Quiz 1
1.
Which of the following is NOT a question marketing research can assist in answering? a. What kinds of people purchase our products? b. What kind of packaging should we use? c. What is our per unit profit margin? d. What is our level of service satisfaction? e. All are marketing research problems.
2.
The most important step in the research r esearch process is a. determining the research design. b. designing data collection method and forms. c. preparing the research report. d. analyzing and interpreting the data. e. formulating the problem.
3.
Which of the following is TRUE? a. The decision problem is also the research problem. b. The decision problem involves determining what information to provide and how that information can best be secured. c. The key difference between the decision problem and the research problem is the decision problem focuses on what action needs to be taken while the research problem focuses on what information to provide and how that information can best be secured. d. The key difference between the decision problem and the research problem is the research problem focuses on what action needs to be taken while the decision problem focuses on what information to provide and how that information can best be secured. e. They are all true.
4.
Which of the following is TRUE? a. Marketing research is a science. b. The first step in choosing a research supplier is to ask for references. c. Marketing research should be carried out whenever there is the potential for learning something new about the problem. d. If decision makers do not know what they want to achieve, a research study can help them make the decision. e. The researcher's written statement describing his or her understanding of the decision problem is called the research request agreement.
5.
Each of the following is part of a typical research proposal EXCEPT a. statement of the marketing problem. b. purposes and limitations of the project. c. cost estimates. d. hypothesized results. e. data sources and research methodology.
6.
The following techniques are useful in order to ensure that the purpose of the research i s agreed upon before the research project is begun, EXCEPT a. development of a research request agreement. b. hypothetical scenario questioning of the decision maker. c. development of a research proposal. d. anticipation of the final research report contents in a form such as a dummy table. e. all of the above are useful techniques to ensure the purpose of the research is agreed upon.
7.
Which of the following is FALSE? a. In exploratory research the major concern is with the discovery of ideas and insights. b. Exploratory research is often used to clarify concepts and to establish priorities for further research. c. Exploratory research investigates hypotheses. d. Exploratory research is used to develop hypotheses. e. Exploratory studies do not lend themselves very well to the use of structured questionnaires
8.
A causal research design is typically concerned with a. the frequency with which something occurs. b. the discovery of ideas and insights. c. how two variables vary together. d. the determination of cause and effect relationships. e. establishing priorities when studying competing explanations of phenomenon. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. Marketing research studies employing the exploratory strategy generally have as a starting point a hypothesis specifying relationships between variables. b. Exploratory research may generally be considered the step that defines the problem. c. Exploratory research is characterized by lack of a prespecified formal design. d. Descriptive studies involve the examination of one or more hypotheses. e. Descriptive studies are rather demanding in terms of the decisions that must be made before data collection begins.
9.
a.
10. A hypothesis is a conjectural statement about the relationship between two variables that are measurable or potentially measurable. b. is a broad, vague problem statement. c. cannot be discovered during research. d. does not have clear implications for testing the relationship between variables. e. is only found in the causal type of research. Quiz 2
1.
The three basic research designs can be looked at as stages in a continuous and often cyclical process. This process represents the investigation of a problem in more depth and detail at each stage b. always moves in sequence from exploratory to descriptive to causal. c. can be sharply divided into exploratory, descriptive and causal stages d. always starts with an hypothesis. e. contains only one study of each type.
2.
The experience survey is a procedure most appropriate for a. exploratory studies. b. descriptive studies. c. Causal Studies d. Concept tests. e. Advertising Copy testing.
a.
3. A focus group a. consists of an interviewer and a subject discussing a single topic of interest to the interviewer. b. is not useful for testing hypotheses.
c. typically consists of four to six members. d. requires selecting members so that they form relatively heterogeneous groups in order to get perspectives from those with different socioeconomic backgrounds. e. involves having subjects fill out a survey on one topic. 4.
Projective techniques are used less frequently than unstructured direct methods (focus groups and depth interviews). A possible exception may be _____, which is used commonly to test brand names and occasionally to measure attitudes about particular products, brands, packages, or advertisements.
a. b. c. d. e.
story completion word association sentence completion Zaltman Metaphor Elicitation Technique cartoon tests
5. a.
Which of the following is FALSE? Individuals who have previously participated in a focus group are particularly valuable to researchers because they will have a more relaxed attitude than first-time members. b. Focus group moderators typically attempt to cover all the objectives of the research in a single meeting while ensuring that group interaction is promoted. c. Product and service ideas can drop "out of the blue" in focus group sessions. d. Ideas from one focus group member can stimulate responses and ideas from other group members. e. They are all false. 6. a. b. c. d. e.
