobs by removing all available paper tissue until he learns to deal with the situation 75. Which stimulus is possibly motivating Danny to use paper towels to open doors? a. He is using the method to punish himself b. He is listening to voices telling him that the doorknobs are unclean c. He wants to unconsciously control unacceptable impulses or feelings d. He has a need to punish others by carrying out an annoying procedure 76. Which action by the nurse would most likely decrease Danny's anxiety? a. Explore with him the nature of his anxiety b. Stimulate him to express his ritualistic actions regularly c. Encourage him to participate in his therapeutic plan of care d. Provide him with an environment that is both supportive and non-opinionated 77. Which intervention should be included in Danny's initial treatment plan? a. Deny his time for the ritualistic behavior b. Give a schedule for the ritualistic behavior c. Determine the purpose of the ritualistic behavior d. Suggest a symptom substitution technique to refocus the behavior 78. The most appropriate way to decrease a clients anxiety is by: a. Avoiding unpleasant objects and events b. Prolonged exposure to fearful situation c. Acquiring skills with which to face stressful events d. Introducing an element of pleasure into fearful situations Situation 18 - Jennifer Yadao, age 16, is admitted with the diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. She has lost 10 kg in 5 weeks. She is very thin but excessively concerned about being overweight. Her daily intake is 10 cups of coffee. 79. Which nursing intervention should the nurse initially perform for Jennifer? a. Explain the value of good nutrition b. Compliment her on her lovely figure c. Try to establish a relationship of trust d. Explore the reasons why she does not eat 80. Which stimulus is the most likely cause of Jennifer's disorder?

a. Allow self-esteem b. Feelings of unworthiness c. Anger directed at the parents d. An unconscious fear of growing up 81 Jenifer is to be placed on behavior modification. Which is appropriate to include in the nursing care plan? a. Remind frequently the client to eat all the food served on the tray b. Increase phone calls allowed the client by or a per day for each pound gained c. Include the family with the client in therapy sessions two times per week d. Weigh the client each day at 6:00 A.M. in hospital gown and slippers after she voids 82. Another patient, Kara, 17 years old, is also diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. You have been assigned to sit with her while she eats her dinner. Kara says to you, "My primary nurse trusts me. I don't see why you don't." Your best response is: a. "I do trust you, but S was assigned to be with you." b. "It sounds as if you are manipulating me." c. "OK. When S return, you should have eaten everything." d. "Who is your primary nurse." 83. Which observation of the client with anorexia indicates that the client is improving? a. The client eats meals in the dining room b. The client gains one pound per week c. The client attends group therapy sessions d. The client has a more realistic self-control Situation 19 - Mr. Pascua is pacing about the unit and wringing his hands. He is breathing rapidly and complains of palpitations and nausea and he has difficulty focusing on what the nurse is saying. • 84. Mr. Pascua is experiencing a high degree of anxiety. It is important to recognize if additional help is required because: a. If the client is out of control, another person will help to decrease his anxiety level b. Being alone with an anxious client is dangerous c. It will take another person to direct the client into activities to relieve anxiety d. Hospital protocol for handling anxious clients requires at least two people 85. He says he is having a heart attack but refuses to rest. The nurse would be Interpret his level of anxiety as: a. Mild b. Moderate

c. Severe d. Panic 86.What should the nurse include in the care plan to Mr. Pascua when he is having a panic attack? a. Calm reassurance, deep breathing and modication as ordered b. Teach Mr. Pascua problem solving in relation to his anxiety c. Expiam the physiologic responses of anxiety d. Explore alternate methods for dealing with the cause of his anxiety Situation 20 - Joel is a toddler who has classical hemophilia. 87. Which of the following statements is true regarding Joel's disorder? a. Hemophilia is an autosomal dominant disorder in which the woman carries the trait b. Hemophilia follows regular laws of Mendelian inherited disorders such as sickle ceil anemia c. This disorder can be carried by either male or female but occurs in the sex opposite that of the carrier d. Hemophilia is an X-linked disorder in which the mother is usually the carrier of the illness but is not affected by it 88. Joel has some internal bleeding. At which of the following sites is the most common for the child with hemophilia to bleed? a. Joints b. Intestines c. Cerebrum d. Ends of the log bones 89. Which of the following blood products is most likely to be given to Joel? a. Albumin b. Fresh frozen plasma c. Factor VIII concentrate d. Factor II, Vll, IX, X complex 90. Joel's parents ask if-their other children will be affected by the disorder. Which of the following statements should guide the nurse in her response? a. All the girls will be normal and the other son a carrier b. All the girls will be carriers and one half the boys will be affected c. Each son has a chance of being affected and each daughter a 50% chance of being a carrier d. Each son has 50% chance of being affected or a carrier, and the girls will be all carriers.

91. A child is to receive a blood transfusion, if an allergic reaction to the blood occurs, the nurse's first intervention should be: a. Call the physician b. Slow the flow rate c. Stop the blood immediately d. Relieved the symptoms with an ordered antihistamines Situation 19 - Mr. Villa who was admitted to the respiratory floor with COPD. The nurse finds him extremely restless, incoherent, and showing signs of acute respiratory distress. He Is using accessory muscles for breathing and Is diaphoretic and cyanotic. 92. The best initial action by the nurse is to: a. Administered oxygen as ordered b. Assess vital signs and neural vital signs c. Administered medication which has been ordered for pain d. Call respiratory therapy for a prescribed ABG (arterial blood gas) analysis 93. An order is written for oxygen by nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute. Which assessment is most useful in assessing the adequacy of the oxygen therapy? a. Respiratory rate b. Color of mucus membranes c. Pulmonary function tests d. Arterial blood gases 94. Mr. Villa needs frequent monitoring of arterial blood gases. Following the drawing of arterial blood gasses it is essential for the nurse to do which of the following? a. Encourage the client to cough an deep breath b. Apply pressure to the puncture site for 5 minutes c. Shake the vial of blood before transporting it to the lab d. Keep the client on bed rest for 2 hours 95. The nurse is interpreting the results of a blood gas analysis performed on an adult client. The value include pH of 7.35, pC02 of 60, HC03 of 35. and 02 of 60. Which interpretation is most accurate? a. The client is in metabolic acidosis b. The client is in compensated metabolic alkalosis c. The client is in respiratory alkalosis d. The client is in compensated respiratory acidosis Situation 20 - The nurse is assigned in a counseling clinic about preventive measures for cancers. 96. Cancer is the second major cause of death in this country. What is the first step toward effective cancer control?

a. Increasing governmental control of potential carcinogens b. Changing habits and customs that predispose the individual to cancer c. Conducting more mass screening programs d. Educating public and professional people about cancer 97. In order to educate clients, the nurse should understand that the most common site of cancer for a female is the: a. Uterine cervix b. Uterine body c. Vagina d. Fallopian tube 98.A client has just completed a course in radiation therapy and is experiencing radio-dermatitis. The most effective method of treating the skin is to: a. Wash the area with soap and warm water b. Apply a cream or lotion to the area c. Leave the skin alone until it is clear d. Avoid applying creams or lotion to the area 99.A client with cancer that has metastazised to the liver is started on chemotherapy- His physician has specified divided doses of the antimetabolite. The client asks why he could take the drug in divided doses. The appropriate response is: a. " There really is no reason your doctor just wrote the orders that way." b. "This schedule will reduce the side effect of the drug." c. "Divided doses produce greater cytotoxic effects on the diseased cells." d. "Because these drugs prevent cell division, they are more effective in divided doses," 100. A client has possible malignancy of the colon, and surgery is scheduled. The rationale for administering Neomycin preoperatively is to: a. Prevent infection postoperatively b. Eliminate the need for preoperative enemas c. Decreased and retard the growth of normal bacteria in the intestines d. Treat cancer of the colon

NURSING BOARD EXAM PRACTICE TEST 2 1. When can trained hilot attend to a delivery? a. When at a time of delivery, no licensed personnel trained on maternal care is around b. When the patient is living in a remote area c. When the worker is considered to have a high risk pregnancy d. The mother requested the hilot to attend to the delivery 2. What mineral supplement is given to a pregnant woman in the third trimester of pregnancy?

a. Paracetamol b. Cytoxan c. Terbutahe d. Calcium Lactate 8. Which can be given to a patient with hyperemesis gravidarum to relieve the signs & symptoms? a. Have the patient eat crackers before rising from the bed in the morning b. Offer water with meals c. Let the patient choose what she feels like eating d. Let the patient stay on bed until the feelings of nausea subsides.

a. Vit.C b. Fe c. Ca d. FolicAcid

9. When can you inform an adopted child that he/she is adopted?

3. The following are benefits of breastfeeding to the infant except:

a. When he/she asks where he/she came from. b. Wait until the child reaches age of majority. c. When he/she shows interest in story telling. d. Watery and greenish

a. Provides a nutritionally complete food for the young infant b. Strengthens the infants immune system, preventing many infections c. Reduces the infant's exposure to infection d. Provides a natural method of delaying pregnancies

10. A new mother asks the nurse to describe the normal stool pattern of a breast-fed neonate. The nurse correctly describe the stool as being:

4. Perception of a toddler about illness is: a. Life threatening b. Punishment for wrong doings c. A necessary part of life d. The will of god 5. Most common manifestation of Anemia a. Weight loss b. Fatigue c. Ahorexia d. Poor digestion

a. Watery and golden yellow b. Pasty and yellow c. Thick, black, and odories d. Watery and greenish brown 11. For immunization of pregnant women, which tetanus toxoid is given as early as possible during pregnancy? a. TT3 b. TT4 c. TT1 d. TT2

6. The following are needs of infants

12. A woman uses a diaphragm as contraceptive. You would instruct her to return to the clinic to have hem diaphragm fit checked after which of the following circumstances?

I. Comfort II. Sleep III. Stimulation IV. Modern paraphernalia

a. Cervical infection b. A weight gain of 20 pounds c. A vaginal infection d. Six n-onths of non-use

a. I, III, IV b. I, II, IV c. II, III, IV d. I, II, III

13. When a woman uses a vaginal spermicide, which of the following techniques should she use?

7. Which drug is not contraindicated to a patient in a first trimester of pregnancy.

a. Coitus should be followed by a douche within 6 hours b. Insert the product by applicator no more than 1 hour prior to coitus c. Keep a feminine hygiene product available to use in case her supply of spermicide runs out

d. Place the product near the vaginal orifice for immediate contact instead of back of the vagina. 14. The hormone that is secreted by the corpus luteum and prepares the endometrium implantation is: a. Estrogen b. Luteinizing c. Progestorene d. Prostaglandin 15. Which hormone causes spinnbarkeit and ferning to occur? a. FS H b. Gn RH c. Progesterone d. Estrogen 16.The pregnant patient is in her third month when she makes her second prenatal visit. She asks the nurse "what is happening right now in the development of the baby?" The nurse answer: a. "The heart is beginning to pump bloods." b. "The brain is dividing into section," c. "Lanugo and vernix caseosa are forming to protect the embryo." d. "The embryo is becoming a fetus and sex is determined." 17.A new patient states, "I must be about four months pregnant. I cannot remember exactly my last menstrual period, but I have been feeling the baby kicking for 3 to 4 weeks now." Upon auscultation the nurse hears fetal heart sounds. The nurse stales that this assessment indicates: a. "You are not quite four months." b. "You are in your fifth months." c. "You may be six months along." d. "You are probably seven months pregnant." 18. The nurse is doing an initial assessment with the pregnant patient who states that she is a strict vegetarian. What vitamin supplement should be recommended? a. A b. C c. D d. B12 19.The best method to prevent hemorrhage after caesarian birth is to: a. Provide regular analgesics to enhance urination b. Reposition the woman from side to side c. Observe vital signs for falling blood pressure d. Assess the uterine fundus regularly for firmness

20.When teaching the postpartum woman about peripads, the nurse should tell her that: a. She can change tampons when the initial perineal soreness goes away b. Pads having cold packs within them, usually hold more lochia than regular pads c. Blood-soaked pads must be returned in a plastic bag to the hospital after discharge d. The pads should be' applied and removed in a front-to-back direction 21 .To prevent breast engorgement, the nurse should teach the non-lactating postpartum woman to: a. Maintain loose-fitting clothing over her breast b. Pump the breast briefly if they become painful c. Limit fluid intake to suppress milk production d. Wear a well-fitting bra or breast binder constantly 22. The woman who has just completed her 13th weeks of pregnancy comes in for her monthly visit. The nurse expresses concern regarding the weight gain. The patient asks, 'Well, how much weight should I have gained by now? The answer is: a. "About 10lbs." b. “Not more than 2 to 3 Ibs.” c. "Not more than 10 Ibs." d. "No weight gain is expected this soon." 23. The pregnant patient asks the nurse when she should start breastfeeding. The nurse replies: a. "When your milk comes down." b. "As soon as possible after delivery." ' c. "In two or three days when you are feeling better." d. "I do not recommend breast-feeding." 24.The patient is being administered oxytocin at 14 mi U/min. At what point would the nurse DC the infusion. a. If the patient is not going into labor b. If the patient is in too much pain c. Contractions lasting more than 40 seconds d. Contractions lasting more than 6 seconds 25. In explaining the pattern of discharge following delivery, the nurse explains than lochia will be heavier. a. in the morning b. at night c. as lochia cessation nears d. toward the end of lactation 26. Choose correct pre-operative teaching before planned

caesarian birth. a. Oral intake will be limited to clear fluids for 12 hours before surgery b. Intravenous fluids are usually continued for two days after birth c. The woman will be asked to take deep breaths and cough regularly after birth. d. The nurse will help her ambulate to the restroom to urine within 4 hours of birth. 27. Twelve hours after birth, a mother a lies in bed resting although she will be discharged in another 12 hours, she does not ask about her baby provide any care. What is the probable reason for her behavior? a. She is still in the taking in phase maternal adaptation b. She shows behaviors that may lead to postpartum depression c. She is still affected by medications given during labor d. She may be dissatisfied with some aspect of the new born 28.A newborn is rooming in with his teenage mother, who is watching TV. The nurse notes that the baby is awake and quite. a. Pick the baby up and point out his behaviors to the mother b. Tell the mother to pick up her baby and talk with him while he is awake c. Focus care on the mother, rather than the infant so that she can recuperate d. Encourage the mother to feed the infant before he begin crying

c. A toxic shock syndrome is more likely to occur when the pill is used d. Increase fluids if urinary frequency or urgency occurs 32. The intrauterine device is an appropriate contraceptive for the woman who: a. Has unplanned intercourse with several partners b. Was recently hospitalized for treatment of a pelvic infection c. Is in mutually monogamous relationship d. Has had two ectopic pregnancies 33. The woman who is receiving methorexate for an ectopic pregnancy should be cautioned to avoid: a. Driving or operating machinery b. Eating raw vegetables or fruits c. Using latex condoms for intercourse d. Taking vitamin with folic acid 34.To reduce the risk for toxic shock syndrome, women should be taught to: a. Avoid changing tampons until they are thoroughly saturated b. Use a diaphragm with spermicidal jelly during the menstrual period c. Wash hand thoroughly before inserting a tampon or diaphragm into the vagina d. Limit the use of super absorbent tampons to the times when the flow is heavy 35. Cervical mucus at ovulation should be:

29. A woman is considering having a tubal ligation after she giyes birth to her second child. The nurse should counsel her that: a. She should breast feed until several months after birth to be certain that the infant is healthy b. The procedure should be considered permanent and irreversible c. Steralization is an easier procedure to perform after the postpartum period 30. How should a woman take oral contraceptives? a. On an empty stomach with a full glass of water b. At about the same time each day c. Before every episode of intercourse d. In the morning and at bed time 31. Choose the safety teaching related oral contraceptives? a. A barrier method should also be used to protect from infection b. Nausea suggests that stroke may be imminent

a. Thin, slippery, and should stretch to at least 6 centimeter b. Cloudy, with a mild odor, and should stretch to at least 6 centimeter c. Thick, clear, and of a large quantity d. Thin and tinged with a small of blood 36. An ovulation, the basal body temperature usually: a. Rises abruptly and then falls after 1 or 2 days b. Falls and remains low for the last half of the cycle. c. Is higher during the first half of the cycle than in the last half d. Falls slightly at ovulation and is higher during the last half of the cycle 37. The goals of maternal and child health nursing are: I. That every child lives and grows up in a family unit with love and security II. To ensure that every that every expected and nursing mother maintain good health. III. To ensure that every mother has a normal delivery and

bears healthy children. IV. To achieve healthy sexual development and maturation. a. I, II, III b. I, III, IV c. I, II, IV d. II, III, IV

IV. Cephalic presentation a. I, II, III b. I, III, IV c. II, III, IV d. I, II IV

38. Based on the DOH program, a mother should have at least how many prenatal visits during preqnancy?

44. A home delivery hit should contain a complete set of gadgets needed during delivery. Which of the following is optional?

a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 12

a. suction bulk b. boiled razor blade c. pair of scissors d. clean towel

39. A standard prenatal physical examination per visit should be performed. Which of the following is not included in the routine examination?

45. This provide a valuable index for evaluation of the newborn infant’s condition at birth:

a. BP . b. Height c. Lymph nodes d. conjunctive of the eyes 40. In goiter endemic areas, all pregnant women shall be given one iodized oil capsule every: . a. 6 months b. 1 year c. 3 months d. 4 months 41. In the care of "high risk" pregnant women, "tagging" the prenatal record means: a. Placing a name tag around patients wrist. b. Assigning the mother under "high risk" group c. Writing the letters "HR" in red ink against the entry in the prenatal register d. Writing the name of the patient in red ink in the prenatal register 42. In areas where licensed heath personnel are not available, who shall be trained to regular prenatal visits using the Home Based mother's Record to identify danger signs: a. Midwife b. Trained hilots c. Rural Health Nurse d. Barangay officials

a. APGAR score b. Muscle tone c. Respiratory effort d. Heart rate 46.The major cause of maternal deaths is: a. prolonged labors b. exhaustion c. hemorrhage d. infection 47. When giving a nursing care to a mother after delivery, the following should be checked, except: a. uterus is contracted and hard b. BP, and pulse rate is normal c. Placenta must be complately expelled d. Milk production is adequate 48. Which of the following are risk factors for pregnancy? I. age-under 18 y.o. ll. height-less than 145 cm tall lII. 4th pregnancy IV. History of previous caesarian section a. I, II, III b. I, III, IV c. I, II, IV d. II, III, IV 49. Any abnormally detected during physical examination of the newborn should be reported to the physician. This should include:

43. The following are qualified for home.delivery: I. full term II. more than 4 pregnancies III. Adequate pelvis

a. head circumference 34 cm b. weight- 2,350 cms c. chest circumference- 33 cm d. length – 49.5 cm

50. This law requires compulsory immunization against hepatitis B for infants and children below eight (8) years old. a. P.D. 996 b. RA 7846 c. Presidential Proclamation No. 1066 d. P.D. 651 51. Which of the following immunization can be given any time after birth? a. BCG b. DPT c. OPV d. Measles 52. When assessing a 3 month old infant . Which of the following will you expect to find? I. Smiles spontaneously II. Rotate the head from side to side III. Sits without support IV. briefly holds toy in hand a. I, II, III b. I, III, IV c. II, III, IV d. I, II, IV 53.The following are strategies used for the attainment of goals of the DOH Dental health program, except: a. Social mobilization b. Networking with other services c. Monitoring feedback d. Home visits 54. This project will be a continuous solicitation of donation for new kiddie toothbrushes: a. 2 year care program, b. Orientation Training on Comprehensive dental health program c. "Sang Milyong Sipilyo Project" d. Dental Health Services Clinic 55. A mother together with her 3 year old daughter came to the Dental Health clinic for check up. Which of the following is not one of the direct services offered by the Dental Health Program. a. Dental curative Program b. Oral Habilitation and Rehabilitation Program c. Training Program d. Dental Preventive Program

56. When assessing a.neonate a few hours after birth, the nurse notes an edematous area over the pariental are that does not cross the sagittal suture line, This is most likely indiates a. caput succedaneum b. cranlosyntostosis c. cranlotables d. cephalhematoma 57. Mrs. P. has finished feeding her 5-day old neonate but is having difficulty burping him. Which instructions should the nnurse give her? a. "Give him water and hold him on his side" b. "Hold him upright against your shoulder and pat his back" c. Give his pacifier and hold im face down" d. Hold him with his head slightly elevated and rub his stomach" 58. Which is the most reliable early indicator of neonated infection? a. An elevated temperature b. A change in feeding pattern c. A palpable mass d. Excessive mucos 59. When bathing a newborn, the nurse should be especially careful to: a. Avoid cleaning his umbilical cord stump b. Immerse him in warm water only c. Wash his scalp every day d. Keep him warm 60 A mother asks the nurse about scheduling her daughter for routine immunizations. At which age should her baby receive her initial dose of the diptheria - pertussis - tetanus vaccine? a. 1 month b. 2 months c. 4 months d. 6 months 61. A decrease in the baseline FHR may be caused by all of the following factors except: a. Fetal sleep b. Fetal hypoxia c. Maternal drug administration d. Maternal fever 62. Which assessment findng is not a contraindication for using tocolytic agent to manage preterm labor? a. Active vaginal bleeding

b. fetal distress c. Cervical dilatation of 2 to 3 cm d. Cervical dilatation of 4 to 5 cm

d. Right lower quadrant

63. Which assesement finding indicates hypoglycemia in a neonate?

a. Lie is longitudinal and the fetal occiput is directed toward the left posterior portion of the maternal pelvis b. Lie is transverse and the fetal mentum is directed toward the left posterior portion of the maternal pelvis c. Lie is longitudinal and the fetal occiput is directed toward the left anterior portion of the maternal pelvis. d. Lie is oblique and the fetal anterior fontanel is directed toward the left posterior portion of the maternal pelvis

a. Tremors b. Projectile vomiting c. Diarrhea d. jaundice

68.The LOA position means that the:

64. Which adverse effect may occur in a patient receiving bromocriptine mesylate (parlodel) to prevent postpartal lactation?