Benefits of focus groups include ideas can drop "out of the blue." snowballing of ideas. more spontaneous responses than in one on one interviews. easy interpretation of responses. a, b, and c.
7. a.
Which of the following about the word-association and sentence-completion methods is FALSE? Both are structured in regard to presenting the stimuli and are unstructured in regard to the response. b. The degree of structure associated with these methods tends to substantially reduce the coding problems of unstructured methods. c. Sentence-completion in comparison to word-association has the advantage in that the respondent can be provided with a more directed stimulus. d. Both are examples of unstructured-disguised questioning. e. Both are examples of projective techniques. 8. a. b. c. d. e.
Which of the following are NOT projective techniques? sentence completion tasks depth interviews word association tasks story telling Thematic Apperception Tests
9. a. b. c.
One of the most severe difficulties experienced with projective methods arises in the interpretations of the replies. when trying to secure the respondent's cooperation. in the lack of experience of the respondents with these techniques.
d. in the distorted frame of reference of the interviewers. e. There are no problems with projective methods. 10. In _____, an individual is presented with a stimulus and asked to respond with the first thing that comes to mind. a. completion techniques b. Construction techniques c. Expressive techniques d. association techniques e. ZMET Quiz 3
1. a. b. c. d. e.
The descriptive study usually takes the form of an experiment. has its major emphasis on the discovery of insights and ideas. is concerned with determining the frequency with w hich something occurs. is concerned with the determination of a cause and effect relationship. has as its main objective the establishment of priorities for future research.
2. a. b. c. d. e.
Which of the following is capable of providing more convincing evidence of causal relationships? an exploratory design an experiment projective methods cross sectional analysis a descriptive design
3. a. b. c. d. e.
Descriptive research is NOT productively used to develop a profile of the "average user." to estimate the proportion of people in a specified population who behave in a certain way. to clarify concepts. to make specific predictions. to determine whether certain variables are associated.
4. a.
The observation method cannot measure all consumer characteristics precisely but can give very good estimates for awareness, intentions, motivations, and past behaviour. b. is limited in that only behaviours can be observed. c. is considered to be more objective than the communication method. d. is a faster means of data collection than the communication method because a detailed questionnaire does not have to be prepared, and observers can quickly record many observations. e. requires development of sophisticated procedures to be effective. 5. a.
Which of the following is NOT an example of the observation method of obtaining data? The researcher classifies people into social class strata by personally rating the furniture in their homes via on site visits. b. An attitude researcher obtains people's reaction to a product display by showing them the display and then conducting depth interviews with the respondents. c. A researcher assesses the popularity of various museum exhibits by noting tile wear in front of each exhibit. d. A researcher notes the sex and race of each person making a purchase during a special sale. e. All of the above are examples of the observation method.
6.
Which of the following affords the researcher the most sample control with respect to getting cooperation from those contacted? a. phone interviews b. personal interview c. mail questionnaire d. a and b e. all of the above 7. a.
Which of the following is FALSE? Mailing lists to serve as the sampling frame for a mail survey may be generated internally by the firm or purchased externally. b. In recent years, one of the keys to using a mail questionnaire is the ability to direct the questionnaire to a specific individual, not just a position (e.g. Vice President of Marketing). c. The quality of the mailing list determines the sampling control in a mail study. d. Mail questionnaires typically provide more sample control than telephone or personal interviews. e. Mail questionnaires provide less control than personal interviews in getting a response from the target person. 8. a.
Which of the following statements are NOT true of mall intercepts? Due to the biased nature of the sampling frame, mall intercepts have become less popular with marketers in recent years. b. One problem with a mall intercept approach is that not everyone shops at malls. c. One problem with a mall intercept approach is that the frequency with which a person shops at a mall affects his or her likelihood of being asked to participate in the study. d. a and c only e. All of the above are true of mall intercepts. 9. a. b. c. d. e.
Long questionnaires can usually be handled best by telephone interview. by mail questionnaire. by personal interview. by a focused group interview. by a depth interview.
10. The problem of non-response due to refusals to participate is a. usually lower with personal interviews than with eit her telephone interviews or mail administered questionnaires. b. usually lower with mail questionnaires than with telephone or personal interviews. c. usually lower with telephone interviews than with mail questionnaires or personal interviews. d. usually the same no matter what communication method is used. e. none of the above are true. Quiz 4
1.
The major kind of evidence regarding causality that can be supplied through a descriptive research design is a. Elimination of other possible causal factors. b. Time order of occurrence of variables. c. Concomitant variation. d. a and c. e. None of the above. 2.
The two types of experiments that can be distinguished are
a. b. c. d. e.