69. Which assessment finding would necessitate bedrest for Mrs. Og?

a. Hypotension b. Tachycardia c. Bradycardia d. Breast engorgement

a. 5cm cervical dilation b. 80% cervical effacement c. Contractions every 5 to 8 minutes d. 3 station

65. Mrs Bugna, a 25 year old has missed 2 menstrual periods and is making her initial visit to the antepartal clicnic. Her last mentrual period began on June 3. Using the nagele's rule, the nurse would calculate her expected date of delivery as:

70. The fetal monitor strip shows an FHR deceleration occurring during the increment of the contraction, reaching its lowest point at the acme of the contraction, and returning to the baseline during the decrement of the contraction. This type of deceleration:

a. April 3 b. March 24 c. March 10 d. February 24

a. indicates fetal distress b. Is caused by uteroplacental insufficiency c. Indicates fetal vagal nerve stimulation d. is caused by umbilical cord compression

(Questions to 66 to 72 refer to this situaltion) 71.When should the nurse assess Mrs. Og's blood pressure? Situation: Mrs Og gravida 2 para 1 is accompanied to the labor and delivery are by her husband. Both have attended lamaze classes. Initial assessment reveals cervical dilation of 5 cm. Cervical assessment 80% station, -3; duration of contractions, 40 to 50 seconds; frequency of contractions 5 to 8 minutes; membranes ruptured spontaneousely 1 hour before admission; presentation vertex and possition left occiput anterior (LOA). Mrs Og, is connected to an external fetal monitor; 66. Based on the initial assessment findings, the fetal presenting part is: a. At the level of the pelvic inlet b. At the level of the ischial spines c. 1 cm below the iscial spines d. At the perineum 67. The fetal heart rate should be most audible in which dominant quadrant? a. Left upper quadrant b. Left lower quadrant c. Right upper quadrant

a. During the Increment of a contraction b. Between contractions c. During the decrement of a contraction d. During the acme of a contraction 72.Which factor would be most helpful in assessing the adequacy of placentas perfusion in Mrs Og? a. The duration and intensity of her contractions b. Her ability to cope with the discomfort of labor c. The duration of the rest phases between contractions d. The effectiveness of her breathing techniques during a contraction 73. A nurse is demonstrating cord care to a mother of a neonate. Which actions would the nurse teach the mother to perform? I. Keep the diaper below the cord II. Tug gently on the cord as it begins to dry III. Only sponge bath the infant until the cord fails off IV. Apply antibiotic ointment to the cord twice daily

a. I, II b. I, III c. I, IV d. II, III

a. Abruptio placenta b. Cephalhematoma c. Pathologic jaundice d. Compression of the cord

74. A nurse is caring for a 3-year-old with viral meningitis. Which signs and symptoms would the nurse expect to find during the initial assessment?

81 .The nurse reaches the client that gonorrhea is highly infectious and:

a. Bulging anterior fontanel, fever, nuchal rigidity b. Fever, nuchal rigidity, petechiae c. Hypothermia, photophobia, irritability d. Fever, nuchal rigidity, photophobia

a. is easily cured b. Occurs very rarely c. Can produce sterility d. Is limited to the external genitalia

75.The nurse teaches that the most frequent side effect associated with the use of IUDs is:

82. When the client is diagnosed as having gonorrhea, the nurse should expect the physician to order:

a. ectopic pregnancy b. Expulsion of the IUD c. Rupture of the uterus d. Excessive menstrual flow

a. Colistin b. Ceftriaxone c. Actinomycin d. Chloramphenicol

76.A client seeking advice about contraception asks the nurse about an IUD. The nurse explains that the IUD provides contraception by:

83. The nurse understands that the organism that causes a trichomonal infection is a:

a. Blocking the cervical os b. Increasing the mobility of the uterus c. Preventing the sperm from reaching the vagina d. IUDs interfere with either fertilization or implantation. Promoting contraception 77. A diagnostic test used to evaluate the fertility is the post coital test. It is best timed: a. 1 week after ovulation b. Immediately after menses c. Just before the next menstrual period d. With in 1 to 2 days of presumed ovulation 78. One of the most common causes of hypotonic uterine dystocia is: a. Twin gestation b. Maternal anemia c. Pelvic contracture d. Pregnancy-induced hypertension

a. Yeast b. Fungus c. Protozoan d. Spirochete 84. Tile oral drug that is most likely to be prescribed for treatment of Trichomonas vaginalis is: a. Penicillin b. Gentian violet c. Nystatin (Mycostatin) d. Metronidazole (Flagyl) 85. Acute salpingitis is most commonly the result of: a. Syphilis b. Abortion c. Gonorrhea d. Dydatidiform mole 86. Syphilis is not considered contagious in the:

79. The safest position for the woman in labor when the nurse notes a prolapsed cord is:

a. Tertiary stage b. Primary stage c. incubation stage d. Secondary stage

a. Prone b. Fowlers c. Lithotomy d. Trendeirnburg

87. When teaching a client about the drug therapy for gonorrhea, the nurse should state that it:

80. A birth hazard associated with breech delivery may be:

a. Cures the Infection b. Prevents complications

c. Controls its transmission d. Reverses pathologic changes 88. With cancer of the prostate, it is possible to follow the course of the disease by , monitoring the serum level of: a. Creatinine b. Blood urea nitrogen c. Non protein nitrogen d. Prostate specific antigen 89. A client is diagnosed with herpes genitalis. To prevent cross contammiation, the nurse should: a. Institute droplet precautions b. Arrange transfer to a private room c. Wear a gown and gloves when giving direct care d. Close the door and wear a mask when in the room 90. A nurse should be aware that benign prostatic hypertrophy: a. is a congenital abnormality b. Usually becomes malignant c. Predispose to hydronephrosis d. Causes an eievated acid phosphatase

b. Anterior fontanel c. Pupillary reaction d. Lower extremities 95. If monocular strabismus in children is not corrected early enough: a. Dyslexia will develop b. Peripheral vision will disappear c. Amblyopia develops in the weak eye d. Vision in both eyes will be diminished 96. Chickenpox can sometimes be fatal to children who are receiving: a. Insulin b. Steroids c. Antibiotics d. Anticonvulsant 97. A viral Infection characterized by a red blotchy rash and Koplik's spots in the mouth is: a. Mumps b. Rubella c. Rubeola d. Chickenpox

91. A 4-year-old has a seizure disorder and has been taking phenytoin(Dilantin) for 3 years. An important nursing measure for the child would be to:

98.The major influence of eating habits of the early schoolaged child is:

a. Offer the urinal frequently b. Check for pupilary reaction c. Observe for flushing of the face d. Administer scrupulous oral hygiene

a. Availabilitv of food selections b. Smell and appearance of food c. Example of parents at meal time d. Food preferences of the peer group

92. In terms of preventive teaching for the parents of a 1year-old, the nurse would speak to them about:

99. Nursing care for an infant after the surgical repair of a cleft lip should include:

a. Accidents b. Toilet training c. Adequate nutrition d. Sexual development

a. Keeping the baby NPO b. Keeping the infant from crying c. Placing the infant in a semi-sitting position d. Spoon feeding for the first 2 days after surgery

93. The best choice for between meal nourishment for a preschool-age child with a urinary infection would be:

100. When teaching the parents of an infant diagnosed with PKU, the nurse should plan to include the fact that:

a. Skim milk b. Fresh fruit c. Hard candy d. Creamed soup

a. Mental retardation occurs if PKU is untreated b. Treatment for PKU includes life long medications c. PKU is transmitted by an autosomal dominant gene d. The infant is tested for PKU immediately after delivery

94.When performing a physical assessment of a newborn with Down Syndrome, the nurse should carefully evaluate the infant's: a. Heart sounds

NURSING BOARD EXAM PRACTICE TEST 4 1. An observation consistent with complete-airway obstruction is: a. Loud crowing when attempting to speak b. Inability to cough c. Wheezes on auscultation d. Gradual 2. The nurse assesses the client's home environment for the safe use crutches. Which one of the following would pose the greatest hazard to the client's safe use of crutches at home? a. A 4-year old cocker spaniel b. Scatter rugs c. Snack tables d. Diet high in fat 3. A patient who has kaposis sarcoma has all of the following nursing diagnoses. To which one should the nurse give priority? a. Altered thought processes related to lesions b. Altered with maintenance related to non compliance c. Defensive coping related to loss of boundaries d. Hopelessness, related to inability to control disease process 4. Which of the following statements, if made by a patient who has had a basal cell carcinoma removed, would indicate to the nurse the need for further instruction? a. "I will use sunscreen with at least a sun protection factor (SPF) of 15.” b. "I will use tanning booths rather than sunbathing from now on." c. "I will stay out of the sun between 10:00 AM and 2:00 PM" d. "I will wear a broad - brimmed heat when I am in the sun" 5. A patient who has a diagnosis is metastatic cancer of the kidney is told by the physician that the kidney needs to be removed. The patient asks the nurse. "What should I do?" Which of the following responses by the nurse would be most therapeutic? a. "Let's talk about your options." b. "You need to follow the doctor's advice." c. "What does your family want you to do." d. "I wouldn't have the surgery done without a second opinion. 6. Which of these groups should a nurse target when planning a community education presentation about testicular cancer? a. Day care providers b. Senior citizens c. Middle - aged men

d. High - school students 7. A woman reports all of the following data when giving his history to a nurse. Which one would indicate a risk factor for developing cancer of cervix? a. Diet high in fat b. Exposure to pesticides c. "What does your family want you to do." d. "I wouldn't have the surgery done without a second opinion." 8. A nurse is planning a community education presentation about testicular cancer. The large groups should be men aged: a. 20 to 39 years b. 40 to 49 years c. 50 to 64 years d. 65 years and older 9. A 10-year-old boy who is in the terminal stages of Duchenne muscular dystrophy is being cared for at home. When evaluating for major complications of this disease, a nurse would give priority to assessing which of the following body systems? a. Integumentary b. Neurological c. Respiratory d. Gastrointestinal 10. Which of the following conditions, reported to a nurse by a 20 year old male patient, would indicate a risk for development of testicular cancer? a. Genital Herpes b. Undescended testicle c. Measles d. Hydrocele 11. A client has been diagnosed as having bladder cancer, and a cystectomy and an ileal conduit are scheduled. Preoperatively, the nurse plans to: a. Limit fluid intake for 24 hours b. Teach muscle tightening exercises c. Teach the procedure for irrigation of the stoma d. Provide cleansing enemas and laxatives as ordered 12. To gain access to a vein and an artery, an external shunt may be used for clients who require hemodialysis. The most serious problem with an external shunt is. a. Septicemia b. Clot-formation c. Exsanguination d. Sclerosis of vessels

it is thought to be caused by: 13. A client has been diagnosed as having bladder cancer, and a cystectomy and an ileal conduit are scheduled. Preoperatively, the nurse plans to: a. Limit fluid intake for 24 hours b. Teach the procedure for irrigation of the stoma c. Teach muscle-tightening exercises d. Provide cleansing enemas and laxatives as ordered 14. Intramedullary nailing is used in the treatment of: a. Slipped epiphysis of the femur b. Fracture of shaft of the femur c. Fracture of the neck of the femur d. Intertrochanteric fracture of the femur 15. The nurse should know that, following a fracture of the neck of the femur, the desirable position for the a. Internal rotation with extension of the knee b. Internal rotation with flexion of the knee and hip c. External rotation with flexion of the knee and hip d. External rotation with extension of the knee and hip 16. A client with myasthenia gravis has been receiving Neostigmine (Prostigmin). This drug acts by: a. Stimulating the cerebral cortex b. Blocking the action of cholinesterase c. Replacing deficient neurotransmitters d. Accelerating transmission along neural swaths 17. A client with myasthenia gravis ask the nurse why the disease has occurred. The nurse bases the reply on the knowledge that there is: a. A genetic in the production acetylcholine b. A reduced amount of neurotransmitter acetylcholine c. A decreased number of functioning acetylcholine receptor sites d. An inhibition of the enzyme ACHE leaving the end plates folded 18. A client with an inflamed sciatic nerve is to have a conventional transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) device applied to the painful nerve pathway. When operating the TENS unit the nurse should a. Maintain the same dial setting everyday b. Turn the machine several times a day for 10 to 20 minutes c. Adjust the TENS dial until the client perceives pain relief and comfort d. Apply the color-coded electrodes anywhere it is comfortable for the client 19. Although no cause has been determined for scleroderma,

a. Autoimmunity b. Ocular motility c. Increased amino acid metabolism d. Defective sebaceous gland formation 20. The nurse must help the client with pemphigus vulgaris deal with the resulting: a. Infertility b. Paralysis c. Skin lesions d. Impaired digestion 21. The nurse should explain to the client with psoriasis that treatment usually involves: a. Avoiding exposure to the sum b. Topical application of steroids c. Potassium permanganate baths d. Debridement of necrotic plaques 22. The nurses should assess a client with psoriasis a. Pruritic lesions b. Multiple petechiae c. Shiny, scaly lesions d. Erythematous macules 23. A urine specimen for ketones should be removed from a client's retention catheter by: a. Disconnecting the catheter and draining it into a clean container b. Cleansing the drainage valve and removing it from the catheter bag c. Wiping the catheter with alcohol and draining it into a sterile test tube d. Using a sterile syringe to remove it from clamped, cleansed catheter 24. Following an abdominal cholecystectomy, the nurse should assess for signs of respiratory complications because the: a. Incision is in close proximity to the diaphragm b. Length of time required for surgery is prolonged c. Client's resistance is lowered because of bile in the blood d. Bloodstream is invaded by microorganisms from the biliary tract 25. The nurse assess the client with cholecystitis for the development of obstructive jaundice, which would be evidenced by: a. Inadequate absorption of fat-soluble K

b. Light amber urine, dark brown stools, yellow skin c. Dark-colored urine, clay colored stools, itchy skin d. Straw-colored urine, putty-colored stools, yellow sclerae 26. A client with cholelithiasis experience discomfort after ingesting fatty foods because. a. Fatty foods are hard to digest b. Bile flow into the intestine is obstructed c. The liver is manufacturing inadequate bile d. There is inadequate closure of the Ampulla of Vater 27. The chief complaint in a client with Vincent's Angina is: a. Chest pain b. Shortness of breath c. Shoulder discomfort d. Bleeding oral ulcerations 28. Clients with fractured mandibles usually have them immobilized with wires. The life-threatening problem that can develop postoperatively is: a. Infection b. Vomiting c. Osteomyelitis d. Bronchospasm 29. As a result of fractured ribs, the client may develop: a. Scoliosis b. Paradoxical respiration c. Obstructive lung-disease d. Hernation of the diaphragm 30. A client has a bone marrow aspiration performed, immediately after the procedure, the nurse should: a. Position the client on the affected side b. Begin frequent monitoring of vital signs c. Cleanse the site with an antiseptic solution d. Briefly apply pressure over the aspiration site 31. Following a bilateral lumbar sympathectomy a client has a sudden drop in blood pressure but no. evidence of bleeding. The nurse recognizes that this is most likely caused by: a. An inadequate fluid intake b. The after effects of anesthesia c. A reallocation of the blo6d supply d. An increased level of epinephrine

d. Middle-aged adults 33. A client with full-thickness burns on the chest has a skin graft. During the 1s124 hours after a skin graft, care of the donor site includes immediately reporting. a. Small amount of yellowish green oozing b. A moderate area of serosanguinous oozing c. Epithelialization under the non-adherent dressing d. Separation of the edges of the non-adherent dressing 34. During peritoneal dialysis the nurse observes that drainage of dialysate from the peritoneal cavity has ceased before the required amount has drained out The nurse should assist the client to: a. Turn from side to side b. Drink 8 ounces of water c. Deep breathe and cough d. Periodically rotate the catheter 35. A client has ear surgery. An early response that may be associated with possible damage to the motor branch of the facial nerve is: a. A bitter metallic state b. Dryness of the lips and mouth c. A sensation of pain behind the ear d. An inability to wrinkle the forehead 36. After a prostatectomy, a client complains of painful bladder spasms. To limit these spasms the nurse should: a. Administer a narcotic every 4 hours b. irrigate the Foley catheter with 60 ml of normal saline c. Encourage the client not to contract his muscles as if he were voiding d. Advance the catheter to relieve the pressure against the prostatic fossa 37. After 1 week a client with acute renal failure moves, into the diuretic phase. During this phase the client must be carefully assessed for signs of: a. Hypovolemia b. Hyperkalemia c. Metabolic acidosis d. Chronic renal failure

32. The occurrence of chronic illness is greatest in:

38. The nurse checks for hypocalcemia by placing a blood pressure cuff on a client's arm and inflating it. After about 3 minutes the client develops carpopedial spasm. The nurse records this finding as a positive:

a. Older adult b. Adolescents c. Young children

a. Homan's sign b. Romberg sign c. Chvostek's skin

d. Trosseau's sign 39. A nurse stops at the scene of an accident and finds a man with a deep laceration on his hand, a fractured am and leg, and abdominal pain. The nurse wraps the man's hand in soiled cloth and drives him to the nearest hospital. The nurse is: a. Negligent and can be sued for malpractice b. Practicing under guidelines of the Nurse Practice Act c. Protected for these actions, in most states, buy the Good Samaritan Law d. Treating a health problem that can and should be handled by a physician 40. A client is scheduled for a below-the-knee amputation of the right leg. Legally, the client may not sign the operative consent if: a. Ambivalent feelings regarding operation are present b. Any sedative type of medication has recently been administration c. A discussion of alternative with 2 physicians have not been performed and recorded d. A complete history and physical have not been performed 41. The nurse is assigned to check a client's continuous bladder irrigation. Which one of the following solution is normally used for continuous or intermittent bladder and catheter irrigations? a. Hydrogen peroxide b. Bacteriostatic water c. Sterile normal saline d. Plain water 42. When continuous bladder irrigation is used following prostate surgery, the rate of flow is adjusted: a. To run at 60 drops per minutes b. According to the client's oral intake c. To maintain an output of 500 ml every 8 hours d. To keep the drainage to light pink 43. The nurse is assigned to teach a class in health behaviors to young man. Which of the following can be stated as a probably cause of cancer of the penis?

is cleansed c. The foreskin should not be retracted except by a physician d. The scrotum is carefully washed with sterile normal saline 45. A female nurse is assigned to obtain a history from & client with a urinary tract problem an sexual dysfunction. Which of the following statements might place the client more at ease and willing to give a. history of his problem? a. "When dud you first notice this problem? b. "Why do you think you have a problem?" c. "Do you think you sexual dysfunction is psychological?" d. "Does your sexual dysfunction seem to be related to your urinary tract problem?" 46. A client is scheduled for an ultrasound examination of the prostate. To describe the procedure to the client, the nurse should plan to relate that: a. The procedure is performed using a cystoscope b. A probe will be inserted into the rectum c. A flat disk is placed on the abdomen d. This procedure uses x-rays to produce a visual image 47. To effectively teach men the importance of testicular selfexamination, the nurse should know that testicular carcinoma: a. Rarely metastasizes b. Has a high incidence of early metastasis c. Cannot be detected by laboratory tests d. Must first be biopsied to confirm the diagnosis 48. A nurse is assigned to instruct a client in the method of testicular self-examination. The instruction should include mention that the best time to perform this task is: a. Immediately after getting out of bed in the morning b. Immediately before going to bed c. In the morning after breakfast d. After a warm bath or shower 49. Mr. Dorn has vasectomy. He asks the nurse why he just use a method of birth control because today he, had a sterilization procedure. The most correct answer is:

44. The nurse is assigned to give perineal care to an uncircumcised male client. Which of the following is correct?

a. The sperm count will not be negative until his testosterone level decrease b. Some minor surgery usually is necessary to ensure sterilization c. Some live sperm will be present in the ejaculatory fluid for a period of time d. Even though a vasectomy is performed, a condom is still recommended for 1 to 2 years

a. The anal area is washed at a separate time b. The foreskin is retracted and the area beneath the foreskin

50. A client is scheduled for a cystectomy and asks the nurse what the physician will be able to see during the procedure.

a. A diet high in acidic foods b. Poor personal hygiene c. Exercise d. Circumcision

The most correct reply is the: a. Kidney and ureters b. Bladder and rectum c. Prostate and ureters d. Urethra and bladder 51. Nurse assistant attending a nursing conference hears that one of her clients has hydrocele. She asks the nurse how this condition is treated. The most common response is: a. Usually the problem requires more medical or surgical intervention b. Surgery may be necessary to correct the problem c. Wearing a scrotal support usually corrects She problem d. Drug therapy usually helps control the collection of fluid 52. The nurse is participating in a health class for young women. One subject is cancer of the ovary. Which of the following statements is correct? a. Early symptoms of cancer of the ovary are vague b. This type of cancer has a high cure rate c. Chemotherapy is not used for treating ovarian cancer d. The most prominent early symptoms is an irregular menstrual cycle 53. The nurse is asked to discuss the signs and symptoms of vaginitis caused by the fungus candida albicans with Ms. Barrows. Which one of the following is a usual sign and symptoms of this infection? a. Pain high in the abdomen b. Intensive vaginal and perineal itching c. Decrease in urinary output d. High fever 54. The nurse prepares to give Ms. Edwards a vaginal suppository, which is inserted by means of a special applicator supplied with the drug. Which one of the following is correct? a. Ask the client to void prior to inserting the suppository b. Lubricate the tip of the suppository with petroleum jelly c. Insert the applicator tip gently and with an upward and forward motion d. Insert the applicator approximately ½ inch and depress the plunger 55. The nurse is assigned to give Ms. Milton perineal care. When cleansing the perineum, the cotton ball or wash cloth is gently directed: a. Side to side across the labia majora b. Downward from the pubic area to the anus c. Upward from the anus to the pubic area d. Prom the urinary meatus to the vagina

56. The nurse is assigned to administer a vaginal irrigation (douche). Which of the following is correct? a. The irrigation is best administered with the client standing in a bathtub b. Before inserting, the nozzle is lubricated with petroleum jelly c. The temperature of the solution should be between 80°F and 84°F d. The nozzle is inserted downward and backward within the vagina 57. The nurse is assigned to teach health-seeking behaviors to young women. One topic the nurse plans to includes is the importance of the Pap test, which is used mainly to detect: a. Ovarian cyst b. Patency of the fallopian tube c. Cervical cancer d. Uterine infections 58. The physician asks the nurse to position a client for a vaginal examination. Which of the following position is normally used for this type of examination? a. Lithotomy position b. Sim's position c. Dorsal recumbent position d. Left lateral position 59. Ms. Hull has had an electrocauterization of her cervix for chronic cervicitis. Following the procedure the nurse should instruct Ms. Hull to: a. Douche the next day to remove debris and blood cloth b. Avoid straining and heavy lifting until the physician permits this activity c. Stay in bed for the next 5 days d. Return in bed for the next 5 days 60. The nursing assistant is assigned to give Ms. Bailey, who has had an abdominal hysterectomy, a sitz bath. She is instructed to use the special sitz bath tub. She asks the nurse why the regular bath tub cannot be used. The most correct reply is based on the fact that a regular bath tab: a. Is more slippery and is dangerous when used for surgical clients b. Cannot supply water that is of the desired temperature for this procedure c. Applies heat to the legs and alters the desired effect of heat directed to the pelvic region d. Cannot be kept as clean as a special sitz bath tub 61. The physician asks the nurse to describe the laparoscopy procedure for sterilization to Ms. Bruce. Which of the following is part of a correct explanation of this procedure?

a. Two small abdominal incisions are made to introduce the instrument b. Hospitalization for 4 to 5 days is normally required c. This procedure is performed vaginally d. This procedure requires the consent of the sexual partner 62. The nurse is asked to plan a health teaching program for women of child-bearing age with genital herpes. Which one of the following should the nurse include in a teaching session? a. The physician will prescribe an antiviral drug as a pregnancy is confirmed b. Genital herpes in the mother-has no effect on the infant c. Wait until the infection has been cured before becoming pregnant d. If pregnant, in form the physician of a history of genital herpes 63. Ms. Manning is scheduled for Papanicolaou test (Pap Smear) at the time of the next visit to the physician's office. Which one of the following instructions should the nurse give to Ms. Manning? a. Do not douche for 2 to 3 days before this test b. Do not drink coffee or alcoholic beverages for 2 days before this test c. It will be necessary to fast from midnight the night before the test d. Bring a sanitary napkin with you because bleeding usually occurs after this week

a. Can be treated with an antibiotic, such as penicillin or tetracycline b. Appear to increase the risk of cancer of the vulva, vagina, and cervix c. Can be prevented of the individual takes birth control pills d. Are of no danger and need not be treated 67. Which of the following are included in the instructions for a client having a pelvic examination? a. Self-administer an enema or take a laxative for 2 nights prior to the examination b. Void immediately before the examination c. Douche the day before the examination d. Do not eat or drink fluids after midnight 68. The nurse is assigned to teach young women attending a gynecology clinic. The physician suggests that the nurse include explaining ways to prevent toxic shock syndrome. Which one of the following suggestions can be included in this teaching session? a. Avoid using super absorbed tampons b. Take a diuretic at the onset of menstruation c. Avoid the use of large sanitary pads d. Use a tampon on(y during the night 69. Which of the following solutions would be best for the nurse to use when cleaning the inner cannula of a tracheostomy tube?

64. The nurse obtains a health history from Ms. Reeves who states that she usually has symptoms when she ovulates. If Ms. Reeves has a normal menstrual cycle, how many days after ovulation should menstruation begin?

a. IsopropyI alcohol b. Sodium hydrochloride c. Hydrogen peroxide d. Providone-iodine

a. 3 days b. 7 days c. 14 days d. 21 days

70. The nurse observes that the client's knee is swollen and painful. Consequently; which one of the following nursing measures should be carried out?

65. The physician asks the nurse to discuss the use of an oral contraceptive with Ms. Sheppard. The nurse should instruct Ms. Sheppard that oral contraceptive: a. Are taken at the same time each day, preferably in the evening b. Must be taken on an empty stomach c. Are started on the first day of menstruation d. Are best taken in the morning before breakfast 66. Ms. Dodd has been told by her physician that she has genital warts, which are caused by a human .papilloma-virusinfection. She asks the nurse if there is any danger or problems associated with this condition. The most correct response-is based on the fact that genital warts:

a. Perform passive range of motion during each shift b. Help to change positions to achieve comfort c. Ambulate with him at frequent intervals d. Encourage quadriceps setting exercises 71. If Ms. Drake tells the nurse her feet are cold. Which of the following nursing action would be best a. Apply a hot water bottle b Use an electric heating pad c. Wrap them in a warm blanket d. Elevate her feet on a stool 72. Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the stationary thrombus in Ms. Fleming suddenly develops? a. Chest pains

b. Leg cramps c. Numbness in the foot d. Swelling of the knee 73. Following a total abdominal hysterectomy Ms. Sara Fleming develops a slightly elevated temperature and swelling in the right call of her leg. The physician prescribes warm moist compresses for the client's affected leg. Which of the following nursing actions is correct when applying the warm moist compress? The nurse: a. Heats the water to 120°F b. Uses a sterile technique c. Inspect the skin every 4 hours d. Covers the wet gauze with a towel 74. Ms. Betty Lynch, age 29, holes that she has recently developed a skin problem and makes an appointment to be seen in a clinic specializing diagnosis of psoriasis is made by the physician. When examining Mr. Lynch's skin for areas of psoriasis, the nurse should look for: a. Weeping lesions on the trunk of the body b. Patches of redness covered with silvery scales c. Areas of redness surrounded by crusts d. A rash characterized by raised, pus-filled lesions 75. Before being discharged, Mr. Heywood must be taught principles f good body mechanics. The nurse would be correct in telling Mr. Heywood that when he picks up something, he should: a. Flex both his knees b. Keep his feet together c. Lift with arms extended d. Bend from the waist

discomfort? a. "Hold your breath as you are turning." b. "Move your upper body first then legs." c. "Curl up in a ball before you move." d. "Avoid twisting your body while moving." 79. Which of the following should the nurse use to provide support to Mr. Heywood's spine? a. A sheep skin pad b. An air mattress c. A bed board d. A foam square 80. Mr. Heywood is to remain in bed for the time being. Which position would the nurse find gives Mr. Heywood the most comfort? a. On his back with the head and knees elevated b. On his side with hips and legs straight c. On his abdomen with his head to the side d. On his back with his head and knees straight 81. Mr. Heywood is receiving 10 mg of Diazepam (Vatium) orally t.i.d. Besides diminishing anxiety, the nurse explains that this medication is also used to: a. Reduce emotional depression b. Relax skeletal muscles c. Promote restful sleep d. Relieve inflammation

76. The nurse applies a commercially made hot moist pack, called a hydrocollator, to the client's lower back. To reduce the potential for a thermal injury the nurse should plan to:

82. Mr. Barry Heywood, a construction worker, has been experiencing periodic bouts of law back pain. Now, in addition to the pain that radiates into his buttocks, he has some numbness and tingling in his legs. The physician suspects that Mr. Heywood has a herniated intervertebral disk in the lumbar spine. While assessing the disk to indicate that the pain is increased when:

a. Wrap the pack in several thick towels b. Rub skin lotion over the back area c. Place a pillow between hint and the back d. Position the client on rubber ring

a. Eating b. Sneezing c. Resting d. Urinating

77. Which one of the following observations would most indicate to the nurse that the skin over Mr. Heywood's coccyx is becoming impaired? The skin:

83. Mr. Rumsey, who has not regained consciousness, rushed to surgery where his arm is amputated above the elbow. When Mr. Rumsey reacts from the anesthesia, he sees that his forearm is missing. He screams obscenities and sobs uncontrollably. Which of the following is the best action the nurse can take at this time?

a. Looks shiny over boy prominences b. Appears red when pressure in relieved c. Feels cool and clammy d. Is moist and warm 78. Before turning Mr. Heywood to wash his back, which instruction should the nurse provide to minimize his

a. Leave the room until he has worked through his anger b. Stay with him quietly in the room at his bedside c. Tell him to get control of himself d. Call the hospital chaplain for him

84. In what position should the nurse place Mr. Rumsey while continuing with his assessment and care? a. Prone b. Supine extended c. On his back with his legs elevated d. On his side with his neck 85. During a farming accident Mr. Steve Rumsey's arm gets caught in a corn auger. His lower left arm and band are crushed. Which of the following assessments would the nurse typically find when the paramedics bring Mr. Rumsey to the hospital in shock? The client would have: a. Decreased heart rate b. Decreasing blood pressure c. Increasing bowel sounds d. Increasing urine output 86. Ms. Angela Freeman has acute low back pain. She' has pelvic-belt traction, which she uses intermittently throughout the day. When the nurse helps Ms. Freeman apply the pelvic traction, it would be best to place the top of the belt: a. Just below the ribcage b. Even with her waistline c. Level with the iliac crest d. Where it is most comfortable

a. Below the knee b. Above the knee c. Across the phalanges d. At the metatarsals 90. Following an injury in which Ms. Leona Elkins while climbing stairs, she experiencing immediate swelling of her ankle and pain on movement. Her physician has sent her to the hospital for x-ray. Which on of the following nursing measures would be most helpful for relieving the swelling while preparing to obtain the x-ray of Ms. Elkin's lower leg? a. Dangle the foot b. Elevate the foot c. Exercise the foot d. Immobilize the foot SITUATION: Mr. Ramos was barbecuing outdoors when the gas tank exploded. He sustained second degree and third degree burns of the anterior portion of BOTH arms, the upper half of his anterior trunk and the anterior and posterior portions of his left lower extremity. - ' 91. The BEST initial management of burns that can be employed at the scene is generally which of the following: a. Pour cold water over the burned areas b. Apply clean dressing to the affected area c. Rinse the area with mild soap and water d. Apply tomato juice and ointment over the area

87. Ms. Rizal has acute rheumatoid arthritis. Her hands and spine are involved. When the nurse admits Ms. Rizal is most likely to tell the nurse that the first symptoms that caused her to seek health care was:

92. At the emergency room, the nurse assessed the extent of the burn on the patient's body. Based on the rules of nine. Which of the following is the BEST estimate of the burn?

a. Stiff, sore joints b. Generalized fatigue c. Stabbing hand pain d. Disuse of fingers

a. 36% b. 45% c. 27% d. 54%

88. Before Ms. Elkins leaves the emergency department, the nurse demonstrates hew to apply the roller bandage. She is told to remove it for approximately 20 minutes and re-apply it three times a day. It is essential that the nurse tells Ms. Elkins to loosen-the bandage if:

93. Which one of the following .blood value determinations is most likely be useful to evaluate the adequacy of the fluid replacement?

a. Her toes feel fairly warm b. Her ankle feels painful c. Her toes appear swollen d. She wears a cotton sock 89. The x-ray reveals that the bones are intact. The physician tells Ms. Elkins that she has severely sprained ankle. The physician directs the nurse to wrap Ms. Elkins foot with an elastic roller bandage referred to by some as an Ace bandage. Where should the nurse begin applying the bandage?

a. Creatinine levels b. Blood urea nitrogen c. Hematocrit level d. C02 tension 94. The nurse is administering the prescribed IVF. When she evaluated the patient, she suspected fluid overload because of which finding? a. Dark and scant urine output b. Moist rates c. Bradycardia and hypotension d. Facial flushing and twitching

95. The doctor orders MAFENIDE for application over the bum area. The nurse understands that one disadvantage of this drug is that: a. It causes lactic acidosis b. It must be constantly applied c. It has minimal eschar penetration d. It is bacteriostatic SITUATION: MARK Lester had been diagnosed with Stage 1 bronchogenic cancer. He had undergone lobectomy on the left lower lung. A two-bottle drainage system is inserted. 96. The patient is placed on bed post-operatively in what position? a. Prone b. Trendelenburg c. Right side d. Left side 97. Water-seal chest drainage involves attaching the chest tube to a: a. Suction machine directly b. Rubber tube/glass tube that is submerged underwater c. Rubber tube that is left open to air d. A closed drainage bottle with sterile water and no external opening 98. If the nurse sees fluid moving up and down during inspiration and expiration on the water seal bottle, she should: a. Do nothing as this is expected b. Immediately check the bottle for leaks c. Call the physician immediately and damp the chest tube d. Cover the wound with wet sterile gauze and send someone to calf the physician 99. If the nurse sees vigorous and continuous bubbling in the second bottle, she should: a. Momentarily clamp the tube to note for air leak b. Administer oxygen to the patient c. Attempt to change a new bottle d. Pull the chest tube out to remove the air leak 100. If the tube accidentally displaces from the chest of the patient, the nurse should do which action first? a. Clamp the tube with the use of forceps b. Obtain a new set of tubing and submerge the tube on the water c. Attempt to reinsert the tube d. Apply vaselinized gauze to the opening

NURSING BOARD EXAM PRACTICE TEST 5 Situation 1: An understanding of the usefulness of scientific finding is more and more essential for quality nursing practice. 1. You decided to do a review of literature. The most important reason for doing so is to: a. improve your library reading skills b. get ideas on interpretation of findings c. formulate a conceptual framework for the study d. decide on a sampling method 2. The sampling method where each member of the study population has an equal chance to be selected as a subject is called : a. purposive sampling b. selective sampling c. random sampling d. convenient sampling 3. The study population where you will select your study subjects is referred to as the: a. research subjects b. study group c. population d. universe 4. Which part of the study relates to validity and reliability criteria? a. Hypothesis b. Methodology c. Variables d. Instrument Situation 2: Mr. Tinio, a cardiovascular patient has been hospitalized for 4 months and his doctor has ordered for discharge. 5. Mr. Tinio appears anxious about numerous aspects of his home care. The best response you would give is: a. explore with him his fears and allow him to verbalize feelings b. advice him to take all his medication regularly c. explain why he has to have certain activity limitation d. let him express his feelings to reduce his anxiety 6. An immediate need for Mr. Tinio is: a. reduce anxiety

b. more independent in outlook c. security and comfort d. conserve energy

electrolyte imbalance.