Laboratory and survey. Laboratory and field. Field and survey. Survey and ex post facto. Ex post facto and cross sectional.
3. a. b. c. d. e.
The type of study design that affords the researcher the most control is A descriptive design. An exploratory design. A field experiment. A sample survey. A laboratory experiment.
4. a. b. c. d. e.
A laboratory experiment Is more internally valid than a field experiment. Affords the researcher greater control. Better eliminates effect of extraneous factors. b and c only. a, b and c.
5.
When a researcher tries to ensure that the changes observed in the effect variable are reproducible in other situations, the researcher is attempting to enhance the experiment's a. Internal validity. b. Convergent validity. c. External validity. d. Construct validity. e. None of the above are correct. 6. a. b. c. d. e. 7. a.
In regard to internal and external validity You can't have one without the other. Procedures used to establish internal validity will also establish external validity. They are matters of degree rather than all or nothing proportions. Internal validity is a much more important issue in marketing than external validity. All of the above are true. Which of the following is TRUE of testing effects? Mortality effects refer to the deaths of subjects during hazardous experiments using electronic devices. b. Maturation effects can only be measured in test units c omposed of people. c. Experiments lasting more than two hours are likely to suffer from history effects. d. a and b. e. They are all false. 8.
The conditions that must be satisfied before making causal inferences include all of the following except _____. a. time order of occurrence of variables b. Use of Survey methods to collect data c. concomitant variation d. elimination of other possible factors e. All of the above are conditions that must be met 9. _____ is the extent to which a cause, X, and an effect, Y, occur together or vary together in the way predicted by the hypothesis under consideration. a. The time order of occurrence of variables b. Testing Effect
c. Concomitant variation d. The elimination of other possible factors e. Randomisation 10. _____ is a measure of accuracy of an experiment. It measures whether the manipulation of the independent variables, or treatments, actually caused the effects on the dependent variable(s). a. External validity b. Extraneous validity c. Internal validity d. Mortality e. None of the above Quiz 5
1.
The first step in designing a questionnaire is to a. determine the type of questionnaire and method of administration. b. specify what information will be sought. c. determine the content of individual questions. d. determine the form of response to each question. e. determine the wording of each question.
2. a.
Which of the following is FALSE? Respondents tend to answer questions even when they do not possess the necessary information to give reasonable answers. b. Some questionnaire studies fail because the respondent is willing but is unable to provide the information needed. c. A respondent may be more willing to provide information to a researcher if he or she is capable of articulating answers to the researcher's questions. d. Any response given by the respondent is good. e. Offering an incentive often affects the respondent's willingness to partic ipate. 3.
The question, "How would you judge the price and quality of this product?" a. is double barreled. b. is leading. c. contains an implied alternative. d. contains an implied assumption. e. forces generalization on the part of the respondent.
4. a.
As defined in the text, measurement consists of the assignment of numbers (representing quantities of attributes) to objects o r events according to rules. b. a theory of hypothesis construction. c. isolating those objects which may be shown to possess the mathematical properties of activity. d. a continuum which complies with the basic axioms of mathematics. e. all of the above. 5.
scales possess an absolute zero. a. Nominal b. Ordinal c. Interval d. Ratio e. none of the above
6.
7.
It is reasonable to state that one object has twice as much of the attribute property when it has a score of 60 and the other object has a score of 30 when measurement is on a(n) scale. a. nominal b. ordinal c. interval d. ratio e. interval or ratio A person scoring 78 out of 100 possible on a Likert scale indicates a. the person has a favorable attitude toward the object. b.the person has an unfavorable attitude toward the object. c. the person is neutral toward the object. d.the person has a favorable attitude when compared to the average score of 6 0. e.none of the above.
8.
Which of the following pairs is not appropriate for anchoring a semantic differential scale item in a marketing application? a. good bad b. unbelievable believable c. able to attract attention unable to attract attention d. fluffy hard e. all of the above could be used
9.
Which of the following is FALSE? a. A Likert scale is an example of a comparative rating scale. b. A semantic differential scale is an example of an itemized scale. c. When using graphic rating scales, individuals indicate their rating by placing a check at the appropriate point on a line that runs from one extreme of the attribute to the other. d. Itemized scales are similar to graphic scales in that individuals make their judgments independently. e. Comparative scales involve relative judgments.
10. Validity is a. concerned with the relationships of random error with systematic error. b. equal to the true score plus the systematic error. c. equal to the true score plus systematic error minus random error. d. concerned with the extent to which differences in scores reflect true differences in the characteristic. e. concerned with the extent to which differences in scores reflect instability in the measurements.