7. Cardiac rehabilitation programs in the acute stage aids the person in:

a. weight gain b. ollguria c. neck vein distention d. edema

a. reaching an activity level required for self-care b. preventing further complications c. plan his activity of living d. acceptance of his condition 8. Cardiac rehabilitation goals in long-term, restore individual to optimum health and: a. prevent health complaints b. slow down progress of disease c. another myocardiac infarction attack d. avoid exposure to infection 9. The greatest effect on his home recovery will be his: a. expectation to go back to work b. dietary needs to be well c. family’s emotional support d. understanding of the cause d: his illness Situation 3: A survey of first year students in your school showed that about 40% do not eat breakfast before coming to school. •

13. These are signs of fluid volume excess Except:

14. Which is the main excretory organ for regulation of fluid electrolyte balance? a. Kidneys b. gastro intestinal tract c. lungs d. skin 15-Which is the best way to assess degree of edema? a. skin indentation when pressed my finger b. comparing present with previous weight c. pinching a fold of skin d. measuring intake and output Situation 5: Mrs. B. Santos, 5 years married; postponed pregnancy to save money. She visits her physician because complaints of increasing pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea and dyspareunia from a series of diagnostic evaluations the physician ruled out in endometriosis. 16. Endometriosis is best described as:

10. The most appropriate research design for the study is: a. Descriptive b. Retrospective c. ex post facto d. quasi-experimental 11. If you decide to study the relationship of eating breakfast and performance in class, which would be the independent variable? a. Student's characteristic b. Meal patterns c. Performance in class d. Eating breakfast

a. a defect in the endometrial lining b. a major cause of primary dysmenorrhea c. a pathological condition due to abnormal proliferation of uterine lining d. the growth of endometrial tissue outside the uterus 17. The criteria used to confirm a diagnosis of endometriosis is: a. laparoscopy and biopsy results b. laboratory findings c. result of endometrial biopsy , d. family's health

12. The most appropriate statement of your hypothesis is: a. There is a positive correlation between eating habits class performance b. There is a relationship between eating breakfast and performance in class c. Performance in class is more likely to be affected when eating breakfast d. Performance in class is associated with eating breakfast Situation 4: Mrs. Alcantara, a 56 years old cardiovascular patient has edema of the lower limits. You suspect some

18. The physician prescribes danazol (Danocrine, for Mrs. B. Santos). The nurse anticipates the needed health teaching when she tells her that while taking this drug, she can expect to experience all of the following except: a. diminished menstrual flew b. edema and increase in weight c. menses stops d. anovulation 19. In order to get the most accurate reading the nurse

Informs Mrs. B. Santos to take her BBT: a. within half and hour after rising b. immediately before rising c. before going to bed in the evening d. at the same time every day immediately after awakening and before rising Situation 6: Justice Yu is scheduled for cholecystectomy in the morning. 20. From the recovery room he was brought back to the ward with nasogastric tube, the rationale for his having NGT is to:

a. moderate b. mild c. severe d. panic 26. A minor tranquilizer to relieve Mrs. Cayetano's anxiety is ordered because this medication: a. causes fewer undesirable side effects b. does not impair intellectual activity c. induces sleep easily d. is excreted from the body more rapidly 27 An example of minor tranquilizer is:

a. prevent abdominal distention b. prevent nausea and vomiting c. promote hydration . d. promote drainage 21. Post operative order is NPO. You will tell him that feeding begin as soon as: a. abdominal spasm b. peristalsis returns c. forty-eight hours is over d. absence of bowel sound is appreciated 22. Which of these is not likely to happen as his post operative complication: a. Pancreatitis b. post operative jaundice c. bile leakage d. ventricular hypertrophy 23. The rationale of your supervising properly how he does the coughing exercise is to prevent him from developing: a. Bronchlectasis b. Bronchopneumonia c. atelectasis d. pneumonia Situation 7: Mrs. Cayetano is brought to the emergency room complaining of chest pain, perspiring profusely and breathing rapidly. . 24. Upon admission, Mrs. Cayetano is screaming, saying " I'm dying. I can't breathe." The nurse therapeutically says; a. "Why are you saying that?" b. "You are not dying. Let me help you." c. "You are very upset. Let me help you." d. "We are here to help you." 25. Mrs. Cayetano is experiencing what level of anxiety:

a. Amitryptyline (Elavil) b. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) c. Diazepam (Valium) d. Imipramine Hcl (Trofranil) 28. Upon discharge to evaluate Mrs. Cayetano's progress, this important factor should be considered: a. recognizes the need of describing situations proceeding her feeling of anxiety b. can change her method of handling anxiety c. understand the rationale for taking the prescribed medication d. knows the reason for tier feelings of anxiety Situation 8: Mercedes is admitted with acute depression. Assessment data revealed that she was terminated from her job as a secretary two (2) months ago. 29. In the initial nurse-client interaction. Mercedes says to the nurse "! am a worthless person I should be dead," The nurse appropriately responds by sayings a. "Don’t says that, you are not a worthless person." b. "We are trying to help you with your feelings." c. "What make you feet worthless?" It: must be awful to feel that way" d. "What you are feeling is part of your illness." It will lessen as you get better." 30. The therapeutic environment for a depressed client is one which a. allows her to verbalize her feelings b. pays particular attention to her physical needs c. provide opportunity for interacting with others d. allows freedom to select her own daily activities 31. The appropriate nursing diagnosis is: a. sensory-perceptual a!teration b. impaired adjustment

c altered thought process d. self esteem disturbance

d. Psychological stress can precipitate physical disorders

32. MAO inhibitor anti depressant drug was ordered. This is:

38. Because of limited coping skills in dealing with anxiety, the nurse identifies this nursing diagnosis:

a. Diazapam (Vallium) b. Imipramine HCL (Trofanil) c: Phenelzine sulfate (Nardil) d. Amitryptyline (Elavil)

a. impaired adjustment b. social isolation c. impaired social interaction d. ineffective individual coping

33 Mercedes is being prepared for discharge. The nurse instructs tier husband to observe signs of depression. The following behaviors indicate recurrence of depression. Except:

39. On admission, the nurse priorities one of the following nursing intervention:

a. Grandiosity b. Insomnia c. psychomotor retardation d. feeling of hopelessness

a. Help Anna socialize with other patients b. Help Anna perform activities of daily living c. Alleviate physical symptoms d. Help Anna identify situations which increase anxiety 40. Primary gain In Illness refers to:

Situation 9: during the past two years, Aling Maring , age 70, manifested progressive memory impairment and confusion. 34. Initial nursing diagnosis would be: a. impaired adjustment b. altered thought process c. disturbance in self esteem d. impaired social interaction 35.Aling Maring makes up stories about events she can not recall because it: a. reduces feeling of isolation b. maintains her self esteem c. reduces her feelings of frustration d. increases her feeling of security 36. She is observed to be repeating the same word oyer and over again. This symptom is known as: a. Aphasia b. Apraxia c. perseveration d. confabulation Situation 10: A 29 year old assistant manager of a prestigious bank, Anna, has been suffering from peptic ulcer for one year. 37. In caring of patients with psychophysiology disorders, the nurse knows that: a. Psycho physiologic disorders are not usually a medical emergency b. The relief of physical symptoms will help resolve the psychological problems c. There are no pathological findings that would cause the symptoms

a. Feeling of indifference to the distressing symptom b. Use of symptom to decrease anxiety c. Interpersonal benefits the patient derives from illness d. Increased ability to cope with anxiety in the future Situation 11: A teacher, Flora, 52 years old, with severe depression was admitted to the hospital. Her past history regaled she had suicidal ideation and has expressed feelings of helplessness. 41. One of the following statements is true with regard to the care of a depressed patient like Flora: a. ail depressed clients are potentially suicidal b. most suicidal persons give no warning c only rnentally ill persons commit suicide d. the chance of suicide decreases as depression lessen 42. Patients with severe depression, uses this defense mechanism: a. Projection b. repression c. Introjection d. suppression 43. During the initial stage of hospitalization, the most appropriate nursing intervention in planning activities for Flora is: a. allow her to cheese what she wants to do each day b. provide daily schedule of activities for her to follow c. observe for signs which will indicate her willingness to participate in any activity d. schedule one's activity per day to give her time to rest 44. One morning Flora says to the nurse. "Go away and leave

me alone. All I want is rest." The nurse response therapeutically when she replies: a. "Since you say you are tired, I'll check you later." b. "I am going to stay with you for a while." c. "When would you like me to return." d. "Why do you want me to leave." 45. Flora is being prepared for discharge. However, she says "I am afraid to go home, no one wants to live with me." One of the following would be the appropriate nursing intervention; a. involve the family in planning for discharge of Flora b. accept her appraisal of the situation and explore their alternatives c. discourage her from thinking that no one wants to live with her d. encourage her to discuss discharge plans her family Situation 12: Millie R., ages 74, was recently admitted to a nursing home because of confusion, disorientation, and negativistic behavior. Her family states that Millie is in good health. 46. Millie asks you," Where am I?" The best response of the nurse to make is a. "Don't worry, Millie. You're safe here." b. "Where do you think you are?" c. What did your family tell you?" d. "You're at the community nursing home." 47. Which at the following would be an appropriate strategy in reorienting a confused client to where her room is? a. Race pictures of her family on the bedside stand b. Put her name in large letters on her forehead c. Remind the client where her room is d. Let the ether residents knew where the client's roan is 48. Which activity would you engage Millie in at the nursing home? a. reminiscence group b. sing-along c. discussion group d. exercise class 49. Millie has had difficulty sleeping since admission. Which of the following would be the best intervention? a. Provide her with a glass of warm milk b. Ask the physician for a mid sedative c. Do net allow Millie to take naps during the day d. Ask her family what they prefer 50.Millie R. has self-care deficit. She has difficulty herself. The

best action for the nurse to take is to a. have the client to wear hospital gowns b. explain to the client why he should dress herself c. give the client step-by-step instructions for dressing herself d. allow enough time for the client to dress herself. Situation 13: Ronald, 23 years old, was voluntarily admitted to the inpatient unit with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. 51. AS the nurse approaches Ronald he says, "If you come any closer, I die." This is an example of: a. Hallucination b. Delusion c. illusion d. idea of reference 52. The best response for the nurse to make to this behavior is: a. How can I hurt you? b. I'm the nurse c. Tell me more about this d. That's a silly thing to say 53. Ronald is pacing the halls and is agitated. The nurse hears him saying, "I have to get away from those doctors! They are trying to commit me to the state hospital". The nurse's continued assessment should include a. clarifying information with the doctor b. observing Ronald for rising anxiety c. renewing history of involuntarily commitment d. checking dosage of prescribed medication Situation 14: Mr. K, 24 years old, was admitted on a voluntary basis to psychiatric services, He had agreed to inpatient care as an alternative to a 30 day jail sentence fro reckless driving, driving under the influence of alcohol and over speeding. He has been under psychiatric care for three years, has a long history of petty crimes, and was able with help of his therapist, to convince the judge that a higher level of psychiatric care would be in everyone's best interest, 54. When a scheduled group therapy session in announcement, he refuses to go and the nurse has to resort inn pleading with him to attend. He uses ether client to his own needs and often pioneers causes that are disruptive to the milieu. The diagnostic title that best describes Mr. Ks behavior is a. Antisocial personality disorder b. Borderline personality disorder c. Passive-aggressive personality disorder d. Passive-dependent personality disorder

55. In planning care for Mr. K it is important for the nurse to recognize that all of the following are likely to occur except a. staff and client agree when setting treatment goals b. staff and client are consonant struggle for control of the milieu c. staff and client feel threatened by one another d. staff and client use the same defense mechanism when interacting 56. Key intervention for a client with an antisocial personality disorder include all of the following except: a. assisting him to identity and clarify his feelings b. changing staff assigned to Mr. K at his request c. making expectations about his behavior dear as well as consequences for same. d Setting firm limit with clear consequences 57. At the time of discharge the nurse understands that Mr. K is most likely to: a. be committed to another facility for a longer length of stay b. be committed to a virtuous and socially acceptable life-style c. discontinue treatment with the outpatient therapist d. revert to pre hospitalization behaviors Situation 15: Tammy, 18 months old, has been admitted for second degree burns surroundings the genital area. Her mother told the nurse that Tammy grabbed the hot coffee cup and spilled it on herself. 58. The nurse is required by law to a. testify in court on the injuries. b. Reports suspected child abuse c. Have the mother arrested d. Refer the mother to counseling 59. Tammy’s mother is 17 years old, in which of the areas would the nurse provide health teaching? a. Normal growth and development b. Bonding techniques c. How to childproof the apartment d. Parenting skills Situation 16:.Annie, a 4th year BSN student will have their duty in psychiatric hospital, She is reviewing her notes about: Nurses -Client relationship/Therapeutic Communication 60. Trust may develop in the nurse -client relationship when the nurse a. avoid limit setting b. encourage the client to use "testing" behaviors c. tell the clients how he should behave

d. Uses consistency in approaching the client. 61. A client has just begun, to discuss important feelings when the time of the interview is up. The next day, when the nurse meets with the client the agreed-upon time, the initial intervention would be to say a. "Good morning; how are you today?" b. "Yesterday you were talking about some very important feelings. Let's continue." c. "What would you like to talk about today?" d. Nothing and wait for the client to introduce the topic. 62. A new staff is on orientation tour with the head nurse. A client approaches her and says, "I don't belong here. Please try to get me out." The staff nurse's response would be. a. “What would you do if you were out of the hospital?" b. "I am a new staff member, and I'm on a tour. I'll come back and talk with you." c. "1 think you should talk with the head nurse about that." d. "I can't do anything about that." 63. The nurse is in the day room with the group of the client who has been quietly watching TV suddenly jumps up screaming and runs out of the room. The nurse's priority intervention would be to a. Turn off the TV and ask the group what they think about the client's behavior b. Follow after the client to see what has happened. c. ignore the incident because these outbreak are frequent, d. Send another client out of the room to check on tile agitated client. 64. A nurse observes the client sitting alone in her room crying. As the nurse approaches her, the client states, "I'm feeling sad- S don't want to talk now." The nurse's best response would be a. "lt will help you feel better if you talk about it." b. "I’ll come back when you feel like talking." c. "Ill stay with you a few minutes." d. "Sometimes it helps to talk." • Situation 16: Defense mechanisms are used by individuals, in order to cope with anxiety and stress in life. The following questions refer to anxiety and stress disorders/defense mechanisms. 65. A student failed her psychology final exam and spent the entire evening berating the teacher and the course. This behavior would be an example of which defense mechanisms? a. reaction-formation b. Compensation

c. Projection d. Acting out 66. The most effective nursing intervention for a severely anxious client who is pacing vigorously would be to a. instruct her to sit down and quit pacing b. place her In bed to reduce stimuli and allow rest c. allow tier to walk unit she becomes physically tired d. give her PRN medication and walk with her at a gradual slewing pace 67. A client is experiencing high degree or anxiety. It is important to recognize if additional help is required because a. if the client is out of control, another person will help to decrease his anxiety level. b. Being alone with an anxious client is dangerous. c. It will take another person to direct the client into activities to relieve anxiety. d. Hospital protocol for handing anxious clients requires at least two people. 68. A client with a diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive disorder constantly does repetitive cleaning. The nurse knows that this behavior is probably most basically an attempt to: a. decrease anxiety to tolerate level b. focus attention on non threatening task c. control others d. decrease, the time available for interaction with people. 69. A client is suffering from post-traumatic stress disorder following a rape by an unknown assailant. One of the primary goals of nursing care for this client would be to; a. Establish safe, supportive environment b. Control aggressive behavior c. Deal with the client's anxiety d. Discuss client's nightmare and reactions. 70. A client's deafness has been diagnosed as convention disorder. Nursing intervention should be guided by which one of the following? a. The client will probably express much anxiety about her deafness and require much reassurance. b. The client will have little or no awareness of the psychogenic cause of her deafness. c. Tile client's need for the symptom should be respected; thus, secondary gains should be allowed. d. The defense mechanisms of suppression and rationalization are involved in creating symptom. 71. A female client has just received the diagnosis of hypochondriasis. This client continually focuses on gastrointestinal problems and constantly rings for a nurse to

meet her every demand. The best nursing approach is to a. ignore the demands because the nurse knows it is net necessary to respond. b. Assign various staff members to work with the client so no staff member will become negative. c. Anticipate the client's demands and spend them with her even though she does not demand it. d. Provide for the client's basic needs, but do not respond her every demand, which reinforces secondary gains. 72. Person with personality disorders are known to be manipulators. Which principles is it important for the nurse to Know in planning the care of a person, with this diagnosis? a. The nurse should allow manipulation so as to not raise the client's anxiety b. The nurse should appeal to the client's sense of loyalty in adhering to the rules of the community. c. When the client's manipulations are not successful, anxiety will increase. d. The establishment of a nurse-client relationship will decrease the client's manipulations. 73. A mate client on the psychiatric unit becomes upset and breaks a chair when a visitor does not show up. The first nursing intervention should be to" a. Say with the client during the stressful time. b. Ask direct questions about the client's behavior c. Set limits and restrict client's behavior d. Ran with the client on hew he can better handle frustration. 74. The nurse has been interviewing the client who ha snot been able to discuss any feelings. This day, 5 minutes before the time is over, the client begins to talk about important feelings. The intervention is to a. Go over the agreed-upon time, as the client is finally able to discuss important feelings. b. Tell client that is time to end the session now, but another nurse will discuss his feelings with him. c. Set an extra meeting time a little later to discuss these feelings. d. Bid just as agreed, but tell the client these are very important feelings and he can continue tomorrow. Situation 17: A 60-year old client complains of headaches, restlessness and insomnia. During an interview, the nurse Seams that the symptoms began 3 months ago after the client was forced into early retirement. 75. The nurse recognizes that the client is probably experiencing: a. A social crisis b. A situational crisis

c. An economic crisis d. A development crisis 76. According to crisis theory, the minimal long term goal in crisis intervention is:

abdomen. After surgical repair the nurse notes that the client's pain does not seem to be relieved by the prescribed IM mepericline hydrochloride. The nurse recognizes that the failure to achieve pain relief from indicates that she is probably experiencing the phenomenon of:

a. Relief of acute symptoms b. Relief of panic-level anxiety . c. Restoration of the origins functioning level d. Reorganization and reordering of the personality

a. tolerance b. habituation c. physical addiction d. psychologic

77. The most critical factor for tine nurse to determine during crisis intervention is the client's:

83. After a visit from several friends the nurse finds a client with a known history of opiate addiction in a deep sleep and unresponsive to attempts at arousal The nurse assesses the client's vital signs and would evaluate that an overdose of opiates had occurred if the findings showed a:

a. developmental history b. available situational supports c. underlying unconscious conflict d. willingness to restructure the personality 78. When Interviewing in a crisis situation, the initial concern of the nurse is: a. What was the precipitating factor? b. How is the individual affecting others? c. How will the client deal with successive crisis d. Whether the individual can go back to daily activities Situation 17: Ms. Zepetee is a client with a history of abuse of multiple drugs. 79. When planning care for her. The nurse should be aware that the most serious life-threatening symptoms during withdrawal usually result from:

a. blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg, pulse of 120- and respirations of 10 b. blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg, a pulse of 84, and respirations of 20 c. blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, a pulse of 76, and respirations of 28. d. blood pressure of 180/100 mm Mg, a pulse of 72, and respirations of 18 84. At a staff meeting the question of a staff nurse returning to work after a dug rehabilitation program Is discussed. The nursing supervisor helps the staff to decide that the most therapeutic way to handle the nurse's return would be to:

a. heroin b. methadone c. barbiturates d. amphetamines

a. Offer the nurse support In a. direct, straightforward manner b. Avoid mentioning the problem unless the nurse brings up the topic c. Assigns another staff member to keep the nurse under dose observation d. Make certain the nurse is assigned to administer only nonnarcotic medications.

80. With a tentative diagnosis of opiate addiction, the nurse should assess this recently hospitalize client for signs of opiate withdrawal. These signs would include:

85. Addicted clients commonly expect prejudice and hostility from psychiatric personnel. The nurse can best overcome their expectation by using:

a. lacrimation vomiting, drowsiness b. nausea, dilated pupils, constipation c. muscle aches, papillary constriction, yawning d. rhino rhea, convulsions, abnormal temperature

a. acceptance and consistency In the approach b. reassurance that nonjudgmental attitudes exists c. self-disclosure to promote a therapeutic relationship d. confrontation of these judgmental attitudes is'' the client

81. The nurse aware that opiates are most commonly used because the individual.

86. A client with a long history to alcohol abuse is placed on a diet in vitamin B1 (Thiamine). "The nurse would know that the diet is understood when the client states" I will select something for each meal from among:

a. desire to become independent b. wants to fit In with the peer group c. attempts to blur reality and reduce stress d. enjoys the social interrelationship that occur 82. Ms. Zepetee is treated for multiple stab wounds to the

a. Fish, aged cheese, and breads b. Poultry, milk products, and eggs c. Lean pork, organ meat, and nuts d. "Leafy and green vegetables and citrus fruits." '

87. The nurse is aware that tile reason some alcoholics are unable to stop drinking even though they begin to attend AA meetings is that they: a enjoy the feeling caused by drinking alcohol b. physiologically require the substance in their body c. are trying to drastically stop after a long-standing habit d. often have a character direct that defeats their will power Situation 18: ethical and legal responsibilities are part of your nursing practices 88. Which of the following statements is true? a. ethics prescribed what are right and wrong conduct b. ethics and morals are synonymous c. morals as human conduct is also a legal rights d. an unethical act is immoral

a. Keeping a time schedule b. using a log book c. checking Kardex cards d. reading ward 94. What evidence will indicate your effective use of time? a. doctor's bill have been issued b. charting completed on time c. all serious patients have been cared d. patient's bills forwarded to billing office 95. You knew that in practice effective use of time is good management. Which of the following measures would be most helpful in keeping tract of work time? a. keep a log for the day b. plan your work activities c. do a time analysis d. request health in your work

89. The Code for Nurse best describes: 96. Which of the following would you first do? a. rules that protect public interest and welfare b. principles of conduct becoming a nurse c. right ways of giving nursing care d. society's norm in the practice of nursing 90. When you start the practice of professional nursing you assume "ipso facto" obligations to uphold the noble traditions of the professions. You are expected to: a. earn a living b. safeguard public health c. abide by the law d. fulfill your civic duties 91. The scope of nursing practice based on RA 7164 the following responsibilities. EXCEPT: a. interpreting results of sensitivity test b. initiating "code blue" c. suturing laceration d. care of women during pregnancy, labor and delivery 92. To develop independence of families in health, which of the following is the best approach? a. family education for life b. family empowerment e. family health work d. family health organization Situation 19: You often do not finish your nursing work on the time for shift endorsement

a. organize activities by priority b. ask an attendant to help you c. attend first to patients without watchers d. none of the above 97. Research contributes to the acknowledge-based on professional nursing. Which of the following, statement in the improvement is TRUE? a. research seeks the unknown b. research resolve a problem c. research studies the world of reality d. research relies on observable evidence 98. When you participate in nursing research your main activity is to: a. develop problem solving skills b. explain a nursing phenomenon c. solve a nursing problem d. understand man as human being 99. This type of research that attempts to solve practical nursing problems. a. clinical-problem research b. basic research c. applied research d. quasi-experimental research 100. The most import art value of research to practicing nurse is:

93. This is an indicator of effective use of your time: a. it improve clinical competence

b. it develops analytical skills c. it contribute to new knowledge d. it demonstrate professionalism

NURSING BOARD EXAM PRACTICE TEST 6 1. A newly graduate nursing student applied at the PRC to take the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination. To qualify she must possess the following: 1. age must be 21 years old 2. a Filipino citizen 3. graduated from a recognized College of Nursing 4. with good health and with good moral character a. 1, 2,and 4 b. 1,2, and 3 c. 2, 3, and 4 d. 1,3, and 4 2. In order for the examinee to pass the Philippine Nurses Licensure examination, she must obtain an average of: 1. general average rating of 74.9% that could be round off into 75% 2. genera! average rating of 75% and above 3. rating not below 69% in any subjects 4. rating not below 60% in any subjects a. 1 and 3 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 4 d. 2 and 4 3. Persons who committed crimes by indirect participation such as assisting in its consummation can be accused of being: a. an accessory b. a principal c. a witness d. both A and C 4. According to the Annotated Philippine Nursing Act of 2002, the Licensure Members of the Board of Nursing is composed of: a. A chairperson and six member’s b. A chairperson and three members c. Seven members only d. A chairperson and five members 5. A battery is: a. An unconsented touching of another person b. An act that puts the victim in fear of harm to himself c. Considered only when a harm occurs to the person touched d. All of the above

6. Miss Montessa applied for the Philippine Nurses' Board Examination. To qualify she must posses the following: 1. age 21 years old 2. Filipino citizenship 3. graduated from recognized college of nursing 4. good health and good moral character a. 1 and 2 b. 1,3, and 4 c. 1, 2, and 3 d. 2, 3, and 4 7. A staff nurse must: 1. have at least 2 years experience 2. be single 3. be a Filipino citizen 4. be currently license to practice professional nursing a. 1 and 2 b. 3 and 4 c. 2 and 3 d. 2 and 4 8. Nurses abroad are very in-demand nowadays. While opportunities may be better abroad, she must serve the country for: a. 2 years b. 1 year c. 6 months d. as long as she likes ' 9. The refusal issue a certificate of registration for reasons cited in RA 877 as amended by RA 4704 rests on: a. Philippine Association of Board Examiners b. Board of Nursing c. Professional Regulation Commission ; d. Legal Division, PRC 10. The law which provides for the use of generic terminology in the promotion, prescription, and dispensing of drugs: a. RA4226 b. RA6675 c. RA 7164 d. RA 7877 11. The most effective nursing intervention for a severely anxious client who is pacing vigorously would be to: a. Instruct her to sit down and quit pacing b. Place her in bed to reduce stimuli and allow rest c. Allow her to walk until she becomes physically tired

d. Give her PRN medication and walk with her at a gradually slowing pace 12. Which of the following is accurate about benzodiazepines: " a. It act on the cause of diagnosis b. Used anesthetics, anticonvulsants, and muscle relaxants c. Has less problem of dependence and withdrawal d. Started at a high dose then gradually decreased 13. The nurse has been interviewing a client who has not been able to discuss any feelings. This day, 5 minutes before the time is over, the client begins to talk about important feelings. The intervention is to: a. Go over the agreed-upon time, as the client is finally able to discuss important feelings. b. Tell the client that it is time to end the session now, but another nurse will discuss his feelings with him. c. Set at extra meeting time a little later to discuss these feelings. d. End just as agreed, but tell the client these are very important feelings and he can continue tomorrow. 14. ln working with a depressed client, the nurse should understand that depression is most directly related to a person's: a. Experiencing poor interpersonal relationships with other. b. Remembering his traumatic childhood. c. Having experienced a sense of loss. d. Stage in life. 15. Three days after admission for depression, a 54year-old female client approaches the nurse and says; "I know I have cancer of the uterus. Can't you let me stay in bed and have some peace before I die?" In responding, the nurse must keep in mind that: a. The client must be post-menopausal b. Thoughts of disease are common in depressed clients. c. Clients suffering from depression can be demanding, making many request of the nurse. d. Antidepressant medications frequently cause vaginal spotting. 16 A client makes a suicide attempt on the evening shift. The staff intervenes in time to prevent harm. In assessing the situation, the most important rationale for the staff to discuss the incident is that: a. They need to reenact the attempt so that they understand exactly what happened.

b. The staff needs to file an incident report so that the hospital administration is kept informed. c. The staff needs to discuss the client's behavior to determine what cues, in his behavior might have warned them that he was contemplating suicide. d. Because the client made one suicide attempt, there is high probability he will make a second .attempt in the immediate future 17.A client with the diagnosis of manic episode is racing around the psychiatric unit trying to organize games with the clients. An appropriate nursing intervention is to:

a. Showing appreciation for the patient's positive evaluation b. Providing reassuring information about the patient's psychological integrity c. Maintaining objectivity regarding the patient's remarks d. Conveying acceptance of the patient's need for a false belief system 22. The physician orders flouxetine (Prozac) orally every morning for a 72-year-dd a client with depression. The nurse would expect the physician to order which of the following dosages for this client?

a. Have the client play Ping-Pong. b. Suggest video exercises with the other clients. c. Take the client outside for a walk. d. Do nothing, as organizing a game is considered therapeutic.

a. 0.5 mg b. 10 mg c. 25 mg d. 30 mg

18. The primary nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client admitted with pneumonia. When should the nurse begin discharge planning for this client?

23. A client who is depressed states, "I am an awful person. Everything about me is bad. I can't do anything right." Which of the following responses by the nurse would be most therapeutic?

a. The day after discharge b. When the client's condition is stabilized c. At the admission time d. When the physician writes the discharge order

a. "Everybody around here likes you." b. "I can see many good qualities about you." . c. "Let's discuss what you haw done correctly." d. "You were able to bathe daily."

19. A nurse enters a client's roams and the client is demanding release from the hospital. Tile nurse renews the client's record and notes that the client was admitted 2 days ago for treatment of an anxiety disorder and that the admission was voluntary. Which of the following actions will the nurse take?

24. The nurse denies the request of a dient with major depression and psychotic features, admitted involuntarily, to leave the hospital because commitment papers have been initiated by the physician. Which of the following would the nurse identify as a criterion for the client to be legally committable?

a. Tell the client that discharge is not possible at this time. b. Call the client's family c. Contact the physician d. Persuade the client to stay a few more days

a. Evidence of psychosis b. Being gravely disabled c. Risk of harm to self or others d. Diagnosis of mental illness

20.When teaching a patient who has a diagnosis of schizophrenia about successful independent living in the community, a nurse should encourage the patient to:

25.When preparing a teaching plan for a client about imipranine (Tofranil), which of the following substances will the nurse tell the client to avoid while taking the .medication?

a. Establish a structured daily routine b. Spend time alone c. Ran a program of self-fulfillment d. Discontinue medication when symptoms disappear

a. Caffeinated coffee b. Sunscreen c. Alcohol d. Artificial tears

21. A patient who has a borderline personality disorder praise one nurse and asserts that all other staff members are terrible. The praised nurse should respond by:

26. A client with bipolar behavior manic phase is exhibiting euphoria, hyperactivlty, and distractibility. He is unable to remain seated during mealtime Song enough to eat adequately. Which of the following

"finger foods" would most benefit this client? a. Bacon, lettuce, and tomato sandwich b. Cheeseburger c. tee cream cone d. Cut-up vegetables 27. A client with acute mania has been taking lithium (Lithium Carbonate) 600 mg PO three times daily for 14 days. The nurse analyzes the client's serum lithium level, noting that it is therapeutic when the level is within which of the following ranges?

b. Notify the physician c. Have the client sign an AMA form d. Call a security guard to help detain the client 32. What is the most common tort filed against health care providers by clients? a. Malpractice b. Negligence c. Assault d. Battery

a. 0.5 to 1.5mEq/L b. 1.6to2.5mEq/L c. 2.6 to 3.2 mEq/L d. 3.3 to 4.0 rnEq/L

33. A nurse is counseling a parent whose 11-year-old child has attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. The parent reports that the child is disruptive at home. Which of the approaches should the nurse suggest that the parent take?

28. A patient who has begun taking a tricyclic antidepressant is given instructions regarding its use. Which of the following' comments would indicate that the patient understands the information?

a. Confine the child to the bedroom b. Establish a specific schedule for activities c. Explain to the child why the behavior is disturbing d. Vary the methods by which rewards are given

a. "I like active exercise, but I won't be able to do it while I'm on this medication." b. "This medicine will make my ears ring, but I guess i can tolerate that." c. "I won't eat cheese if one of my visitors bring me some." d. "I don't feel any better, but I've only been taking the medicine for a week."

34. The physician prescribes digoxin 4mg IV. for a client In rapid atrial fibrillation, How should the nurse proceed?

29. Diazepam (Valium) is prescribed for a patient with Sow back pain. The desired therapeutic action of valiurn in this situation is to: a. Reduce anxiety levels b. Eliminate pain sensation c. Suppress the inflammatory process d. Lessen muscle spasticity 30. A patient is brought to the psychiatric unit. Which of the following activities the registered nurse rather than the licensed practical nurse would perform? a. Administering a stat dose of lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg intramuscularity (IM) b. Admitting the patient to the psychiatric unit c. Asking the patient whether he hears voices other people do not hear d. Drawing a blood sample for a lithium level 31. A client asks to be discharged from the health care facility against medical advice (AMA). What should the nurse do? a. Prevent the client from leaving

a. Assess the client's apical rate, then administer the dose. b. Administer 0.4 mg I.V. because the physician most likely meant to write that dosage c. Question the physician about that order. d. Administer the dose, then monitor the client closely. 35. A nurse administers a unit of blood to a client without receiving informed consent. Performing a procedure, such as administering blood products, without receiving informed consent can lead to which of the following charges? a. Assault and battery b. Fraud c. Breach of confidentiality d. Harassment 36. A 32-year-old woman is admitted to a psychiatric unit for evaluation after terrorizing her co-worker with a knife. She is verbally .abusive. One afternoon, she starts hitting another female patient without any apparent provocation. The other patient is removed from her presence. Which of the following statements by the nurse would be appropriate handling of the patient's behavior? a. "Why did you hit that patient?" b. "You will have to stay in the seclusion room to keep

you away from other patients." c. "Hitting others is dangerous. I am not going to allow you to repeat this behavior." d. "I am going to discuss your behavior with other patients at the next ward meeting." . 37. A patient refuses to sit in a chair offered by the nurse during a ward meeting. The patient claims that, "They are trying to destroy me. They have planted a bomb under this chair." He accuses the nurse as being "one of them." Which of the following approaches would be most helpful in dealing with patient's delusional system? a. Sit on the chair to prove that the chair is safe. b. Tell the patient, "No one is trying to destroy you and I am certainly not one of those who you think want to kill you." c. Allow the patient to select his/her own chair. d. Ask the patient, "Why do you think anyone would plot to destroy you." 38. When a pediatric nurse tries to take an admission history on a 3-year-old, the child's mother burst into tears and cannot answer any questions. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Continue to take the history. b. Encourage the mother to verbalize her fears concerning her child's illness. c. Ask the mother to assist in the admission physical assessment. d. Ask the mother to join her husband in the waiting room. 39. A patient who is diagnosed with an eating disorder describes herseif as "a very fat person." Which of the following responses by the nurse would be MOST appropriate? a. "You don't look fat at all." b "Why do you say you are fat?" c. "I don't understand why you think you are fat." d. "You seem to think you are fat but \ see you as very thin." 40. During an acute psychotic episode, patients can become frightened of their own ^ bizarre sensory experiences. They also fear losing control over their own impulses. Which of the following nursing interventions would help a patient to feel less frightened? a. Assure the patient that his/her sensory experiences wilt disappear, in no time. b. Let the patient know that the staff will assist him/her in maintaining control.

c. Keep the patient in a well-lighted; stimulating environment at all times. d. Keep potentially harmful objects out of patient's reach. 41.When developing the plan of care for a client receiving haloperidol; which of the following medications would the nurse anticipate administering if the client developed extrapyramidat sidejeffiects? a. Lorazepam (Ativan) b. Benztripine mesylate (Cogentin) c. Paroxetine (Paxil) d. Olanzapine (Zyprexia) 42. Nursing Licensure and Practice are regulated by: a. Nursing Practice Law b. Board of Nursing c. Professional Regulations Commission d. All of the above 43. While documenting on a client's patient care flow sheet the nurse notices that she made a mistake? How-should the nurse proceed? a. Use correction fluid and continue to document b. Draw a single line through the entry c. Cross out error completely d. Erase error 44. Which of the following would be most critical when caring for a client who is experiencing delirium? a. Controlling behavior symptoms with low-dose psychotropics. b. Correcting the underlying causative condition or illness. c. Manipulating the environment to increase orientation. d. Decreasing or discounting any nonessential medications 45.A client with panic disorder should be monitored for the existence of which of the following other psychosocial problems? a. Attention deficit hyperacidity disorder (ADHD) b. Developmental disability c. Dissociative behavior d. Substance abuse 46. Which of the following nursing interventions is given priority in a care plan for a person having panic disorder? a. Tell the client to take deep breaths.

b. Have the client talk about the anxiety. c. Encourage the client to verbalize feelings. d. Ask the client about the cause of the attack. 47. Which of the following interventions should the nurse initially implement when caring for a client with panic disorder? a. Make the client role-play the panic attack. b. Assist the client to develop an exercise program. c. Teach the client to identify cognitive distortions. d. Teach the client to identify sources of anxiety. 48. Which of the following statements is typical of a client with social phobia? a. "Without people around, I just feel so lost." b. "There is nothing wrong with my behavior." c "I like to be the center of attention." d. "I knew I can’t accept that award for my brother." 49. Which of the following behavior modification techniques is useful in the treatment of the phobias? a. Aversion therapy b. Irritation or modeling c. Positive reinforcement d. Systematic desensitization 50.A client suspected of haying a posttraumatic stress disorder should assessed for which of the following problems? a. Eating disorder b. Schizophrenia c. Suicide d. "Sundown" syndrome 51. Which of the following psychological symptoms would the nurse expect to find in a hospitalized client who is the only survivor of a train accident? a. Denial b. Indifference c. Perfectionism d. Trust 52. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of survivor guilt? a. "I think I can see the purpose of my survival” b. "I can't help but feel that everything is their fault." c. "I new understand why I'm not able to forgive myself." d. "I wish I could stop sabotaging my family relationships"

53. The effectiveness of monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor drug therapy in a client with posttraumatic stress disorder can be demonstrated by which of the following client self-reports? a. "I'm sleeping better and don’t have nightmares” b. "I'm not losing my temper as much." c. "I've lost my craving for alcohol." d. "I've lost my phobia for water." 54. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect when talking about school to a child diagnosed with a generalized anxiety disorder? a. The child has been fighting with peers for the past month. b. The child can't stop lying to parents and teachers. c. The child has gained 15 pounds in the past month. d. The child expresses concerns about grades. 55. A 42-year-old client admitted with an acute myocardial infarction asks to see his chart. What should the nurse do first? a. Allow the client to view his chart b. Contact the supervisor and physician for approval c. Ask the client if he has concerns about his care d. Tell the client that he isn't permitted to view his chart. 56. A staff nurse influences the behaviors of her colleagues by guiding and encouraging them. She's an excellent role model but has no formal authority over her peers. This nurse is demonstrating characteristics of which of the following roles? a. Manager b. Autocrat c. Leader d. Authority 57. A client with paranoid personality disorder tells a nurse of his decision to stop talking to his wife. Which of the following areas should be assessed? a. The client's doubts about the partner's loyalty. b. The client's need to be alone and have time for self. c. The client's decision to separate from the marital partner. d. The client's fears about becoming too much like the partner. 58. The wife of the client diagnosed with paranoid personality disorder tells the client she wants a divorce. When discussing this situation with the couple, which of the following factors would help the

nurse form a care plan for this couple? a. Denied grief b. Intense jealousy c. Exploitation of others d. Self-destructive tendencies 59. The nurse manager is concerned because she received many time-off requests from her staff for the upcoming holiday season. She has come up with several possible solutions to the staffing dilemma and has scheduled a staff meeting to present ideas to the staff. Which management style is this manager demonstrating? a. Participative b. Democratic c. Autocratic d. Laissez-faire 60. Which of the following short-term goals for a client with an antisocial personality disorder and a history of polysubstance abuse? a. Develop goals for personal improvement. b. Identify situations that are out of the client's control. c. Encourage the client to identify traumatic life events. d. Learn to express feelings in a nondestructive manner. 61. Which of the following goals is most appropriate for a client with antisocial personality disorder with a high risk .for violence directed at others? a. The client will discuss the desire to hurt others rather than act. b. The client will be given something to destroy to displace the anger. c. The client will develop a list of resources to use when anger escalates. d. The client will understand the difference between anger and physical symptoms. 62. A registered nurse who works in the preoperative area of the operating room notices that a client is scheduled for a partial mastectomy and axillary lymph node removal the following week. The nurse should make sure, that the client is well educated about her surgery by: a. taking with the nursing staff at the physician's office to find out what the client has been taught and her level of understanding b. making sure that the post-anesthesia recovery unit nurses know what to teach the patient before

discharge c. providing all of the preoperative teaching before surgery d. having the post-operative nurses teach the patient because she'll be too anxious before surgery 63. A new nurse-manager is trying to determine the best way to implement client teaching in her outpatient surgical center. She decides to gather data from other surgical centers and compare their teaching methods to her center's methods. Which quality improvement process is she utilizing? a. Benchmarking b. Risk management c. Performance improvement d. Quality management 64. Which of the following characteristics or situations is indicated when a client with borderline personality disorders has a crisis? a. Antisocial behavior b. Suspicious behavior c. Relationship problems d. Auditory hallucinations 65. A schizophrenic client tells his primary nurse that he's scheduled to meet the King of Samoa at a special time, making it impossible for the client to leave his room for dinner. Which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "It's meal time. Let's go so you can eat." b. "The King of Samoa told me to take you to dinner” c. "Your physician expects you to follow the unit's schedule." d. "People who don't eat, on this unit aren't being cooperative." 66.A Client diagnosed with schizophrenia several years ago tells the nurse that he feels "very sad." The nurse observes that he's smiling when he says it. Which of the following terms best describes the nurse's observation? a. Inappropriate affect b. Extrapyramidal c. Insight d. Inappropriate mood 67. Which of the following conditions or characteristics is related to the cluster of symptoms associated with disorganized schizophrenia? a. Odd beliefs b. Flat affect

c. Waxy flexibility d. Systematized delusions 68. A client approaches a nurse and tells her that he hears a voice telling him that he's evil and deserves to die. Which of the following terms describes the client's perception? a. Delusion b. Disorganized speech c. Hallucinations d. Idea of reference

understands symptom monitoring? a. "When I hear voices, I become afraid I’ll relapse." b. "My parents aren't involved enough to be aware if I begin to relapse." c. "My family is more protected from stress if J keep them out of my illness process." d. "When I'm feeling stressed, I go to a quiet room by myself and do imagery."

69. Which of the following numbers of members in a therapy group is ideal?

74. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia has been taking haloperidol (Haldol) for 1 week when a nurse observes that the client's eyeball is fixated on the ceiling. Which of the following specific conditions is the client exhibiting?

a. 1 to 4 b. 4 to 7 c. 7 to 10 d. 10-to15

a. Akathisia b. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome c. Oculogyric crisis d. Tardive dyskinesia

70. Which of the following nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for a client with acute schizophrenic reaction?

75. A client arrives in the emergency room and is assessed by a nurse. The client is staggering, confused, and verbally abusive. The client complaints of a headache from drinking alcohol and is asking for medication. The nurse explains to the - client that the physician will need to perform an assessment prior to the, administration of medication. When the client becomes verbally abusive, the nurse obtains leather restrains and threatens to place the client in the restraints. With which of the following can the client legally charge the nurse as a result of the nursing action?

a. Social isolation related to impaired ability to trust b. Impaired mobility related to fear of hostile impulses c. Disturbed steep patterns related to impaired thinking ability d. Risk for other-directed violence related to perceptual distortions 71. A client tells a nurse voices are telling him to do "terrible things." Which of the following actions is part of the initial therapy? a. Find out what the voices are telling him. b. Let him go to his room to decrease his anxiety. c. Begin talking to the client about an unrelated topic. d. Tell the client the voices aren't real. 72. A client is preoccupied with his belief that the CIA has been planning to take him away to save the agency from his influence. These delusions are a defense against which of the following underlying feelings? a. Aggression b. Guilt c. Inferiority d. Persecution 73.1n preparation for discharge, a client diagnosed with schizophrenia was taught self-symptom management as part of a relapse prevention program. Which of the following statements indicates a client

a. assault b. battery c. negligence d. invasion of privacy 76. A registered nurse arrives at work and is told to report (float) to the intensive care unit (ICU) for the day because the ICU is understaffed and needs additional nurses to care for the clients. The nurse has never worked in the ICU. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action? a. Refuse to float to the ICU b. Call the hospital lawyer c. Call the nursing supervisor d. Report to the ICU and identify tasks that can be safely performed 77. A nurse who works on the night shift enters the unit and finds a coworker with a tourniquet wrapped around the upper arm. The coworker is about to insert a needle, attached to a syringe containing a clear liquid, into the antecubital area. The most

appropriate initial action by the nurse is which of the following? a. Call the police b. Call security c. Lock the coworker in the medication room until help is obtained d. Call the nursing supervisor 78. Which of the following interventions is important for a client who engages in sexual act with animals (zoophilia)? a. Place the client is the seclusion room. b. Assess triggers that stimulate the behaviors. c. Have the primary health care provide order and antidepressant medication. d. Counsel the client not to discuss his sexual behaviors with anyone. 79. A 38-year-old woman was returning home from the store late one evening and was sexually assaulted. When she's brought to the emergency department, she's crying. Which of the following concerns for this client should be the nurse's first priority? a. Filing a police report b. Calling the client's family c. Encouraging the client to enroll in a self-defense class d. Remaining with the client and assisting her through the crisis 80. Which of the following therapies may be used with a client who admits to frottage? a. Electroconvulsive therapy b. Relaxation therapy c. Administration of psychotic agents d. Positive reinforcement and group therapy

b. A client with a diagnosis of voyeurism c. A client who's an exhibitionist d. A client who's a homosexual 83. The nurse is obtaining a health history from a client when he states he has been diagnosed with voyeurism. The nurse knows which of the following actions is characteristic of a voyeur? a. Observing others while they disrobe b. Wearing clothing of the opposite sex c. Rubbing against a no consenting person d. Using rubber sheeting for sexual arousal 84. Which of the following definitions best describes necrophilia? a. Obscene phone calling b. Sexual activity with animals c. Sexual activity with corpses d. Sexual arousal by contact with urine 85. A study describing the evaluation of aseptjc technique would be which type of study? a. Longitudinal b. Descriptive c. Historical d Evaluation 86. If a bill has been approved by the joint conference Committee of Congress, This means that: a. The bill is now a law b. The bill will be sent to the President of the Philippines c. The bill will be discussed by the senators and the congressman, for its merit d. The bill will be print out and distributed

81. When working with a client with paraphiliac disorder, which of the following goals is appropriate for the client?

87. A 39-year-ofd mate wishes to undergo a sexreassignment operation, because 'he feels trapped in his male body. Which of the following actions is the next step the client should take if he wants to have the operations?

a. To attend all meetings on the unit b. To use triggers to initiate sexual behaviors c. To inform his employer of the reason for hospitalization d. To verbalize appropriate methods to meet sexual upon discharge

a. Tell his family and friends b. Attend psychotherapy c. Visit transsexual bars d. See a surgeon

82. When assessing rooms for clients, the nurse should not place which of the following clients with a client who has a diagnosis of sexual sadism? a. A client with a diagnosis of sexual masochism

88. A 35-year-old male who has been married-for 10 years arrives in the psychiatric clinic stating, "I can't live this lie any more. I wish I were a woman, I don't want my wife. I need a man." Which of the following initial actions would be most appropriate from the nurse?

a. Call the primary health care provider. b. Encourage the client to speak to his wife. c. Have the client admitted. d. Sit down with the client, and talk about his feelings. 89 A female client enjoys wearing men's clothing. Her sister tells the nurse that the client wishes a sexual reassignment operation. The client tells the nurse she just wants to be left. Which of the following initial nursing interventions is most appropriate? a. Allow the client to deal with her sister. b. Encourage the client to verbalize her feelings. c. Tell the client's sister to mind her own business. d. Encourage the client to continue doing what is comfortable for her. 90. A male client brings a list of his prescribed medications to the clinic. During the initial assessment, he tells the nurse that he has been experiencing delayed ejaculation. Which drug class is associated with this problem? a. Anticoagulants b. Antibiotics c. Antihypertensive d. Steroids 91. A client in a psychiatric unit has been identified as peeping Tom. What's the medical term for the client's disorder? a. Voyeurism b. Gender identity disorder c. Pedophilia d. Fetishism 92. Mrs. Peralta was also issued a professional license by the Professional Regulation Commision. It is a: 1. A permanent right 2. A vested interest 3. A legal right 4. A privilege 5. Means to protect society and promote general welfare

b. N. R.# 557 Series 1988 c. N. R. #08 Series 1994 d. N. R. # 633 Series 1984 94. The devise or technique an investigator employs to collect data is called: a. Sample b. Instrument c. Hypothesis d. Concept 95. Being an I. V. Licensed Nurse, it is renewed? a. every 2 years b. every 6 months c. it depends d. no renewal at all 96. A nurse lawyer provides an education session to the nursing staff regarding client's rights. A staff nurse asks the lawyer to describe an example that might relate to invasion of client privacy. Which of the following indicates a violation of the right? a. Taking photographs of the client without consent b. Telling the client that he or she cannot leave the hospital c. Threatening to place the client in restraints d. Performing a surgical procedure without consent 97. If found to be telling the truth, the nurse may be released right away. The fact That morphine sulfate was meant to be given to a relative as prescribed by a licensed physician considered to be a a. Justifying circumstances b. Mitigating c. Exempting d. Aggravating 98. Example of intentional torts includes: a. malpractice and assault b. malpractice and negligence c. false imprisonment and battery d. negligence and invasion of privacy

93. Nursing Resolution concerning with 1.V. Training Program:

99. In a certain hospital whenever there are patients in the recovery room, 2 nurses are usually present. The hospital policy expects the nurses to take their breaks before patients arrive from surgery. On this particular day, there are 2 nurses on duty and 2 patients in the recovery room who have had minor surgeries performed that morning. One nurse had not had a coffee break that morning. The nurse should:

a. N. R. #1955 Series 1989

a. Stay because hospital policy expects there to be

a. 1,2,3 b. 2,3,4 c. 3,4,5 d. 1,3,4

two nurses in attendance while there are patients in the recovery room. b. Leave for coffee break because there are only 2 patients in the recovery room and one nurse can handle 2 patients quite easily. c. Talk with the nursing supervisor and secure permission from him/her. d. Leave to get coffee and come right back.

Situation: A sound scientific basis is essential for quality professional practice.

100. A client with anorexia nervosa has started taking flouxetine hydrochloride (Prozac). Which of the following adverse reactions complicates the treatment of this eating disorder?

a. Henderson b. Roy c. Orem d. Abdellah

a. Drowsiness b. Dry mouth c. Light-headedness d. Nausea

2. Like other professions, what is unique in professional nursing?

NURSING BOARD EXAM PRACTICE TEST 7

1. When you assist an individual to do what be cannot normally do in illness, you are using which nursing theory?

a. Its compassionate and caring role b. Its caring role c. A well-defined body of knowledge and expertise d. Its environment in nursing research 3. According to Freud, the ego serves this function: a. Resorvoir of instincts, basics drives and wishes b. Reality testing c. Moral arm of the personality d. Resorvoir of psychic energy 4. Horence Nightingale conceptualizes that nursing is. a. the act of utilizing the environment of the patient to assist him in his recovery b. assisting the individual sick or well in the performance of those activities contributing to health or its recovery or to peaceful death c. a humanistic science dedicated to compassionate concern with rehabilitating the sick or disabled. d. a unique profession, in that it is concerned with all the variables affecting an individual’s response to stressors. 5. Which of the following nursing theorists conceptualizes that all persons strive to achieve self-care. a. Sister Callista Roy b. Dorothea Orem c. Dorothy Johnson d. Jean Watson 6. Which of the following nursing theorists introduced Transcultural Nursing Model? a. Imogene King b. Myra Levine c. Ida Jean Orlando d. Madeleine Leininger

7. Which of the following moral theories is based on respect for other humans and belief that relationships are based on mutual trust? a. Erikson’s theory b. Kohlberg's theory c. Freud’s theory d. Schulman and Mekler’s theory Stuation: The primary function of the Department of Health is the promotion, protection, preservation or restoration of the health of the people though the provision and delivery of health services. 8. What is the vision of the Department of Health a. Responsible for the formulation, planning, implemented, and coordination of policies and programs in the field of health b. Regulates health goods and services c. Health as Right. Health for all Filipinos by the year 2000 and Health in the hands of the People by the year 2020 d. All of the above 9. DOH should work to make enjoyment of the right to health a reality. What is the mission of DOH? a. by promoting the means to better health b. by planning the programs in the field of health c. by encouraging providers of health goods and services d none of the above

13. Baby Boy Noel was admitted and the doctor ordered D5NSS 1L x KVO. The nurse should calibrate the IVF to: a. 5 gtts/min b. 10 gtts/min c. 15 gtts/min d. 20 gtts/min 14. Baby Girl Lee, the neighbor of Baby Boy Noel was brought also to the clinic by her mother for the immunization. What immunization will be given if Baby Girl Lee is 9 months old? a. BCG b. Measles c. DPT d. Polio 2 15. ORESOL has been introduced to the barangay for dehydration. To prepare for the solution, what will be the desired amount? a. 2 glasses of water + ½ tbsp. of salt b. ½ glass of water+1 tbsp. of salt + 3 tbsp. of sugar c. 2 ½ glasses of :water + 2 tbsp. of salt + ½ tbsp. of sugar d. 1 glass of water + 1 pinch of salt + 1 tbsp. of sugar 16. What is your initial nursing action before you suction the patient?

10. What is the normal temperature of a child who is 1-3 year of age?

a. perform suctioning b. document relevant data c. hyperventilate the patient d. dispose the equipment and ensure availability for the next suction

a. 39.1 C b. 35 C c. 37 C d. 38 C

Situation: Lady Lee, age 5 is brought to the pediatric clinic by her mother, who reports that Lady Lee has a sore throat and fever and will not eat or drink. The physician diagnosis epiglottitis.

11. To convert the body temperature of 38 C to F, what’s the answer?

17. Which symptoms are associated with epiglottitis?

a. 107.9 F b. 106.2 F c. 95 F d. 100.4 F

a. Dyspnea. restlessness, hoarseness and moaning b. Leaning forward, anxiety, drooling, and a muffled voice c. Crouching, leaning with hands stretched out in back, and extended neck d. Ruddy complexion, distended neck veins, and knee-chest position

12. The Rural Health Doctor orders Dextran 12% 1000 ml within 8 hours for a client. Drop factor is 12 gtt/ml. Solve for the gtt/min.

18. The nurse's first action when caring for Lady Lee should be to:

a. 24-5 gtts/min b. 25 gtts/min c. 25.5 gtts/min d. 26 gtts/min

a. Obtain a tracheostomy set and notify the physician b. Begin respiratory precautions immediately c. Obtain I. V. and oxygen equipment d. Obtain a cardiac monitor and an emergency equipment cart

19. Tracheostomy is an opening through the neck into the trachea through which an indwelling tube maybe inserted which of the following is not a part of tracheostomy set? a. cannula b. respirator c. obturator d. cuff

25. According to Orem's Mode!, which nursing intervention would you render to a one hour post-operative patient? a. Universal b. Supportive-educative c. Wholly compensatory d. Partially compensatory 26. What area of CHN bag is considered sterile?

20. Hand washing is important in every setting including hospitals. Which of the following is inappropriate during hand washing when observing a sterile technique. a. Hold the hands higher than the elbows during hand wash b. Maintaining the hands uppermost when applying soap c. After washing and rinsing, use a towel to dry one hand thoroughly in a rotating motion from the elbow to the fingers d. Let the running water run from the fingertips to the elbows Situation: A place in Brgy. Canla has a common cause of Iodine deficiency where their main products are "Goitrogenics." 21. Which of the following are considered goitrogenics? a. mandarins b. kangkong c. tomato d. cassava 22. Which of the following are rich source of Iodine? a. talaba b. liver c. lean meat d. gizzard Situation: Larry was admitted at Manila Doctor's Hospital because of a second-degree burn wound. 23. Before debriding a second-degree burn wound in the left lower leg, the nurse should do which of the following? a. Apply Lindane (Kwell) to the affected area b. Medicate the client with narcotic analgesic c. Administer acylovir (Zovirax) IV d. Apply a topical antimicrobial ointment 24. Larry’s anterior trunk, both front upper extremities, both lower extremities sustained second and third degree burn. Estimate the total percentage of body surface area burned using the Rule of Nines. a. 60% b. 63% c. 62% d. 61%

a. outside b. sheath c. inside d. sides Situation: These are nutritional needs of the mother during her pregnancy. 27. Nancy who just delivered a baby boy works as an executive for a big company. Which of these should the nurse first encourage? a. Mixed feeding b. Bottle feeding c. Leave the baby in the nursery d. Breastfeeding Situation: Mr. Reyes, 59 years old is a frequent visitor of Lions Club. Lately, he became inefficient with his work and complaining of dizziness. 28. You stressed to him and to the finally the importance of the following food that will help in the production of RBC, EXCEPT: a. kangkong b. egg yolk c. broccoli d. ampalaya 29.500 ml of blood was ordered for his blood transfusion. Your nursing responsibility before the start of blood transfusion is: a. check the amount of blood available b. check the label of the bottle with blood c. check if Benadryl is ordered for injection d. check the vital signs 30. Your health teaching to his family is to serve food rich In Iron and this is: a. egg yolk b. ampalaya c. liver d. lean meat

Situation: The following questions pertain to the nurse and responsibilities. 31. Concerned with the care of school-children, the nurse does the following. EXCEPT: a. provides for a safe environment b. detects, diagnose, and treats children with health problems c. identifies and refers children with eye problems d. conducts health education classes 32. An important reason why erasures In the patient's chart should be avoided is: a. chart would look dirty and reflects, the nurse personality b. recording maybe illegible c. chart is a legal document d. chartings are essential for endorsement and follow-up care of patient

in care planning is: a. highlights your critical thinking and decision-making b. focuses in cause of the illness c. helps to define what is health d. identifies what the nurse can prescribe Situation: The following questions pertain to nursing care of child with cardiovascular, disorders. 37. Amy, 6 years old, Is admitted with an impression of rheumatic fever. To help establish the diagnosis of rheumatic fever, which of these questions should the nurse ask? a. Did Amy travel abroad recently? b. Did Amy remark of fatigability? c. Did Amy have sore throat recently? d. Did Amy have viral infections? 38. Nurse Jo reviews the laboratory data of Amy. Of these data, one would be supportive of a diagnosis of rheumatic fever?

Situation: This pertains to human anatomy and physiology. 33. The principal factor-causing vaginal pH to be acidic: a. Action of Doderlein's bacillus b. Cervical mucus changes c. Secretions from Skene's glands d. Secretions from the Bartholin’s glands

a. low hematocrit b. increased leukocyte count c. high erythrocyte sedimentation rate d. elevated antibody level 39. Bob who is diagnosed with rheumatic fever is prescribed with Aspirin. The purpose of this medication is to:

Situation: In one of your conference with the midwives, you answered the question pertaining to computation and presentation of statistical data at the Rural' Health Unit. Some of the questions are the following among others.

a. reduce inflammation b. relieve anxiety c. control headache d. decrease fever

34. The following measures is used as a numerator to capture for the infant mortality rate:

Situation: Professional nursing practice primarily aims to promote health and prevent illness.

a. Total number of deaths from maternal causes in same year b. Total number of registered live births of a given year c. Total number of deaths less than 1 year of age registered in same calendar year d. Total number of deaths registered in same calendar year

40. The meet basic goal of health promotion is:

35. In order to present the frequency of occurrence of new cases of PNA In the municipality you have to compute for the: a. prevalence rate b. case fatality rate c. proportionate mortality rate d. incidence rate Situation: Nursing as a profession benefits from the use of nursing diagnosis process in professional clinical practice. 36. The most important values of the use of nursing diagnosis

a. healthy b. absence of disease c. no illness d. wellness 41. You are a factory nurse in a bottling industry. What priority health promotion program can you undertake? a. Physical fitness program b. Accident prevention program c. Formulating work strategy d. Relaxation exercises Situation: Your 13 year old daughter tells you that she is having her menarche and that she fees awful. To comfort her, you would explain the menstrual cycle.

informs her that a side effect of this medication may be: 42. You start by defining menstruation is: a. Expelling of the unfertilized egg which causes the bleeding b. Soughing off the perimetrium c. Sign of an aborted pregnancy d. Monthly sloughing off of the uterine tiring that had been prepared to nurture a fertilized egg.

a. multiple gestation b. headache c. transitory depression d. hypertension

43. Ovulation usually occurs on the:

Situation: The following pertains to some concepts and principles of community health nursing (CHN) that a nurse must apply in carrying out CHN services.

a. 28th day of a 28 day menstrual cycle b. 1st week of a 28 day menstrual cycle c. last week of a 28 day menstrual cycle d. 14th ay of a 28 day menstrual cycle

49. Community health Nursing is a service that is provided in an environment that is constantly changing. This implied that the community health nurse to be able to provide relevant services.

44. The secretory phase is characterized by the secretion or storage nutrients, glycogen and mucin. This is due to the action of:

a. must involve other disciplines In carrying out health care services in various settings b. must provide a service that is community-based c. must provide a service that is integrated and comprehensive d. must update her knowledge on the current and evolving characteristics of health care system

a. prolactin b. estrogen c. androgen d. progesterone 45. To allay the fears of your daughter regarding losing too much blood during menses, you would tell her that the average blood lost per cycle is: a. 80ml b. lOOml c. 120 ml d. 30 ml Situation: Mrs. Mia Sandoval, a newly-married couple, plan to start a family planning clinic to choose the most appropriate contraceptive method for them: 46. Mrs. Sandoval is Interested in IUD. The nurse tells her that its insertion is usually done at this period of the menstrual cycle: a. 7th to 10th days b. 18th to 20th days c. 12th to 16th days d. 1st 104th days 47. Upon further discussion, the nurse talks about the diaphragm which after intercourse must be kept in place for: a. 6-8 hours b. 12-24 hours c. 11-20 hours d. 9-10 hours 48. Mrs. Sandoval talks about friend's infertility problem that was prescribed with Clomid by her physician. The nurse

50. Promotion of health is a major responsibility of the CHN, This refers to; a. Activities that seek to protect clients from potential or actual health threats and their harmful consequences b. Activities directed toward developing the resources of clients that maintain or enhance well-being c. Activities directed toward decreasing the probability of specific illness or dysfunctions in individuals d. Activities aimed to prevent to spread of microorganisms to Individual Situation: The public health nurse performs varied functions and activities in her place of work. 51. In dealing with a primigravida who is afraid of childbirth due to her beliefs and misconceptions. The first thing that the nurses should do is: a. help woman recognize the sign of abnormalities in pregnancy to enable her to report to the midwife b. identify the beliefs and misconceptions and their source c. immediately correct the beliefs and misconceptions d. refer to midwife for regular follow-up visit 52. Kwashiorkor is a condition usually seen among pre- school children. This is characterized by which of the following signs? a. all these signs b. retarded growth and hairs c. loss of appetite d. edema

53. Vitamin A deficiency will lead to which of the following conditions? a. high blood pressure b. swollen face, body and limb c. inability to see in the dark d. enlargement of the neck 54. Grace was referred to you by a midwife. In order to determine whether Grace is suffering from severe calorie deficiency, which of the following condition will you take note of? a. thin, sparse hair b. an extreme wasting away of fat muscle c. paleness of the inner side of the lips d. generalized swelling of the body Situation: You are the new Public Health Nurse in the Municipality of Pontevedra. This municipality has the following data in 2003: Population - 30,000 Total infants death - 11 Total number of cases examined for PTB - 200 Total births - 500 All causes -74 Number of confirmed positive of PTB cases - 5 55. You need to gather a lot of data about the community. Which of these can be given least priority? a. community's belief and practice b. community s political leadership c. community's knowledge in health d. community's way of life

58. Supplementary feeding should be started: a. at the age of 8 -12 months b. at the age of 8 months c. not earlier than 2 months but not later than 4 months d. not earlier than 4 ninths but and later than 6 moths 59. You're Interested to know whether Tristan has signs of malnutrition. Hence, you will: a. weigh the child and perform physical assessment b. weigh the child c. perform a physical assessment d. refer to physician or nearest health facility Situation: Atypical teenager, Susan, 17 years old, is in her 3rdyear high school. Besides sports and other school activities, she volunteers for community outreach programs in her school, among them going to the slums of Tondo. 60. Susan wears contact lenses. But she claims that these are so comfortable she forgets to removes them at night. As the school nurse, you caution that she should not sleep with her soft contact lens because they can damage one of these: a. sciera b. optic nerve c. cornea d. pupil 61. In one of her information- sharing, Susan mentions that her mother was taking diethyistijbestrd (DES) when she was pregnant withjier. The nurse feels that she must suggest 'to Susan one ofthese. \Wch os correct?

56. You studied the figures of disease and accidents that occurred in Pontevedra for the last 2 years. These figures are referred to as:

a. "I wiH take your Pap smear for laboratory exams." b. "Do nd use the pi!! for contraception." c. "Please see a gynecologist as soon as possible." d. "Avoid us! ng lampoons during menstruation."

a. mortality statistics b. mortality and morbidity statistics c. rates and ratios d. morbidity statistics

Situation: Miss Go is a clinical instructor in Community Health Nursing discussing about vital statistics, epidemiology and laws affecting Public Health and practice of Community Health Nursing.

57. Which of the following gives a good reflection of the state of health of Pontevedra?

62. It is concerned with the study of factors that influence the occurrence and distribution of diseases, defects disability or deaths. This is:

a. maternal morbidity rate b. age-specific death rate c. infant mortality rate d. crude death rate Situation: In one of your home visits you discovered that Tristan, 2 years old who lives with Mang Tero his lolo is still on bottle feeding. No supplementary feeding given:

a. Epidemiology b. Statistics c. Public Health d. Community Health Nursing 63. The Republic Act that refers to the Magna Carta of Public Health Workers:

a. R.A 2382 b. R.A 1062 c. R.A 7305 d. R.A 6425

a. once a month after menstruation b. once a month before menstruation c. every ether month after menstruation d. every other month before menstruation

64. Republic Act 7164 known as the "Philippine Nursing Act of 1991" embodies the regulation of Practice of Nursing in the Philippines. A member of the Board of Nursing must be:

70. There are several risk factors with developing cancer. The following are risk factors of cancer, except:

a. Citizen of the Philippines b. RN and holder of Master's Degree c. 10 years of continuous practice of the profession d. All of the above Situation: Mr. Laurel, a public nurse is conducting community class in Brgy. Kawayan about pulmonary tuberculosis. 65. Category 3 treatment regimen for TB is prescribed to: a. New pulmonary TB patients whose sputum is positive b. Previously treated patients who are on relapse c. New pulmonary TB patients whose sputum is serumnegative for 3x and a chest x-ray of PTB minimal d. Previously treated patients who are failures 66. What TB drug is net given to children under age 6 who are too young to report visual disturbances? a. INH b. Rifampicin c. Ethambutol d. PZA 67. Category treatment regimen for TB Is prescribed. This is given: a. 2 months Intensive phase, 4 months maintenance phase b. 3 months intensive phase, 5 months maintenance phase c. 2 months intense phase, 2 months maintenance phase d. 3 months Intensive phase,6 months maintenance phase Situation: Cancer ranks third in leading cause of morbidity and mortality in the Philippines. Early detection Increases the survival rate of those afflicted. You are a nurse in a cancerprevention and screening clinic and are for health education. 68. The following are warning signs of cancer. Which one is not? a. Change In bladder and bowel habits b. Indigestion or difficulty in swallowing c. Weight gain d. Nagging cough or hoarseness 69. Monthly examination (BSE) can help in early detection of breast CA. When do you perform BSE?

a. age b. race c. ordinal petition In the family d. lifestyle 71. A form of cancer therapy wherein a beam of high-energy electromagnetic radiation desires the cancer ceils? a. surgery b. radiation therapy c. chemotherapy d. pallitive treatment Situation: Mental health covers the psychosocial concerns of daily living covering the stages of life. Efforts to train manpower have been done by the government through the National Mental Health Programs. 72. Mental health is defined as: a. A disturbance in a person's thoughts, feelings and behavior. b. A state of well-being where a person can realize his or her own abilities, to cope with the normal stresses of life and work productively. c. A science which deals with measures employed to promote mental health, to reduce the incidence of mental illness through preservation and early treatment. d. is concerned with the promotion of mental health, prevention of mental disorders, and the nursing care of patients during mental illness and rehabilitation. 73. The following are nursing responsibilities in mental health promotion except: a. Participate in the promotion of mental health among families and the community b. Help people in the community understand basic emotional needs c. Teach parents the Importance of providing emotional support to their children d. Be aware of the potential causes of breakdown and when necessary take possible preventive action 74. A nurse works in a mental health facility that a therapeutic community (milieu) to client. Which of the following statements describes the nurse's role in this facility? a. Primary caregiver

b. Member of the milieu c. Supervision more than counseling d. Distinctly seperate from the psychiatrist 75. A community mental health nurse visits a client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. When she arrives at his house, he calls for Satan, shouts at her, and tells her to back away. Which of the following interventions has priority? a. use his phone and call the police b. remain safe by leaving the house c. talk to him In a calm voice to reduce his agitation d. remind him who she is and that she has nothing to fear Situation: Mrs. Madonna, 46 years old, is brought to the hospital with complaints of nausea, vomiting, and severe epigastric pain. Initial care includes insertion of nasogastric tube (NGT). 76. Which of the following steps should the nurse take first when preparing to insert a nasogastric tube? a. Wash hands b. Apply sterile gloves c. Apply a mask and gown d. Open ail necessary kits and tubing 77. The nurse on duty is inserting a nasogastric tube. Mr. Javier begins to gag. Which actions should the nurse take? a. Remove the inserted tube and notify the physician b. Stop the insertion, allow the client to rest, then continue inserting the tube c. Encourage the client to take deep breaths through the mouth while the tube is being inserted d. Pause until the gagging stops, tell the client to take a few sips of water and swallow as the tube is inserted. 78. Which of the following steps, if taken by the nurse after insertion of nasogastric tube could harm Mr. Javier. a. Affix the nasogastric tube to the nose with tape b. Check tube placement by aspirating stomach contents using a piston syringe c. Check tube placement by instilling 100ml of water into the tube to check for stomach filling d. Document in the chart the insertion, method used to check tube placement, and client's response to the procedure

Situation: As a nurse, you are aware that proper documentation in the patient's chart is a legal responsibility. 80. A nurse gives the wrong medication to a client another nurse employed by the hospital as a risk manager will expect to receive which of the following communications? a. Incident report b. Oral report from the nurse c. Copy of the medication Kardex d. Order changed signed by the physician 81. Performing a procedure on a client in the absence of Informed consent can lead to which of the following changes? a. Fraud b. Harassment c. Assault and battery d. Beach of confidentiality 82. Which of the following characteristics of the client goal in the plan of care is correct? a. Nurse-focused, flexible, measurable and realistic b. Client-focused, flexible, realistic and measurable c. Nurse-focused, time-limited, realistic, and measurable d. Client-focused, time-limited, realistic, and measurable 83. A nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client with exacerbation of asthma. Which of the following time is ideal to begin discharge planning? a. At the time of admission b. The day before discharge c. After the acute episode is resolved d. When the discharge order is written 84. A nurse is witnessing consent from a client before a cardiac catheterization. Which of the following factors is a component of informed consent ? a. Freedom from coercion b. Durable power of attorney c. Private insurance coverage d. Disclosure of previous answers given by the client 85. Implementation of plan of action is done through:

79. Which of the following drug forms can be administered through a nasogastric tube?

a. independent and independent measure b. dependent and independent measure c. dependent and Interdependent measure d. none of the above

a. Enteric b. Oral c. Parenteral d. Sublingual

86. Which of the following has the greatest effect on personal hygiene? a. Culture, knowledge, and social influences

b. Occupation, physical environment and genetics c. Self awareness, time of day, and personnel available for assistance d. Socio-economic status, health and age 87. The most important nursing intervention to correct dryness is: a. Avoid bathing patient until the condition is remedied, and notify the physician b. Ask the physician to refer the patient to a dermatologist and suggest that the patient wear home-laundered sleepwear. c. Consult the dietician about increasing the patient's fat intake, and necessary measures to prevent infection. d. Encourage the patient to increase hid fluid intake, use nonirritating soap when bathing the patient, and apply lotion to the involved areas. Situation: The following questions are concerned with nutrition. 88. Which one is not a function of calcium a. Bone and teeth mineralization b. Absorption of iron and the formation of hgb c. Blood clothing d. Muscle relaxation and contraction 89. Xerophthalmia is characterized by: a. Tunnel vision b. Floaters c. Night blindness d. Window vision 90. A deficiency in protein leads to: a. Kwashiorkor b. Ricketts c. Beri-beri d. Hemorrhage 91. Nutrients are classified according to their structures. Which among these is not a micronutrient? a. Vitamin A b. Iron c. Iodine d. Amino acids

d. Manganese Situation: Osteoporosis is considered a major health and economic problem. One in every four women over age 50 is believed to have this disease. 93. What is the main reason why Asian women are more in developing osteoporosis than African-American women? a. There are more post menopausal aged Asian women b. Banes of Asian women are 30-40% less dense than that of African-American women c. African-American women eat more compared to Asian women d. Asian women have lesser bone mass compared to AfricanAmerican women 94. There are factors that predispose an individual for osteoporosis. What factor is least associated with the disease? a. Decreased level of oxygen b. Calcium deficiency c. Exposure to sunlight d. Lack of exercise 95. Women over 50 years are very much at risk for fractures. Where Is the most common site of fractures to osteoporosis? a. femur b. forearm c. vertebrae d. hips Situation: Mrs. M. has been given a copy of her diet. He consulted you about her prescribed diet. 96. Which of the following diseases results from niacin deficiency? a. diabetes b. beriberi c. pellagra d. megaloblastjc anemia 97. He also asked about Vitamin E. The richest source of Vitamin E is: a. vegetable oil b. milk c. fish d. cereals

92. What mineral works with Vitamin E to protect body compounds from oxidation?

98. The most common vitamin deficiency seen in alcoholics is:

a. Sodium b. Selenium c. Zinc

a. Thiamne b. Riboflavin c. Pyridoxine

d. Pantothenic acid NURSING BOARD EXAM PRACTICE TEST 8 Situation: Mr. S., a patient in MS ward, wants to increase his Vitamin C intake. He also asks you several questions about nutrition. 99. Which of the following foods is not well-known source of Vitamin C? a. tomatoes b. grapefruits c. green and yellow vegetables d. oranges 100. Vitamin C deficiency is characterized by the following except: a. redness and edema of the gums b. pinpoint peripheral hemorrhages c. pernicious anemia d. bones that fracture easily

Situation 1. The following pertains to some concepts and principles of community health nursing that a nurse must apply in carry out CHN services. 1. Community heatlth nursing is a field of nursing which utilize 1. Knowledge about the history and philosophy of public health practices 2. Concepts of epidemiology and bio-statistics 3. Principles of leadership and management 4 Principles of social change a. 1, 2, 3 & 4 b. 1 & 2 C. 2 & 3 d. 1,2 & 3 2. Which of the following features should the nurse incorporate in her practice of community health nursing (CHN)? 1. CHN is oriented to population 2. CHN emphasize health 3. CHN involves interdisciplinary collaboration 4. CHN promotes client participation in determining their own health a. 1, 2, 3 & 4 b. 3 & 4 only c. 1 & 2 only d. 1, 2 & 3 3. In order to strengthen community participation in health activities in the community, which of this following should be done by the Public Health Nurse? 1. Identify the existing and potential leaders of the community 2. Form a core group for health 3. Formulate action program for health 4. Tell the community leaders what to do for their health problems a.1 & 3 b.3 & 4 c.1 & 2 d.2 & 3 4. Which of the following characterize Primary Health Care? 1. Essential health care accessible and acceptable to individual and families in the community 2. The cost of care is affordable to community and country 3. The setting is in tertiary hospitals 4. Require; health personnel and specialized training

d. below the umbilicus of Mona’s right side a. 1 & 4 b. 3 & 4 c. 1 & 2 d. 2 & 3 5. Which of the following statements about the PHN’s role in the community is/are correct? 1. The PHN will only enjoy her work if she accepts her role and is able to perform that role 2. The PHN is a community health nurse if she is able to establish rapport with the community officials and members 3. The PHN wish only give bedside nursing care 4. The PHN can walkthrough mud, work under stress and eat with the people in the barangay

9. The nurse assessed the frequency, duration and intensity of Cynthia's contractions. Which of the following techniques should the nurse use? a. Holding the finger and palm over the area below the umbilicus b. Moving of her ringers of one hand over the uterus pressing into the muscle c. Spreading the ringers of one hand tightly over the hand d. Indenting the uterus in several places during and between contractions 10. During labor, when positioning a client on lithotomy, the nurse should

a.1 & 2 b.3 & 4 C. 2 & 3 d. 1, 2 & 4

a. Make sure the legs are safety strapped on the stirrups b. Put her on semi-ceiling position first c. Gradually lift one legs after the other d. Put up hef client's leg together

Situation 2. Cynthia Payas at 30 weeks of gestation has been admitted to the labor room. She says she been having moderate contractions every 3-5 minutes lasting almost a minute. Her membranes are placed.

Situation 3. An early childhood febrile syndrome affecting the lymphodes was identified by the Public Health Nuse(PHN)

6. From the nurse's assessment findings of Leopold maneuvers TS revealed a soft, rounded mass, irregular nodules on Cynthia's right side and a hard prominence on her right, just above the symphisis. Which of the following best describe the fetal presentation and position? a. ROP b. LOA c. LSA d. RSP 7. Health teaching during the prenatal period emphasize the expectant mother's need to go to the hospital when: a. Contractions are 5-10 min, apart lasting 30 seconds and are felt as strong as menstrual cramp. b. Contractions are 5 min. apart lasting 60 seconds and in increasing intensity c. Contractions are 3-5 min. apart with rectal pressure and bloody show d. contractions are 2-3 min apart lasting 90 seconds and membranes have ruptured 8. The nurse continues with her admission assessment. Which location should the nurse anticipate finding the fetal heart tones? a. above the umbilicus on her left side b. above the umbilicus on her right side c. below the umbilicus of Mona's left side

11. Cristina a three years old girl came to RHU due to fever unresponsive to antibiotics. During assessment, the nurse noticed that she has "strawberry tongue ". Which the following syndrome her diagnosis? a. Karachi fever b. Igarashi fever c. Kawasaki fever d. Nagasaki fever 12. Upon assessment, you have observed that Cristina was irritable with mood changes and cervical lymphadenopalhy. What would you do to her? a. Blame the mother b. Give medication c. Divert bar attention d. Spank her 13. When the doctor arrived, the mother wanted to bring her child to a tertiary hospital. Which level of bars would you put Cristina in? a. fourth b. first c. second d. third 14. Which among the treatment below was ordered by the physician for Cristina's mother to buy from the "Botika sa barangay"?

a. Immunoglobuline b. Antihistamine c. Paracetamol d. Salicylatea 15. Susceptibility of the syndrome that Cristina was affected with, is from what ancestry?

b. Hyperactivity c. An increased interest in reading d. Hand gestures while speaking Situation 5. As a professional nurse you take responsibility for personal & professional growth 21. Regulation of nursing practice is mainly based on:

a. Aryan b. Caucasian c. Asian d. America Situation 4. Hearing, impairment appears to be common among elderly patients. But also occurs among children. 16. To assess the degree of hearing impairment of a 70-yearold client. Which communication approach would you initiate? a. Use verbal communication and observe the response b. Give message to client in writing c. Asks a family member about the client's d. Post a sign "Patient deaf" 17. While you are mating your routine rounds you were told that there is a client in the 1CU who is in respirator and who lip-reads. To establish relationship with him, communication is best accomplished by: a. Speaking slowly but aloud b. Writing messages c. Gesturing while speaking d. Using simple "charade" approach or strategy 18. One of your client's has just undergone an ear surgery. Which of the following would be inappropriate in planning for his care? a. Administration of anti-emetics and analgesics as ordered b. Daily irrigation of the ear canal c. Walking with assistance at least 24 hours after operation d. Teaching the patient to avoid sneezing, coughing and nose blowing 19. Which of the following conditions would an irrigation of the ear canal be appropriate intervention? a. Foreign body in the ear canal b. Serious otitis c. Impacted cerumen d. Tympanic membrane perforation 20. Children who have undetected hearing loss are likely to exhibit which of the following: a. Indifference and lack of interest in the environment

a. Board of Nursing resolutions and pronouncements b Legal rules and principles governing nursing practice c. Standards of nursing practice d. Decisions made by the PRC relating the nursing practice 22. You are a graduate of new BSN curriculum feat aims to prepare a fully functioning nurse. Which of the following best describe this graduate? a. Sensitive awareness to the health needs of society b. Collaboration with multi-sectoral groups c. Compassionate attitude to all those cared for d. Consideration of needs of patients and others 23. Accountability and responsibility in nursing practice is enhanced by utilization of a. Assessment or appraisal tools b. Code of Ethics of nurse's c. Records for care plan d. The nursing process 24. The professional license is renewable every three years during which of the following periods? a. Every April 15 of each year b. Every march 15 of each year c. Every January 20 of each year d. On or before one’s birth month 25. Which of the following Acts means that "Health Workers" are all persons engaged in health relate work regardless of their employment status? a. Magna Carta of Public Health Worker b. Security of Tenure of regular employees c. Discrimination Prohibition d. Code of Conduct and Ethical Standard of Public Officials and Employees Situation 6. Nurses provide care to individuals in the various stages of health & illness. 26. Which of the following are internal factors that influence health practices? a. Family practices b. Norms of society

c. Religious beliefs d. Developmental stage 27. Health-illness continuum refers to which of the following statements? A person

33. The nurse is aware that the nausea and vomiting commonly experienced by many women during the first trimester of pregnancy is an adaptation to the increased level of

a. Can both be healthy or ill b. Is either healthy or sick c. Can be at the level of health & illness d. Is either not healthy or not ill

a. Estrogen b. Progesterone c. Luteinizing hormone d. Chorionic gonadothropin

28. One's ideas convictions and attitudes which influence his level of health is referred to as his:

34. The nurse in the prenatal clinic should provide nutritional counseling to all newly pregnant women because:

a. Health beliefs b. Health habits c. health practice d. health perceptions

a. Most weight gain during pregnancy is fluid retention b. Dietary allowance should not increase during pregnancy c. Pregnant women must adhere to a specific pregnancy diet d. Different sources of essential nutrients are favored by different cultural groups

29. Health Beliefs Model states that one takes health action if: a. Is consistent of his health beliefs b. Get support from family c. Agree with the society's norms d. Will prevent his getting sick

35. Cathy is now in her 8 weeks of pregnancy and complains of having to go to the bathroom often to urinate. The nurse explains to her that urinary frequency often occurs because the capacity of the bladder during pregnancy is diminished by:

30. Health action that keeps one's present level of health is referred to as:

a. Atony of the detrusor muscle b. Compression by the ascending uterus c. Compromise of the autonomic reflexes d. Constriction of the ureteral entrance at the trigone

a. Health enhancement b. Health promotion c. Death prevention d. Health maintenance

Situation 8. AIDS cases has been all over the country and yet only few are reported cases due to the stigma attach to it. 36. What is the causative agent in HIV/AIDS?

Situation 7.Cathy is in the early first trimester of her first pregnancy. , 31. Cathy visits her gynecologist to confirm a suspected pregnancy. During the nursing history, she states that her last menstrual period began April 11. Cathy states that some spotting occurred in May 8. The Nurse calculates that her due date is:

a. trichomonas vaginalis b. Human, T-cell lymphotrophio virus c. Treponema pallidum d. Chlamydia tranchomatis 37. A classic full blown AIDS case is identified by clinical manifestations such as:

a. January 10 b. January 18 c. February 12 d. February 15

a. Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy b. Sudden loss of weight, afternoon fever and general malaise c. Tumors and opportunistic infections d. Fever, weight loss, night sweats and diarrhea

32. Cathy asks the nurse why menstruation ceases once pregnancy occurs. The nurse's best response would be that this occurs because of the

38. Pulmonary complications are the most common problem in caring for AIDS patients. This is caused:

a. Reduction in the secretion of hormones by the ovaries b. Production of estrogen and progesterone by the ovaries. c. Secretion of luteinizing hormone produced by the pituitary d. Secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone produced by the pituitary.

a. Kaposi's Sarcoma b. Filterable Virus c. Pneumonia Carnii d. Staphylococcus bacteria 39. The cause of death of most AIDS patients who develop

multiple opportunistic infections is/are the following: a. Weakened immune system impairs response to therapy b. AH of these (a, b, c) c. Weakened immune system impairs resistance to infection d. Infection cannot be treated effectively 40. Implementation of the following activities can help prevent the transmission of AIDS through the blood. 1. Conduct public education campaign, with the aim of implementation self-deferral of blood donate who are risk of HIV infection 2. Educate health care workers on the correct use of blood 3. Conduct surveillance of women attending anti-natal clinics 4. Use of condoms of those found to be infected with HIV

44. An 87 year old widow was hospitalized for treatment of chronic renal disease. She lives with her daughter and son-inlaw and their family, who are very supportive. She is now ready for discharge. The doctor has ordered high carbohydrates, low-protein, low sodium diet for her and the family has asked for assistance in planning low-sodium diet meals. Which of the following choices best reflects the predischarge information the nurse should provide for the client's family regarding low-sodium diet?

a. 1 & 2 b. 3 & 4 C. 1 & 3 d. 2 & 3

a. Avoid canned and processed foods, do not use salt replacements substitute herbs and replaces for salt in cooking and when seasoning foods, call a dietitian for help. b. Use potassium salts in place of table salt when coking and seasoning foods, read the labels on packaged foods to determine sodium content, and avoid snacks food c. Limit milk and dairy products, cook separate meals that are low in sodium and encourage increased fluid intake d. Avoid eating in a restaurant, soak vegetables well before cooking to remove sodium, omit all canned foods, and remove salt shakes from table.

Situation 9. One of the main fools of the nursing profession is the use of therapeutic communication. The following situation would require you of your communication skills.

45. You are encouraging your patient for major cancer operation to verbalize her fears. She remarked," I am afraid to do". Your appropriate response is

41. A patient who is diagnosed to have terminal illness tells you. "I’m really scared. Am I dying?" What could be your most appropriate response?

a. "I know how you feel about your condition". b. "Don't worry, you are in good hands." c. "Let me call a chaplain to see you." d. "Let us asks your doctor about your operation."

a. "Tell me about what you think." b. "I'm sure you are scared; other clients in your situation feel the same way." c. "You should be careful not to let your family know you're scared" d. "Why are you scared?" 42. The nurse assessing a male client who has been admitted for treatment of alcoholism. Which question by the nurse is least appropriate? a. "How much do you think?" b. "What other drugs do you use?" . c. "How is your general health?" d. "Why do you drink so much?" 43. A 58-year-old male client tells the office nurse that his wife does not let him change his colostomy bag himself. Which response by the nurse indicates as understanding of the situation? a. "Your wife's need to help you is a reality you should accept" b. "Do you think your wife might benefit from counseling?" c. "You feel you need privacy when changing your colostomy?" d. "Have you discussed the situation with your doctor?"

Situation 10. You are assigned as a public health nurse to oversee the different health activities in your community. 46. While you were going over the record of Mrs. Uy who missed her prenatal appointment date. Her review of the family folder showed the following: GR-II, PARA II; with slight edema; BP=150/100. Mra. Uy eldest son in underweight is sick of H-fever. Nurse Linda planned a home visit. Which of the following would you give priority in planning her for the family? a. Mrs. Uy's eldest son who is sick with H-fever b. Mrs. Uy pre-eclampsia c. Nutritional status of Mrs. Uy’s eldest son d. Family potential threat of cross-infection from H-fever 47. The midwife refers to you a family who fails to take action regarding a sick member of the family despite her suggestions. In helping the family decide on what actions to take you will. 1. Explain the consequences of inaction 2. Identify the courses of action open to the family and resources needed for each 3. Discuss the consequences of each course of action available 4. Influence me family to act on what you think is best for the

situation a. 1 & 4 b. 2, 3 & 1 c. 2 & 3 d. 4 only 48. Elisa is on her 1 1/2 month pregnancy. Her first child 3 1/2 months old. She asked you if she should stop breastfeeding her first baby since she is now pregnant. Your response should be the following. EXCEPT: a. Breastfeeding during pregnancy is not harmful to either of the babies. b. Sudden weaning can be harmful and can make the older child ill c. Breast milk is only valuable until the child is 4 months old d. She can start giving solid foods in preparation for weaning when her child is 4 to 6 months old 49. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Community Health Nursing (CHN)? a. Professional growth and development of the PHN is the responsibility of the Department health b. Provision of CHN care is not any way affected by policies of the agency where the Nurse work c. The PHN worked with community 19 for 6 years can solely determine the health needs of the community d. Evaluation of the health status of individuals and families should be done in consultation with them 50. In developing capability of people to assume more responsibility for their health, which of the following statements would you consider most important?

b. 65 to 74 years old c. 75 to 84 years old d. 85 years old and above 53. Factors that affect Reproductive health includes, except, a. Socio-economic b. Status of Women c. Status of Men d. Social and Gender Issues 54. Element of Reproductive Hearth is responsible for the sex education for students, a. Men's Reproductive Health b. Adolescent Reproductive Health c. Family Planning d. V.A.W 55. Essential Tool used in Community Health Nursing, that saves time and effort, a. Bag technique b. Public Health Bag c. BP Apparatus d. Thermometer Technique 56. Principles in Home Visit include, except a. Home visit should have an objective or purpose. b. Planning of Home Visit should be flexible and practical. c. Planning revolves around the needs of the Nurse. d. Planning should revolve around the essential needs of the family, 57. Steps in Home Visit, which should be done initially?

a. Lead-lag in the health activities b. Organizing me community for health c. Identifying health problems with the people d. Making medicine available Situation 11. Demographic profile of the elderly population is important in the nursing profession and it is therefore important to know the basic facts about it 51. According to the definition of UN and WHO elderly people are who belong to the age bracket of a. 60 years old and above b. 65 to 74 years old c. 85 years old and above d. 75 to 84 years old 52. There are four classifications of elderly, which age group do old-old person, belong a. 55 to 60 years old

a. Wash hands b. Greet Client or household c. Explain purpose of visits d. Ask about client's health status. 58. After home delivery, the Nurse should include in her health teaching a. Circumcision of the Infant b. Immunization c. Starting the infant on bottle feeding d. Breast feeding of infant 59. In giving tetanus toxoid immunization for pregnant women, the first dose should be given. a. Second Trimester b. 3rd Trimester c. 1 year after delivery d. as early as possible during pregnancy

60. The legal mandate that supports the PHC act a. LOI 949 b. PD 996 c. E.O 51 d. RA7180

a. Prevalence rate b. Endemic c. Fatality rate d. Mortality rate Situation 13. Theories regarding the aging process were formulated in order to guide the health care profession in their care of the elderly patient.

61. Requirements to be a Public Health Nurse Includes 66. Theories proposed to explain aging are organized as: 1. Filipino citizen 2. BSN, RN 3. Masters degree in Nursing 4. 3 years as a C. I a. 1, 3 b. 3, 4 c. 1, 2 d. 2, 4 62. Which of the following statements best explain the concept of people empowerment? a. People are the health beneficiaries b. People themselves are health resources c. People can demand health services d. People are our partners in health

a. Fully explanatory and partially explanatory b. Complete and incomplete c. Genetic, biochemical and sociopsychological d. Known and unknown 67. In the "Wear and Tear" theory of aging continued use of the body is supposed to lead to worn out parts, similar to the breakdown and wearing out ®f old machinery. This could not explain aging because: a. Continued use has little effect b. Nothing over wears out completely c. The human body can’t be compared to machinery d. Greater use leads to improvement in some systems such as muscles

63. As a PHN you also have an active role in disease surveillance sod epidemiology of disease in the community. Among others you also do the following.

68. The "Somatic Mutation Theory" states that low doses of radiation accelerate aging. The theory has been criticized for three reasons. Which of the following is not of the reasons why this theory explains little about the aging process.

1. Immediately inform the rural health physician of any unusual increases cases in the community disease. 2. Conduct epidemiological investigation on all reported outbreaks 3. Request the midwife to graph weekly disease incidence cases in the municipality 4. Assist in the planning and implementing disease control measures during outbreak

a. Sunscreens are now available to block out fee harmful ultraviolet rays b. The effect of the sun occurs mainly in dividing cells while the effects of aging are seen mainly in calls that no longer divide c. The number of cells that undergo mutation is too small to account for overall aging. d. Most cells contain mechanisms for the repair of DNA

a. 1, 2 & 4 b. 2 & 4 c. 1 & 4 d. 3 & 4

69. Which of the following explains that the critical factor in framing old age concerns is how well persons function in regards to activities of daily living?

64. The habitual presence of a disease or infectious agent within a given geographic area is:

a. The functional capacity theory b. The activity theory c. the disengagement theory d. the personal meaning theory

a. Epidemic b. Endemic c. Pandemic d. Sporadic

70. The view of the older people "Withdraw" from the soclety is:

65. Measures the frequency of occurrence of new cases of a certain disease during a given period of time

a. The adics theory b. The disengagement theory c. The parling theory d. The absence theory

Situation 14. Mrs. Castro is one-week post partum. She visits health center because of fever and intense pain over the episiotomy site.

c. All of these except reduction of morbidity and mortality d. Reduction of morbidity and mortality 77. In recent years, the government have given more emphasis of which of the following.

71. What will be first action of the nurse? a. Assess for signs of anemia b. Determine nutritional status c. Ask for the possibility of sexual intercourse d. Elici: history of delivery 72. Upon inspection the nurse observes an edematous episiotomy site. Which of the following intervention will you first apply? a. Administer antimicrobials as ordered b. Expose the wound to perilight c. Cleanse the episiotomy with iodine solution d. Give oral analgesic 73. Upon inspection the nurse observes an edematous episiotomy site. Which of the following herbal plants can be used to related perineal infection? a. Lagundi b. Banana Leaves c. Herba Buena d. Guava Leaves 74. Breast engorgement can also cause temperature elevation, but does not last longer than how many hours? a. 48 hours b. 12 hours c. 10 hours d. 24 hours

a. Rehabilitation b. Treatment of disease c. Prevention of illness d. Treatment and rehabilitation 78. In your campaign against sexually transmitted disease which of these groups are your target audience for health education? a. Commercial social workers b. All of these groups c. General population d. Health workers and private practitioners 79. Knowing the policies if the National Family Planning Program which of these is the best contraceptive method to use for a couple who have already four children? a. Use of IUD since she is still on her postpartum period b. Natural family planning method since her menstruation is still regular c. A method they will choose and use d. Tubal ligation as this is more permanent method 80. Under the National Center Control Program, the following are primary prevention measures implemented cancer of the mouth except a. Avoidance of inverted cigarette smoking b. None of these c. Improved dental hygiene d. Avoidance of smoking and betel chewing

75. Which of the following is an anti-inflammatory drug? a. Metoprotol succinate b. Mefenamic Acid c. Meperidine hydrochloride d. Mefhylergonovine oaaleate Situation 15. The Department of Health implements various health programs and projects in order to achieve its goals and objectives. As a Public Health Nurse you are one of the implementers of these programs at the municipal level. 76. The primary function of the Department of Health is the promotion, preservation or restoration of the health of the people through. a. Regulation and encouragement of providers of health goods and services b. Provision and delivery of health services

Situation 16. The Community Health Nurse prepares/participate in the preparation of the community health care plan. 81. In order to plan effectively, the nurse needs a -working knowledge on the following, except a. None of these b. The way people view health and how they are using health care services c. Health status profile of the community d. Data on quality assurance 82. In a rural health unit with full man power complement, the nurse's main contribution in the preparation of the total health care plan is the. a. Preparation of the nursing component of the plan

b. Collation of the data on Health Statistics e. Identification of health problem of the barangays d. Analysis of the community survey data 83. Which of the following statement would serve as a guide in the preparation, of the community health care plan? a. Recommendation for action should be stated in quantifiable terms b. The formulation of criteria for evaluating the effectiveness of the plans must be an aspect of planning c. All of these statements d. Problems goals and objectives should be stated in quantifiable terms

88. To accomplish the nursing unit work, you should first get information about: a. Objectives of the unit c. Nursing budget b. Nursing service organizational chart d. Mission of the hospital 89. This is an example of a patient care unit objective a. To ensure adequate unit supplies/materials b. To use the kardex system of charting c. To determine the number of nursing staff needed d. To provide safe nursing

84. Which of the following is a well-stated objective of a community health nursing care plan

90. Which of the following tools can be most helpful in the evaluation of staff performance?

a. To increase the number of mothers coming for prenatal check-up by 25% in 6 months time. b. To increase the number of home visits by 50% c. To increase the coverage for immunization in 1 year time d. To increase the number of children receiving food assistance

a. Performance assessment b. Performance standard c. Performance audit d. Performance appraisal

85. If the objectives of the health care plan is to decrease the number of children with parasitism: by 50% by the end of 2 years, which of these would be an appropriate evaluation indicator? a. Number of children found positive for ascaris/ amebiasis/ hookworm, infection b. Number of children examined for parasitism c. Number of children who consulted for abdominal pain and anemia d. Number of children who were dewormed Situation 17. Your head nurse participated a 2-weeks seminar. You were designated to be an officer-in-charge of your nursing unit. 86. In unit planning which of the following questions initiate the process? a. How to schedule the activities? b. Who will do the planning? c. What is to be accomplished? d. Where to get unit supplies?

Situation 18. Rebecca, a 2 year old and her Mother are consulting the community health nurse 91. The nurse observes Rebecca at play in the clinic. She realizes that at this age, Rebecca could be expected to exhibit which of the following? a. Build houses with blocks b. Is extremely possessive of toys c. Attempts to stay within the hue when coloring d. Amuses herself with a picture book of 15 minutes 92. When observing Rebecca, the nurse would expect her to engage in which type of play? a. Parallel play b. Solitary play c. Competitive play d. tumbling play 93. Rebecca's mother asks the nurse when it would be appropriate to take her to the dentist for dental prophylaxis. What is the nurse most appropriate response?

87. This is an example of data that should be analyzed when identifying missing needs.

a. Before starting school b. Between 2 and 3 years of age c. When Rebecca begins to lose deciduous teeth d. The next time another family member goes to the dental

a. Number of nursing staff b. Medical diagnosis of patient c. Ward supplies and materials d. Patient classification

94. Rebecca's mother say's that Rebecca consistently says "no” every time she is offered fluids. Considering Rebecca's development, how could the nurse assist the mother to increase Rebecca's fluid intake?

a. Distract her with some food b. Be firm and hand her the glass c. Offer her a choice of two things to drink d. Let Rebecca see that she is making her mother angry 95. Rebecca is well and is to be discharged- Her mother asks the nurse why Rebecca persists in saying ''no'' to everything. The nurse explains to Rebecca's mother that this negativism is helping Rebecca to meet a 2 year old need for which of the following? a. Trust b. Attention c. Discipline d. Independence Situation 19. You are the nurse assigned in the nursery unit and your patients are of various ages. 96. Assessment an infant, the nurse knows that a pincer grasp nornally appears a. At the same time as the palmar grasp b. Between 9 & 12 month of age c. Between 5 & 7 month of age d. Along with the ability to "rake" objects toward themselves 97. In a child development, the period of negativism begins when the child a. Can manipulate his or her parents b. Copies negative behavior of sibling. c. Is struggling between dependence and independence d. Is learning manual skills 98. The nurse is caring for a hospitalized toddler who was toilet trained home. He wets his pants. The best response to this situation is to say? a. "Its okay, try not to wet your pants next time” b. "That's okay. Now lets get you cleaned up” c. "I know you understand how to use the toilet; what happened?" d. "Your mom told me you don't wet anymore; what's wrong?" 99. Which of the following behavior would a normal 18 moths old be likely to exhibit during the first few hours of hospitalization? a. Crying loudly when parents leave b. Readily accepting the nurse caring for him c. Showing considerable interest in new toy d. Sitting quietly in the comer of the cab, showing little or no interest in his surrounding 100. Evaluating a 1 month old infant normal developmental

skills, the Nurse should observe that the infant a. Actively follow movement of familiar persons with her eyes b. Responds to "No-No" c. Turns her head to a familiar noise d. Discriminates between family and strangers